Question Paper

2/22/23, 12:29 PM Question Paper
Mock MHCET-2 2023

Directions for Questions 1 to 5: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph.
Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a
coherent paragraph.
Q 1. (a) Starting his political career as a moderate leader of Indian National Congress like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Surendra Nath
Banerjee, Feroz Shah Melita etc., he ended his life in the chessboard of communal politics.
(b) Taking birth in a lower middle class family of Karachi in December 1876, this ambitious man went to London to study law.
(c) In the history of India's freedom movement, if anybody had played a very significant as well as a controversial role, he was
none other than Mohammed Ali Jinnah.
(d) He was able not only to regulate the history of the liberation movement; he also could change the map of India with the creation
of a separate Muslim majority nation.
A) abcd
B) bacd
C) acbd
D) cadb
Q 2. (a) In other words oligopoly can be defined as a market situation that is characterized by few sellers dealing either in
identical or differentiated products.
(b) This implies that each organization operating under oligopoly must take into account the expected reactions of other
organizations in the market while making pricing and output decisions.
(c) One of the most important characteristics of an oligopoly market is the mutual interdependence of organizations.
(d) Oligopoly refers to a market form in which a particular market is dominated by a small group of sellers.
A) abcd
B) dacb
C) bacd
D) bcad
Q 3. (a) Social change is change in the patterned roles, or a change in the network of social relations, or a change in the
structures and organization of a society.
(b) Further, the change can be spontaneous or planned. Planned change is to achieve some set of collective ideals.
(c) Societies often face problems because of social and cultural changes.
(d) Social change is never complete or total; it is always partial. It can be minor or fundamental.
A) cadb
B) adbc
C) adcb
D) cbad
Q 4. (a) But the future is uncertain and so are the expected returns. Due to uncertainty of the future, a realized return need not
correspond to the expected return.
(b) Every business organization making an investment expects to get some returns in the future.
(c) If the realized return corresponds to expected return exactly, say interest from a bank deposit, there would be no risk.
(d) The possibility of variation of the actual return from the expected return is termed as risk.
A) abcd
B) badc
C) dacb
https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/online/QuestionPaper.jsp 1/31
D) dabc
Q 5. (a) Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience as
much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the lyrics.
(b) The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic
orchestra.
(c) By contrast, in musical theater an actor's dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role.
(d) The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theater such as scenery, costumes, and acting. However, the
words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather than spoken.
A) cadb
B) abdc
C) acdb
D) cbad
Directions for questions 6 to 15: Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow.
An appellate court, commonly called an appeals court, court of appeals, appeal court, court of second instance or second instance
court, is any court of law that is empowered to hear an appeal of a trial court or other lower tribunal. In most jurisdictions, the court
system is divided into at least three levels: the trial court, which initially hears cases and reviews evidence and testimony to
determine the facts of the case; at least one intermediate appellate court; and a supreme court (or court of last resort), which
primarily reviews the decisions of the intermediate courts. A jurisdiction's supreme court is that jurisdiction's highest appellate court.
Appellate courts may follow varying rules from country to country.
The authority of appellate courts to review decisions of lower courts varies widely from one jurisdiction to another. In some places,
the appellate court has limited powers of review. Generally speaking, an appellate court's judgment provides the final directive of the
appeals courts with regard to the matter appealed, setting out with specificity the court's decision on whether the action that has
been appealed should be affirmed, reversed, remanded or modified.
In the United States, both state and federal appellate courts are usually restricted to examining whether the lower court made the
correct legal determinations, rather than hearing direct evidence and determining what the facts of the case were. Furthermore, US
appellate courts are usually restricted to hearing appeals based on matters that were originally brought up before the trial court.
Hence, such an appellate court will not consider an appellant's argument if it is based on a theory that is raised for the first time in
the appeal.
In most US states, and in US federal courts, parties before the court are allowed one appeal as a right. This means that a party who
is unsatisfied with the outcome of a trial may bring an appeal to contest that outcome. However, appeals may be costly, and the
appellate court must find an error on the part of the court below that justifies upsetting the verdict. Therefore, only a small proportion
of trial court decisions result in appeals. Some appellate courts, particularly supreme courts, have the power of discretionary review,
meaning that they can decide whether they will hear an appeal brought in a particular case.
Q 6. Which of these is not an action usually performed by US state and federal appellate courts?
A) Hearing appeals on lower court verdicts
B) Making correct legal determinations
C) Determining the facts of the case
D) Modifying verdicts based on successful appeals
Q 7. Which courts are authorized to hear cases and regard the evidence for giving a verdict?
A) All courts
B) Appellate courts
C) Trial courts
D) Supreme courts
Q 8. What does the word "discretionary" mean in the context of this passage?
A) To be delivered in a short time
B) To be decided by the court
C) To refuse to change the verdict in an appeal
D) To overturn the original verdict in a appeal
Q 9. What is the meaning of "allowed one appeal as a right"?
A) The guilty party must appeal against the verdict in all cases
B) All cases related to appeals must be heard by appellate courts
C) The lower court must overturn an unfavorable verdict if appealed
D) An appeal must be made within a year of the verdict's announcement
Q 10. Which of the following is the tone of the passage?
A) Aggressive
B) Didactic
C) Rebellious
D) Pleading
Q 11. What is the correct order in which the final verdict of a case is decided?
A) Trial court, appellate court, supreme court
B) Appellate court, supreme court, trial court
C) Supreme court, appellate court, trial court
D) Appellate court, trial court, supreme court
Q 12. Which of the following is not one of the effects an appellate court's judgment may have?
A) A previously guilty party may be cleared of all charges
B) A punishment may be made more severe
C) A party previously given a clean chit may be declared guilty
D) A new trial may be ordered for taking a fresh look at the case
Q 13. Which of the following is true about the court system?
A) Most of the time, guilty verdicts are reviewed in appellate courts
B) A set of rules exists that defines how verdicts may be overturned
C) Jurisdictions and judicial powers vary according to the laws of the land
D) Procedural laws are applicable only to some particularly special cases
Q 14. Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given:
Remanded
A) Reconsidered
B) Practiced
C) Converted
D) Preached
Q 15. Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given:
Empowered
A) Bolstered
B) Authorized
C) Procrastinated
D) Radicalized
Directions for questions 16 to 25: Select the best option from the four alternatives given below to fill in the blank appropriately.
Q 16. Throughout the country, _________ waistlines are a common sight, due to the fat-rich food.
A) Meddling
B) Beaming
C) Bulging
D) Preening
Q 17. Scientists plan to grow potatoes in Mars-like conditions that have been __________ on Earth.
A) Simulating
B) Simulated
C) Simulately
D) Simulation
Q 18. The bulk of launch costs comes from __________ a rocket that flies only once.
A) Built
B) Build
C) Building
D) Builded
Q 19. Forensics showed that the man at the crime scene had _________ a certain kind of fabric.
A) Worn
B) Wearing
C) Warned
D) Weared
Q 20. The windows and doors were __________ with dull-colored curtains, making the house dark.
A) Draping
B) Drape
C) Dapper
D) Draped
Q 21. The goal of the event was ______ raise money for a charitable cause.
A) Of
B) At
C) Onto
D) To
Q 22. __________ a month ago, he announced his retirement from competitive sports.
A) Almost
B) Belatedly
C) Timing
D) Previously
Q 23. The food product must be __________ by printed details regarding the ingredients used.
A) Accompanying
B) Accompany
C) Accompanied
D) Companied
Q 24. He is forthright __________ his concerns on Chinese policy, since he minces no words.
A) Against
B) Below
C) About
D) Since
Q 25. It is quite possible that he __________ before us for the movie.
A) Shall have reached
B) Is reached
C) Have reached
D) Had been reached
Directions for questions 26 to 30: Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the Idiom/proverb/phrase given in each
question.
Q 26. A hot potato:
A) An issue that people strongly support
B) An issue that people disagree strongly about
C) An issue of importance
D) A hot dish made of potato
Q 27. Barking up the wrong tree:
A) Looking at the wrong tree
B) Arrest a wrong person
C) Looking at someone the wrong way
D) Looking in the wrong place
Q 28. Bite off more than you can chew:
A) To eat more than once can digest
B) To work more than expected
C) To decide or agree to do more than one can finally accomplish
D) To be highly optimistic
Q 29. Cry over spilled milk:
A) To be unhappy about what cannot be undone
B) To cry unnecessarily
C) To be angry about everything
D) A habit to procrastinate work
Q 30. To buy a lemon:
A) To purchase a spoiled vegetable
B) To purchase a vehicle that constantly gives problems or stops running after you drive it away
C) To be sarcastic
D) To talk with a sense of sourness
Q 31. Who among the following is called “Bismarck of India”?

A) Bhagat Singh
B) M.K. Gandhi
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 32. What is ‘Tokamak’, sometimes seen in the news?
A) A device used in nuclear-fusion research for magnetic confinement of plasma.
B) An Israeli radar system
C) An American anti-missile system
D) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Q 33. What is the growth rate of the Indian economy in 2023-24, as predicted by the Economic Survey?
A) 4.5%
B) 4.8%
C) 5.6%
D) 6.5%
Q 34. Name the former Prime Minister who was recently conferred a Lifetime Achievement Honour by the India-UK Achievers
Honours in London for his contribution to economic and political life.
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Dr Manmohan Singh
C) H.D. Deve Gowda
D) Indira Gandhi
Q 35. Dina Boluarte assumed office as the first female President of___________.
A) Chile
B) Peru
C) Cuba
D) Brazil
Q 36. Germany won the 15th Hockey World Cup-2023 title by defeating which of the following countries?
A) India
B) Japan
C) Russia
D) Belgium
Q 37. The Meghalaya government in partnership with startup __________has unveiled Asia’s first drone delivery hub and network
which is aimed at providing universal access to healthcare for the people in the state.
A) TechEagle
B) Skylark Dronetech
C) Airpix
D) IdeaForge
Q 38. In January 2023, International Monetary Fund (IMF) Executive Board approved a total of USD 4.7 billion loan for
___________.
A) Sri Lanka
B) Afghanistan
C) Syria
D) Bangladesh
Q 39. Kisan Diwas or National Farmers’ Day is celebrated across the nation on____________.
A) November 23
B) December 23
C) December 2
D) September 23
Q 40. When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually to the colour of the__________.
A) Iris
B) Retina
C) Cornea
D) Pupil
Q 41. What is the name of the exoplanet discovered by National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) James Webb
Space Telescope (JWST)?
A) NHS 375 b
B) JHS 575 b
C) LHS 475 b
D) WHS 675 b
Q 42. Which of the following countries will host the 15th BRICS summit in August 2023?
A) Russia
B) China
C) South Africa
D) India
Q 43. Fatehpur Sikri has been described as "a frozen moment in history". It is located in:
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Bihar
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) West Bengal
Q 44. Vice President of India election method is similar to that of the President of India; the only difference is that:
A) State legislatures are not part of the Electoral College
B) Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha are not part of the Electoral College
C) Council of Ministers are not part of the Electoral College
D) Union Territories legislatures are also part of the Electoral College
Q 45. At the 2023 World Economic Forum in Davos, Switzerland, the State of __________signed a deal with Gogoro and Belrise
wherein the companies committed to invest $2.5 billion over eight years to help the state scale its energy infrastructure.
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Andhra Pradesh
Q 46. In January 2023, which of the following state's Chief Minister announced a monthly allowance for unemployed youth?
A) Kerala
B) Gujarat
C) Chhattisgarh
D) Andhra Pradesh
Q 47. What is the old name of Iraq?
A) Mesopotamia
B) Persia
C) Turkmenistan
D) Alexandria
Q 48. Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited (TPREL) will set up India’s first group captive solar plant for a residential society in
____________.
A) Chennai
B) Jaipur
C) Kolkata
D) Mumbai
Q 49. The replica of the eastern gate of the famous Sanchi Stupa of India has been recently unveiled in____________.
A) Japan
B) China
C) France
D) Germany
Q 50. Indian Coast Guard (ICG) ship ‘Kamla Devi’ the Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV) which is designed, built, and delivered by Garden
Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) Ltd to Indian Coast Guard was commissioned in______________.
A) Kochi
B) Kolkata
C) Chennai
D) Mumbai
Q 51. Startup India Programme is a campaign based on the Startup Action Plan by Government of India, aimed to promote
entrepreneurship. The programme was officially launched on____________.
A) January 16, 2012
B) January 16, 2014
C) January 16, 2016
D) January 16, 2018
Q 52. India currently stands ___________ in the global list of the number of companies that have attained unicorn status.
A) Second
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
Q 53. Which is the first country to remove from the Interbank messaging system (IMS) of SWIFT?
A) Russia
B) Iraq
C) Iran
D) China
Q 54. Visa, MasterCard or Rupay card are examples of____________.
A) Closed System Payment Instruments
B) Open System Payment Instruments
C) Semi-open System Payment Instruments
D) Semi-closed System Payment Instruments
Q 55. Which of the following banks issued the 'Sovereign Green Bond' for the first time for green projects?
A) RBI
B) ICICI
C) SBI
D) PNB
Q 56. Which of the following companies has called off its Rs. 20,000-crore follow-on share sale a day after it was fully
subscribed?
A) Adani Enterprises Ltd
B) Mukesh Ambani Enterprises Ltd
C) Tata Enterprises Ltd
D) Anil Ambani Ltd
Q 57. India shares its border with how many countries?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q 58. Calcium in our body is absorbed with the help of

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin E
Q 59. Which of the following waves has the highest frequency?
A) Radio
B) Microwave
C) Visible
D) Infrared

Q 60. The Mughal Gardens in New Delhi's Rashtrapati Bhavan were designed in 1917 and have been renamed by the
government as "____________".
A) Amrit Udyan
B) Shyam Prasad Udyan
C) Bhrat Udyan
D) Mahatma Udyan
Q 61. The marked price of a watch was Rs.720. A man bought the same for Rs.550.80 after getting 2 successive discounts the
1st being 10%. What was the second discount?
A) 18%
B) 12%
C) 19%
D) 15%
Q 62. Paresh and Sachin working together can finish a work in D days. If Paresh alone can complete the work in (D + 8) days
while Sachin alone can complete the same work in (D + 32) days, then in how many days Paresh and Sachin working together can
complete it?
A) 16 days
B) 20 days
C) 24 days
D) 36 days
Q 63. The ratio of the compound interest for 2 years to the simple interest for 2 years is 11 : 10. Find the rate of interest. (Assume
principal amount and rate of interest are same for both cases.)
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 15%
Q 64. A hall is 10 metres long and 6.5 metres high. The cost of covering the walls by paper at the rate of Rs. 5 per metre square
is Rs. 1,170. What will be the cost of carpeting the floor at rate of Rs. 120 per metre square?
A) Rs. 3,900
B) Rs. 4,800
C) Rs. 6,240
D) Rs. 9,600
Q 65. Speed of a man in still water is 45 km/hr. If the man travels 80 km downstream in 80 minutes, then find the time taken by
him to cover the same distance against the stream.
A) 148 min
B) 160 min
C) 150 min
D) 175 min
Q 66. Karan starts a business by investing Rs. 60,000. Six months later, Shirish joins him by investing Rs. 1,00,000. At the end of
one year from commencement of the business, they earn a profit of Rs. 1,51,800. What is Shirish's share in the profit?
A) Rs. 55,200
B) Rs. 82,800
C) Rs. 62,500
D) Rs. 69,000
Q 67. A sells a property to B at 20% loss. B sells the same property to C at 25% profit. If C sells the same property at 10% profit
for Rs. 22 lakhs, then the amount received by A in the transaction is
A) Rs.16 lakhs
B) Rs.20 lakhs
C) Rs.24 lakhs
D) Rs.18 lakhs

Directions (Q. 68 to 70): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a survey it was found that 390 people watched ‘No One Killed Jasssica’, 330 watched ‘Knockout’, 420 watched ‘Yamla Pagla
Deewana’, 160 watched both ‘No One Killed Jasssica and Knockout’, 180 watched both ‘Knockout and Yamla Pagla Deewana’, 170
watched both ‘Yamla Pagla Deewana and No One Killed Jasssica’ and 120 people watched all the three given movies. The total
number of people surveyed was 800.
Q 68. How many people watched only one of the three movies?
A) 490
B) 480
C) 470
D) 380
Q 69. How many people did not watch any of the three movies?
A) 50
B) 70
C) 100
D) 40
Q 70. What is the percentage of surveyed people who watched only ‘No One Killed Jassica’?
A) 24.5%
B) 22.5%
C) 20.5%
D) 18.5%
Q 71. Which ex-CJI died recently?

A) VR Krishna Iyer
B) SH Kapadia
C) HL Dattu
D) Deepak Misra
Q 72. Which of the following cases dealt with sections 66A and 69 of the IT Act?
A) Shreya Vidyarthi v Ashish Vidyarthi
B) Ramachandra Raj v State of Karnataka
C) RBI v Jayantilal Mistry
D) Shreya Singhal v UOI
Q 73. Which of the following reports dealt with the PPP Model of infrastructure development?
A) Kelkar Committee report
B) Singhal Committee report
C) Verma Committee report
D) Singhvi Committee report
Q 74. Which of the following is true of a cognizable offence?

A) They are non-bailable
B) A compromise can be reached between the offender and the victim
C) They are not compoundable
D) The police can arrest the accused without a warrant

Q 75. What was the Nairobi Package at the WTO about?
A) Climate change
B) Agriculture, cotton and other issues faced by the Least Developed Countries
C) Carriage by air
D) Merchant shipping
Q 76. What was the 262nd report of the Law Commission about?
A) Child abuse
B) Juvenile justice
C) Death penalty
D) Narcotic substances
Q 77. The presence of which of the following in an agreement does not vitiate consent?
A) Mistake
B) Fraud
C) Undue influence
D) Consideration
Q 78. Which of the following requires an agreement in the form of a clause in an already existing contract or in a separate
contract?
A) Mediation
B) Conciliation
C) Arbitration
D) Negotiation
Q 79. Which of the following is a characteristic only of murder and not culpable homicide?
A) Intention to cause death
B) Intention to cause bodily injury likely to cause death

C) Intention to cause bodily injury that would in all probability cause death
D) The actus reus that actually causes the death

Q 80. Which of the following relationships doesn't lead to vicarious liability?
A) Master-servant
B) Principal-agent
C) Independent contractor
D) Employer-employee
Q 81. Which of the following maxims encapsulates the idea of vicarious liability?
A) Ignorantia juris non excusat
B) Respondeat superior
C) Nemo judex en sua propia causa
D) Res ipsa loquitor

Q 82. Which of the following defences is used to disprove the existence of mens rea?
A) Self-defence
B) Accident
C) Necessity
D) Insanity
Q 83. Which Constitution was the idea of the Directive Principles borrowed from?
A) US
B) USSR
C) Ireland
D) Germany
Q 84. Which Constitution was the idea of Five Year Plans borrowed from?
A) UK
B) USSR
C) Germany
D) US
Q 85. Which Constitution was the idea of Emergency Provisions borrowed from?
A) US
B) UK
C) Germany
D) USSR
Q 86. What's the standard of proof in criminal trials?
A) Balance of probabilities
B) Beyond reasonable doubt
C) More likely than not
D) Absolute certainty
Q 87. Where does the burden of proof in domestic violence cases lie, provided the requisite conditions are met?
A) Prosecution
B) Victim
C) Victim's relatives
D) Defendants
Q 88. Who was the Vice President of the Constituent Assembly?
A) BN Rau
B) BR Ambedkar
C) Sachchidananda Sinha
D) HC Mookerjee
Q 89. Which Amendment incorporated Dadra, Nagar and Haveli as a Union Territory?
A) 9th
B) 10th
C) 11th
D) 12th
Q 90. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union, State and Concurrent Lists?
A) 6th
B) 7th
C) 8th
D) 9th
Q 91. PRINCIPLE: A bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they
shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering
them. The delivery of goods may be actual or constructive.
FACTS: Alan went to a departmental store belonging to Chan. He bought huge amounts of groceries but was unable to carry the
same back to his house. Thus, he told Chan to keep the goods in the store for a while, and Alan would send his servant Bob to
pick them up. When Bob went to pick up the goods, Chan refused to give back the commodity. Alan alleged that there was a valid
bailment. Is Chan bound to return the goods to Bob?
A) No. There’s no valid bailment because Bob has not delivered anything to Chan, and can’t compel him to return anything.
B)
Yes. There’s a valid bailment, as there is a constructive delivery of the groceries, and in presence of the same, the goods must be
returned.
C)
No. There’s no valid bailment and Chan is not liable to return the goods to B, as the groceries are to be returned to a different
person than B, who originally delivered them.
D) None of the above.
Q 92. PRINCIPLE: If any part of a single consideration for one or more objects, or any one or any part of any one of several
considerations for a single object, is unlawful then the agreement to that extent is void.
FACTS: John enters into a contract with Ham, stipulating that Ham will supply John with 10 grams of cocaine for Rs.1000 and a
basket of snacks for Rs.200. Ham fulfils his promise by providing John the cocaine and basket. However, John refuses to pay on
the grounds that the agreement is void. What will be the liability of John?
A) John will not be liable as the contract is void.
B) John will be liable for the entire amount of Rs.1200, because Ham has performed his promise.
C) John will be liable only for the lawful part of the consideration, i.e. Rs.200.
D) John will be liable for the entire amount of Rs.1200, because there is a valid contract.

Q 93. PRINCIPLE: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission
of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in
force at the time of the commission of the offence.
FACTS: Mr. A was charged u\s. 377 of the Indian Penal Code of 1860, for commission of an unnatural offence on 20th August
2018. On 6th September 2018, the parliament of India in its official gazette notified an amendment to the IPC, repealing the
provisions of section 377. Will the enactment affect the penalty to be awarded to Mr. A?
A) No, as Mr. A’s case will be dealt with by the law which was in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
B) No, as such repeal will not have a retrospective operation.
C)
Yes, as the enactment does not subject him to a penalty greater than what might have been awarded in absence of the enactment.
D) Both A and B.
Q 94. PRINCIPLE: Article 25 of the Constitution states that “Subject to public order, morality and health, all persons areequally
entitled to freedom of conscience and the rightfreely to profess, practise and propagate religion.”
FACTS:Kranti veer Mandal is a group of devotees of Lord Ganesh who institute an idol of Ganesh in the Central Square in the city
every year for 15 days and celebrate the festival through various cultural programmes. The biggest hospital in the city is five
minutes away from the central square and all the vehicles going to the hospital need to cross the square. There had been recurrent
complaints during the Ganesh festival that the ambulances carrying patients requiring emergency assistance were jammed in
traffic due to the celebrations. On one of such PIL’s, the court issued an order prohibiting the Kranti veer Mandal from celebrating
the festival in that particular square. The order was challenged on the ground of being unconstitutional as it curbed the right to
practise religion.Is the order violative of Article 25 of the Constitution?
A) Yes, as it restricts the citizen of the country from practising their religious festival.
B) No, as only the manner and place of practise is restricted, and freedom per se is not restricted.
C) No, as the right to practise one’s religion is subject to reasonable restrictions.
D) Both B and C.
Q 95. PRINCIPLE 1: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession of any person without
that per¬son’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
PRINCIPLE 2: A moving effected by the same act which affects the severance may be a theft.
FACTS: A, B and C were committing a robbery at the ATM booth. On failure to open the cash slot of an ATM machine, they
decided to steal the entire machine. In order to do so, they severe it from the ground, but are unable to carry it out of the booth, as
it is too heavy. What is the liability of A, B and C?
A) They have not committed theft as ATM machine is not a movable property.
B) They have not committed theft as they didn't take the machine out of anyone's possession.
C) They have committed theft as they've severed the machine in order to steal it.
D) None of the above.
Q 96. PRINCIPLE: Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another
person, is said to do that thing “dishonestly”.
FACTS: A goes to a restaurant and after getting the bill, realises that he does not have enough money to pay a tip to the server. He
notices that on the adjacent table, B, another customer has placed a tip of Rs.50. when B left the table. A takes the money from B's
table and gives it as a tip to the waiter. Has he taken the money dishonesty?
A) No, as hedidn't gain anything wrongfully himself.

B) No, as B wasn't deprived of the money wrongfully.
C) Yes, as the waiter has been wrongfully deprived of the tip given by B.
D) Yes, as A should have paid the tip for himself.
Q 97. PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence by reason that it causes, or that it is intended to cause, or that it is known to be likely to
cause, any harm, if that harm is so slight that no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm.
FACTS: A, is a passionate teacher. B is a student in his class who is often inattentive and creates disturbance in the class. In a
lecture, B was distracting students around him by telling them jokes while A was teaching. Getting very much agitated by this, A
threw a small piece of chalk in B’s direction to get his attention. The chalk mistakenly hit C in the eye and he lost his vision in that
eye. Is A guilty of any offence?
A) Yes, as he must have been more careful around his students.
B) No, as a chalk would not ordinarily cause loss of vision, thrown at whatever velocity.
C) Yes, as A has wrongfully caused an injury to C.
D) No, as A did not intend for the chalk to hit C.
Q 98. PRINCIPLE: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing
such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the
offence of culpable homicide.
PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may causes to a person for whose benefit it is done in good
faith, even without that persons consent, if the circumstances are such that it is impossible for that person to signify consent, or if
that person is incapable of giving consent.
FACTS: A and B had gone to hunt in the forest. A hear a huge bear coming in their direction and climbs up tree. B does not notice
the bear in spite of A’s attempts to make him do so. The bear catches B off-guard and attacks him. A, trying to save his friend,
shoots a bullet at the bear. In the struggle, the bear moves and the bullet actually hits B. Decide the culpability of A.
A) A is liable as he knew that the bullet could possibly hit B.
B) A is liable as he intentionally shot at B, causing his death.
C) A is not liable as he shot in order to save B.
D) Both A and B.
Q 99. PRINCIPLE: Injuria Sine Damnum, means legal injury without actual damage and there arises a cause of action; Damnum
sine injuria, means damage without infringement of legal right and is not legally actionable.
FACTS: A has a bulb making factory. He is in intense competition with B, C and D for grabbing the maximum market share. Due to
internal enmity between the two sides, B and his allies reduced their prices drastically in order to drive A out of the business. B is
unable cover his costs at the reduced prices and is forced to shut his business down. He consequently files a suit against B for
causing injury to his business. Will A's action succeed?
A) Yes, as they have intentionally caused injury to A.
B) Yes, as A's right to carry out the trade of his choice has been violated.
C) No, as there has been no legal injury A.
D) No, closing down of the business is not damage enough for A to sue B, C and D
Q 100. PRINCIPLE: “Ex turpi causa non orituractio” means that no action arises from an immoral cause.
FACTS: Mr. A and Mr.B committed a bank robbery and were trying to escape the scene. They saw Mr.C driving away in a car on
the highway. They forcefully stopped the car, threatened Mr.C with a revolver and compelled him into giving them a lift. Mr.C was
heavily inebriated. As a result, he crashed into an electric pole. Both Mr. A and Mr.B suffered severe injuries. They sued Mr.C for
negligence. Will Mr.C be made liable?
A) Yes, as he owed a duty drive safely.
B) No, as Mr. A and Mr.B had entered and were travelling through the car wrongfully.
C) No, as there was no duty owed by Mr.C towards Mr.A and Mr.B.
D) Yes, as they have suffered injury due to Mr. C’s negligent driving.
Q 101. PRINCIPLE: Assault is any act of the defendant that causes to the plaintiff a reasonable apprehension of infliction of
battery on him by such defendant
FACTS: Mr. A and Mr. B are close friends. Their houses are next to each other. Mr. A plans a surprise birthday party for Mr. B at his
house. For pulling a prank, Mr. A told some of his friends to wear face masks and threaten Mr. B with fake revolvers in order to
bring him to Mr. A’s house for the party. Mr. A' friends did the same due to which Mr. B got scared. Have they committed assault
upon Mr. B?
A) No, as they had no intention of harming him.
B) Yes, as a reasonable apprehension of threat was caused in Mr. B’s mind.
C) No, as no harm was caused to Mr.B.

D) Yes, as Mr. B could have been harmed by Mr. A’s friends.
Q 102. PRINCIPLE: Whoever, for his own personal use, brings onto his land, a dangerous thing while using such land in an
unnatural way, and such thing escapes and causes damage, such person would be strictly liable for all the damage so caused by
the escape
FACTS: Zen fitness is a gymnasium on the third floor of the Tropicana Plaza. The gym is situated in such a way that its windows
open on the side of a busy road. A was exercising with a 30 Kg. heavy dumbbell near a window. He lost hold of the dumbbell, the
dumbbell broke the class window and landed on D's car which was parked downstairs. Will the Zen fitness be strictly liable?
A) No, because a dumbbell is not a dangerous thing in itself.
B) No, because a Gymnasium is not a non-natural use of land.
C) Yes, as the dumbbell has escaped the premises of the gym and cause injury to X's car.
D) Yes, as the gym owed a duty of care, which has been breached and an injury has been caused as a result of that breach.
Q 103. PRINCIPLE 1: Free consent is a prerequisite for a valid contract. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by
coercion, fraud, undue influence, mistake or misrepresentation.
PRINCIPLE 2: A person induces the consent of another by fraud when he the suggests anything, as a fact, which is not true, even
when he does not believe it to be true.
FACTS: Mr. Jekyll, a resident of London, had a previous criminal record. He approached Mr. Atkin, a resident of Coventry for
obtaining a lease of Atkin’s property, pretending that he was Mr. Hyde. Mr. Hyde was a renowned medical practitioner in London
and on the basis of his reputation, Mr. Atkin leased out the property to Mr. Jekyll. Mr. Jekyll paid the consideration agreed upon and
the contract was signed. Eventually, on findings out about Mr. Jekyll’s real identity, Mr. Atkin approached the court to declare the
contract void.
A) The contract is valid as Mr. Jekyll has paid the consideration.
B) The contract is void as the identity of the contracting party was mistaken.
C) The contract is valid as mistake in the name of a contracting party is not a material fact so as to vitiate the consent of Mr. Atkin
D) The contract is void as Mr. Jekyll’s criminal record is reason enough for Mr. Atkin to avoid the contract.
Q 104. PRINCIPLE: “Fraud” means an act committed by a party to a contract, with intent to deceive another party to induce him
to enter into the contract. Such act includes the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be
true, the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact, a promise made without any intention of
performing it, any other act fitted to deceive or any such act or omission as the law specially declares to be fraudulent.
FACTS: Bert held a huge piece of farm land in the suburban area. Due to an industrial factory adjacent to it, some harmful
chemicals seeped into the land and it eventually became barren. As a result of this, Bert wanted to sell of the land. In the
advertisement for the same, Bert clearly endorsed it as a very fertile and high-yielding piece of land. Tim, a builder knew about the
industrial factory and the reduced fertility of the land. He bought the land from Bert for the purposes of building commercial
complexes. However, after a few months, Tim ran into a financial difficulty and could not pay the price agreed. When Bert went to
the court for the enforcement of the contract, Tim alleged that there was no valid contract as Bert has fraudulently deceived him
into entering into the sale agreement. Will Tim succeed?
A)
No, as fertility of the soil was not a material fact to the contract and misrepresentation regarding which, does not amount to fraud.
B) Yes, as Bert has made a statement about the land, even after knowing its falsity.
C) No, as Tim knew the real status of land and Bert’s statement did not induce him into entering into the contract.
D) Yes, as Bert has concealed the real nature of the fertility of land, which is a material fact for the sale agreement.
Q 105. PRINCIPLE: Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon the same thing in the same sense.
FACTS: Raj, a cashew farmer contracted with Taj to sell him 7,000 Kg. of cashews at the rate of Rs.200 per Kg. The same was
orally agreed upon. However, when the agent of Raj wrote and executed the contract, he mistakenly wrote the price to be Rs.200
per tonne. Taj, even after knowing that there was a mistake, signed the sale contract deed. At the time of performance, on realising
that he was getting a price much lower than the prevailing market price, Raj refused to deliver the agreed upon quantity of
cashews. Taj pleads before the court for a decree for specific performance of the contract. Will Taj succeed in his claim?
A) Yes, because the Raj is bound by the price mentioned in the agreement and Taj has paid the same.
B) Yes, because Taj has not committed any fraud and mistake was on the part of Raj’s agent.
C)
No, because there is no meeting of minds between the parties as Raj was convinced of signing a contract that was orally agreed
upon.
D) No, because Raj should not suffer for the mistake of his agent.
Q 106. PRINCIPLE: When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing, or
does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or to abstain from doing, something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a
consideration for the promise.
FACTS: Paul is the owner of acar-repair shop on the Eastern Express Highway. Ed was going from Mumbai to Thane by a car.
While on the Eastern Express Highway, the tyre of his car got punctured and he had to take it to Paul’s shop. Paul repaired the car.
At the time of paying the money, Ed realised that he had no cash on him. He promised Paul that he would go home, bring the cash
and pay him the charges. Paul agreed to the same. Later on, when Paul confronted Ed, he refused to pay the charges for the
reason that there was no consideration for him anymore in paying the same. Paul went to the court for compelling Ed to pay the
same. Will Paul’s action succeed?
A) Yes, as Paul has repaired the car on Ed’s desire.
B) No, as there is no valid consideration for Edin order for there to be a valid contract.
C) Yes, as there was a past valid consideration.
D) Both A and C.

Q 107. PRINCIPLE 1: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to
obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.
PRINCIPLE 2: When the person to whom the proposal is made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted. A
proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise.
PRINCIPLE 3: In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be communicated to the proposer.
FACTS: Arun was the owner of an industrial incinerator, which he wanted to sell. He came to know that Alok was opening a new
factory and needed an industrial incinerator. He, by letter wrote to Alok “I want to sell my incinerator at Rs.60,000. Are you willing to
buy the same?” He posted this letter on 13th April 2018. Alok, at the same time was looking for an incinerator and came to know
that Arun was looking for a buyer. He, on the same date, i.e. 13th April 2018, wrote and posted a letter addressed to Arun, showing
his willingness to buy the machine at Rs.60,000. However, after posting the letter, Arun received an offer from Amar to buy the
machine at Rs.65,000 and sold the same to him. On receiving the letter from Arun, Alok sued him for breach of contract and asks
for specific performance, i.e. sale of the machine. Will Alok succeed in his claim?
A) Yes, as Arun had already made the offer to Alok and is bound by the same.
B) No, as Alok was unaware of Arun’s offer and the communication was incomplete.
C) Yes, as Alok’s letter acted as acceptance to Arun’s offer.
D) No, as Alok’s letter is only a cross offer.
Q 108. PRINCIPLE: Res Ipsa Loquitur literally means thing speaks for itself, i.e. the very fact of an injury creates a presumption
of negligence in extreme and peculiar cases and no further proof is required.
FACTS: A, a 10-year-old boy was having recurrent pain in his abdominal cavity. On diagnosis, it was discovered that he had
developed appendicitis. He was operated upon on 18thJuly, 2018. The operation was said to have been successful, and he was
discharged from the hospital after two days, on 20th July. On 21st July, the patient felt sharp pain in his lower abdomen. After
seven days the boy lost his appetite and went into coma. The parents of the boy sued the hospital for medical negligence. Is the
hospital liable for the same?
A) No, because the doctors had operated upon the appendix without any negligence
B) No, as there must be a relevant injury for res ipsa loquitur to be applicable.
C) Yes, as some negligence on part of the operating doctor must be presumed.
D) Yes, as the abdomen pain happened immediately after the operation conducted by the doctors.
Q 109. PRINCIPLE: Whenever there is an invasion of a legal right, the person in whom the right is vested, is entitled to bring an
action though he has suffered no actual loss or harm, and may recover damages.
FACTS: A had contracted with B that on payment of Rs.50,000 on 31st Dec. 2000, B would reserve a booking of a banquet hall for
A. On 30th Dec, A drew a cheque in B’s favour. Due to a mix-up at the bank, even after having sufficient balance in the account, A’s
cheque got dishonoured. A had to pay in cash for the time being. The booking was secured. However, A sued the bank for
damages. Is the bank liable?
A) No, as there’s no damage caused to A, as he secured the booking regardless.
B) Yes, as his legal right to deal in the instrument was infringed upon.
C) No, as there was no intention on the bank’s part to dishonour the cheque.
D) None of the above
Q 110. PRINCIPLE: A judicial proceeding instituted by one person against another, from wrongful or improper motive and without
probable cause to sustain it, constitutes the tort of malicious prosecution
FACTS: A dealt in the business of lending lorries to contractors for building houses. Five of the lorries from his garage were stolen.
B also had a similar business in the same city as A. Once, on a construction site under B’s supervision, A saw lorries identical to
the ones that were stole. He thustook them to be his own and alleged that B was the one who had stolen his lorries. He instituted a
proceeding for theft against B. Subsequently it was found that the five lorries were misplaced by A’s workmen and B was acquitted.
B sued A for tort of malicious prosecution. Decide the liability of A.
A) A is liable as A should have been more careful in alleging B of theft.
B) A is not liable as there was no malicious intention on A’s part.
C) A is liable as the court held B not guilty and he did not suffer any damages.
D) A is not liable, as the confusion on A’s part as to exact identity of lorries was reasonable.
Directions (Q. 111 to 115): Answer the questions on the basis of information given below:
Seven children – Chintu, Chikki, Dimple, Dimpy, Golu, Gudiya and Pihu – are playing in a garden and each of them studies in one of
the seven different schools – KVS, DPS, SRM, DAV, USM, GDG and MRV but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them
wearing a costume of a different colour – Ivory, Charcoal, Azure, Aquamarine, Salmon, Lavender and Crimson – also, each of them
has a favourite Ice Cream among – Cornetto, Magnum, Butterscotch, Chocofudge, Feast, Paddle Pop and Mango Duetz, but not
necessarily in the same order. It is also known that:
The one who likes Butterscotch is from GDG. Dimple studies in KVS. The child wearing Lavender costume likes Magnum and
studies in USM. Pihu is wearing Salmon costume. The child wearing Charcoal costume likes Feast. The child wearing Crimson
costume studies in SRM and likes Mango Duetz. Gudiya studies in MRV. The child wearing Charcoal costume does not study in
KVS. Chikki, who likes neither Cornetto nor Butterscotch, wears Aquamarine costume. The child wearing Ivory costume studies in
DPS but he likes neither Cornetto nor Chocofudge. Neither does Golu wears Charcoal costume nor does he study in SRM. Dimpy
does not study in DAV. Neither Dimpy nor Golu wear Lavender costume.
Q 111. Whose favourite ice cream is Chocofudge?
A) The one who wearing Azure costume
B) Dimpy
C) The child who studies in DAV
D) Golu
Q 112. Which Ice Cream does Pihu like?
A) Cornetto
B) Magnum
C) Chocofudge
D) Butterscotch
Q 113. Select the correct combination of Child and Ice Cream.

A) Chintu – Cornetto
B) Golu – Paddle Pop
C) Chikki – Feast
D) Dimpy – Butterscotch
Q 114. What is the color of the costume and the Ice Cream preferred by the one who studies in DAV?
A) Azure and Paddle Pop
B) Ivory and Cornetto
C) Salmon and Feast
D) Aquamarine and Chocofudge
Q 115. Which of the following combinations of ‘Child – Costume Color – Ice Cream’ is definitely true?
A) Chintu – Lavender – Paddle Pop
B) Chikki – Aquamarine – Butterscotch
C) Golu – Ivory – Feast
D) Dimple – Azure – Cornetto
Direction (Q. 116 to 120): Answer the Questions on the basis of information given below.
Eight children – Chikoo, Chintu, Chimpu, Chikki, Chinu, Chameli, Chipku and Chillar - are sitting in a straight row but not necessarily
in the same order. Some of them are facing south while some are facing north. It is also known that:
The children sitting at the extreme ends face in opposite directions. Only three children sit between Chikoo and Chameli, also one of
them sits at the extreme end. The immediate neighbours of Chinu face in the same direction. Neither Chillar nor Chinu sits at the
extreme end of the line. Chimpu sits third to the right of Chipku, who sits second to the left of both Chameli and Chikoo. The
immediate neighbour of Chikoo faces north. Chintu sits second to the left of Chillar who is not an immediate neighbor of Chikoo.
Only three children face south and Chinu is one among them.
Q 116. Which two children are sitting at the extreme ends of the row?
A) Chinu and Chikki
B) Chameli and Chipku
C) Chameli and Chikki
D) Chipku and Chikoo

Q 117. Three of the following children are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that
group.
A) Chameli
B) Chipku
C) Chintu
D) Chikoo
Q 118. Who is sitting second to the left of Chinu?
A) Chintu
B) Chikoo
C) Chikki
D) None
Q 119. Which of the following combinations of ‘Child – Direction’ is definitely false?
A) Chikki – North
B) Chameli – North
C) Chikoo – North
D) Chillar – South
Q 120. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given information?
A) Both Chameli and Chikki sit at the extreme ends of the row
B) Immediate neighbours of Chipku face directions opposite to each other
C) Chintu sits second to the left of both Chillar and Chimpu
D) None of these
Directions (Q. 121 to 123): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are kept in library shelves of different sizes. Book A is kept in that shelf which is smaller in size than
only the shelf in which book D is kept. Only three shelves are smaller in size than the shelf in which book C is kept. The shelf in
which F is kept is smaller in size than the shelf in which book E is kept. Book F is not kept in the smallest shelf.
Q 121. Which of the following books is kept in the smallest shelf?
A) B
B) A
C) E
D) C
Q 122. If the size of the shelf in which book E is kept is 16 cm2, then which of the following may be the size of the shelf in which
book B is kept?
A) 19 cm2
B) 22 cm2
C) 18 cm2
D) 12 cm2
Q 123. How many shelves are smaller in size than the shelf in which book E is kept?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Directions (Q. 124 to Q.126): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The profession of six members – A, B, C, D, E and F – of a family are –Artist, Doctor, Teacher, Manager, Engineer and Dentist–(not
necessarily in the same order). None among E and F is a female. It is also known that:
(i) Engineer is the grandfather of F, who is an artist.

(ii) D, who is dentist, is married to A.
(iii) C, who is manager, is married to the teacher.
(iv) B is the mother of both E and F.
(v) There are two married couples in the family.
Q 124. How many female members are there in the family?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
The profession of six members – A, B, C, D, E and F – of a family are –Artist, Doctor, Teacher, Manager, Engineer and Dentist–(not
necessarily in the same order). None among E and F is a female. It is also known that:
(i) Engineer is the grandfather of F, who is an artist.

(ii) D, who is dentist, is married to A.
(iii) C, who is manager, is married to the teacher.
(iv) B is the mother of both E and F.
(v) There are two married couples in the family.
Q 125. What is the profession of E?
A) Teacher
B) Dentist
C) Engineer
D) Doctor
Q 126. Select the odd one out.
A) A
B) D
C) C
D) F
Directions (Q. 127 to 131) : Answer the following questions based on the given information.
Eight friends, Pawan, Qureshi, Ranjit, Sonam, Tanisha, Vaishali, Wakram and Yasin are sitting around a square table in such a way
that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four
corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
Pawan who faces the centre sits third to the right of Vaishali. Tanisha, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of
Vaishali. Only one person sits between Vaishali and Wakram. Sonam sits second to right of Qureshi. Qureshi faces the centre.
Ranjit is not an immediate neighbour of Pawan.
Q 127. Who sits second to the left of Qureshi?
A) Vaishali
B) Pawan
C) Tanisha
D) Yasin
Q 128. What is the position of Tanisha with respect to Vaishali?
A) Fourth to the left
B) Second to the left
C) Third to the left
D) Third to the right
Q 129. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
A) Ranjit
B) Wakram
C) Vaishali
D) Sonam
Q 130. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement?
Wakram – Pawan, Tanisha – Ranjit, Qureshi – Wakram, Ranjit – Sonam, ?

A) Yasin – Tanisha
B) Vaishali – Yasin
C) Vaishali – Qureshi
D) Pawan – Yasin
Q 131. Which of the following is true regarding Ranjit?
A) Ranjit is an immediate neighbor of Vaishali
B) Ranjit faces the centre
C) Ranjit sits exactly between Tanisha and Sonam
D) Qureshi sits third to left of Ranjit
Directions (Q. 132 to Q.136) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1- P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2- A, B, C, D, E and F are seated
and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member
of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme
ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends.
Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C
does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R.
Q 132. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
A) B and E
B) S and T
C) P and R
D) B and F
Q 133. Who amongst the following faces A?
A) R
B) T
C) P
D) S
Q 134. How many persons are seated between T and S?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q 135. P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. Which of the following is related to E, following the same pattern?
A) B
B) D
C) C
D) A
Directions(Q. 132 to Q.136) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1- P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2- A, B, C, D, E and F are seated
and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member
of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme
ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends.
Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C
does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R.
Q 136. Which of the following is true regarding F?
A) F sits second to the right of C.
B) A is not an immediate neighbor of F.
C) F sits third to left of D.
D) F faces V.
Directions (Q. 137 to 138): In each of the following questions the symbols &, #, @, % and $ are used with following meaning as
illustrated below:
A&B means ‘A is not less than B’.

A#B means ‘A is neither less than nor equal to B’.
A@B means ‘A is neither less than nor greater than B’.
A%B means ‘A is not greater than B’.
A$B means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.
Based on the statements given in each of the questions below, find out which of the conclusion follows.
Q 137.
Statement:
Y#Z, V@Z, U$V
Conclusion:
I. Y# V
II. U$Z
A) if only conclusion I follows.

B) if only conclusion II follows.
C) if both conclusions follow.
D) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Q 138.
Statement:
N%Q, M&P, Q@P
Conclusion:
I. P@N
II. N$Q
A) if only conclusion I follows.
B) if only conclusion II follows.
C) if both conclusions follow.
D) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
In a certain code “glass of cold water” is coded as “re eo la lo”, “extremely cold water” is coded as “me re lo” , “cold wine bottle” is
coded as “od lo aw” and “extremely thin glass” is coded as “ni me la”.
Q 139. What could be the code for “wine bottle” ?
A) re ni
B) od aw
C) aw me
D) od lo
Q 140. If “warm sparkling water” is coded as “ti sa re”, then what could be the code for “sparkling thin”?
A) ti od
B) aw sa
C) re sa
D) ti ni
Q 141. How will “thin glass of water” be coded?
A) eo la lo me
B) me lo la re
C) la ni re eo
D) me la re eo
Q 142. Which of the following statements is necessary to find the code for "milk bottle"?
I. The code for "dairy milk" is "rd nj".
II. The code for "milk chocolate" is "nj tc".
III. The code for "glass of wine" is "la od eo".
A) Only I and III.
B) All I, II and III together.
C) Only II and III.

D) Either I or II.
Directions for questions 143 to 144: In the following questions a statement is given followed by two arguments. You have to
decide which of the arguments is strong and choose your answer on the basis of the following code:
Q 143. Statement: In view of the rising rate of crime in India firearms should be delicensed so that every Indian can possess the
means to defend himself.
Argument I: Yes, then the rising number of looting at gunpoint and murders will be arrested.
Argument II: No, if guns become abundant and free there will be an increasing number of murders.
A) If only argument I is strong.
B) If only argument II is strong.
C) If both arguments I and II are strong.
D) If neither argument I nor argument II is strong.
Q 144. Statement: The ban on recreational drugs should be lifted since that would stop black marketing.
Argument I: Yes, when drugs are freely available at reasonable prices fewer people will become drug addicts and hence drug
related deaths and crime will come down.
Argument II: No, with easy availability a larger number of people will take to drugs and although in percentage terms addiction
may come down in absolute numbers addiction and consequent crime will increase.
A) If only argument I is strong.
B) If only argument II is strong.
C) If both arguments I and II are strong.
D) If neither argument I nor argument II is strong.
Directions for questions 145 to 147: In the following questions four statements are given. All the statements are independent of
each other. You have to decide in respect of every statement whether it is a fact, an inference or a judgement based on the
definitions given below. Then choose the answer option which gives a correct identification of the sentences. Facts: Facts which
deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option
indicates such a statement with an ‘F’)
Inferences: Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates
such a statement with an ‘I’)
Judgement: Judgements which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in
the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a ‘J’)
Q 145. 1. Vitamin D in reasonable quantities is good for bones.
2. Sunlight is a rich source of Vitamin D and hence sun bathing is beneficial round the year.
3. The intransigence of the Congress may prove to be damaging for the country.
4. Pakistanis are unreasonable.
A) JIFF
B) JIJF
C) FIJJ
D) FIJI
Q 146. 1. Descartes was a great mathematician.

2. Gravity is universal.
3. 2015 is the year of EI Nino.
4. We have had droughts in two successive years in India and hence the rate of inflation will go up.
A) IFJI
B) JFFI
C) JIFI
D) FJFI
Q 147. 1. In 2015 India posted the highest rate of growth in GDP and is therefore the healthiest economy in the world.
2. Sunlight burns and therefore sunlight is harmful for mankind.
3. Spinach is rich in iron.
4. One should eat a lot of spinach everyday.
A) IJFJ
B) FJFJ
C) JFFI
D) IIFJ
Directions for questions 148 to 150: In the following questions there is a statement followed by four sentences. These sentences
have been arranged in four sets of two sentences each. You have to pick the set (option) in which the sequence of the sentences is
logically correct.
Q 148. Statement:
If it rains I eat pakoras.
a. It did not rain.

b. Means I ate pakoras.
c. I did not eat pakoras.
d. It rained.
A) ad
B) db
C) bd
D) cd
Q 149. Statement:
If and only if Sonia Gandhi agrees can the GST bill be passed in Rajya Sabha.
a. Sonia Gandhi agreed.

b. GST bill not passed in Rajya Sabha.
c. GST bill was passed in Rajya Sabha
d. Sonia Gandhi did not agree.
A) ab
B) bc
C) ca
D) cd
Q 150. Statement:
If his father is out of town then he plays cricket or watches a movie.
a. His father was out of town.

b. His father was not out of town.
c. He did not watch a movie.
d. He did not play cricket and he did not watch a movie.
A) ab
B) ad
C) cb
D) db

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2/22/23, 12:29 PM Question Paper

Mock MHCET-2 2023

A) Hearing appeals on lower court verdicts

B) Making correct legal determinations

C) Determining the facts of the case

D) Modifying verdicts based on successful appeals

A) To be delivered in a short time

B) To be decided by the court

C) To refuse to change the verdict in an appeal

D) To overturn the original verdict in a appeal

Q 9. What is the meaning of "allowed one appeal as a right"?

B) All cases related to appeals must be heard by appellate courts

C) The lower court must overturn an unfavorable verdict if appealed

D) An appeal must be made within a year of the verdict's announcement

Q 10. Which of the following is the tone of the passage?

A) Trial court, appellate court, supreme court

B) Appellate court, supreme court, trial court

C) Supreme court, appellate court, trial court

D) Appellate court, trial court, supreme court

A) A previously guilty party may be cleared of all charges

B) A punishment may be made more severe

C) A party previously given a clean chit may be declared guilty

Q 13. Which of the following is true about the court system?

A) Most of the time, guilty verdicts are reviewed in appellate courts

D) Procedural laws are applicable only to some particularly special cases

A) Shall have reached

D) Had been reached

B) An issue that people disagree strongly about

C) An issue of importance

D) A hot dish made of potato

Q 27. Barking up the wrong tree:

A) Looking at the wrong tree

B) Arrest a wrong person

C) Looking at someone the wrong way

D) Looking in the wrong place

Q 28. Bite off more than you can chew:

A) To eat more than once can digest

B) To work more than expected

C) To decide or agree to do more than one can finally accomplish

D) To be highly optimistic

Q 29. Cry over spilled milk:

A) To be unhappy about what cannot be undone

B) To cry unnecessarily

C) To be angry about everything

D) A habit to procrastinate work

Q 30. To buy a lemon:

A) To purchase a spoiled vegetable

D) To talk with a sense of sourness

Q 31. Who among the following is called “Bismarck of India”?

Q 32. What is ‘Tokamak’, sometimes seen in the news?

A) A device used in nuclear-fusion research for magnetic confinement of plasma.

B) An Israeli radar system

C) An American anti-missile system

D) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

B) Dr Manmohan Singh

C) H.D. Deve Gowda

A) State legislatures are not part of the Electoral College

C) Council of Ministers are not part of the Electoral College

D) Union Territories legislatures are also part of the Electoral College