All Subject Que Bank 2nd LLB

TILAK MAHARASHTRA VIDYAPEETH, PUNE
BACHELOR OF LAWS (LL.B.)/ B.A. LL.B. FOURTH/EIGHT SEMESTER

Sub.: Interpretation of Statutes (LW-403/8003)
NOVEMBER – 2019
Q.1. Choose correct option from the following. ( 10 Marks )
1) Non- obstante means _______
a) Not with standing b) Never
c) Now observe d) None of these
2) Interpretation of the taxing statute is _______
a) Liberal b) Literal
c) Strict d) Harmonious
3) Justice is _______
a) Social b) Economic
c) Political d) All of the above
4) Which part of the constitution helps us in interpretation of statute ?
a) Preamble b) Marginal notes
c) Explanation d) All of the above
5) Lex means _______
a) Law b) Example
c) Illustration d) All of the above
6) A public statute is one which relates to a matter of _______
a) Disputes b) Government policy
c) Public policy d) Private policy
7) _______ rule was explained in Heydon’s case.
a) Literal rule b) Golden rule
c) Mischief rule d) Logical rule
8) Law Commission Report is an _______ of interpretation.
a) External aid b) Legal aid
c) Constitutional aid d) Internal aid
9) _______ that makes the statute defective and inadequate.
a) Defect in statute b) Mischief
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
10) Ratio decidendi is the _______ for the decision.
a) Reason b) Fact
c) Law d) Rules
APRIL-MAY– 2019
Q.1.Choose correct option from the following.( 10 Marks )
1) Function of the interpretation of statute is of
a) Legislation b) Executive
c) Judiciary d) All above
2) Ratio Decidendi is the ………….. for the decision.
a) Reason b) Fact
c) Law d) Rules
3) The Mischief Rule of interpretation originated in …………..case.
a) Keshwanand Bharati’s case b) S. R. Bommai’s Case
c) Ryland Vs Flecher d) Heydon’s Case
4) You cannot do indirectly what you cannot do directly’ this maxim is based on ……
a) Doctrine of Prospective overruling b) Doctrine of Eclipse
c) Doctrine of Colorable legislation d) Basic Structure Doctrine
5) Which source of law is most important and recognized as such by the law itself:
a) Legal source b) Historical Source
c) Informal Source d) Ethical Source
6) The general rule of precedent is that a court is bound to the decisions of
a) All the courts b) All the superior courts
c) All the courts of the land d) All its subordinate courts
7) On What accounts the need of interpretation of statute arises?
a) To Provide stability in Law b) To Simplify the technical legal language used in the statute
c) For filling the gap d) All of the Above
8) When two or more provisions of the same statute are repugnant, the court will try to construe the
provisions in such a manner, if possible, as to give effect to both by harmonising them which each other?
This rule of interpretation is called....
a) Harmonious construction. b) Beneficial construction
c) Golden rule of construction d) Logical construction
9) A Statute which consolidates the law on a particular subject at one place is called?
a) Consolidating statute. b) Declaratory Statute
c) Remedial Statute d) Mandatory Statute
10) Which of the following is not an internal aid to interpretation?
a) Proviso b) Title
c) Saving Clause d) Parliamentary debates.
NOVEMBER– 2018
Q. 1.Choose correct option from the following.(10)
1) Non obstante means ---------------------
a) Not with standing b) Never
c) Now observe d) None of the above
2) Justice is -----------------
a) Social b) Economic
c) Political d) All of the above
3) Repeal statute means ----------------
a) Statute ceases to operate b) Statute need to amend
c) Statute in force d) None of the above
4) Penal statute create --------------------
a) Remedy b) Offence
c) Compensation d) All of the above
5) Conjunctive and disjunctive words contain ------------------
a) Or b) And
c) ‘Or’ and ‘and’ d) None
6) The meaning of the ‘Ejusdem Generis -----------------
a) Of the same class b) Of the similar class
c) One class d) Of different class
7) Noscitur a Sociis means ---------------
a) Know from the association b) Assembly
c) Association d) Knowledge
8) Interpretation of the taxing statute is --------------------
a) Liberal b) Literal
c) Strict d) Harmonious
9) Reddendoo Singula Singulis is ------------------
a) Latin term b) French wird
c) American concept d) All of the above
10) In Hedons case rule laid down
a) Constractive rule b) Remedial rule
c) Mischief rule d) Pardon rule
APRIL/MAY – 2018
Q. 1. Choose correct option from the following. ( 10 Marks )

1) The mischief rule of interpretation has been laid down in
a) Salmon v salmon b) Lee v Lee
c) Hedons Case d) Ajya Hassia
2) Function of the interpretation of statute is of
a) Legislation b) Executive
c) Judiciary d) Common law
3) Marginal note means those notes which are printed
a) At the side of the section b) At the foot of the Act
c) Only in amending statute d) In repeal statute
4) Constitution of India is -------- statute
a) Private statute b) Public Statute
c) International Statute d) National Statute
5) Ratio decidendi is the -------- for decision.
a) Reason b) Fact
c) Law d) Rules
6) ----- rights never be waived .
a) Legal rights b) Property rights
c) Fundamental rights d) Other rights
7) ------ statute collect all the statutory enactment on a specific subjects.
a) Criminal statute b) Civil statute
c) Consolidiating statute d) Taxing statute
8) The period of the statute is known is called
a) Perpetual Statute b) Permanent Statute
c) Penal Statute d) Temporary statute
9) Marginal note means those notes which are printed
a) At the side of the section b) At the middle of the context
c) At the foot of the lession d) At the end of article
10) Literal means
a) In accordance with the letters b) In accordance with context
c) In accordance with interpretation d) In accordance with statute
NOVEMBER – 2017
Q. 1. Choose correct option from the following. (10 Marks )
1) A consolidating statute is one which consolidates the law on ------subjects at one place,
a) Particular b) Special
c) General d) All of the above
2) A curative or ----- statute is one which is passed to cure defects in prior law.
a) Amending b) Validating
c) Repealing d) Consoladiting
3) The effect should be given to the object,------ and meaning of a statute is a rule of legal construction.
a) Sprit b) Purpose
c) Both of above d) None of above
4) Notwithstanding clause
a) Non habet ciause b) Non obstante clause
c) Nihil dat clause d) None of above
5) The words of the statute are first understood in their -------, ordinary or popular senses.
a) Grammatical b) Ordinary
c) Natural d) All of the above
6) What things to be considered in mischief rule
a) What is the commom law befote b) What is the reason of the remady
the act
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
7) The statute must be read as a whole and in its ------
a) Context b) Parts
c) Law d) Rule
8) Every Statute is prima facie -------
a) Prospective b) Retrospective
c) In operative d) Operative
9) Stare decisis is Latin Phrase , meaning
a) To stand by decided cases b) To stand by principles laid down
c) To stand by obiter dicta d) To stand by ratio
10) Supreme court is not bound by ---
a) Decision of lower bench b) Decision of subordinate court
c) Decision of it’s own d) All of the above
MAY – 2017
1) -------- means words are prime facie to be taken in their lawful and rightful sense.
a) In bonam partem b) Nemo dat quod non habet
c) Fiat justitia d) De minimis non curat lex
2) Words of an enactment are to be given heir --------- meaning.
a) Legal b) Ordinary and natural
c) Grammatical d) Literal
3) The golden rule is a modification of the principle of ------ interpretation
a) Literal b) Liberal
c) Grammatical d) All of the above
4) Fiscal statute are also called----- statute
a) Repealing b) Penal
c) Consultating d) Taxing
5) Consolidating statute is a statute which present whole body of staytutory law on the subject in
complete form ------- the former statute
a) Codifying b) Deleating
c) Repealing d) Amending
6) ----- that makes the statute defective and inadequate
a) Defect in statute b) Mischief
7) These are the statutes dealing with the same subject matter
a) Repealing statute b) Codifying statute
c) Pari materia statute d) Remedial statute
8) The expression Non- obstante clause means
a) Notwithstanding b) Nothing
c) Anything d) Something
9) The meaning of the Latin Maxim ‘ Ejusdem Generis’ is
a) Of the general class b) Of the special class
c) Of the same class d) Of the similar class
10) ---- rights can not be waived by any individual according to ‘ Doctrine of waiver’.
a) Constitutional right b) Legal right
c) Fundamental right d) Property right
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) The maxim ---- connotes that it is better to validate a thing than to invalidate it.
a) ut res magis valeat quam pereat b) ut res valeat potius pereat
c) Audi alterum partem d) ubi jus ibi remedium
2) According to Salmond -------- is more important than litera legis
a) Sententia legis b) Golden rule
c) Doctrine of literalness d) Obvious obsurdity
3) The literal or plain meaning rule has been expressed in -----case
a) Grey V. Pearson b) Heyden’s case
c) Abley V. Dale d) Beck V. Smith
4) Rule of ------ should be applied while interpreting Beneficial legislation.
a) Rule of strict construction b) Mischief rule
c) Liberal construction d) Literal rule
5) The maxim ----- lays down that the meaning of a word can be gathered from the content or by the
company it keeps.
a) Noscitura Sociis b) Ejusdem generis
c) Bonam partem d) Reddendo singula singulis
6) Constitutional law is ------
a) Natural law b) Fundamental law of land
c) Historical law d) None of the above
7) The words of a Statute are first understood in their ------- sense.
a) Literal b) Grammatical
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
8) ------ rule was explained in Heydon’s case.
a) Literal rule b) Golden rule
c) Mischief rule d) Logical rule
9) -------- is an internal aid to interpretation.
a) Title b) Dictionary
c) Statutes in pari materia d) Foreign judgement
10) ------- is not an external aid to interpretation.
a) Schedule b) Dictionary
c) Judicial Precedent d) Debate in Parliament
APRIL/MAY – 2016
Q . 1. Ch oose cor rect op t i on fro m t h e fol lowi n g. (10 Marks )

1) Invalid part of the enactment can be severed from the rest of the enactment
by following doctrine of
a) Pith & substance b) Colourable legislation
c) Severability d) Territorial nexus
2) When the rule of law are clearly pronounced and established by the
highest court they should not be likely disregarded and set aside but they
should be followed. This is known as principle of
a) Eclipes b) Obiter-dicta
c) Stare decisis d) None of the above
3) ---------- is a process by which courts seeks to ascertain the meaning
of particular legislation.
a) Legislation b) Interpretation
c) Implementation d) All of t he above
4) The mischief rule of interpretation originated in case.
a) S. R. Bommai case b) Keshwanand Bhart i case
c) T. N. Seshan case d) Heydon's case
5) 'You cannot do indirect ly what you can not do d ireclt y' this maxim i s based on
a) Doctrine of colorable legislation b) Doctrine of prospective overruling
c) Doctrine of Implied powers d) Doctrine of occupied field
6) ---- is clarify what is enacted and not to add or delete anything from section
a)Marginal notes b) Explanation
c) Heading d) Schedules
7) ----is the drawing of conclusions respecting subject that lie beyond the direct
expression of the text from elements known from and given in
text.
a) Interpretation b) Construction
c) Distinction d) Non of t he above
8) U b i J u s i b i re m e d i u i n m e a n s
a) When there is right there is duty b) When there is law there is remedy
c) When there is right there is remedy d) Non of the above
9) In offences based on -- the court needs not to go into the question of mens res.
a) No fault liabilit y b) Primar y liabilit y
c) Both of above d) Non of above
10) ---- acts as a check whereby the determination of a particular law is not left to the
caprices of Judges.
a) Division b) Repeal
c) Codificat ion d) Amendment
APRIL/MAY – 2015
Q.1. Choose correct option from the following. (10 Marks )

1) The period of operation or validity has been fixed by the statute itself it means
a) Temporary statute b) Permanent statute
c) Mandatory statute d) Dirctory statute
2)Which maxim means that express mention of the one thing implies the exclusion of another?
a) Ejusdem generis b) Reddendo Singula Singulis
c) Expressio unius est exclusio alterius d) Delegatus non potest delegare
3) This means general things do not derogate from special things
a) Delegatus non potest delegare c) Ejusdem generis
b) Generalia specialibus non derogant d) Reddendo Singula Singulis
4) The statute to remove doubts either in the common law or in the statutory law.
a) Codifying statute c) Remedial statute
b) Enabling statute d) Declaratory statute
5) When a general word follows specific words of a distinct category , the general word may be given a
restricted meaning of the same category?
a) Ejusdem generis b) In bonam pantem
c) Noscitur a soci is d) Expressuin facit cessare taciturn
6) The art of finding out the true sense of an enactment by giving the words their natural & ordinary
meaning
a) Short title b) I nt erpret at io n
c) Construction d) Al l o f t he a bo ve
7) Law Commission Report is an ___ of Interpretation
a) External Aid b) Legal Aid
c) Constitutional Aid d) Internal Aid
8) Interpretation of Statute is a_____Law.
a) Penal b) Codified
c) Fiscal d) None of the above
9) Remedial statute should be construed
a) Harmoniously b) Liberally
c) Strictly d) None of the above
10) Complete the Maxims " ut res magis______quam pereat".
a) Potior b) Facit
c) Bonam d) Valeat
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q.1. Choose correct option from the following. (10 Marks )
1) Which part of the constitution helps us in interpretation of statute?
a) Preamble b) Marginal notes
c) explanation d) All of above
2) Lex means
a) Law b) Example
c) Ilustration d) Marginal notes
3) Constitation is the
a) Fundamental law of land b) Historical law
c) Natural law d) Sociological law
4) Ordinanily the court must find out the .... of the legislature from the words used in the statute by
giving them their natural meaning
a) Intention b) Provision
c) Example d) Illustrution
5) The words of a statute are first understood in their
a) Natural & Ordinary b) Grammatical
c) Literal d) Strict
6) The mischief rule of interpretation originated in
a) Keshavanand Bharati b) Bommai case
c) Hey don's case d) None of above
7) Preamble contains_____ of the Act & is therefore, a part of the statute
a) Object b) Subject
c) Meaning d) Part
8) _____is a legislative act designed to change some prior and existing law by adding or taking
from it some particular provision
a) Amendment b) Rules
c) Acts d) Sections
9) A public statute is one which relates to a matter of
a) Disputes b) Govt. Policy
c) Public Policy d) Private Policy
10) Welfare statutes are also called as
a) Amending statute b) Enabling statute
c) Penal statute d) Remedical statute
APRIL/MAY – 2014
Q.1. Choose the correct option from the following : (10 Marks )
1) Short title is
a) title given to context. b) Nickname given to the statute.
c) both of above. d) None of above
2) Preamble is the
a) Name give to statute. b) Object of the Act.
c) Reason of Act. d) Literal name given to statute.
3) UBi jus ibi remediam means
a) where there is right there is remedy. b) Right and duty essentials of statute.
c) adjucted matter deemed to be correct. d) None of above.
4) Lex means
a) Law b) Right
c) Duty d) Remedy
5) The mischief rule of interpretation originated in
a) Keshavnand Bharati case b) S. R. Bommai case
c) T. N. Seshan case d) Heydon's case
6) Illustrations are sometimes appended to a------of a statute with a view to illustrate the provision of law
explained there in.
a) example b) sections
c) Act d) Law
7) Invalid part of the enactment can be served from the rest of the enactment by following principle.
a) Doctrine of pith and substance. b) Doctrine of colourable legislation.
c) Doctrine of Territerial Nexus. d) Doctrine of severability.
8) Legislative act designed to change some prior and existing law by
a) Amendment b) Improvement
c) Seperate d) Repeal
9) The concept of ejusdem generis means
a) of the same kind. b) of different nature.
c) of same system. d) of different system.
10) Constitution is
a) Fundamental law of land. b) Natural law.
c) Historical law. d) None of above.
BACHELOR OF LAWS LL.B. / B.A. LL.B. (FOURTH / EIGHT SEMESTER)

NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 2. Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) ( 10 Marks )
1) Meaning of Ejusdem generis
2) Define repeal statute
3) Importance of Preamble
4) What is nocitus-a-sociis ?
5) What are marginal notes ?
APRIL-MAY– 2019
Q. 2.Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) ( 10Marks )
1) What do you mean by Literal Rule of interpretation?
2) Remedial statute
3) What is nocitus a sociis?
4) Temporary statute
5) What is Obiter-dicta?
NOVEMBER– 2018
Q. 2.Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10 Marks )
1) What is fiscal statute ?
2) what is mischief ?
3) meaning of ‘Non –obstan clause
4) what is obiter-dicta
5) Exception clause
APRIL/MAY – 2018
Q. 2. Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10 Marks )
1) Concept of eclipse
2) What is the commencement of statute?
3) Express repeal.
4) Temporary statute.
5) What is codification of statute ?

NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Explain Proviso in interpretation of statute.
2) What is public statute
3) When does statute commence?
4) Codification of statute.
5) Statute must be read in its full context.
MAY – 2017
1) Construction meaning
2) Public statute
3) Remedial Statute
4) Meaning of commencement
5) Consolidating Statute
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Define repeal Statutes.
2) What is the object of Interpretation of Statutes?
3) What is the importance of preamble?
4) Define taxing Statute enlist some examples of it.
5) Define the maxim ‘ut res magis valeat quam pereat’.
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) What do you mean by literal rule of interpretation?
2) Explain mens rea
3) What do you mean by proviso?
4) What is liberal interpretation of statute?
5) Explain text books and dictionaries as external aid to contruction.

APRIL/MAY – 2015
Q. 2.Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10 Marks )
1) What is meant by Marginal notes?
2) Meaning of Declaratory statute
3) Meaning of Short title
4) Meaning of In bonam parterm
5) Concept of Codifying statutes
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Meaning of Ejusdem generis
2) What is mean by temporary statute?
3) What is effect of repeal statute?
4) What is object behind to amend the statute?
5) Which are welfare statute?
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) What are the schedules?
2) What are marginal notes?
3) What is the codification of statute?
4) Define Interpretation.
5) What is use of Dictionaries in interpretation of statute?


NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) ( 20 Marks )
1) Principle of Colourable legistation
2) Write a note on ‘statutes in pari-materia’
3) Define golden rule of interpretation
4) Precedent theory
5) Doctrine of Pith and substance
6) Amending statute
7) Beneficial construction
APRIL-MAY– 2019
Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) (20 Marks )
1) Ratio Decendi
2) Rule of strict interpretation
3) Mischief Rule
4) Golden rule of interpretation
5) Statute in PARI MATERIA
6) Amending statute
7) Marginal Notes'
NOVEMBER– 2018
Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) (20 Marks )
1) Ratio Decendi
2) Precedent
3) Rule of strict interpretation
4) Remedial statute
5) Golden rule of interpretation
6) Mischief rule
7) Consolidating statute

APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Remedial statute
2) Consolidating statute
3) Literal rule
4) Mischief rule
5) Doctrine of prospective overruling
6) Beneficial construction
7) Ejusdem generis
NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Non –obstante clause
2) Harmonious construction
3) The mischief rule of interpretation.
4) What is Golden Rule of Interpretation.
5) Principle of colourable legislation.
6) Concept of beneficial construction.
7) Statutes in PARI MATERIA
MAY – 2017
1) Amending statute
2) Delegatus non potest delegare
3) What is prospective overruling
4) Presumption as to jurisdiction
5) Ejusdem generis
6) The statute must be read as a whole
7) Theory of precedent

NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Explain types of Statute.
2) Write a note on ‘Statutes in pari-materia’
3) Write a note on ‘Expressio unius-exclusio alterius’.
4) Explain the principle for interpretation of taxing statute.
5) Define golden rule of interpretation. Explain it.
6) Explain external aids to interpretation.
7) Explain, the maxim-‘Ejusdem generis’.
APRIL/MAY – 2016
Q. 3. Short Not (any four) ( 20 Marks )
1) Ratio decidendi
2) Preamble of the Act.
3) Ejudsem Generis
4) Non -obstante clause
5) Shall and may
6) Golden rule of Interpretation.
7) Statute must be read as whole.
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) External Aids
2) Statutes in pari material
3) Classification of statutes with reference to duration
4) Golden rule
5) Public & Private statute
6) Ejusdem generis
7) Reddendo Singula Singulis


NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Doctrine of Harminous Construction
2) Mischief Rule of interpretation
3) Golden Rule of interpretation
4) The Doctrine of pith & Substance
5) Mandatory & Dirctory statute
6) Public & Private statute
7) Stare decisis
APRIL/MAY – 2014
Q. 3. Write Short Notes. (any four) ( 20 Marks )
1) Golden Rule of Intepretation.
2) Remedial Statute.
3) Public and Private statute.
4) Principle of colourable legislation.
5) The principle of pith and substance.
6) Michief Rule.
7) Principle of Territorial nexus.

NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 4. Answer the following questions. (Any two) (20 Marks)
1) What are the various presumptions in regard to taxing statute
2) What are the internal aid to the interpretation
3) What is the golden rule of the interpretation. Explain with the help of decided case law.
4) Laid down interpretation as to constitutional documents and rules there under .
APRIL-MAY– 2019
Q. 4. Answer the following questions. (Any two) (20 Marks)
1) Describe Harmonious Construction? Explain with the help of Supreme Court Decisions in Constitutional
matters.
2) What do you understand by External Aids to the construction of statute? Expand
3) What do you understand by Statute? Explain in detail classification of statute.
4) Explain Taxing Statute. Why the interpretation to the Taxing Statute be strict?
NOVEMBER– 2018
Q. 4.Answer the following questions. (Any two) (20 Marks)
1) Explain the various aid of interpretation of statute.
2) Why the ‘the rule of strict interpretation, apply to taxing statute?
3) Distinguished between penal and remedial statute.
4) Examine the general principles affecting jurisdiction of the court.
APRIL/MAY – 2018
Q. 4. Answer the following questions. (Any two) ( 20 Marks )
1) Why the ‘the rule of strict interpretation, apply to penal statute?
2) Define interpretation. What are the object of the interpretation. Differ it from construction.
3) Explain the mischief rule of interpretation.
4) What is the golden rule of interpretation .

NOVEMBER – 2017
Q. 4. Answer the following questions. (Any two) (20 Marks )
1) What do you understand by External Aids to the construction of statute. Expand .
2) Whether the constitution of India interpretated differently? What are rules of the interpretation of the
constitution? Explain with the help of constitutional douments.
3) Define the statue and explain the classification of statutes.
4) What is mean by ‘ strict interpretation of penal statutes’? discuss with the help of decided cases.
MAY – 2017
1) What are the various presumptions in regard to taxing statute
2) What are the internal aid to to the interpretation
3) What is the golden rule of the interpretation. Explain with the help of decided case law.
4) Laid down interpretation as to constitutional documents and rules there under .
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Explain the internal aids to interpretation.
2) Discuss the mischief rule. Support your answer with appropriate case laws.
3) Explain the provisions governing interpretation of Constitution.
4) Discuss the principle of interpretation of Penal Statutes, with suitable examples.
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) Discuss in brief internal Aids of interpretation of Statute
2) What are the rules of Interpretation of Constitutional documents?
3) Explain the principles of Interpretation of Taxing Statute cite the relevant case laws.
4) Explain the following maxims
1) Expression unius est exclusio aherius
2) Generalia sepcialibus non derogant
3) In bonam partem
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Discuss the rules of statutory interpretation.
2) Explain the Taxing statute & Penal statute.
3) Discuss various Internal aids to interpretation.
4) Explain the following Maxims.
a) Expressium facit cessare tactitum
b) Delegatus non potest delegare
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) In the statutory interpretation there are certain principales to interpret the context state & explain the
principal of statutery interpretation
2) Discuss the various external aids to interpretation & their role in removing ambigulity of a particular
legislation.
3) What are the different types of the statute state & explain the effect of amending statute?
4) What is interpretation of statute distingulish between intepretation & Construction? ,
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Discuss the general principle of statutory interpretation.
2) What are the kinds of the statute? Differentiate between codifying and non codifying statute.
3) What are the consequences of Interpretation of statute affecting jurisdiction of court?
4) Is it important to know as to whether some internal parts can be of any help to the courts in the interpretation
of a section. State and explain in the light of internal aid to interpretation.
Sub.: Law of Torts, Motor Vehicle Accident & Consumer Protection Laws (LW-402/LW-8002)
NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 1.Choose the correct option from the following.(10)
1)Which of the following is not a defense to trespass to the person?
a) Lawful authority b) Contributory negligence
c) Self-defense d) Necessity
2)Which one of the following interests are not protected by the law of tort?
a) Peaceful enjoyment of one’s land b) Reputation
c) Loss of commercial profit due to competition d) Physical Safety
3)Which of the following is not an objective of the law of tort?
a) Compensation b) Corrective justice
c) Deterrence d) Imposition of moral blame
4)The following is not a tort described as ‘trespass to the person…
a) Battery b) False imprisonment
c) Either A or B d) Assault
5)Defamation involves
a) using a weapon b) Atleast 5 people to be present
c) a contract d) Making false statement about someone
6)Negligence Involve
a) A crime b) Carelessness
c) Assault d) Tresspass
7)The rights of consumer as per consumer protection Act does not include right to be
a) Informed b) Heard
c) Safety d) Presented
8)Among the following which forum can reappoint the same person as its member
a) District forum b) State Commission
c) National Commission d) None of the above
9)The jurisdiction of the state commission is
a) below 20 Lakhs b) 20 Lakhs to 1 crore
c) Above 1 crore d) None of the above
10)Appeal against the National forum can be done in
a) District Court b) High Court
c) Supreme Court d)None of the above
APRIL-MAY– 2019

1)‘Tort is a civil wrong for which remedy is common law action for unliquidated damages and is not
exclusively breach of contract or trust or other merely equitable obligation’
a) Fraser b) Salmond
c) Winfield d) Bentham
2) ‘Rescue cases’ forms an exception to doctrine of ________
a) Volenti non fit injuria b) Damnum sine injuria
c) Injuria sine damnum d) All of these
3) ‘The Innuendo’ falls under
a) Assault b) Nuisance
c) Defamation d) Tresspass
4) The interference with person’s use or enjoyment of land amounts to
a) Tresspass b) Nuisance
c) Both of these d) None of these
5) Deficiency under Consumer Protection Act 1986 means
a) fault b) imperfection
c) inadequancy d) All of these
6) The Consumer Protection Act1986 extends to
a) The Whole of Indiab) The whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
c) The whole India except Manipur and Nagaland d) Both b) and c)
7) Rylands v. Fletcher, signifies
a) Rule of Strict Liability b) Vicarious Liability
c) Trespass d) Nuisance
8) Tort is derived from Latin word
a) Tortum b) Tortus
c) Tartel d) Tart
9) ‘Gloucester Grammar School’ case signifies
a) Injuria Sine Damnum b) Damnum Sine Injuria
c) Volenti Non Fit Injuria d) None of these
10) Leading case on Negligence
a) Gloucester Grammer School b) Donoghue v. Stevenson
c) Ashby v. White d) Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Injuria signifies
a) Violation of legal right b) Violation of right
c) Violation of avail right d) Violation of moral right
2) The word ‘Tort’ has been derived from the Latin term
a) Tortus b) Tortum
c) Tartel d) Tart
3) The two broad categories of torts are
a) Assualt and Battery b) Assualt and aggravated assualt
c) Assault and negligence d) Intentional and unintentional
4) Law of tort propounded by
a) Salmond b) Austin
c) Kelson d) Benthem
5) When was the Motor Vehicle Act passed
a) 1945 b) 1947
c) 1939 d) 1956
6) The Consumer Protection Act 1986 extends to
a) The whole India b) The whole India except Jammu & Kashmir
c) The whole India except Nagaland triabal area d) Both (b) & (c)
7) Vicarious Liabilty means that the employer
a) Is liable to third person for the negligent acts of b) Is liable to third parties for his own negligence
employees committed in the course of employment
c) Is liable to employees when the employer has himself been negligent d) None of the above
8) If in a cricket match the ball goes outside the field and hits a spectator then he can not sue the player
because
a) The game of cricket is risky b) In such cases there is implies consent of the spectator to bear such risk
c) The player was aiming a sixer d) Cricket Council Board is responsible for this
9) Ryland vs. Fletcher is the leading case on
a) Rule of strict liability b) Rule of absolute liability
c) Violation of avail right d) violation of moral right
10) The district forum shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods or services
and compensation if any claimed does not exceed rupees
a) 50 lakhs b) 15 lakhs c) 1 Crore d)None of the above
APRIL/MAY – 2018
Q. 1. Choose the correct option from the following. (10)

1) The tort of battery is
a) An intentional misrepresentation of facts
b) The threat of immiment physical harm
c) The act of coming onto another person’s property without consent
d) Non-consensul physical contact that violates an individual’s bodily security
2) The two broad categories of torts are
a) Assualt and Battery b) Assualt and aggravated assault
c) Assault and negligence d) Intentional and unintentional
3) Law of tort propounded by
a) Salmond b) Austin c) Kelson d) Benthem
4) Strict Liability Case
a) Pasley vs. freeman b) Ryland vs. Fletcher c) Dongue vs. Stevenson d) Nicoles vs. Marshland
5) The principle of absolute liability in the Indian tort law is applicable when damage is caused
by the activity or escape of
a) Hazardous material only b) Poisonous material
c) Inherently dangerous material only d) Hazardous or inherently dangerous material
6) When was the Motor Vehicle Act passed
a) 1945 b) 1947 c) 1939 d) 1956
7) The Consumer Protection Act 1986 extends to
a) The whole India b) The whole India except Jammu & Kashmir
c) The whole India except Nagaland triabal area d) Both (b) & (c)
8) In case of death of a consumer who can prefer complaint under Section 2(1)(b) of the
Consumer Protection Act 1986
a) His legal heir or representative b) State Government
c) Consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956 d) No one can prefer Complaint
9) The Consumer Protection Act 1986 enacted in
a) 24th Oct. 1986 b) 24th Oct 1987 c) 24th Aug. 1986 d) 15th June 1986
10) Vicarious Liabilty means that the employer
a) Is liable to third person for the negligent acts of employees committed in the course of employment
b) Is liable to third parties for his own negligence
c) Is liable to employees when the employer has himself been negligent d) None of the above
NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Word tortum means?
a) Civil wrong b) Criminal wrong
c) either d) Twisted behaviour
2) Wrongdoer in tort is called?
a) tortfeasor b) criminal
c) acussed d) None of these
3) Which of the following section relates to jurisdiction of district consumer forum?
a) 14 b) 11
c) 20 d) None of these
4) Which of the following section of motor vechiles act1988 relates to defination of motor vechile
a) 2(8) b) 2(3)
c) both d) either
5) Damno means?
a) damages b) compensation
c) without d) None of these
6) Sine means?
a) without b) within
c) either d) None of these
7) Gloucester grammer school relates to?
a) Injuria sine damnum b) Damnum sine injuria
c) either a & b d) None of these
8) Tort is a… wrong?
a) civil b) criminal
c) either d) both
9) Libel & slander relates to?
a) trespass b) defamation
c) nuisance d) neglience
10) False- imprisonment relates to?
a) Trespass to person b) Trespass to land
c) either d) None of these
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) Tort is a…..?
c) Either a or b d) None of these
2) Ashby v/s.White concerned with?
a) Injuria sine damnum b) Damnum sine injuria
c) Both a and b d) None of these
3) Qui facit per alium faciet means?
a) Vicarious liability b) Strict liability
c) Absolute liability d) None of these
4) Which rule is laid down in the case of Rylands V. Fletcher
a) Strict liability b) Absolute liability
5) Volenti non fit injuria means?
a) Consent b) Coercion
c) Undue influence d) Fraud
6) Injuria means?
a) Violation of legal right b) Violation of criminal right
7) Injunction is … kind of remedy?
a) judicial b) Extra judicial
c) both a & b d) none of these
8) Which rule is laid down in the case M.C. Mehta V/S Union of India?
a) Absolute liability b) Strict liability
c) Vicarious liability d) None of these
9) Slander is which kind of defamation?
a) written b) Oral
10) Word 'Tortum' is derieved from which language?
a) French b) Latin
c) English d) None of these
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Basically Tort is species of ---------------------
a) Criminal injury or wrong
b) Substantial injury or wrong
c) Civil injury or civil wrong
d) None of the above.
2) Malice in law means
a) Wrongful act done intentionally but without just cause or excuse
b) Wrongful act done intentionally with just cause and effect.
c) Wrongful act done intentionally with good motive
d) Wrongful act done intentionally with evil motive.
3) An act done as act of state`
a) Can be questioned in municipal courts with all facets.
b) Can be questioned in municipal courts to a limited extent.
c) Can not be questioned at all in municipal courts.
d) None of the above
4) Which is correct in Tort
a) Mental element is total irrelevant
b) Mental element is absolutely relevant
c) Mental element is relevant only in cases of torts requiring special mental element
d) None of the above
5) In Donghue vs Stevenson the duty of manufacturer was stated to be
a) Towards retailer only
b) Towards the buyer from retailer
c) Towards ultimate consumer
6) The absolute liability
a) Does not recognize any exception
b) Is subject to the same exception as the rule of strict liability.
c) Is subject to the same exceptions as the rule of vicarious liability
d) Is subject to all the general exceptions.
7) Under the rule of vicarious liability
a) Master is liable for the torts committed by his servant
b) Employer is liable for the torts committed by his employee
c) Employer is not liable for the tort committed by an independent contractor
d) Both (a) and (b) incorrect.
8) Nuisance can be
a) Public
b) Private
c) Both
9) Liability for a libel depends on
a) Intention of the defamer.
b) Fact of defamation
c) Intention of the defamer and the fact of defamation
10) Conspiracy is
a) A crime
b) A Tort
c) Crime and Tort both
d) Only (a)
APRIL/MAY – 2016

1) The word 'Tort' has been derived from the Latin term
a) Tortus b) Tortum
c) Tartel d) Tart
2) Tort is a
a) Criminal wrong b) Civil wrong
c) Civil as well as criminal wrong d) None of these
3) ----------means voilation of a legal right without causing any harm, loss or damage to the plaintiff.
a) Injuria sine damno b) Damnum sine Injuria
c) Volenti-non-fit-lnjuria d) Vicarious liability
4) Rylands v/s Fletcher is the leading case on
c) Rule of vicarious liability d) None of these
5) Injuria signifies
a) Voilation of legal right b) Voilation of right
c) Voilation of avail right d) Voilation of moral rights
6) Damages suffered due to tortious act is redressed by claim for
a) Liquidated damages b) Unliquidated damages
c) Penalty d) Restorable damages
7) The pharase vicarious liability means the
a) Liability of one person for the act done by another person b) Liability of one person for the act done by himself
8) Liability in torts depends on
a) Quantum of damages suffered b) Infringement of legal rights
c) Involvement of intention d) Effect on public interest
9) According to Sec 140 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 no fault liability has been recognised in respect of
the death of a person a fixed sum of Rs. is
a) 50,000 b) 10,000
c) 60,000 d) 25,000
10) The District forum shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods or
services & compensation if any claimed does not exceed rupees
a) 10 lakhs b) 20 lakhs c) 5 lakhs d) l Crore
NOVEMBER– 2015
1. Choose correct option from the following. (10)
1) Tort is a
c) Civil as well as Criminal wrong d) None of above
2) The term tort is said to originate from
a) Tartus b) Tartel
c) Tartum d) Tart
3) Rylands v. Fletcher is leading case on
c) Rule of vicarious liability d) None of the above
4) "Injuria" signifies
a) Violation of right b) Violation of legal right
c) Violation of avail right d) Violation of moral rights
5) The role of absolute liability was laid down in
a) M.C. Mehta VS Union of India b) Madras Railway Co. VS Zamindar
c) K. Nagareddi VS Govt. of Andhra d) Minu B. Mehta VS Balakrishna Pradesh
6) The phrase Vicarious liability, means the
a) Liability of a person for the tort of another b) Liability of servant for his master
c) Liability of Government servant for the Government d) Liability of Government servant for the Government
7) Act. Of God is a valid defence to the rule of strict liability. This signifies
a) An act of supernatural powers b) An act of religious persons
c) An act of religious institution d) An act of state
8)________possession is the possession of material things like land, house, buildings.
a) Corporeal b) Incorporeal
c) Mediate d) Immediate
9) According to________of legal right,"a legal right is a legally protected interest."
a) Will theory b) Interest Theory
c) Title theory d)None of the above
10) Hart says " The human conduct is made in some sense non optional or obligatory thus the idea of
____is at the core rule of law".
a) Liberty b) Obligation c) Immunity d) Power
APRIL/MAY – 2015
Q.1. Choose correct option from the following. (10)

1) There are certain exceptions to the rule of Strict Liability while the doctrine of absolute liability.
a) Is not subject to any exceptions b) Is subject to exceptions of Rylands Vs. Flether's case
c) Is applied strictly but under certain conditions d) Is absolute and free from clutches of exceptions.
2) If a harm is caused by the escape of olium gas from one of the units situated in a residential area.
a) The rule of Ryland vs. Flether will fully apply b)The rule of Ryland vs. Flether does not meet the requirements
c) The rules of M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India will apply d) The rule of Waghala Rajsanji vs. Sheikh Masludin will apply
3) Which one of the following pair is NOT correctly match?
a) Injuria — means violation of legal right b) Sine — means without
c) Damnum — means damages in the form of d) Perse — means damage caused money, health and happiness
4) Which one of the following group of stages of the human mind are examined for any wrongful act?
a) Motive, intention and malice b) Motive, intention and fault
c)Intcntion , fault and injury d) fault , conspiracy and mens — rea
5) If in a cricket match the ball goes outside the field and hits a spectator then he can not sue the player
because
a) The game of cricket is risky b) In such cases there is implied consent of the spectator to bear such risk
c)The player was aiming a sixer d) Cricket Control Board is responsible for this
6) If a person is bound by the law to an act thcn the consent given by him to do that act is not a
a) Free consent b) Real submission
c) Real consent d) True act
7) Rescue cases are exception to maxim
a) Damnum sine Injuria b)Injuria sine Damnum
c) Volenti not fit Injuria d)Ubi jus ibi remedian
8) The defendant will not be liable if the escape is caused by such act of the stranger which
a) beyond the control of the defendant b) beyond the control of the stranger
c) Unforceable by the defendent d)Unforceable by the stranger
9) The rule in Rylands vs. Flether does not apply to cases where the thing likely to do mischief
has been brought and kept on the defendant's land
a) With some authority b)With some legality c) With some say d)With some statutory authority
10) The phrase Vicarious liability means the
a) Liability of a person for the tort of another b) Liability of servant for his master
c) Liability of Government servant for the Government .d) Liability of Government servant for the Government
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q.1 Choose correct option from the following. (10)
1) "Injuria" signifies
a) Violation of right b) Violation of legal right
c) Violation of avail right d) Violation of moral rights
2) Mental condition of the wrong-oder at the time of wrong doing is
a) relevant in all torts b) Relevant to torts based on fault
c) Relevant in torts based on strict liability d) Not relevant in tortuous liability
3) Quifacit per alium facit per se means
a) Liability under law of torts b) Liability for unauthorized act.
c) Vicarious liability d) Strict liability
4) Gloucestershire Grammer School case is a leading case to explain the
a) Voilenti non fit injuria b) Injuria non fit volenti
c) Damnum sine injuria d) Injuria sine damno
5) The role of absolute liability was laid down in
a) M.C. Mehta VS Union of India b) Madras Railway Co. VS Zamindar
c) K. Nagareddi VS Govt. of Andhra . d) Minu B. Mehta VS Balakrishna Pradesh
6) Which one of the following has been laid down as basis of responsibility by the rule in Rylands VS Fletcher?
a) Fault liability b) Condition liability
c) Strict liability d) Insurance liability
7) Act. Of God is a valid defense to the rule of strict liability. This signifies
a) An act of supernatural powers c) An act of religious institution
b) An act of religious persons d) An act of state
8) In M.C. Mehta VS Union of India the supreme court was dealing with claims arising from the leakage of
a) Oleum gas b) Carbon monoxide
c) Methyl tocynate d) Carbon dioxide
9) Master is liable
a) Not only for he acts of servants but of independent contractor too
b) Not for acts of independent contractors and not of the servant
c) For the act of independent contractor but of servant also d) None of the above
10) Section 499 of India penal code, corvers
a) Libel b) Slander
c) Libel as well as slander d) None of the above
APRIL/MAY – 2014
Q.1.Choose correct option from the following. (10)

1) Tort is a
a) civil wrong b) criminal wrong c) civil as well as criminal wrong d) none of the above
2) Damages suffered due to tortuous Act is redressed by claim for
a) Liquidated damages b) unliquidated damages
c) Liquidated as well as unliquidated damages d) restorable damages
3) The term tort is said to originate from
a) Tortum b) Tortel c) Tortus d) Tort
4) ubi jus ibi remedium means
a) every law provides for remedies. b) There is no wrong without a remedy.
c) If a law is made correcponding remedy also must be made.
d) every remedy presupposes some injury to somebody.
5) For an action in torts
a) there should be violation of legal rights.
b) damages should have accrued to plaintiff whether there is a violation of legal right or not.
c) violation of right is essential d) none of the above
6) The difference between tort and contract is
a) Tort is a violation of right in rem while breach of contract is a violation of right in personam.
b) Tort is violation of duty imposed by society breacher, contract is violation of duty imposed by law.
c) both (a) and (b) are true d) (a) is true but (b) is false.
7) Which of the following statement is true?
a) Tort is a violation of right in rem and available against world at large.
b) Tort is violation of right in personam and available against determinate group of persons.
c) Tort is a violation of right in rem and available against determinate persons.
d) Tort is not a violation of right but violation of duty only.
8) "Damnum" implies.
a) Dictaorship b) Decision of house of lords. c) Damages d) Double bench opinion.
9) Liability in torts depends on
a) quantum of damages suffered b) involvement of intention.
c) infringement of legal rights. d) effects on public interest.
10) Ashby Vs. White is leading case on
a) injuria sine damno b) damno singe injuria c) volenti non fit injuria d) none of the above
NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 2.Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10)
1. Define tort
2. When does Motor Vehicle Act came into existence ?
3. Define assault
4. What is meant by “qualified privilege”?
5. What are extra judicial remedies?
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1. Explain „Consumer‟ under Consumer Protection Act,1986
2. Define Tort
3. What is Nuisance
4. Explain the Age limit in connection with driving of Motor vehicles under, Motor Vehicle Act,1988.
5. Explain Assault
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) What is the difference between servant and independent contractor
2) What is the difference between liquidated and unliquidated danages
3) Define Negligence?
4) Define Tort?
5) Explain Volenti Non Fit Injuria.
APRIL/MAY – 2018
Q. 2. Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10)
1) Define tort ?
2) Explain the type of defamation?
3) Who is servant?
4) Who is consumrer?
5) What is the purpose of Consumer protection Act 1986?

NOVEMBER – 2017
1) What is meant by the word innuendo?
2) What is meant by battery?
3) What is meant by nuisance?
4) What is strict liability?
5) What is meant by assault
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1. Define tort?
2. Explain Damages?
3. Define Negligence?
4. DefineDefamation?
5. Explain False- Imprisonment?
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) What is meant by word Tort?
2) What is vicarious liability?
3) What are the kinds of defamation.?
4) What is malice.
5) What is meant by false imprisonment?
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) What is the meaning of word 'Tort'?
2) What is the meaning of word damage?
3) Inevitable Accident
4) Who is consumer?
5) Who is an 'Owner' under Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

NOVEMBER– 2015
1) What is the meaning of Duty?
2) State the Bentam's utility principle.
3) What is the meaning of obiter Dicta?
4) Define obligation.
5) State the concept of Kant's categorical Imperative.
APRIL/MAY – 2015
Q. 2. Answer the following questions in 30 words (10)
1) What are the essentials of Tort, according to Dr. Winfield?
2) What is the difference between Liquidated and unliquidated damages?
3) Who is a servant?
4) What are the defences generally taken in an action of defamation?
5) What is Purpose of Consumer Protection Act 1986?
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q.2 Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10)
1) What is meaning of word 'Tort'?
2) What is Assualt?
3) What are the types of Defamation?
4) What are the types of nuisance?
5) What is meant by Battery?
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) What is meaning of Assualt?
2) What is meaning of word damages?
3) Who is servant?
4) Who is consumer?
5) Why insurance is compulsory under motor vehicle Act, 1988?

NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 3.Short Notes. (any four) (20)

1.Deceit
2. Malicious 3. Contributory Negligence
4. Tresspass to property
5. Expalin any 3 general defences with the help of case law
6. Rayland Vs. Fletcher
7. Types of Defamation Prosecution
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1. Strict liability
2. Volenti non fit injuria
3. Elaborate public and Private Nuisance
4. District Consumer Forum
5.Explain Duty of driver in case of accidentand injury to a person, under Motor Vehicles Accident Act,1988
6.Differentiate between Libel and Slander
7. Defences available in an action for Defamation
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Absolute liability
2) Malicious proceedings
3) Assualt and Battery
4) District Consumer Forum
5) Damnum Sine Injuria
6) Object of Motor Vehicle Act ,1988
7) Unfair Trade Practice
APRIL/MAY – 2018
Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) (20)
1) Deceit
2) Contributory Negligence
3) Types of Nusiance
4) Inevitable Accident
5) Rights of Consumer
6) Restrictive Trade Practices
7) Damages
NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Trespass to land
2) Extra-judicial remedies
3) Explain negligence?
4) explain district forum?
5) definevicarious liability?
6) explainDefamation?
7) definestrict liability?
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1. Strict liability?
2. Nuisance?
3. Assault?
4. Battery?
5. Negligence
6. Trespass?
7. Judicial remedies
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Malicious Prosecution
2) Negligence
3) Battery
4) Unfair trade practice
5) No fault liability
6) Assault`
7) Defamation
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) Trespass to the person
3) Public & Private nuisance
4) Absolute Liablility
5) Defamation
6) Consumers rights
7) Restrictive Trade Practices
NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Delegated Legislation
2) Feminist Jurisprudence
3) American Legal Realism
4) Kinds of Liability
5) Custom as a source of law
6) Duguit's Social solidarity 1;
7) Bracket theory
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Tresspass to property
2) Malicious Proceedings
4) Private and Public nuisance
5) Deficiency in services
6) Definition of Consumer and Complaint
7) Object and reasons of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988?
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q.3.Short notes. (any four) (20)
1) Jurisdiction of consumer Disputes Redressal commissions
2) Compulsory Insurance under Motor Vehicle Act. 1988
3) Master and servant
4) Discharge of Torts
5) Personal capacity in law of Torts
6) Nuisance
7) Tresspass to person
APRIL/MAY – 2014
2) Public and private nuisance
3) Tresspass to property
4) Malicious proceedings
5) Assault and Battery
6) Act of State
7) Unfair Trade Practices

NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 4.Answer the following questions. (Any two) (20)
1) Define tort and explain how it is differs from a contract with the help of case laws
2) Discuss in detail the principle of vicarious liability with respect to master and servant.
3) Explain the term consumer under consumer protection Act and discuss the various consumer redressal
forums in detail
4) Explain the concept of no fault liability under Motor Vehicle Act with the help of suitable case laws
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) State the composition, jurisdiction and the procedure of „State Forum‟ under the Consumer Protection
Act,1986.
2) Explain in detail the general defences available in tort
3) Elaborate Vicarious liability with suitable case laws
4) Dicuss the essentials of Negligence
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Define negligence and explain its essentials with reference to leading cases.
2) Define “Tresppass”,. Discuss the essentials of trespass to land, with the help of suitable case law.
3) Explain the various defences available in an action for Defamation
4) State the composition, jurisdiction and the procedure of „State Forum‟ under the Consumer Protection Act,
1986
APRIL/MAY – 2018
Q. 4. Answer the following questions. (Any two) (20)
1) Explain any six general Exception Under Law of Tort with the help of suitable case law.
2) State and explain the fault and no fault liability under Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
3) What is tort? Explain the nature and scope of tort?
4) Explain tresspass to person with the help of suitable case law.

NOVEMBER – 2017
1) explain the term consumer under consumer protection act& discuss various consumer
redressal forums in detail?
2) Explain in detail the general defences available in tort?
3) Discuss judicial& extra judicial remedies in tort?
4) Discuss in detail trespass to person?
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) Explain Tort. Write down difference between tort& crime and also differentiate between tort& contract?
2) Discuss trespass in detail trespass to person& trespass to land?
3) Define the term Consumer under Consumer Protection Act& discuss in detail consumer redressal forums in
detail.
4) Explain throughly judicial & extra-judicial remedies available in torts?
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Tort is civil wrong remedy for which is unliquidated damages and which is different from contract and
crimes, discuss.
2) All the persons have capacity to sue and to be sued in Tort. This however is a general rule and is subject to
modification in respect to certain categories of persons comment.
3) Discuss the vicatious liability in brief along with the vicarious liability of state for the tort of its employees
acting in the course of their employment support your answer with the relevant case laws.
4) Explain the term consumer under the consumer protection Act. And liability which is applicable here and
machinery under act, support your answer with case laws.
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) What do you mean by Tort, explain how it is different from Contract and Crime.
2) Explain the maxim Volenty non fit injuria along with exceptions.
3) State the composition, Jurisdiction & the procedure of 'District Foram' under the Consumer Protection Act,
1986.
4) State at explain the fault & no fault liability under Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Discuss the nature, scope & utility of jurisprudence.
2) "Judicial Precedent is binding source of law in today's context." Explain its nature, kind and circumstances
which destroy the binding force of judicial precedents.
3) Natural Law theory has undergone great change in trends in its evolution from ancient k modern period.
Discuss in the light of its growth and development
4) Describe characteristics of legal rights. Also explain various types of legal rights.
APRIL/MAY – 2015
Q.4. Answer the following questions in brief. (Any two) (20)
1)"Tort is a civil wrong,remedy for which is unliquidated damages and which is different from contract and
crime," Discuss.
2) Discuss the vicarious liability of State for the tort of it's employees acting in the course of their employment.
Support your answer with relevant case laws.
3) Discuss in details the composition and jurisdiction of consumer disputes redressal agencies under the
Consumer Protection Act,1986.
4) State and Explain Provisions of Insurance of Motor Vehicle against third party Risks under Motor Vehicle
Act, 1988.
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q.4 Answer the following questions. (Any two) (20)
1) All the persons have capacity to sue and to be sued in tort. This however is a general rule and is subject to
modification in respect of certain categories of person comment.
2) Define and discuss the vicarious liability of state for the tort of its employees, acting in the course of their
employment, support your answer with relevant case laws.
3) Explain the principal in the case of 'Rylands VS Fletcher with exceptions to the rule laid there in
4) Discuss the composition and Jurisdiction of consumer disputes redressal agencies under consumer protection
Act. 1986
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Explain the maxim volenti non fit injuria along with exceptions.
2) "The real significance of legal damage is illustrated by two maxims. Namely injuria sine damno and
Damnum sine injuria." Comment.
3) Who is a consumer? What is the mechanism for the enforcement of consumer right under the "consumer
protection Act, 1986?" Give an account of merits and demerits of the mechanism.
4) State and explain the fault and No fault liability under Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.
Sub.: Jurisprudence (LW-401/LW-8001) MCQ
NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Jurisprudence is the study of -------------law
(a) Religious (b) moral
(c) ehical (d) positive
2) Legal realism is the theory of law according to which law is the -------------of court
(a) wisdom (b) understanding
(c) practice (d) none of the above
3) Jurisprudence is derived from the word jurisprudential,which is -----
(a) german word (b) Latin word
(c) Greek word (d) Russian word
4) Who said Austin‘s command theory is a ―Threat theory‖
(a) Kelson (b) Hart
(c) Roscoe Pound (d) Savigny
5) Ownership is the ---------of a claim
(a) De jure (b) De facto
(c) Ipso facto (d) None of the above
6) Corporation is ----------
(a) Social person (b) Legal person
(c) Ordinary person (d) None of the above
7) ------------is one of the source of law
(a) custom (b) precedent
(c) legislation (d) all the above
8) Who propounded General Will theory
(a) Hobbes (b) John Locke
(c) Rousseau (d) None of the above
9) The book Leviathan was written by ------
(a) Grey (b) Lloyd
(c) Hobbes (d) None of the above
10) The theory of utility was propounded by----------
(a) Roscoe Pound (b) Austin
(c) Hobbes (d) Bentham
APRIL-MAY– 2019
Q. 1. Choose correct option from the following. (10)
1) Jurisprudence is the study of________ law.
a) Religious b) Moral
c) Ethical d) Posative
2) Ownership is the ______ recognition of a claim.
a) De jure b) De facto
c) Ipso facto d) None of the above
3) _______ has presented the thesis that jurisprudence is a social engineering.
a) Black stone b) Roscoe Pound
c) both a and b d) None of the above
4) The fair and ________ distribution of rights and obligations is known as justice
a) Equal b) Equitable
c) Natural d) Political
5) Jurisprudence meant _____________
a) Power of law b) Knowledge of law
c) Rule of law d) System of law
6) Corporation is __________
a) Social Person b) Legal Person
c) Ordinary Person d) None of the above
7) ___________ is regared as father of jurisprudence.
a) Thomas Acquiras b) Jermey Bentham
c) Holland d) Austin
8) _________ is one of the source of law.
a) Cusome b) Legislation
c) Precedect d) all of the above
9) Obligation arising out of tort is called as _____________
a) Contractual obligation b) Delictual Obligation
c) both of the above d) None of the above
10) Pure theory of law is describe by____________
a) Kelson b) Austin
c) Rosco Pound d) None of the above
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) ------ says jurisprudence is lawyers extraversion
a) Ulpain b) Salmond
c) Austin d) Julius Stone
2) Salmond rightly pointed out , ‗‘ law is the body of the principles recognized and applied by ------in the
administration of justice
a) Government b) State
c) Sovereign d) King
3) According to Austin law prevails in the form of --------but it must be command of sovereign
a) Rules b) Command
c) Justice d) Law
4) -------- laws does not treat as a command because they are in fact revocation of command
a) Codified laws b) Repeal Laws
c) Enacted Laws d) Amended Laws
5) Who laid down the theory of the Primary and Secondary Rule
a) Austin b) H.L.A.Harts
c) Salmond d) Bentham
6) Who laid down the test of Grandnorm
a) Kelsen b) John Locke
c) Hobbes d) Salmond
7) The theory of the social engineering enunciated by ------
a) Dugit b) Roscoe Pound
c) Hart d) Salmond
8) Which is the main source of the law of Modern Legal System
a) Legislation b) precedent
9) The decision of the superior Court is binding over the inferior court is the principle of
a) Obiter Dicta b) Custom
c) Ratio Decidendi d) Law
10) ‗ De mortius nil nisi bonum‘ means
a) Dead have no rights and can suffer no wrong b) Rights belongs to dead
c) Each has rights d) None of the above
APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Company has a separate legal entity‘, has been laid down in case
a) Salmon V salmon b) Gilford Motors V Horne & company
c) Both d) None of the above
2) Right in ordinary sense is the standard of ---------action within a certain sphere.
a) Permitted b) Granted
c) Enacted d) None of the above
3) ‗Ownership is a right , indefinite in point of user , unrestricted in point of disposition and unlimited in
point of duration‘, laid down by
a) Holland b) Austin
c) Salmond d) Duguit
4) ----- is nine point in ownership
a) Possession b) sole ownership
c) co- ownership d) none of the above
5) Nichols v Marsland is the case of
a) act of third party b) statutory authority
c) act of god d) none of the above
6) Austin considered to be a father of -------------- Jurisprudence
a) French b) American
c) English d) Austrian
7) The principle of ‗social Solidarity‘ laid down by
a) Fuller b) John Locke
c) Duguit d) Salmond
8) Fuller talk about inner
a) Values b) Morality
c) Conscious d) None of the above
9) --------- realism is the combination of analytical positivism and sociological jurisprudence.
a) Austrian b) American
c) French d) Greek
10) Who is considered to be a ― Dorwinian before Dorwinian ― according to Dr. Allen
a) Pollock b) Savigny
c) Burke d) Puchta
NOVEMBER – 2017
1) ------------has presented the thesis that jurisprudence is a social engineering
a) Black Stone b) John Stuart Mill
c) Roscoe Pound d) None of the above
2) Which theory of Legal rights says, a right is an inherent attribute of human will.
a) Will theory b)Interest theory
c) Protection theory d)None of the above
3) When the ownership is vested in a single person, it is called --------
a) Co-ownershiop b)Sole Ownership
c)Trust Ownership d) Equitable ownership
4) The origin of law lies in the popular spirit of the people which-----------termed as Volksgeist.
a) Savigny b) Salmond
c) Grey d) Puchta
5) According to -------------State is a synonym for the legal order which is nothing but a‘pyramid of norms.‘
A) Austin b) Kelson
c) Sir Henry Maine d) None of the above
6) Legislation is ----------when it proceeds from the sovereign power in the state and is incapable of being
repealed, annulled or controlled by any other legislative authority.
a) Subordinate b) Supreme
c) Colonial d) None of the above.
7) Right in re aliena means a right over-----------
a) his own property b)property of someone else
c) a property situated in a foreign country d) a property situated in one’s own country
8) According to the ‗declaratory theory‘ of jurisprudence, the judges only declare the law and they do
not make any law. The Supporter of this theory was--------
a) Dicey b) Grey
c)Blackstone d) Duguit.
9) The thing on which the right is to be exercised is known as-------------of right.
a) Subject b)Object
c)Content d)None of the above
10) …………………………..hold that jurisprudence is the study of ‗law as it is.‘
a) Moralists b) Naturalists c)Positivists d) None of the above
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) Jurisprudence is derived from the word jurisprudentia, which is——
a) German word b). Latin word
c). Greek word d). Russian word
2) Who said, Austin‘s command theory is‘Threat theory‘?
a) Kelson b) Hart
c) Roscoe Pound d) Savigny
3) The book ‗Leviathan‘ was written by———
a) Grey b) Lloyd
c) Hobbes d) None of the above.
4) ----------------states that all the actions of human beings are controlled by two sovereigns,
namely ‗pain‘ and ‗pleasure‘.
a) Hedonism b) Realism
c) Formalism d) Theolism
5) The theory of utility was propounded by———
a) Roscoe pound b) Jeremy Bentham
c) Austin d) Hobbes
6) Who said ‗International law is a vanishing point of jurisprudence‘?
a) Austin b) Holland
c) Kelson d) Olivecrona
7) Who propounded ‗General Will‘ theory.?
a) Thomas Hoobbes b) John Locke
c) Rousseau d) None of the above
8) Which theory propounded that, ―law is what courts do and not what they say.
a) Realist theory b) Positivist theory
c) Savigny theory d)None of the above
9) According to-------law is nothing but a ‗set of social facts.‘
a) Axel Hagerstrom b) Karl Olivecrona
c) Alf Ross d) None of the above
10) The ------presupposes that the state is a creation of agreement by the people.
a) Divine theory b) Natural theory
c) Social Contract theory d) Patriarchal theory
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Salmond defines jurisprudence as the ‗science of ------------‗.
a) Law b) First principles of civil law
c) Remedial law d) Legal system
2) --------- theory of purnishment is based on the maxim, ―an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth‘.
a) Deterrent theory b) Preventive theory
c) Retributive theory d) Reformative theory
3) --------- is the legislation proceeds from the sovereign power in the state.
a) Autonomous legislation b) Degated legislation
c) Subordinate legislation d) Supreme legislation
4) The expcnents of -------- school lay greater stress on functional aspect of law rather than it‘s abstract content.
a) Sociological school b) Philosophical school
c) Historical school d) Analytical
5) The ownership of material objects is callled --------.
a) Sole ownership b) Vested ownership
c) Corporeal ownership d) Incorporeal ownership
6) ------ law defines the right and provides remedy for it.
a) Substantive law b) Procedural law
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
7) Acc. To Hohfeld‘s table, the jural co-relative of immunity is ---------.
a) Disbility b) Duty
c) No-right d) None of the above
8) Analytical positivism is ------- is ancient Indian legal system in which king was to rule according to
dharma.
a) Opposite b) Corollary
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
9) Dean Roscoe pond definers the theory of ----------.
a) Social engineering b) theory of volksgeist
c) Revivall of natural law d) Theory of grundnarm
10) -------- is one of the main exponents of the new revival of natural law theory.
a) Kelson b) Rudolp stammler
c) Austin d) H.L.A.Hart
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) Jurisprudence meant:-
a) Power of law b) Knowledge of law
c) Rule of law d) System of law
2) Corporation is
a) Social person b) Legal person
c) Ordinary person d) None of the above
3) There are certain rights which are recognised by law but not enforced by law:
a) Perfect Rights b) Imperfect Rights
c) Legal Rights d) Natural Rights
4) Right in re-propria is
a) in one's own property Right b) Author's Right
c) Co-relative d) Proper Right
5) According to whom the science of Jurisprudence is concerned with positive law
a) Hobbes b) Blacksone
c) Austin d) Bentham
6) Who condemned judge made law:-
a) Fried man b) Austin
c) Bentham d) Savigny
7) The realist school is branch of
a) Analytical school b) Philosophical school
c) Historical school d) Sociological school
8) ---- is regared as the father of Jurisprudence.
a) Thomas Acquinas b) Jeremy Bentham
c) Holland d) Holmes
9) Grammatical interpretation is also called:-
a) Correct interpretation b) Scientific interpretation
c) Literal interpretation d) Logical interpretation
10) A decision of one high court cited before another high court in India would be
a) Persuasive b) Authoritative
c) Conditionally d) Irrelevant
NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Who defines Jurisprudence as "the formal science of positive law."?
a) Holland b) Allen
c) Hart d) Austin
2) According to Hohfeld, power is co - relative with.
a) Disability b) Duties
c) No right d) Liability
3) According to Austin 'general jurisprudence' is the philosophy of
a) Concrete law b) Absolute law
c) Positive law d) Abstract law
4) The exponents of_____lay greater stress on functional aspects of law rather than its abstract contents.
a) Analytical School b)Sociological School
c) Historical School d)Philosophical School
5) Which one of the following writers defined jurisprudence in the 'Generic Sense' and `Specific Sense'?
a) Gray b) Salmond
c) Stone d) Kelson
6) Every legal right possess the following characteristics, mark the incorrect characteristics from them.
a) Person of inherence b) Person of incidence
c) Title of the right d) A prudent person
7) Which of the following courts has affirmed that under the present Constitution sovereignty vests in the
people of India.The Court rejected the contention, that 'absolute sovereignty remains vested in the state?
a) The Supreme Court of India b) The Allahabad High Court
c) The Bombay High Court d) The Punjab and Haryana High Court
8) -----------possession is the possession of material things like land, house, buildings.
a) Corporeal b) incorporeal
c) Mediate d) Immediate
9) According to --------------of legal rights"a legal right is a legally protected interest."
a) Will theory b) Interest Theory
c) Title theory d)None of the above
10) Hart says " The human conduct is made in some sense non optional or obligatory thus the idea of ----
---- is at the core rule of law".
a) Liberty b) Obligation c) Immunity d) Power
APRIL/MAY – 2015

1) Jurisprudence meant
a) Power of Law b) Knowledge of Law
c) Rule of Law d) System of Law
2) Who defined, the proper end of every law is the promotion of the greatest happiness of the greatest number?
a) Austin b)Bentham
c) Savigny d) Olivecrona
3) According to Hart, Law is a System of two types of rules
a) Primary and Secondary b) Static and Dynamic
c) Equality and Inequality d) None of the above
4) Who propounded Doctrine of social solidarity?
a) Bentham b) Aristotle
c) Duguit d) Kelson
5) Which theory of Precedent says that, Judges do not make law they merely declare it?
a) Autoritative Precedent b) Declaratory Theory
c) Persuasive theory d) None of the above
6) Whatever said by the Court by the way of statements of law which is unnecessary for the purpose in
hand, are called
a) Ratio-Decidendi b) Obiter-Dicta
c) Rule of Law d) None of the above
7) Which Article of the Constitution of India gives a Constitutional Status to the doctrine of Precedent?
a) Article 141 b) Article 32
c) Article 226 d) Article 21
8) Legislation which proceeds from the Sovereign power in the State and is incapable of repealed called
a) Supreme b) Subordinate
c) Colonial d) None of the above
9) According to-------theory, a right is an inherent attribute of the human will.
a) Interest Theory b) Will Theory
c) Title Theory d) None of the above
10) The Ownership of a copyright, patent, trade mark is
a) Corporeal Ownership b) Incorporeal Ownership
c) Sole Ownership d) Trust Ownership
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q.1 Choose the correct option from the following. (10)
1) The meaning of word jurisprudence is
a) The prudence of jurist b) Knowledge of jurist c) Knowledge of Law d) The sense of taking decision
2) Who is the founder of analystical school?
a) Jeremy Benthanm b) Austin c) Hobbes d) Ulpanian
3) Which of the statement is true, about Austin's concept?
a) All commands are Law b) Only general commands are law
c) Every command is law which impose a duty enforced by sanction.
d) Sovereign command does not implies duty and scanction.
i) 2, 3, 4 ii) 1, 2, 3, iii) 2, 3 iv) 1, 2, 3, 4
4) Law is found and not made, this concept belongs to
a) Sociological school b) Historical school c) Analytical school d) Philosophical school
5) Keeton classify the source of Law into ------
a) The binding source of law and the persuasive source of Law. c) Both of them
b) The real source of law and the imaginary source of law. d) None of them
6) The decision of a High courts are —
a) binding on all the subordinate courts within its jurisdiction. b) binding on all the courts in the territory of India
c) binding on all the subordinate courts, who have given their consent. d) None of these.
7) The term "law declared " by the Supreme Court means
a) ratio decedendi of a decision. b) obiter dictum of a decision.
c) ratio decedendi as weel as obiter dictum of a decision. d) None of the above
8) The authority to whom the rule making power has been delegated —
a) may further delegate it to some other agency.
b) cannot delegate it further.
c) can delegate it further even in an arbitrary manner.
d) can delegate only if he himself is unable to perform requisite functions.
9) Which of the following is not legal personality?
a) Company b) Bench of judges c) Cabinet of ministers d) Both (b) and (c)
10) Right in personam means
a) rights available against person or persons b) rights available against person.
c) rights available against personmam. d) locally enforceable rights.
APRIL/MAY – 2014
Q.1 Choose the correct option from the following. (10)
1) Jurisprudence is a -
a) Latin word b) German Word
c) English Word d) None of the Above
2) Who is considered as the father of Analytical school?
a) Jeremy Bentham b) Austin
c) Blackstone d) Hobbes
3)Accourding to Austin, "Law of God" is,
a) Law improperly so called b) Law properly so called
c) Law by anology d) Law by metaphor
4) Who defines JurisP1udence " as science of Law"?
a) Austin b) Salmond
c) Holland d) Hobbes
5) Salmond Futher divided material source of Law into -
a) Legal and historical b) Political and Philosophical
c) General and particular d) Social and Individual
6) In High Court, the decision of a Bench are binding on -
a) all bench smaller or larger b) all smaller bench
c) all co-ordinate bench d) all smaller and co-ordinate bench
7) The expression used in Art. 141 refers to –
a) courts other than Supreme court b) courts including Supreme court
c) Privy council and Federal court d) District Court
8) Right in personan means -
a) right avaiable against person or persons b) right avaiable against persons
c) right avaiable against personnam d) locally enforceable right
9) Possession is prima-facia evidence of title of ownership, hence-
a) long adverse possession confers title even to a property which originally belonged to another
b) in all cases possession leads to ownership
c) transfer of possession is not a mode of transfer of ownership
d) long adverse possession does not confer tine to the property which originally belong to another
10) Which of the following is not legal personality?
a) Company b) Bench of Judges c) Cabinet of ministers d) both(b) and(c)
Sub.: Jurisprudence (LW-401/LW-8001)
NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Enlist element of possession
2) What is bracket theory
3) What is meant by Grundnorm
4) Kinds of obligations
5) Kinds of precedents
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) What is obitor dicta.
2) Enlist elements of possession.
3) State the rule of “Ejusdem Generis”.
4) What is bracket theory?
5) Explain the doctrine of precedent.
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) What is mean by rigidity
2) What is command according to Austin
3) Laid down any two jural postulate of Rasco Pond
4) What is the concept „Act of God‟?
5) Define negligence
APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Who is sovereign
2) What is morality ?
3) Principle of social solidarty
4) What is legal right
5) Define possession
NOVEMBER – 2017
1) What is meant by „Grundnorm‟?
2) Explain the elements of possession
3) Explain Kinds of precedent
4) Explain Legal Status of unborn person
5) Enlist the modes of acquisition of property
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) Give definition of Legislation
2) What is meant by positive law?
3) List out the elements of state
4) Give definition of „Legal person‟
5) State the types of custom
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Holland‟s definition of jurisprudence.
2) Enlists elements of possession.
3) What is delegated legislation?
4) What is Ratio-decidendi?
5) Define corporation sole
APRIL/MAY – 2016
Q. 2- Answer tile following he short. (up to 30 words) (10)
1) State the rule of `Ejusdem generic`.
2) What is an "Imperfect Right".
3) What is "Obiter dicta"
4) What is bracket theory?
5) What is de jure possesssion?

NOVEMBER– 2015
Q. 2. Answer the following in abort. (up to 30 words) (10)
1) What is the meaning of Duty?
2) State the Bentarn's utility principle.
3) What is the meaning of obiter Dicta?
4) Define obligation.
5) State the concept of Kant's categorical Imperative.
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) What is meant by analytical positivism?
2) State the Classification of interests made by Roscoe Pound in his theory of Social Engineering.
3) State the essential elements of Legal right.
4) What is meant by Grundnorm in Kelson's Pure theory of Law?
5) What is meant by Judicial Precedent?
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q. 2. Answer the following questions in short. (up to 30 words) (10)
1) What is the meaning of the term jurisprudence?
2) Write down the definition of Legislation?
3) What is positivism?
4) What is the conept of possession in the past?
5) What is movable and immovable property?
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Write down the definition of Law?
2) What is Natural Law?
3) What is the meaning of Ratio Decidendi?
4) Define Custom as a source of Law
5) What is the meaning of Legal person?

NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Meaning and difference between obiter dicta and ratio decidendi
2) Schools of jurisprudence
3) Feminist jurisprudence
4) Legal status of unborn person
5) Concept of right
6) Difference between substantive law and procedural law
7) Classification of duties
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) Schools of jurisprudence.
2) Classification of duties.
3) Sources of obligation.
4) Feminist Jurisprudence.
5) Modes of acquisition of ownership.
6) Legal status of unborn person.
7) Meaning and difference between Substantive and Prcedural law.
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Theory of legal realism
2) Kinds of ownership
3) Purpose of the criminal justice
4) Grund norm
5) Law is command of sovereign
6) Social contract theory
7) Obiter dicta
APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Lifting of corporate veil
2) Ratio decendi
3) Kelsons pure theory of law
4) Doctrine of strice liability
5) Ownership
6) Legal obligations
7) Jural postulate
NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Essential elements of Legal Right
2) Ratio Decidendi and Obiter Dicta
3) Doctrine of Prospective Overruling
4) Kinds of Obligations
5) Theories of Punishment
6) Main Characteristics of natural law
7) Kind of Property
APRIL/MAY – 2017
2) Austin’s theory of sovereignty
3) Ratio Decidendi and Obiter Dicta
4) Kinds of Law
5) Kinds of subordinate legislation
6) Legal Status of idol
7) Legal Realism
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Difference between legislation and judicial precedent.
2) Modes of acquisition of property.
3) Legal status of unborn person.
4) Vicarious liability.
5) Savigny’s theory of law.
6) Type sof legal rights.
7) Kinds of obligation
APRIL/MAY – 2016
Q. 3. Sbort Notes. (any four) (20)
1) Sources of law.
2) Legal Realism.
3) Sources of obligation.
4) Possession.
5) Modes of acquisition of ownership.
6) Feminist Jurisprudence.
7) Title.
NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Delegated Legislation
2) Feminist Jurisprudence
3) American Legal Realism
4) Kinds of Liability
5) Custom as a source of law
6) Duguit's Social solidarity
7) Bracket theory
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Ratio-Decidendi and Obiter Dicta
2) Kinds of Subordinate Legislation
3) Sources of Law
4) Theories of Legal right
5) Essential elements of State
7) Sources of Obligation
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Customs
2) Acquisition of possession
3) Theories of punishment
4) Scandivian Realism
5) Obligation
6) Subordinate legislation
7) Ratio Decidendi
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Precedent
2) Legal Right
3) Modes of acquisition of property
4) Possession
5) Obiter dictum
6) Grund norm
7) Ownership
NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Critically examine Austin‟s theory and Kelson‟s Pure theory of law
2) Explain the various theories of legal rights and explain the essential elements of legal rights.
3) Define custom.Discuss the requisite of valid custom.
4) Art.141 of the constitution of India confers a constitutional status on the doctrine of precedent.Comment on
the circumstances that destroy the binding force of judicial precedent.
APRIL-MAY– 2019

1) Critically examine Austin theory and Kelson‟s Pure theory of law.
2) “Jurisprudence as the science of the first principals of the Civil Law”. Discuss this with nature, scope and
utility of Jurisprudence.
3) Explain the various theories of legal rights and explain the essential elements of legal rights.
4) Define state, with its essential elements and explain relationship between state and law.NOVEMBER– 2018
NOVEMBER – 2018
1) What are the sources of the law? What is the importance of the legislation as a source of the modern era
under Indian Legal System?
2) Evaluate Roscoe Pound‟s contribution to legal theory with special reference to the idea of the „balancing of
conflicting interests?
3) What is the concept of legal right? Laid down the relationship between rights and duties.
4) What is the analytical theory of jurisprudence laid down by Austin and Bentham?
APRIL/MAY – 2018

1) Laid down the jurisprudential aspect of the theories of punishment.
2) “Possession is in nine point of ownership”. Define ownership and possession.
3) What is natural law theory? Laid down the importance of the natural law theory in any legal system
4) Discuss the relationship between Law and Morality
NOVEMBER - 2017
1) “Jurisprudence means elucidation of the general principles upon which actual rules of law are based.”
Explain this statement with nature, scope and utility of Jurisprudence.
2) “The real function of law is balancing of conflicting interests by satisfying maximum wants with minimum
friction.” Discuss this statement with Roscoe Pound‟s theory of Social Engineering.
3) Define custom. Discuss the requisites of valid custom.
4) Article 141 of the Constitution of India confers a Constitutional status on the doctrine of precedent.
Comment on the circumstances that destroy the binding force of judicial precedent.
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) “Jurisprudence is a Science of Law analyzing essential principles.” Elucidate with nature and scope of
jurisprudence.
2) According to Austin‟s command theory,” laws are commands issued by the uncommended commander.”
Critically examine the Austin‟s theory.
3) What is Precedent? Explain the circumstances, which weaken the binding force of a Precedent
4) “Ownership is a matter of right and a person could exercise it in accordance with law.” Discuss with
characteristics and kinds of ownership.
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Define law. Explain various kinds of law.
2) Explain basis features of realist school of jurisprudence and elaborate it in Indian contex.
3) Write a detail note on the „theory of social engineering.‟
4) Explain theories of punishment with their objects. Support your answer with suitable examples.
APRIL/MAY – 2016
Q. 4. Answer the following questions. (Amy two) (20)
1) Explain the various theories of punishment.
2) Explain the schools of jurisprudence.
3) Examine critically Austin & Kelson's Pure theory of law.
4) Discuss various theories of legal rights and explain the essential elements of legal rights.
NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Discuss the nature, scope & utility of jurisprudence.
2) "Judicial Precedent is binding source of law in today's context." Explain its nature, and circumstances which
destroy the binding force of judicial precedents
3) Natural Law theory has undergone great change in trends in its evolution from ancient modem period.
Discuss in the light of its growth and development
4) Describe characteristics of legal rights. Also explain various types of legal rights.
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) "Jurisprudence as the Science of the first principles of the Civil Law". Discus this nature, scope and utility of
Jurisprudence.
2) Critically examine the Austin's notion of law as a Command of Sovereign.
3) "Social Engineering is not outdated and it is still relevant to balance conflict interests." Discuss with Roscoe
Pound's Social Engineering Theory.
4) Give definition of Ownership and explain different kinds of ownership.
NOVEMBER– 2014
Q. 4. Answer the following in brief. (Any two) (20)
1) Explain the doctrine of precedent as an important source of law along with the advantages and
disadvantages.
2) Critically analyze Austin's theory of command of the Sovereign in the context of a politically organized
society.
3) Legal personality is an artificial and technical creation of law and exists only in contemplating of law.
Explain.
4) Discuss the classification of legal Rights in the context of the Hobfeldian Analysis.
APRIL/MAY – 2014
Q. 4.Answer the following in brief :- (Any two) (20)
1) The purpose of administration of Criminal justice is to punish the offender and thereby control crime in the
society. Discuss the notion in the context of theories of punishment and point out which of them are the best
suitable to achive the object
2)Discuss legislation as a source of law along with the advantages and disadvantages of legislation
3) What is meant by the law of Obligation? What are its kinds? Discuss.
4) Legal system comprises of a combination of set of rules, wherein rule of recognition ultimate criterion of all
other rules - Professor H.LA.. Hort. Explain this proposition with suitable illustrations. ,
Sub.: Company Law (LW-504/LW-9004)

NOVEMBER – 2019
Q. 1.Choose correct option from the following. (10)
1) A company which has not commenced its operation or which is not in operation or has no assets to
dive is called _______ company.
a) Sick b) Dormant
c) Non-operational d) Defunct
2) Table _______ is for Memorandum of Association of an unlimited company.
a) B b) D
c) C d) E
3) The Common seal of the company should have _______.
a) The company name b) The place of the company
c) The words ‘Common Seal’ d) All of the above
4) BOD can exercise the power to appoint directors in case of _______.
a) Additional Directors b) Alternate Directors
c) Filling up casual vacancy d) All of the above
5) The first AGM of the company must be held within _______ .
a) 12 months from the date of incorporation. b) 18 months from the date of incorporation.
c) 12 months from the date of commencement. d) 18 months from the date of commencement.
6) A voluntary winding up means winding up by the ________.
a) Members or Creditors. b) Contributories or Creditors.
c) Menbers or Contributories. d) Shareholders or Tribunals.
7) The Audit Committee may include _______:-
a) Auditors b) Non-executive Directors
c) Company Secretary d) All of the above
8) The liability of members if the Company is limited by Guarantee is _______.
a) Unpaid value of shares. b) Unlimited liability.
c) Guarantee amount. d) None of the above.
9) Age limit of directors in case of private company is _______.
a) 60 b) 67
c) 65 d) No Limit
10) Which of the following is not true?
a) RBI is an example of statutory company. b) LIC is an example Registered company.
c) Suit can be maintained in the nature of company. d) The persons who form the Company are called promoters.

APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) Company's owners are shareholders so the company property belongs to the share holders. Do you
agree with this statement.
a) Yes b) No. c) Not applicable
2) Transfer of shares in the company in Public Company are.
a) Restricted b) Freely transferable
c) Prohibited d) None of the above
3) XYZ a private company had reduced to a single member and continued business for more than 6
months. The company liability will be
a) Limited b) Unlimited c) None of the above
4) In case of company Audit is
a) Compulsory b) Optional
c) Mandatory by law d) None of the above
5) Under which sec. a private company can voluntarily converted into public company.
a) 34 b) 44
c) 54 d) 64
6) The companies which are formed under special charter granted by the king or queen of England are called.
a) Statutory Companies b) Registered Companies
c) Chartered Companies d) Private Companies
7) The companies which are formed under the companies act are called as
a) Registered Companies b) Public Companies
c) Statutory Companies d) None of these
8) Managing directors will be counted as ------------ while calculating maximum limit in case of private
company.
a) Member b) Employee
c) Shareholder d) None of the above
9) How many members should sign the Memorandum of Association in case of public company are
a) 1 b) 2
c) 5 d) 7
10) ------------ is the conclusive evidence in case of the company that statutory requirements have
complied with
a) Certificate of incorppration b) Certificate of commencement of business
c) Both d) None of the above

NOVEMBER– 2018
1) The term company is defined under ----------- sec of the 2013 act.
a) Sec. 2 (4) b) Sec. 2 (20)
c) Sec. 2 (14) d) Sec. 2 (19)
2) Property of the company belongs to -------------- .
a) Company b) Shareholder
c) Member d) Promoter
3) Which company's share are freely transferable in --------------
a) Private company b) Public company
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
4) Minimum number of member in case of public company are -----------
a) 1 b) 2
c) 5 d) 7
5) Maximum number of member in case of private company is
a) 50 b) 100
c) 150 d) 200
6) Minimum subscription should be received within ----------- days.
a) 120 b) 125
c) 130 d) 135
7) Liability of a member in case of private company is
a) Limited b) Unlimited
c) both a & b d) none of the above
8) How many months did the company can continue its business U/Sec. 45 -------------of the Company Act.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 5 d) 6
9) If the company failed to refund application money within 130 days from the date of issue of minimum
subscription who will be personally liable.
a) Company b) Directors
c) Shareholders d) None of the above
10) Generally Liability of a member in case of a private company is
a) Limited b) Unlimited
c) Both a & b d) None of the above

APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) The rules and regulations for the internal management of a company are contained in its-----
a) Annual report b) Memorandum of association
c) Articles of association d) None of the above.
2) A company is a juristic person with a perpetual succession-------------------------.
a) As such it dies b) Its life depends on the life of its members
c) It is created by a process of law and can be put to an end only by a process of law
3) The minimum application money should be--------------- of nominal value of shares
a) 2 % b) 5 % c) 10 % d) 12 %
4) As per Companies (Amendment) Act,2015 a ‘private company’ as a company which has a minimum
paid up capital of…………………..
a) One lakh rupees b) Five lakh rupees c) Ten lakh rupees d) None of the above.
5) As per Companies Act, 2013, companies having net worth of rupees five hundred crore or more or
turnover of rupees one thousand crore or more in a financial year to spend atleast--------- of the average
net profits of last 3 years for the company’s Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) policy.
a) 2 % b) 3 % c) 5 % d) 10 %
6) Shares can be issued---------------------
a) at par b) at discount
c) at premium d) None of the above.
7) ------------is an aggregate of fully paid share that have been legally consolidated.
a) Share b) Stock
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above.
8) What is the maximum period for redemption in case of preference shares issued by the company?.
a) 10 years b) 20 years
c) 25 years d) 30 years
9) Information memorandum + Shelf Prospectus together Constitutes-------------
a) Memorandum of Association b) Articles of Association
c) Prospectus d) None of the above.
10) ---------------- is a unique identification number provided to all companies listed in Registrar of
Companies (ROCs) under Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) along with its name.
a) PAN b) SIN c) CIN d) PIN

NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Minimum number of Directors in case of Public Company is……………….
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
2) ………………….are required to file prior to making second and subsequent issue of securities in case
shelf prospectus are filed
a) Information Memorandum b) Information Articles
c) Form No.13 d) None of the above.
3) The date of the openining of the subscription list means the beginning of the -----------from the day of
the issue of prospectus.
a)3rd b) 5th c)10th d) 12th
4) The minimum application money should be--------------- of nominal value of shares.
a) 5 % b) 8 % c) 10 % d) 15 %
5) -------------are the shares issued by the company to it employees or directors for consideration other
than cash.
a) Bonus shares b) Sweat equity shares
c) Preference shares d) None of the above
6) Buy back should be less than or equal to --------------------% of total paid up capital.
a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40
7) Debentures payable to a person whose name appears both on debenture certificate and company’s
register is called--------------------
a) Bearer b) Unregistered
c) Registered d) None of the above.
8) A foreign company means a company incorporated …………….India and having a place of business---
------------- India
a) outside, outside b) in, in
c) in , outside d) outside, in
9) An exception to the doctrine of constructive notice is……………………
a) Doctrine of ultra vires b) Doctrine of indoor management
c) Lifting the corporate veil d) None of the above.
10) On a share of Rs. 100 of a company, a shareholder has already paid Rs. 20.His Liability is
now limited to Rs.-------------
a) 100 b) 30 c) 80 d) 10

APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) The ------------ defines a companies relations with the outside world.
a) Prospectus b) Memorandum of Association
c) Articles of Association d) None of the above
2) The rules and regulations for the internal management of a company are contained in its -------
a) Annual Report b) Prospectous
c) Memorandum of Association d) Articles of Association
3) The articles of association can be altered by ------------
a) A resolution of the Board of Directors b) An ordinary resolution in general meeting
c) A special resolution in general meeting d) None of the above
4) A foreign company means a company incorporated ---------- India and having a place of business---India.
a) Outside, Outside b) in, in
c) In, outside d) Outside, in
5) As per companies Act, 2013 every company shall have a minimum number of ---------- directors
in the case of a public company and ----------- directors in the case of private company.
a) 5, 4 b) 3, 2
c) 2, 2 d) 4, 4
6) The Resreve Bank of India is an example of a ----------------
a) Registered Company b) Statutory Company
c) Chartered Company d) Unlimited Company
7) Shares can be issued ------------
a) At par b) At discount
c) At premium d) All of the above
8) A company at least 51% of whose share capital is held by the government is called a --------
a) Public enterprise b) Public Company
c) Government Company d) Private Company
9) The minimum number of persons required to form a private company is ------------
a) 7 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
10) The dividend on preference share capital is paid ------------------
a) Whenever there are profits b) When there is loss
c) Even if there are no profits d) After dividend is paid to equity shares.

NOVEMBER– 2016
1) The maximum number of members in private limited company shall not exceed------
a) 50 b) 200 c) 100 d) none of the above
2) Articles of Association can be altered by passing------
a) An ordinary resolution in annual general meeting b) A special resolution in annual general meeting
c) a resolution with special notice d) without any resolution
3) Convening meeting of a Company is the responsibility of the---------
a) Chairman, Board of Directors b) Managing Directors
c) Company Secretary d) General Manager
4) Internal activity of a Company is going to be performed according to established regulations. This
assumption is provided as a right by-----
a) Doctrine of Indoor Management b) Doctrine of Constructive Notice
c) Doctrine of Ultra- Vires d) Doctrine of Intra- Vires
5) -------- stated that, ‘a company is an artificial person created by law, having seprate entity, with a
perpetual succession and commen seal’
a) Lord Justice Lindley b) Chif Justice Marshall
c) Justice P. N. Bhagawati d) Prof. Haney
6) A----- is a body corporate constituted in a single person who, in right of some office or function, has
corporate status.
a) Corporation Sole b) Corporation Aggregate c) Partnership Firm d) Hindu Joint Family
7) Section------ of the Companies Act, 2013 defines an unregistered company
a) 375 b) 374 c) 376 d) 377
8) On and from the date mentioned in the certificate of incorporation, the registrar shall allot to the
company a--
a) Corporate Indemnity Number b) Corporate Identity Number
c) Company Incorporation Number d) None of the above
9) One Person Company consist of-------
a) One Company as a member b) One person as a member
b) One Director as a member d) All of the above
10) Every company shall hold the first meeting of the Board of Directors within-------- days of its
incorporation
a) Sixty b) Ninety c) Fifteen d) Thirty

APRIL/MAY – 2016
Q.1, Choose correct option from the following. (10)
1)----------means a company incorporated under this Act or under any previous company Law.
a) Company b) Industry
c) Factory d) Associaton
2) According to companies Amendement Act, 2013, the maximum no of members in private company is
a) 50 b) 100
c) 150 d) 200
3) ----- is a fundamental document of company which indicate objects of it's incorporation.
a) Articles of association b) Share certificate
c) Debenture d) Memorandum of association
4) Doctrine of indoor management provides protection to--------against company.
a) Debenture-holder b) Outsider
c) Liquidator d) company law Tribunal
5) ---------- share holders get preferential right in dividend.
a) Equity shareholders b) Preference shareholders
c) Both (a) and d) None of the above
6) According to companies Amendment Act, 2013, the public company requires a minimum
number of----------directors.
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
7) Every company shall hold the first meeting of Board of directors within days of its incorporation.
a) 15 days b) 30 days
c) One month d) 6o dyas
8) 'A company is distinct from it's members' is illustrated in leading case------
a) Saloman-Saloman & Co.Ltd b) Dailmer Company Ltd.-Continental tyre & rubber Co.
c) Commissioner of income tax-Sir Dinshaw Petit. d) None of the above
9)---------is the process by which life of a company is ended and it's property administered for
the benefit of it's members and creditors.
a) Winding up b) Dissolution
c) Incorporation d) Insolvency
10)------------means a company which has any of it's securities listed on any recognised stock exchange.
a) Private Company b) Listed Company c) Government Company d) None of the above

NOVEMBER– 2015
1)" A Company is distinct from its members' is illustrated in leading case
a) Commissioner of Income Tax v.Sir b) Daimler company ltd v. Continental Tyre Dinshaw Petit & Rubber Co
c) Solomom v. Solomon & Co. Ltd d) None of the above
2) A promoter is a person
a) Who brings about the incorporation & organization of company c) Sets in motion the machinery
b) Brings together the person who become interested in the enterprise d) All of them
3) The doctrine of ultra vires laid down in the case
a) Soloman v. Soloman & Co. Ltd b) Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. v. Riche
c) Foss v. Harbottle d) Royal British Bank v. Turquand
4) Maximum number of members in case of private company under Companies Act, 2013 is
a) 50 b) 200
c)150 d) 100
5) Which doctrine had its genesis in Royal British Bank v. Tarquand?
a) Doctrine of Indoor Management . b) Doctrine of ultra virus.
c) Doctrine of Constructive notice. d) None of them
6) Shares and debentures of company are
a) Movable and tangible property b) Imovable and tangible property
c) Movable and in tangible d) Imovable and in tangible
7) Minimum Paid up share capital of public company is
a) One Lakh Rupees b) Five Lakh Rupees
c) Ten Lakh Rupees d) Fifteen Lakh Rupees
8) Alteration of Articles must be done by passing
a) Ordinary resolution b) Special resolution
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above
9) At every annual general meeting of a company the board of directors of the company shall lay before
the company
a) a balance sheet b) a profit and loss account
c) both a and b d) None of the above
10) The payment of dividend is at fixed amount or at a fixed rate in case of
a) Equity Shares b) Preference Shares

APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Minimum number of members for the formation of public company is
a) 1 b) 2
c) 5 d) 7
2) The doctrine of ultra vires laid down in the case--------
a) Soloman v. Soloman & Co. Ltd b) Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. v. Riche
c) Foss v. Harbottle d) Royal British Bank v. Turquand
3) ----is effected by operation of law.
a) Transfer of shares b) Transmission of shares
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
4) Which rule is laid down in the case of Foss v. Harbottle
a) Minority Rule b) Majority Rule
c) Chairman Rule d) Tribunal rule
5) A charge is created on some definite or specific property of the permanent nature called--
a) Fixed charge b) Floating charge
6) As per Companies Act 2013, no person shall hold office as a director in more than ------Companies at
the same time.
a) 5 b) 15 c) 20 d) 30
7) Debentures specifying the period of the loan and expiry of the loan within which they are to be
redeemed are called
a) Convertible Debenture b) Bearer Debenture
c) Redeemable Debenture d) Perpetual Debenture
8) The Quoram for meeting in case of public company is-------- if the number of members
are not more than one thousand as on the date of meeting.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
9)--------are the rules, regulations and bye-laws for the internal management regulation of the affairs of a
company.
a) Memorandum of Association b) Articles of Association
10) The payment of dividend is at fixed amount or at a fixed rate in case of
a) Equity Shares b) Preference Shares c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above

NOVEMBER– 2014
1) The independent personality of a company is illustrated by the leading case----------
a) Solomon v. Solomon & Co. Ltd b) Foss v. Harbottle
c) Golanda Industries v. Registrar of Companies d) Illingworth v. Houldsworth
2) ---------company shares can be freely transferable.
a) Private company b) Public company
3) Maximum number of members in case of private company under Companies Act, 2013 is ---
a) 50 b) 200
c) 150 d) 100
4) A company is named as Government Company if it holds -------Percentage of paid up share capital.
a) 21 % b) 31 %
c) 51 % d) 100 %
5) The Companies which are formed under Special Charter granted by the King or Queen of England are called
a) Statutory Companies b) Registered Companies
c) Chartered Companies d) None of these
6) Minimum Paid up share capital of public company is--------
a) One Lakh Rupees b) Five Lakh Rupees
c) Ten Lakh Rupees d) Fifteen Lakh Rupees
7) The doctrine of indoor management is an-------to the doctrine of constructive notice.
a) Exception b) Extension
c) Alternative d) None of these
8) Alteration of Articles must be done by passing-----------
a) Ordinary resolution b) Special resolution
9 -----------Preference shares carry the right to cumulative the dividends.
a) Convertible b) Cumulative
c) Non-convertible d) None of the above
10) ---------is voluntary passage of the rights and duties of members from a share holder.
a) Transfer of shares b) Transmission of shares

NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Contributory
2) Share warrant
3) OPC-One Person Company
4) Call on shares
5) Shelf prospectus
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) Explain what is Shelf prospectus U/2013 Act.
2) Explain the Kinds of Share
3) What are the Liabilites of Director
4) Explain Characteristic of a debenture
5) Explain what is Private Placement. U/Sec. 42.
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Define the Red Herring prospectus under 2013 Act.
2) Define the term company under 2013 Act.
3) Who can be a member?
4) Explain the doctrine of lifting of corporate veil.
5) Define share and share capital.
APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Define ther term ‘Company’ under Companies Act, 2013
2) Define’Debenture’ under Companies Act.
3) Define fixed and floating charge.
4) ‘Company can purchase its own shares only out of certain proceeds’. Enlist those proceeds.
5) Define share and share capital.


NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Define Share and Share Capital.
2) Give the meaning of the term ‘Dividend’.
3) What is meant by Red herring Prospects?
4) Define Charge under Companies Act.
5) Define holding and subsidiary company.
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) What is meant by ‘abridged prospectus’ under Companies Act, 2013.
2) Give definition of promoter under Companies Act, 2013.
3) Enlist the classification of debentures.
4) Give definition of share and share capital.
5) Give meaning of the term.
NOVEMBER– 2016
1 What is a Company?
2 What do you mean by Share?
3 Explain One Person Company
4 What do you mean by allotment?
5 What is the limited liability of the Company?
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) Define various types of share capital.
2) Who is promoter?
3) Explain types of meetings.
4) What is fixed charge?
5) What is SEBI?

NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Define the term 'Company' under the Companies Act 2013.
2) What is Company limited by guarantee?
3) Write on Auditor.
4) Enlist the different modes of acquiring membership of company.
5) What is meant by fixed charge and floating charge ?
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Define the term Private Company' under the Companies Act 2013.
2) Enlist the different modes of acquiring membership of company.
3) Explainthe concept of share certificate.
4) Explain the concept of call on shares.
5) What is meant by fixed charge and floating charge ?
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Define the term 'Company' under the Companies Act 2013.
2) What do you mean by 'Share' and 'Share Capital' of a company?
3) Define the term 'Prospectus' under the Companies Act 2013.
4) Explain the term debenture and charge under the Companies Act 2013.
5) Explain the term allotment of Shares.


NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Doctrine of Indoor Management with leading caselaw.
2) Transfer and transmission of shares
3) Modes of acquiring membership in a company
4) Forfeiture of shares
5) Kinds of meetings and resolutions
6) Rights and liabilities of creditors of the company
7) Contents of prospectus
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) Explain Doctrine of Constructive Notice.
2) Explain the provisions of appointment of Official Liquidator.
3) Difference between Company and Partnership firm.
4) Explain the Contents of Article of Association
5) Explain what is abridged prospectus.
6) Explain what does it means by Transfer & Transmission of Shares.
7) Explain Security Exchange Board of India. (SEBI).
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Explain statement in leu of prospectus.
2) Explain the doctrine Indoor Management.
3) Explain Sailent features of a company.
4) Contents of Article of Association.
5) Appointment of Directors.
6) Kinds of companies.
7) What does it mean by fixed and floating charge.


APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Transfer and Trasmission of shares
2) Contents of prospectus
3) Kinds of companies
4) Legal position of Promoter
5) Company and partnership
6) SEBI
7) Kinds of Debentures
NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Kinds of Resolutions
2) Lifting or Piercing the Corporate Veil
3) Doctrine of Ultra Vires
4) Transfer and Transmission of Shares
5) Modes of acquiring membership in a company
6) Kinds of Director
7) Share and stock
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) Alternation of Articles.
2) Kinds of share capital
3) Ordinary and special resolution
4) Appointment of managing director, whole-time director or manager.
5) Powers and functions of official liquidater.
6) Reduction of share capital
7) Transfer and transmission of shares.


NOVEMBER– 2016
1 Doctrine of Indoor Management
2 National Company Law Tribunal
3 Class Action under Companies Act, 2013
4 Statement in lieu of Prospectus
5 Modes of winding up of Company
6 Legal position of Director of Company
7 Difference between Company and Partnership
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) Explain difference between company and partnership firm.
2) Explain Doctrine of ultra-vires.
3) Explain particulars of prospectus.
4) Explain duties and liabilities of auditors.
5) Discuss the concept of company Liquidator and Contributory.
6) Explain difference between shareholder and debenture-holder of Company.
7) Explain appointment & duties of directors.
NOVEMBER– 2015
2) Lifting the corporate viel.
3) Share Capital
4) Memorandum of association
5) Doctrine of ultra vires
6) Promoter
7) Annual general meeting.


APRIL/MAY – 2015
2) Forfeiture of shares
3) Rights and Liabilities of Shareholder
4) Power and duties of auditor
5) Power and function of liquidator
6) Doctrine of ultra vires
7) Kinds of Resolutions
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Transfer and Transmission of Shares
2) Difference between Share and Stock
3) Legal position of Promoter
4) Kinds of Share Capital
5) Reduction of share capital
6) Share Certificate
7) Lifting the Corporate Veil


NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Explain various kinds of companies. What is the difference between public company and private company?
2) Discuss merits and demerits of Incorporation of the company with relevant case laws.
3) Explain the procedure for winding up of Company.
4) What is Articles of Association? Can a company change or adopt its own articles? Discuss along with
procedure for alteration of Articles.
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) Define Who is a member of the company and write the modes of accccusiation of memerbership ?
2) Explain the Merits and Demerits of incorporation.
3) Explain the dirctors fundiciary position with effect to their duties and liabilites of directors of the company?
4) Explain the different kinds of companies and distinction between private company and public company.
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Who is a promoter and explain liabilities and duties of Promoter?
2) Explain the meaning of winding up of the company? and discuss the various modes of winding up?
3) Memorandum of Association of the company sets out the constitution of the company Explain the meaing
and contents of Memeorandum of Association.?
4) What is Mis-representation in prospectus? and explain its remedies?
APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) “When the legal entity of a corporate body is misused for fradulant and dishonest purposes, the individual concerned
will not be allowed to take shelter behind the corporate personality.” Discuss the circumstances in which court will
disregard the separate personality of company with case laws.
2) Define allotment of shares. Discuss general principles regarding allotment and statutory restrictions on allotment.
3) “The memorandum of association of company is the most important document as it sets out the constitution
of the company.” Discuss the various contents of memorandum along with its significance.
4) In relation to winding up of the company, discuss
a) Winding up by Tribunal b) Duties of the Company Liquidator.


NOVEMBER – 2017
1) “The incorporation of the company makes it an independent entity from its shareholders and consequently,
the company has legal personality of its own.” Discuss this statement with leading case laws and elaborate
nature of company.
2) Explain in detail „Turquand‟s Rule‟ along with its exceptions.
3) Discuss the Rule in „Foss v. Harbottle‟ along with its exceptions.
4) „Winding up is a term commonly associated with the ending of a company‟s existence.‟ In the light of this
statement, discuss various modes of winding up of a company under the Companies Act and also highlight who
may file petition for Winding up of a company to the Tribunal?
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) „The company is vested with a corporate personality distinct from individuals‟ Discuss this statement with
essential features of company.
2) State and explain various kind of companies under companies act.2013
3) „The memorandum of association is a document which sets out the constitution of the company . Explain
meaning form and various contents of memorandum.
4) Explain the meaning of winding up of company and discuss various modes of winding up.
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Who is a Promotor? Explain his legal position, duties and liabilities.
2) Define Company as an artificial person, state the various characteristics of the Company.
3) Explain the rule laid down in Foss V. Herbottel and exceptions to it.
4) Explain in detail meaning, importance and contents of Memorandom of Association –a fundamental

document in the life of the Company
APRIL/MAY – 2016

1) Explain various types of companies under the companies Act.
2) Discuss characteristics of a company with special reference to saloman-v-saloman Co.Ltd.
3) Discuss various types of winding up of Company.
4) Write a detail note on 'Memorandum of Association'

NOVEMBER– 2015
1) "A company is a legal entity distinct from its members." Explain with relevant case lai
2) Explain different kinds of companies with special reference to Companies Act 2013
3) Discuss fully "Doctrine of Indoor management" with the exceptions.
4) "Shares make a comparitive account of `preferance shares' and Equity shares"- Discus
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) What is meant by doctrine of indoor management ? Explain with its exceptions.
2) Explain the procedure of formation and incorporation of company under Companies act 2013
3) Discuss the role and position of director under the Companies Act 2013.
4) What is meant by winding up of company and explain various modes of winding of the company
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) "A company is a legal entity distinct from its members." Explain with relevant case laws:
2) Explain different kinds of companies with special reference to Companies Act 2013
3) What is a Memorandum of Association ? Explain its contents and legal effects.
4) "The will of majority must prevail"- is the principle of company management. Are there any exceptions to
this rule ?
Sub.: Law of Taxation (LW-404/LW-8004)

NOVEMBER – 2019

1) Which of the following is not tax rate under Goods and Service Tax Act
a) 5% b) 18%
c) 20% d) 24%
2) Goods and Service Tax Act came into force from
a) 1st June 2017 b) 1st July 2017
c) 1st July 2018 d) 1st August 2017
3) Indian Income Tax Act came into force with effect from
a) 1st April 1961 b) 1st April 1965
c) 1st April 1967 d) 1st June 1961
4) Donations made to Prime Minister’s Relief fund are deductible from income under which of the section
a) 80C b) 80U
c) 80D d) 80G
5) Which of the following is the tax collected by Central Government on interstate sale of goods and services
a) CGST b) SGST
c) IGST d) All of the above
6) Which of the following is not head of income
a) Income from Business and Profession b) Income from Salary
c) Income from House Property d) None of the above
7) A person is resident Indian if he is in India in Previous year for
a) 182 days and more b) 190days and more
c) 180 days and more d) 185 days and more
8) Agricultural Income is exempt under which of the following Section of Income Tax Act
a) 10(1) b) 10(3)
c) 12 d) 11
9) Income of minor is clubbed in the hands of
a) his father b) his mother
c) father and mother both d) parent whose total income in that financial year is more
10) TDS on professional fees is deducted under which of the following section
a) 192B b) 194C
c) 194I d) 194J

APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) The term HUF stands for ____________
a) Hindu divided family b) Hindu undived family
c) Human Undivided family d) None of the above
2) ___________ of Indian constitution provides the provision for taxation.
a) Art. 265-289 b) Art. 300-317
c) Art. 240-255 d) Art.215-240
3) Income from fisheries is ________
a) Agriculture Income b)Non –Agriculture income
c) Either a or b d) None of the above
4) Income of a business commenced on 1st mar 2014 will be assessed during the assessment year.
a) 2013-14 b) 2014-15
c) 2015-16 d) 2016-17
5) Income tax Act.was imposed in India as early as possible in the year _____
a) 1860 b) 1867
c) 1940 d) 1962
6) Long form of PAN is ____________
a) Permnent Authority number b) Permnent Account number
c) Private number d) Public Authority number
7) The headquarter of GST council is located at ________
a) Lucknow b) New Delhi
c) Mumbai d) Hyderabad
8) Which state became the first state of India to ratify GST Bill?
a) Bihar b) Assam
c) Telangana d) Andra Pradesh
9) Who is the chairman of GST council?
a) RBI Governor b) Prime Minister
c) Finance Minister d) President Of India
10) In IGST ,I stand for_________
a) Intra b) Integrated
c) Internal d) International

NOVEMBER– 2018
1) The Empowered Committee on VAT under the Charimanship of -------------------------------justified the
implementation of VAT system in our country.
a) Justice Verma b) Mallimath
c) Dr. Asim Kumar Dasgupta d) None of the above
2) CBEC deals with matters related to levy and collection of all--------.
a) income taxes b) direct taxes
c) indirect taxes d) none as above
3) CBDT deals with matters related to levy and collection of all--------.
a) sales taxes b) service taxes
c) direct taxes d) indirect taxes
4) CBDT means-----------------------.
a) Central Board of Direct Taxes b) Central Board of Excise and Customs
c) Central Board of Indirect Taxes d) None as above
5) ------------------has no any special legislation.
a) Central Sales Tax b) Service Tax
c) Income Tax d) None as above
6) Tilak Maharashtra Vidyapeeth's status under the Income Tax Act, 1961, is a ---
a) artificial juridical person b) company
c) local authority d) firm
7) A.Y. means ---------under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
a) Academic Year b) Assessment Year
c) Annual Year d) None as above
8) --------------was the first state to implement VAT in India.
a) Haryana b) Karnataka
c) Andhra Pradesh d) Bihar
9) The MVAT Act, 2002 shall come into force from-------------.
a) 1st April, 2001 b) 1st April, 2005
c) 1st March, 2005 d) 1st April, 1962
10) Remuneration received by Member of Parliament are taxable under the head ―-----------------------
a) Income from Salary b) Income from other sources
c) Income from House Property d) Income from Business or Profession

APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Income tax is levied on income of ……………
a) Individual b) HUF
c) Unregistered Firm d) All the above
2) Excise duty is levied on ………………
a) Sale b) production
c) Import d) Export
3) Sales tax in India is imposed by…………..
a) Central govt b) State govt
c) Both govt d) local govt
4) VAT was introduced in ……………
a) 1997 b) 1987
c) 1999 d) 1995
5) ………………. of the following is the most important contributor to the tax revenue
a) Income tax b) custom duty
c) Excise duty d) corporation tax
6) . CBDT constituted under …………………
a) Central board of revenue Act 1963 b) Income Tax Act 1961
c) Central sales Tax Act 1956 d) None of these
7) ‘Sale’ is defined under …………… of the Central Sales Tax Act 1956.
a) Sec. 2(g) b) Sec 2(d)
c) Sec 2(b) d) Sec. 2
8) The term HUF stands for……………….
a) Hindu Devided Family b) Hindu Undevided Family
c) Human Undevided family d) None of the above-
9) Divident received is classified under …………… head.
c) Income from House property d)Income from business and profession
10) University is assessable under the Income tax Act 1961 as ……………..
a) Individual b)Artificial judicial person
c) Local Authority d) Body of Individuals

NOVEMBER – 2017
1) ……………. of the following is/are direct tax/es
a) Income tax b) Wealth tax
c) Gift tax d) All the above
2) Assessee include …………..
a) Individual b) Company
c) HUF d) All the above
3) Income tax was first time levied in the year ……………
a) 1960 b) 1860
3) 1950 d) 1881
4) Income tax department works under ……………
a) State govt b) President
c) Income tax department d) CBDT
5) Agricultural income is income from ……………
a) Income from sale of crop b) Income from nursery
c) Income from royalty mines d) All the above
6) A person can earn income from …………….
a) One head b) Two heads
c) various heads d) Any of the above
7) In …………. section of Income tax Act exempted incomes have been mentioned.
a) Sec 10 b) Sec 80C
c) Sec 13 d) Sec 2
8) House property includes …………
a) Farm house income b) Sub tenant income
c) House for self business d) None of the above
9) Capital assets includes …………
a) Stock in trade b) Personal effect
c) Gold deposite d) Shares
10) Education cess is calculated on …………..
a) Total income b) Tax on total income
c) Taxable income d) Agricultural income

APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) The Constitution of India empowers ………………. to levy tax on income
a) Government b) Central Government
c) Parliament d) Finance Minister
2) Income tax is a tax on ……………….
a) Income b) Sales
c) Service d) None of the above
3) The term 'HUF' stands for ……………
a) Hindu divided family b) Human undivided family
c) Hindu undivided family d) None of the above
4) Body of individuals should consist of ……………
a) Individual only b) Person other than individual
c) None of the above d) Both of the above
5) A person by whom any tax is payable under Income Tax Act, 1961 is called ……………
a) Individual b) Assesse
c) Tax Receiver d) None of the above
6) Term 'Person' includes …………..
a) HUF b) Association of Person
c) Body Of Individuals d) All of the above
7) University is assessable under the Income Tax Act, as 1961 ……………..
a) Individual b) Artificial Judicial Person
c) Local Authority d) None of the above
8) A financial year in which the income is earned is called as …………….
a) Assessment year b) Present year
c) Previous year d) Current year
9) Partners are liable to pay tax on …………..
a) Salary b) Profit
c) Income d) Both a & b
10) Previous year can be …………. 12 months
a) More than b) Less than
c) Only d) Any of the above

NOVEMBER– 2016
1) A ------ is a compulsory payment to be made to the government by public.
a) Tax b) Fine
c) Custom duty d) Fee
2) Standard deduction is allowed to deduct from income house property u/s-----------------.
a) U/s 16 b) U/s 24
c) U/s 80 d) U/s 80 C
3) Long form of PAN
a) Permnent authority number b) Perment account number
c) Private number d) Public authority number
4) Determine the section for deduction for donation to charitable fund --------
a) 80 G b) 80 C
c) 80 D d) 80 U
5) Any profit or gain arising from the sale or transfer of capital asset is chargeable to tax under the head--------.
a) Capital gain b) Salary
c) Income from other sources d) Business and profession
6) Tax is payable in the year that year is called ----------.
a) That is assessment year b) Current year
c) Next year d) Engish calender year
7) Central sales tax Act is ------------.
a) 1947 b) 1956
c) 1961 d) 1962
8) Gift tax is kind of ----------tax.
a) Direct tax b) Custome duty
c) Indirect tax d) Income from other sources
9) Full from of VAT
a) Value addition to tax b) Value added for tax
c) Value added tax d) Value pay for tax
10) Rent from house is classify the income under ---------.
a) Income for salary b) Income form other sources
c) Income from house property d) Income form business & profession

APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) The financial year immediately preceding the assessment year is
a) Previous year b) Financial year
c) Assessment year d) Calender year
2) -------- is levied immediately on incomes and porperty generated by the individual persons
or the group of persons.
a) Direct tax b) Indirect tax
c) Gift tax d) Income tax
3) No tax shall be levided or collected by
a) except by authority of law b) without law
c) any authority d) without authority of law
4) Professional tax is deducted from salary u/s
a) U/s 10 b) U/s 16
c) U/s 24 d) U/s 80 C
5) Dividend receive are classify under the head-----.
a) Income from salary b) Income from other source
c) Income from house property d) Income from business & profession
6) The Central authority that regulates matters with respect to service tax is ------.
a) Central board of excise & customs b) Central board of direct taxes
c) Central sales tax authority d) All as above
7) According to Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 definition of goods includes
a) Auctionable claims b) Stock
c) Shares d) All kinds of movable property
8) Tax audit has to be conducted by a -------appointed by the person himself
a) Chartered Accountant b) Accountants
c) Clerical staff d) Liquidator
9) The incidence of tax on any assessee depends upon his
a) Social status b) Religion
c) Residential status d) Political status
10)---------is levied on the total income of the previous year
a) income tax b) VAT
c) Central sales tax d) Service tax

NOVEMBER– 2015
Q. 1. Choose correct option from the following.
1) -----------Of Indian Constitution provides the provision for taxation
a) Act 265-289 b) Act 300-317
c) Act 240-255 d) Act 215-240
2) Income from fisheries is
a) Agricultural Income b) Non- agricultural Income
c) Either (a) or (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
3) Sec of Income Tax Act 1961 deals with income of minor
a) Sec. 10 (30) b) Sec.10(31)
c) Sec. 10 (32) d) Sec.10(33)
4) The term 'salary' includes---------
a) Wages b) Pension
c) gratuity d) All above
5) Death—cum- retirement Gratutity is-----------under Income Tax Act 1961.
a) Exemption from deduction b) Deduction
c) Either (a) or (b) d) None of the above
6) Income from undisclosed sources is known as--------
a) Deemed income b) Actual income
c) Either (a) or (b) d) None of above
7) Which property has been exempted from tax?
a) Property held under a trust b) Coparcenary interest in a HUF
c) Former ruler's jewellery d) All above
8) The Central Government constitutes a commission called--------commission for the settlement of cases.
a) National b) state
c) settlement d) Human Rights
9) A tax payer can appeal against the order of the Assessing officer to ----
a) Deputy commissioner b) Commissioner
c) income Tax Appellate Tribunal d) High court
10) All dealers must register for VAT if their taxable turnover exceeds-------lakhs for preceding turnover
exceeds ----- lakhs for the preceding three consecutive calendar months.
a) Ten b) Seven
c) Five d) One

APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Income accruing in India in previous year is taxable for
a) Resident b) Resident but not ordinarily resident
c) Non-resident d) All of the above
2) Every year, the residential status of an assessee
a) May change b) Will certainly change
c) Will not change d) None of the above
3) The residential status of an assessee is determined for the relevant -
a) Previous year b) Assessment Year
c) Calender Year d) None of the above
4) The incidence of tax on any assessee depends upon his------under the Act.
a) social status b) religion
c) residential status d) political status
5) The amount of education cess and secondary and higher education cess to be collected along with
Income tax for assessment year 2014-15 shall be
a) 1% b) 2%
c) 3% d) 4%
6) The term 'income' includes the following types of incomes:
a) Legal b) Illegal
c) Legal and Illegal both d) None of the above
7) --------------is levied on the total income of the previous year of every person.
a) Income Tax b) VAT
c) Central Sales Tax d) Service Tax
8) Income of a business commenced on l' March, 2014 will be assessed during the assessment year
a)2013-2014 b) 2015-2016
c)2014-2015 d) 2016-2017
9) Remuneration received by Member of Parliament are taxable under the head "
c) Income from House Property d) Income from Business or Profession
10) The Central authority that regulates matters with respect to service tax is
a) Central Board of Excise and Customs b) Central Board of Direct Taxes
c) Central Sales Tax Authority d) All as above

NOVEMBER– 2014
1) The Taxation and Fundamental Rights means the constitutional remedies against the illegal Taxation related to
a) Article 13, 14, 19 (I) g b) Article 25, 26, 28
c) Fundamental duties d) Article 12 of the constitution.
2) Income Tax Act, was imposed in India as early as in the year
a) 1860 b) 1867
c) 1940 d) 1945
3) The Element of Taxes are visible
a) Taxes are not imposed by Govt. b) Tax is legal collection.
c) Tax is not used for public purpose. d) Paid in kind.
4) Classess of person who need not apply for PAN
a) Not receipt of any other income chargeable to tax or agricultural income. b) non-Residents
c) Every person who's income is Accessable d) Private company.
5) According to central sales Tax Act 1956 definition of "goods" includes
a) Actionable claims b) stock
c) Shares d) Other kinds of movable property
6) Liability in special cases, it deals with the procedure for collection of Tax in Liquidation of private
company or other company.
a) Auditor b) Appellate Authority
c) Liquidator d) Any Person
7) Under the Income Tax Act 1961 S. 80G related to
a) Salary b) Bonous
c) Deduction in respect of donation d) Profit
8) According to the Central Sales Tax Act S. 14 explains about the goods of special importance excluded.
a) Wheat b) Oil seeds
c) Jute d) Cotton Yarn Waste
9) Tax is payable in the year called---------
a) That is Assessment year b) Current year
c) Next year d) that is calander year
10) Examples of lossess Admissible under S. 37(1) of Income Tax Act 1961.
a) Past lossess. b) Loss of stock in trade due to enemy action or act of God.
c) Penalty paid for illegal import. d) Fees paid for increasing share capital.

APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Consolidated Fund and Public Account explain in the constitution under Article
a) 266 b) 289
c) Article 13 d) Article 14
2) No Tax shall be levied or collected by
a) Except by Authority of Law b) Without Law
c) Any Authority d) Without authority of Law
3) According to central Sales Tax Act 1956 definition of goods includes
a) Auctionable claims b) Stock
c) Shares d) Other kinds of movable property
4) Taxation and Fundamental Rights means the constitutional remedies against illegal Taxation related to Article
a) Article 13,14 b) Article 25,26,28
c) Article 12 d) Fundamental duties
5) Tax is Payable in the Year that year is called
a) That is Assessment Year b) Current Year
c) Next Year d) English calander year
6) Liability in Special cases it deals with the Procedure for collection of tax in the Liquidation of private
company.
a) Auditor b) Appellate Authority
c) Liquidator d) Any Person
7) Long Form of PAN
a) Permnemt Authority number b) Permnemt Account number
c) Private number d) Public Authority number
8) Income Tax Act, was imposed in India as early as possible in the year
a) 1860 b)1867
c) 1940 d) 1962
9) Under the General sales Tax Act 1956, U.S. 14 the goods of special importance excluded
a) Wheat b) oil seeds
c) Jute d) cotton yarn waste
10) Classification and needs of Income in according to income Tax Act includes
a) Income from salary b) Rebates and Reliefs
c) Filing Return d) collection and Recovery

NOVEMBER – 2019
1) Who is called as resident and not ordinarily resident as per Income Tax Act
2) What is Revesre charge mechanism under GST.
3) Which goods are kept out of the perview of GST.
4) What is Net Annual Value of House Property
5) When Cess is levied under Income Tax
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) What is Cess?
2) What is Tax?
3) Define “ Person” under Income Tax Act?
4) What is CGST ?
5) What is SGST ?
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) What are permissible deductions from salary income u/s. 16 of the Income Tax Act, 1961?
2) What is a previous year?
3) What is difference between exemption and deduction?
4) Who is regarded as assessee under the Income Tax Act, 1961?
5) What is gross total income?
APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) What is cess?
2) What is previous year?
3) Who is Assessee?
4) Define Sale?
5) What is VAT?

NOVEMBER – 2017
1) What is clubbing of income?
2) Who is assessee?
3) What is meant by deemed income?
4) What is VAT?
5) What is cess?
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) What is 'Tax'?
2) What is 'Assessment year'?
3) Who is called as Deemed Assesse?
4) What is meant by Tax Planning?
5) What is meant by Assessment year?
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Define 'Business'.
2) What are the sources of incomes under the income tax Act 1961?
3) Which are the books of accounts maintain the person carriying on profession?
4) Define sale as per the central sales tax act 1956.
5) Explain the meaning of Audit
APRIL/MAY – 2016
Q. 2- Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10)
I) Classification of tax
2) Define 'person' under income tax Act.
3) Write down the deduction u/s 24 from income from house pooperty.
4) Define 'sale' according to Central Sales Tax Act, 1956.
5) Explain the meaning of service tax.


NOVEMBER– 2015
I) What is 'Surcharge" under Act. 271 of Indian Constitution?
2) Enlist the five heads of income.
3) What is return of income?
4) Define 'Net Wealth'.
5) Define 'sale and 'Sale price' under Sales Tax Act. 1956.
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) What are the sources of incomes under the Income Tax Act 1961?
2) What are the different approaches to Service Tax?
3) Who are included in "Person" under the Income Tax Act, 196i ?
4) What are the objectives for introducing VAT?
5) What are the elements of tax evasion?
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Agricultural Income
2) Consolidated Fund (Article 266 of constitution)
3) Assesse
4) Tax
5) Value of Travel concession S. 10(5) of Income Tax Act.
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Importance of Income Tax Act
2) Authority to settle disputes under the Income Tax Act
3) House Rent Allowence
4) Entertainment Allowance
5) Deductions are allowed from salary


NOVEMBER – 2019
Q.3 Write Short Notes. (any four) (20)
1) Distinguish between Direct and Indirect Tax
2) Explain the test to determine Residential Status of Individual
3) Write a short note on Short Term Capital Gain
4) Explain the Rules of setting of the Tax credit under GST
5) Write a note on clubbing of Income under Income Tax Act
6) Write the Income tax slabs for Individual for AY 2019-20
7) Income from House Property
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) Deffences between Tax Evasion and Tax Avoidance
2) Clubbing of Income
3) Differences between Direct and Indirect tax
4) Income From House Property
5) E-Way Bill
6) Inpute Tax credit meachanism
7) Diffences between Tax and Fees
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Concept of tax.
2) Difference between Tax and Cess.
3) Difference between Tax and Fee.
4) Deemed Income.
5) Tax Planning.
6) Difference between Direct Tax and Indirect Tax.
7) Background of VAT in India.


APRIL/MAY – 2018
2) Difference between Tax Evasion and Tax Avoidance
3) Income from Salary
4) Dealer
5) Reassessment
6) Distinction between Inter state sale and Intra state sale
7) Service Tax
NOVEMBER – 2017
Q. 3. Write Short Notes. (any four) (20)
1) Difference between direct and indirect tax
2) Heads of income
3) Difference between tax evasion and tax avoidance
4) Deemed income
5) Concept of tax
7) Rebates and reliefs
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) Income from House Property
2) Distinction between Tax and Fee
3) Dealer under the Central Sales Tax Act ,1956
4) Meaning of 'Sale' under Sales Tax
5) Service Tax
6) Assessee
7) Tax Evasion

NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Write the current year tax rule for men, women & senior citizen
2) Distinguish between the direct tax and indirect tax
3) Residential status of a person/individual
4) Explain the concept of total income
5) Define 'Goods' and 'Sale' according to Central Sales Tax Act 1956
6) Explain the provision for sale or purchase outside a state according to OST Act 1956
7) Explain the deduction u/s 16 from income from salary
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) Residential Status of company
2) Difference between tax & fee
3) income from salary
4) Sale or purchase in the course of inter-state trade or commerce
5) Deemed home
6) Meaning & importance of service tax
7) List out the types of income assessable under the head income from business or profession.
NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Tax and fees
2) Income in income Tax Act. 1961
3) Deductions in Income
4) Filing of returns
5) Deemed assets
6) Advance payment of tax
7) Refund of Tax

APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Residential Status of an Individual
2) Income from House Property.
3) Service Tax: Importance and Constitutional Perspectives
4) Deemed Income
5) Difference between direct and indirect taxes.
6) Difference between tax evasion and tax avoidance.
7) Concept of Tax
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Meaning and importance of Service Tax
2) Capital gains
3) Explain the concept of 'Dealer'. Explain it with case laws.
4) Liability in special cases S. 16 to 18
5) Difference between Tax and fees.
6) Authority to settle disputes
7) Sale in the course of Export or import.
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Capital Gains
2) Purchase and sale and Sale Prize
3) Liability in special cases s.16 to s.18
4) Difference between Tax and fees
5) Explain the concept of Dealer Explain it with case Laws
6) Minor's income
7) Goods of special imporatance in Inter state Trade (S.14)


NOVEMBER – 2019
1) What are the types of Assessments under Income Tax Act
2) Explain the concept of GST and its advantages and disadvantages
3) What are the various heads of income? Explain any two heads in detail.
4) What is Income under section 2(24) of Income Tax Act
APRIL-MAY– 2019
1) Expalin offence and Penalties under Income tax Act 1961?
2) Elucidate appointment and control of Income tax Authorities?
3) Explain offcence and Penalties under GST Act 2017?
4) Advantages and Disadvantages of GST ?
NOVEMBER– 2018
1) Define and explain income under section 2 [24] of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
2) Explain the salient features of the Service Tax in India.
3) Discuss the merits and demerits of Value Added Tax.
4) Define and explain 'Sale' under the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956.
APRIL/MAY – 2018
1) Explain the Historical background of Income Tax in India
2) Explain offences and penalties under Income Tax Act 1961
3) Explain the sale in course of export and import
4) Define Salary? Explain the nature of income chargeable and permissible deductions under the head
“Salaries”

NOVEMBER – 2017
1) Discuss the historical background of income tax in India.
2) Explain the salient features of service Tax.
3) Elucidate appointment and control of income tax authorities
4) Explain in detail Authorities, offences and penalties under the Central Sales Tax Act,1956
APRIL/MAY – 2017
1) Explain Merits and Demerits of VAT
2) Explain types of Taxes in detail
3) Explain salient provisions of Service Tax
4) Elucidate historical outline of Income Tax in India
NOVEMBER– 2016
1) Explain the expenditure which is allowed for deduction and also explain which is not allowed for deduction
from income from business and profession
2) Explain the central sales tax authority and powers of the authority
i) Income from house property ii) Income from salary
3) Explain the settlement of grievances/cases under Income Tax Act 1961
4) Explain the tax in brief and also state the charactristics of taxes
APRIL/MAY – 2016
1) Explain the power and functions of income lax authorities.
2) Explain the following heads of income in detail.
i) Income from house property
ii) Income from salasy
3) Explain the residential status of an asses.
4) Explain the sale in the course of export or import.


NOVEMBER– 2015
1) Discuss the Historical outline of Income Tax Law in India.
2) Classify the term 'Income' under Income Tax Act. 1961.
3) Explain the offences and penalties under Maharashtra Value Added Tax Act. 2002.
4) Briefly highlight on Central Sales Tax Act. 1956.
APRIL/MAY – 2015
1) Discuss origin and evolution of Income Tax in India.
2) Discuss the merits and demerits of Value Added Tax.
3) Discuss about appoint, control of the Income Tax Authorities.
4) Explain the salient features of the Service Tax in India.
NOVEMBER– 2014
1) Explain the provisions U/S. 80 G of Income Tax Act, 1961.
2) State the provisions of Income Tax in respect of Exemptions following :
i) House Rent Allowance ii) Entertainment Allowance. iii) Described Cental Sales Tax Act.
3) Describe Cental Sales Tax Act.
4) Enumerate the different sources of Income under the needs of Income Tax Act.
APRIL/MAY – 2014
1) Define the term "Salary" under the Income Tax Act 1961
2) Explain the provision uls. 80 G of Income Tax Act 1961
3) An assessce is not only liable in respect of his own income tax purposes but his liablity may extend for same
other incomes also comment.
4) Enumerate the different sources of Income under the needs of Income Tax Act
1) Income From House Property
2) Profits and gains of Business or profession 3) Income from other sources

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TILAK MAHARASHTRA VIDYAPEETH, PUNE

BACHELOR OF LAWS (LL.B.)/ B.A. LL.B. FOURTH/EIGHT SEMESTER

Q. 1. Choose correct option from the following. ( 10 Marks )

Q . 1. Ch oose cor rect op t i on fro m t h e fol lowi n g. (10 Marks )

Q.1. Choose correct option from the following. (10 Marks )

Sub.: Interpretation of Statutes (LW-403/8003)

Q. 2. Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) ( 10 Marks )

1) Meaning of Ejusdem generis

2) Define repeal statute

5) What are marginal notes ?

Q. 2.Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) ( 10Marks )

1) What do you mean by Literal Rule of interpretation?

3) What is nocitus a sociis?

1) What is fiscal statute ?

3) meaning of ‘Non –obstan clause

Q. 2. Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10 Marks )

2) What is the commencement of statute?

5) What is codification of statute ?

Sub.: Interpretation of Statutes (LW-403/8003)

Q. 2. Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10 Marks )

1) What do you mean by literal rule of interpretation?

2) Explain mens rea

3) What do you mean by proviso?

4) What is liberal interpretation of statute?

5) Explain text books and dictionaries as external aid to contruction.

Sub.: Interpretation of Statutes (LW-403/8003)

Q. 2.Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10 Marks )

1) What is meant by Marginal notes?

2) Meaning of Declaratory statute

3) Meaning of Short title

4) Meaning of In bonam parterm

5) Concept of Codifying statutes

1) Meaning of Ejusdem generis

2) What is mean by temporary statute?

3) What is effect of repeal statute?

4) What is object behind to amend the statute?

5) Which are welfare statute?

Q. 2. Answer the following in short. (up to 30 words) (10 Marks )

1) What are the schedules?

2) What are marginal notes?

3) What is the codification of statute?

5) What is use of Dictionaries in interpretation of statute?

Sub.: Interpretation of Statutes (LW-403/8003)

Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) ( 20 Marks )

1) Principle of Colourable legistation

2) Write a note on ‘statutes in pari-materia’

3) Define golden rule of interpretation

5) Doctrine of Pith and substance

Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) (20 Marks )

2) Rule of strict interpretation

4) Golden rule of interpretation

5) Statute in PARI MATERIA

Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) (20 Marks )

3) Rule of strict interpretation

5) Golden rule of interpretation

Sub.: Interpretation of Statutes (LW-403/8003)

Q. 3. Short Notes. (any four) ( 20 Marks )

5) Doctrine of prospective overruling