(CLB KỸ NĂNG DOANH NHÂN) (DNTS2023) ĐỀ ONLINE TEST 04

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CLB KỸ NĂNG DOANH NHÂN – ACTION CLUB

CUỘC THI DOANH NHÂN TẬP SỰ 2023

ĐỀ THI ONLINE TEST

(WITH KEY ANSWER)

Lưu ý: Đáp án và lời giải chỉ mang tính chất tham khảo

ĐỀ 04
I. ABSTRACT REASONING

1. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: In every column and row of this matrix, there is one frame with a grey
square, one frame with a white square, and one frame with a black square. The grey
square is the combination of the other two squares in that row and column (black and
white combine to make grey for both the squares and the circles).

Since in the third row and in the third column, there is already both a black square
and a grey square, you should look for an answer choice with a white square. Thus,
you can eliminate answer choices (1), (2), and (3).

The only difference between answers (4) and (5) is the bottom-right circle. Since the
grey square in the right column contains a black circle in this position (bottom-right),
and the grey square is the combination of the other two squares, the circle in the same
position in both the top and bottom squares must also be black. (only two black circles
can create a black circle in the gray square). This means answer (4) is correct.
2. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: All the shapes from the left frame are rearranged as follows in the
centre frame: the bottom shape is placed within the (slightly enlarged) middle shape,
which in turn is placed within the (enlarged) top shape. Therefore, in the centre frame
we have a small L shape (from the bottom of the left frame), within a larger down
arrow (from the middle of the left frame), within an even larger square (from the top of
the left frame).

The right frame is similar to the centre frame, with the following two differences:

- The centre shape (in this case the L-shape) is elongated.


- The middle shape has been replaced by the middle shape from the left frame of
the previous row (in this case the bottom row).

This pattern is repeated in each row.


3. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: This matrix contains rectangles in four shades: white, light grey, dark
grey, and black. Every frame contains a light grey rectangle which is in a different
position in each row or column. Each of the other three colours appears in two out of
three of the frames in a row or column. In the columns, each colour, except for the
light grey, always appears in the same position, while in the rows, the rectangles of the
same colour are always in different positions.
4. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The unusual matrix invites us to find a correspondence between the


outer shapes in each of the arms, and the dots in the centre of the matrix. We are
supposed to understand the principles of the construct from the left matrix and then to
apply them on to the right one in order to find the correct answer. The scattering of the
dots has three major features, some may have a meaning, and some may not –
quantity, colour and spatial location. Let’s begin with elimination: firstly, the number
of the dots clearly corresponds with the number of shapes on each arm. That should be
an immediate way to eliminate some answer choices – specifically options 1 and 3;
secondly, it is questionable whether the spatial location of the dots is significant, since
the left arm (four circles) of the left matrix doesn’t correspond with the scattering of
the dots. Option 4 is a distracter, using spatial location in order to misguide us. The
colour of the dots does have a meaning – each black dot marks a small shape, while
white dots mark large shapes. Sifting through the available options, we can find that
only option 2 fits this principle.
5. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: This matrix has three different shape patterns and three different colour
patterns. Each pattern appears only once every row and once every column.
Answers 1-4 all include the shape pattern missing in the central row and column.
However, answer 1 is the only answer that also includes the missing colour pattern
(upper black and grey checkered shape, black striped central shape, and grey filled
bottom shape). Answer 2 has the wrong order of colours in all of its parts. Answer 3
has the wrong orientation of lines filling the central shape. Answer 4 has the wrong
order of colours in the top and bottom parts.
6. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: Joining up the different sections in each row/column (without changing


their orientation) creates a whole circle.

The top row already creates a full circle (120 degrees + 240 degrees), thus the upper
cell in the correct answer should remain empty. This notion alone disqualifies answers
1, 4 and 5. The 2nd row from the top is missing the bottom right quarter of the circle.
Therefore, answer 3 is disqualified as well and the correct answer is answer 2.

Note that we could also solve this question by looking at the columns instead. The 2nd
column from right already has a three quarter circle and is missing the bottom right
quarter of the circle. The only answer that has this part (and this part alone) is answer
2.
7. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The shape inside each of the outer triangles is assembled of the shapes
inside two of the inner triangles – the adjacent triangle to the outer one and the one
next to it, clockwise. Lines that overlap in both inner triangles appear only once.

Notice that the assembled shape is similar in orientation to the two parts that are
combined together in order to create it.
8. What comes next in the sequence?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation:
The relationship between figure X and figure Y is as follows:
1) The inner shape (triangle) in figure X moves outside in figure Y to the “missing
part” of the outer shape (circle), the inner shape then,
2) rotates 90° counterclockwise to fill the “missing spot”, and
3) It becomes dark.

The correct answer must have the same relationship with figure Z. Answers 1 and 5
can be eliminated as they show figures where the inner shape in figure Z remains
inside. Answers 2 and 3 can be eliminated as they show the outer shape in figure Z
rotated. We are left with answer 4, which is the correct answer, as it portrays figure Z
where the inner shape (triangle) moves to the outside to fill the “missing part” of the
outer shape (rectangle), rotates 90° counterclockwise, and becomes dark.
9. What comes next in the sequence?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation
The relationship between figure X and figure Y is as follows:
Figure Y is figure X:
1) flipped vertically
2) With the triangles becoming dark.

The correct answer must have the same relationship with figure Z. Answers 1, 4 and 5
can be eliminated as they do not represent figure Z flipped vertically. Answer 3 can be
eliminated as the triangles do not become dark. We are left with answer 2, which is the
correct answer, as it is portrays figure Z flipped vertically while the triangles become
dark.
10. What comes next in the sequence?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation
There are three rules in this series:

- Rule 1: Three different triangles (an empty triangle, a black triangle and a triangle
with a circle) alternate, and each type appear twice in a row. The next diagram in the
series should include both a black triangle and a white triangle with a circle in it. This
eliminates two answer options.

- Rule 2: The diagonal line in the square alternates position. In one diagram it slants
to the right, and in the next it slants to the left. In the next diagram, the line should
slant to the left. This eliminates another answer option.

- Rule 3: Each type of triangle appears twice in a row, and its position is a mirror
image of the triangle in the preceding diagram. This means that in the missing
diagram, the circle should be in the bottom left-hand corner of the square.
11. What replaces the question mark?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation:
Each square contains two lines. The beginning point of each of the lines remains
constant throughout the sequence – one line begins at the middle of the upper edge
and the other begins at the middle of the left edge. Imagine these lines move one
towards the other (and beyond). Each step a movement from a corner to a middle-
point of the adjacent edge.
In the missing figure both lines are directed towards the lower right corner, as
presented in answer choice 3.
12. What comes next in the sequence?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The logic: The elements which appears in all frames are two blocks of
two rectangles one on top of the other. Note that the frame itself is in a width
equivalent of 5 such blocks standing side by side. The pattern of change is as follows:
every step the blocks “move” two step to the right. Each time a block moves further
than the right wall, it reappears at the left. The element of getting out and back to the
frame is not often found in inductive reasoning tests, but still can be found and is
worthwhile to keep in mind.
13. What comes next in the sequence?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: The black dot moves clockwise between corners within each square
object. It alternately moves one place or two places. The white dot in the inner square
moves clockwise one place between objects. There is no need to work out the
movement pattern at this stage of the diagonals, since there is only one answer option
in which the black and white dots are placed as expected in the missing object in the
series. Another way to answer this question is to look only at the diagonals. There are
two diagonals, one in each square. The inner diagonal rotates 90° in each step. This
leaves only answers (1), (3), and (5) as options. The outer diagonal rotates 90° every
two steps, which leaves only answer (3) as an option.
14. What comes next in the sequence?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation: Each frame has a set number of shapes of the following types: a
hexagon, a pentagon, a quadrilateral, (not necessarily a square) and a circle.
Sometimes parts of the shapes overlap. Sizes and orientations are changeable from
frame to frame. Every frame, the outermost shape becomes the innermost one in the
following frame. The second outermost shape becomes the outermost one as the
former outermost shape moves towards the inside of the picture. In the third frame the
outer shape is a diamond and the second outermost shape is a circle. The correct
answer is 3 as the innermost shape is a diamond and the outer shape is a circle. Note
that one side of the hexagon overlaps with one side of the pentagon.
15. What comes next in the sequence?

A. B. C. D. E.

Explanation:
Every step, two squares (which are compiled of a black and a white triangles),
diagonal to one another, change their orientation (i.e. rotate). In the first step, the
upper-left and the bottom-right squares change their orientation, and in the next step
the upper-right and the bottom-left do, and so forth. The direction of the rotation is
random.

In the final step, the squares that rotated were the upper right and bottom left ones,
which means that they should stay the same in the missing image. The only answer that
fits this rule is answer (4).

See the picture below for more clarity:


16. Choose the odd one out.

A.Picture 1 B. Picture 2 C. Picture 3 D. Picture 4 E. Picture 5

Explanation:
Albeit having many visual aspects, this question has one simple element that accounts
for the Odd One Out. In the fifth frame, the hoof is tiled differently from the other
hoofs. The spacing between the diagonal lines is wider than that of frames 1-4. The
difficulty of the question is created by the large number of distracters.

Distracters:
The orientation of the hoof- there are four different orientations.
The location of the triangle- this element is determined by the orientation of the hoof.
The color of the sun-shape in the middle- there are three different colors.
The orientation of the lines in the hoof’s tile- answers 1,2 and 5 have the same
orientation, and answer 3 and 4 have a different orientation.
17. Choose the odd one out.

A.Picture 1 B. Picture 2 C. Picture 3 D. Picture 4 E. Picture 5

Explanation: Each frame has two containers containing black dots inside. The ratio of
dots right: left is 1:3. this rule is not enforced by frame 5 which has a 1:2 ratio. Thus,
the correct answer is 5. Additional explanation: frame 5 is the only one with an odd
number of dots.
18.

Set A Set B

The following test shape belongs to:

A. Set A

B. Set B

C. Neither

Explanation
Set A: There are more 3D shapes than 2D shapes.
Set B: There are more 2D shapes than 3D shapes.
The test shape does not belong to either set.
5 3D shapes = 5 2D shapes.
II. VERBAL REASONING

[19+20+21] Life is fundamentally about the use of energy, about effectively


harvesting it from food and channelling it into existence and offspring. As animals get
bigger, their changing use of energy ripples across all aspects of their lives. Because of
economies of scale, larger and more complex animals need less energy for each
individual cell. They grow and reproduce more slowly, and they live longer. The
astounding thing is that this variety can be captured by a deceptively simple equation.
An animal's metabolic rate is proportional to its mass to the power of three-quarters
(0.75). So, a cat that is 100 times heavier than a mouse would have a metabolic rate
that is around 32 times greater, and a human that is 10 times heavier than a cat would
have a metabolic rate around 6 times greater. This law links all animals, from mice to
elephants.

A researcher showed that the same mathematical principle that governs individual
animals can be applied to insect colonies if you treat their members as a collective
whole. He gathered data on over 168 species of social insects and noted the total mass
of all their members. They ranged from species of fire ants whose colonies weigh little
more than 2 milligrams, to African termite colonies that tip the scales at around 4kg.
The researcher showed that the metabolic rate of these species is proportional to their
mass to the power of 0.81. It's close enough to the 0.75 figure to be statistically
indistinguishable. The trend for colonies is just an extension of the trend for loners.

19. Individual organisms and insect colonies put roughly the same amount of
effort into reproduction.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY
Explanation: While the paragraph mentions energy consumption is regards to only
two factors - existence and reproduction, it does not provide information about how
much energy is spent on each. The statement assumes that reproduction and existence
have the same energetic cost, an assumption we cannot make on the basis of this
passage.
20. The greater the mass of the animal the higher its metabolic rate.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

C. CANNOT SAY

Explanation: True. An animal's metabolic rate is proportional to its mass to the


power of three-quarters (0.75). So a cat that is 100 times heavier than a mouse would
have a metabolic rate that was around 32 times greater.

21. The larger and more advanced the animal, the less energy the animal
consumes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY
Explanation: Can't tell. The passage states that larger and more complex animals
need less energy for each individual cell. We have no information regarding the total
energy needs of larger animals.

[22+23] John the postman, who is responsible for postal delivery in Kensington and
Flemington, has repeatedly surpassed delivery targets. Working from 7 am to 5:30 pm,
he completes three full delivery rounds a day, shortening the average wait for medium-
size parcels by half. In addition, on average he has recently tripled the amount of
regular post delivered every day. In contrast, Bill, the postman of Surrey Hills,
continuously fails to reach his postal delivery targets. The head supervisor of both
employees and a close friend of Bill’s explains the gap between the performances of
the two by referring to the size difference of the two suburbs (500 sq. metres), the
abundance of high-rise residential buildings in the Kensington area (4 buildings) and
the enormous amount of guard dogs in Surrey Hills.
22. It appears that the head supervisor has some hidden agenda in justifying
Bill's poor performance.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY

Explanation: On the one hand, the passage states that the head supervisor is a close
friend of Bill’s, which may suggest a non-objective judgement of the situation.
However, some of his justifications make sense: more high-rise residential buildings
means less walking from one building to another, which could save time. Since we are
not provided with enough information about the head supervisor’s motivation and
reasons, we should choose “Cannot Say.”

23. Mail recipients have to wait longer for medium size parcels than regular post
in the Kensington and Flemington suburbs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY

Explanation: The text provides information about John's efficiency in cutting the
waiting time for medium size parcels and regular mail. There is no information about
the actual waiting time for these parcels in relation to other types of post. The answer
is Cannot Say
[24+25] Late stage new drug withdrawals and poor performance of new product
introductions have frequently been in the newspaper headlines in recent years as the
cause of pharmaceutical stock woes. Whilst launching a new blockbuster drug in
previous decades has almost guaranteed pharmaceutical companies would experience
prompt and major revenue growth; increased competition means this is no longer
always the case. The blockbuster drug no longer holds the guarantees it once did and
pharmaceutical companies have become more wary about what they are launching.

With changes afoot, experts believe that the trend will need to move towards more,
and probably smaller products, as well as drug-device combinations, biological and
genetic based products. With the diminishment of blockbuster products, product
launches become more important. The ability to launch products successfully has
rapidly become a strategic priority supported by the fact that, even with the reduced
number of blockbuster products being launched in the industry, the number of product
launches overall has not decreased.

A detailed and expertly crafted plan is at the core of a product launch. One can never
under-estimate how intricate and complex a product launch must be. It is no secret that
unsuccessful product launches often fail to start with a meticulous plan and an intense
focus on maintaining momentum up to and beyond the actual launch. As more, smaller
products are set to launch in coming years, this fact remains a constant.

24. Product launches in the pharmaceutical industry are expected to drop with
the demise of the blockbuster drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY
Explanation: The second paragraph tells us that ‘even with the reduced number of
blockbuster products being launched in the industry, the number of product launches
has not decreased.’ This tells us that there has not been a drop in product launches.
The final paragraph also states that ‘As more, smaller products are set to launch in
coming years ….’ From this we can deduce that there will actually be an increase in
product launches therefore the statement is false.
25. Pharmaceutical companies have previously focused their attention and
budgets on developing blockbuster drugs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY

Explanation: Whilst it is clear from the passage that in recent decades blockbuster
drugs have generated success in terms of increased revenue, we cannot say for certain
that this is where the budgets and attention of pharmaceutical companies has been
focussed. It seems highly probable from what we know, but we do not know for sure.

[26+27] Bringing public spending under control through budget cuts, stringency and
austerity measures bears big dividends in the short term and the medium term. This is
evidenced through both recent and distant history, with a good case in point being
Canada. The 1990s saw Canada trying to cope in the face of financial adversity.
Drastic, and some would say, harsh, measures were taken with the result being a
region whose finances remain buoyant regardless of the financial crisis that has been
impacting so many other countries around the globe in recent years. Sweden provides
another example of spending cuts being made throughout the 1990s to address the
somewhat perilous state of the finances. Sweden is now financially stable, and is
forced to increase taxes or make spending cuts when it needs to spend money.

Where countries persist in excessive spending, they find themselves having no room to
manoeuvre. Tax payers suffer increases in their contributions and future generations
are faced with the burden of debt repayment.

History offers no credibility to the popular idea that cutting spending now will actually
slow down the economy, leading to a double-dip recession or an increase in economic
stagnation. Let us consider the U.S.A. after World War II as a very good counter
example. There was widespread expectation in the United States in 1945-46 that once
the war ended and military spending came to an end there would be a return to
recession or even worse. The general expectation was that all this government
spending would simply lead to a collapse in economic activity once it was withdrawn.
It does appear though that exactly the opposite happened.

26. By continuing to spend in an economic downturn, countries are more likely to


find themselves in a superior financial position in the longer term.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY
Explanation: The whole premise of the passage is that spending cuts are the best way
to ensure future economic growth, and that continuing to spend will actually do the
opposite.
27. Sweden and Canada are both regarded as being in a strong state financially,
despite the current economic downturn.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. CANNOT SAY

Explanation: Paragraph 1 describes the steps that these two countries took in the
1990s that have resulted in them being ‘financially buoyant’ (Canada) and financially
stable (Sweden) now, both of which are words that can be used as another way of
saying ‘strong state financially’.

[28+29+30] The Upholstered Furniture Regulations (1983) impose requirements in


relation to domestic furniture. All upholstered furniture sold in the UK must meet fire
resistance standards. New furniture must be permanently labelled. Any second-hand
furniture made after 1950 must be fire resistant. This includes sofas, beds, garden
furniture, cushion fillings and all other types of upholstered household furniture.

The standards all furniture must adhere to are: (a) filling materials must meet standards
so they don’t catch fire easily; (b) upholstery must be cigarette resistant; (c) covers
must be match resistant; (d) a permanent label must be fitted to every item of new
furniture.

The UK Fire Safety Advice centre advises that should a piece of furniture not meet the
fire safety standards, this furniture should not be used anymore. If a proof of purchase
such as a receipt or credit card receipt is available, a complaint should be made to the
trader. In the complaint, it should be stated that this item isn't fit for purpose under the
Sale of Goods Act. A refund or other goods that do meet the standards should be
supplied.If a piece of furniture isn't fire resistant for certain, a report should be filed to
Trading Standards against the trader.

These Regulations apply to all persons in the business supply chain from the supply of
materials for use in furniture, through to the supply of the finished article as well as re-
upholstery and re-covering. They affect all persons who supply furniture, furnishings
or re-upholstery services including manufacturers, retailers and importers, and they
also apply to persons who hire out furniture in the course of a business.
As manufacturers and importers are exposed to consumers’ complaints, they need to
retain the information about the relevant ignitability test for a period of five years from
the date on which the furniture is supplied to the retailer.
28. According to the UK Fire Safety Advice centre, what should be done if a piece
of furniture does not meet the fire resistance standards?
A. A report to the police should be field as this is a criminal offence
B. The furniture should be hired out as this is a business course
C. Proof that the furniture is not fire-resistant should be supplied to the trader
D. No use should be made of this furniture from this moment on
E. All persons in the business supply chain should be notified
F. The furniture should be destroyed

Explanation: as stated in the third paragraph: “The UK Fire Safety Advice centre
advises that should a piece of furniture not meet the fire safety standards, this
furniture should not be used anymore.”

29. Which of the below is NOT mentioned as required to meet fire resistance
standards?
A. Furniture that was constructed or imported before the year 1950
B. All furniture that include upholstery
C. All covers and cushions that have filling
D. Furniture that was hired from a shop
E. Furniture that carries a permanent label
F. Furniture that was supplied five years or longer before the date of the complaint

Explanation: This question deals with the type of furniture that must be fire-resistant.
Note that this is a negative question, so we need to find five types of furniture that are
obligated to be fire-resistant and one that isn’t. Note that the text includes a list of
furniture that must meet the standards: “sofas, beds, garden furniture, cushion
fillings and all other types of upholstered household furniture.”

A. The correct answer. Note the text specifically mentions that “furniture made
after 1950 must be fire resistant”.
B. “All types of upholstered household furniture” is mentioned in the list above.
C. Specifically mentioned in the list above.
D. It is mentioned later in the text that all standards apply to people who hire out
furniture.
E. Any piece of furniture sold needs to have a permanent label, as mentioned in
the second paragraph, but that only means it was tested and proven to be fire
resistant.
F. Manufacturers should retain proof of the relevant tests for five years, but after
that period furniture is still expected to remain fire-resistant.

30. In case of a complaint, how should manufacturers and importers prove that
their furniture is fire resistant?
A. They should report the complaint to the Trading Standards
B. They should be responsible for reupholstering the furniture they supplied
C. They should provide a replacement piece that does meet the standards
D. They should supply information about ignitability test conducted on the piece
E. They should refund if a piece of furniture is not fire resistant
F. They should prove the furniture was manufactured over five years ago

Explanation: This question is asking how the manufacturer or the importer can prove
that their furniture is fire-resistant. As they need to provide this proof in case of a
complaint, scanning the text for the word “complaint” or something with a similar
meaning should be helpful. The answer is in the last paragraph, where it is mentioned
that proof that the furniture is fire-resistant should be kept.

31. War and politics visibly intertwined with music in the 20th century, under
totalitarianism and after it. Classical music blared constantly in the choreographed
background to Nazi life. For a time, the classical repertoire was deemed to have lost its
moral stature because of the Nazis' embrace. This was one reason why some
composers tried to scrap classical forms and explore the alternatives, leading to the
dissonant pandemonium of experimental music in the 1950s., A left-wing sociologist
and musician wrote in 1949 that preserving tonality betrayed a fascist mentality.

31. During the 20th century classical music:


A. Influenced politics
B. Was influenced by politics
C. Was not embraced by the Nazis
D. Flourished independently

Explanation: According to the passage, "the classical repertoire was deemed to have
lost its moral stature because of the Nazis' embrace. This was one reason why some
composers tried to scrap classical forms and explore the alternatives, leading to the
dissonant pandemonium of experimental music in the 1950s." Since the classical
repertoire was embraced by the Nazis, a change was sought by some composers.

32. Students often equate the structural frame with red tape and bureaucracy, missing
the important understanding that participative structures are also possible outcomes of
rational thinking and organizational design efforts. By exploring the ways in which the
various approaches for organizational improvement suggested connect to
organizational structure and design, students can begin to see the two frames as
potentially complementary, not necessarily inconsistent or adversarial.

32. Which two frames should be seen as complementary?


A. Rational thinking, design
B. Bureaucracy, structural frame
C. Design, organizational structure
D. Bureaucracy, organizational improvement
Explanation: According to the passage, "By exploring the ways in which the various
approaches for organizational improvement that are suggested connect to
organizational structure and design, students can begin to see the two frames as
potentially complementary." Bureaucracy is mentioned in another context, so answers
(B) and (D) are incorrect; rational thinking, (A), is mentioned as part of the design
structure.

[33+34] Nuclear power provides 12% of the world's electricity and 20% of the
electricity consumed in the US. There are over 100 nuclear power reactors operating
around the US. Some states generate the majority of their electricity from nuclear
power.
Nuclear energy is environment friendly since it does not emit greenhouse gases. In
addition, it is a stable and economical resource. The cost of electricity production by
means of nuclear power became over the years lower than production by many other
available resources, such as coal and natural gas.

Nuclear plants generate electricity by boiling water into steam; the steam then tur
turbines which activate an electricity generator. Nuclear plants differ from other fossil-
fueled power plants in what serves as a heat source to turn water into steam. Nuclear
plants do not burn fuel; instead, they use a process called "fission". During the fission
process, an atom (in this case, uranium) splits into smaller parts releasing neutrons
from its nucleus. These neutrons hit other atoms and cause them to split as well; thus,
creating a self-sustaining chain reaction which releases an enormous amount of heat.

Currently, there are two types of nuclear reactors in the US: pressurized water reactor
(PWR) and boiling water reactor (BWR).

The PWR maintains water under pressure so that it heats, but prevent it from boiling.
The heated water is pumped through a steam generator, where it transfers its thermal
energy to a secondary system where steam is generated and flows to turbines which, in
turn, spin an electric generator that produces electricity. The water from the reactor
and the water that is turned into steam are in separate systems and do not mix.

In the BWR, the water flows upward through the core, where it is heated by fission
and allowed to boil in the reactor vessel. The water then turns into steam which is
carried by pipes to spin the turbine, which drives the generator to produce electricity.

In PWRs and BWRs, the steam is turned back into water for reuse. In addition, the
water serves both as a coolant and as a moderator, to slow neutrons.

Despite the elegancy and evident efficiency of the nuclear method, many wonder why
we need it when we can harness renewable energy sources like the wind and the sun.
The answer, others may argue, is that nuclear power is able to reliably supply a
substantial amount of electricity in every hour of every day of the year, hence, it is an
important resource for meeting with the ever-increasing demand for electricity.

33. What is a fission process?


A. A cascade of events that result in electricity generation
B. When an atom splits and releases a great amount of heat energy
C. When uranium atoms split
D. When water turns into steam via nuclear heat

Explanation: The fission process is explained in the second half of the 3rd
paragraph: "During the fission process, an atom (in this case, uranium) splits into
smaller parts releasing neutrons from its nucleus. These neutrons hit other atoms and
cause them to split as well; thus, creating a self-sustaining chain reaction
which releases an enormous amount of heat." According to this, the process begins
with an atom splitting into smaller parts and concludes with the release of a massive
amount of heat. Answer choice 2 adheres to this account and therefore is the correct
answer.

34. According to the passage, why do we need nuclear power when we already
have wind and solar energies we can use?
A. Wind and solar technologies are underdeveloped
B. The costs of nuclear electricity production are lower
C. Nuclear power can be utilized at all times
D. The only resource that does not emit greenhouse gases

Explanation: In the last paragraph we are provided with the answer to this exact
question: "The answer [...] is that nuclear power is able to reliably supply a
substantial amount of electricity in every hour of every day of the year." In other
words, nuclear power is a resource that can be produced and utilized at all times.
III. NUMERICAL REASONING

35.

35. If you were to buy and then sell 150,000 of Calico’s shares, what is the
greatest amount of profit you could have made?
A. £39,000
B. £51,000
C. £72,000
D. £78,000
E. £84,000

Explanation: The highest profit can be made by buying at the lowest value, and
selling at the highest. Assuming the lowest point came before the highest during the
course of the day, the greatest possible profit would be: (3.41 − 2.89) × 150,000 =
78,000
36. If operating expenses in 2010 were 5% higher, approximately what would
have been the net profit of that year?

A. 3,339
B. 3,196
C. 3,235
D. 3,506
E. 3,421

Explanation:

According to the table, 2010’s Operating expenses were $2,870.5. If they were 5%
higher, they would have been: 2,870.5 × 1.05 = $3,014.

If the operating expenses increased, the operating profit would have changed as a
result, decreasing to: Gross Profit − New Operating Expenses = 7,445 − 3,014 =
$4,431.

Since the operating profit changed, the amount of tax paid changed as well. The note
below the table specifies that tax is calculated based on the operating profit and is, in
fact, a fixed percentage of it. To find out what this fixed rate is, divide Tax by
Operating profit for one of the years. For instance, by using the figures for 2010 you
get:

1,235.12 ÷ 4,574.50 = 27%. To find the net profit (the final profit after taking into
account all costs including tax), deduct the 27% tax from the operating profit: Net
profit = 4,431 × (100% − 27%) = 4,431 × 73% = 4,431 × 0.73 = $3,234.6 ≈ $3,235.
37.

37. Which Company has the highest monthly turnover?


A. TeleP
B. Mobility
C. WiF
D. Call.org
E. Red
Explanation:
According to the comment below the table, sales are distributed evenly across the 5
packages, meaning each package generated 1/5 of the company’s total sales. To save
time, you can sum up all the packages prices of a company and multiply by 1/5 of the
company’s sales (alternately, you can calculate the average package price for each
company and multiply it by the total number of sales). For instance, the calculation for
TeleP would be as follows:
6 x (7,000 x 1/5) + 6.5 x (7,000 x 1/5) + 7 x (7,000 x 1/5) + 7.1 x (7,000 x 1/5) + 8 x
(7,000 x 1/5)
Or in short:
(6 + 6.5 + 7 + 7.1 + 8) x (7,000 x 1/5) = €48,440
Similarly, you can calculate the turnover for the other companies:
Mobility: (5.8 + 6 + 7.1 + 7.5 + 7.9) x (9,250 x 1/5) = €63,455
WiF: (2.9 + 3.9 + 4.9 + 5.9 + 6) x (11,550 x 1/5) = €54,516
Call.org: (6.1 + 6.5 + 6.9 + 7.4 + 8) x (5,000 x 1/5) = €34,900
Red: (7.2 + 7.4 + 7.5 + 7.6 + 7.7) x (4,800 x 1/5) = €35,904
(Note that you can avoid multiplying sales for each company by 1/5 as you do not need
to find the actual turnover, only the company with the highest one). Thus, Mobility is
the correct answer as it has the highest monthly turnover.

38.

38. If the trends for 2011 to 2012 continue into 2013, what will be the
approximate average number of applications per million inhabitants across these
5 countries?
A. 185
B. 181
C. 170
D. 172
E. 168
Explanation: A trend means a general direction in which something is changing. In
this case, it's the direction in which the number of applications changes over the years,
in each country. You are told that the trends for 2011 to 2012 continue into 2013.
Therefore, first you are required to find each country's 2011 to 2012 trend. The trends
for 2011 to 2012 = (applications in 2012 – applications in 2011) / applications in
2011
Germany: (298.69 – 293.25) / 293.25 = +0.01855
France: (233.74 – 243.36) / 243.36 = -0.0395
UK: (90.09 - 144.44) / 144.44 = -0.3762
Italy: (139.71 – 89.09) / 89.09 = +0.5681
Spain: (34.12 – 32.8) / 32.8 = +0.0402

This means that the number of applications in 2011 plus the 2011 to 2012 trend times
the number of applications in 2011, gives the number of applications in 2012: Number
of applications in 2012 = Number of applications in 2011 + 2011 to 2012
trend*Number of applications in 2011
For example, in Germany: Number of applications in 2012 = 293.25 +
0.01855*293.25 = 293.25 + 5.44 = 298.69

You are told that each country's trend continues to 2013 as well. Therefore to find the
number of applications in 2013, use the formula above with the 2011 to 2012 trend
and 2012's number of applications: Number of applications in 2013 = Number of
applications in 2012 + 2011 to 2012 trend*Number of applications in 2012
Therefore,
In Germany 2013: 298.69 + 0.01855*298.69 = 298.69 + 5.54 = 304.23
In France 2013: 233.74 + (-0.0395)*233.74 = 233.74 - 9.23 = 224.51
In the UK 2013: 90.09 + (-0.3762)*90.09 = 90.09 - 33.89 = 56.2
In Italy 2013: 139.71 + 0.5681*139.71 = 139.71 + 79.37 = 219.08
In Spain 2013: 34.12 + 0.0402*34.12 = 34.12 + 1.37 = 35.49

You are required to calculate the average number of applications in 2013 across 5
countries. An average is defined as the sum of items divided by the number of items.
Therefore, the average number of applications = (app. in Germany + app. in France
+ app. in the UK + app. in Italy + app. in Spain) / 5 = (304.21 + 224.51 + 56.2 +
219.08 + 35.49) / 5 = 167.898 ≈ 168
39.

39. For every pound generated in yearly turnover by B.M.P in the previous year,
how many U.S. dollars is Javato forecasted to generate in yearly turnover at the
end of this year?
A. 1.70 USD
B. 0.74 USD
C. 0.56 USD
D. 1.17 USD
E. 1.12 USD
Explanation:
This question concerns ratios. You need to find how many USDs Javato is expected to
make at the end of the year for every single GBP made by B.M.P in the previous year.
To answer the question, you need to follow several steps:

1. Find B.M.P’s turnover in the previous year: According to the table, it


generated £1.89 million GBP.
2. Calculate Javato’s forecasted turnover for the end of the year: According to the
table, it generated £1.62 million in the previous year and its turnover is
expected to increase by 31%, thus it will be: 1.62M × (100% + 31%) = £1.62M
× 1.31 = £2.12 million.
3. Convert Javato’s forecasted turnover from GBP to USD: According to the
comment below the table, the exchange rate of GBP to USD is 1 to 1.52. Thus,
you need to multiply Javato’s forecasted turnover by 1.52 to get its value in
USDs: 2.12M × 1.52 = $3.22M.
4. Calculate how many USDs Javato is expected to make for every GBP made by
B.M.P: If B.M.P made £1.89 million and Javato is forecasted to generate $3.22
million, then for every 1 GBP generated by B.M.P, Javato is forecasted to
generate: 3.22 ÷ 1.89 = 1.70 USD.
5. (Another way to look at it is to say that the ratio of B.M.P to Javato is
1.89:3.22, which can be transformed to 1:1.70 by dividing both sides by 1.89).

40.

40. A horse can be rented out for riding lessons at $20 an hour. At least how
many hours must it be rented out per month on average to break even on vet,
feed, and monthly supply costs? Assume 1 month is 28 days.
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28
Explanation:
Monthly Costs $7.80 x 28 = $218.40, $3,250 / 12 = $270.83 $38
Total Costs = 218.40 + 270.83 + 38 = 527.23 527.23/20 = 26.36
The answer is 27 and not 26, as we would not break even on 26 hours as 26 x 20 =
$520.
41.

41. During the first half of the year, how many complaints about Professional
Negligence were not closed under 4 weeks?
A. 108
B. 121
C. 143
D. 165
Explanation: Calculate number of PPI complains not closed within 4 weeks in :
Quarter 1 = 125 x 0.88 = 110 Quarter 2 = 60 x 0.55 = 33 Total = 110 + 33 = 143
42. Natural Resources Market Annum Statistics

42. Which product shows the highest ratio of the value of extracted produce in
the USA to that in Asia?
A. Oil
B. Copper
C. Coal
D. Uranium
E. Silver

Explanation: The ratio can be calculated by roughly dividing the value of extracted
produce in the USA by the value in Asia. In oils, it is roughly 3:1 (1574/487), in
Copper 1:1, in Coal: 2:1 (1375/728), in Uranium 8:1 (3208/427), and in Silver 2.5:1
(1789/700). Thus, Uranium shows the highest ratio of the value in the USA to the
value in Asia. The answer is Uranium.
43.

43. The lab managers decided to put all of the Homozygous mice from all of the
labs in the same cage with all of the knockout mice since they completed their
parts in the different experiments. How many mice are living in the same cage
now?
A. 53
B. 21
C. 14
D. 35
E. 90

Explanation: To answer this question, we need to sum up the numbers appearing in


Homozygous and Knockout rows: 4+5+2+3+3+6+7+5=35. Thus, the answer is D.
44.

44. Malcolm, who is short of £9500 to buy his desired antique car, is about to take a
loan. His banker offered him the 12 months period standard loan ("Standard #1") for
this sum, but Malcolm knew that he'd be better taking a different loan course.
Malcolm's bank has a flat-rate fee for any loan course. What is the maximal
amount (£) Malcolm could save by taking the Graduate loan course?
A. 200
B. 400
C. 600
D. 800

E. Malcom won’t profit from taking the Graduate loan course

Explanation; If Malcolm had taken the Standard#1 course, he would have paid
£11,400: First, calculate what 20% of 9500 is worth: 20% of 9500 = 2 x (10% of
9500) = 2 x 950 = 1900. Then, add to initial sum: 9500 + 1900 = 11,400. If Malcolm
had taken the minimum sum for the "Graduate" loans, £10,000, he had paid as
follows:

Graduate#1:
First calculate: 10% of 10000 = 1000.
Then add to initial sum: 10000 + 1000 = 11,000.

The Graduate#2 loan course has a minimum refund supplement of 12% (since it's for
periods of 24-48 months or 2-4 years), and therefore Malcolm will benefit less than
Graduate#1 course.

Now, since the final refund sum of the Graduate#1 course is lower than that of
Standard#1, it means that Malcolm had saved more money, if he had taken it: Total
refund of Standard#1 course – total sum of Graduate#1 course = 11,400 – 11,000 =
400. That is the sum option B had offered.
45.

45. What is the corporation's most common employee profile?


A. Female full-timer
B. Female part-timer
C. Male full-timer
D. Male part-timer
E. None of the above
Explanation: The best way to answer this question would be to first recognize the two
suspected groups as seen in the upper rightmost graph, and then try to compare them
one to another, instead of summing up the numbers - which would take a long time.
As seen in the graph, male and female full-timers constitute the majority of workers in
the corporation. The easiest way to compare these two groups would be to try and
match each male vertical column to a smaller female column, as there are five age
groups and we suspect that there are more male full timers than there are women.
Male Female
40-49 30-39
30-39 <30
50-59 40-49
<30 50-59
60+ 60+
As seen in the table, we were able to find 5 pairs of columns in which the male
proportion is bigger than the female proportion. Thus, the answer is C.
46.

46. What is the value of (II)?


A. 892
B. 902
C. 912
D. 932
Explanation: The value (II) is the variable sales cost of chairs. In order to find the
value we can use the equation:
Total sales cost = # of units * variable sales costs + fixed sales costs.

If we now place the values given in the chart into the equation we will have:
18,291=12 * VSC+7,587 Subtract 7,587 from each side:
10,704=12 * VC Divide each side by 12:
892=VC
47.

47. What is the value of (IV)?


A. $7.85
B. $6.85
C. $7.50
D. $20.99
Explanation: The value (IV) is the 4th quarter (2013) admission fee for each student
on a school trip. We can find this using the equation REVENUE ÷ VISITORS = FEE
→ 112,552.50 ÷ 15,007 = 7.50
48.

48. If Surveyor 2 receives 32 cents per mile and Surveyor 1 receives 28 cents per mile,
how much more or less did Surveyor 1 receive in month 4?
A. 624 Euros more
B. 624 Euros less
C. 6.24 Euros more
D. 6.24 Euros less
E. Cannot say
Explanation: The amount of miles Surveyor 1 traveled in month 4 is 3892. Surveyor 1
received 3892 x 28 = 108976 cents = 1089.76 Euros. The amount of miles Surveyor 2
traveled in month 4 is 3425. Surveyor 2 received 3425 x 32 = 109600 cents = 1096.00
Euros. 1089.76-1096.00 = -6.24 Euros . Surveyor 1 received 6.24 Euros less than
Surveyor 2 did. The answer is 6.24 Euros less.
49. A saleswoman monthly income consists of $2,000 base salary, plus 15% of the
value of sales exceeding $15,000, plus a bonus of $1,500 if the value of sales exceeds
$25,000. Which of the following can not be the monthly income of the
saleswoman?
A. $2,888
B. $3,555
C. $8,888
D. $5,555
E. $12,000
Explanation: The equation of her monthly income is divided into 3 options:
1. Sales value < $15,000 → only base salary : $2,000
2. $15,000 < sales value < $25,000 → base salary + commission : $2,000 + 15% X
(Sales-15,000)
3. Sales value > $25,000 → base salary + commission + bonus : $2,000 + 15% X
(Sales - 15,000) + 1,500
The minimum income possible is the base salary of 2000$, as long as sales value
does not exceed 15,000$. If sales value exceeds 15,000$, but does not exceed
25,000$, than an addition of 15% of the difference between the sales value and
15,000$ is added to the base salary. In that case the income will exceed 2,000, but
will not exceed 3,500$, since the maximum salary in the second option, meaning in a
situation that she has sales volume of almost $25,000 is: 2,000 + 15%(24,999.9-
15,000) = 2,000 + (15% X 10,000) = 3,500. In case sales value is 25,000$ or more,
than an extra 1,500$ will be added to the 3,500 salary. Hence,the minimum income in
the third option, meaning in a situation that she has a sales volume of a bit more than
%25,000 is: 2,000 + 15%(25,000.1 - 15,000) + 1,500 = 5,000
50. The following is a list of wholesale and retail prices for a basket of goods (in £):

50. If we were to replace each given retail price with a 30% markup on the
wholesale prices, how much would the basket cost?
A. £12.70
B. £16.05
C. £16.51
D. £19.86
E. £20.87
Explanation: The easiest way to answer this question is to sum the individual
wholesale prices of all the items in the basket of goods which will give us the price of
the basket as a whole. We can then find the retail price after the markup through
multiplying by 1.3 (the wholesale price plus 30% markup). We calculate as follows:
(0.85+2.35+1.25+0.9+1.05+1+0.75+0.6+1.3+2.65) x 1.3 = 12.7 x 1.3=16.51.

Tài liệu này gồm 50 trang./.

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