Question 1

How can the structure of the international society be displayed?

a) The structure of the international society follows the vertical model of the
domestic legal orders
b) International society consists of a constellation of sovereign States and other
international organizations, which are dispersed in a rather horizontal order of
authority
c) International society is so anarchical that there is no order of authority,
neither vertical nor horizontal

d) The structure of the international society resembles the structure of the most
powerful nations in the world

Question 2

Is there any hierarchy or priority among States under international law?

a) Yes, the States that were the founding members of the United Nations are
vested with more powers and authority
b) Yes, the Permanent Five Members of the UN Security Council (UK, USA,
France, Russia, China) are in a superior position than the other States
c) No, all States are considered equal as sovereign States (the principle of
sovereign equality, enshrined in article 2, para 1 UN Charter)

d) Whether there will be any hierarchy among States is a matter of each

international organization to decide

Question 3

What is the 'Lotus principle'?

 a) The so-called Lotus principle is that 'restrictions upon the independence
of States cannot therefore be presumed', or, as it has been construed,
'whatever is not prohibited is permitted in international law'
b) The so-called Lotus principle is that States are free to choose the Court that
they will submit their disputes
c) The so-called Lotus principle is that States are not prohibited to assert their
enforcement jurisdiction on the high seas

d) The so-called Lotus principle is that customary law derives from the
combination of State practice and opinio juris

Question 4

What is the problem of 'fragmentation' of international law?

a) Fragmentation of international law concerns the possibility of different legal

regimes apply the same rules of international law
b) It is possible for several legal regimes (ie foreign investment law and human
rights law) to exist and develop in isolation of each other, ultimately culminating in
the production of divergent rules of international law
c) Fragmentation is when States assume different interpretations of the same
rule of international law

d) Fragmentation is when States disagree to abide by a certain rule of

international law

Question 5

Is there any priority among international courts and tribunals?

a) According to the lis pendens rule, the court or the tribunal that seizes first
the dispute has exclusive jurisdiction to adjudicate it
b) The International Court of Justice has by definition priority over any other
court or tribunal
 c) Since there is no lis pendens rule in international law and all depends on
the consent of the parties to a dispute, there is no priority or hierarchy among
international courts and tribunals

d) Regional or special courts have priority over all others in line of the
principle of lex specialis

Question 6

What is the major difference between naturalism and positivism?

a) On the one hand, naturalism is based on a set of rules that are of universal
and objective scope and on the other hand, positivism is based on a structured and
coherent legal system that is created by States in light of their interests and desires
b) While naturalism serves only the theory human rights law, positivism has a
wider and more general scope
c) Naturalism concerns the underpinning values of the international society,
while positivism the international rules as such

d) Naturalism is a school of thought advocated outside of Europe, while

positivism is Euro-centric theory

Question 7

What is jus cogens?

a) They are peremptory norms of international law, from which no derogations
are allowed and which can never be altered even with the consent of the States
b) They are rules of international law that are laid down in multilateral treaties
with a wide participation
c) They are the decisions of the UN Security Council

d) They are the rules of international law on which the ICJ founds its decisions
 A

Question 8

Which rule of jus cogens was the first to be accepted explicitly as such by the ICJ?
a) The prohibition of the use of force
b) The prohibition of torture
c) The prohibition of genocide

d) The principle of self-determination

Question 9

Are the peremptory norms of international law the only norms that set out
obligations erga omnes?
a) Yes
b) No, acts of international organizations also set out such obligations
c) No, decisions of international courts also set out such obligations

d) No, even though all peremptory norms set out obligations erga omnes, the
latter may also spring from treaties regulating objective regimes or unilateral acts

Question 10

Are there any limits to the application of article 103 of the UN Charter?

a) No, there are no limits to article 103

b) Yes, Article 103 cannot trump multilateral treaties
c) Yes, article 103 of the UN Charter cannot trump jus cogens norms

d) Yes, when a case is submitted to the ICJ, article 103 ceases to have any
effect
 C

Question 1

Which are the formal sources of international law?

a) Custom, treaties and judicial decisions

b) Custom, general principles of law and theory
c) Treaties, custom and general principles of law

d) Treaties, custom and General Assembly Resolutions

Question 2

Which treaties are considered as 'source of international law' under article 38 ICJ Statute?

a) All treaties that are in force at the time of the dispute

b) Only the treaties that are in force and binding upon the parties to the dispute
c) All treaties that have been concluded between the parties to the dispute,
regardless whether they are in force

d) Only treaties that are multilateral and of paramount significance

Question 3

What is required for a general rule of customary law to be formed?

a) Only general, widespread and consistent practice on the part of States is

required
b) The consistent practice of few States is sufficient
 c) The legal conviction that a certain practice of a State is in accordance with
international law is the most significant requirement

d) Both the elements of widespread and consistent State practice and of

the opinio juris are required

Question 4

What kind of State practice is required?

a) Widespread, consistent and uniform practice, consisting both of acts and

omissions
b) Only widespread, consistent and uniform acts and not omissions of States
c) Widespread acts and omissions of States but not necessarily consistent or
uniform

d) Consistent practice of few States, including both acts and omissions, which
is met with protestation by the other States

Question 5

Who is a 'persistent objector'?

a) The State which persistently objects to the rule in question after its
formation
b) The State which denies to be bound by the rule in question for a short period
c) The State which persistently and publicly objects to the formation of a rule
of customary law from its outset

d) The State which accepts the formation of a rule of customary law but it
retains objections as to its content

C
Question 6

Where do we find the 'general principles of law recognized by civilized nations' (article
38 ICJ Statute)?

a) We look for established principles of law recognized only among the most
civilised nations
b) We look for established principles of law, which are common to all major
legal systems
c) We look for general principles of international law recognized by
international courts and tribunals

d) We look for general principles of law recognized by all nations

Question 7

What is the relationship between the formal sources of international law?

a) There is no hierarchy between the formal sources of international law

b) Treaties supersede custom
c) Custom supersedes treaties

d) General Principles of Law supersede both custom and treaties

Question 8

What is the value of the Resolutions of the UN General Assembly in terms as a 'source' of
international law?

a) GA Resolutions are considered as additional sources of international law and

thus binding upon States
b) GA Resolutions are equivalent to treaties
 c) GA Resolutions reflect always customary law

d) GA Resolutions are considered as material source, in the sense that they
may enunciate statements of customary law

Question 9

How can customary law be related to treaty provisions?

a) Treaties may only codify customary law

b) Customary law is a different source of international and it cannot be
embodied in treaties
c) Treaties may 1) codify customary law, 2) 'crystallise' customary law, 3) lead
to the emergence of customary law

d) Customary law can emerge only from few multilateral treaties

Question 10

What is 'unilateral acts'?

a) They are acts that States perform as practice in the context of custom
b) They are acts creating unilateral legal obligations to the acting State
c) Unilateral acts are simply political acts of State devoid of any legal effect

d) Unilateral acts are those that State perform in order to be bound by a treaty

Question 1

What is a 'treaty' according to the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (VCLT)?
 a) Treaties are all agreements concluded between States, international
organizations and non-State entities (e.g. corporations)
b) Treaties are agreements concluded between States in written form and
governed by international law
c) Treaties are both the written and oral agreements between States

d) Treaties are agreements concluded between States in written form governed

either by international or domestic law

Question 2

Should treaties assume a particular form?

a) Treaties should always be designated as such and assume a particular form

b) Treaties should always assume a particular form, no matter how they are
designated
c) Treaties do not have to assume a particular form or designated as such

d) Treaties have to be designated as such, no matter what form they assume

Question 3

Who has the authority to conclude a treaty on the part of States?

a) Treaties are concluded by the competent representatives of States. Heads of

States, heads of governments, ministers of foreign affairs and heads of diplomatic
missions are presumed to have such authority
b) Treaties may only negotiated and concluded by the heads of State and
ministers of foreign affairs
c) Treaties are negotiated and signed only by the persons that bear the
necessary 'full powers' and no person is presumed to hold such authority

d) Treaties are concluded only by members of the diplomatic missions of

States
 A

Question 4

How the consent to be bound of a State may be expressed?

a) The consent of a State to be bound is expressed only by ratification

b) The consent of a state to be bound by a treaty may be expressed by
signature, ratification, acceptance, approval or accession
c) The consent of a State to be bound is expressed by signature

d) The consent of a State to be bound is expressed by whatever means they

choose

Question 5

Do treaties bind third States, ie non-State parties?

a) Treaties may create only rights for third States

b) Treaties create both obligations and rights for third States
c) Treaties do no create obligations or rights for third States without their
consent

d) Treaties do not create any obligations or rights for third States, even when
the latter consent.

Question 6

How treaties are to be interpreted?

 a) Treaties are to be interpreted in good faith in accordance with the ordinary
meaning to be given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in the light of its
object and purpose
b) Treaties are to be interpreted only in accordance with the ordinary meaning
of their terms
c) Treaties are to be interpreted in accordance with the intention of the parties,
as evidenced in the preparatory works of the treaty

d) Treaties are to be interpreted only in light of its object and purpose

Question 7

What does the principle 'pacta sunt servanda' mean?

a) Parties to a treaty should be cognizant of its terms and not misinterpret them
b) Parties to a treaty should safeguard the object and purpose of the treaty
c) Parties to a treaty should adhere to its terms in good faith

d) Parties to a treaty should not violate the most important provisions of the
treaty

Question 8

When a reservation is considered as invalid under the law of treaties?

a) A reservation is invalid when the majority of the State parties objects to it
b) A reservation is invalid only when an international tribunal says so
c) A reservation is invalid only when is incompatible with a peremptory norm
of international law (jus cogens)

d) A reservation is invalid when it is incompatible with the object and purpose
of the treaty
 D

Question 9

What is 'material breach' of the treaty?

a) 'Material breach' is a ground for the invalidation of a treaty

b) 'Material breach' is the repudiation or a significant violation of the treaty and
serves as a ground for the unilateral termination of the treaty
c) 'Material breach' is an insignificant violation of a treaty

d) Material breach' is a significant violation of the treaty which can never lead
to the termination of the treaty

Question 10

What does the 'fundamental change of circumstances' entail for the treaty?

a) A fundamental change of circumstances concerns the object and purpose of

the treaty and it leads to its amendment
b) A fundamental change of circumstances has no bearing on the life of treaties
c) A fundamental change of the circumstances which constituted an essential
basis of the consent of the parties to be bound by the treaty and which was not
foreseen by the parties, may be invoked as a ground for terminating or
withdrawing from the treaty

d) A fundamental change of circumstances leads to the automatic termination

of the treaty

Question 1

Can countries rely on their domestic law as an excuse to violate their obligations under
international law?
 a) Domestic law always prevails over international law
b) Only customary international law prevails over domestic law
c) Obligations under international law prevail over domestic law

d) Constitutional obligations always prevail over obligations under

international law
C

Question 2

What is the fundamental premise of monist theory?

a) Monism posits that international law is superior to domestic laws

b) Monism posits that international and domestic law are part of the same legal
order
c) Monism posits that domestic laws are superior to international law

d) Monism posits that domestic and international law never clash

Question 3

What is dualism?

a) Dualism suggests that international and domestic law are part of a unified
legal system
b) Under dualism, international and domestic laws comprise distinct legal
Systems
c) Dualism suggests that international and domestic law are distinct but equal
in hierarchy

d) Dualism suggests that international and domestic law are distinct legal
systems whereby domestic law always prevails

B
Question 4

What does the doctrine of incorporation suggest in respect of treaties?

a) The doctrine of incorporation requires that all treaties undergo legislative

transformation before they become domestic law
b) The doctrine of incorporation does not require any further action at the
domestic level
c) The doctrine of incorporation treats treaties as inferior to domestic law

d) The doctrine of incorporation suggests that ratified treaties automatically

pass into the sphere of domestic law

Question 5

What are self-executing treaties?

a) Self-executing treaties are adopted only by the executive

b) Self-executive treaties are clear and precise enough so as not to require any
further implementing measures
c) Self-executing rely on implementing measures stipulated in the treaty Itself

d) Self-executing treaties follow the doctrine of transformation

Question 6

What is the fundamental prerequisite for the incorporation of custom under English law?

a) Custom is incorporated if it is not in conflict with existing legislation

b) Custom is superior to English law and is always incorporated
c) Custom must first be recognised by Parliament before the courts can bring it
into the domestic sphere

d) Custom is incorporated with the passing of implementing legislation

 A

Question 7

What dimension did the Kadi judgment introduce with respect to the incorporation of UN
Security Council resolutions?

a) The Kadi judgment demanded that UNSC resolutions are construed in

accordance with human rights
b) The Kadi judgment demanded that all UNSC resolutions be incorporated
without any further implementing legislation
c) The Kadi judgment required that important UNSC resolutions be
transformed and not merely incorporated

d) The Kadi judgment claimed that UNSC resolutions are not binding if they
violate human rights

Question 8

What was the consequence from the absence of implementing legislation in the Tin
Council case?

a) The International Tin Council was headquartered in London and hence the
absence of implementing legislation was inconsequential
b) The constitutive treaties of international organisations are subject to the
doctrine of incorporation
c) The absence of implementing legislation with respect to the Council's
founding treaty meant that individuals did not derive rights and duties from it in
the English legal system

d) The absence of implementing legislation in England in respect of an

international organisation is inconsequential under international law

C
Question 9

Are there any limitations to the incorporation of customary crimes under English law?

a) There are no limitations to the incorporation of customary crimes

b) Customary crimes must be contained in a multilateral treaty in order to be
automatically incorporated
c) The courts may freely incorporate customary crimes into the domestic
sphere

d) The situation is not clear-cut but an act of parliament would most probably
be required

Question 10

Is the recognition of foreign judgments subject to the same rules as those applicable to the
incorporation and transformation of treaties?

a) Foreign judgments are enforced on the basis of the doctrine of incorporation

b) Foreign judgments are enforced on the basis of the doctrine of
transformation
c) The recognition of foreign judgments is dependent on the existence of
appropriate bilateral or multilateral treaties

d) The courts exercise discretion as to the enforcement of foreign judgments on

the basis of the rule of comity

Question 1

What is the meaning of international legal personality?

a) It means that only States are considered subjects of international law
b) It means having rights and duties under international law and a capacity to
enforce these by or against the relevant actor
 c) It means that an entity may challenge the authority of States

d) It is a term that is meant to denote legal, as opposed, to physical persons

under international law

Question 2

What are the criteria for statehood under the 1933 Montevideo Convention?

a) It requires that the entity in question is not an aggressor and that it is
peaceful
b) It requires recognition by the majority of other nations
c) It requires a permanent population, a defined territory, a government and a
capacity to enter into foreign relations

d) It requires stable and indissoluble borders as well as recognition

Question 3

What other criteria were imposed by the Badinter Commission on the former Yugoslav
republics?

a) The Commission required a commitment to submit disputes to the ICJ

b) The Commission required a change in boundaries
c) The Commission required a commitment to human rights and democracy

d) The Commission required an exchange of ethnic populations

Question 4

What is meant by an international organisation's implied powers?

 a) Implied are those powers which are necessary in order for an organisation to
carry out the tasks conferred upon it and which are not stipulated in its charter
b) It refers to new powers assumed unilaterally by the organisation
c) It refers to powers conferred upon the organisation by the international
Community

d) Implied powers are those whose determination depends on an expansive

interpretation of an organisation's charter

Question 5

May States incur liability for the debts and wrongdoings attributable to an international
organisation to which they are parties?

a) Member States cannot hide behind an organisation's corporate veil

b) The legal person of the organisation is distinct from that of its member
States
c) Organisations and their member States are equally liable for any
wrongdoings attributable to the organisation

d) Member States are alone liable for debts and wrongdoings attributable to the
organisation

Question 6

Do individuals (physical) persons enjoy international legal personality in the same

manner as States and international organisations?

a) Individuals enjoy international legal personality, but this is limited

b) Individuals enjoy unlimited international legal personality
c) Individuals do not enjoy any international legal personality

d) Individuals can only bring claims before international courts

 A

Question 7

What is the declaratory theory of recognition?

a) Recognition is determinate for the existence of statehood

b) Recognition is simply declaratory of statehood but not determinate
c) Recognition is merely a declaration of interest

d) Recognition requires a declaration by the newly-created State

Question 8

What is the constitutive theory of recognition?

a) Recognition is determinative of statehood

b) Recognition requires constitutional approval by third nations
c) Recognition requires that the constitution of the recognised State includes
sufficient human rights guarantees

d) Countries wishing to be recognised must possess a valid constitution

A

Question 9

What is the meaning of functional recognition?

a) Recognition is a function as opposed to a power

b) Recognition is reciprocal between two States
c) Recognition is only afforded to particular administrative acts not to the
entity's declared statehood

d) Recognition is only afforded to the government, not the State

 C

Question 10

Is recognition of governments prevalent in contemporary international practice?

a) Recognition of governments is very prevalent in contemporary practice

b) Recognition of governments has largely been replaced by functional
Recognition
c) Government recognition is common in respect of rebel entities

d) Only democratic governments are recognised in contemporary practice

Question 1

What is the ordinary geographical scope of jurisdiction?

a) Jurisdiction is ordinarily extra-territorial

b) Jurisdiction is ordinarily on the high seas
c) Jurisdiction is ordinarily territorial

d) Jurisdiction is determined by the location of the offender.

C

Question 2

Which State ordinarily exercises jurisdiction in respect of crimes committed on board

vessels?

a) The coastal State

b) The flag State
c) All States enjoy such jurisdiction

d) The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea

 B

Question 3

What is the effects doctrine?

a) It posits that jurisdiction exists only when it is effective

b) The effects doctrine serves to confer jurisdiction on the State which has an
effective link with the harmful conduct
c) The effects doctrine serves to confer jurisdiction on the State sharing the
nationality of the offender

d) The effects doctrine serves to confer jurisdiction to the State on whose

territory the conduct produces effects

Question 4

What is passive personality jurisdiction?

a) It is jurisdiction based on the nationality of the offender

b) It is jurisdiction based on where the offence was committed
c) It is jurisdiction based on the nationality of the victims

d) It is jurisdiction based on the country where the legal person was Registered

Question 5

What is the protective principle of jurisdiction?

a) It is jurisdiction based on the harm to national interests by conduct

committed abroad
b) It is jurisdiction in order to protect one's nationals abroad
 c) It is jurisdiction in order to protect international human rights

d) It is jurisdiction based on the nationality of the offender

A
Question 6

What is the purpose of universal jurisdiction?

a) Its aim is to establish certain offences as universal

b) Its aim is to deter the commission of certain international crimes
c) Its aim is to provide jurisdiction to all States in respect of particular crimes

d) Its aim is to provide jurisdiction to all States in respect of all international

crimes

Question 7

Is piracy under international (jure gentium) law subject to universal jurisdiction?

a) Piracy jure gentium is subject to flag State jurisdiction

b) Piracy jure gentium is subject to universal jurisdiction
c) Piracy jure gentium is subject to port State jurisdiction

d) Piracy jure gentium is subject to nationality-based jurisdiction

B

Question 8

Is the jurisdiction of international tribunals regulated by the same principles applicable to

national courts?

a) The jurisdictional principles applicable to national courts are also common

to international tribunals
 b) The jurisdiction of all international tribunals is regulated by the UN Security
Council
c) International tribunals share some, but not all, of the jurisdictional principles
applicable to national courts

d) The jurisdiction of international tribunals is dictated solely by their founding

treaties

Question 9

Is extra-territorial abduction a ground for refusal of otherwise lawful jurisdiction by

English courts?

a) Such abduction constitutes abuse of process and leads to a stay of

proceedings
b) Such abduction gives rise to the abductor's liability but does not lead to a
stay of proceedings
c) The stay of proceedings under such circumstances would prevent the
administration of justice in respect of international criminals

d) The courts may, but will seldom, stay proceedings in cases of extra-
territorial abduction

Question 10

What does it mean for a State to be sovereign?

a) Sovereignty means being recognised by all other States

b) Sovereignty means to be able to enter into treaties and join the UN
c) Sovereignty means freedom to determine one's own affairs without external
interference

d) Sovereignty means possessing the right to defend oneself

 C

Question 1

What is the purpose of sovereign immunity?

a) The purpose of immunity is to protect foreign Heads of State from

embarrassment
b) Immunity protects a State from being invaded by another
c) Immunity shields States from being sued in the courts of other States

d) The purpose of immunity is to offer impunity in respect of all crimes

C

Question 2

What is an act jure imperii?

a) An act is jure imperii when undertaken by an international organisation
b) An act is jure imperii when undertaken in an official State capacity
c) All acts undertaken by State officials are acts jure imperii

d) An act is jure imperii when undertaken by a State corporation

B
Question 3

What is an act jure gestionis?

a) Acts jure gestionis are those undertaken by States in a private capacity
b) All purchases by the State are acts jure gestionis
c) All acts undertaken by State corporations are jure gestionis

d) All conduct undertaken by government officials in their free time is

considered jus gestionis
A

Question 4
 Is the unlawful homicide committed by Minister of country X abroad an act jure
imperii or jure gestionis?
a) Such conduct is a public act (jure imperii)
b) Such conduct never attracts immunity
c) Such conduct is a private act (jure gestionis)

d) Such conduct is a public act but is shielded by immunity

C
Question 5

What is the meaning of "act of State" doctrine?

a) The act of State doctrine denotes that all State acts attract immunity
b) The act of State doctrine denotes that the assessment as to the existence of
an alleged tort committed by a State belongs to the executive and not the courts
c) The act of State doctrine denotes that the courts are well placed to assess the
existence of an alleged tort committed by the State

d) The act of State doctrine is a legal mechanism that allows the courts to
provide immunity to public acts of foreign States
B
Question 6

What is personal (ratione personae) immunity?

a) Personal immunity is afforded to all physical persons
b) Personal immunity is that which is afforded in a personal capacity and hence
does not cover conduct of the State as such
c) Personal immunity is afforded only to particular persons irrespective if their
conduct was undertaken in a private or public capacity

d) Personal immunity is afforded to State officials for conduct undertaken in a

public capacity
C

Question 7

What is functional (ratione materiae) immunity?

 a) Functional immunity covers the person but not the act
b) Functional immunity covers the act and incidentally also the person
committing the act
c) Functional immunity covers the State and incidentally also the act

d) Functional immunity covers both private and public acts as long as they are
sanctioned by the State

Question 8

What was the outcome before the European Court of Human Rights in the Al-Adsani
case?

a) The Court held that the right to a fair trial trumped the privilege of immunity
b) The Court held that immunity trumped the right to a fair trial
c) The Court held that immunities were not in conflict with the right to a fair
trial

d) The Court held that human rights considerations prevailed over all other
contrary rules of international law, including most immunities

Question 9

What is the principal source of immunity in respect of international organisations (IOs)?

a) The principal source of immunity for IOs is the UN Charter

b) The principal sources of immunity for IOs are headquarters agreements and
multilateral treaties providing specific immunities
c) The principal source of immunity for IOs is customary law

d) The principal source of immunity for IOs is the Vienna Convention on

Diplomatic Immunities
 B

Question 10

What was the most important finding by the House of Lords in the Pinochet case?

a) The Pinochet case confirmed that former heads of State enjoy absolute
immunity
b) The Pinochet case confirmed that all public acts enjoy immunity
c) The Pinochet case confirmed that former heads of State cease to enjoy
personal immunity once removed from office

d) The Pinochet case confirmed that in respect of immunities there is no

difference between a current and a former head of State

Question 1

What is the purpose of baselines under the law of the sea?

a) The determination of baselines is used for the measuring of the internal

waters of coastal States
b) The determination of baselines is instrumental to the establishment of all
maritime zones, since they constitute the starting point for measuring the breadth
of each zone
c) The determination of baselines is instrumental to the safe navigation of
vessels on the high seas

d) Baselines are drawn only in cases of maritime delimitation between

opposing State before an international court or tribunal

Question 2

Which is a 'rock'under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?

 a) Rocks are the islands that are less than 10 square miles
b) Rocks are the islands that do not have any maritime zone
c) Rocks are the islands which cannot sustain human habitation or economic
life of their own and according to article 121 (3) have no Exclusive Economic
Zone or continental shelf

d) Rocks are the small islands that can sustain human habitation

Question 3

When coastal States do enforce their criminal jurisdiction over foreign vessels in their
ports?

a) Port States generally do not enforce their criminal jurisdiction over crimes
that do not infringe their customs laws or disrupt peace and public order
b) Port States enforce their jurisdiction in all cases of delinquent vessels
c) Port States enforce their jurisdiction only in respect of very serious crimes,
such as drug trafficking

d) Port States are not entitled to enforce their jurisdiction over any foreign
vessel

Question 4

What kind of passage does qualify as 'innocent passage'?

a) Innocent passage is the passage that does not involve any criminal activity
b) A vessel's passage is considered 'innocent' where it is not prejudicial to the
peace, good order or security of the coastal State
c) Innocent passage concerns only vessels of the same nationality with the
coastal State
 d) Innocent passage concerns only the passage of merchant vessels and not of
warships
B

Question 5

What is the function of the contiguous zone?

a) The contiguous zone functions as security zone of the coastal State

b) The contiguous zone is a zone, in which the coastal State may explore and
exploit its mineral resources
c) The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State is permitted to
prevent and punish infringements of customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary laws

d) The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State safeguards its
archaeological and historical objects
C

Question 6

What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over their continental shelf?

a) The coastal State enjoy ipso facto and ab initio sovereign rights over its

continental shelf for the purpose of exploring it and exploiting its natural resources
b) The coastal State may exercise sovereign rights over its continental shelf
only upon its declaration
c) The coastal State exercise sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the
purpose of exploiting its fishing resources

d) The coastal State may exercise only limited rights over its continental shelf
and only upon the consent of its neighbouring States

Question 7
 Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone of another
State?

a) When the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', the coastal
State is to give other State access to that surplus with priority to be given to
developing and land-locked States
b) Third States may never have access to fisheries within another State's EEZ
c) The coastal State is to give access to fisheries within its EEZ only to
neighbouring States

d) Third States are free to fish within another EEZ, except from certain
designated areas

A
Question 8

Which State exercises jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas?

a) All States may exercise jurisdiction over foreign vessels on the high seas
b) States may exercise jurisdiction over foreign vessels on the high seas only in
cases of criminal activity that concerns them
c) The flag State is to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over its vessels on the
high seas, with the exception of specific cases, such as piracy

d) The flag State is the only State to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over its
vessels on the high seas with no exception

Question 9

When does an illegal act of violence on the high seas fall short of qualifying as piracy?

a) When it is committed against a public vessel of another State

b) When it is committed for 'private ends'
c) When it is committed by a warship even when its crew has mutinied and
taken control of the ship
 d) When it is not committed against another vessel and when it is not
committed for 'private ends'

Question 10

What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice of maritime delimitation?

a) It is the only method of delimitation that international courts and tribunals
follow
b) An equitable result is what a judge or the arbitrator would decide ex aequo
et bono, i.e. upon their discretion and in light of what they consider as fair and
equitable in a delimitation case
c) It is the end result that all delimitations of areas of continental shelf and EEZ
should achieve, after, however, drawing a provisional 'equidistance line' and
adjusting the zone in the light of the relevant circumstances and the proportionality
test

d) Achieving an equitable result is an old method of delimitation which is

currently not applicable
C

Question 1

What is the meaning of 'secondary rules' in the law of international responsibility?

a) Secondary rules are the rules of interpretation of international law, including

the law of international responsibility
b) Secondary rules are the rules that govern the legal consequences arising
from a breach of the primary rules, i.e. of the international obligations of the States
c) Secondary rules are the rules that govern exclusively the concept of
attribution in the law of international responsibility

d) Secondary rules are the rules that govern exclusively the law of
countermeasures
B
Question 2

What is an 'internationally wrongful conduct'?

a) An international wrongful conduct is an action or omission which is in

breach of a rule of international criminal law
b) An international wrongful conduct is every breach of an international
obligation of the State, whether attributable to it or not
c) An internationally wrongful conduct consists of an action or omission
attributable to the State, which constitutes a breach of an international obligation of
the State

d) An internationally wrongful conduct is the conduct that cannot be excused

on grounds of necessity, force majeure etc.
C

Question 3

Are all acts of State organs attributed to the State under the law international
responsibility?

a) The conduct of any State organ shall be considered an act of that State, even
in the case that this conduct was unauthorized or ultra vires
b) Only the conduct of the higher echelons of the government of State shall be
attributable to it
c) The conduct of any State organs shall be considered an act of that State,
provided that it is intra vires

d) Only the conduct of the executive branch of the State shall be considered an
act of that State
A

Question 4

Which persons are considered as 'de facto' organs of the State under the law of
international responsibility?

a) 'De facto organs' are the individuals that are empowered by law to exercise
elements of governmental authority
 b) 'De facto organs' are the persons, which are, in fact, acting on the
instructions of, or under the direction or control of, that State in carrying out the
conduct attributable to the State
c) 'De facto organs' are the de jure organs of the State that act without due
authority or ultra vires

d) 'De facto organs' are the organs, whose acts or omission cannot be attributed
to the State
B

Question 5

When 'consent' can serve as a circumstance precluding the wrongfulness of a State

conduct?

a) Consent can serve as a circumstance precluding the wrongfulness whenever

it is given
b) Consent can never serve as a circumstance precluding wrongfulness
c) Consent can serve as a circumstance precluding wrongfulness, provided the
consent is valid and to the extent that the conduct remains within the limits of the
consent given

d) Consent can always serve as a circumstance precluding wrongfulness, no

matter which organ of the State gives it
C

Question 6

When are countermeasures illegal?

a) Countermeasures are illegal when inter alia are disproportionate or in

violation of a peremptory norm of international law (e.g. the use of force, human
rights)
b) Countermeasures are illegal when they are taken in the course of an armed
conflict
c) Countermeasures are illegal when they violate bilateral treaties

d) Countermeasures are illegal when the responsible State does not consent to
them
 A

Question 7

When a State may lawfully invoke necessity as a circumstance precluding wrongfulness?

a) Necessity may be invoked by a State when its organ had not other
reasonable way of saving his life
b) Necessity may be invoked by a State only in cases of environmental
disasters
c) Necessity may be invoked by a State when it acts under the pressure of an
irresistible force or an unforeseen event

d) Necessity may be invoked by a State in the exceptional cases where the only
way it can safeguard an essential interest threatened by a grave and imminent peril
is, for the time being, to avoid performing some other international obligation of
lesser weight or urgency
D

Question 8

What forms may the obligation of reparation take?

a) Reparation may take only the form of pecuniary compensation, including the
interest
b) Reparation denotes only the physical restitution of the wrongful act
c) Reparation includes restitution, compensation, and satisfaction, either alone
or alongside other forms of reparation

d) The form of reparation is a matter for the responsible State to decide

C

Question 9

Who is an 'injured State' in the law of international responsibility?

a) A State is 'injured' in case that it has suffered a damage from the
internationally wrongful conduct
 b) A State is 'injured' in cases that there has been a violation of a peremptory
norm of international law
c) A State is 'injured' should it acknowledge the existence of the internationally
wrongful conduct

d) A State is 'injured' if the obligation breached was owed to it individually or

if it was owed to a group of States, including that State, and it was specially
affected
D

Question 10

In which cases may a non-injured State invoke the responsibility of the culprit State?

a) Only in cases that the injured State has authorized a non-injured one to
invoke the responsibility on its behalf
b) In cases of breaches of specific obligations protecting the collective interests
of a group of States (obligations erga omnes partes) or the interests of the
international community as a whole (obligations erga omnes)
c) In cases of violation of acts of international organizations, such as General
Assembly Resolutions

d) In cases of non-compliance with a decision of an international court or

tribunal
B

Question 1

What is the obligation of the peaceful settlement of disputes?

a) It is an obligation of result, that is, States are under a strict obligation to
resolve their disputes as soon as possible
b) It is an obligation of conduct, i.e. States have an obligation to try to resolve
their disputes through peaceful means. This does not entail an obligation to resolve
their disputes
c) It is a peremptory norm of international law and all States have a legal
interest to safeguard its application in any given dispute

d) It is an obligation which concerns solely international courts and tribunals

 B

Question 2

Is there any hierarchy or priority among the various methods of peaceful settlement of
disputes?

a) Yes, all the political methods (e.g. negotiation, mediation, inquiry,

conciliation) should be exhausted prior to resorting to legal methods
b) Legal methods prevail over the political methods, since they are binding
upon the parties
c) There is no hierarchy among these methods and the choice belongs to the
disputing States

d) It is a matter of an impartial third party to decide which method will have
priority over the other
C

Question 3

What is the difference between political and legal means of dispute settlement?

a) The outcome arising from legal methods, ie arbitration or adjudication by

the ICJ, is final and binding upon the parties, whereas this is not the case with
diplomatic methods
b) The political methods are pursued upon the consent of then parties to the
dispute, whereas the legal methods not
c) The political means lead to a final settlement of the dispute, whereas this is
not the case with the legal methods

d) The legal methods of dispute settlement are pursued only in respect of

significant disputes, whereas the political means are employed in all disputes
A

Question 4

Are States under any obligation when they conduct negotiations?

a) States are under no obligation as to how they conduct their negotiation

 b) States are under an obligation so to conduct themselves that the negotiations
are meaningful
c) States are under an obligation to find a solution of the dispute whenever they
conduct negotiations

d) States are under an obligation to inform the UN Secretary-General about the

progress of their negotiations
B

Question 5

What is the difference between conciliation and mediation?

a) Conciliation is the continuation of mediation with the difference that

conciliation produces a binding result, while mediation not
b) Conciliation is conducted exclusively by representatives of the UN
Secretary-General, while mediation may also be conducted by third States' officials
c) Mediation is usually conducted by a person appointed with the consent of
the parties, while conciliation involves a commission, which proceeds to an
impartial examination of the dispute and proposes settlement terms

d) Conciliation is a method of dispute settlement pursued only by virtue of a

treaty, while mediation may also be on an ad hoc basis
C
Question 6

How are the members of the arbitral tribunal appointed?

a) Each party selects one or two members of the arbitral tribunal, while the
president of the tribunal, the umpire, is selected by the arbitrators or the president
of the ICJ
b) All the members of the arbitral tribunal are appointed by the parties
c) All the members of the arbitral tribunal are appointed by an impartial third
party, such as the president of the ICJ

d) All the members of the arbitral tribunal are appointed by the parties from a
restricted list of arbitrators
A
Question 7

What is the judge ad hoc?

a) If a party to a contentious case before the ICJ does not have a national sitting
as judge, it is entitled to nominate someone as a judge solely for that case, with the
title of judge ad hoc
b) Judge ad hoc is the member of the bench of the ICJ with a casting vote
c) Judge ad hoc is a surrogate judge, in case a judge is disqualified or passes
away

d) Judge ad hoc is the judge that each party will always nominate in every
contentious case
A
Question 8

What is the 'optional; clause' in the ICJ Statute?

a) Optional clause is the clause in the ICJ Statute, which provides for the
applicable law, according to the intention of the parties
b) Optional clause determines the intention of the parties to accept that the
decision of the Court will be final and binding
c) Optional clause is the declaration deposited by a State, whereby it accepts
the jurisdiction of the Court in respect of international legal disputes in relation to
any other State accepting the same obligation

d) Optional clause is the clause that the parties deposit, which sets out the
procedure of the written and oral pleadings
C
Question 9

Are the provisional measures issued by the ICJ binding upon the parties?

a) No, according to the literal interpretation of the relevant provision of the

State, the provisional measures are not binding
b) No, unless the parties have agreed so beforehand
c) It depends upon the Court whether the provisional measures will be binding
 d) Yes, it has been consistently held by the Court since the La Grand
case (2001) that they are binding
D

Question 10

Who is entitled to request an advisory opinion of the ICJ?

a) Only the principal organs of the UN may request an advisory opinion

(Security Council, General Assembly, ECOSOC, Trusteeship Council, Secretariat)
b) All international organizations may request an advisory opinion
c) The General Assembly and the Security Council may request advisory
opinions on any legal question, as well as 'other organs of the United Nations and
specialized agencies, which may at any time be so authorized by the General
Assembly, may also request advisory opinions of the Court on legal questions
arising within the scope of their activities'

d) The principal organs of the UN may request an advisory opinion as well as

the State that have been authorized by the General Assembly
C

Question 1

Was the use of armed force permitted prior to the United Nations Charter?

a) Armed force was prohibited

b) Armed force was permitted with no restrictions
c) Armed force was permitted subject to few restrictions

d) Armed force was not regulated under international law prior to 1945
C

Question 2

What types of force does Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibit?

a) Article 2(4) encompasses only armed force

 b) Article 2(4) encompasses all types of force, including sanctions
c) Article 2(4) encompasses all interference in the domestic affairs of States

d) Article 2(4) encompasses force directed only against a State's territorial

integrity
A
Question 3

What is the meaning of "armed attack" in Article 51 UN Charter?

a) "Armed attack" includes all types of armed force

b) "Armed attack" includes all high intensity instances of armed force
c) "Armed attack" includes terrorist attacks

d) An "armed attack" gives the right to invade the aggressor State
B
Question 4

Is the ICJ hostile to the idea that an armed attack may arise through a series of lower
intensity, yet cumulative, instances of armed force?

a) The ICJ was not hostile to the accumulation theory

b) The concept of an armed attack refers to a single attack, not multiple smaller
instances of armed force
c) In the Nicaragua case the ICJ dismissed the accumulation theory

d) The ICJ has never addressed this issue

A
Question 5

What is the meaning of proportionality in relation to the options available to the victim
State?

a) The victim State may use the same means and intensity of force as the
aggressor
b) The victim State may use any means to defeat and incapacitate the aggressor
c) The victim State may only use such means and force as it is necessary to
defeat the aggressor
 d) The victim State can do nothing without Security Council approval
C

Question 6

Can armed violence perpetrated by non-State actors ever amount to an armed attack under
Article 51 UN Charter?

a) The conduct of non-State actors can never amount to an armed attack

b) The Caroline case serves as precedent that non-State actors can under
particular circumstances commit an armed attack
c) There is no precedent in international law for the proposition that non-State
actors can commit an armed attack

d) Non-State can both commit an armed attack and possess a right of self-
defence under international law
B

Question 7

What was the particular advantage of UNSC Resolution 678 over a collective defensive
action under Article 51 UN Charter during the Gulf War?

a) Resolution 678 allowed the allies to attack Iraq with nuclear and chemical
weapons
b) Resolution 678 is narrower than the inherent right of self-defence under
Article 51 UN Charter
c) Resolution 678 was faster to adopt and negotiate

d) Resolution 678 is broader because it authorised the use of force with respect
to any matter threatening the peace and security of the Gulf region.
D

Question 8

What is the meaning of collective security?

 a) The right to self-defence by more than one nation acting in concert
b) The right of one's allies to defend the victim State
c) The authorisation of armed force by the UN Security Council

d) The authorisation of peacekeeping missions by the UN General Assembly

C

Question 9

What is the meaning of implied authorisation?

a) Presumption of Security Council approval of armed force when a State has

been forewarned
b) Implicit authorisation on the basis of a specific number of votes by UNSC
members
c) Presumption that all unlawful attacks will be subject to armed force by a
resolution of the UNSC

d) In cases of repeated unlawful attacks the UNSC shall authorise neighbouring
States to take whatever measures they deem necessary to rectify the situation
A
Question 10

In what way is Responsibility to Protect (R2P) different from humanitarian intervention?

a) R2P is essentially the same as humanitarian intervention

b) R2P requires a call for assistance by the State in distress
c) R2P is less arbitrary because it requires some UNSC input and its primary
objective is to avert a humanitarian crisis

d) R2P always involves armed force, whereas humanitarian intervention does

not
C
Question 1

What is the function of "standard-setting in human rights diplomacy?

a) Standard-setting means putting forward binding legal standards

 b) Standard-setting means merely proposing binding legal standards
c) Standard-setting means putting forward non-binding legal standards

d) Standard-setting means setting certain standards of conduct in human rights

treaties
C

Question 2

What is the legal nature of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)?

a) The UDHR is a multilateral treaty

b) The UDHR is a UN General Assembly resolution
c) The UDHR is a UN Security Council resolution

d) The UDHR is a declaration adopted by several States at an international

conference
B

Question 3

What is the meaning of cultural relativism?

a) Culture relativism posits that human rights apply equally to all without
restrictions
b) Culture relativism posits that human rights have a cultural origin
c) Cultural relativism posits that the application of human rights is relative to
the laws in each nation

d) Cultural relativism posits that local culture should validate the existence and
practice of all human rights
D

Question 4

What is the meaning of collective rights?

 a) Collective rights belong to distinct groups of people
b) Collective rights are those that belong to particular groups as opposed to the
individual members of the group
c) Minority rights are collective rights

d) Collective rights entail a right of the group as such as well as individual

rights of the group's members
B

Question 5

What is the meaning of justiciability?

a) Justiciability refers to the possibility of enforcement of a particular right by

the relevant rights holders
b) Justiciability refers to the just nature or cause of a particular right
c) Justiciability refers to the courts' assessment of whether the non-enforcement
of a particular rights
conforms to principles of justice

d) Justiciability refers to the obligation of a State to enforce a particular Right

A
Question 6

What is a derogation?

a) Derogations are exemptions from particular human rights obligations

contained in a treaty
b) A derogation refers to the ability of rights holders to bring a claim against
the State for breach of an obligation
c) A State may suspend particular rights by means of a derogation in
circumstances that threaten its existence

d) Derogations are enforcement clauses in human rights treaties

C

Question 7
 Would a reservation to the definition of torture in the ICCPR be acceptable in
contemporary practice?

a) This is an acceptable reservation if the reserving country's legislation

employs a different definition
b) This is an unacceptable reservation because it contravenes the object and
purpose of the ICCPR
c) This is an unacceptable reservation because the definition of torture in the
ICCPR is consistent with customary international law

d) This is an acceptable reservation because under general international law

States have the right to enter reservations to treaties
B

Question 8

Which of the following is a treaty-based human rights mechanism?

a) The UN Human Rights Committee

b) The UN Human Rights Council
c) The UN Universal Periodic Review

d) The UN special mandates

A

Question 9

Under what circumstances do human rights violations taking place outside the territory of
ECHR member States fall within the remit of the ECtHR?

a) The ECHR applies outside Europe where human rights are violated by
ECHR member States abroad
b) The ECHR applies extraterritorially in circumstances where a member State
exercises effective control
c) The ECHR applies extraterritorially where a member State has contributed
forces to a UN peacekeeping mission
 d) The ECHR applies extraterritorially where human rights violations are
taking place in former colonies of member States
B

Question 10

What is the rationale for the exhaustion of local remedies in international human rights?

a) The local remedies rule aims to free up international tribunals to deal with
the most serious cases
b) The local remedies rule aims to dissuade applicants abusing the system from
filing unnecessary petitions
c) The local remedies rule aims on the one hand to restrict the volume of
petitions to international tribunals while at the same time building up the capacity
of local courts

d) The local remedies rule helps demonstrate that national courts are always
better placed than international ones to deal with cases
C

 The principle of “ex acquo et bono” is contained in

 Article 38(1)(a) of the statue of ICJ
 Article 38(1)(b) of the statue of ICJ
 Article 38(2) of the statue of ICJ
 Article 38(3) of the statue of ICJ
Ans. c
 Who called international law as vanishing point of jurisprudence
 Maine
 Holland
 Brierly
 Black Stone
Ans. b
 The principle of ‘Pacta Sunt Servanda” means:
 Treaties accepted in good faith
 Treaties are revocable
  Treaties are irrevocable
 Treaties are not binding international law
Ans. a
 Some efforts have been made to transform the status of individual from the
object to the subject of international law. The first effort towards this was
made:
 With the treaty of Versailles, 1919
 With the treaty of Westphalia
 With the 1815, Vienna Conference
 Within the UN Charter 1945
Ans. a
 The declaratory theory of recognition is also known as:
 Constitutive theory
 Facultative theory
 Evidentiary theory
 Natural theory
Ans. c
 In which country a treaty entered into automatically attains the status of law
of the land, without needing further action on the part of the legislature
 Britain
 USA
 India
 Pakistan
Ans. b
 Which kind of recognition once given cannot be withdrawn by the
recognising state:
 Partial Recognition
 Total Recognition
 De facto Recognition
 De jure Recognition
Ans. d
 The continental shelf case is considered as the:
 Natural prolongation of the landmass of the costal state
 Area beyond the sovereign limits of the costal state
  Both a and b
 None of the above
Ans. a
 In which case the ICJ held that warships have right to innocent passage
through international straights in times of undeclared war as well as in peace
time:
 Corfu Channel case
 SS Lotus case
 North Sea Continental shelf case
 None of the above
Ans. a
 In which one of the following cases did the ICJ refrain from giving its final
judgement
 Right to passage case
 Nuclear tests case
 Corfu Channel case
 North Sea Continental shelf case
Ans. b

1. __________ is considered to be the father of International Law:

A. Hugo Grotius
B. Openheim
C. Suarez
D. Pufendorf
A
2. When was the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations adopted?
A. 1821
B. 1887
C. 1960
D. 1961
D
3. When was the International court of justice established?
A. 1910
B. 1945
C. 1955
D. 1965
B
4. On what condition, a state has the right to use force?
A. Armed attack
B. To obtain raw materials
C. To ensure the protection of human rights
D. None of the above
A
5. Foreign warships have ___________:
A. Are not allowed to navigate in the Territorial waters
B. The right of innocent passage in the Territorial waters
C. The right of free passage in the territorial waters
D. All of the above
B
6. A state has the right to exploit on the continental shelf:
A. Both Living and non-Living resources
B. Living resources
C. Non-Living resources
D. Both B & C
A
7. What does the principle of rebus sic stantibus means?
A. There is not a crime without Law
B. A State cannot use force
C. A treaty must be adhered to faithfully
D. A fundamental change of circumstances
D
8. A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction:
A. Criminal cases
B. In cases involving personal property
C. In all cases
D. None of the above
C
9. Extradition is normally granted:
A. In criminal cases
B. In civil cases
C. In all cases
D. None of the above
A
10. What is the term of Judges of the International court of justice?
A. 1 year
B. 9 years
C. 5 years
D. 8 years
B
11. Harmon Doctrine means:
A. A State has absolute right over the water resources of an international river within
its own territory
B. A State has the right to use power to protect its nationals
C. A State cannot interfere in the internal affairs of other states
D. A State is not bound to recognize a government installed by a foreign power
A
12. A State enjoys immunity from the jurisdiction of foreign jurisdiction of
foreign courts:
A. Public Cases
B. Private cases
C. All cases
D. None of the above
C

International Law MCQs, 1985

Write the correct Answers:
A. The father of International Law is considered to be:
1: Suarez
2: Pufendorf
3: Hugo Grotius
4: Openheim

B: The Vienna convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in:

1: 1815
2: 1958
3: 1961
4: 1963

C. The International court of justice was established:

1: 1907
2: 1919
3: 1945

D. A state has the right to use force in case of:

1: To obtain raw materials
2: To ensure the the protection of human rights
3: Armed attack

E. Foreign warships have:

1: The right of free passage in the territorial waters
2: Are not allowed to navigate in the Territorial waters
3: The right of innocent passage in the Territorial waters.

F. A state has the right to exploit in the continental shelf:

1: Living resources
2: Non-Living resources
3: Both Living and non-Living resources
G. The principle of rebus sic stantibus means:
1: A State cannot use force
2: There is not a crime without Law
3: Fundamental change of circumstances
4: A treaty must be adhered to faithfully

H. A diplomatic agent is immuned from local jurisdiction:

1: In all cases
2: Criminal cases
3: In cases involving personal property

I. Extradition is normally granted:

1: In all cases
2: In criminal cases
3: In civil cases

J. The term of Judges of International court of justice is:

1: Three years
2: Five years
3: Six years
4: Nine years

K. Harmon Doctrine means:

1: A State cannot interfere in internal affairs of other states
2: A State is not bound to recognize a government installed by a foreign power
3: A State has absolute right over the water resources of an international river
within its own territory.
4: A State has the right to use power to protect its nationals

L. A State enjoys immunity from the jurisdiction of foreign jurisdiction of

foreign courts:
1: All cases
2: Public Cases
3: Private cases

M. The International Law Commission is a body to:

1: Investigate situations which may threaten international peace and security
2: Codify International Law
3: Conciliate between/among the disputing states
4: Constitute an arbitration tribunal for the pacific settlement of a dispute.

N. The principle of jus oogens means:

1: A peremptory norm of International Law
2: A State is bound by the provisions of a forced treaty
3: A successor State is bound by the acts, of a predecessor State.

O. Diplomatic asylum means:

1: A diplomatic agent seeking asylum in the receiving state
2: Asylum provided by a diplomatic mission
3: Asylum provided to a political leader by foreign State.

P. Nationalization of foreign property is:

1: A State cannot nationalize foreign property
2: A State can nationalize foreign property without compensation
3: A State can nationalize foreign property with compensation
Q. The first case taken-up by the international court of justice was:
1: Nationality decrees in Tunis and Morocco
2: Lighthouse in Crete and Samos
3: Corfu channel
4: Asylum case

R. The Universal Declaration of human rights was adopted in:

1: 1776
2: 1795
3: 1917
4: 1945
5: 1948
6: 1966

S. The Schooner exchange case dealt with the principle of:

1: A State has sovereign right over its natural resources
2: A State's right of reprisal in case of violation of rights
3: A State's courts have to accept the validity of a foreign State's acts.
4: A government is free to seek military assistance from a friendly State.

T. The Estrada Doctrine relates to:

1: Delimitation of boundaries
2: Recognition of a government
3: Jurisdiction over aliens
4: Recognition of a State

International Law MCQs 1986

Write the correct answer:

(A) The doctrine, which accepted the "Law of Nature" as an independent source
of rules of the law of nations, was propounded by:
1: Bodin
2: Machiavelli
3: Hobbes
4: Grotius

(B) The permanent court of arbitration was established by:

1: The Hague Conferences of 1899 and 1907
2: The Washington Naval Conference of 1922
3: The Vienna Conference of 1968-69
4: The Geneva Convention of April 29, 1958.

(c) "International Law is not true Law but positive international morality only".
Who said it?
1: Pufendof
2: Austin
3: Bentham
4: Pollock

(D) "Treates are the supreme law of the land". Where is it laid down?
1: Constitution of USA
2: UN Charter
3: Statute of the ICJ
4: British Constitution

(E) When was Monroe Doctrine originally announced?

1: 1623
2: 1723
3: 1823
4: 1923

(F) A Vasal State is:

1: One which is completely under the suzerainty of another State
2: One which is supposed to exist in every vessel of the State, on the high seas.
3: A Protectorate
4: A State which is a member of common wealth

(G) A Condominium is :
1: A State of Chaos
2: A State enjoying Dominion status
3: A particular territory over which joint dominion is exercised by two or more
external powers.
4: A State with a Federal form of Constitution

(H) ANZUS stands for:

1: African National Zest Under Sovereignty
2: Association for security purpose of Australia, New Zealand and the United
States.
3: Afghan National Zealous United Struggle
4: All Nigerian Zambian Ugandan Society

(I) IAEA is used for:

1: International Atomic energy Agency
2: Islamic aid from Emirates for Afghanistan
3: International agency for Ethiopian Aid
4: Imperial Agency for Europ and Asia.

(J) What is Contraband?

1: All Narcotics
2: Articles banned by a government
3: All Smuggled material
4: Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war.

International Law MCQs 1987

Write the correct answers:

A. The principle of exhaustion of local remedies is related to:
1: The immunities of a political agent
2: State responsibility
3: Extradition of foreign criminals

B. The headquarters of The United Nations is located at:

1: Geneva
2:Vienna
3: New York
4: Washington
5: Rome
6: Paris.

C. The permanent Court of International Justice has its headquarter at:

1: London
2: Hamburg
3: Luxembourg
4: Geneva
5: The Hague
6: Nowhere

D. The headquarters of ICAO are located at:

1: Vienna
2: New York
3: Nairobi
4: Montreal

E. An agreement between a State and a multinational corporation

1: A Treaty
2: Not a treaty

F. A member of the International Law Commission is:

1: Appointed by his state
2: Appointed by the UN secretary-General
3: Elected by the general assembly

G. The term of a member of the International Law Commission is:

1: 3 years
2: 5 Years
3: 7 Years
4: 9 years

H. A candidate for the International court of justice is nominated by:

1: The National Government
2: The National group
3:The president of the permanent court of arbitration .

I. A Judge of the ICJ is elected by:

1: The general assembly
2: The security council
3: Both the general assembly and the Security council

J, The Security council consists of:

1: 15 members
2: 5 members
3: 9 members
4: 34 members
5: 54 members

K. An ad-hoc judge of the ICJ is:

1: Elected by General Assembly
2: Elected by the Security Council
3: Appointed by the Secretary General
4: Appointed by the State
L. Tobar doctrine is related to:
1: The Cognition of a State
2: The recognition of a Government
3: The recognition of insurgents.

M. The Vienna convention of consular relations was adopted in:

1: 1815
2: 1961
3: 1963
4: 1969
5: 1975
6: 1978

N. The territorial waters of State may extend up to:

1: 3 miles
2: 6 miles
3: 9 miles
4: 12 miles
5: 24 miles
6: 50 miles
7: 200 miles

O. A land-locked State:
1: Cannot fly its own flag
2: Can fly its own flag
3: Can fly its flag with the flag of another State

P. The definition of aggression was adopted in:

1: 1989
2: 1907
3: 1919
4: 1928
5: 1945
6: 1974
7: 1983

Q. The baseline is line from which the limits of:

1: Air space are measured
2: Maritime zones are measured
3: The land frontiers of the two States are demarcated.

R. The theory of absolute territorial sovereignty:

1: Allows a State to have absolute jurisdiction over all foreigners.
2: Advocates for exclusive right of the territorial State over water resources of
an international river.
3: Entitles a State to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over foreign ships.

S. The doctrine of " inter-temporal law":

1: Means that in case of conflict between Municipal Law and International Law, the latter
will prevail.
2: Relates to the question of application of different legal systems prevailing at
successive periods.
3: Means that the principle of natural justice take precedence over other rules.

T. The eastern Greenland case rose between:

1: Norway and the U.K
2: Norway and Denmark
3: Norway and Iceland
4: Denmark and Germany.

International Law MCQs, 1988

Write correct answers:

1. Who is the president of the International court of justice?

a: Muhammad Haleem
b: William Rehaquist
c: Nagendra Singh
d: Hisashi Owada 2. Who is the present president of World peace through Law
center:

a: Charles S Rhyne
b: Warren E Burger
c: Perez de Cueller

3. How often in a year is the "American Journal of International " published?

a: Annually
b: Quarterly
c: Monthly

4. Where is the secretariat of American Society of International Law located?

a: San Francisco
b: Ann Arbor
c: New Jersey
d: Washington DC

5. Where from is "The International Law and Comparative Law

quarterly" published?
a: London
b: New York
c: Paris
d: Tokyo
e: Beijing

6. When was the UN charter of human Rights adopted?

a: December 10, 1945

b: December 10, 1948
c: December 10, 1951

7. When did the General Assembly of the United nations adopted the charter of
economics rights and duties of States?

a: December 12, 1974

b: December 12, 1980
c: December 12, 1987

8. The diplomatic Conference on Humanitarian Law was held in:

a: 1974
b: 1975
c: 1976

9. The convention on the settlement of investment Disputes between States

and Nationals of other States came into force on:

a: October 14, 1966

b: October 14, 1967
c: October 14, 1968

10. The declaration on the Elimination of all Forms of Intolerance and

Discrimination Based on Religion or Belief was adopted at the United Nations by
consensus in:

a: 1981
b: 1982
c: 1983

11. The Hague Convention on the Taking of Evidence Abroad in Civil or

commercial Matters (The Hague Evidence Convention) was done on:

a: March 18, 1970

b: March 18, 1975
c: March 18, 1988

12. The protocol for the suppression of unlawful acts of violence at Airports
serving International Civil Aviation was done on:

a: February 24, 1988

b: February 24, 1978
c: February 24, 1968

13. The United Nations Conference on the Law of the Sea was held at Geneva in:

a: 1958
b: 1959
c: 1960

14. The second session of the United Nations Committee on economics, social
and cultural Rights was held at Geneva in:

a: February 1988
b: February 1987

15. The Convention for the protection of Ozone Layer was done on:

a: March 22, 1985

b: March 22, 1987
c: March 22, 1988

16. What do these acronyms stand for?

WIPO: World Intellectual Property Organization

GATT: General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
ICAO: International Civil Aviation Organization
IBRD: International Bank of Reconstruction for Development
UNESCO: United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization

International Law MCQs 1991

Which one is correct :
A.
(i). International law imposees duty on states to recognise a state.
(ii). Recognition of state is a matter of legal duty.
(iii). The political indipendence of a state is indipedent of recognition.
(iv). The existence of a state depends on recognition .

B.
(i). A Costal state can exercise Jurisdiction on any crime on the board of a foreign vessel
passing through the territorial sea.
(ii). A Costal state may arrest or divert a foreign vessel passing through its territory.
(iii). A Costal state can exercise jurisdiction on a foreign vessel if the consequences of
the crime extend beyond the vessel.
(iv). A state has absolute jurisdiction over a foreign vessel in its territorial water.

C.
(i). Retorsion is a legal act.
(ii). Retorsion is legal act but delibeately unfriendly.
(iii). Retorsion is limited to retaliation.
(iv). Retorsion is a discourtious act.

D.
(i). A state has the legal right to go to water.
(ii). A state can wage war only in self-defence.
(iii). War in all circumstances is prohibited by International Law.
(iv). A State can go to war to redress the wrong done to its nationals .

International Law MCQs 1992

Write short notes on the principles enshrined in the statement you feel is correct in
each of the four sections A,B,C and D.

(A)
i. Exhaustion of local remedy is to exhaust remedies available to a national in his own
country.
ii. Exhaustion of local remedy is to exhaust remedies available to an aline
resident in the state of his temporary domicile.
iii. Exhaustion of local remedies is to exhaust remedies available to an individual in the
international courts and tribunals.

(B).
i. Defacto recognition is extended where a government has not acquired
sufficient stability.
ii. Defacto recognition is fullest form of recognition of a government established by Law.
iii. Defacto recognition is extended to International organisations.

(C).
i. Right of hot pursuit is available to a state's air force to pursue a foreign aircraft for
violation of its air space.
ii. Right of hot pursuit is available to a state's armed forces to pursue violation
of its territorial sovereignty by the nationals or armed forces of foreign powers.
iii.Right of hot pursuit is available to a costal state to pursue onto the high seas a foreign
vessel for infractions of its laws and regulations.

(D).
i. Extradition means expulsion of an alien who fears persecution in his own country.
ii. Extradition means delivery of an accused or a convicted person to the state
in which he committed the offence.
iii. Extradition means expulsion of an alien for the violation of the laws of the state of
temporary domicile.

International Law MCQs, 2000

(1) Provisions of Municipal Law:-

(a) are enforceable in international relations without any qualification
(b) are enforceable in international -relations if they are not in conflict with
international law;
(c) are not at all enforceable in international relations.

(2) Select one of the following: -

(a) Public International Organizations are subjects of International Law;
(b) both Public and Private International organizations are subjects of International Law
(c) None of the above is subject of International Law.

(3) Foreign diplomatic envoys enjoy absolute immunity from local jurisdiction
in;
(a) Civil matters;
(b) Criminal matters;
(c) both civil and criminal matters.

(4) The Right of innocent passage is available to:

(a) Foreign Aircrafts;
(b) Foreign ships;
(c) all foreign vehicles.

(5) Non-permanent members of the U.N. Security Council are elected for a
period’ of:
(a) five years;
(b) three years;
(c) two years.

(6) A successor state is legally bound to:

(a) fulfill all the obligations of its predecessor state;
(b) only selected obligations;
(c) No obligation at all..,

(7) A lower riparian state:

(a) Has no right to share water resources of an International River;
(b) Has exclusive right
(c) Has right to share water on an equitable basis.
(8) The Charter of the U.N. was drawn up by:-
(a) London Declaration 1943.;
(b) Moscow and Tehran Conference1943;
(c) San Francisco Conference 1945.

(9) Universal Declaration on Human Rights was adopted in:

(a) 1978
(b) 1958
(c) 1948

(10) The judges of the I.C.J. are elected by:

(a) the U.N. Security Council
(b) the U.N. General Assembly
(c) both

(11) Territorial Waters are:

(a) Waters within the territorial limits of a state;
(b) Waters dividing the territory of two or more states;
(c) None of the above.

(12) A state is admitted to the membership of the’ U.N. by:

(a) the Security Council;
(b) the General Assembly;
(c) Both

(13) Advisory opinion from the I.C.J. can be sought by:

(a) the U.N.
(ii) the States
(c) Both

(14) A state is exempted from the jurisdiction of the local courts in another
state:
(a) if an agreement has been made to that effect;
(b) by virtue of its sovereign status;
(c) if such an exemption is granted by the local authorities.

(i5) The offence of piracy is subject to the jurisdiction of:

(a) the flag state;
(b) the offenders state
(c) all the states.

(16) A Continental Shelf is situated beneath the sea level at the approximate
depth of:
(a) 200 meters
(b) 300 meters
(c) 500 meters

(17) Foreign sovereign ships sailing/anchoring in the coastal waters of another

state are:
(a) subject to the law of the flag state;
(b) subject to the law of the coastal state;
(c) subject to the law of both states.

(18) In case an alien is injured in a foreign state, it is the right of the:

(a) injured alien to bring a claim against the wrongdoer state before arrival international
forum;
(b) state of the nationality of the injured alien;
(c) none of the two has aright to do so.

(19) Extradition is the process of: -

(a) providing asylum to the person who needs it;
(b) handing over a person accused or convict of a crime by a state to the
demanding state;
(c) None of the two.

(20) The Economic and Social Council is:

(a) a specialized agency of the U.N.
(b) an organ of the U.N.
(c) N.G.O. for the uplift of economic and social standards of the people of the world.

International Law MCQs, 2001

(1) Subject of International Law are:

(a) States
(b) Individuals
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(2) The General Assembly is:

(a) The Principle Organ of UNO
(b) An ordinary Organ of UNO
(c) A check on the Security Council
(d) None of these

(3) League of Nations was not joined by:

(a) USA
(b) France
(c) UK
(d) None of these

(4) Judges of the ICJ are:

(a) Elected by the Security Council
(b) Elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council
(c) Appointed by the Secretary General in consultation with the five permanent members
of the Security Council.
(d) None of these

(5) Under the Convention of the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Territorial Sea is:
(a) 6 nautical miles
(b) 8 nautical miles
(c) 12 nautical miles
(d) None of these

(6) A state can use force:

(a) In its own defence
(b) By entering into a treaty with another state
(c) At its own discretion
(d) None of these

(7) Diplomatic relations are established by:

(a) Mutual agreement
(b) Unilateral action
(c) Decision of neighboring States
(d) None of these

(8) Rights of hand-locked states are governed by

(a) Rules of customary international law
(b) Convention on the Law of Sea
(c) Mutual Consent
(d) None of these

(9) Vienna Congress took place in:

(a) 1815
(b) 1919
(c) 1945
(d) None of these

(10) Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed in:

(a) 1966
(b) 1968
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(11) The United Nation is:

(a) A Supra-State organization
(b) A creation of Member States
(c) Has no link with States after its establishment
(d) None of these

(12) Territorial asylum is:

(a) An exercise of territorial sovereignty
(b) An impingement of territorial Sovereignty
(c) Granted by mutual consent
(d) None of these

(13) A state is
(a) Bound to recognize a new state
(b) Not bound to do so
(c) Requited to enter into dialog with the new state for recognition

(14) Minquires and Ecrehos case was decided by

(a) ICJ (1950)
(b) PCIJ
(c) Europe Court of Human Rights
(d) None of these

(15) The eruption of war termination:

(a) All treaties
(b) Only political treaties
(c) No treaty

(16) International Law can:

(a) Compel a state to settle a dispute
(b) Provide moral support to an issue in dispute
(c) Furnish legal substance to an issue in dispute
(d) None of these
(17) The concept of State immunity is:
(a) An attitude of territorial sovereignty
(b) A derogation-form the sovereignty of state
(c) Not concerned with territorial sovereignty
(d) None of these

(18) The Continuity of states us International Legal Persons is:

(a) Affected by change of government
(b) Not affected by change of government
(c) Depends of the recognition of new government
(d) None of these

(19) Harmon Doctrine is:

(a) Part of International Law
(b) Was renounced before it could take roots in International Law
(c) Is attempting to earn general acceptance
(d) None of these

(20) Vital change of circumstances

(a) Renders a treaty invalid
(b) Terminates the treaty
(c) Has no affect on the treaty
(d) None of these

International Law MCQs, 2002

(1) In Pakistan the limit of the territorial waters is:

(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 36
(d) None of these

(2) A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction:

(a) In all cases
(b) In criminal cases
(c) In cases involving personal property
(d) None of these

(3) Haronon Doctrine means

(a) A state cannot interfere in the internal affairs of other States
(b) A state is not bound to recognize a government installed by a foreign power
(c) A State has the right to use force for the protection of its nationals.
(d) None of these

(4) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:

(a) 1917
(b) 1945
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(5) Contiguous Zone in Pakistan is adjacent to and beyond the territorial waters and
extending seawards to a time
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 48
(d) None of these

(6)The width of the partition belt is generally recognized to be

(a) 3 miles
(b) 5 miles
(c) 10 miles
(d) None of these

(7) The Estrada Doctrine relates to:

(a) Delimitation of boundaries
(b) Recognition of a government
(c) Recognition of a State
(d) None of these

(8) The term of judges of the International Court of Justice is:

(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 9 years
(d) None of these

(9) Extradition is normally granted:

(a) In all cases
(b) In criminal cases
(c) In civil cases
(d) None of these

(10) Foreign ships

(a) are not allowed to navigate in the Territorial Waters
(b) have the right of innocent passage in the Territorial Waters
(c) have the right of free passage in the Territorial Waters
(d) None of these

(11) A State has the right to use force for

(a) Obtaining raw materials
(b) Creating the protection of human rights
(c) Armed attack
(d) None of these

(12) International Court of Justice was established in:

(a) 1945
(b) 1952
(c) 1956
(d) None of these

(13) The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in:

(a) 1945
(b) 1961
(c) 1962
(d) None of these

(14) The father of International Law is considered to be:

(a) Saurez
(b) Oppeahoin
(c) Grotius
(d) None of these
(15) A State has complete immunity from the jurisdiction of foreign courts in:
(a) All cases
(b) Public acts
(c) Private cases
(d) None of these

(16) International Law Commission is a body to:

(a) Investigate situations which may threaten international peace and security
(b) Codify International Law
(c) Conciliate between the disputing States
(d) None of these

(17) The first case taken up by the International Court of Justice was:
(a) Asylum case
(b) Nationality decree in Tunis
(c) Corfu Channel
(d) None of these

(18) A state
(a) Cannot nationalize foreign property
(b) Can nationalize foreign property without compensation
(c) Can nationalize foreign property after paying compensation
(d) None of these

(19) Diplomatic Asylum means

(a) A diplomatic agent seeking asylum in the receiving State
(b) Asylum provided by a diplomatic mission
(c) Asylum provided to a political leader by a foreign State
(d) None of these

(20) Minister Resident are

(a) Higher in rank than that of the Minister Plenipotentiary
(b) Lower in rank than that of the Minister Plenipotentiary
(c) Equal in rank to the Minister Plenipotentiary
(d) None of these

International Law MCQs, 2003

(1) A State has the right to exploit in the Continental Shelf:

(a) Living resources
(b) Non-living resources
(c) Both living and non-living resources
(d) None of these

(2) The principle of rebus sie steatibus means

(a) A state cannot use force
(b) There is no crime without a law
(c) Fundamental change of circumstances
(d) None of these

(3) The Schooner Exchange case dealt with the principle of

(a) A State has sovereign right over its neutral resources
(b) A State’s Courts have to accept the validity of a foreign State’s acts.
(c) A State’s right of reprisals in case of violation of rights
(d) None of these

(4) Hague Convention of 1970 dealt in properly with the crimes relating to:
(a) Refugees
(b) Prisoners of wars
(c) Hijacking
(d) None of these

(5) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:

(a) 1920
(b) 1945
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(6) Contiguous Zone in Pakistan is adjacent to and beyond the territorial waters and
extending seawards to a line:
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 60
(d) None of these

(7) De facto Recognition is

(a) Legal recognition
(b) Recognition in principle
(c) Circumstantial Recognition
(d) None of these

(8) The limit of the Territorial Waters of Pakistan is:

(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 20 nautical miles
(c) 24 nautical miles; beyond the land territory and internal waters of Pakistan measured
from the base line
(d) None of these

(9) Continental Shelf of Pakistan may extend upto a distance of

(a) 150 nautical miles
(b) 200 nautical miles
(c) 250 nautical miles
(d) None of these

(10) Exclusive Economic Zone of Pakistan is an area beyond and adjacent to the
territorial waters the limit of which is
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 100 nautical miles
(c) 200 nautical miles
(d) None of these

(11) According to the “Floating island Theory”, a floating island is

(a) An island within 3 nautical miles from the coast of a country
(b) An island on the high seas which is not the territory of any particular State
(c) A ship bearing the national flag of a State
(d) None of these

(12) In procedural matters the decisions of the Security Council are made by an
affirmative votes of any
(a) 5 members
(b) 9 members
(c) 15 members
(d) None of these

(13) Extradition is normally granted

(a) In all cases
(b) In civil cases
(c) In criminal cases
(d) None of these

(14) What is Contrabands?

(a) All narcotics
(b) Articles banned by a Government
(c) All smuggles goods
(d) Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war
(e) None of these

(15) A state has the right to use force in case of

(a) To obtain war material
(b) Armed attack
(c) To ensure the protection of human rights
(d) None of these

(16) Diplomatic Asylum means

(a) A diplomatic agent seeking asylum in the receiving State
(b) Asylum provided by a diplomatic mission
(c) Asylum provided to a particular leader by a foreign State
(d) None of these

(17) The International Law Commission is a body to

(a) Investigate situation which may threats international peace and security
(b) Codify International Law
(c) Conciliate between/among the disputing States
(d) None of these

(18) The width of the maritime belt is generally recognize to be

(a) 3 miles
(b) 5 miles
(c) 10 miles
(d) None of these

(19) Foreign ships

(a) Are not allowed to navigate in the territorial waters
(b) Have the right of innocent passage in the territorial waters
(c) Have the right of free passage in the territorial waters
(d) None of these

(20) The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in

(a) 1945
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) None of these

International Law MCQs, 2004

(1) The term of judges of International Court of Justice is
(a) Three years
(b) Five years
(c) Six years
(d) Nine years
(e) None of these

(2) When was the Charter of Human Rights adopted?

(a) 1945
(b) 1948
(c) 1951
(d) None of these

(3) Tobar Doctrine is related to

(a) The recognition of a state
(b) The recognition of a government
(c) The recognition of insurgents
(d) None of these

(4) Conference of Bogota was held in

(a) 1920
(b) 1936
(c) 1948
(d) None of these

(5) Vienna Conference of 1961 is related to

(a) Diplomatic inter course and immunities
(b) Prisoners-of-war
(c) Recognition of states
(d) None of these

(6) Who is called ‘the father of International Law’?

(a) Hago Grotius
(b) Oppenhein
(c) Suerez
(d) None of these

(7) Foreign warships have

(a) The right of free passage in the territorial waters
(b) The right of innocent passage in the territorial waters
(c) To stay in the territorial waters
(d) None of these

(8) A landlocked state is

(a) Surrounded by water from all sides
(b) Surrounded by enemy states from all sides
(c) Surrounded by land from all sides
(d) None of these

(9) Contiguous Zone is limited to a maximum of

(a) 25 miles (24 nautical mile )
(b) 50 miles
(c) 12 miles
(d) None of these

(10) The Alabama Claims Arbitration case was decided in

(a) 1872
(b) 1854
(c) 1890
(d) None of these

(11) The Convention for the protection of the Ozone Layer was done on
(a) March 22, 1985
(b) March 23, 1986
(c) March 24, 1987
(d) None of these

(12) Culvo Clause means

(a) A state can intervene on behalf of its nationals
(b) A state can’t intervene on behalf of its nationals
(c) An alien agrees not to seek the diplomatic protection of his own state
(d) None of these

(13) Diplomatic relations are established by

(a) Mutual consent
(b) A unilateral decision
(c) A decision of a regional organization
(d) None of these

(14) Eruption of war terminates

(a) All treaties
(b) No treaty
(c) Only political treaties
(d) None of these

(15) Foreign ships sailing and anchoring in the coastal waters of another state are
(a) Subject to the law of Flag State
(b) Subject to the law of Coastal State
(c) Subject to the law of both the States
(d) None of these

(16) Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction of the

(a) Flag State
(b) Offenders State
(c) All the States
(d) None of these

(17) Territorial Waters are

(a) Water outside the territorial limits of a state
(b) Waters dividing territory of Two or more states
(c) Waters Adjacent to the contiguous Zone
(d) None of these

(18) Non-Permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a period of
(a) 7 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 2 years
(d) None of these

(19) The Montreal Convention for the safety of Civil Aviation was signed in
(a) 1975
(b) 1974
(c) 1971
(d) None of these
(20) Diplomatic staff enjoys complete immunity from
(a) Civil Jurisdiction
(b) Criminal Jurisdiction
(c) Both
(d) None of these

International Law MCQs, 2005

(1) Number of Judges of International Court of Justice is
(a) Nine
(b) Twelve
(c) Fifteen
(d) None of these

(2) Permanent Court of International Justice was established under

(a) League of Nations
(b) UNO
(c) European Union
(d) None of these

(3) Pacta Sunt Servanda means

(a) Treaties between states are to be respected
(b) An unwanted person
(c) International Law must be honoured
(d) None of these

(4):Headquarters of International Court of Justice is in

(a) Hague
(b) Geneva
(c) New York
(d) None of these

(5) Persona Non Gruta means

(a) Impracticable article of international law
(b) A fugitive criminal
(c) A person refused for asylum
(d) None of these

(6) Father of the Law of Nations is

(a) Grotius
(b) Hegel
(c) Anziloei
(d) None of these

(7) Principles Jes Soli means

(a) Grant of nationality on the basis of place birth
(b) Grant of nationality on the basis of blood relationship
(c) Grant of nationality through naturalization
(d) None of these

(8) Much of international law is derived through analogy from

(a) Islamic law
(b) Christian Law
(c) Roman law
(d) None of these

(9) Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was signed in

(a) 1961
(b) 1945
(c) 1927
(d) None of these (1969)

(10) Truce mean

(a) A temporary arrangement between the belligerent parties for cessation of
hostilities
(b) Any peace treaty to end a war
(c) No War Pact
(d) None of these

(11) Declaration is a treaty between the contracting parties which

(a) is always subject to ratification
(b) is not needed to be ratified
(c) may or not be subject to be ratification
(d) None of these

(12) Diplomatic Protection means a protection and security granted

(a) to a diplomat by UNO
(b) by a state to its national abroad
(c) by a State to a person seeking asylum
(d) None of these

(13) Kellog Briand Pact or Paris Peace Treaty was signed in

(a) 1945
(b) 1928
(c) 1919
(d) None of these

(14) Recognition of new States is a matter of

(a) International law
(b) Constitutional law
(c) Policy of the State
(d) None of these

(15) Grant of extra-territorial asylum in a legation:

(a) is a part of customary international law
(b) is a part of Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961
(c) depends on circumstances
(d) None of these

(16) To get asylum in a foreign state by an individual

(a) is his basic right
(b) is not his right
(c) depends on circumstances
(d) None of these

(17) Diplomatic envoys in the receiving state are given immunity from
(a) Civil jurisdiction
(b) Criminal jurisdiction
(c) Both criminal and civil jurisdiction
(d) None of these
(18) Territorial sea of a State is under
(a) its total control
(b) its control, but subject to certain international obligations
(c) its control, only for exploration of mineral resources
(d) None of these

(19) Genocide Convention was adopted by the UN General Assembly in:

(a) 1945
(b) 1950
(c) 1960
(d) None of these

(20) Bynkershock principle is related to:

(a) Measurement of maritime belt
(b) Contiguous zone
(c) Extradition of criminals
(d) None of these

International Law MCQs, 2006

(1) principal of “double criminality” means that:

(a) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states
(b) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states but may be
punished in one
(c) that the offence for which a person is extradited must be an offence in both
the states
(d) none of these

(2) principal of “specialty” means that:

(a) the person extradited must be awarded special punishment by the requesting state
(b) the person extradited must not be awarded special punishment by the requesting
state
(c) the person extradited must be punished only for the offence for which he
has been extradited
(d) none of these

(3) features of international law include all except which of the following:

(a) there is no single legislative source of international law
(b) there is no single world court for interpreting international law
(c) there is no world executive branch that can enforce international laws
(d) none of these

(4)which of the following is not a source of international law?

(a) treaties and conventions
(b) custom
(c) judicial decisions and teachings
(d) none of these

(5)the United Nations is governed by all except which of the following?

(a) the general assembly
(b) the security council
(c) the secretariat
(d) none of these

(6)the group of European countries created to promote peace, security, economic and
social unity is called the:
(a) European market
(b) European union
(c) European coalition
(d) None of these

(7)GATT is a multilateral treaty that:

(a) restricts trade among non-member countries
(b) imposes multiple trade barriers among its member nations
(c) establishes trade agreements and limited tariffs and trade restrictions
(d) None of these

(8) the oldest principal of international law is the doctrine of:

(a) sovereign immunity
(b) foreign dignitaries
(c) religious freedom
(d) none of these

(9) diplomatic envoys are absolutely immuned from which of the following jurisdictions:
(a) criminal jurisdiction
(b) civil jurisdiction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

(10) which of the following is not an example of Extra-Territorial Asylum:

(a) asylum granted in a ship in high seas
(b) asylum granted in the premises of an international institution
(c) asylum granted in an embassy
(d) none of these

(11) universal declaration of human rights was passed in:

(a) Chicago
(b) London
(c) Berlin
(d) None of these (Paris 1948)

(12) “Continental Shelf” means:

(a) that portion of land which belongs to no state
(b) that portion of land on the South Pole which can be used by any state
(c) submerged bed of sea contiguous to a continental land mass
(d) none of these

(13) Vatican city is:

(a) a province of Italy
(b) is an independent state
(c) is not an independent state
(d) none of these

(14) the jurisdiction of the international court of justice:

(a) is binding on all the members of the UNO
(b) is not binding on all the members of the UNO
(c) is binding only upon the members of the SECURITY COUNCIL
(d) none of these
(15) a “Vassal State” is the one which is:
(a) situated on the sea shore
(b) an independent state
(c) under the suzerainty of another state
(d) none of these

(16) Confederation means:
(a) good diplomatic relation between some states
(b) union between some states
(c) relation between the provinces of a federal state
(d) none of these

(17) “Littoral State” means:

(a) situated on the sea coast
(b) an independent state
(c) under the suzerainty of another state
(d) none of these

(18) “Contiguous Zone” means:

(a) that portion of land which belongs to no state
(b) that portion of land on the South Pole which can be used by any state
(c) that portion of sea which is adjacent to territorial waters
(d) none of these

(19) “Maritime Belt” means:

(a) that portion of land which belongs to no state
(b) that portion of land on the South Pole which can be used by any state
(c) that portion of sea which is adjacent to the territory of a coastal state
(d) none of these

(20) “ Economic and Social Council”

(a) was an organ of the League of Nations
(b) is an organ of the WTO
(c) is an organ of UNO
(d) none of these

International Law MCQs, 2007

1. A state has the right to exploit in the Continental Shelf:
(a) living resources
(b) non-living resources
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

2. The principle of rabus sie stantibus means:

(a) a state cannot use force
(b) there is no crime without a law
(c) fundamental change of circumstances
(d) none of these

3. The Schooner Exchange case dealth with the principle of:

(a) a state has soverign right its natural resources
(b) A state courts have to accept the validity of a foreign state's acts
(c) a state's right of reprisals in case of violation of rights
(d) none of these

4. Hague convention of 1970 dealt in properly with the crimes realting to:
(a) refugees
(b) prisoners of war
(c) hijacking
(d) none of these

5. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:

(a) 1920
(b) 1945
(c) 1948
(d) none of these

6. Contiguous Zone in Pakistan is adjacent to and beyond the territorial waters and
extending seawards to a line:
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 24 nautical miles
(c) 60 nautical miles measured from the base-line
(d) none of these

7. De facto recognition is:

(a) legal recognition
(b) recognition in principle
(c) circumstantial recognition
(d) none of these

8. The limit of territorial waters of Pakistan is:

(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 20 nautical miles
(c) 24 nautical miles---beyond the land territory and internal waters of Pakistan,
measired from the base-line
(d) none of these

9. Continental shelf of Pakistan may extend upto a distance of:

(a) 150 nautical miles
(b) 200 nautical miles
(c) 300 nautical miles----beyond the limits of its territorial waters
(d) none of these

10. Exclusive Economic Zone of Pakistan is an area beyond and adjacent to the

territorial waters, the limit of which is:
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 100 nautical miles
(c) 200 nautical miles
(d) none of these

11.Select the correct one:

(a) only coastal states have the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas
(b) every state has the right to sail ships under its flag on the high seas
(c)only five big powers have the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas
(d) no state has the right to sail ships under their flags on the high seas

12. Convention on the Law os the Sea was signed at Jamaica in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1975
(c) 1982
(d) none of these

13. Statutes of International Courts of Justice were drawn up by:

(a) London Declaration in 1941
(b) Moscow and Tehran Conference in 1943
(c) San Francisco Conference in 1945
(d) none of these

14. According to the "floating island" theory, a "floating island" is:

(a) an island within three nautical miles from the coastof a country
(b) an island on the high seas, which is not the territory of any particular state
(c) a ship bearing the national flag of a state
(d) none of these

15.The Security Council is:

(a) Specialized agency of the U.N
(b) Principle organ of the U.N
(c) N.G.O. for settling disputes between various states
(d) none of these

16. In procedural matters, the decisions of the Security Council are made by the
affirmative votes of any:
(a) 5 members
(b) 9 members
(c) 15 members
(d) none of these

17. Extradition is normally granted:

(a) in all cases
(b) in criminal cases only
(c) in civil cases only
(d) none of these

18. What is CONTRABAND?

(a) all narcautics
(b) articles banned by a government
(c) all smuggled goods
(d) Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war

19. The term of Judges of the International Court of Justice is:

(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 9 years

20. A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction:

(a) in all cases
(b) in criminal cases
(c) in cases involving personal property
(d) none of these

International Law MCQs, 2008

1. Diplomatic protection is the protection which a state gives to:

(a) Its nations living abroad through its Embassies

(b) All diplomatic envoy on its own territory
(c) Its own diplomatic agents in the foreign states
(d) None of These
2. Pacta Sunt Servanda means:
(a) A diplomat not acceptable to the receiving state
(b) Agreement between states are to be respected
(c) A pact of ceasefire between the belligerent parties
(d) None of These
3. Briand Kellog Pact was meant to:
(a) End War between France and Britain
(b) Establish peace in western Europe
(c) Denounce war as an instrument for settling disputes.
(d) None of These
4. Treaty of Westphalia was signed in:

(a) 1658
(b) 1680
(c) 1776
(d) None of These(1648)
5. Permanent Court of International Justice was established in:

(a) 1919
(b) 1922
(c) 1915
(d) None of These
6. Srilankan High Commissioner in Islamabad, if found involved in a serious crime in
Pakistan, can be

(a) Arrested by local police and put to trial

(b) Arrested and handed over to his home govt
(c) Asked to leave the country by the local authorities
(d) None of These
7. The Law of War and Peace was writtern by:

(a) Hegel
(b) Kelsen
(c) Grotius
(d) None of These
8. Permanent Cout of Arbitration was an outcome of:

(a) League of Nations

(b) UNO
(c) Hague Conference 1907
(d) None of These
9. Albama claims Arbitration Award 1872 established certain principles of:

(a) Nationality
(b) Neutrality
(c) Extradition
(d) None of These
10. The leader of positive school of thought was:

(a) Bynkershok
(b) Stark
 (c) Extradition
(d) None of These
11. Contraband means:

(a) Things usable in war by one party against the other

(b) No war pact between the states parties
(c) Pact between the parties to stop the war temporarily
(d) None of These
12. In the continental Shelf the coastal has:

(a) The exclusive right over all resources

(b) The exclusive right over its living resources only
(c) Has The exclusive right over its non living resources
(d) None of These
13. Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was signed in:

(a) 1961
(b) 1969
(c) 1975
(d) None of These
14. Territorial sea of a coastal state is:

(a) open for innocent passage of all type of foreign ships

(b) open for innocent passage of all except the fishing ships
(c) Reserved for vessels of the coastal states only
(d) None of These
15. Cabotage is:

(a) Part of the Sea prohibited for war activity by law

(b) No fly zone , determined by UN during war
(c) Intercourse by sea between two ports of the same state
(d) None of These
16. Principle of Jus Soli is:

(a) Granting nationality on the basis of place of birth

(b) Granting nationality on the basis of parentage
(c) invalidation of a treaty due to change in circumstances
(d) None of These
17. UN Declaration of Human Rights was passed in:

(a) 1945
(b) 1948 (December)
(c) 1949
(d) None of These
18. Re Meunier and Re Castioni cases are test cases for:

(a) Extradition of military offenders

(b) Extradition of political offenders
(c) Determining the enemy Status of aliens during war
(d) None of These
19. All international Treaties signed by the Us president are subject to ratification by
the Us:

(a) Senate with 2/3 majority

(b) House of Representatives with 2/3 majority
(c) Congress with 2/3 majority
(d) None of These
20. Prize courts are:

(a) International Courts

(b) Municipal courts
(c) judicial tribunals under UNO
(d) None of These

21. International Law MCQs,

2009
22.

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box in the
answer sheet.

1. One of the modes of acquiring state territory is:

(a) Jurisdicition
(b) occupation
(c) insurjency (d)
Non of these

2. The name of the present secretary general of the UN is:

(a) Kofi Anaan
(b) Boutros gali
(c) Ban ke Mon (d)
Non of these

3. The preamble to the universal declariation on human rights was adopted on:
(a) 12 jan 1949
(b) 10 Dec 1948
(c) 6th Aug 1947
(d) Non of these

4. The right of innocent passage means:

(a) right of a foreign merchant ship to pass un-hindered through the
territorial sea of the cost
(b) Not to publicize dangers to navigation in the sea
(c) To over look regulations of marri-time traffic
(d) Non of these

5. The basic frame work for the nature and characteristics of treaties was defined
in the:
(a) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1969
(b) Geneva connvention on the high seas 1958
(c) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1986
(d) Non of these

6. With drawal of recognition is more easily achieved with respect to:

(a) Defact recognition
(b) Collective Recognition
(c) Implied Recognition
(d) Non of these

7. The father of International Law is:

(a) David Dudley field
(b) Hugo Grotius
(c) Geremy bentham
(d) Non of these

8. Internal waters of a state are, such waters which are:

(a) found on the land-ward side of base line from which the territorial
sea is measured.
(b) Adjusant to the exculsive fisheries zone.
(c) waters flowing into the high sea's
(d) Non of these

9. The doctrine of open sea was eloborated by:

(a) Blunt schilli
(b) Pufendorf
(c) Grotius
(d) Non of these

10. According to article 3 of the 1982 convention on the law of the sea the
breadth of the territorial sea is:
(a) 10 miles
(b) 12 miles
(c) 14 miles
(d) Non of these

11. The term Men of War signifies:

(a) Military personal
(b) A warship
(c) An aircraft carrier
(d) Non of these

12. The number of judges constituting the international court of justice are:
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) Non of these

13. Terra Nullius means:

(a) Island in the sea
(b) No territory
(c) Territory belonging to no state
(d) Non of these

14. The Acroniyum WMD stands for:

(a) Western missile defense
(b) Weapons of mass distruction(c) World metrological Department
(d) Non of these

15. Hot persuit is the principle designed to ensure:

(a) Vessiles voilating rules of coastal state cannot escape punishment by
fleeing to high sea's
(b) Capture
(c) Cancellation of Registration
(d) Non of these

16. Piracy, according to law of sea convention 1982 is:

(a) An illegal act by crew of private ship on the high sea's.
(b) An act of sabotage
(c) Act permisible in certain cases
(d) Non of these

17. The general assembly of the UN is :

(a) The most powerful organ
(b) A supervisory body
(c) An elected House
(d) Non of these

18. The charter of the UN is a comprehensive document having:

(a) 112 articles
(b) 111 articles
(c) 108 articles
(d) Non of these

19. One of the amicable means of settling state disputes is:

(a) Concillation
(b) Blockade
(c) War
(d) Non of these

20. The bulk of the rules of International law are derived from:
(a) Judicial decisions
(b) work of publicites
(c) Customs
(d) Non of these

International Law MCQs, 2010

1) Consuls, in receiving state are considered representative of:
(a) Head of State
(b) The government
(c) Foreign Office
(d) None of these

2) International law is not a true law but a positive international morality:

(a) Brierly
(b) Oppenheim
(c) John Austin
(d) None of these

3) Who is known as father of International law?

(a) Jessup
(b) Grotious
(c) Hegal
(d) None of these

4) Albama claim arbritation determines the principles of:

(a) Extradition
(b) Nationality
(c) Neutrality
(d) None of these
5) Decision of arbritation is:
(a) Binding on parties
(b) Not binding
(c) Partially binding
(d) None of these

6) Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965 was a:

(a) Non-war Armed conflict
(b) War
(c) Just border conflict
(d) None of these

7) Nationality of a women as a result of marriage with a foreigner is:

(a) Lost
(b) Changed
(c) Nothing is done
(d) None of these

8) Tashkent declaration between india and pakistan in 1966 by USSR was a:

(a) Conciliation
(b) Mediation
(c) Arbitration
(d) None of these

9) Geneva convention for POWs was signed in:

(a) 1949 (Also called 3rd Geneva)
(b) 1952
(c) 1945
(d) None of these

10) Armed attack on enemy fall under:

(a) Retortion
(b) Reprisal
(c) Intervention
(d) None of these

11) Briand-Kellog pact was signed in Paris in:

(a) 1923
(b) 1928(27 August 1928)
(c) 1945
(d) None of these

12) Universal declaration of Human rights was passed by:

(a) Geneva Convention
(b) Vienna Congress
(c) UN General Assembly in 1948
(d) None of these

13) Truce is:

(a) Agreement of ceasefire
(b) Peace treaty
(c) Agreement of exhange of Prisoners of War
(d) None of these

14) Concept of state will was first time given by:

(a) Hegel
(b) Grotious
(c) Bynkershoek
(d) None of these

15) If a pakistani citizen is involved in counterfeiting US currency, US can claim

jurisdiction over him on the basis of principle of:
(a) Subjective Territoriality
(b) Objective Territoriality
(c) Exta Territoriality
(d) None of these

16) Charge' d Affairs, appointed in a foreign state has to report to:

(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) Foreign Office
(d) None of these

17) Charter of international crimincal court was adopted in:

(a) Rome conference 1998
(b) Geneva Convention
(c) General Assembly
(d) None of these

18) Genocide Convention 1951 protects the:

(a) smaller minority groups
(b) Prisoners of war
(c) Non-combatants
(d) None of these

19) Extradition means:

(a) Capurting a criminal
(b) Exchange of Diplomats
(c) Exchange of criminals to other states
(d) None of these

20) International court of justice can exercise its jurisdiction on:

(a) All disputes between states
(b) With concent of any one party
(c) With concent of all parties
(d) None of these

International Law MCQs, 2011

Q.1. Select the best option /Answer and fill on the appropriate box on the
answer Sheet.
(i) Pakistan became the member of UNO in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d ) None of these

(ii) Articles of UN charter are:

(a) 115
(b) 111
(c) 120
(d) None of these

(iii) Which article of the statute of ICJ deals with the sources of
international law?
(a) 36
(b) 40
(c) 38
(d) None of these

(iv) Secretary General of UNO is from?

(a) Russia
(b) Holland
(c) South Korea
(d) None of these

(V) Total members of UNO are:

(a) 180
(b) 192
(c) 150
(d) None of these

(vi) The Headquarter of International court of Justice is at:

(a) Geneva
(b) Hague
(c) New York
(d) None of these

(vii) Which article of the 1982 Convention on the Law of the Sea deals
with the breadth of territorial sea?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) None of these

(viii) Who is called the father of the law of nations

(a) Jeremy Bentham
(b) Oppenheim
(c) Hugo Grotius
(d) None of these

(ix) The security Council takes enforcement measures with respect to

threats to the peace under chapter:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) None of these

(x) Locarno Pact (1925) concluded between:

(a) UK, France , Germany ,Belgium and Italy
(b) Russia , USA, China , Canada and Brazil
(c) Australia, Newzeland, Portugal, Argentina and Peru
(d) None of these

(xi) De Jure Belli Ac Pacis (The Law of War and Peace) was written by:
(a) Vattel
(b) Bynkershoek
(c) Hugo Grotius
(d) None of these

(xii) The Nuremberg Trial were held at:

(a) Holland
(b) USSR
(c) Germany
(d) None of these

(xiii) Territorial Waters and Maritime Zones Act ,1976 of Pakistan

contains articles:
(a) 20
(b) 17
(c) 14
(d) None of these

(xiv) "International law is not true law but a positive international

Morality" , said

(a) John Auston
(b) Oppenheim
(c) Hagel
(d) None of these

(xv) The term International Law was first coined by:

(a) Hugo Grotius
(b) Jeremy Bentham
(c) Hagel
(d) None of these

(xvi) One of the Presidents of USA is called the father of the League of
nations:
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Wilson
(d) None of these
(xvii) Extradition means:
(a) Handing over a diplomat to other state
(b) Handing over a spy to other state
(c) Handing over a criminal to other state
(d) None of these

(xviii) Persona non grata means;

(a) Ungrateful Diplomat
(b) Inefficient Diplomat
(c) Undesirable Diplomat
(d) None of these

(xix) One of the forcible means of settling of states disputes is :

(a) Conciliation
(b) Retorsion
(c) Arbitration
(d) None of these

Q.1. Select the best option /Answer and fill on the appropriate box on the
answer Sheet.
(i) Pakistan became the member of UNO in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d ) None of these

(ii) Articles of UN charter are:

(a) 115
(b) 111
(c) 120
(d) None of these

(iii) Which article of the statute of ICJ deals with the sources of
international law?
(a) 36
(b) 40
(c) 38
(d) None of these

(iv) Secretary General of UNO is from?

(a) Russia
(b) Holland
(c) South Korea
(d) None of these
(V) Total members of UNO are:
(a) 180
(b) 192
(c) 150
(d) None of these

(vi) The Headquarter of International court of Justice is at:

(a) Geneva
(b) Hague
(c) New York
(d) None of these

(vii) Which article of the 1982 Convention on the Law of the Sea deals
with the breadth of territorial sea?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) None of these

(viii) Who is called the father of the law of nations

(a) Jeremy Bentham
(b) Oppenheim
(c) Hugo Grotius
(d) None of these

(ix) The security Council takes enforcement measures with respect to

threats to the peace under chapter:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) None of these

(x) Locarno Pact (1925) concluded between:

(a) UK, France , Germany ,Belgium and Italy
(b) Russia , USA, China , Canada and Brazil
(c) Australia, Newzeland, Portugal, Argentina and Peru
(d) None of these

(xi) De Jure Belli Ac Pacis (The Law of War and Peace) was written by:
(a) Vattel
(b) Bynkershoek
(c) Hugo Grotius
(d) None of these

(xii) The Nuremberg Trial were held at:

(a) Holland
(b) USSR
(c) Germany
(d) None of these

(xiii) Territorial Waters and Maritime Zones Act ,1976 of Pakistan

contains articles:
(a) 20
(b) 17
(c) 14
(d) None of these

(xiv) "International law is not true law but a positive international

Morality" , said

(a) John Auston
(b) Oppenheim
(c) Hagel
(d) None of these

(xv) The term International Law was first coined by:

(a) Hugo Grotius
(b) Jeremy Bentham
(c) Hagel
(d) None of these

(xvi) One of the Presidents of USA is called the father of the League of
nations:
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Wilson
(d) None of these

(xvii) Extradition means:

(a) Handing over a diplomat to other state
(b) Handing over a spy to other state
(c) Handing over a criminal to other state
(d) None of these

(xviii) Persona non grata means;

(a) Ungrateful Diplomat
(b) Inefficient Diplomat
(c) Undesirable Diplomat
(d) None of these

(xix) One of the forcible means of settling of states disputes is :

(a) Conciliation
(b) Retorsion
(c) Arbitration
(d) None of these
(
xx) International Law Commission was established by the General
Assembly in pursuance of which article pf UN Charter?
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) None of these
xx) International Law Commission was established by the General
Assembly in pursuance of which article pf UN Charter?
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) None of these

(A) The doctrine, which accepted the "Law of Nature" as an independent

source of rules of the law of nations, was propounded by:
1: Bodin
2: Machiavelli
3: Hobbes
4: Grotius

(B) The permanent court of arbitration was established by:

1: The Hague Conferences of 1899 and 1907
2: The Washington Naval Conference of 1922
3: The Vienna Conference of 1968-69
4: The Geneva Convention of April 29, 1958.

(c) "International Law is not true Law but positive international morality
only". Who said it?
1: Pufendof
2: Austin
3: Bentham
4: Pollock

(D) "Treates are the supreme law of the land". Where is it laid down?
1: Constitution of USA
2: UN Charter
3: Statute of the ICJ
4: British Constitution

(E) When was Monroe Doctrine originally announced?

1: 1623
2: 1723
3: 1823
4: 1923

(F) A Vasal State is:

1: One which is completely under the suzerainty of another State
2: One which is supposed to exist in every vessel of the State, on the high seas.
3: A Protectorate
4: A State which is a member of common wealth

(G) A Condominium is :
1: A State of Chaos
2: A State enjoying Dominion status
3: A particular territory over which joint dominion is exercised by two or
more external powers.
4: A State with a Federal form of Constitution

(H) ANZUS stands for:

1: African National Zest Under Sovereignty
2: Association for security purpose of Australia, New Zealand and the
United States.
3: Afghan National Zealous United Struggle
4: All Nigerian Zambian Ugandan Society

(I) IAEA is used for:

1: International Atomic energy Agency
2: Islamic aid from Emirates for Afghanistan
3: International agency for Ethiopian Aid
4: Imperial Agency for Europ and Asia.

(J) What is Contraband?

1: All Narcotics
2: Articles banned by a government
3: All Smuggled material
4: Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war.
1. The UN charter also functions as a:
(a) Constitutional and Law making treaty
(b) Moral binding only
(c) Judicial decision
(d) None of these

2. The term “Opiniojuris” signifies:

(a) Just opinion
(b) The belief that a certain practice is obligatory as a matter of law
(c) Decision of publicists on law
(d) None of these

3. An entity have direct rights and duties under International Law is called: (a)
NGO
(b) Condominium
(c) International legal person
(d) None of these

4. The criteria for statehood generally recognized in customary International Law

was set in the:
(a) Island of Palmas case 1928
(b) Covenant of the League of Nations
(c) Monte video convention of the rights and duties of States (1933)
(d) None of these

5. A state that lies on an International river is known as:

(a) Coastal state
(b) Riparian state
(c) Littoral state
(d) None of these

6. War crimes are violations of the laws of war and in particular the:
(a) Geneva Conventions of 1949
(b) Declaration of Paris 1856
(c) Vienna Convention 1969
(d) None of these

7. Internal waters of a state include:

(a) Marginal belt or territorial sea
(b) Land locked seas and non-national rivers
(c) Gulfs and canals
(d) None of these

8. In the Geneva Convention on the High seas 1958 the term „High seas‟ means:
(a) Exclusive economic zone
(b) Continental shelf
(c) Waters of an archipelago state
(d) None of these

9. Validity of treaty and state consent is determined only by:

(a) Vienna Convention 1969
(b) State practice
(c) Provisions of the treaty itself
(d) None of these

10. The UN Charter consists of how many articles?

(a) 41
(b) 114
(c) 27
(d) None of these (111)

11. The status of the statute of the International Court of Justice is:
(a) Integral part of the UN Charter
(b) Inoperative
(c) Ineffective and obsolete
(d) None of these

12. Extradition means:

(a) Aggression
(b) Wilful defiance
(c) War crimes
(d) None of these (Extradition means handing over a person accused or
convict of a crime by a state to the demanding state)

13. Primary responsibility for Human Rights question is given by the UN Charter
to:
(a) Security Council
(b) ECOSOC
(c) General Assembly
(d) None of these

14. Most important treaties developing the laws of war are:

(a) Hague conventions of 1899 & 1907
(b) Locarno treaties
(c) Geneva conventions
(d) None of these

15. Peaceful methods of settlement of disputes under the UN Charter are: (a)
Blockade & Reprisals
(b) Recognition & Asylum
(c) Mediation & Inquiry
(d) None of these
16. “Equity” in International Law denotes:
(a) Flexibility
(b) Extra powers of Judges
(c) State practice
(d) None of these

17. The 1982 Convention on the Law of the Sea for common heritage of mankind
provides:
(a) Sea-bed, ocean floor & subsoil as common heritage
(b)Territorial sea and EEZ as commonly owned
(c) Equal sharing of marine resources of national waters
(d) None of these

18. What does the acronym UNDHR stands for:

(a) United Nations Development of Human Resource
(b) United Nations Doctrine of Human Rights
(c) United Nations Declaration of Human Rights
(d) None of these

19. Ban Ki Moon, the UN Secretary General belongs to

(a) North Korea
(b) South Korea
(c) Japan
(d) None of these

20. The United Nations Headquarters are in the city of:

(a) Hague
(b) New York
(c) Barcelona
(d) None of these