ProceedsofCrimeandAnti MoneyLaunderingAct9of2009

LAWS OF KENYA
THE PROCEEDS OF CRIME AND

ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ACT
NO. 9 OF 2009
Revised Edition 2022 [2009]

Published by the National Council for Law Reporting
with the Authority of the Attorney-General
www.kenyalaw.org
[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
Proceeds of Crime and Anti-Money Laundering
NO. 9 OF 2009
PROCEEDS OF CRIME AND ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ACT

ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS
PART I – PRELIMINARY
Section
1. Short title
2. Interpretation
PART II – MONEY LAUNDERING AND RELATED OFFENCES
3. Money laundering
4. Acquisition, possession or use of proceeds of crime
5. Failure to report suspicion regarding proceeds of crime
6. Defence
7. Financial promotion of an offence
8. Tipping off
9. Misrepresentation
10. Malicious Reporting
11. Failure to comply with the provisions of this Act
12. Conveyance of monetary instruments to or from Kenya
13. Misuse of information
14. Failure to comply with order of court
15. Hindering a person in performance of functions under this Act
16. Penalties
17. Secrecy obligations overridden
18. Client advocate relationship
19. Immunity where actions are exercised in good faith
20. Protection of information and informers
PART III – FINANCIAL REPORTING CENTRE
21. Establishment of a Financial Reporting Centre
22. Headquarters
23. Objectives of the Centre
24. Functions and powers of the Centre
24A. Instructions or directions
24B. Powers of the Centre to impose civil penalties for non-compliance
24C. Disclosure in writing
25. Appointment of Director-General
26. Resignation of Director-General
27. Removal from office
28. Responsibilities of the Director-General
29. Delegation by the Director-General
30. Repealed.
31. Appointment of staff
32. Oath of confidentiality
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33. Inspection
34. Obligation to respond to the inspection reports
35. Obligation of persons to provide information to the inspectors
36. Obligation of a supervisory body and its staff
36A. Responsibility for supervision of Reporting Institutions
37. The Centre’s power to obtain a search warrant
38. Property tracking and monitoring orders
39. Orders to enforce compliance with obligations under this Act
40. Constitution of funds
41. Financial year
42. Annual estimates
43. Books of accounts, records, audit and reports
PART IV – ANTI–MONEY LAUNDERING
OBLIGATIONS OF A REPORTING INSTITUTION
44. Monitoring and Report by institutions
44A. Intervention by Centre
45. Obligation to verify customer identity
45A. Higher risk countries
46. Obligation to establish and maintain customer records
47. Obligation to establish and maintain internal reporting procedures
47A. Obligation to register with the Centre
48. Application of reporting obligations
PART V – THE ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ADVISORY BOARD
49. The Anti-Money Laundering Advisory Board
50. Functions of the Board
51. Conduct of business of the Board
PART VI – THE ASSETS RECOVERY AGENCY
52. Definitions applicable to Parts VI-XII
53. The Agency and its Director
53A. Staff of the Agency
54. Functions and powers of the Agency
54A. Funds of the Agency
54B. Bank accounts
54C. Estimates of expenditure
54D. Accounts and audit
54E. Annual reports
54F. The common seal of the Agency
55. Co-operation with the Agency
55A. Asset Recovery Advisory Board
55B. Functions of the Advisory Board
55C. Conduct of business of the Advisory Board
55D. Advisory Board may co-opt members
55E. Allowances of the members of the Advisory Board
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55F. Agency to facilitate the Advisory Board

55G. Cabinet Secretary to make Regulations
PART VII – CRIMINAL FORFEITURE
Proceeds of Crime
56. Nature of proceedings
57. Realizable property
58. Value of property
59. Gifts
60. Conclusion of proceedings against defendant
Confiscation Orders
61. Confiscation orders
62. Value of proceeds of crime
63. Amount which might be realized
64. Statements relating to proceeds of crime
65. Evidence relating to proceeds of crime
66. Effect of confiscation orders
67. Procedure where person absconds or dies
68. Restraint orders
69. Cases in which restraint order may be made
70. Order to remain in force pending appeal
71. Seizure of property subject to restraint order
72. Appointment of manager in respect of property subject to restraint order
73. Orders in respect of immovable property subject to restraint order
74. Variation and rescission of certain orders suspended by appeal
75. Realization of property
76. Application of certain sums of money
77. Exercise of powers by court and receiver
78. Variation of confiscation orders
79. Effect of bankruptcy on realizable property
80. Effect of winding-up of companies or other legal entities on realizable
property
PART VIII – CIVIL FORFEITURE
Recovery and Preservation of Property
82. Preservation orders
83. Notice of preservation orders
84. Duration of preservation orders
85. Seizure of property subject to preservation orders
86. Appointment of manager in respect of property subject to preservation
orders
87. Orders in respect of immovable property subject to preservation order
88. Provision for expenses
89. Variation and rescission of orders
90. Application for forfeiture order
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91. Late service of notice

92. Making of forfeiture order
93. Protection of third parties
94. Exclusion of interests in property
95. Forfeiture order by default
96. Exclusion of interests in forfeited property
97. Appeal against forfeiture order
98. Effect of forfeiture order
99. Fulfilment of forfeiture order
PART IX – GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
PRESERVATION AND FORFEITURE OF PROPERTY
100. Offence may form the basis of multiple orders
101. Application of part to deceased estates
102. Effect of death of joint owner of preserved property
PART X – PRODUCTION ORDERS AND
OTHER INFORMATION GATHERING POWERS
103. Production orders
104. Evidential value of information
105. Failure to comply with a production order
106. Power to search for and seize documents relevant to locating property
107. Search warrant for location of documents relevant to locating property
108. Searches conducted without written reasons
PART XI – CRIMINAL ASSETS RECOVERY FUND
109. Establishment of Criminal Assets Recovery Fund
110. Finances of the Fund
111. Administration of the Fund
112. Functions of the Agency under this Part
113. Other matters to be prescribed
PART XII – INTERNATIONAL ASSISTANCE
IN INVESTIGATIONS AND PROCEEDINGS
114. Principles of mutuality
115. Request made by Kenya to other countries
116. Evidence, etc., obtained from another country
117. Transfer to Kenya of a person to assist in an investigation or proceedings
118. Requests to Kenya for evidence
119. Requests to Kenya for search warrants
120. Requests to Kenya for the enforcement of certain orders
PART XIII – MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
121. Access to information
122. Investigations
123. Sharing of information
124. Hearings of court to be open to public
125. Monitoring orders
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126. Monitoring orders not to be disclosed

127. Conduct of person outside Kenya
128. Admissibility of Electronic Evidence
129. Admissibility of statements and documents of persons who are dead or
cannot be traced, etc
130. Preservation of secrecy
130A. Rights and fundamental freedoms
130B. Limitation of right to privacy
130C. Transitional provision
131. Supersession
132. Amendment of Schedules
133. Consequential amendments
134. Regulations
SCHEDULES
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NO. 9 OF 2009
PROCEEDS OF CRIME AND ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ACT

[Date of assent: 31st December, 2009.]
[Date of commencement: 28th June, 2010.]
An Act of Parliament to provide for the offence of money laundering and
to introduce measures for combating the offence, to provide for the
identification, tracing, freezing, seizure and confiscation of the proceeds
of crime, and for connected purposes
[Act No. 9 of 2009, Legal Notice 89 of 2010, Act No. 51 of 2012, Act No. 14 of 2015, Act
No. 3 of 2017, Act No. 19 of 2015, Legal Notice 105 of 2017, Act No. 15 of 2017,
Act No. 10 of 2018, Act No. 18 of 2018, Act No. 24 of 2019, Act No. 16 of 2021.]
PART I – PRELIMINARY
1. Short title
This Act may be cited as the Proceeds of Crime and Anti-Money Laundering
Act, 2009.
2. Interpretation
In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires—
"account" includes any facility or arrangement by which a reporting
institution does any one or more of the following—
(a) accepts deposits of monetary instruments;
(b) allows withdrawals of monetary instruments or transfers into or out
of the account;
(c) pays cheques or payment orders drawn on a financial institution
or collects cheques or payment orders on behalf of any person;
(d) supplies a facility or arrangement for a safety or fixed term deposit
box;
"accounting officer" means an accounting officer appointed under section
17 of the Government Financial Management Act, 2004 (No. 5 of 2004);
"Advisory Board" means the Asset Recovery Advisory Board established
under section 55A;
"affected gift" means any gift made by the defendant at any time, if it was
a gift of property—
(a) received by that defendant in connection with an offence
committed by him or any other person; or
(b) any part thereof, which, directly or indirectly represents, in that
defendant’s hands, the property which that person received in that
connection with an offence:
Provided that any such gift was made on or after the commencement of this Act;
"Agency" means the Assets Recovery Agency established under section
53(1);
"Agency Director" means the Director of the Agency appointed under
section 53(2);
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"authorised officer" means—

(a) a police officer;
(b) an officer of the department of the Kenya Revenue Authority for
the time being responsible for matters relating to customs;
(c) Agency Director; or
(d) any person or class of persons designated by the Cabinet
Secretary as an authorised officer to perform any function under
this Act;
"Board" means the Anti-Money Laundering Advisory Board established
under section 49;
"Cabinet Secretary" means the Cabinet Secretary for the time being
responsible for matters relating to finance;
"Centre" means the Financial Reporting Centre established under section
21;
"confiscation order" means an order referred to in section 61;
"court" means a court of competent jurisdiction;
"customs" or "the customs" means the customs department of the Kenya
Revenue Authority;
"data" means representations, in any form, of information or concepts;
"defendant" means a person against whom a prosecution for an offence
has been instituted, irrespective of whether that person has been convicted or
not;
"designated non-financial businesses or professions" means—
(a) casinos (including internet casinos);
(b) real estate agencies;
(c) dealing in precious metals;
(d) dealing in precious stones;
(e) accountants who are sole practitioners, partners or employees
within professional firms;
(f) non-governmental organisations;
(fa) trust and company service providers;
(fb) advocates, notaries and other independent legal professionals
who are sole practitioners, partners or employees within
professional firms;
(g) such other business or profession in which the risk of money
laundering exists as the Cabinet Secretary may, on the advice of
the Centre, declare;
"Deputy Director"deleted by Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 2 (a);
"Director-General " means the Director-General appointed under section
25;
"document" means any record of information, and includes—
(a) anything on which there is writing;
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(b) anything on which there are marks, figures, symbols, or

perforations having meaning for persons qualified to interpret
them;
(c) anything from which sounds, images, writings or data can be
retrieved, with or without the aid of anything else; or
(d) a map, plan, drawing, photograph, video tape or similar thing;
"estate agency" in connection with the selling, mortgaging, charging, letting
or management of immovable property or of any house, shop or other building
forming part thereof, means doing any of the following acts—
(a) bringing together, or taking steps to bring together, a prospective
vendor, lessor or lender and a prospective purchaser, lessee or
borrower; or
(b) negotiating the terms of sale, mortgage, charge or letting as an
intermediary between or on behalf of either of the principals;
"financial institution" means any person or entity, which conducts as a
business, one or more of the following activities or operations—
(a) accepting deposits and other repayable funds from the public;
(b) lending, including consumer credit, mortgage credit, factoring, with
or without recourse, and financing of commercial transactions;
(c) financial leasing;
(d) transferring of funds or value, by any means, including both formal
and informal channels;
(e) issuing and managing means of payment (such as credit and debit
cards, cheques, travellers’ cheques, money orders and bankers’
drafts, and electronic money);
(f) financial guarantees and commitments;
(g) trading in—
(i) money market instruments, including cheques, bills,
certificates of deposit and derivatives;
(ii) foreign exchange;
(iii) exchange, interest rate and index funds;
(iv) transferable securities; and
(v) commodity futures trading;
(h) participation in securities issues and the provision of financial
services related to such issues;
(i) individual and collective portfolio management;
(j) safekeeping and administration of cash or liquid securities on
behalf of other persons;
(k) otherwise investing, administering or managing funds or money
on behalf of other persons;
(l) underwriting and placement of life insurance and other investment
related insurance; and
(m) money and currency changing;
Provided that this applies both to insurance underwriter and to insurance
intermediaries including agents and brokers;
"fixed date", in relation to a defendant against whom—
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(a) a prosecution for an offence has been instituted, means the date
on which such prosecution has been instituted; or
(b) a restraint order has been made means the date of such restraints
order, whichever is the earlier date;
"Fund" means the Criminal Assets Recovery Fund established under
section 109;
"inspector" means a person designated as such under this Act;
"Kenya Revenue Authority" means the Kenya Revenue Authority
established by section 3 of the Kenya Revenue Authority Act (Cap. 469);
"Minister"deleted by Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 2 (d);
"monetary instruments" means—
(a) coins and paper currency designated as legal tender of Kenya or
of a foreign country and which is customarily used and accepted
as a medium of exchange in Kenya or the country of issue;
(b) travellers' cheques, personal cheques, bank cheques, money
orders or securities;
(c) any other negotiable instrument which is in bearer form, or other
form through which title passes upon delivery;
"money laundering" means an offence under any of the provisions of
sections 3, 4 and 7;
"offence" in this Act, means an offence against a provision of any law in
Kenya, or an offence against a provision of any law in a foreign state for conduct
which, if it occurred in Kenya, would constitute an offence against a provision
of any law in Kenya;
"person" means any natural or legal person;
"proceeds of crime" means any property or economic advantage derived
or realized, directly or indirectly, as a result of or in connection with an offence
irrespective of the identity of the offender and includes, on a proportional
basis, property into which any property derived or realized directly from the
offence was later successively converted, transformed or intermingled, as well
as income, capital or other economic gains or benefits derived or realized from
such property from the time the offence was committed;
"property" means all monetary instruments and all other real or personal
property of every description, including things in action or other incorporeal or
heritable property, whether situated in Kenya or elsewhere, whether tangible
or intangible, and includes an interest in any such property and any such legal
documents or instruments evidencing title to or interest in such property;
"realizable property" means-
(a) property laundered;
(b) proceeds from or instrumentalities used in, or intended to be used
in money laundering or predicate offences;
(c) property that is the proceeds of, or used, or intended or allocated
for use in, the financing of any offence; and
(d) property of corresponding value;
"regulations" means regulations made under this Act;
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"reporting institution" means a financial institution and designated non-

financial business and profession;
"restraint order" means an order made under section 68;
"supervisory body" means a functionary or institution specified in the First
Schedule or such other functionary or institution as may be prescribed by the
Cabinet Secretary;
"tainted property" in relation to an offence means—
(a) any property used in, or in connection with, the commission of the
offence;
(b) any proceeds of the offence; or
(c) any property in Kenya which is the proceeds of a foreign offence
in respect of which an order may be registered, and when used
without reference to a particular offence means tainted property in
relation to an arrestable offence.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 2, Act No. 14 of 2015, s. 48, Act No. 3
of 2017, s. 2, Act No. 18 of 2018, Sch., Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 2.]
PART II – MONEY LAUNDERING AND RELATED OFFENCES

3. Money laundering
A person who knows or who ought reasonably to have known that property is
or forms part of the proceeds of crime and—
(a) enters into any agreement or engages in any arrangement or
transaction with anyone in connection with that property, whether that
agreement, arrangement or transaction is legally enforceable or not;
or
(b) performs any other act in connection with such property, whether it
is performed independently or with any other person, whose effect is
to—
(i) conceal or disguise the nature, source, location, disposition or
movement of the said property or the ownership thereof or any
interest which anyone may have in respect thereof; or
(ii) enable or assist any person who has committed or commits an
offence, whether in Kenya or elsewhere to avoid prosecution; or
(iii) remove or diminish any property acquired directly, or indirectly,
as a result of the commission of an offence,
commits an offence.
4. Acquisition, possession or use of proceeds of crime
A person who—
(a) acquires;
(b) uses; or
(c) has possession of,
property and who, at the time of acquisition, use or possession of such property,
knows or ought reasonably to have known that it is or forms part of the proceeds
of a crime committed by him or by another person, commits an offence.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 3]
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5. Failure to report suspicion regarding proceeds of crime

A person who wilfully fails to comply with an obligation contemplated in section
44 (2) commits an offence.
6. Defence
If a person is charged with committing an offence under section 3, 4 or 5, that
person may raise as a defence the fact that he had reported a suspicion under the
terms and conditions set forth in section 44 or, if the person is an employee of a
reporting institution, that he has reported information pursuant to section 47(a).
7. Financial promotion of an offence
A person who, knowingly transports, transmits, transfers or receives or attempts
to transport, transmit, transfer or receive a monetary instrument or anything of
value to another person, with intent to commit an offence, that person commits an
offence.
8. Tipping off
(1) A person who—
(i) knows or ought reasonably to have known that a report under section
44 is being prepared or has been or is about to be sent to the Centre;
and
(ii) discloses to another person information or other matters relating to a
report made under paragraph (i),
commits an offence.
(2) In proceedings for an offence under this section, it is a defence to prove that
the person did not know or have reasonable grounds to suspect that the disclosure
was likely to prejudice a report made under subsection (1).
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 4]
9. Misrepresentation
A person who knowingly makes a false, fictitious or fraudulent statement or
representation, or makes, or provides, any false document, knowing the same to
contain any false, fictitious or fraudulent statement or entry, to a reporting institution,
or to a supervisory body or to the Centre, commits an offence.
10. Malicious Reporting
Any person who wilfully gives any information to the Centre or an authorised
officer knowing such information to be false commits an offence.
11. Failure to comply with the provisions of this Act
(1) A reporting institution that fails to comply with any of the requirements of
sections 44, 45 and 46, or of any regulations, commits an offence.
(2) In determining whether a person has complied with any requirement of
the provisions referred to in subsection (1), the court shall have regard to all the
circumstances of the case, including such custom and practice as may, from time to
time, be current in the relevant trade, business, profession or employment, and may
take account of any relevant guidance adopted or approved by a public authority
exercising supervisory functions in relation to that person, or any other body that
regulates or is representative of the trade, business, profession or employment
carried on by that person.
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12. Conveyance of monetary instruments to or from Kenya

(1) A person intending to convey monetary instruments in excess of the amount
prescribed in the Second Schedule to or from Kenya shall, before so doing,
report the particulars concerning that conveyance to a person authorised by the
regulations for that purpose.
(2) A person authorised to receive a report made in subsection (1) shall, without
delay, send a copy of the report to the Centre.
(3) A person who wilfully fails to report the conveyance of monetary instruments
into or out of Kenya, or materially misrepresents the amount of monetary
instruments reported in accordance with the requirements of subsection (1)
commits an offence.
(4) Any monetary instrument used in a suspected violation of subsection (3), or
which an authorised officer has reasonable grounds to suspect is tainted property,
may be temporarily seized by an authorised officer for as long as is necessary to
obtain a court order under section 68 or 82, but not later than five days.
(5) An authorised officer making a temporary seizure under subsection (4) shall
give the person from whom the monetary instruments are seized—
(a) a receipt specifying—
(i) the name, agency, rank of the seizing officer;
(ii) contact information for that officer and agency;
(iii) time, date and location of seizure;
(iv) description (including serial numbers) of the value of and types
of instruments seized; and
(b) a formal notice of the authorised officer’s intent to initiate forfeiture
proceedings under this Act against the seized monetary instruments.
(5A) An authorised officer shall, upon discovery of a false declaration or
disclosure of monetary instruments or a failure to declare or disclose them, enquire
from the person in whose possession the monetary instruments are found the origin
thereof and their intended use, and shall record the same in writing signed by the
person in possession of the monetary instruments and countersigned by himself.
(5B) The authorized officer shall indicate in the prescribed form —
(a) the amount comprised in the monetary instruments declared or
disclosed, and
(b) the identity of the bearer of the monetary instruments,
and such information shall be retained for not less than seven years.
(5C) The information provided under subsection (5B) shall be used by the
appropriate authorities when —
(a) the subsequent declaration by the same person exceeds the
prescribed threshold specified in the Fourth Schedule; or
(b) there is false declaration; or
(c) there is suspicion of the commission of any other offence.
(6) An authorised officer, other than Agency Director, shall immediately but not
later than five days surrender monetary instruments seized under subsection (4)
to the Agency Director in such manner as the Agency Director may direct.
(7) If an authorised officer fails to obtain an order under section 68 or 82
against the temporarily seized monetary instruments within five days from the date
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of seizure pursuant to subsection (4), then, unless that period is otherwise extended
by the Court, the monetary instruments shall be returned forthwith to the person
from whom it was taken.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 5]
13. Misuse of information

(1) A person who knows or ought reasonably to have known—
(a) that information has been disclosed under the provisions of Part II; or
(b) that an investigation is being, or may be, conducted as a result of that
disclosure,
and directly or indirectly alerts, or brings information to the attention of another
person who will or is likely to prejudice the investigation, commits an offence.
(2) The information collected on natural persons under this section shall be
dealt according to the data principles set out in the Data Protection Act, 2019.
[Act No. 24 of 2019, 2nd Sch.]
14. Failure to comply with order of court

A person who intentionally refuses or fails to comply with an order of a court
made under this Act, commits an offence.
15. Hindering a person in performance of functions under this Act
A person who hinders a receiver, a police officer or any other person in the
exercise, performance or carrying out of their powers, functions or duties under
this Act, commits an offence.
16. Penalties
(1) A person who contravenes any of the provisions of sections 3, 4 or 7 is on
conviction liable—
(a) in the case of a natural person, to imprisonment for a term not
exceeding fourteen years, or a fine not exceeding five million shillings
or the amount of the value of the property involved in the offence,
whichever is the higher, or to both the fine and imprisonment; and
(b) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding twenty-five
million shillings, or the amount of the value of the property involved in
the offence, whichever is the higher.
(2) A person who contravenes any of the provisions of sections 5, 8, 11(1) or
13 is on conviction liable—
exceeding seven years, or a fine not exceeding two million, five
hundred thousand shillings, or to both and
(b) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding ten million
shillings or the amount of the value of the property involved in the
offence, whichever is the higher.
(3) A person who contravenes the provisions of section 12(3) is on conviction,
liable to a fine not exceeding ten percent of the amount of the monetary instruments
involved in the offence.
(4) A person who contravenes the provisions of section 9, 10 or 14 is on
conviction liable—
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exceeding two years, or a fine not exceeding one million shillings, or
to both and
(b) in the case of a body corporate, to a fine not exceeding five million
shillings or the amount of the value of the property involved in the
offence, whichever is the higher.
(5) Deleted by Act No. 51 of 2012.
(6) Where any offence under this Part is committed by a body corporate with the
consent or connivance of any director, manager, secretary or any other officer of
the body corporate, or any person purporting to act in such capacity, that person, as
well as the body corporate, shall be prosecuted in accordance with the provisions
of this Act.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 6]
17. Secrecy obligations overridden

(1) The provisions of this Act shall override any obligation as to secrecy or other
restriction on disclosure of information imposed by any other law or otherwise.
(2) No liability based on a breach of an obligation as to secrecy or any restriction
on the disclosure of information, whether imposed by any law, the common law or
any agreement, shall arise from a disclosure of any information in compliance with
any obligation imposed by this Act.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 7]
18. Client advocate relationship

(1) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 17, nothing in this Act shall affect
or be deemed to affect the relationship between an advocate and his client with
regard to communication of privileged information between the advocate and the
client.
(2) The provisions of subsection (1) shall only apply in connection with the
giving of advice to the client in the course and for purposes of the professional
employment of the advocate or in connection and for the purpose of any legal
proceedings on behalf of the client.
(3) Notwithstanding any other law, a Judge of the High Court may, on application
being made to him in relation to an investigation under this Act, order an advocate
to disclose information available to him in respect of any transaction or dealing
relating to the matter under investigation.
(4) Nothing in subsection (3) shall require an advocate to comply with an order
under that subsection to the extent that such compliance would be in breach of
subsection (2).
19. Immunity where actions are exercised in good faith
A suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings shall not lie against any reporting
institution or Government entity, or any officer, partner or employee thereof, or any
other person in respect of anything done by or on behalf of that person with due
diligence and in good faith, in the exercise of any power or the performance of any
function or the exercise of any obligation under this Act.
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20. Protection of information and informers

(1) Where any information relating to an offence under this Act is received by
the Centre or an authorised officer, the information and the identity of the person
giving the information shall be kept confidential.
(2) Subsection (1) shall not apply to information and identity of a person giving
the information—
(a) where it is for the purposes of assisting the Centre or the authorised
officer to carry out their functions as stated under this Act; or
(b) with regard to a witness in any civil or criminal proceedings—
(i) for the purposes of this Act; or
(ii) where the court is of the opinion that justice cannot fully be
done between the parties without revealing the disclosure or
the identity of any person as the person making the disclosure.
PART III – FINANCIAL REPORTING CENTRE
21. Establishment of a Financial Reporting Centre
There is established a centre to be known as the Financial Reporting Centre,
(hereinafter referred to as the "Centre") which shall be a body corporate, with
perpetual succession and a common seal and shall be capable, in its corporate
name, of—
(a) suing and being sued;
(b) taking, purchasing or otherwise acquiring, holding or disposing of
movable and immovable property;
(c) entering into contracts;
(d) doing or performing such other things or acts necessary for the proper
performance of its functions under this Act which may lawfully be done
by a body corporate.
22. Headquarters
The headquarters of the Centre shall be in Nairobi.
23. Objectives of the Centre
(1) The principal objective of the Centre is to assist in the identification of the
proceeds of crime and the combating of money laundering and the financing of
terrorism.
(2) Without prejudice to subsection (1), the Centre shall—
(a) make information collected by it available to investigating authorities,
supervisory bodies and any other bodies relevant to facilitate the
administration and enforcement of the laws of Kenya;
(b) exchange information with similar bodies in other countries regarding
money laundering activities and related offences; and
(c) ensure compliance with international standards and best practice in
anti-money laundering measures.
[Act No. 14 of 2015, s. 49]
24. Functions and powers of the Centre

The Centre—
(a) shall receive, analyse and interpret-
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(i) reports of usual or suspicious transactions made by reporting

institutions pursuant to section 12;
(ii) all reports made pursuant to section 44;
(iii) information disclosed to it pursuant to section 42 of the
Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2012; and
(iv) any additional or other information disclosed to it and obtained
by it in terms of this Act.
(b) shall send reports received under this Act to the appropriate
law enforcement authorities, any intelligence agency, or any other
appropriate supervisory body for further handling if, having considered
the reports, the Director-General has reasonable grounds to suspect
that a transaction or activity involves proceeds of crime, money
laundering or financing of terrorism.
(c) may, at any time, cause an inspection to be made by an
inspector authorised by the Director-General in writing and the
inspector may enter the premises of any reporting institution during
ordinary business hours to inspect any documents kept under the
requirements of this Act, and ask any question relating to the
documents, make notes and take copies of the whole or any part of
the documents;
(d) shall send to the appropriate law enforcement authorities, intelligence
agency, or supervisory body any other information derived from an
inspection carried out pursuant to paragraph (c) if such inspection
gives the Director-General reasonable grounds to suspect that a
transaction or activity involves proceeds of crime, money laundering
or financing of terrorism.
(e) may instruct any reporting institution to-
(i) provide it with such other or additional information or additional
documents to enable the centre to properly undertake its
functions under this Act; or
(ii) take such steps as may be appropriate to facilitate any
investigation undertaken or to be undertaken by the Centre,
including providing documents and other relevant information.
(f) may compile statistics and records, disseminate information within
Kenya or elsewhere, and make recommendations arising out of any
information received, issue guidelines to reporting institution and
advise the Cabinet Secretary;
(g) shall design training requirements and may provide such training for
any reporting institution in respect of transactions, record-keeping and
reporting obligations in accordance with the provisions of this Act;
(h) may consult with any relevant person, institution or organization for
the purpose of exercising the powers or duties under this Act;
(i) may, from time to time, publish in the Gazette such information as
may be prescribed by the Cabinet Secretary;
(j) shall create and maintain a database of all reports of suspicious
transactions, related Government information and such other
materials as the Director-General may from time to determine to be
relevant to the work of the Centre;
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(k) may provide information relating to the commission of an offence

to any foreign financial intelligence unit or appropriate foreign law
enforcement authority, subject to provisions of this Act and any
conditions as may be considered appropriate by the Director-
General ;
(l) may, on the basis of mutual agreement and reciprocity, enter into
any agreement or arrangement, in writing, with a foreign financial
intelligence unit which the Director-General considers necessary or
desirable for the discharge or performance of the functions of the
Centre:
Provided that the Director-General is satisfied, on a case by case basis, that
the foreign financial intelligence unit has given appropriate undertakings—
(i) for protecting the confidentiality of anything communicated to it; and
(ii) for controlling the use that will be made of that information including
an undertaking that it will not be used as evidence in any proceedings;
(m) shall draft the regulations required by this Act, in consultation with the
Board, for submission to the Cabinet Secretary for his approval, prior
to publication in the Gazette;
(n) shall set anti-money laundering policies in consultation with the Board;
(o) shall maintain proper books of accounts;
(oo) shall have power to compel the production of, or to obtain access to all
records, documents or information relevant to monitoring compliance
outside the scope of onsite inspection;
(p) shall engage in any lawful activity, whether alone or together with
any other organization in Kenya or elsewhere, aimed at promoting its
objectives;
(q) shall perform such other functions in relation to money laundering as
the Cabinet Secretary may direct;
(r) The Centre may request any supervisory body, monetary authority,
financial regulatory authority, fiscal or tax agency, or fraud
investigations agency to provide it with information where such
information is reasonably required for the proper discharge of the
functions of the Centre under this Act or for purposes of achieving the
objectives of the Act; and
(s) shall have all the powers necessary or expedient for the proper
performance of its functions.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 8, Act No. 14 of 2015, s.
50, Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 3, Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 3.]
24A. Instructions or directions

(1) The Center may issue such instructions, directions, guidelines or rules to
reporting institutions as it may consider necessary for the better carrying out of its
functions under this Act or regarding the application of this Act.
(2) Any instructions, directions, guidelines or rules issued under this section
may —
(a) be either general or special;
(b) be revoked or varied by subsequent instructions, directions,
guidelines or rules;
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(c) be given to such persons and in such manner as may be considered

appropriate by the Centre.
(3) The Center may, where it deems appropriate, delegate powers to a
supervisory body to issue instructions, directions, guidelines or rules regarding
the application of this Act to reporting institutions regulated or supervised by the
supervisory body:
Provided that a supervisory body shall consult the Centre prior to issuing any
instructions, directions, guidelines or rules under this section.
(4) Notwithstanding subsections (1), (2) and (3), the Centre or a supervisory
body may in writing, direct any reporting institution to which the provisions of this
Act applies, to —
(a) provide the Center or that supervisory body, as the case may be —
(i) with the information reports or statistical returns specified in the
notice, at the time or at the intervals specified in the notice; and
(ii) within the period specified in the notice, with any document in
its possession or custody or under its control;
(b) cease or refrain from engaging in any act, omission or conduct in
contravention of this Act;
(c) perform such act as may be necessary to remedy alleged non-
compliance with this Act; or
(d) perform such act as may be necessary to meet any obligation imposed
by this Act.
(5) The Centre or a supervisory body may examine a document submitted to it
in terms of subsection (4)(a) and may make a copy thereof or of part thereof.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 9]
24B. Powers of the Centre to impose civil penalties for non-compliance

(1) Without derogating from any criminal penalty or other sanction that may be
imposed by this Act, where a person or a reporting institution is in breach of, or
fails to comply with any instruction, direction or rules issued by the Centre under
section 24A—
(a) in the case of a natural person, a person shall be liable to a monetary
penalty not exceeding five million shillings;
(b) in the case of a corporate body, the corporate body shall be liable to
a monetary penalty not exceeding twenty five million shillings;
(c) in the case of continued failure, the person or reporting institution shall
be liable to an additional monetary penalty of ten thousand shillings
per day on which such failure continues for a maximum period of one
hundred and eighty days.
(2) Before imposing a monetary penalty on any person or reporting institution
under this section, the Centre shall give not less than fourteen days notice in writing,
requiring the person or reporting institution to show cause as to why the prescribed
monetary penalty should not be imposed.
(3) Where a monetary penalty is prescribed under this section, such penalty
shall-
(a) be paid to the Centre and form part of the funds of the Centre;
(b) be paid within fourteen days, unless otherwise stated; and
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(c) where a person or reporting institution fails to pay the monetary

penalty within the prescribed time, the Centre may take such other
action as the Centre may deem necessary in accordance with this Act.
(4) A monetary penalty imposed on a person under this section shall be a
debt due to the Centre and shall, after it becomes due be recoverable at any time
through proceedings in a court of competent jurisdiction.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 4]
24C. Disclosure in writing

(1) The Centre may for reasons disclosed in writing—
(a) issue a warning to a specified person or reporting institution; or
(b) issue an order requiring a specified person or reporting institution to
comply with any specific instruction or direction issued by the Centre;
(c) issue an order barring an individual or individuals from employment
within the specified reporting institution whether entirely or in a
specified capacity;
(d) issue an order to a competent supervisory authority requesting
the suspension or revocation of a license, registration, permit or
authorization of a specified reporting institution whether entirely or
in a specified capacity or of any director, principal, officer, agent or
employee of the reporting institution.
(2) Before taking administrative action imposed against any person or reporting
institution under this section, the Centre shall give the person or reporting institution
a written notice of not less than fourteen days requiring the person or institution to
show cause as to why the prescribed administrative action should not be taken.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 4]
25. Appointment of Director-General

(1) There shall be a Director-General of the Centre.
(2) The Director-General shall be fit, competent and proper persons,
recommended by the Board and approved by the National Assembly for
appointment to their respective positions.
(3) On approval of a person by the National Assembly under subsection (2),
the Cabinet Secretary shall appoint that person to the office in respect of which the
approval was given.
(4) A person shall not be appointed as a Director-General unless that person—
(a) holds a degree in law, public administration, management,
international relations, economics or finance from a recognised
institution;
(b) has at least ten years work experience in the relevant field, of which
at least three shall be in senior management; and
(c) meets such other requirements that may be prescribed by the Board.
(5) The persons appointed as the Director-General shall hold office—
(a) for a term of four years and three years, respectively, subject
to renewal for one further term of four years and three years,
respectively; and
(b) on such terms and conditions as may be determined by the
Cabinet Secretary in consultation with the Board and set out in
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
the instrument of appointment which shall include specific and

measurable performance targets.
(6) The provisions of subsection (3) shall apply to the renewal of an appointment
under subsection (5)(a).
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 5, Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 4.]
26. Resignation of Director-General

(1) The Director-General may resign by a written resignation addressed to the
Cabinet Secretary.
(2) A resignation is effective upon being received by the Cabinet Secretary or
by a person authorized by the Cabinet Secretary to receive it.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 6. Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 5.]
27. Removal from office

(1) The Cabinet Secretary may, in consultation with the Board, remove the
Director-General from office on the grounds of gross misconduct, mental or
physical incapacity or failure to satisfy the terms and conditions of service set forth
in section 25(5)(b), or—
(a) where there is proof of a financial conflict of interest with any reporting
institution;
(b) if he is adjudged bankrupt or enters into a composition or scheme of
arrangement with his creditors; or
(c) if he has been convicted of an offence for which one may be
sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six months.
(2) The Cabinet Secretary may, in consultation with the Board, suspend the
Director-General from office pending determination of any inquiry as to whether
grounds of misconduct, incapacity or incompetence exist.
28. Responsibilities of the Director-General

(1) The Director-General shall be the Chief Executive Officer of the Centre and
shall be responsible for its direction and management.
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1), the Director-General
as the Chief Executive Officer shall be responsible for—
(a) the formation and development of an efficient and performance driven
administration;
(b) control and maintenance of discipline of staff; and
(c) taking all decisions of the Centre in the exercise, discharge and
performance of the Centre's objectives, powers, functions and duties.
(3) The Director-General shall perform the functions of the office subject to the
policy framework which may be prescribed by the Cabinet Secretary on the advice
of the Board.
29. Delegation by the Director-General

(1) Subject to this Act, the Director-General may in writing, delegate any of his
powers and duties under this Act to any other officer or officers of the Centre as
the Director-General may determine.
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(2) A delegation made under subsection (1) may, at any time, be varied or
cancelled by the Director-General.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 9]
30. Repealed.
Repealed by Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 8.
31. Appointment of staff
(1) The Cabinet Secretary may approve the general terms and conditions of
service of the Centre.
(2) The Centre shall determine its own staff establishment and may appoint
other officers as are necessary for the proper discharge of its functions under this
Act in
accordance with the approved general terms and conditions of service.
(3) The Centre may engage the services of any person by agreement including
any state department to perform any specific act or function.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 11]
32. Oath of confidentiality

The Director-General and staff of the Centre shall—
(a) before they begin to perform any duties under this Act, take and
subscribe before a Magistrate or Commissioner for Oaths the oath of
confidentiality prescribed in the Third Schedule;
(b) maintain, during and after their employment, the confidentiality of any
matter which they came across during their tenure of office.
33. Inspection
(1) Where an inspection is made under section 24(c), the reporting institution
concerned and every officer and employee thereof shall produce and make
available to the inspector all the books, accounts and other documents of the
reporting institution and any correspondence, statements and information relating
to the reporting institution, its business and the conduct thereof which the inspector
may require within seven days or such longer time as the inspector may direct in
writing.
(2) Failure to produce books, accounts, records, documents, correspondence,
statements, returns or other information within the period specified in the direction
under subsection (1) shall constitute an offence under this Act.
(3) The books of accounts and other documents required to be produced shall
not, in the course of inspection, be removed from the premises of the reporting
institution or other premises at which they are produced.
(4) The inspector shall make copies of any books, accounts and other
documents required for the purpose of the inspector’s report.
(5) All information obtained in the course of the inspection shall be treated as
confidential and used solely for the purposes of this Act.
(6) An inspector shall submit a report to the Director-General, in which attention
shall be made to any breach or non-observance of the requirement of this Act or
any regulations made thereunder and any other matter revealed or discovered in
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
the course of the inspection, warranting in the opinion of the inspector, remedial
action or further action by the Director-General or the appropriate supervisory body.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 13]
34. Obligation to respond to the inspection reports

The Director-General may by notice in writing and after giving the reporting
institution a reasonable opportunity of being heard, require the reporting institution
to comply by the date or within the period as may be specified therein, with such
directions as are necessary in connection with any matter arising out of a report
made under section 33.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 14]
35. Obligation of persons to provide information to the inspectors

(1) The Director-General may, by notice in writing, require any person who is
or has at any time been an employee or agent of the reporting institution being
inspected, to—
(a) give to the inspector all reasonable assistance in connection with the
inspection; or
(b) appear before the inspector for examination concerning matters
relevant to the inspection; or
(c) produce any books or documents that relate to the affairs of the
reporting institution.
(2) A person who—
(a) refuses or fails to comply with a requirement of an inspector which is
applicable to that person, to the extent to which the person is able to
comply with it; or
(b) obstructs or hinders an inspector in the exercise of the powers under
this Act; or
(c) furnishes information which the person knows to be false or
misleading in any material way; or
(d) appears before an inspector for examination pursuant to such
requirement and makes a statement which the person knows to be
false or misleading in any material way,
commits an offence.
(3) A person who contravenes the provisions of this section shall be liable on
conviction to—
(a) in case of a natural person, imprisonment for a term not exceeding
three years or a fine not exceeding one million shillings, or to both; and
(b) in the case of a body corporate a fine not exceeding five million
shillings.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 15]
36. Obligation of a supervisory body and its staff

(1) A supervisory body and its staff shall report to the Centre any suspicious
transaction that the supervisory body or its staff may encounter during the normal
course of their duties.
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(2) A person who as an employee of a supervisory body deliberately or with

intention to deceive does not make a report in accordance with this section commits
an offence.
(3) A person who contravenes the provisions of this provision is liable on
conviction to—
(a) in the case of a natural person, imprisonment for a term not exceeding
three years or a fine not exceeding one million shillings, or to both; and
(b) in the case of a body corporate, a fine not exceeding five million
shillings.
36A. Responsibility for supervision of Reporting Institutions
(1) The Centre shall have the powers to regulate and supervise all reporting
institutions, regarding the application of this Act.
(2) Subject to subsection (1), each supervisory body shall be responsible for
supervising and enforcing compliance with this Act or any instruction, direction,
guideline or rule made pursuant to or in terms of this Act by all reporting institutions
regulated or supervised by it and to whom the provision of this Act apply.
(3) The obligation referred to in subsection (2) shall form part of the legislative
mandate of any supervisory body and shall constitute a core function of that
supervisory body.
(4) Any law which regulates a supervisory body or authorises that supervisory
body to supervise or regulate any reporting institution to whom the provisions of
this Act apply, shall take account of subsection (2), and a supervisory body may
utilise any fees or charges it is authorised to impose or collect to defray expenditure
incurred in performing its obligations under this Act or any order, determination or
directive made in terms of this Act.
(5) A supervisory body, in meeting its obligation referred to in subsection (2),
may —
(a) in addition to any powers it has under any other Act, exercise any
power afforded to it in this Act;
(b) take any measures it considers necessary or expedient to meet
its obligations as imposed by this Act or any order, determination,
instruction, directive or rule made in terms of this Act, or achieve the
objectives of the Centre of this Act;
(c) require a reporting institution supervised or regulated by it and to
whom, the provisions of this Act apply, to report on that institution's
compliance with this Act or any order, determination, instruction,
directive or rule made under this Act in the form manner and within
the period determined by the supervisory body;
(d) issue or amend any licence, registration, approval or authorisation
that the supervisory body may issue or grant in accordance with any
Act, to include the following conditions —
(i) compliance with this Act;
(ii) the continued availability of human financial, technological and
other resources to ensure compliance with this Act or any order,
determination or directive made under this Act; and
(e) in making a determination in accordance with any Act applicable to it
as to whether a person is fit and proper to hold office in a reporting
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
institution, take into account any involvement, whether directly or

indirectly, by that person in any non-compliance with this Act or any
order, determination, instruction, directive or rule made in terms of this
Act, or any involvement in any money laundering activity.
(6) A supervisory body shall submit to the Centre, within such period and in
such manner, as the Centre may prescribe, a written report on any action taken
against any reporting institution in terms of this Act or any order, determination,
directive, instruction, or rule made under this Act.
(7) The Centre and each supervisory body shall co-ordinate the exercising of
their powers and performance of their functions under this Act to ensure consistent
application of the Act, and may for such purpose; enter into a written memorandum
of understanding in respect thereof.
(8) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1) or any other provision of
this Act, the Centre may require a reporting institution to report on that institution's
compliance with this Act or any order, determination, instruction, or direction in the
manner and within such period as may be determined by the Centre.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 10, Act No. 14 of 2015, s. 51]
37. The Centre’s power to obtain a search warrant

(1) The Centre or the appropriate law enforcement agency, may apply to the
High Court for a warrant to enter any premises belonging to or in the possession or
control of a reporting institution or any officer or employee thereof, and to search
the premises and remove any document, material or other thing therein for the
purposes of the Centre, as ordered by the High Court and specified in the warrant.
(2) The High Court may grant the application if it is satisfied that there are
reasonable grounds to believe that—
(a) the reporting institution has failed to keep or produce documents,
records, or report on a suspicious transaction, as required by this Act;
or
(b) an officer, employee or partner of a reporting institution is committing,
has committed or is about to commit any offence under this Act.
38. Property tracking and monitoring orders
For the purpose of determining whether any property belongs to or is in the
possession or under the control of any person, the Centre, may upon application
to the High Court, obtain an order—
(a) that any document relevant to—
(i) identifying, locating or quantifying that property; or
(ii) identifying or locating any document necessary for the transfer
of that property, belonging to, or in the possession or control of
that person, be delivered forthwith to the Centre;
(b) that the reporting institution forthwith produce to the Centre or the
appropriate law enforcement agency all information obtained about
any transaction conducted by or for that person during such period
before or after the order as the High Court may direct.
39. Orders to enforce compliance with obligations under this Act
(1) A person who fails to comply with any obligation provided for under this Act,
commits an offence.
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(2) The Centre may, upon application to the High Court, after satisfying
the Court that a reporting institution has refused to comply with any obligation,
request or requirements under this Act, obtain an order against all or any officers,
employees or partners of the reporting institution in such terms as the High Court
may deem necessary, in order to enforce compliance with such obligation.
(3) In granting the order pursuant to subsection (2), the High Court may order
that should the reporting institution fail, without reasonable excuse, to comply with
all or any provisions of the order, may order that institution, its officers, employees
or partners to pay a fine not exceeding one million shillings for an individual and a
fine not exceeding five million shillings for a body corporate.
40. Constitution of funds
(1) The funds of the Centre shall consist of—
(a) money appropriated by Parliament for the purposes of the Centre;
(b) any Government grants made to it;
(c) any other money legally acquired by it, provided that the Centre may
accept donations only with the prior written approval of the Cabinet
Secretary.
(2) The sharing of information by the Centre shall be with adherence to the data
principles set out in the Data Protection Act, 2019.
[Act No. 24 of 2019, 2nd Sch., Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 10.]
41. Financial year

The financial year of the Centre shall be a period of twelve months ending on
the thirtieth June of each year.
42. Annual estimates
(1) At least three months before the commencement of each financial year, the
Centre shall cause to be prepared estimates of the revenue and expenditure of the
Centre for that year.
(2) The annual estimates shall make provision for all the estimated expenditure
of the Centre for the financial year and in particular, the estimates shall provide
for—
(a) the payment of salaries, allowances and other charges in respect of
the staff of the Centre;
(b) the payment of pensions, gratuities and other charges in respect of
the staff of the Centre;
(c) the proper maintenance of the buildings and grounds of the Centre;
(d) the maintenance, repair and replacement of the equipment and other
property of the Centre.
(3) The annual estimates shall be approved by the Board before the
commencement of the financial year to which they relate and shall be submitted to
the Cabinet Secretary for approval and after the Cabinet Secretary’s approval, the
Centre shall not increase the annual estimates without the consent of the Cabinet
Secretary.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 11.]
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
43. Books of accounts, records, audit and reports

(1) The Centre shall cause to be kept proper books of accounts and records of
accounts of the income, expenditure, assets and liabilities of the Centre.
(2) The Centre shall within three months of the closure of the financial year
submit to the Controller and Auditor-General—
(a) a statement of income and expenditure during that period;
(b) a statement of the assets and liabilities of the Centre on the last day
of that year.
(3) The accounts of the Centre shall be audited and reported upon in
accordance with the Public Audit Act (No. 13 of 2003).
PART IV – ANTI–MONEY LAUNDERING
OBLIGATIONS OF A REPORTING INSTITUTION
44. Monitoring and Report by institutions
(1) A reporting institution shall monitor on an ongoing basis all complex,
unusual, suspicious, large or such other transactions as may be specified
in the regulations, whether completed or not, and shall pay attention to all
unusual patterns of transactions, and to insignificant but periodic patterns of
transactions which have no apparent economic or lawful purpose as stipulated in
the regulations.
(2) Upon suspicion that any of the transactions or activities described in
subsection (1) or any other transaction or activity could constitute or be related to
money laundering or to the proceeds of crime, a reporting institution shall report
the suspicious or unusual transaction or activity to the Centre in the prescribed
form immediately and, in any event, within seven days of the date the transaction
or activity that is considered to be suspicious occurred.
(3) Notwithstanding subsections (1) and (2), a reporting institution shall report
all suspicious transactions, including attempted transactions to the Centre.
(4) A financial institution shall as far as possible examine the background and
purpose of the transactions referred in subsections (1) and (2) and shall set out
its findings in writing.
(5) A reporting institution shall retain its findings under subsection (4) for at least
seven years from the date of the making thereof, and shall make them available to
the Centre, and to its supervisory body or auditors.
(6) Despite the provisions of this section, a reporting institution shall file reports
on all cash transactions equivalent to or exceeding the amount prescribed in the
Fourth Schedule, whether they appear to be suspicious or not.
(7) A report under subsections (2) and (3) shall be accompanied by copies of
all documentation directly relevant to the suspicion and the grounds on which it
is based.
(8) The Centre may, in writing, require the person making the report under
subsection (2) or (3) to provide the Centre with—
(a) particulars or further particulars of any matter concerning the
suspicion to which the report relates and the grounds upon which it
is based; and
(b) copies of all available documents concerning such particulars or
further particulars.
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(9) When a person receives a request under subsection (8), that person shall
furnish the Centre with the required particulars or further particulars and copies of
documents to the extent that such particulars or documents are available to that
person within a reasonable time, but in any case not later than thirty days from the
date of the receipt of the request:
Provided that the Centre may, upon written application by the person responding
to a request and with the approval of the Director-General, grant the person an
extension of the time within which to respond.
(10) A person who is a party to, or is acting on behalf of, a person who
is engaged in a transaction in respect of which he forms a suspicion which, in
his opinion, should be reported under subsections (2) or (3), may continue with
and complete that transaction and shall ensure that all records relating to that
transaction are kept, and that all reasonable steps are taken to discharge the
obligation under this section.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 11, Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 16]
44A. Intervention by Centre

(1) Where the Centre, after consulting a reporting institution or a person
required to make a report in terms of section 44, has reasonable grounds to suspect
that a transaction or a proposed transaction may—
(a) constitute money laundering and related activities; or
(b) involve—
(i) the proceeds of crime or proceeds of unlawful activities or
property which is connected to the proceeds of crime or
unlawful activities and related activities; or
(ii) the proceeds of, or property which is connected to an offence
relating to the financing of terrorism and related activities; or
(iii) property owned or controlled by or on behalf of, or at
the direction of a person or entity identified or designated
pursuant to the Prevention of Terrorism (Implementation of the
United Nations Security Council Resolutions on Suppression of
Terrorism) Regulations, 2013 and related activities,
the Center may, for purposes of achieving the objectives of the Act, direct the
reporting institution or person, in writing, not to proceed with the transaction or
proposed transaction or any other transaction in respect of the funds or property
affected by that transaction or proposed transaction for a period not exceeding five
working days as may be determined by the Centre, in order to allow the Centre
to make the necessary inquiries concerning the transaction and, where the Centre
considers it appropriate, to inform and advise an investigating authority, regulatory
authority or tax agency.
(2) For the purposes of calculating the period of five working days in subsection
(1), Saturdays, Sundays and proclaimed public holidays shall not be taken into
account.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 12.]
45. Obligation to verify customer identity

(1) A reporting institution shall take reasonable measures to satisfy itself as
to the true identity of any applicant seeking to enter into a business relationship
with it or to carry out a transaction or series of transactions with it, by requiring the
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
applicant to produce an official record reasonably capable of establishing the true

identity of the applicant, such as—
(a) in the case of an individual—
(i) a birth certificate;
(ii) a national identity card;
(iii) a driver’s licence;
(iv) a passport; or
(v) any other official means of identification as may be prescribed;
and
(b) in the case of a body corporate—
(i) evidence of registration or incorporation;
(ii) the Act establishing the body corporate;
(iii) a corporate resolution authorising a person to act on behalf of
the body corporate together with a copy of the latest annual
return submitted in respect of the body corporate in accordance
with the law under which it is established; and
(iv) or any other item as may be prescribed;
(c) in the case of a government department, a letter from the accounting
officer.
(2) Upon the coming into force of this Act, a reporting institution shall undertake
customer due diligence on the existing customers or clients.
(3) Where an applicant requests a reporting institution to enter into—
(a) a continuing business relationship; or
(b) in the absence of that relationship, any transaction,
the reporting institution shall take reasonable measures to establish whether
the person is acting on behalf of another person.
(4) If it appears to a reporting institution that an applicant requesting to enter into
any transaction, whether or not in the course of a continuing business relationship,
is acting on behalf of another person, the reporting institution shall take reasonable
measures to establish the true identity of a person on whose behalf or for whose
ultimate benefit the applicant may be acting in the proposed transaction, whether
as trustee, nominee, agent or otherwise.
(5) In determining what constitutes reasonable measures for the purposes of
subsection (1) or (3), regard shall be given to all the circumstances of the case,
and in particular to—
(i) whether the applicant is a person based or incorporated in a country
in which there are in force applicable provisions to prevent the use of
the financial system for the purpose of money laundering; and
(ii) any custom or practice as may, from time to time, be current in the
relevant field of business.
(6) The Cabinet Secretary may, by notice in the Gazette, list the countries to
which subsection (5)(i) applies.
(7) Nothing in this section shall require the production of any evidence of identity
where there is a transaction or a series of transactions taking place in the course
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of a business relationship, in respect of which the applicant has already produced

satisfactory evidence of identity.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 13.]
45A. Higher risk countries

(1) A reporting institution shall apply enhanced customer due diligence on
business relationships and transactions with any natural and legal persons, legal
arrangements or financial institutions originating from countries identified as posing
a higher risk of money laundering, terrorism financing or proliferation by —
(a) the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as having strategic money
laundering and combating financing of terrorism deficiencies, that
have not made sufficient progress in addressing the said deficiencies
or have not committed to an action plan to address the deficiencies; or
(b) the Cabinet Secretary as having ongoing substantial money
laundering and terrorism financing risks.
(2) In addition to enhanced customer due diligence measures, a reporting
institution shall apply appropriate countermeasures, proportionate to the risk
presented by countries subject to a Financial Action Taskforce (FATF) public
statement or as advised by the Cabinet Secretary.
(3) In order to protect the financial system from the ongoing and substantial
money laundering or terrorism financing risks emanating from the jurisdictions
referred to under subsection (2), a reporting institution shall apply countermeasures
including —
(a) limiting or terminating business relationships or financial transactions
with natural and legal persons, legal arrangements, or financial
institutions located in the concerned countries;
(b) prohibiting reliance on third parties located in the concerned countries
to conduct customer due diligence;
(c) applying enhanced due diligence measures on correspondent
banking relationships with financial institutions located in the
concerned countries;
(d) when considering the establishment of subsidiaries or branches or
representative offices of financial institutions from the concerned
countries, take into account whether the financial institution is based
in countries identified as having higher money laundering or terrorism
financing risks or inadequate money laundering or terrorism financing
systems;
(e) submit a report listing customers, both natural and legal persons, and
legal arrangements, originating from the higher risk countries to the
Financial Reporting Centre on an annual basis; and
(f) any other measures as may be specified by the Financial Reporting
Centre.
[Act No. 10 of 2018, s. 84.]
46. Obligation to establish and maintain customer records

(1) Subject to subsection (4), a reporting institution shall establish and maintain
—
(a) records of all transactions, in accordance with the requirements of
subsection (3); and
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(b) where evidence of a person’s identity is obtained in accordance with

section 45, a record that indicates the nature of the evidence obtained,
and which comprises either a copy of the evidence or such information
as would enable a copy of it to be obtained.
(2) A reporting institution shall ensure that its customer accounts are kept in
the correct name of the account holder.
(3) Records required under subsection (1)(a) shall contain particulars sufficient
to identify—
(a) the name, physical and postal address and occupation (or where
appropriate business or principal activity) of each person—
(i) conducting the transaction; or
(ii) on whose behalf the transaction is being conducted, as well as
the method used by the reporting institution to verify the identity
of that person;
(b) the nature, time and date of the transaction;
(c) the type and amount of currency involved;
(d) the type and identifying number of any account with the reporting
institution involved in the transaction;
(e) if the transaction involves a negotiable instrument other than currency,
the name of the drawer of the instrument, the name of the institution
on which it was drawn, the name of the payee (if any), the amount
and date of the instrument, the number (if any) of the instrument and
details of any endorsements appearing on the instrument;
(f) the name and address of the reporting institution and of the officer,
employee or agent of the reporting institution who prepared the
record.
(4) The records required under subsection (1) shall be kept by the reporting
institution for a period of at least seven years or such longer period as the Centre
may in writing require, from the date the relevant business or transaction was
completed or following the termination of an account or business relationship,
without prejudice to any other records required to be kept by or under any other
written law, and shall be made available on a timely basis to competent authorities.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 12]
47. Obligation to establish and maintain internal reporting procedures

A reporting institution shall establish and maintain internal controls and internal
reporting procedures to—
(a) identify persons to whom an employee is to report any information
which comes to the employee’s attention in the course of employment
and which gives rise to knowledge or suspicion by the employee that
another person is engaged in money laundering;
(b) enable any person identified in accordance with paragraph (a) to have
reasonable access to information that may be relevant in determining
whether a sufficient basis exists to report the matter under section 44
(2); and
(c) require the identified person in paragraph (a) to directly report the
matter under section 44(2) in the event that he determines that
sufficient basis exists.
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47A. Obligation to register with the Centre

(1) All reporting institutions to which this Act applies shall register with the
Centre within such period and in such manner as the Centre may prescribe.
(2) The registration of a reporting institution under sub section (1) shall be
accompanied by such particulars as the Centre may require.
(3) The Centre shall keep and maintain a register of every reporting institution
registered in terms of this section.
(4) A reporting institution shall notify the Centre, in writing, of any changes to
the particulars furnished in terms of this section within 90 days of such change.
(5) A reporting institution that fails to register with the Centre as required by
sub section (1) commits an offence.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 13]
48. Application of reporting obligations

The obligations under this Part shall apply to—
(a) accountants, advocates, notaries and other independent legal
professionals who are sole practitioners, partners or employees within
professional firms when preparing or carrying out transactions for their
clients in the following situations—
(i) buying and selling of real estate;
(ii) managing of client money, securities or other assets;
(iii) management of bank, savings or securities accounts;
(iv) organisation of contributions for the creation, operation or
management of companies; or
(v) creation, operation or management of buying and selling of
business entities or legal arrangements; or
(b) a trust or company service provider not otherwise covered elsewhere
in this Act, which as a business, provides any of the following services
to third parties—
(i) acting as a formation agent of legal persons;
(ii) acting as, or arranging for another person to act as, a director or
secretary of a company, a partner of a partnership, or a similar
position in relation to other legal persons;
(iii) providing a registered office, business address or
accommodation, correspondence or administrative address
for a company, a partnership or any other legal person or
arrangement;
(iv) acting as, or arranging for another person to act as, trustee of
an express trust;
(v) acting as or arranging for another person to act as, a nominee
shareholder for another person.
[Act No. 18 of 2018, Sch., Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 14.]
PART V – THE ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ADVISORY BOARD

49. The Anti-Money Laundering Advisory Board
(1) There is established a Board to be known as the Anti-Money Laundering
Advisory Board consisting of—
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(a) the Chairperson, who shall be appointed by the Cabinet Secretary

from among members of the Board appointed under paragraphs (f)
to (h);
(b) the Permanent Secretary in the Ministry for the time being responsible
for finance;
(c) the Attorney-General;
(d) the Governor, Central Bank of Kenya;
(e) the Commissioner of Police;
(f) the Chairman, Kenya Bankers’ Association;
(g) the Chief Executive Officer, Institute of Certified Public Accountants
of Kenya;
(h) two other persons appointed by the Cabinet Secretary from the private
sector who shall have knowledge and expertise in matters relating to
money laundering;
(ha) the Director-General of the National Intelligence Service;
(hb) the Director, Asset Recovery Agency; and
(i) the Director-General, who shall be the secretary.
(2) The members under paragraphs (b) to (i) may attend in person or through
a designated representative.
(3) A person appointed under subsection (1)(h) shall hold office for a term of
three years but shall be eligible for re-appointment for one further term of not more
than three years.
(4) In deliberation of a matter, the Board may co-opt such other persons as
appear to it to have special knowledge or experience in anti-money laundering.
50. Functions of the Board

(1) The functions of the Board shall be to-
(a) on the request of the Cabinet Secretary or at its own initiative, advise
the Cabinet Secretary on-
(i) policies, best practices and related activities to identify
proceeds of crime or proceeds of unlawful activities and to
combat money laundering activities;
(ii) the exercise of the powers conferred to the Cabinet Secretary
under this Act.
(b) advise the Centre generally on its functions and the exercise of its
powers under this Act;
(c) act as a forum in which the Centre, associations representing
categories of reporting institutions, state organs and supervisory
bodies can consult one another on anti-money laundering
developments, concerns and initiatives;
(d) to perform any other duty as may be prescribed under this Act.
(2) The Centre shall provide administrative support and sufficient resources to
the Board to enable it perform its functions effectively.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 18]
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
51. Conduct of business of the Board

The business and affairs of the Board shall be conducted in accordance with
the provisions of the Fifth Schedule but subject thereto, the Board may regulate
its own procedure.
PART VI – THE ASSETS RECOVERY AGENCY
52. Definitions applicable to Parts VI-XII
(1) In Parts VI to XII, except where it is inconsistent with the context or clearly
inappropriate, any reference to—
(a) a person who holds property shall be construed as a reference to a
person who has any interest in the property, and—
(i) if the estate of that person has been sequestrated, also to the
trustees of his estate; or
(ii) if the person is a company or other legal entity which is being
wound up, also to the liquidator thereof;
(b) a person who transfers property to another person shall be construed
as a reference to a person who transfers or grants to any other person
any interest in the property;
(c) anything received in connection with an offence shall be construed as
a reference also to anything received as a result of and in connection
with the commission of that offence.
(3) For the purposes of Parts VI to XII, a person will have benefited from an
offence if that person has at any time, whether before or after the commencement
of this Act, received or retained any proceeds of crime.
53. The Agency and its Director
(1) There is established a body to be known as Assets Recovery Agency, which
shall be a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal, and shall
in its corporate name, be capable of—
(a) suing and being sued;
(b) holding and alienating movable and immovable property;
(c) borrowing and lending money;
(d) doing and performing all such other acts or things as may be lawfully
done by a body corporate.
(2) The Attorney-General shall upon recommendation by the Advisory Board
appoint a fit, competent and proper person to be the Director of the Agency
(hereinafter referred to as the "Agency Director").
(2A) The Agency Director shall hold office for a term of four years and shall be
eligible for re-appointment for one further term of four years.
(3) For a person to be appointed as the Agency Director, that person shall—
(a) hold a degree in law, finance, accounting or any other relevant degree
from a university recognised in Kenya;
(b) have at least fifteen years work experience, of which at least five shall
be in senior management;
(c) meet such other requirements that may be specified by the Advisory
Board.
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(4) The Agency Director may, with the approval of the Attorney-General, obtain
such number of staff on secondment and on terms and conditions of service as
may be approved by the Attorney-General, and may make such arrangements for
the provision of services, as he considers appropriate for or in connection with the
exercise of his functions.
(5) Anything which the Agency Director is authorised or required to do may be
done by—
(a) a member of staff of the Agency, or
(b) a person providing services under arrangements made by the Agency
Director,
if authorised by the Agency Director (generally or specifically) for that purpose.
53A. Staff of the Agency

(1) Despite the provisions of section 53, the agency may, for the proper
discharge of its functions, appoint professional and technical staff and other staff,
upon such terms and conditions as the Attorney General, in consultation with the
Salaries Remuneration Commission and the Advisory Board, approve.
(2) The staff referred to in subsection (1) may include deputy directors, assistant
directors, forensic and financial investigators, asset managers and other staff as
the Agency may determine.
(3) In determining the terms and conditions of service for the Agency Director
and staff, the Attorney General shall be guided by the following principles—
(a) that asset recovery falls in a strategic sector in the administration of
justice process of the country and the nature of the service entailed
requires commensurate compensation; and
(b) that the nature of the operations of the Agency requires probity,
integrity and incorruptibility.
(4) The Agency shall, with the approval of the Cabinet Secretary for finance,
establish a suitable social security scheme for the Agency Director and staff of the
Agency.
(5) For the purposes of their functions under the Act, the Agency Director,
certified forensic and financial investigators, shall have all the powers, privileges
and immunities of a police officer in addition to any other powers they may have
under the Act.
(6) Any public officer who is transferred or seconded to the Agency under
section 53(4) shall be regarded as a member of staff of the Agency and subject to
the control and direction of the Agency.
(6A) For purposes of carrying out their functions under this Act, the Agency’s
Counsel shall have the same privileges as State Counsel under the Office of the
Attorney General or the ministry or department for the time being dealing with
matters related to justice, in addition to any other powers they may have under
this Act.
(7) The Agency may, with the approval of the Advisory Board, make regulations
for the better management, administration and operations of the Agency.
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54. Functions and powers of the Agency

(1) The functions of the Agency shall be to implement the provisions of Parts
VII to XII inclusive and to exercise all powers set forth therein.
(1A) Deleted by Act No. 15 of 2017, s. 60.
(2) The Agency shall have all the powers necessary or expedient for the
performance of its functions.
54A. Funds of the Agency

(1) The National Assembly shall allocate adequate funds to the Agency to
enable the Agency perform its functions under this Act and any other written law
and the budget shall be a separate vote.
(2) The funds of the Agency shall consist of—
(a) monies provided for by Parliament for the purposes of the Agency;
(b) not more than five percent of the total proceeds recovered or realized
from any property seized or forfeited to the Government, as may be
prescribed by the Cabinet Secretary;
(c) such monies or assets as may accrue to the Agency in the course of
the exercise of its powers or the performance of its functions under
this Act; and
(d) all monies from any other source provided, donated or granted to the
Agency towards the achievement of the objects of the Agency.
(3) The Agency shall not accept any grant, gift, donation or bequests made
on condition that the Agency performs any function or discharges any duty or
obligation other than duties under the Constitution or this Act.
(4) The Agency shall disclose any grants, gifts, donations or bequests made
to it in each financial year.
(5) The Agency Director shall, subject to the law, be charged with the
responsibility of accounting for state monies received or paid out or on account of
the Agency.
(6) The receipts, earnings or accounts of the funding and balance of the funding
at the close of each financial year, shall not be paid into the Consolidated Fund,
but shall be retained for the purposes of the Agency.
54B. Bank accounts

The Agency shall open and maintain such bank accounts as are necessary for
the exercise of the functions of the Agency.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 22]
54C. Estimates of expenditure

(1) The financial year of the Agency shall be the period of twelve months
beginning first July and ending on the thirtieth June in each year.
(2) The Agency shall within three months before the commencement of the
financial year, prepare annual estimates of the expenditure of the Agency for that
financial year.
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(3) The annual estimates shall make provisions for all the estimated
expenditure of the Agency for the financial year concerned and in particular, shall
provide for—
(a) the payment of salaries, allowances and other charges in respect of
the Agency Director and other staff of the Agency;
(b) the payment of pensions, gratuities and other charges and in respect
of benefits which are payable out of the funds of the Agency;
(c) the maintenance of the buildings and grounds of the Agency;
(d) the funding of training, research and development of activities of the
Agency; and
(e) the creation of such funds to meet future or contingent liabilities
in respect of benefits, insurance or replacement of buildings or
installations, equipment and in respect of such other matters as the
Agency may deem expedient.
(4) The annual estimates shall make provisions for all estimated expenditure
of the Agency for the financial year to which they relate, including of reserve fund
to provide for contingency in the event of an unforeseen increase in expenditure
and other emergencies not contemplated at the time of making the estimates.
(5) The Advisory Board shall review the estimates forwarded under subsections
(2) and (3) and may make such alterations thereto as it may consider necessary,
and shall forward the same to the National Assembly for approval.
(6) Upon approval of the estimates by the National Assembly, all monies from
time to time required for the purposes of this Act shall be paid from the Consolidated
Fund into the Agency's bank account.
54D. Accounts and audit

(1) The Agency shall cause to be kept all proper books and records of account
of the income, expenditure, assets and liabilities of the Agency.
(2) Within a period of three months after the end of each financial year, the
Agency shall submit to the Auditor-General the accounts of the Agency in respect
of that year together with a—
(a) statement of the income and expenditure of the Agency during that
year; and
(b) statement of the assets and liabilities of the Agency on the last day
of that financial year.
(3) The annual accounts of the Agency shall be prepared, audited and reported
upon in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and the Public Audit Act.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 22]
54E. Annual reports

(1) The Agency shall within four months after the end of each financial year,
make a report on its activities and operations during the financial year, and submit
the report to the Attorney-General.
(2) The Attorney- General shall within fourteen days after receipt of the report
from the Agency, submit the report to the President.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 22]
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
54F. The common seal of the Agency

(1) The common seal of the Agency shall be such device as may be determined
by the Agency Director.
(2) The common seal of the Agency shall be kept in such custody as the
Agency Director shall direct and shall not be used except on the order of the Agency
Director.
(3) The common seal of the Agency when affixed to a document and duly
authenticated shall be judicially and officially noticed and unless the contrary is
proved, any necessary order or authorization of the Agency under this section shall
be presumed to have been duly given.
[Act No. 3 of 2017, s. 22]
55. Co-operation with the Agency

A person who or a body which has functions relating to investigation or
prosecution of offences under this Act and the Agency shall co-operate in the
exercise of their powers or the performance of their functions under this Act.
55A. Asset Recovery Advisory Board
(1) There is established an advisory board to be known as the Asset Recovery
Advisory Board which shall consist of—
(a) the chairperson, who shall be appointed by the Cabinet Secretary
from among members of the Advisory Board appointed under
paragraphs (h) to (j);
(b) the Attorney-General;
(c) the Principal Secretary in the Ministry responsible for finance;
(d) the Governor of the Central Bank of Kenya;
(e) the Director General of the National Intelligence Service;
(f) the Director of Criminal Investigations;
(g) the Director General of the Centre;
(h) a representative of the Institute of Certified Public Accountants of
Kenya;
(i) a representative of the Law Society of Kenya;
(j) a representative of the Estate Agents Registration Board;
(k) the Agency Director, who shall be an ex-officio member of the
Advisory Board.
(2) The bodies under subsection (1) (h) to (j) shall each nominate and submit
to the Cabinet Secretary two names of persons of either gender.
(3) The Cabinet Secretary shall appoint three persons from among the persons
nominated under subsection (2).
(4) In appointing the members of the Advisory Board, under subsection (1) (h)
to (j), the Cabinet Secretary shall take into account gender and regional balance.
(5) A person shall be eligible for appointment to the Advisory Board under
subsection (1) (h) to (j) if the person—
(a) holds a degree in finance, accounts, economics or law from a
university recognised in Kenya; and
(b) has knowledge and expertise in matters relating to money laundering,
asset tracing and recovery.
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(6) A person appointed under subsection (1) (h) to (j) shall hold office for a
period of three years and may be eligible for reappointment for one further term.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 20.]
55B. Functions of the Advisory Board

(1) The Advisory Board shall be responsible for—
(a) advising and overseeing the Agency on the exercise of its powers and
performance of its functions;
(b) advising and overseeing the Agency on asset recovery policies and
strategic priorities of the Agency;
(c) advising and overseeing the Agency with respect to the administration
of the Agency;
(d) approving the annual budget of the Agency;
(e) approving the annual reports and financial statements of the Agency;
and
(f) the expenditure of the Agency.
(2) The Advisory Board may establish such committees as may be necessary
for the better carrying out of its functions under this Act.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 20.]
55C. Conduct of business of the Advisory Board

The business and affairs of the Advisory Board shall be conducted in
accordance with the provisions of the Fifth Schedule but subject thereto, the
Advisory Board may regulate its own procedure.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 20.]
55D. Advisory Board may co-opt members

(1) The Advisory Board may co-opt into any of its committees such other
persons whose knowledge and skills are necessary for the better performance of
its functions under this Act.
(2) A person who has been co-opted into a committee of the Advisory Board
may attend the meetings of the Advisory Board and participate in the deliberations
thereof but shall not have a right to vote at the meetings.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 20.]
55E. Allowances of the members of the Advisory Board

The members of the Advisory Board shall be paid such allowances as the
Cabinet Secretary may determine on the advice of the Salaries and Remuneration
Commission.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 20.]
55F. Agency to facilitate the Advisory Board

The Agency shall provide the Advisory Board and any of its committees with
such facilities and resources as may be required for the effective discharge of the
functions of the Board or any of its committees.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 20.]
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55G. Cabinet Secretary to make Regulations

(1) The Cabinet Secretary shall, in Regulations, prescribe the manner of
discharging the functions of the Advisory Board including the procedure at its
meetings.
(2) Notwithstanding the generality of subsection (1), the Advisory Board shall
regulate its own procedure.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 20.]
PART VII – CRIMINAL FORFEITURE

Proceeds of Crime
(1) For the purposes of this Part, proceedings on application for a confiscation
order or restraint order are civil.
(2) The rules of evidence applicable in civil proceedings shall apply to
proceedings on application for a confiscation order or a restraint order.
57. Realizable property
(1) Subject to the provisions of subsection (2), the following property shall be
realizable in terms of this Part—
(a) any property held by the defendant concerned; and
(b) any property held by a person to whom that defendant has directly or
indirectly made any affected gift.
(2) Property shall not be realizable property so long as a forfeiture order is in
force in respect thereof.
58. Value of property
(1) For the purposes of this Part the value of property, other than money, in
relation to any person holding the property, shall be—
(a) where any other person holds an interest in the property, the market
value of the property, less the amount required to discharge any
encumbrance on the property; and
(b) where no other person holds an interest in the property, the market
value of the property.
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1), any reference in this Part
to the value at a particular time of a payment or reward, shall be construed as a
reference to—
(a) the value of the payment or reward at the time when the recipient
received it; or
(b) where subsection (3) applies, the value set out in that subsection,
whichever is the higher.
(3) If, at the particular time referred to in subsection (2) the recipient holds—
(a) the property, other than cash, which that person received, the
applicable value shall be the value of the property at the particular
time; or
(b) property which directly or indirectly represents in his hands the
property which he received, the applicable value shall be the value of
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
the property, in so far as it represents the property which he received,

at the relevant time.
59. Gifts
(1) For the purposes of this Part, a defendant shall be deemed to have made
a gift if he has transferred any property to any other person directly or indirectly for
a consideration which is significantly less than the value of the property.
(2) For the purposes of subsection (2) the gift which a defendant is deemed to
have made shall consist of that share in the property transferred by the defendant
which is equal to the difference between the value of that property as a whole and
the consideration received by the defendant in return.
60. Conclusion of proceedings against defendant
For the purposes of this Part, proceedings against a defendant shall be
concluded when—
(a) the defendant is acquitted or found not guilty of an offence;
(b) subject to section 61(2), the court convicting the defendant of an
offence, sentences the defendant without making a confiscation order
against him;
(c) the conviction in respect of an offence is set aside on review or appeal;
or
(d) the defendant satisfies the confiscation order made against him.
Confiscation Orders
61. Confiscation orders
(1) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offence, the court convicting the
defendant shall, on the application of the Attorney-General, the Agency Director or
of its own motion, inquire into any benefit which the defendant may have derived
from—
(a) that offence;
(b) any other offence of which the defendant has been convicted at the
same trial; and
(c) any criminal activity which the court finds to be sufficiently related to
that offence,
and, if the court finds that the defendant has so benefited, the court shall,
in addition to any punishment which it may impose, make an order against
the defendant for the payment to the Government of any amount it considers
appropriate and the court may make any further orders as it may deem fit to ensure
the effectiveness and fairness of that order.
(2) The amount which a court may order the defendant to pay to the
Government under subsection (1)—
(a) shall not exceed the value of the defendant’s proceeds of the
offences or related criminal activities referred to in that subsection,
as determined by the court in accordance with the provisions of this
Part; or
(b) if the court is satisfied that the amount which is just as contemplated
in section 63(1) is less than the value referred to in paragraph (a), the
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amount payable shall not exceed an amount which, in the opinion of

the court might be so realized.
(3) A court convicting a defendant may, when passing sentence, indicate that
it will hold an inquiry as contemplated in subsection (1) at a later stage if—
(a) it is satisfied that inquiry would unreasonably delay the sentencing of
the defendant; or
(b) the Attorney-General applies to the court to first sentence the
defendant and the court is satisfied that it is reasonable and justifiable
to do so in the circumstances.
(4) If the judge or magistrate who convicted the defendant is absent or for any
other reason not available, any judge or magistrate of the same court shall consider
an application referred to in subsection (1) and hold the inquiry referred to in that
subsection and that person may, in the proceedings, take such steps as the judge
or magistrate who is absent or not available could lawfully have taken.
(5) A court before which proceedings under this section are pending, may, in
considering an application under subsection (1)—
(i) refer to the evidence and proceedings at the trial;
(ii) hear further oral evidence or take documentary evidence as the court
may deem fit;
(iii) direct the Agency Director to tender to the court the affidavit referred
to in section 64(1); and
(iv) direct a defendant to tender to the court an affidavit referred to under
section 64(5).
(6) The amount ordered to be paid under a confiscation order shall be paid on
the making of the order:
Provided that if the defendant indicates to the court that he needs time to pay
the amount ordered to be paid, the court making the confiscation order may make
an order allowing payment to be made in a specified period.
62. Value of proceeds of crime
(1) Subject to the provisions of subsection (2), the value of the defendant’s
proceeds of crime shall be the sum of the value of the property, services,
advantages, benefits or rewards received, retained or derived by him at any time
after the commencement of this Act in connection with the offence committed by
him or any other person.
(2) In determining the value of a defendant’s proceeds of crime, the court shall
—
(a) where it has made a forfeiture order or where a forfeiture order has
previously been made in respect of property which is proved to the
satisfaction of the court to have been—
(i) the property which the defendant received in connection with
the criminal activity carried on by him or any other person; or
(ii) property which, directly or indirectly, represented in the
defendant’s possession or control, which he received in that
connection,
leave the property out of account;
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(b) where a confiscation order has previously been made against the
defendant, leave out of account, those proceeds of crime which are
proved to the satisfaction of the court to have been taken into account
in determining the amount to be recovered under that confiscation
order.
63. Amount which might be realized
(1) For the purposes of sections 61(2)(b) and 67(4)(a), the amount which might
be realized at the time of the making of a confiscation order against a defendant
shall be the amount equal to the sum of the values at that time of all—
(a) realizable property held by the defendant; and
(b) affected gifts made by the defendant,
less the sum of all obligations, if any, of the defendant having priority and which
the court may recognize for this purpose.
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 58(1) but subject to the provisions
of section 59(2), the value of an affected gift at the time of the making of the relevant
confiscation order shall be—
(a) the value of the affected gift at the time when the recipient received it,
as adjusted to take into account subsequent fluctuations in the value
of money; or
(b) where subsection (3) applies, the value mentioned in that subsection,
whichever is the greater value; or
(c) such amount as the court believes is just.
(3) If at the time of the making of the relevant confiscation order the recipient
holds the property—
(a) other than in monetary instruments, which such person received, the
value concerned shall be the value of the property at that time; or
(b) which directly or indirectly represents in their hands the property which
that person received, the value concerned shall be the value of the
property, in so far as it represents the property which that person
received, at the time.
(4) For the purposes of subsection (1), an obligation has priority at the time of
the making of the relevant confiscation order if it is an obligation—
(a) of the defendant, where the defendant has been convicted by a court
of any offence to pay—
(i) a fine imposed before that time by the court; or
(ii) any other amount under any resultant order made before that
time by the court;
(b) which—
(i) if the estate of the defendant had at that time been
sequestrated; or
(ii) where the defendant is a company or other legal entity, if that
company or that legal entity is at that time being wound up,
would be payable in pursuance of any secured or preferential
claim against the insolvent estate or against the company or
legal entity, as the case may be;
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(5) A court shall not determine the amounts which might be realized as
contemplated in subsection (1) unless it has afforded all persons holding any
interest in the property concerned an opportunity to make representations to it in
connection with the realization of that property.
64. Statements relating to proceeds of crime
(1) The Agency Director may or, if so directed by the court, shall tender to the
court an affidavit by the defendant or any other person in connection with any matter
which is being inquired into by the court under section 61(1), or which relates to
the determination of the value of a defendant’s proceeds of crime.
(2) A copy of the affidavit referred to in subsection (1), shall be served on the
defendant.
(3) The defendant may dispute the correctness of any allegation contained in
an affidavit referred to in subsection (1), and if the defendant does so, he shall state
the grounds upon which he relies.
(4) In so far as the defendant does not dispute the correctness of any allegation
contained in the affidavit under subsection (1), that allegation shall be considered
to be conclusive proof of the matter to which it relates.
(5) A defendant may or, if so directed by the court, tender to the court an
affidavit or affirmation in writing by him or another person in connection with any
matter which relates to the determination of the amount which might be realized
as contemplated in section 59(1).
(6) A copy of the affidavit or affirmation tendered under subsection (5) shall be
served on the Agency Director.
(7) The Agency Director may admit the correctness of any allegation contained
in an affidavit or affirmation tendered under subsection (5).
(8) In so far as the Agency Director admits the correctness of any allegation
contained in an affidavit or affirmation tendered under subsection (5), that allegation
shall be considered to be conclusive proof of the matter to which it relates.
65. Evidence relating to proceeds of crime
(1) For the purpose of determining whether a defendant has derived a benefit
in an inquiry under section 61(1), if it is found that the defendant did not, at the
fixed date, have legitimate sources of income sufficient to justify the interests in
any property that he holds, the court shall accept this fact as prima facie evidence
that the interests form part of the benefit.
(2) For the purpose of an inquiry under section 61(1), if it is found that a court
had ordered the defendant to disclose any facts under section 64(5) and that the
defendant had without sufficient cause failed to disclose the facts or had, after being
so ordered, furnished false information, knowing that information to be false or not
believing it to be true, the court shall accept these facts as prima facie evidence
that any property to which the information relates—
(a) forms part of the defendant’s benefit, in determining whether he has
derived a benefit from an offence; or
(b) is held by the defendant as an advantage, payment, service or reward
in connection with the offences or related criminal activities referred
to in section 61(1).
(3) For the purposes of determining the value of a defendant’s proceeds
of crime, in an inquiry under section 61(1) if the court finds that defendant has
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
benefited from an offence and that the defendant held property at any time, or
since, his conviction, the court shall accept these facts as prima facie evidence
that the property was received by him at the earliest time at which he held it, as an
advantage, payment, service or reward in connection with the offences or related
criminal activities referred to in section 61(1).
(4) If the court finds that the defendant has benefited from an offence and
that expenditure had been incurred by him since the beginning of the period
contemplated in subsection (3), the court shall accept these facts as prima facie
evidence that the expenditure was met out of the advantages, payments, services
or rewards, including any property received by him in connection with the offences
or related criminal activities referred to in section 61(1) committed by him.
(5) For the purpose of determining the value of any property in an inquiry under
section 57(1), if the court finds that the defendant received property at any time
as an advantage, payment, service or reward in connection with the offences or
related criminal activities referred to in that subsection committed by the person or
by any other person, the court shall accept this fact as prima facie evidence that
that person received that property free of any other interest therein.
66. Effect of confiscation orders
Where a court makes a confiscation order, the order shall have the effect of a
civil judgment.
67. Procedure where person absconds or dies
(1) If a court is satisfied—
(a) that—
(i) a person had been charged with an offence; or
(ii) a person had been convicted of any offence; or
(iii) a restraint order had been made against a person; or
(iv) there is sufficient evidence for putting a person on trial for an
offence; and
(b) a warrant for that person’s arrest had been issued and that the
attendance of that person in court could not be secured after all
reasonable steps were taken to execute that warrant;
(c) the proceedings against that person cannot be resumed within a
period of six months due to his continued absence; and
(d) there are reasonable grounds to believe that a confiscation order
would have been made against that person were it not for his
continued absence,
the court may, on an application by the Agency Director, inquire into any benefit
he may have derived from that offence.
(2) Whenever a defendant who has been convicted of an offence dies before a
confiscation order is made, the court may, on an application by the Agency Director,
inquire into any benefit he may have derived from that offence if the court is satisfied
that there are reasonable grounds to believe that a confiscation order would have
been made against him were it not for his death.
(3) The administrator of the estate of the deceased may appear before the court
and make representations for the purposes of any inquiry.
(4) The court conducting an inquiry under this section may—
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(a) if the court finds that the person referred to in subsection (1) or (2) has
so benefited, make a confiscation order and the provisions of this Part
shall, with the necessary changes, apply to the making of that order;
(b) if a receiver has not been appointed in respect of any of the property
concerned, appoint a receiver in respect of realizable property; and
(c) authorise the realization of the property concerned in terms of Part
VIII.
(5) A court shall not exercise its powers under subsection (4)(a) or (c) unless
it has afforded all persons having any interest in the property concerned an
opportunity to make representations to it in connection with the making of the
orders.
(6) Sections 64 and 65 shall not apply to an inquiry under this section.
(7) If a person, excluding a person contemplated in subsection (1)(a)(ii), against
whom a confiscation order had been made under subsection (4), is subsequently
tried and—
(a) convicted of one or other of the offences in respect of which the order
had been made, the court convicting that person may conduct an
inquiry under section 61(1) and make an appropriate order;
(b) acquitted of the offence in respect of which the order had been made,
the court acquitting that person may make an appropriate order.
68. Restraint orders
(1) The Agency Director may apply to a court ex parte for an order prohibiting
any person, subject to such conditions and exceptions as may be specified in the
order, from dealing in any manner with any property to which the order relates.
(2) A restraint order may be made in respect of—
(a) realizable property as may be specified in the restraint order and
which is held by a person against whom the restraint order is being
made;
(b) all property which, if it is transferred to that person after the making of
the restraint order, would be realizable property.
(3) A court to which an application is made under subsection (1) may make a
temporary restraint order if the court is satisfied that—
(a) a criminal investigation has been started in Kenya with regard to an
offence; or
(b) there is reasonable cause to believe that a person leads a criminal
lifestyle and has benefited from his criminal conduct.
(4) A restraint order shall provide for the period of the notice to be given to
persons affected by the order.
(5) Without derogating from the generality of the powers conferred by
subsection (1), a restraint order may make such provisions as the court may think
fit for the reasonable—
(a) living expenses of a person against whom the restraint order is being
made and his family or household;
(b) legal expenses of that person in connection with any proceedings
instituted against him in terms of this Part or any criminal proceedings
to which the proceedings may relate;
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(c) carrying on of any trade, business, profession or occupation:

Provided that the court may place conditions as it believes appropriate for the
purpose of ensuring that the restraint order is effective and the court is satisfied that
the person whose expenses shall be provided for has disclosed, under oath, all his
interests in the property subject to a restraint order and that the person cannot meet
the expenses or carry on the trade or profession concerned out of his unrestrained
property.
(6) A court making a restraint order may also make further order in respect of
the discovery or disclosure of any facts, including facts relating to any property over
which the defendant may have effective control and the location of such property,
as the court may consider necessary or expedient with a view to achieving the
objects of the restraint order.
(7) A court making a restraint order shall at the same time make an order
authorising the seizure of all movable property concerned and any other ancillary
orders that the court considers appropriate for the proper, fair and effective
execution of the order.
(8) Property seized under subsection (7) shall be dealt with in accordance with
the directions of the court that made the relevant restraint order.
(9) A court that made a restraint order—
(a) may, on application by a person affected by that order, vary or rescind
the restraint order or an order authorising the seizure of the property
concerned or other ancillary order if it is satisfied that the—
(i) operation of the order concerned will deprive the applicant of
the means to provide for his reasonable living expenses and
cause undue hardship to the applicant; and
(ii) hardship that the applicant will suffer as a result of the
order outweighs the risk that the property concerned may be
destroyed, lost, damaged, concealed or transferred; and
(b) shall rescind the restraint order when the proceedings against the
defendant concerned are concluded.
(10) When a court orders the rescission of an order authorising the seizure of
property in terms of subsection (9)(a) the court shall make such other orders as
it considers appropriate for the proper, fair and effective execution of the restraint
order concerned.
69. Cases in which restraint order may be made
(1) A court may exercise the powers conferred on it by section 68(1)—
(a) when—
(i) a prosecution for an offence has been instituted against the
defendant concerned; and
(ii) either a confiscation order has been made against that
defendant or it appears to the court that there are reasonable
grounds for believing that a confiscation order may be made
against that defendant; and
(iii) the proceedings against that defendant have not been
concluded; or
(b) when—
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(i) that court is satisfied that a person is to be charged with an

offence; and
(ii) it appears to the court that there are reasonable grounds for
believing that a confiscation order may be made against that
person.
(2) Where the court has made a restraint order under subsection (1)(b), that
court shall rescind the restraint order if the relevant person is not charged within
such period as the court may consider reasonable.
70. Order to remain in force pending appeal
A restraint order and an order authorising the seizure of the property concerned
or other ancillary order which is in force at the time of any decision by the court
in relation to the making of a confiscation order, shall remain in force pending the
outcome of any appeal against the decision concerned.
71. Seizure of property subject to restraint order
(1) In order to prevent any realizable property from being disposed of or
removed contrary to a restraint order, a police officer may seize that property if
he has reasonable grounds to believe that the property will be so disposed of or
removed.
the directions of the court that made the relevant restraint order.
72. Appointment of manager in respect of property subject to restraint order
(1) Where a court has made a restraint order, that court may, at any time—
(a) appoint a manager to do any one or more of the following on behalf
of a person against whom the restraint order has been made—
(i) perform any particular act in respect of any or all the property
to which the restraint order relates;
(ii) take care of the said property;
(iii) administer the said property;
(iv) where the said property is a business or undertaking, carry
on, with due regard to any law which may be applicable, the
business or undertaking; and
(v) in the case of property that is perishable, or liable to
deterioration, decay or injury by being detained in custody, to
sell or otherwise dispose of the said property;
(b) order the person against whom the restraint order has been made to
surrender forthwith, or within such period as that court may determine,
any property in respect of which a receiver has been appointed under
paragraph (a), into the custody of that receiver.
(2) A person affected by an order under subsection (1)(b) may at any time apply
for the variation of—
(a) rescission of the order; or
(b) the terms of the appointment of the manager concerned or for the
discharge of that manager.
(3) The court that made an order under subsection (1)(b)—
(a) may at any time—
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(i) vary or rescind the order; or

(ii) vary the terms of the appointment of the manager concerned
or discharge that manager;
(b) shall discharge the manager concerned if the relevant restraint order
is rescinded;
(c) may make an order relating to the fees and expenditure of the
manager as it considers fit, including an order for the payment of the
fees of the manager from the confiscated proceeds, if a confiscation
order is made, or by the Government if no confiscation order is made.
73. Orders in respect of immovable property subject to restraint order
(1) A court that has made a restraint order in respect of immovable property
may at any time, with a view to ensuring the payment to the Government where
a confiscation order has—
(a) not been made, of an amount equal to the most recent value of the
immovable property; or
(b) been made, of an amount exceeding the amount payable under the
confiscation order,
order the Registrar of Lands to place a restriction on the land register in respect
of that immovable property.
(2) A person affected by an order in subsection (1) may at any time apply for
rescission of the order.
(3) The court that made an order in subsection (1)—
(a) may at any time rescind the order; and
(b) shall rescind the order if the relevant restraint order is rescinded or
the amount payment of which is secured by the order has, with the
consent of the court, been paid into court;
(c) shall if, the order is rescinded, the court shall direct the Registrar of
Lands to lift the restriction placed by virtue of that order on the land
register in respect of that immovable property and the Registrar of
Lands shall give effect to such direction.
74. Variation and rescission of certain orders suspended by appeal
The lodging of an appeal against a decision to vary or rescind any order referred
to in sections 68(10), 72(3) and 73(3) shall act as a stay of such a variation or
rescission pending the determination of the appeal.
75. Realization of property
(1) A court may exercise the powers conferred upon it by subsection (2) when—
(a) a confiscation order has been made against the defendant concerned;
(b) that confiscation order is no longer subject to review or appeal; and
(c) the proceedings against that defendant have been concluded.
(2) A court may, on the application of the Agency Director—
(a) if a receiver has not been appointed in respect of any of the property
concerned, appoint a receiver in respect of the realizable property;
(b) subject to subsection (3), authorise a manager appointed under
section 72(1)(a) or a receiver appointed under paragraph (a) of this
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
subsection, as the case may be, to realize any realizable property in

such manner as that court may determine;
(c) order any person who holds realizable property to surrender the said
property forthwith into the custody of a manager appointed under
section 72(1)(a) or a receiver appointed under paragraph (a) of this
subsection, as the court may determine.
(3) A court shall not exercise its powers under subsection (2)(b) unless it has
afforded all persons known to have any interest in the property concerned an
opportunity to make representations to it in connection with the realization of that
property.
(4) If the court is satisfied that a person—
(a) is likely to be directly affected by the confiscation order; or
(b) has suffered damage to or loss of property or injury as a result of an
offence or related criminal activity referred to in section 61(1) which
was committed by the defendant,
the court may allow that person to make representations in connection with the
realization of that property.
(5) If the court is satisfied that a person who has suffered damage to or loss of
property or injury as a result of an offence or related criminal activity referred to in
section 61(1) which was committed by the defendant—
(a) has instituted civil proceedings, or intends to institute such
proceedings within a reasonable time; or
(b) has obtained a judgment against the defendant,
in respect of that damage, loss or injury, the court may order that the receiver
suspend the realization of the whole or part of the realizable property concerned for
the period that the court deems fit in order to satisfy such a claim or judgment and
related legal expenses and may make such ancillary orders as it deems expedient.
(6) The receiver shall, as soon as possible after—
(a) the proceedings referred to in subsection (5)(a) have been disposed
of; or
(b) the judgment referred to in subsection (5)(b) has been satisfied, as
the case may be; or
(c) the period determined under subsection (5) has expired,
whichever is the earliest, realize the realizable property concerned as
contemplated in subsection (2).
76. Application of certain sums of money
(1) Subject to subsection (2), the following sums of money under the control of
a receiver appointed under this Part, namely—
(a) the proceeds of any realizable property realized by virtue of section
75; and
(b) any other sums of money, being property of the defendant concerned,
shall, after the payments as the court may direct, have been made out of
the sums of money, be applied on that defendant’s behalf in satisfaction of the
confiscation order made against that person.
(2) Notwithstanding subsection (1), where the court directs payments out of the
sums of money referred to in that subsection—
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(a) the Government shall not have a preferential claim; and

(b) if any money remains under the control of the receiver after the
amount payable under the confiscation order has been fully paid, the
receiver shall distribute that money—
(i) among those persons who held realizable property realized by
virtue of section 76; and
(ii) in such proportions as the court may direct after affording
the persons an opportunity to make representations to it in
connection with the distribution of those sums of money.
(3) Without limiting the generality of subsection (1), the payments that a court
may direct to be under that subsection shall include any payment in respect of an
obligation which was found to have priority under section 64.
77. Exercise of powers by court and receiver
(1) The powers conferred upon a court by sections 68, 69, 71, and 72 or upon
a receiver appointed under this Part shall—
(a) subject to paragraphs (b) and (c), be exercised with a view to
making available the current value of realizable property for satisfying
any confiscation order made or which might be made against the
defendant;
(b) in the case of realizable property held by a person to whom that
defendant has directly or indirectly made an affected gift, be exercised
with a view to realizing not more than the current value of the gift;
(c) be exercised with a view to allowing a person other than the defendant
or the recipient of the gift to retain or recover the current value of any
property held by that person,
and, except as provided in sections 61(1) and 68(6), any obligation of that
defendant or the recipient of the gift which conflicts with the obligation to satisfy a
confiscation order shall be left out of account.
(2) The provisions of subsection (1) shall not be construed as prohibiting
any court from making any additional order in respect of a debt owed to the
Government.
78. Variation of confiscation orders
(1) If the court is satisfied that the realizable property is inadequate for the
payment of the balance of the amount to be recovered under a confiscation
order against the defendant concerned, that court may, on the application of that
defendant, issue a certificate to that effect stating the reasons for the court being
so satisfied.
(2) For the purpose of subsection (1), the court may—
(a) in the case of realizable property held by—
(i) a person whose estate has been sequestrated, take into
account the extent to which the proceeds of property in that
estate may be distributed among the creditors; or
(ii) a company or other legal entity which is being wound up, take
into account the extent to which the assets of that company or
legal entity may be distributed among the creditors;
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(b) leave out of account any inadequacy in the realizable property which
is in the opinion of that court, wholly or partly attributable to anything
done by the defendant for the purpose of preserving any property held
by a person to whom the defendant had directly or indirectly made an
affected gift from the risk of any realization in terms of this Part.
(3) If a certificate referred to in subsection (1) has been issued, the defendant
may apply to the court that made the confiscation order against that person for the
reduction of the amount to be recovered under that confiscation order.
(4) In making an order under subsection (3), the court may substitute for the
amount to be recovered under that confiscation order such lesser amount as that
court may consider just in the circumstances of the case.
79. Effect of bankruptcy on realizable property
(1) When a person who holds realizable property is adjudged bankrupt-
(a) the property for the time being subject to a restraint order made before
the date of the bankruptcy order; and
(b) the proceeds of any realizable property realized because of section
75 and for the time being under the control of a receiver appointed
under this Part,
does not vest in the Registrar of the High Court, Official Receiver or the Public
Trustee.
(2) If a defendant who has directly or indirectly made an affected gift to any
other person is adjudged bankrupt, the following provisions apply:
(a) a court may not set aside the disposition of that gift under the
Insolvency Act, 2015 if —
(i) a prosecution for an offence has been commenced against the
defendant and the proceedings against the defendant have not
been conclude concluded; or
(ii) the property of any other person is subject to a restraint order;
(b) any court that sets aside a disposition in paragraph (a) after the
conclusion of the proceedings against the defendant shall take into
account any realization of the property of other persons in accordance
with this Part.
(3) If a person has been adjudged bankrupt, the powers conferred on the court
by sections 64 to 72 and 73(2), or on a receiver appointed under this Part, may not
be exercised in respect of any property that-
(a) forms part of the bankrupt's estate; or
(b) the Official Receiver or a bankruptcy trustee is entitled to claim from
the bankrupt under the Insolvency Act, 2015.
(4) Nothing in the Insolvency Act, 2015 prohibits a court or a receiver appointed
under this Part from exercising a power contemplated in subsection (3) of any
property or proceeds referred to in subsection (1).
[Act No. 19 of 2015, s. 165]
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
80. Effect of winding-up of companies or other legal entities on realizable

property
(1) When a court has made an order for the liquidation of any company or other
legal entity that holds realisable property or a resolution for the voluntary liquidation
of the body has been registered in accordance with an applicable law, neither-
(a) property for the time being subject to a restraint order made before
the relevant time; nor
(b) the proceeds of any realisable property realised because of section
75 and for the time being under the control of a receiver appointed
under this Part,
forms part of the assets of the body.
(2) If an order referred to in subsection (1) has been made in respect of a
company or other legal entity or a resolution referred to in that subsection has been
registered
in respect of the body, the powers conferred on a court by sections 68 to 73 and
75(2) or on a receiver appointed under this Part, may not be exercised in respect
of any property that forms part of the assets of the body.
(3) Nothing in the Companies Act, 2015, the Insolvency Act, 2015, or any other
law relating to legal entities in general or any particular legal entity, prohibits a
court or receiver appointed under this Part from exercising a power conferred by
subsection (2) in respect of property or proceeds referred to in subsection (1).
(4) For the purpose of subsection (1), "the relevant time" means-
(a) if an order for the body corporate has been made, the time when the
application to relevant the court of the application for the liquidation
order; or
(b) if no such order has been made, the time when the resolution
authorising the voluntary liquidation of the body corporate is passed.
(5) Section 79(2), with necessary modifications, applies to a legal entity that
has directly or indirectly made an affected gift.
[Act No. 19 of 2015, s. 166]
PART VIII – CIVIL FORFEITURE

Recovery and Preservation of Property
(1) All proceedings under this Part shall be civil proceedings.
(2) The rules of evidence applicable in civil proceedings shall apply to
proceedings under this Part.
82. Preservation orders
(1) The Agency Director may, by way of an ex parte application apply to the
court for an order prohibiting any person, subject to such conditions and exceptions
as may be specified in the order, from dealing in any manner with any property.
(2) The court shall make an order under subsection (1) if there are reasonable
grounds to believe that the property concerned—
(a) has been used or is intended for use in the commission of an offence;
or
(b) is proceeds of crime.
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(3) A court making a preservation order shall at the same time make an order
authorising the seizure of the property concerned by a police officer, and any other
ancillary orders that the court considers appropriate for the proper, fair and effective
execution of the order.
the directions of the court that made the relevant preservation order.
83. Notice of preservation orders
(1) If a court makes a preservation order, the Agency Director shall, within
twenty-one days after the making of the order, give notice of the order to all persons
known to the Agency Director to have an interest in property which is subject to the
order; and publish a notice of the order in the Gazette.
(2) A notice under subsection (1) shall be served in accordance with the
provisions of the Civil Procedure Act (Cap. 21).
(3) A person who has an interest in the property which is subject to a
preservation order may give notice of his intention to oppose the making of a
forfeiture order, or to apply for an order excluding his interest in the property
concerned from the operation thereof.
(4) A notice under subsection (3) shall be served upon the Agency Director,
in the case of—
(a) a person upon whom a notice has been served under subsection (1),
within fourteen days after service; or
(b) any other person, within fourteen days after the date upon which a
notice under subsection (1) is published in the Gazette.
(5) A notice served under subsections (3) or (4) shall contain full particulars of
the address for the delivery of documents concerning further proceedings under
this Part and shall be accompanied by an affidavit stating—
(a) full particulars of the identity of the person entering the appearance;
(b) the nature and extent of his interest in the property concerned; and
(c) the reasons which the person intends to rely on in opposing a
forfeiture order or applying for the exclusion of his interest from the
operation thereof.
84. Duration of preservation orders
A preservation order shall expire ninety days after the date on which notice of
the making of the order is published in the Gazette, unless—
(a) there is an application for a forfeiture order pending before the court
in respect of the property subject to the preservation order;
(b) there is an unsatisfied forfeiture order in force in relation to the
property subject to the preservation order; or
(c) the order is rescinded before the expiry of that period.
85. Seizure of property subject to preservation orders
(1) In order to prevent property subject to a preservation order from being
disposed of or removed contrary to that order, any police officer may seize any of
that property if he has reasonable grounds to believe that the property will be so
disposed of or removed.
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the directions of the court that made the relevant preservation order.
86. Appointment of manager in respect of property subject to preservation
orders
(1) Where a court has made a preservation order, the court shall, if it deems
it appropriate or at the request of the Agency Director, at the time of the making
of the order or at a later time—
(a) appoint a manager to do, subject to the directions of that court or the
Agency Director, any one or more of the following on behalf of the
person against whom the preservation order has been made, namely
—
(i) to assume control over the property;
(ii) to take care of the said property;
(iii) to administer the said property and to do any act necessary for
that purpose;
(iv) where the said property is a business or undertaking, to carry
on, with due regard to any law which may be applicable, the
business or undertaking; and
(v) in the case of property that is perishable, or liable to
deterioration, decay or injury by being detained in custody to
sell or otherwise dispose of the said property;
(b) order any person holding property subject to the preservation order to
surrender forthwith, or within such period as that court may determine,
any such property into the custody of the manager.
(2) The court that made an order under subsection (1) may make the order
relating to the fees and expenditure of the receiver as it deems fit, including an
order for the payment of the fees of the manager—
(a) from the forfeited property if a forfeiture order is made; or
(b) by the Government if no forfeiture order is made.
87. Orders in respect of immovable property subject to preservation order
(1) A court that has made a preservation order in respect of immovable property
may at any time, with a view to ensuring the effective execution of a subsequent
order, order the Registrar of Lands to place a restriction on the land register in
respect of that immovable property.
(2) An order under subsection (1) may be made in respect of the following
restrictions—
(a) that the immovable property shall not without the consent of the court
be mortgaged or otherwise encumbered;
(b) that the immovable property shall not without the consent of the court,
be attached or sold in execution; and
(c) that the immovable property shall not, without the consent of the court
—
(i) vesting the Registrar of the High Court or Official Receiver
concerned, as the case may be, when the estate of the owner
of that immovable property is sequestrated;
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(ii) where the owners of the immovable property is a company or

other corporate body which is being wound up, form part of the
assets of that company or corporate body.
(3) In order to give effect to subsection (1), the Registrar of Lands concerned
shall—
(a) make the necessary entries in his registers and the necessary
endorsement on the office copy of the title deed, and thereupon
any such restriction shall be effective against all persons except, in
the case of a restriction contemplated in subsection (2)(b), against
any person in whose favour a mortgage bond or other charge was
registered against the title deed of immovable property prior to the
endorsement of the restriction on the title deed of the immovable
property, but shall lapse on the transfer of ownership of the immovable
property concerned;
(b) when the original of the title deed is produced to him, make the
necessary endorsement thereon.
(4) Unless the court directs otherwise, the custody of immovable property on
the title deed of which a restriction contemplated in subsection (2)(c) was endorsed
shall, from the date on which—
(a) the estate of the owner of the immovable property is sequestrated; or
(b) where the owner of the immovable property is a company or other
corporate body, that company or corporate body is being wound up,
vest in the person or persons in whom the said custody would have vested if
such a restriction were not so endorsed.
(5) Where the court granted its consent in respect of a restriction contemplated
in subsection (2)(c) and endorsed on the title deed of immovable property, the
immovable property shall be deemed, if the—
(a) estate of the owner of the immovable property was sequestrated, to
have vested in the Registrar of the High Court or Official Receiver
concerned, as the case may be, as if such a restriction were not so
endorsed; or
(b) owner of the immovable property is a company or other legal entity
which is being wound up, to have formed part of the assets of such
company or legal entity as if such a restriction were not so endorsed.
(6) A person affected by an order contemplated in subsection (1) may at any
time apply for the rescission of the order.
88. Provision for expenses
(1) A preservation order may make such provision as the court deems fit for
reasonable living expenses of a person holding an interest in property subject to a
preservation order and his family or household.
(2) A court shall not make provisions for any expenses under subsection
(1)unless it is satisfied that—
(a) the person cannot meet the expenses concerned out of his property
which is not subject to the preservation order; and
(b) the person has disclosed under oath all his interest in the property
and has submitted to that court an affidavit.
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89. Variation and rescission of orders

(1) A court which makes a preservation order—
(a) may, on application by a person affected by that order, vary or rescind
the preservation order or an order authorising the seizure of the
property concerned or other ancillary order if it is satisfied—
(i) that the operation of the order concerned will deprive the
applicant of the means to provide for his reasonable living
expenses and cause undue hardship for the applicant; and
(ii) that the hardship that the applicant will suffer as a result of the
order outweighs the risk that the property concerned may be
destroyed, lost, damaged, concealed or transferred; and
(b) shall rescind the preservation order when the proceedings against the
defendant concerned are concluded.
(2) When a court orders the rescission of an order authorising the seizure of
property under paragraph (a) of subsection (1), the court shall make such other
order as it considers appropriate for the proper, fair and effective execution of the
preservation order concerned.
(3) A person affected by an order for the appointment of a manager may at
any time, apply for the—
(a) variation or rescission of the order;
(b) variation of the terms of the appointment of the manager concerned;
or
(c) discharge of the manager.
(4) The court that made an order for the appointment of a manager—
(a) may, if it deems it necessary in the interests of justice, at any time—
(i) vary or rescind the order;
(ii) vary the terms of the appointment of the manager concerned; or
(iii) discharge that manager;
(b) shall rescind the order and discharge the manager concerned if the
relevant preservation order is rescinded.
(5) A person affected by an order in respect of immovable property may, at any
time, apply for the rescission of the order.
(6) The court that made an order in respect of immovable property—
(i) may, if it deems it necessary in the interests of justice, at any time
rescind the order; or
(ii) shall rescind the order if the relevant preservation order is rescinded.
(7) If an order in respect of immovable property is rescinded, the court shall
direct the Registrar of Lands concerned to lift any caveat entered by virtue of that
order on the land registry in respect of that immovable property, and the Registrar
shall give effect to such direction.
90. Application for forfeiture order
(1) If a preservation order is in force, the Agency Director may apply to the
High Court for an order forfeiting to the Government all or any of the property that
is subject to the preservation order.
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(2) The Agency Director shall give fourteen days notice of an application under
subsection (1) to every person who served notice in terms of section 83(3).
(3) A notice under subsection (2) shall be served in accordance with the
provisions of the Civil Procedure Act (Cap. 21).
(4) A person who served notice under section 83(3) may appear at the hearing
of the application under subsection (1) to—
(a) oppose the making of the order; or
(b) apply for an order—
(i) excluding his interest in that property from the operation of the
order; or
(ii) varying the operation of the order in respect of that property,
and may adduce evidence at the hearing of the application.
91. Late service of notice
(1) A person who, for any reason, does not serve notice in terms of section 83(3)
may, within fourteen days of his becoming aware of the existence of a preservation
order, apply to the court for leave to serve that notice out of time.
(2) An application under subsection (1) may be made before or after the date
on which an application for a forfeiture order is made under section 90(1), but shall
be made before judgment is given in respect of such an application for a forfeiture
order.
(3) The court may grant an applicant referred to in subsection (1) leave to serve
notice in terms of section 83(3) within the period which the court deems appropriate,
if the court is satisfied on good cause shown that such applicant—
(a) has for sufficient reason failed to serve notice in terms of section 83(3);
and
(b) has an interest in the property which is subject to the preservation
order.
(4) When a court grants an applicant leave to serve notice out of time, the court
—
(a) shall make any order as to costs against the applicant; and
(b) may make any order to regulate the further participation of the
applicant in proceedings concerning an application for a forfeiture
order, which it deems appropriate.
(5) A notice served after leave has been obtained under this section shall
contain full particulars of the chosen address of the person who serves such notice
for the delivery of documents concerning further proceedings under this part and
shall be accompanied by the affidavit referred to in section 83(5).
92. Making of forfeiture order
(1) The High Court shall, subject to section 94, make an order applied for under
section 90(1) if it finds on a balance of probabilities that the property concerned—
(a) has been used or is intended for use in the commission of an offence;
or
(b) is proceeds of crime.
(2) The Court may, when it makes a forfeiture order or at any time thereafter,
make any ancillary orders that it considers appropriate, including orders for and
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
with respect to facilitating the transfer to the Government of property forfeited to

it under such an order.
(3) The absence of a person whose interest in property may be affected by a
forfeiture order does not prevent the Court from making the order.
(4) The validity of an order under subsection (1) is not affected by the
outcome of criminal proceedings, or of an investigation with a view to institute such
proceedings, in respect of an offence with which the property concerned is in some
way associated.
(5) The Registrar of the High Court making a forfeiture order shall publish a
notice thereof in the Gazette as soon as practicable but not more than thirty days
after the order is made.
(6) A forfeiture order shall not take effect—
(a) before the period allowed for an application under section 89 or an
appeal under section 96 has expired; or
(b) before such an application or appeal has been disposed of.
93. Protection of third parties
(1) Where an application is made for a forfeiture order against property, a
person who claims an interest in the property may apply to the High Court, before
the forfeiture order is made and the court, if satisfied on a balance of probabilities—
(a) that the person was not in any way involved in the commission of the
offence; and
(b) where the person acquired the interest during or after the commission
of the offence, that he acquired the interest—
(i) for sufficient consideration; and
(ii) without knowing, and in circumstances such as not to arouse
a reasonable suspicion, that the property was, at the time he
acquired it, tainted property,
the court shall make an order declaring the nature, extent and value (at the time
the order was made) of the person’s interest.
(2) Subject to subsection (3), where a forfeiture order has already been made
directing the forfeiture of property, a person who claims an interest in the property
may, before the end of the period of twelve months commencing on the day on
which the forfeiture order is made, apply under this subsection to the court for an
order under subsection (1).
(3) A person who—
(a) had knowledge of the application for the forfeiture order before the
order was made; or
(b) appeared at the hearing of that application,
shall not be permitted to make an application under subsection (2), except with
leave of the court.
(4) A person who makes an application under subsection (1) or (2) shall give
not less than fourteen days written notice of the making of the application to the
Agency Director who shall be a party to any proceedings in the application.
(5) An applicant or the Agency Director may in accordance with the High Court
rules, appeal to the Court of Appeal against an order made under subsection (1).
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(6) A person appointed by the court under this Act as a receiver or trustee shall,
on application by any person who has obtained an order under subsection (1), and
where the period allowed by the rules of court with respect to the making of appeals
has expired and any appeal against that order has been determined—
(a) direct that the property or Part thereof to which the interest of the
applicant relates, be returned to the applicant; or
(b) direct that an amount equal to the value of the interest of the applicant,
as declared in the order, be paid to the applicant.
(7) The Court may —
(a) before making a confiscation order, or
(b) in the case of property in respect of which a restraining order was
made, where that order was served in accordance with section 68,
or in the case of property in respect of which a court order has been
made authorizing the seizure of the property,
set aside any conveyance or transfer of the property that occurred after
the seizure of the property or the service of the restraining order, unless the
conveyance or transfer was made for value to a person acting in good faith and
without notice.
[Act No. 51 of 2012, s. 14]
94. Exclusion of interests in property

(1) The High Court may, on application—
(a) under section 90(3); or
(b) by a person referred to in section 91(1),
and when it makes a forfeiture order, make an order excluding certain interests
in property which is subject to the order, from the operation thereof.
(2) The High Court may make an order under subsection (1) in relation to the
forfeiture of the proceeds of crime if it finds, on a balance of probabilities, that the
applicant for the order—
(a) has acquired the interest concerned legally and for a consideration,
the value of which is not significantly less than the value of that
interest; and
(b) where the applicant had acquired the interest concerned after the
commencement of this Act, that such person neither knew nor had
reasonable grounds to suspect that the property in which the interest
is held is the proceeds of crime.
(3) The High Court may make an order under subsection (1), in relation to the
forfeiture of property which has been used or is intended for use in the commission
of an offence, if it finds, on a balance of probabilities, that the applicant for the order
had acquired the interest concerned legally and—
(a) neither knew nor had reasonable grounds to suspect that the property
in which the interest is held has been used or is intended for use in
the commission of an offence; or
(b) where the offence concerned had occurred before the
commencement of this Act, the applicant has since the
commencement of this Act taken all reasonable steps to prevent the
use of the property concerned in connection with the commission of
an offence.
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(4) If an applicant for an order under subsection (1) adduces evidence to

show that he did not know or did not have reasonable grounds to suspect that the
property in which the interest is held is tainted property, the Agency Director may
submit a return of the service on the applicant of a notice issued under section 90(3)
in rebuttal of that evidence in respect of the period since the date of such service.
(5) Where the Agency Director submits a return of the service on the applicant
under subsection (4), the applicant shall, in addition to the facts referred to in
subsections (2)(a) and (b), also prove on a balance of probabilities that, since such
service, he has taken all reasonable steps to prevent the further use of the property
concerned in the commission of an offence.
(6) The High Court making an order for the exclusion of an interest in property
under subsection (1) may, in the interest of the administration of justice or in
the public interest, make that order upon the conditions that the High Court
deems appropriate, including a condition requiring the person who applied for
the exclusion to take all reasonable steps, within a period that the High Court
may determine, to prevent the future use of the property in connection with the
commission of an offence.
95. Forfeiture order by default
(1) If the Agency Director applies for a forfeiture order by default and the
High Court is satisfied that no person has appeared on the date upon which an
application under section 91(1) is to be heard and, on the grounds of sufficient
proof or otherwise, that all persons who served notices in terms of section 83(3)
have knowledge of notices given under section 91(2), the High Court may—
(a) make any order by default which the High Court could have made
under sections 88(1) and (2);
(b) make such order as the High Court may consider appropriate in the
circumstances; or
(c) make no order.
(2) The High Court may, before making an order in terms of subsection (1),
call upon the Agency Director to adduce such further evidence, either in writing or
orally, in support of his application as the High Court may consider necessary.
(3) A person whose interest in the property concerned is affected by the
forfeiture order or other order made by the High Court under subsection (1) may,
within twenty days after that person has acquired knowledge of such order or
direction, set the matter down for variation or rescission by the High Court.
(4) The court may, upon good cause shown, vary or rescind the default order
or give any other direction on such terms as it deems appropriate.
96. Exclusion of interests in forfeited property
(1) A person affected by a forfeiture order who was entitled to receive notice of
the application for the order under section 91(2), but did not receive such notice,
may, within forty five days after the notice is published in the Gazette, apply to
the High Court for an order excluding his interest in the property concerned from
the operation of the order, or varying the operation of the order in respect of such
property.
(2) The hearing of the application shall, to the extent practicable and consistent
with the interests of justice be held within thirty days of the filing of the application.
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(3) The High Court may make an order under subsection (1) if it finds on a
balance of probabilities that the applicant for the order falls within the provisions of
subsections (2) or (3) of section 91.
(4) The provisions of section 94(4) and (5) shall apply to any proceedings under
this section.
97. Appeal against forfeiture order
Any preservation order and any order authorizing the seizure of the property
concerned or other ancillary order which is in force at the time of any decision
regarding the making of a forfeiture order under section 92(1) shall remain in force
pending the outcome of any appeal against the decision concerned.
98. Effect of forfeiture order
(1) Where the High Court has made a forfeiture order and a manager has
not been appointed in respect of any of the property concerned, the High Court
may appoint a manager to perform any of the functions referred to in section 99
in respect of that property.
(2) On the date when a forfeiture order takes effect the property subject to the
order shall be forfeited to the Government and vests in the manager on behalf of
the Government.
(3) Upon a forfeiture order taking effect the manager may take possession of
on the property subject to the order on behalf of the Government from any person
in possession, or entitled to possession, of the property.
99. Fulfilment of forfeiture order
(1) The manager shall, subject to any order for the exclusion of interests
in forfeited property under section 94(2)(a) or 96(3) and in accordance with the
directions of the Agency Director—
(a) deposit any moneys forfeited into the Fund;
(b) deliver any property forfeited into the Fund; or
(c) dispose of property forfeited by sale or any other means and deposit
the proceeds of the sale or disposition into the Fund.
(2) Any right or interest in forfeited property not exercisable by or transferable
to the Government, shall expire and shall not revert to the person who has
possession, or was entitled to possession, of the property immediately before the
forfeiture order took effect.
(3) A person who has possession, or was entitled to possession, of forfeited
property immediately before the forfeiture order took effect, or any person acting
together with, or on behalf of that person, shall not be eligible to purchase forfeited
property at any sale held by the manager.
(4) The expenses incurred in connection with the forfeiture and the sale,
including expenses of seizure, maintenance and custody of the property pending its
disposition, advertising and the High Court costs shall be defrayed out of the Fund.
PART IX – GENERAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO
PRESERVATION AND FORFEITURE OF PROPERTY
100. Offence may form the basis of multiple orders
The fact that a preservation order or a forfeiture order has been made on the
basis of an offence in which a specific person has been involved shall not prevent
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
the making of another or other preservation orders or forfeiture orders on the basis
of the same offence.
101. Application of part to deceased estates
(1) Any notice authorised or required to be given to a person under this Part
shall, in the case of a deceased person, be sufficiently given to the administrator
of the deceased’s estate.
(2) A reference in this Part to the property of a person shall, in the case of
a person who is deceased, be a reference to property that the deceased held
immediately before his death.
(3) An order may be applied for and made under this Part—
(a) in respect of property which forms part of a deceased’s estate; and
(b) on evidence adduced concerning the activities of a deceased person.
102. Effect of death of joint owner of preserved property
(1) If a person has an interest in property as a joint owner, his death after a
preservation order is made in respect of the interest does not, while the order is
in force, operate to vest the interest in the surviving joint owner or owners and the
preservation order continues to apply to the interest as if the person had not died.
(2) A forfeiture order made in respect of that interest applies as if the order took
effect in relation to the interest immediately before the person died.
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to an interest in property if a preservation
order ceases to apply to that interest without a forfeiture order being made in
respect of that interest.
PART X – PRODUCTION ORDERS AND
OTHER INFORMATION GATHERING POWERS
103. Production orders
(1) Where a person has been charged with or convicted of an offence,
and a police officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that any person has
possession or control of—
(a) a document relevant to identifying, locating or quantifying property of
the person, or to identifying or locating a document necessary for the
transfer of property of such person; or
(b) a document relevant to identifying, locating or quantifying tainted
property in relation to the offence, or to identifying or locating a
document necessary for the transfer of tainted property in relation to
the offence,
the police officer may make an ex parte application with a supporting affidavit to
a court for an order against the person suspected of having possession or control
of a document of the kind referred to.
(2) A police officer to whom the documents are produced may—
(a) inspect the documents;
(b) make copies of the documents; or
(c) retain the documents for as long as is reasonably necessary for the
purposes of this Act.
(3) Where a police officer retains documents produced to him, he shall make a
copy of the documents available to the person who produced them.
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104. Evidential value of information

(1) Where a person produces a document pursuant to an order under this Part,
the production of the document, or any information, document or things obtained
as a direct or indirect consequence of the production of the document, shall not
admissible against the person in any criminal proceedings except proceedings
under section 107.
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), proceedings on an application for a
restraining order, or a confiscation order are civil proceedings.
105. Failure to comply with a production order
(1) Where a person is required by a production order to produce a document
to a police officer, the person shall commit an offence under this section if he—
(a) contravenes the order without reasonable cause; or
(b) knowingly produces or makes available a document known to the
person to be false or misleading in a material particular.
(2) A person who contravenes the provisions of this section commits an offence
and shall, on conviction, be liable—
exceeding seven years or a fine not exceeding two million shillings
or to both; or,
shillings.
106. Power to search for and seize documents relevant to locating property
(1) A police officer may, under warrant issued under section 107—
(a) enter upon land or into premises;
(b) search the land or premises for any document of the type described
in section 103(1); and
(c) seize any document found in the course of that search that the police
officer believes, on reasonable grounds, to be a relevant document
in relation to an offence, provided that the entry, search and seizure
is made.
(2) Any authority or officer exercising powers under this Act or any regulations
made thereunder who, without reasons recorded in writing—
(a) searches or causes to be searched any building or place; or
(b) detains, searches or arrests any person,
commits an offence and is liable on conviction to imprisonment for a term not
exceeding five years, or a fine not exceeding one million shillings, or to both.
107. Search warrant for location of documents relevant to locating property
(1) Where—
(a) a person has been charged or convicted of an offence; or
(b) a police officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that there is
or may be, within the next seventy-two hours, upon any land or in
any premises, a document of the type described in section 103(1) in
relation to the offence,
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
the police officer may make an application supported by an affidavit to a court

of competent jurisdiction for a search warrant in respect of that land or those
premises.
(2) Where an application is made under subsection (1) for a warrant to
search land or premises, the court may, subject to subsection (4) issue a warrant
authorizing a police officer, whether or not named in the warrant, with such
assistance and by such force as is necessary and reasonable—
(a) to enter upon the land or into any premises and to search the land or
premises for property of that kind; and
(b) to seize property found in the course of the search that the police
officer believes on reasonable grounds to be property of that kind.
(3) A court shall not issue a warrant under subsection (2) unless it is satisfied
that—
(a) a production order has been given in respect of the document and
has not been complied with; or
(b) a production order in respect of the document would be unlikely to be
effective; or
(c) the investigation for the purposes of which the search warrant is being
sought might be seriously prejudiced if the police officer does not gain
immediate access to the document without any notice to any person;
or
(d) the document involved cannot be identified or described with sufficient
particularity to enable a production order to be obtained.
(4) A warrant issued under this section shall state—
(a) the purpose for which it is issued, including a reference to the nature
of the relevant offence;
(b) a description of the kind of documents authorised to be seized;
(c) a time at which the warrant ceases to be in force; and
(d) whether entry is authorised to be made at any time of the day or night
or during specified hours.
(5) If during the course of searching under a warrant issued under this section,
a police officer finds—
(a) a document of the type described in section 103(1) that the police
officer believes on reasonable grounds to relate to the relevant
offence, or to another offence; or
(b) anything the police officer believes on reasonable grounds will afford
evidence as to the commission of an offence,
the police officer may seize that property or thing and the warrant shall be
deemed to authorise such seizure.
108. Searches conducted without written reasons
An officer or any authority exercising powers under this Act or Regulations made
thereunder who, without reasons recorded in writing—
(a) searches or causes to be searched any building or place; or
(b) detains or searches or arrests any person,
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
commits an offence and is liable upon conviction to imprisonment for a term not
exceeding five years, or a fine not exceeding one million shillings, or both.
PART XI – CRIMINAL ASSETS RECOVERY FUND
109. Establishment of Criminal Assets Recovery Fund
There is established a fund to be known as the Criminal Assets Recovery Fund.
110. Finances of the Fund
The Fund shall consist of—
(a) all moneys derived from the fulfilment of confiscation and forfeiture
orders stipulated in Part VII to X;
(b) all property derived from the fulfilment of forfeiture orders as stipulated
in section 100;
(c) the balance of all moneys derived from the execution of foreign
confiscation orders after payments have been made to requesting
countries under this Act;
(d) any moneys appropriated by Parliament, or paid into, or allocated to,
the Fund under the provisions of any other Act;
(e) domestic and foreign grants;
(f) any money or property recovered under the Anti-Corruption and
Economic Crimes Act, 2003 (No. 12 of 2003), or under any other Act
other than money or property recovered on behalf of any public body
or person;
(g) any property or amount of money received or acquired from any other
legal sources; and
(h) all property or moneys transferred to the Fund pursuant to the
provisions of this Act.
111. Administration of the Fund
The Fund shall be administered by the Agency.
112. Functions of the Agency under this Part
In the administration of the Fund, the following shall apply—
(a) all monies derived from concluded confiscation and forfeiture orders
stipulated in Parts VII to X shall be paid into the Consolidated Fund;
and
(b) all property derived from concluded confiscation or forfeiture orders
stipulated in Parts VII to X shall vest in the Government and be
disposed of in accordance with relevant law relating to disposal of
public property.
113. Other matters to be prescribed
(1) The Cabinet Secretary may prescribe, by way of regulations, matters in
connection with—
(a) the administrative operations of the Fund; and
(b) the utilization of properties and monies standing to the credit of the
Fund.
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(2) Regulations issued under subsection (1) shall be laid before Parliament.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 21.]
PART XII – INTERNATIONAL ASSISTANCE

IN INVESTIGATIONS AND PROCEEDINGS
114. Principles of mutuality
For the purposes of this Part, the principles of mutuality and reciprocity shall at
all times be recognised.
115. Request made by Kenya to other countries
(1) For the purpose of an investigation or proceedings under this Act, the
Attorney-General may request an appropriate authority of another country to
arrange for—
(a) evidence to be taken, or information, documents or articles to be
produced or obtained in that country;
(b) a warrant or other instrument authorizing search and seizure to be
obtained and executed in that country;
(c) a person from that country to come to Kenya to assist in the
investigation or proceedings;
(d) a restraint order or forfeiture order made under this Act to be enforced
in that country, or a similar order to be obtained and executed in that
country to preserve property that had it been located in Kenya would
be subject to forfeiture or confiscation under this Act;
(e) an order or notice under this Act to be served on a person in that
country; or
(f) other assistance to be provided, whether pursuant to a treaty or other
written arrangement between Kenya and that country or otherwise.
(2) Requests by other countries to Kenya for assistance of a kind specified in
subsection (1) may be made to the Attorney-General.
116. Evidence, etc., obtained from another country
Evidence, documents or articles obtained pursuant to a request made under
section 115 shall—
(a) be received in evidence in Kenya;
(b) not be used for a purpose other than that specified in that request,
except with the consent of the appropriate authority of the foreign
country; and
(c) be returned when its use is no longer required, unless that authority
indicates to the contrary.
117. Transfer to Kenya of a person to assist in an investigation or
proceedings
(1) The effect of a request made pursuant to section 115(c) shall be to authorise
the entry into and departure from Kenya of the person who is the subject of the
request, as well as the presence of the person in Kenya for so long as required for
the purposes of the request.
(2) Where the person who is the subject of a request under section 111(c) is in
custody in the other country by virtue of a sentence or order of a court or tribunal
exercising criminal jurisdiction, the effect of a request under section 115(c) shall be
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
to authorise the detention in custody of the person in transit to and from Kenya,
and while in Kenya at such places as the Attorney-General may specify.
(3) A person in Kenya pursuant to a request under section 115(1) shall not—
(a) be detained, prosecuted or punished for any offence that is alleged
to have been committed, or was committed, prior to that person’s
departure from the requested country pursuant to the request;
(b) be subjected to any civil suit in respect of any act or omission that is
alleged to have occurred, or occurred, prior to that person’s departure
from the requested country pursuant to the request;
(c) be required to give evidence or produce a document or thing which
he could not be required to give or produce—
(i) in any criminal proceeding in Kenya; or
(ii) subject to the requesting country conceding any claim by the
person to a privilege or immunity under the law of the requested
country in any criminal proceedings in the requested country; or
(d) be required to give evidence or produce a document or thing in any
proceeding in Kenya other than the proceeding to which the request
relates.
118. Requests to Kenya for evidence
(1) Where country requests assistance from Kenya in obtaining evidence for
the purpose of an investigation or a proceeding in relation to any offence under
corresponding law of that country, the Attorney-General may nominate a court in
Kenya to receive such evidence as appears to the court appropriate in order to
give effect to the request.
(2) The court nominated pursuant to subsection (1) shall have the same power
to secure the attendance of witnesses, administer oaths and receive evidence as
it has for the purposes of other proceedings before the court—
(3) The evidence received by the court shall be certified or verified by the
court in such manner as the Attorney-General specifies and then furnished to the
Attorney-General for transmission to the requesting country.
119. Requests to Kenya for search warrants
(1) Where a country requests assistance from Kenya in obtaining and executing
a search and seizure warrant for the purposes of an investigation or proceedings
relating to the corresponding law of that country, the Attorney-General may apply
to the High Court for the warrant requested.
(2) Where, on application, the High Court is satisfied that—
(a) a proceeding or investigation relating to a serious offence has
commenced in the requesting country; and
(b) there are reasonable grounds for believing that evidence relevant to
the investigation or proceedings is located in Kenya,
it may issue a warrant under this section authorizing entry for the purpose of
search for the thing and if found the thing shall be seized.
(3) Any written law with respect to the procedure for the making and disposal of
an application for the execution of a search warrant shall apply, as if the application
were for the issue of a warrant under the Criminal Procedure Code (Cap. 75).
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
120. Requests to Kenya for the enforcement of certain orders

(1) Where—
(a) a court or tribunal of another country issues a restraint order or
confiscation order, (whether based upon criminal or in rem or other
non-conviction based proceedings), in respect of an offence against
the corresponding law of that country; and
(b) that country requests assistance from Kenya in enforcing those orders
against property believed to be located in Kenya,
the Attorney-General may apply to the High Court for the registration of the
order.
(2) Where the Attorney-General applies to the High Court for the registration of
an order pursuant to subsection (1) the High Court shall register the order.
(3) An order registered in accordance with this section shall have effect and
shall be enforced, as if it were an order made under this Act or forfeiture orders, as
the case may be where the High Court is satisfied that—
(a) the order is final, not subject to appeal, and a certified copy of
such order bearing the seal or the signature of the court has been
submitted;
(b) the person against whom, or in relation to whose property the order
has been made, received notice of the proceedings outside of Kenya
and had an opportunity to defend his interest in the property; and
(c) enforcement of the order would not be contrary to the interests of
justice.
(4) To preserve the availability of property in Kenya that is subject to
confiscation proceedings that have been or are likely to be instituted in another
country, the Attorney-General may apply to the court to issue an order of restraint
of the said property.
(5) In issuing the order of restraint the court may rely on information set
forth in the request from the other country describing the nature of the pending
investigations or proceedings and setting forth a reasonable basis to believe that
the said property will be named in a confiscation order at the conclusion of the
proceedings.
(6) A copy of the application to register and enforce orders from another country
shall be provided to any person who appears to own or control or otherwise have
a legal interest in the property in the manner prescribed in section 79.
(7) A person entitled to notice pursuant to subsection (6) shall have thirty days
from the date of such receipt of notice or publication, whichever is later, to file an
objection contesting the enforcement of the order from another country.
(8) Unless a person contesting enforcement of an order from another country
is able to establish one of the conditions of section 93(1) the court may enter such
orders as may be necessary to give effect to the orders of a court or tribunal of the
other country and the court shall be bound by the findings of fact to the extent that
they are stated in the foreign order.
(9) Where an amount of money is to be paid under an order from another
country is expressed in a currency other than that of Kenya, the amount shall be
converted into the currency of Kenya on the basis of the official exchange rate
prevailing as of the date of the registration of the order.
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(10) Where the Attorney-General considers it appropriate either because an

international arrangement so requires or because it is permits or in the public
interest, the Attorney-General may order that the whole or any part of any property
forfeited pursuant subsection (7) or the value thereof be returned or remitted to the
requesting state.
PART XIII – MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
121. Access to information
(1) The Attorney-General may request any person employed in or associated
with a government department or statutory body to furnish him with all information
that may reasonably be required for any investigation in terms of this Act and such
person shall notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in any law which
prohibits or precludes that person—
(a) from disclosing any information relating to the activities, affairs or
business of any other person; or
(b) from permitting any person to have access to any registers, records
or other documents, or electronic data which have a bearing on the
said activities, affairs or business,
furnish the Attorney-General with such information and permit the Attorney-
General to have access to any registers, records, documents, and electronic data,
which may contain such information.
(2) The provisions of subsection (1) shall not be construed as prohibiting
any Cabinet Secretary by whom or any other department or institution by which,
or under the control of whom or which, any law referred to in subsection (4)
is administered, or any board, institution or body established by or under any
such law, from making any practical and reasonable procedural arrangements
with regard to the furnishing of such information or the granting of the access
contemplated in subsection (1) and according to which the information or the
granting of the access contemplated in that subsection shall be furnished or
granted with regard to any reasonable safeguards which any such Cabinet
Secretary, authority, board, institution, body or person, subject to the provisions
of subsection (3), requires to maintain the confidentiality of such information,
registers, records, documents or electronic media.
(3) No person shall, without the written permission of the Attorney-General
disclose to any other person any confidential information, registers, records,
documents or electronic data which came to his knowledge in the performance of
that person’s functions in terms of this Act and relating to the activities, affairs or
business of any other person, except—
(a) for the purpose of performing that person’s functions in terms of this
Act;
(b) in the course of adducing evidence in any criminal proceedings or
proceedings in terms of this Act; or
(c) when required to do so by an order of a court of law.
(4) A person who contravenes subsection (3) commits an offence and shall, on
conviction, be liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years, or to a
fine not exceeding two million shillings, or to both.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 22.]
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
122. Investigations
Whenever the Attorney-General has reason to believe that any person may be
in possession of information relevant to the commission or intended commission
of an alleged offence in terms of this Act, or any person or enterprise may be
in possession, custody or control of any documentary material relevant to such
alleged offence, the Attorney-General may, prior to the institution of any civil or
criminal proceeding, under written authority direct a specific investigation.
123. Sharing of information
Notwithstanding the provisions of the Income Tax Act (Cap. 470), and with
regard to any other secrecy provision in any other Act, whenever any investigation
is instituted in terms of this Act, including an investigation into any other offence,
and an investigation into the property, financial activities, affairs or business of any
person, the Commissioner General of the Kenya Revenue Authority or any official
designated by that person for this purpose, shall be notified of such investigation
with a view to mutual cooperation and the sharing of information.
124. Hearings of court to be open to public
(1) Subject to the provisions of this section, the hearings of the court
contemplated in this Act, except for ex parte applications, shall be open to the
public.
(2) If the court, in any proceedings before it, is satisfied that—
(a) it would be in the interest of justice; or
(b) there is a likelihood that harm may ensue to any person as a result
of the proceedings being open,
it may direct that such proceedings be held behind closed doors and that the
public or any category thereof shall not be present at such proceedings or any part
thereof.
(3) An application for proceedings to be held behind closed doors may be
brought by the Attorney-General or the manager referred to in section 68 and any
other person referred to in subsection (2), and such application shall be heard
behind closed doors.
(4) The court may at any time review its decision with regard to the question
whether or not the proceedings shall be held behind closed doors.
(5) Where the court pursuant to subsection (2) on any grounds referred to in
that subsection directs that the public or any category thereof shall not be present
at any proceedings or part thereof, the court may—
(a) direct that no information relating to the proceedings, or any part
thereof held behind closed doors, shall be made public in any manner;
(b) direct that no person, in any manner, shall make public any
information which may reveal the identity of any witness in the
proceedings; and
(c) give such directions in respect of the record of proceedings as may
be necessary to protect the identity of any witness:
Provided that the court may authorise the publication of any information it
considers just and equitable.
(6) A person who discloses information in contravention of subsection (5)
commits an offence and shall, on conviction, be liable to imprisonment for a term
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
not exceeding two years, or to a fine not exceeding five hundred thousand shillings,
or to both.
125. Monitoring orders
(1) An authorised officer may apply, ex parte, for a monitoring order directing
a reporting institution to give information to that officer.
(2) A monitoring order shall—
(a) direct a reporting institution to disclose information obtained by it
about transactions conducted through an account held by a particular
person with it;
(b) be for such a period as the court may deem necessary.
(3) A monitoring order shall not be issued unless the court is satisfied that there
are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the person in respect of whose account
the order is sought has—
(a) committed or was involved in the commission, or is about to commit
or be involved in the commission of, a serious offence; or
(b) benefited directly or indirectly, or is about to benefit directly or
indirectly from the commission of a serious offence.
(4) A monitoring order shall specify—
(a) the name or names in which the account is held or believed to be
held; and
(b) the information that the institution is required to give.
(5) Where a reporting institution which has been given notice of a monitoring
order, knowingly—
(a) contravenes the order; or
(b) provides false or misleading information in purported compliance with
the order,
commits an offence.
(6) A person who contravenes the provisions of this section shall, on conviction,
be liable—
exceeding three years, or to a fine not exceeding two million shillings,
or to both; or
shillings.
126. Monitoring orders not to be disclosed
(1) A reporting institution that is, or has been subject to a monitoring order shall
not disclose the existence or operation of the order to any person except—
(a) an officer or agent of the institution for the purpose of ensuring
compliance with the order;
(b) a legal adviser for the purpose of obtaining legal advice or
representation in respect of the order; or
(c) a police officer authorised in writing to receive the information.
(2) A person who contravenes subsection (1) shall, on conviction, be liable—
74
[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009

exceeding three years, or to a fine not exceeding two million shillings,
or to both; or
shillings.
(3) A person described in subsection (1) shall not disclose the existence or
operation of a monitoring order except to another such person, and may do so only
for the purposes of the performance of his duties or functions.
(4) A person who contravenes the provisions of subsection (3) commits an
offence and shall, on conviction, be liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
three years or to a fine not exceeding two million shillings or to both.
(5) Nothing in this section prevents the disclosure of information concerning a
monitoring order for the purposes of or in connection with legal proceedings or in
the course of proceedings before a court, provided that nothing in this section shall
be construed as requiring a legal adviser to disclose to any court the existence or
operation of a monitoring order.
127. Conduct of person outside Kenya
The conduct of a person that takes place outside Kenya constitutes an offence
under this Act if the conduct would constitute an offence against a provision of any
law in Kenya if it occurred in Kenya.
128. Admissibility of Electronic Evidence
Notwithstanding the provisions of the Evidence Act (Cap. 80), any court hearing
any matter in relation to this Act may admit electronic evidence.
129. Admissibility of statements and documents of persons who are dead
or cannot be traced, etc
Notwithstanding any written law to the contrary, in any proceedings against any
person for an offence under this Act—
(a) any statement made by any person to an officer of any enforcement
agency in the course of an investigation under this Act; and
(b) any document, or copy of any document, seized from any person by
an officer of any enforcement agency in exercise of his powers under
this Act,
shall be admissible in evidence in any proceedings under this Act before any
court, where the person who made the statement or the document or the copy of
the document is dead, or cannot be traced or found, or has become incapable of
giving evidence, or whose attendance cannot be procured without an amount of
delay or expense which appears to the court unreasonable.
130. Preservation of secrecy
(1) Except for the purpose of the performance of his duties or the exercise of
his functions under this Act or when lawfully required to do so by any court or under
the provisions of any written law, no person shall disclose any information or matter
which has been obtained by him in the performance of his duties or the exercise
of his functions under this Act.
(2) A person who has any information or matter which to his knowledge has
been disclosed in contravention of subsection (1) shall not disclose that information
or matter to any other person.
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(3) A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) commits an offence and
shall, on conviction, be liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
or a fine not exceeding one million shillings or to both.
130A. Rights and fundamental freedoms
All persons subject to this Act shall enjoy all rights and fundamental freedoms
enshrined in the Constitution unless limited to the extent specified in Article 24 of
the Constitution, this Act or any other Act.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 23.]
130B. Limitation of right to privacy

(1) The right to privacy guaranteed under Article 31 of the Constitution is
hereby limited under Article 24 of the Constitution only to the nature and extent
contemplated under subsection (2).
(2) Where a person is suspected or accused of an offence under this Act—
(a) the person’s home or property may be searched;
(b) the person’s possessions may be seized;
(c) information relating to that person’s financial, family or private affairs
where required may be revealed; or
(d) the privacy of a person’s communications may be investigated or
otherwise interfered with.
(3) A limitation of a right under subsection (1) shall apply only for the purpose
of the prevention, detection, investigation and prosecution of proceeds of crime,
money laundering and financing of terrorism.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 23.]
130C. Transitional provision

The Agency Director shall serve for the remaining period of the contract or the
period stipulated in section 53(2A), whichever is longer.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 23.]
131. Supersession
Where there is a conflict between the provisions of this Act and the provisions
of any written law with regard to any matter, the provisions of this Act shall prevail.
132. Amendment of Schedules
(1) The Cabinet Secretary may, by order in the Gazette, amend the First,
Second or the Fourth Schedules.
(2) An Order made under subsection (1) shall not decrease the monetary sums
specified in the Second and Fourth Schedules.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 24.]
133. Consequential amendments

The Acts identified in the Sixth Schedule are amended as indicated in the Sixth
Schedule.
134. Regulations
(1) The Cabinet Secretary shall make Regulations—
(a) with regard to the nature of the information contemplated in section
44 and the manner in which it is to be reported;
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
(b) with regard to the designation of persons for purposes of section 47;
(c) in consultation with the Chief Justice, prescribing from time to time
the maximum allowable costs for legal services in connection with an
application for a preservation of property order or forfeiture order or
the defending of a criminal charge which may be met out of property
that is subject to a preservation of property order;
(d) providing for high risk customers or clients; and
(e) providing for any matter which he may consider necessary or
expedient to prescribe or to regulate in order to achieve the objects
of this Act.
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1), the Cabinet Secretary may
make regulations generally for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act,
including the following—
(a) regulations that require reporting institution to exercise due diligence
and take reasonable measures to satisfy themselves as to the true
identity of any person seeking to enter into a business relationship with
them, or seeking to carry out a transaction or series of transactions
with them, by requiring the person to produce an official record
reasonably capable of establishing the true identity of the person:
(b) regulations that require reporting institution to establish and maintain
records of transactions;
(c) regulations that require reporting institution to report transactions or
activities that they have reasonable grounds to believe are suspicious
or unusual as defined by the regulations and this Act;
(d) regulations that require reporting institution to establish and maintain
internal reporting procedures to make employees aware of domestic
laws relating to money-laundering, and the procedures and related
policies established and maintained by them pursuant to this Act, to
provide employees with appropriate training in the recognition and
handling of suspicious activities that may be indicative of money-
laundering, to provide for an independent auditing of monitoring
procedures, and to maintain an adequate anti-money laundering
compliance programme.
[Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 25.]
FIRST SCHEDULE
[Section 2, Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 26.]
SUPERVISORY BODIES
The following institutions are the supervisory bodies referred to in section 2—
(a) Central Bank of Kenya;
(b) Insurance Regulatory Authority;
(c) Betting and Licensing Control Board;
(d) Capital Markets Authority;
(e) Institute of Certified Public Accountants of Kenya;
77
No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
(f) Estate Agents Registration Board;

(g) Non-Governmental Organizations Co-ordination Board;
(h) Retirement Benefits Authority;
(i) Law Society of Kenya;
(j) Sacco Societies Regulatory Authority.
SECOND SCHEDULE
[Section 12(1).]
CONVEYANCE OF MONETARY INSTRUMENTS TO OR FROM KENYA

A person who transports monetary instruments of US $10,000 or its equivalent
in Kenya Shillings or any other currency into or out of Kenya shall declare, in a
prescribed form, at the port of entry or exit.
THIRD SCHEDULE
[Section 32(a).]
OATH OF CONFIDENTIALITY
I,..................................................... (full
names) ....................................................
DO HEREBY SWEAR BY THE ALMIGHTY GOD/SOLEMNLY AND
SINCERELY AFFIRM THAT
I will not, without due authority, disclose or make known to any person any
information acquired by me by reason of the duties performed by me on behalf or
under the direction of the Financial Reporting Centre or by reason of any office or
employment held by me pursuant to The Proceeds of Crime and Anti-
Money Laundering Act, SO HELP ME GOD.
DATED this ........................ day of ................................ 20 .............
Name of Officer ..................................... Signature ..........................
SWORN/AFFIRMED by the said .......................... at .......................
BEFORE ME .....................................................................................
FOURTH SCHEDULE
[Section 44(3).]
REPORTING THRESHOLD
A reporting institution shall file reports all cash transactions exceeding US$
10,000 or its equivalent in any other currency carried out by it.
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[Rev. 2022] No. 9 of 2009
FIFTH SCHEDULE
[Section 51, Act No. 16 of 2021, s. 27.]
PROVISIONS AS TO THE CONDUCT OF BUSINESS

AND AFFAIRS OF THE BOARD AND ADVISORY BOARD
1. The Board or Advisory Board to meet at least four times in a year
The Board or Advisory Board shall meet as often as necessary for the
transaction of business but it shall meet not less than four times every financial
year and not more than four months shall elapse between the date of one meeting
and the next.
2. The Chairperson to preside all meetings
(1) The Chairperson shall preside at every meeting of the Board or Advisory
Board at which the chairperson is present but in the absence of the
chairperson, the members present shall appoint one from among their
number to preside at that meeting.
(2) The Chairperson or, in the absence of the chairperson a member appointed
by the Board or Advisory Board to act in the place of the chairperson, may
at any time call a special meeting upon a written request by a majority of
the members.
3. Notice of meeting
Unless six members otherwise agree, at least seven days written notice of every
meeting of the Board or Advisory Board shall be given to every member of the
Board.
4. Decision of the Board or Advisory Board to be by majority
Unless a unanimous decision is reached, a decision on any matter before the
Committee shall be by a majority of votes of the members present and in the case of
an equality of votes, the Chairperson or the member presiding shall have a casting
vote.
5. A member is entitled to have opinion recorded
Any member present at a meeting of the Board or Advisory Board or a sub-
committee thereof, shall have the right to require his opinion to be recorded in the
minutes if the Board or Advisory Board or the sub-committee, as the case may be,
passes a resolution, which in the opinion of that member is contrary to his advice
or to law.
6. Board or Advisory Board member to disclose interest
A member of the Board or Advisory Board who has a direct or indirect interest
in a matter being considered or to be considered by the Board or Advisory Board
shall, as soon as possible after the relevant facts concerning the matter have come
to his knowledge, disclose the nature of his interest to the Board or Advisory Board
and shall not be present during any deliberations on the matter.
7. The Board or Advisory Board to cause minutes to be recorded and kept
The Board or Advisory Board shall cause the minutes of all proceedings of
its meetings to be recorded and kept, and the minutes of each meeting shall be
confirmed by the Board or Advisory Board at the next meeting of the Board or
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No. 9 of 2009 [Rev. 2022]
Advisory Board and signed by the Chairperson or the member presiding at the
meeting.
8. Quorum
(1) Subject to subsection (2), six members shall constitute a quorum for the
conduct of business at any meeting of the Board or Advisory Board.
(2) When there is no quorum at or for the continuation of a meeting of the
Board or Advisory Board only because of the exclusion of a member under
paragraph 6, the other members present may, if they deem it expedient so
to do—
(a) postpone the consideration of that matter until there is a quorum;
or
(b) proceed to consider and decide the matter as if there was quorum.
SIXTH SCHEDULE
[Section 133]
CONSEQUENTIAL AMENDMENTS
1. Extradition (Contiguous and Foreign Countries) Act (Cap. 76)
1. (1) This paragraph amends the Extradition (Contiguous and Foreign Countries
Act (Cap. 76).
(2) The schedule to the Act is amended by inserting at the end the following
paragraph:
"31. any offence that constitutes an offence of money laundering under the
Proceeds of Crime and Anti-Money Laundering Act, 2009."
2. Extradition (Commonwealth Countries) Act (Cap. 77)
1. (1) This paragraph amends the Extradition (Commonwealth Countries) Act
(Cap. 77).
(2) The schedule to the Act is amended by inserting at the end the following
paragraph:
"31. any offence that constitutes an offence of money laundering under the
Proceeds of Crime and Anti-Money Laundering Act, 2009 "
3. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances (Control) Act (No. 4 of 1994)
1. (1) This paragraph amends the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
(Control) Act (No. 4 of 1994).
(2) Section 49 of the Act is repealed.
80

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ProceedsofCrimeandAnti MoneyLaunderingAct9of2009

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LAWS OF KENYA

THE PROCEEDS OF CRIME AND

Revised Edition 2022 [2009]

PROCEEDS OF CRIME AND ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ACT

55F. Agency to facilitate the Advisory Board

91. Late service of notice

126. Monitoring orders not to be disclosed

PROCEEDS OF CRIME AND ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ACT

"authorised officer" means—

(b) anything on which there are marks, figures, symbols, or

"reporting institution" means a financial institution and designated non-

PART II – MONEY LAUNDERING AND RELATED OFFENCES

5. Failure to report suspicion regarding proceeds of crime

12. Conveyance of monetary instruments to or from Kenya

13. Misuse of information

14. Failure to comply with order of court

(a) in the case of a natural person, to imprisonment for a term not

17. Secrecy obligations overridden

18. Client advocate relationship

20. Protection of information and informers

24. Functions and powers of the Centre

(i) reports of usual or suspicious transactions made by reporting

(k) may provide information relating to the commission of an offence

24A. Instructions or directions

(c) be given to such persons and in such manner as may be considered

24B. Powers of the Centre to impose civil penalties for non-compliance

(c) where a person or reporting institution fails to pay the monetary

24C. Disclosure in writing

25. Appointment of Director-General

the instrument of appointment which shall include specific and

26. Resignation of Director-General

27. Removal from office

28. Responsibilities of the Director-General

29. Delegation by the Director-General

32. Oath of confidentiality

34. Obligation to respond to the inspection reports

35. Obligation of persons to provide information to the inspectors

36. Obligation of a supervisory body and its staff

(2) A person who as an employee of a supervisory body deliberately or with

institution, take into account any involvement, whether directly or

37. The Centre’s power to obtain a search warrant

41. Financial year

43. Books of accounts, records, audit and reports

44A. Intervention by Centre

45. Obligation to verify customer identity

applicant to produce an official record reasonably capable of establishing the true

of a business relationship, in respect of which the applicant has already produced

45A. Higher risk countries

46. Obligation to establish and maintain customer records

(b) where evidence of a person’s identity is obtained in accordance with

47. Obligation to establish and maintain internal reporting procedures

47A. Obligation to register with the Centre

48. Application of reporting obligations

PART V – THE ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ADVISORY BOARD

(a) the Chairperson, who shall be appointed by the Cabinet Secretary

50. Functions of the Board

51. Conduct of business of the Board

53A. Staff of the Agency

54. Functions and powers of the Agency