Chem

SUPPORT MATERIAL
FOR
ANNUAL EXAMINATION: 2022-23
CLASS-XI SCIENCE
SUBJECT- CHEMISTRY
FEATURES
MODEL SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

MARKING SCHEME
CHAPTER WISE QUESTIONS
SOLUTION TO THE QUESTONS
REGIONAL TRAINING CENTRE

DAV INSTITUTIONS
ODISHA ZONE
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CONTENT
SL. NO TOPIC PAGES
01 Sample Paper-1 1 to 15
(With Marking Scheme)
02 Sample Paper-2 16-30
03 Sample Paper-3 31 - 43
11 Chapter Wise Questions 99 - 145
With Solution
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DAV PUBLIC SCHOOLS, ODISHA ZONE
SAMPLE PAPER - 1
• Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.
• Set number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the
title page of the answer book by the candidate.
• Check that this question paper contains 35 questions.
• Write down the Serial Number of the question in the left side of the margin before
attempting it.
• 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will
be distributed 15 minutes prior to the commencement of the examination. The students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer script
during this period.
CLASS- XI
SUB: CHEMISTRY (043)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
(ii) The question paper consists of five sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section–A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) Section–B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(v) Section–C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) Section–D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
(vii) Section–E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(viii) All questions are compulsory.
(ix) Use of log table and calculators is not allowed.
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. Which of the following is the lightest?

(a) 0.2 mole of hydrogen gas (b) 6.023×1022 molecules of nitrogen.
(c) 0.1 mole of oxygen gas (c) 1g of water
2. A sub-shell with n = 4 , l = 3 can accommodate a maximum of
(a) 14 electrons (b) 36 electrons (c) 10 electrons (d) 6 electrons
3. Which of the following electronic configuration of an atom has the highest
electronegativity?
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p5
4. Which of the following substances has a dipole moment is greater than zero?
(a) Water (b) Methane (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen
5. The element with atomic number 53 belongs to
(a) d – Block (b) f – Block (c) p – Block (d) s – Block
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6. In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible?
(a) Alcohols (b) Aldehydes (c) Alkyl halides (d) Cyanides
7. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) ΔG is zero for a reversible reaction.
(b) ΔG is positive for a spontaneous reaction.
(c) ΔG is negative for a spontaneous reaction.
(d) ΔG is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction.
8. Pure methane can be prepared by
(a) Soda lime decarboxylation (b) Kolbes electrolytic method
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) Reduction with H2
9.The increasing order of reduction of alkyl halides with zinc and dilute HCl is
(a) R–Cl < R–I < R–Br (b) R–Cl < R–Br < R–I
(c) R–I < R–Br < R–Cl (d) R–Br < R–I < R–Cl
10. The oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is:
(a) -6 (b) +6 (c) +2 (d) -2
11. According to Fajan’s rule, covalent bond is favoured by
(a) Large cation and small anion (b) Large cation and large anion
(c) Small cation and large anion (d) Small cation and small anion
12. The position of double bond in alkenes can be located by :
(a) Hydrogenation of oil (b) Ozonolysis (c) Photolysis (d) Hydration
13. Consider the following reaction: Zn + Cu → Zn + Cu
2+ 2+
With reference to the above, which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) Zn is reduced to Zn2+ ions. (b) Zn is oxidised to Zn2+ ions.
(c) Zn2+ ions are oxidised to Zn. (d) Cu2+ ions are oxidized to Cu.
14. Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability.
(a) A > B > C (b) B > A > C (c) C > B > A (d) C > A > B
15. Assertion : In a triad, the three elements present have same gaps of atomic masses.
Reason : Elements in a triad have similar properties
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
16. Assertion: The entropy of ice is less than that of water.
Reason: Ice has a cage like structure.
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17. Assertion (A) : Toluene on Friedel Crafts methylation gives o– and p–xylene.
Reason (R) : CH3-group bonded to benzene ring increases electron density at o-and p–
position.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
18. Assertion (A) : All the carbon atoms in H2C = C = CH2 are sp2 hybridised
Reason (R) : In this molecule all the carbon atoms are attached to each other by double
bonds.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
SECTION-B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions.
The following questions are very short type and carry 2 marks each.
19. Two oxides of a metal contain 46.67% and 62.93% of the metal. show that these results
illustrates the law of multiple proportions.
20. Write short notes on (a) Wurtz reaction (b) Fridel- Crafts Alkylation reaction .
OR
What are the necessary conditions for any system to be aromatic?
21. (i)The molar enthalpy of vapourisation of acetone is less than that of water. Why?
(ii) Define standard enthalpy of formation
OR
For the reaction; 2Cl(g) ———-> Cl2(g); what will be the signs of ∆H and ∆S? Explain
with reason.
22. Balance the following redox reactions by ion- electron method?
(aq) + (aq) → MnO2 (s) + I2 (s) (In basic medium)
23. What will be the conjugate bases for the Brönsted acids: HF, H2SO4, HCO3− NH4+
24. Expansion of a gas in vacuum is called free expansion. Calculate the work done and the
change in internal energy when 1 litre of ideal gas expands isothermally into vacuum
until its total volume is 5 litre.
25. Write molecular orbital electronic configuration of N2, Find its bond order and
magnetic behaviour.
SECTION-C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are very short type and carry 3 marks each.
26. Which out of NH3 and NF3 has higher dipole moment and why?
27.(a) Find energy of each of the photon which correspond to light of frequency 3 × 10 15
Hz.
(b) Cr has electronic configuration 3d5 4s1 and not 3d4 4s2.
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28. (a) Why is ionisation enthalpy of Nitrogen is more than Oxygen.
(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of electron gain enthalpy.
Br , I , F , Cl
(c) Second electron gain enthalpy of oxgen is positive. Why?
29. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH. from the following data:
(i) CH3OH(l) + 3/2 02 (g) ———-> CO2 (g) + 2H20 (l); ∆rHϴ = – 726kj mol-1
(ii) C(s) + 02(g) —————> C02 (g); ∆cHϴ = -393 kj mol-1
(iii) H2(g) + 1/202(g) —————->H20 (l); ∆fHϴ = -286 kj mol-1
30. (a) What is Lassaigne’s extract? Will NaCN give a positive Lassaigne’s test for
nitrogen?
(b) Which colour will appear in the Lassaigne’s test if the compound contains both
nitrogen and sulphur.
(c) Why is Lassaigne’s extract prepared in distilled water? Can we detect oxygen in a
compound by Lassaigne’s test?
OR
(a) Which of the two: O2NCH2CH2O or CH3CH2O– is expected to be more stable and
–
why?
(b) Name a suitable technique of separation of the components from a mixture of
calcium sulphate and camphor.
(c) Explain the reason for the fusion of an organic compound with metallic sodium for
testing Nitrogen, sulphur & halogens?
SECTION-D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each.
31. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The number of entities composing a mole has been experimentally determined to be
6.02214179 x 1023. 6.02214179 × 1023, a fundamental constant named Avogadro’s
number (NA ) or the Avogadro constant in honor of Italian scientist Amedeo Avogadro.
This constant is properly reported with an explicit unit of “per mole,” a conveniently
rounded version being 6.022×1023/mol. Consistent with its definition as an amount unit,
1 mole of any element contains the same number of atoms as 1 mole of any other element.
The masses of 1 mole of different elements, however, are different, since the masses of
the individual atoms are drastically different. The molar mass of an element (or
compound) is the mass in grams of 1 mole of that substance, a property expressed in units
of grams per mole (g/mol)
(a) How many atoms are preset in 6g of carbon.
(b) How are 0.50 mol Na2CO3 and 0.50 M Na2CO3 different?
(c) A sample of copper sulphate pentahydrate contains 8.64 g of oxygen. How many
grams of Cu is present in the sample ?
OR
Calculate the number of atoms in 100 g of sodium.
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Hydrogenation of alkenes and alkynes takes place in presence of certain catalysts. In
Sabatier Senderen's reaction, the addition of hydrogen takes place in the presence of
Raney nickel catalyst. Platinum and Palladium can also be used as a catalyst in these
reactions. These are the heterogeneous catalyst and used in a finely divided state.
Experimentally, it is observed that less crowded alkenes adsorb H2 with a faster rate.
Controlled hydrogenation of alkyne in the presence of Lindlar's catalyst yields cis
product i.e., 'cis' alkene. Thus, in the presence of Lindlar's catalyst, 'syn' addition takes
place. The relative rate of hydrogenation follows the order:
Non-terminal alkynes are reduced in the presence of Na or Li metal dissolved in

liquid ammonia. In this reaction, anti-addition of hydrogen results into the trans
product.
(a) Which type of alkenes adsorb H2 with faster rate?
(b) Out of CH3CH2CH2CH3 and .What is the product (A) for the
following given reaction?
(c) In non-terminal alkynes reaction what products is formed? Give one example.
OR
An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3- one. Write
structure and IUPAC name of ‘A.
Section-E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two
questions have an internal choice.
33. (a) Explain the terms Inductive and Electromeric effects. Which electron displacement
effect explains the following correct orders of acidity of the carboxylic acids?
(i)Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH
(ii)CH3CH2COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3C COOH
(b) Give the principles of the following techniques
(i) Distillation (ii) Chromatography
OR
(a) 0.3780 g of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 g of silver chloride in Carius
estimation. Calculate the percentage of chlorine present in the compound.
(b) Why (CH3)3C+ is more stable than CH3CH2+.
(c) Indicate the σ and π bonds in the following molecules:
(i) C6H6 (ii)CH3COOH
34. (a) A sample of pure PCl5 was introduced into an evacuated vessel at 473 K. After
equilibrium was attained, concentration of PCl5 was found to be 0.5 × 10–1 mol L–1.
If value of Kc is 8.3 × 10–3, what are the concentrations of PCl3 and Cl2 at
equilibrium?
PCl5(g) ⇋ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
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(b) States Le Chatelier’s principle. Discuss the effect of temperature and pressure on
synthesis of NH3 by Heber’s process.
OR
(a) At 473 K, equilibrium constant Kc for decomposition of phosphorus pentachloride,
PCl5 is 8.3 ×10-3. If decomposition is depicted as,
PCl5(g) ⇋ PCl3 (g) +Cl2(g) ΔrH0 = 124.0 kJmol–1
(i)Write an expression for Kc for the reaction.
(ii) What is the value of Kc for the reverse reaction at the same temperature?
(b) Ionic product of water at 310 K is 2.7 × 10–14. What is the pH of neutral water at
this temperature? ( log 1.64 = 0.2148)
35. (a) What is the wavelength of light emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom
undergoes transition from an energy level with n = 4 to an energy level with n = 2?
(b) What is the lowest value of n that allows g orbitals to exist?
(c)State Hesienberg’s uncertainty principle.
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MARKING SCHEME OF
SAMPLE PAPER - 1
PageNo.
Marks Total of
Q. No. Value Points
Allotted Marks NCERT
Book
1 (a) 0.2 mole of hydrogen gas 1 1 18
2 (a) 14 electrons 1 1 55
3 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p5 1 1 91
4 (a) Water 1 1 111
5 (c) p – Block 1 1 84
6 (c) Alkyl halides 1 1 340
7 (b) ΔG is positive for a spontaneous reaction. 1 1 186
8 (a) Soda lime decarboxylation
1 1 371
9 (b) R–Cl < R–Br < R–I Examp-
1 1
161
10 (b) +6
1 1 260
11 (c) Small cation and large anion 1 1 112
12 (b) Ozonolysis 1 1 383
13 (b) Zn is oxidised to Zn2+ ions.
1 1 270
14 (b) B > A > C 1 1 342
15 (d) A is false but R is true. 1 1 75
16 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
1 1 183
correct explanation of A.
17 (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the Examp-
1 1
correct explanation of A. 169
18 (d) A is false but R is true. Examp-
1 1
155
19 the mass percentage of oxygen in two oxides:
% of (O1) = 100 – 46.67 = 53.33 %
(%) of (O2) = 100 – 62.93 = 37.07 % ½
The ratio of metal and oxygen masses in two ½
oxides
( M) : (O1) = 46.67 : 53.33 = 1 : 1.14 ½ 2 19
(M) : (O2) = 62.93 : 37.07 = 1 : 0.59
So The ratio of different masses oxygen is :
1.14 : 0.59 = 2 : 1 ½
This is a simple ratio & verifies law of
multiple proportion.
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20 (a)Statement and Correct reaction.
(b) Statement and Correct reaction.
OR ½ + 1/2
½ + 1/2
• It should be planar. This is because complete
delocalization of ᴨ-electrons is possible only 371,
2
if the ring is planar to allow cyclic overlap 1 392
of p-orbitals.
• It should contain Huckel number of
electrons, i.e., (4n + 2) ᴨ -electrons where n 1
= 0, 1, 2, 3 etc.
21 (i) Because acetone molecules lack hydrogen

bonds like water molecules, intermolecular
1
attractive forces in acetone molecules are
lower than in water molecules, causing it to
boil (and evaporate) faster. 172,
1
(ii) Definition 2 173,
OR 184
∆H : negative (- ve) because energy is released
1
in bond formation
1
∆S : negative (- ve) because entropy decreases
when atoms combine to form molecules.
22 I−(aq) → I2(s)
−
MnO4 (aq) → MnO2(aq)
−
2I (aq) → I2(s)+2e−
− −
MnO4 (aq)+3e → MnO2 (aq) ½
MnO4−(aq)+3e− → MnO2(aq)+4OH−
MnO4−(aq)+3e−+2H2O → MnO2(aq)+4OH−
6I−(aq) → 3I2(s)+6e− 267,
½ 2
2MnO4−(aq)+6e− +4H2O → 2MnO2(aq)+8OH− 268
Add two half cell reactions to obtain the balanced ½
equation.
½
2MnO4−(aq)+6I−(aq)+4H2O(l) →2MnO2(s)+3I2
(s)+8OH−
23 F–, HSO4– , CO32- ,NH3 ½ x4 2 215
24 During free expansion, external pressure is
zero, so Work done, w = -p ΔV
= -0(5 – 1) = 0 1
Since the gas is expanding isothermally, 2 166
therefore, q = 0 1
ΔU = q + w =0+0=0
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25 Correct configuration 1
2 129
Bond order is 3 and its diamagnetic 1
26 In NH3, the resultant dipole moments of the
three N—H bonds are in the same direction as
the lone pair of electron. But in NF3, the
resultant dipole moments of the three N—F 1
bonds are in the opposite direction to that of
the lone pair. Therefore, the net dipole moment
in NH3 is more than in NF3. 1 111,
3
112
27 (a) The energy of photon

E= hν = 6.626×10−34 Js×3×1015 m/s 1+1
=1.988×10−18J 43,
3
(b) This is so because half-filled d orbitals 64
have extra stability, due to symmetry and more 1
release of exchange energy.
28 (a) because nitrogen is more stable due to its
half-filled electronic configuration.
(b) I ,Br,F,Cl
(c) When an electron is added to O– ion to
88,
form O2– ion, energy has to be given in order 1+1+1 3
89
to overcome the strong electronic repulsion
between negatively charged ion & incoming
electron. Thus, the second electron gain
enthalpy of O is positive.
29 CH3OH(l) + 3/2O2 (g) ———-> CO2 (g) +
2H20 (l) ; ∆rHϴ = – 726kj mol-1 ---------
------------------------ (i)
C(s) + O2(g) —————>CO2 (g)
; ∆cH ϴ= -393 kj mol-1 -----------------------
(ii)
H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) —————->H2O (l) 1 3 190
; ∆fH ϴ= -286 kj mol-1 -------------------------(
iii)
C(s) + 2H2(g) + l/2O2(g) ———> CH3OH 1
(l)
;∆fH ϴ= ±? -----------------------------------
(iv) 1
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Multiply eqn. (iii) by 2 and add to eqn. (ii)
C(s) + 2H2(g) + 2O2(g) ————->CO2(g) +
2H2O(l)
∆H = – (393 + 522) = – 965 kj mol-1 -------------
----------(v)
Subtract eqn. (v) from eqn. (i)
CH3OH(l) + 3/2O2(g) ————> CO2(g) +
2H2O(l)
; ∆H = – 726 kj mol-1 ----------------------(vi)
Subtract eqn. (vi) from eqn. (v ) :
C(s) + 2H2(y) + l/2O2(g) ———->
CH3OH(Z)
; ∆fH ϴ = – 239 kj mol-1
30 (a) When organic compound is fused with
sodium metal and then extracted by water, it is
called Lassaigne’s extract. Yes.
(b) Blood red colour, due to Fe(SCN)3
1+1+1
(c) Lassaigne’s extract is prepared in distilled
water since tap water contains Cl− ions. No,
oxygen cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s test
OR
–
(a) O2NCH2CH2O is more stable than 348,
CH3CH2O– because NO2 group has −I effect 3 354,
and hence it tends to disperse the -ve charge 355
on the O-atom. In contrast, CH3CH2 has +I
effect. It, therefore, tends to intensify the -ve
charge on
1+1+1
O-atom and hence destabilizes it.
(b) Sublimation. Because camphor can sublime
whereas CaSO4 does not.
(c)The organic compound is fused with sodium
metal to convert these elements which are
present in the covalent form to ionic form.
31 (a) The number of atoms in 6 grams of carbon 1+1+2 4 20
is 3×10²³. 21
(b) Molar mass of Na2CO3= 2 x 23 + 1 x 12 +
3 x16=106 0. 5 mol Na2CO3 = 0.5 x 106 = 53
g of Na2CO3
0. 5M Na2CO3 means 0. 5 mol Na2CO3 i.e. 53
g of Na2CO3 is presentin 1 L solutions.
(c) In the compound CuSO₄.5H₂O, (5 + 4) = 9
moles of oxygen atom combine with 1 mole of
Copper .
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Mass of 9 moles of Oxygen = No of moles ×
Molar mass
= 9 × 16
= 144 grams
And, mass of 1 mole of Copper is 63.6 grams.
∵ 144 g of 'O' combines with 63.6 g of 'Cu' .
∴ 8.64 g of 'O' will combine with :-
= (8.64 × 63.6/144) g of Cu
= 3.816 g of Cu
OR
Number of atoms in 23 g of Na =6.022 x1023
Number of atoms in 100 g of Na
=6.022 x1023x23x100=2.61x 1024
32 (a)Experimentally, it is observed that less 1+1+2 4 379,
crowded alkenes adsorb H2 with the faster rate. 383
(b)
(c) In non-terminal alkynes reaction, anti-

addition of hydrogen results into the trans
product.
Any one example
OR
The structure and name of the alkene ‘A’ is
33 (a) The permanent displacement of sigma (σ) 3+2 5 344,

electrons along a saturated chain, whenever 346,
an electron withdrawing or electron 350,
donating group is present, is called 352,
inductive effect. 358
(b) Electromeric effect involves the complete
transfer of the shared pair of π electrons to
either of the two atoms linked by multiple
bonds in the presence of an attacking agent.
(i) – I effect (ii) + I effect
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(b)(i) It is based on the fact that liquids having
different boiling points vapourise at different
temperatures. The vapours are then cooled by
condenser and the liquids so formed are
collected separately.
(ii) It is based on the difference in movement
of individual components of a mixture through
the stationary phase under the influence of 3+1+1
mobile phase.
OR
(a) Given that,
Mass of organic compound is 0.3780 g.
Mass of AgCl formed = 0.5740 g
1 mol of AgCl contains 1 mol of Cl.
Thus, mass of chlorine in 0.5740 g of AgCl
= 35.5 x 0.5740 / 143.32 = 0.1422 g
Percentage of chlorine
= 0.1422 / 0.3780 X 100 = 37.62 %
(b)Due to +Inductive effect and hyper
conjugation.
(c)(i) 12 sigma and 3 pi (ii) 6 sigma and 1 pi
34 (a) PCl5(g) ⇋ PCl3 (g) + 5 203,
Cl2(g) 1 209,
At equilibrium 0.5 x 10−1mol/L x mol/L 235
x mol/L
Given Kc = 8.3 x 10−3
1
1
(b)Correct statements 1
Effect of temp, Effect of pressure
OR
(a)(i)
1
(ii)
14 | P a g e
1
(b)
35 (a) The ni = 4 to nf = 2 transition will give 5 49,

rise to a spectral line of the Balmer series. 50,
56
1
E = – (4.0875 × 10–19 J) 1
The negative sign indicates the emission of
energy .
1
1
(b) For g orbital , minimum value of n = 5
(c) Correct statement
15 | P a g e
SAMPLE PAPER - 2
SECTION-A
Eachquestion carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. Which of the following pair of compounds obey law of multiple proportion?

(a) sodium chloride and sodium bromide
(b) water and heavy water
(c) sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
(d) magnesium hydroxide and magnesium oxide
2. If travelling at the same speeds, which of the following matter waves have the shortest
wavelength?
(a) Electron (b) alpha particle (He2+) (c) Neutron (d) Proton
3. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is
(a) The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
(b) Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
(c) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-
orbitals.
(d) The first ionization enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number
as we go along a period.
4. Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the element.
Which one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell?
(a) Valence principal quantum number (n) (b) Nuclear charge (Z)
(c) Nuclear mass (d) Number of core electrons.
5. Which of the following molecule has two bond pair and two lone pair of electrons on the
central atom?
(a) NH3 (b) H2O (c) PCl5 (d) BF3
6. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to give
three equivalent sp² orbitals. The total number of sigma (s) and pi (p) bonds in ethene
molecule is
(a) 1 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds (b) 3 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds
(c) 4 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds (d) 5 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds
7. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are -393.5 and -283.0 kJ
mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide is:
(a) -676 kJ (b) 110.5 kJ (c) -110.5 kJ (d) 676.5 kJ
8. The oxidation of sulphur in the anions 𝑆2 𝑂4 2− , 𝑆𝑂32− and 𝑆2 𝑂6 2− follow the order
(a) 𝑆2 𝑂4 2− < 𝑆𝑂32− < 𝑆2 𝑂6 2− (b) 𝑆𝑂32− < 𝑆2 𝑂4 2− < 𝑆2 𝑂6 2−
(c) 𝑆2 𝑂4 2− < 𝑆2 𝑂6 2− < 𝑆𝑂32− (d) 𝑆2 𝑂6 2− < 𝑆2 𝑂4 2− < 𝑆𝑂32−
16 | P a g e
9. The displacement of electrons in a multiple bond in the presence of attacking reagent is
called
(a) Inductive effect (b) Electromeric effect
(c)Resonance (d) Hyper conjugation.
10. The structure of 4-Methylpent-2-en-1-ol is:

(a) CH3CH2CH=CHCH2OH (b) (CH3)2C=CHCH2CH2OH
(c) (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH2OH (d) CH3CH(OH)CH-CH=C(CH3)2
11. Electrophilic addition reactions proceed in two steps. The first step involves the
addition of an electrophile. Name the type of intermediate formed in the first step of the
following addition reaction.
H3C—HC = CH2 + H + →?
(a) 3° Carbanion (b) 1° Carbocation (c) 2° Carbocation (d) 1° Carbanion
12. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with
(a) Pd/H2 (b) Zn – HCl (c) Sn – HCl (d) Zn – Hg
13. When propyne is treatd with HgSO4/H2SO4 the product is
(a) Propanol (b) Propanal (c) Propanone (d) Propanoic acid
14. Which alkene on ozonolysis gives CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3?
(a) CH3 – CH2 - CH = C (CH3)2 (b) CH3 CH2CH = CH CH2CH3
(c) CH3CH2 CH = CH – CH3 (d) (CH3)2 C = CH CH3
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Smaller the size of an atom greater is the electronegativity.
Reason (R): Electronegativity refers to the tendency of atom so share electrons with
other atom.
Assertion (A): Heat of neutralization for both H2SO4 and HCl with NaOH is 53.7kJmol –1.
Reason (R): Both HCl and H2SO4 are strong acids.

17 | P a g e
Assertion (A): The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to form water and
oxygen is an example of a disproportionation reaction.
Reason (R): The oxygen of peroxide is in –1 oxidation state and it is converted to zero
oxidation state in O2 and –2 oxidation state in H2O.
Assertion (A): Boiling point of alkanes increases with increase in molecular weight.
Reason (R): van der Waal’s forces increase with increase in molecular weight.
SECTION-B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The
following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19. 56 kg of N2(g) and 10kg of H2(g) are mixed to produce NH3(g). Calculate the number
of moles of ammonia gas formed and which one is the limiting reagent? (2)
20. (a) Write the resonance structures for CO2 molecule. (1)
(b) Draw the Lewis structure of H2SO4. (1)
21. (a) Why is entropy of a solution higher than that of pure liquid? (1)
(b) Which one of the following is not an extensive property? (1)
enthalpy change, internal energy change and pressure
OR
(a) Determine the sign of entropy change in N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) (1)
(b) If ∆𝐺 0 for a reversible reaction is found to be zero. What is the value of its
equilibrium constant? (1)
22. Define standard enthalpy of formation. Explain why the enthalpy changes for the
reaction given below are not enthalpy of formation of CaCO3 and HBr. (1)
0 -1
(a) CaO (s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s), ∆𝑟 𝐻 = -178.3kj mol .
(b) H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g), ∆𝑟 𝐻0 = -72.8 kj mol-1.
23. Describe the effect of (i) addition of H2, (ii) addition of CH3OH,
(iii) removal of CO (iv) removal of CH3OH on the equilibrium of the following reaction.
(2)
2H2(g) +CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) .
18 | P a g e
24. Consider the elements: Cs, Ne, I and F (1)
(a) Identify the element that exhibits only negative oxidation state.
(b) Identify the element that exhibits only positive oxidation state.
(c) Identify the element that exhibits both positive and negative oxidation state.
(d) Identify the element which exhibits neither the negative nor the positive oxidation states.
𝑁𝑎 𝑅𝑒𝑑 ℎ𝑜𝑡 𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑛 𝑡𝑢𝑏𝑒/873𝐾
25. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following: A ← CH≡CH → B. (1)
SECTION-C
followingquestions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
26. Dual behaviour of matter proposed by de Broglie led to the discovery of electron
microscope often used for the highly magnified images of biological molecules and other
type of material. If the velocity of the electron in this microscope is 1.6 X 10 6 ms-1,
calculate the de Broglie wavelength associated with this electron. (3)
27. (a) What would be the IUPAC name and symbol for the element with
atomic number 118? (1)
(b) Which of the following species will have largest and smallest size: (2)
2+ 3+
Mg, Mg , Al and Al ?
28. (a) Draw the molecular orbital energy level diagram for N2. Calculate its bond order
and explain its magnetic character. (2)
(b) How many sigma and pi bonds are the in the molecule: (1)
CH2=CH-CH2-C≡CH.
29. Answer any three of the following questions:
(a) When 430J of work was done on a system, it lost 120 J of energy as heat, Calculate the
value of internal energy change (∆𝑈) for this process. (1)
(b) Under what conditions ∆𝐻 and ∆U are equal? (1)
(c) When ∆𝐻> 0 and ∆𝑆<0,a reaction is never spontaneous, Explain. (1)
(d) At 298 K, Kp for the reaction: N2O4(g)⇌ 2NO2(g) is 0.98. Predict whether the reaction is
spontaneous or not. (1)
30. (a) Which is more polar bond in the following pairs of molecules? (1)
H3C-H, H3C-Br.
(b) In which C-C bond of CH3CH2CH2Br, the inductive effect is expected to be the
least. (1)
(c) What is the type of hybridization of carbon in HCHO molecule and what is the shape
of molecule? (1)
19 | P a g e
SECTION-D
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the
questionsthat follow.
31.After having some idea about the term’s atoms and molecules, it is appropriate here to
understand what do we mean by atomic and molecular masses. One atomic mass unit is
defined as a mass exactly equal to one-twelfth of the mass of one carbon – 12 atoms.
Molecular mass is the sum of atomic masses of the elements present in a molecule. It is
obtained by multiplying the atomic mass of each element by the number of its atoms and
adding them together. Some substances, such as sodium chloride, do not contain discrete
molecules as their constituent units. In such compounds, positive (sodium ion) and
negative (chloride ion) entities are arranged in a three-dimensional structure. The mole,
symbol mol, is the SI unit of amount of substance. One mole contains exactly 6.02214076×
1023 elementary entities. This number is the fixed numerical value of the Avogadro
constant, NA, when expressed in the unit mol–1 and is called the Avogadro number. The
amount of substance, symbol n, of a system is a measure of the number of specified
elementary entities. An elementary entity may be an atom, a molecule, an ion, an electron,
any other particle or specified group of particles. It may be emphasized that the mole of a
substance always contains the same number of entities, no matter what the substance may
be. In order to determine this number precisely, the mass of a carbon–12 atom was
determined by a mass spectrometer and found to be equal to 1.992648 × 10–23 g. Knowing
that one mole of carbon weighs 12 g, the number of atoms in it is equal to:
12 g /mol C−12.
1.992648×1023 g / C− 12 atom.
= 6.0221367× 1023 atoms/mol.
The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is called its molar mass. the molar mass in
grams is numerically equal to atomic molecular/formula mass in u. An empirical formula
represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms present in a compound,
whereas, the molecular formula shows the exact number of different types of atoms present
in a molecule of a compound. If the mass per cent of various elements present in a
compound is known, its empirical formula can be determined. Molecular formula can
further be obtained if the molar mass is known. Many a time, reactions are carried out with
the Amounts of reactants that are different than the amounts as required by a balanced
chemical reaction. In such situations, one Reactant is in more amount than the amount
required by balanced chemical reaction. The reactant which is present in the least amount
Many a time, reactions are carried out with the
amounts of reactants that are different than the amounts as required by a balanced chemical
reaction. In such situations, one reactant is in more amount than the amount required by
balanced chemical reaction. The reactant which is present in the least amount gets
consumed after sometime and after that further reaction does not take place whatever be
the amount of the other reactant. Hence, the reactant, which gets consumed first, limits the
amount of product formed and is, therefore, called the limiting reagent.
20 | P a g e
Answer the following questions. (1+1+2)
a) How many total electrons are present in 1.4 g of nitrogen gas? (1)
b) What is the percentage composition of Ca in CaCO3? (1)
c) Two containers of equal capacity A1 and A2 contain 10 g of oxygen (O2) and ozone
(O3) respectively. Which of the two will have greater no. of O-atoms and which will
give greater no. of molecules? (2)
OR
4 g carbon was heated with 8 g of sulfur. How much carbon disulfide (CS2) will be
formed when the reaction is complete? What will be its percentage purity? (2)
32.Hydrocarbon, any of a class of organic chemical compounds composed only of the
elements carbon (C) and hydrogen (H). The carbon atoms join together to form the
framework of the compound, and the hydrogen atoms attach to them in many different
configurations. Hydrocarbons are the principal constituents of petroleum and natural gas.
They serve as fuels and lubricants as well as raw materials for the production
of plastics, fibres, rubbers, solvents, explosives, and industrial chemicals. Many
hydrocarbons occur in nature. In addition to making up fossil fuels, they are present
in trees and plants, as, for example, in the form of pigments called carotenes that occur in
carrots and green leaves. More than 98 percent of natural crude rubber is a
hydrocarbon polymer, a chain like molecule consisting of many units linked together. The
structures and chemistry of individual hydrocarbons depend in large part on the types of
chemical bonds that link together the atoms of their constituent molecules. Nineteenth-
century chemists classified hydrocarbons as either aliphatic or aromatic on the basis of
their sources and properties. Aliphatic (from Greek aleiphar, “fat”) described
hydrocarbons derived by chemical degradation of fats or oils. Aromatic
hydrocarbons constituted a group of related substances obtained by chemical degradation
of certain pleasant-smelling plant extracts. The terms aliphatic and aromatic are retained
in modern terminology, but the compounds they describe are distinguished on the basis of
structure rather than origin.
Aliphatic hydrocarbons are divided into three main groups according to the types of bonds
they contain: alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes. Alkanes have only single
bonds, alkenes contain a carbon-carbon double bond, and alkynes contain a carbon-
carbon triple bond. Aromatic hydrocarbons are those that are significantly more stable than
their Lewis structures would suggest; i.e., they possess “special stability.” They are
classified as either arenes, which contain a benzene ring as a structural unit, or non-
benzenoid aromatic hydrocarbons, which possess special stability but lack a benzene ring
as a structural unit.
The lower alkenes (through four-carbon alkenes) are produced commercially by cracking
and dehydrogenation of the hydrocarbons present in natural gas and petroleum (see
above Alkanes: Chemical reactions). The annual global production of ethylene averages
around 75 million metric tons. Analogous processes yield approximately 2 million metric
tons per year of 1,3-butadiene (CH2=CHCH=CH2). Approximately one-half of the
ethylene is used to prepare polyethylene. Most of the remainder is utilized to make
ethylene oxide (for the manufacture of ethylene glycol antifreeze and other
products), vinyl chloride (for polymerization to polyvinyl chloride), and styrene (for
21 | P a g e
polymerization to polystyrene). The principal application of propylene is in the
preparation of polypropylene. 1,3-Butadiene is a starting material in the manufacture of
synthetic rubber (see below Polymerization).
a) Arrange HCl, HBr, HI and HF in the order of decreasing reactivity towards alkene. (1)
b) Which is more acidic: ethene or ethyne? why? (1)
c) How will you convert benzene into: (2)
(i)p-nitrobromobenzene
(ii) m-nitrochlorobenzene
OR
Complete the following reactions: (2)
𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 / 𝐶 𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝑙
(i) C6H6 →
𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒
(ii) CH3CH=CH2 + HBr →
SECTION-E
questionshave an internal choice.
33. (a) If the uncertainty in position of a ball of mass 1 kg is of the order of 1A0. Calculate
the uncertainty in its velocity. (2)
(b) Calculate the total number of angular nodes and radial nodes present in 3p orbital.(2)
(c) What is the difference the between the term orbit and orbital (1)
OR
(a) In photoelectric effect experiment irradiation of a metal with light of frequency
5 × 10 20 s-1 yields electrons with maximum kinetic energy= 6.63 ×10-14 J. calculate
threshold frequency (𝜐0 ) of the metal. (3)
(b) State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. (1)
(c) How many sub-shells are associated with n=4? (1)
−
34. (a) Write the conjugate acid of 𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂 . (1)
-8
(b) Calculate the pH of a 1.0 X 10 M solution of HCl. (2)
(c) Calculate the solubility of A2X3 in pure water, assuming that neither kind of ion reacts
with water, [Solubility product of A2X3, Ksp=1.1X10-23] (2)
OR
(a) Write the conjugate acid of NH3. (1)
(b) Assign reason for the following: (2)
(i) A solution of NH4Cl in water shows pH less than 7.
(ii) In qualitative analysis NH4Cl added before adding NH4OH for testing Fe3+ or
Al3+ions.
(c) Consider the reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + heat . Indicate the direction in which the
equilibrium will shift when: (2)
(i) Temperature is increased (ii) Pressure is increased.
35. (a) What types of isomerism is shown by pentane and 2-methylbutane? (1)
(b) Identify electrophilic centre in the following molecules CH3CHO, CH3CN. (1)
(c) (CH3 )3 C+ is more stable than (CH3 )2 CH + .Explain why? (1)
(d) Draw the structure of 2-methylpentan-2-ol. (1)
(e) Why does SO3 act as an electrophile? (1)
22 | P a g e
MARKING SCHEME OF
SAMPLE PAPER - 2
Marks Total Page
Allotted Marks No. of
Q.No. Value Points NCERT
Book
1 1 1 12
(c)sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
2 (b) alpha particle (He2+) 1 1 46
3 1 1 60
(c) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with
electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-orbitals.
4 (c) Nuclear mass 1 1 95
5 (b) H2O 1 1 111
6 1 1 119
(d) 5 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds
7 (c) -110.5 kJ 1 1 169
8 (a) 𝑆2 𝑂4 2− < 𝑆𝑂32− < 𝑆2 𝑂6 2− 1 1 260
9 (c) Electromeric effect 1 1 346
10 (c) (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH2OH 1 1 337
11 1 1 381
(c) 2° Carbocation
12 (a) Pd/H2 1 1 370
13 (c) Propanone 1 1 387
14 (a) CH3 – CH2 -CH = C(CH3)2 1 1 383
15 (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1 88
16 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1 1 170

explanation of A.
explanation of A.
explanation of A.
19 N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) 2 19
Since, 28 kg N2 reacts with 6 kg of H2
23 | P a g e
6 1
Therefore, 56 kg N2 reacts with x 56 = 12 kg of H2
28
But we have only 10 kg of H2, therefore, H2 is limiting

reactant. Also, 6 kg of H2 will give 2 moles of NH3
2 1
Hence, 10 kg of H2 will give × 10 = 3.33 moles
6
20 (a) 2 100
(b)
1 99
21 (a) A pure liquid is made of only one type of 2

molecules which are spread out in the liquid 177
phase. In the case of a solution which is a
product of solute and solvent, molecules of both 1
the solute and the solvent are present. Solute
molecules are spread out among solvent
molecules as the later separates the solute 1 177
particles. This makes the solution to have higher
entropy than pure liquid.
(b) Pressure 1
OR
179
(a) no change in entropy ( )
(b) equilibrium constant =1 1
22 Standard enthalpy of formation of a compound is the 1 2 167

change in enthalpy when one mole of the compound is
formed from its elements in their standard states
under standard conditions ½
(a) compounds are involved in formation of CaCO3

not elements. ½
(b) It is for formation of 2 mole of HBr,
23 (i) Addition of H2 (increasing concentration of ½ 2 227
reactants) means equilibrium shifts forward
direction (hence, more products is formed)
(ii) addition of CH3OH: increases in concentration of
½
products) means equilibrium shifts the backward
direction.
24 | P a g e
(iii) Removal of CO: if we remove the CO then ½
equilibrium shifts the backward direction.
(iv) Removal of CH3OH: if we remove the CO then ½
equilibrium shifts the forward direction.
24 (a) F exhibits only negative oxidation state of -1. ½ 2 260
(b) Cs exhibits positive oxidation state of +1.
(c) I exhibit both positive and negative oxidation ½
states. It exhibits oxidation states of -1, +1, +3,
½
+5 and +7.
(d) The oxidation state of Ne is zero. It exhibits ½
neither negative nor positive oxidation states.
25 A = Na C≡C Na (disodium acetylide) 1 2 386
1 388
B = C6H6 (benzene)
26 1 3 46
27 (a) Ununoctium, (Uuo) ½+½ 3 77

(b) Atomic radii decrease across a period on moving
from left to right. Cations are smaller than their
parent atoms. Among isolectronic species, the one 1 84
with the larger positive nuclear charge will have 1
smaller radius. Hence, Mg has largest size and
Al3+ has smallest size.
28 (a) 3 127
BO = [Nb-Na] = [10-4] = 3
Since all the electrons in nitrogen are paired, it is
diamagnetic molecule.
25 | P a g e
(b) 10 sigma bonds
3 pi bonds
29 (a) According to first law of thermodynamics: 3 158
w = +430 J 1
q = -120 J {Heat released by the system is
negative}
internal energy change is 310 J

(b) (i) the reaction does not involve any gaseous
substance.
(c) (ii) the reaction does not involve any change in 1 161
volume of reactant and product (∆V = 0).
(d) When ΔH > 0, energy factor opposes the
reaction. When ΔS< 0, i.e. randomness 1
decreases, this factor also opposes the process.
179
As both factors oppose the process, reaction is
never spontaneous.
(e) Δr G° = -RT ln Kp = -RT ln (0.98) Since In
(0.98) is negative . Δ G° is positive - the
reaction is non spontaneous. 1 179
30 (a) C —Br since Br is more electronegative than H. 1 3 327

(b) The magnitude of the inductive effect decreases 344
with distance from the active centre and hence
this effect is least in C2—C3 bond.
1
(c) HCHO formaldehyde C: sp2 hybridised; 327
shape: Trigonal planar 1
31 (a) 1.4 g of N2 = 14/28 mol = 0.05 and 0.05 × 6.02 × 4

1023 molecules 13
= 3.01 × 1021 molecules
= 3.01 × 1021 × 14 electrons [ ∵ 1 Molecules of 2 1
= 14 ē]
= 4.214 × 1022 electrons.
(b) % of Ca = 40×100/(40+12+3×16) = 40.0%
(c) Answer:
10 g of O2 = 10/32 mol = 10/32 × 6.02 ×
1023 molecules
26 | P a g e
= 1.88 × 10/23 molecules
= 3.76 × 10/23 atoms. 1 15
10 g of O2 =10/48 mole =10/48 × 6.02 ×
1023 molecules
= 1.254 × 1023 molecules
= 3.76 × 1023 atoms
Thus, both A1 and A2 contain the same no. of
atoms, but A1 contains more numbers of
18
molecules.
OR
sulphur will be limiting reactant.

8 g of sulphur will produce CS2 = 76/64 × 8 = 9.5 g 18
Amount of carbon reacted = 12/64 × 8 = 1.5g
Amount of carbon left = 4 – 1.5 = 2.5 g
Total weight of the products = 9.5 + 2.5 = 12 g
% Purity of CS2 in the product = 9.5/12 × 100 =
79.2.
32 (a) Order of reactivity: HI>HBr>HCl>HF. 1 4 381
(b) In ethyne structure the hybridization of each carbon
is sp. Therefore, the acidity order should
be, ethyne>ethene 1
(c) (i) 386
395
395
(ii)
OR
1 393
𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 / 𝐶 𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝑙
(iii) C6H6 → C6H5COCH3 1
𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒
(iv) CH3CH=CH2 + HBr → CH3CH(Br)CH3 382
27 | P a g e
33 (a) m=1 kg Δx=10−10 cm 5
h=Planck’s constant 1 47
Using Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

ℎ
Δx. mΔv ≥ ½
4𝜋
ℎ 6.626 ×10−34
Δv= = = 5.27 × 10−25 ms-1
4𝜋𝑚∆𝑋 4×3.14×1 ×10−10
½
(b) For 3p - orbital, principal quantum number, n = 3
and azimuthal number l = 1
Number of angular nodes = l = 1
Number of radial nodes = n - l - 1 = 3 - 1 - 1 = 1
1
(c) orbit is considered to be a definite path on which 1
electrons revolve, whereas an Orbital is an area
that is uncertain, and the chances of finding an
electron here are maximum. Orbit is a two 1
dimensional or a planar area.
OR
(a) KE = ℎ(𝜈 − 𝜈0 ), where 𝜈= incident frequency
𝜈0 = threshold frequency 1 55
𝐾𝐸 20
6.63 × 10−14
𝜈0 = 𝜈 − = 5 × 10 −
ℎ 6.626 × 10−34
= 4 × 1020 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
1 51
(b) Hunds Rule of Maximum Multiplicity rule
states that for a given electron configuration,
the term with maximum multiplicity falls
lowest in energy. According to this rule
electron pairing in p, d and f orbitals cannot
occur until each orbital of a given subshell 1
contains one electron each or is singly
occupied. 38
(c) There are 4 subshells that associated with n =4; 1

this is because of Azimuthal quantum no. As
there are 4 subshells, those will be - s,p,d,f
giving a total of = 1+3+5+7= 16 orbitals. There 1 5 59
is 1 electron for each orbital with ms= -1/2 and
+1/2 each.
34 (a) HCOOH as a base accept a proton H+to form a 5 208
conjugate acid
(b) 𝐾𝑤 = [𝐻3 𝑂+ ][𝑂𝐻− ] = 10−14
28 | P a g e
Let x=[𝑂𝐻− ]=[𝐻3 𝑂+ ] from H2O 1
The 𝐻3 𝑂+ concentration is also generated from
the ionization of HCl dissolved
HCl(aq) +H2O(l) ⇌H3O+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
In these very dilute solution 212
[𝐻3 𝑂+ ]= 10-8 +x 1
𝐾𝑤 = [𝐻3 𝑂+ ][𝑂𝐻− ] = (10−8 + x)x = 10−14
𝑜𝑟 𝑥 2 + 10−8 𝑥 − 10−14 = 0
X= 9.5 X10-8
[𝑂𝐻− ]=9.5 X10-8
Now 𝑝𝑂𝐻 = − log[𝑂𝐻− ]= −𝑙𝑜𝑔9.5 +
8𝑙𝑜𝑔10 = −0.098 + 8 = 7.02
𝑝𝑂𝐻 = 7.02, 𝑝𝐻 = 14 − 7.02 = 6.98
(c) The equilibrium will be

𝐴2 𝑋3 ⇌ 2𝐴3+
(𝑎𝑞) +
2−
3𝑋(𝑎𝑞)
1
1 0 0
1−𝑠 2𝑠 3𝑠
Using the formula, 𝐾𝑠𝑝 = [𝐴3+ ]2 × [𝑋 2− ]3
= (2𝑠)2 × (3𝑠)3 = 4𝑠 2 × 27𝑠 3 = 108𝑠 5 1
𝐾𝑠𝑝 1 1.1×10−23 1⁄5
𝑠= ( ) ⁄5 = ( ) = 1 × 10−5 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝐿−1
108 108
OR
(a) conjugate acid of ammonia (NH3) is the
ammonium cation NH4+. 1
(b) (i) when NH4Cl is dissolved in water, it
breaks into its constituent ions which are
NH4+ & Cl−. Since, it is made up of a strong 1
acid HCl and a weak base 221
NH4OH. So, behaves as an acid and pH
less than 7. 1
(ii) In salt analysis NH4Cl is added in 1 208

sufficient
1
amount before adding NH4OH because
otherwise the cations of higher group may get 1
precipitated in group III. Because NH4Cl is
strong electrolyte, it decomposes completely. 217
While the NH4OH is weak base it does not
ionizes completely.
(c) (i) backward direction 217
29 | P a g e
(ii) if the pressure is increased, the volume
will decrease. The system responds to this 204
effect by reducing the number of gas
molecules. Forward direction.
35 (a) Structural isomerism 1 5 340
(b) electrophilic centre in CH3CHO, CH3CN 1 342
(underline elements)
(c) (CH3)3C+ has nine alpha hydrogens and has nine 1 347
hyperconjugation structures while CH3C+H2has
three alpha hydrogens and has three
hyperconjugation structures, therefore (CH3 )3C+
is more stable than CH3C+H2.
(d) CH3-CH(CH3)(OH)-CH2-CH2-CH3. 1 337

(e) Three highly electronegative oxygen atoms are
342
attached to sulphur atom. It makes sulphur atom
electron-deficient. Further, due to resonance, 1
sulphur atom acquires positive charge. Both
these factors, make SO3 an electrophile.
30 | P a g e
SAMPLE PAPER - 3
SECTION - A
Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. An organic compound on analysis was found to contain 10.06% carbon, 0.84%
hydrogen and 89.10% chlorine. What will be the empirical formula of the
substance?
(a) CH2Cl2 (b) CHCl3 (c) CCl4 (d) CH3Cl
2. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to
(a) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period
(b) atomic number of any element of the period
(c) maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period
(a) maximum azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period
3. Which of the following molecule does not show hydrogen bonding?
(a) HF (b) H2O (c) NH3 (d) H2S
4. What is the mass per cent of carbon in carbon dioxide?
(a) 0.034% (b) 27.27% (c) 3.4% (d) 28.7%
5. Hyperconjugation involves overlapping of which of the following orbitals.
(a) 𝜎 − 𝜎 (b) 𝜎 − 𝑝 (c) p-p (d) 𝜋 − 𝜋
6. Warming ammonium chloride with sodium hydroxide in a test tube is an
example of
(a) closed system
(b) isolated system
(c) open system
(d) none of these
7. Relation between wavelength (𝜆) and momentum (P ) of a material particle is
(a) λ =hP (b) λ =h + P (c) λ =h – P (d) λ =h / P
8. When an inert gas, such as helium, is added to a system at equilibrium
(a) No effect on the equilibrium would occur.
(b) The product would be favoured.
(c) It would affect equilibrium only if it produces changes in concentration
(or partial pressures) of the reactants or products.
(d) It would affect equilibrium only if it reacts with one of the substances
involved in the equilibrium.
9. Oxidation number of carbon in CH2Cl2 is
(a) -4 (b) +4 (c) 3 (d) 0
10. Which of the following is not true for a chemical equilibrium?
(a) When the experimental conditions are not changed, no change in the
concentration of any of the substance occurs.
(b) No reaction, neither forward nor reverse occurs at equilibrium.
(c) The ratio of the rate constants of forward and reverse reactions is
constant.
(d) The relative amounts of reactants and products at equilibrium vary
greatly for different chemical reactions.
31 | P a g e
11. Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on
ozonolysis?
(a) 2-methylbut-1-ene (c) 3-methylbut-1-ene
(b) 2-methylbut-2-ene (d) cyclopentane
12. Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using mixture of conc. HNO3 and
conc. H2SO4. In the nitrating mixture, nitric acid acts as
(a) base (b) acid (c) catalyst (d) reducing agent
13. Reductants are substances which
(a) Show increase in their oxidation number during a change.
(b) Lose electrons during a change.
(c) Reduce other and oxidise themselves.
(d) All.
14. When no heat energy is allowed to enter or leave a system, then it is called
(a) isothermal process
(b) reversible process
(c) adiabatic process
(d) irreversible process
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: Octet theory cannot account for the shape of the molecule.
Reason: Octet theory can predict relative stability and energy of a molecule.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Assertion Acyclic compounds consist of straight or branched chain
compounds.
Reason Alicyclic compounds contain carbon atoms joined in the form of a ring.
Assertion: Isoelectronic species have same radii.
Reason: They contain same number of electrons.
32 | P a g e
Assertion It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum
of an electron simultaneously.
Reason The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.
SECTION - B
19. The reactant which is entirely consumed in reaction is known as limiting reagent.
In the reaction 2𝐴 + 4𝐵 → 3𝐶 + 4𝐷, when 5 moles of A react with 6 moles of
B, then
(i) Which is the limiting reagent?
(ii) Calculate the amount of C formed.
20. (i) State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
(ii) What is the lowest value of n that allows g orbital to exist?
OR
An atom of an element contains 29 electrons and 35 neutrons. Deduce
(i) Number of protons
(ii) Electronic configuration of the element.
(iii) Number of paired electrons
(iv) Number of unpaired electrons
21. Account for the following:
(i) BF3 molecule has a zero dipole moment although B-F bonds are polar.
(ii) The structure of NH3 molecule is pyramidal.
OR
Give correct reason for the following
(i) All the carbon to oxygen bonds in 𝐶𝑂32− are equivalent.
(ii) Bond angle in NH3 is more than in H2O.
22. Derive the relationship between Cp and Cv for an ideal Gas.
23. (i) Write the conjugate acid for 𝑁𝐻2− and 𝑁𝐻3 .
(ii) What is the relationship between pKa and pKb values.
(iii)
24. Balance the following redox reaction by ion electron method (in basic medium)
𝑀𝑛𝑂4− (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐼 − (𝑎𝑞) → 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 (𝑠) + 𝐼2 (𝑠)
25. Explain the following giving example:

(i) Inductive effect
(ii) Electrophile
33 | P a g e
SECTION - C
following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
26. Calculate the amount of carbon dioxide that could be produced when
(a) 1 mole of carbon is burnt in air.
(b) 1 mole of carbon is burnt in 16 g of dioxygen.
(c) 2 moles of carbon are burnt in 16 g of dioxygen.
OR
In three moles of ethane (C2H6), calculate the following:
(a) Number of moles of carbon atoms.
(b) Number of moles of hydrogen atoms.
(c) Number of molecules of ethane.
27. Give answer for any 3 of the following questions:
(i) Which out of NH3 and NF3 has higher dipole moment and why?
(ii) Which hybrid orbitals are used by carbon atoms in CH3-CHO?
(iii) Write the molecular orbital configuration of 𝑂2+ .
(iv) Draw the molecular structure of XeF4.
28. (i) The reaction quotient of a reversible reaction is Qc and the equilibrium
constant is Kc. What do you conclude for the reaction if Qc < Kc?
(ii) State Le Chatelier’s principle.
(iii)In quantitative analysis, NH4Cl is added before adding NH4OH solution for
testing of III group radicals [Fe3+, Cr3+ and Al3+]. Explain by using concept of
common ion effect.
29. (i) What type of isomerism is shown by pentane and 2-methylbutane?
(ii) Why is an organic compound fused with sodium for testing halogen, nitrogen,
sulphur, phosphorus?
(iii)Write the IUPAC name of CH2=CHCH2CH(OH)CH3.
30. (i) Write the rule to explain the formation of 1-bromopropane by addition of HBr
to propene in presence of benzoyl peroxide.
(ii) What happens when 2-bromobutane is being treated with KOH (alcoholic)?
(iii) Arrange the following alkenes in increasing order of stability:
CH3-CH=CH2, CH3-CH=CH-CH3, CH3-C(CH3)=CH-CH3
SECTION - D
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
31. Most convenient and widely used is the long and extended form of periodic table.
It is based on modern periodic law given by Mosely. The table consists of seven
horizontal rows called periods. The period number corresponds to value of n, i.e.,
principal quantum number for outermost energy shell of the atoms of the
elements belonging to that period. Number of elements in each period is twice to
the atomic orbitals that are being filled. The long form of the periodic table
consists of 18 vertical columns called groups. Elements having similar outer
electronic configurations in their atoms are grouped in vertical columns.
34 | P a g e
All the elements are classified into four blocks, i.e., s-block, p-block, d-block and
f-block depending on the type of atomic orbitals that are being filled with
electron.
Answer the following questions:
(i) Write the general electronic configuration of the elements of the group 17,
i.e., halogens.
(ii) The elements which occupy the extreme right portion of the extended form
of the periodic table belongs to which block?
(iii) How would you justify the presence of 18 elements in the 5th period of the
Periodic Table?
OR
Explain the following:
(a) There are only 14 lanthanides and only 14 actinides.
(b) 3d, 4d and 5d series consist of 10 elements each.
32. Aniline is purified by steam distillation and is used for making dyes and drugs.
Glycerol is purified by vacuum distillation and is used in making dangerous
explosives. Chromatography is an important technique extensively used to
separate mixture into their components and also to test the purity of compounds.
(i) Why is aniline purified by steam distillation?
(ii) How will you separate a mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol?
(iii)What is the principle of chromatography? Can we separate components of
orange ink by chromatography?
OR
Suggest a method to purify:
(a) A liquid which decomposes at its boiling point.
(b) A liquid having non-volatile impurities.
SECTION - E
33. (i) State Hess’s law.
(ii) Give a brief note on the following thermodynamics terms:
(a) Standard enthalpy of combustion
(b) Standard enthalpy of formation.
(iii) For the reaction : 2𝐴(𝑔) + 𝐵(𝑔) → 2𝐷(𝑔)
0
∆𝑈 = −10.5 𝑘𝐽
∆𝑆 0 = −44.1 𝐽𝐾 −1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
Calculate ∆𝐺 0 for the reaction and predict whether the reaction may occur
spontaneously.
OR
(i) State the first law of thermodynamics.
(ii) Give one point to differentiate the following thermodynamics terms:
(a) Extensive properties and intensive properties
(b) Isothermal process and isobaric process.
35 | P a g e
(iii) For the reaction at 298 K: 2𝐴 + 𝐵 → 𝐶, ∆𝐻 = 400 𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝑆 =
0.2 𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1
At what temperature will the reaction become spontaneous considering
∆𝐻 and ∆𝑆 to be constant over the temperature range.
34. (i) Explain the following reactions with suitable examples
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Friedel-Crafts alkylation
(ii) An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-one.
Write structure and IUPAC name of ‘A’.
(iii) Give one chemical test to distinguish between ethene and ethane.
OR
(i) How will you carry out the following conversions?
(a) Ethene to benzene
(b) 1-bromopropane to 2-bromopropane
(ii) Give a brief account for the following statements:
(a) n-pentane has greater boiling point than isopentane.
(b) CH4 cannot be synthesised by Wurtz reaction.
(iii) Give one chemical test to distinguish between ethene and ethyne.
35. (i) Write outer electronic configuration of Cr atom. Why are half filled orbitals
more stable.
(ii) State Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. An electron has a velocity of 50
𝑚𝑠 −1 , accurate upto 99.99%. Calculate the uncertainty in locating its
position. (Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10−31 𝑘𝑔, ℎ = 6.6 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠)
36 | P a g e
MARKING SCHEME OF
SAMPLE PAPER - 3
Marks Total
Q.No Value Points
Allotted Marks
1. (b) CHCl3 1 1
2. (b) maximum principal quantum number of any element 1 1
of the period
3. (d) H2S 1 1
4. (b) 27.27% 1 1
5. (b) 𝜎 − 𝑝 1 1
6. (c)open system 1 1
7. (d) λ =h / P 1 1
8. (c)It would affect equilibrium only if it produceschanges in 1 1
concentration (or partial pressures) ofthe reactants or
products.
9. (d) 0 1 1
10. (b)No reaction, neither forward nor reverse occurs at 1 1
equilibrium.
11. (b)2-methylbut-2-ene 1 1
12. (a) base 1 1
13. (d) All 1 1
14. (c) adiabatic process 1 1
15. c. A is true but R is false. 1 1
16. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the 1 1
correctexplanation of A.
17. d. A is false but R is true. 1 1
18. c. A is true but R is false. 1 1
19.
2𝐴 + 4𝐵 → 3𝐶 + 4𝐷
Here 2 moles of A react with 4 moles of B.
Therefore, 5 moles of A react with 10 moles of B
But 6 moles of B is available. 2
(i) B is the limiting reagent 1
(ii) 4 moles of B give 3 moles of C
3 1
6 moles of B give × 6 = 4.5 𝑚𝑜𝑙 of C.
4
20. (i) Correct statement 1
(ii) n=5 1
OR
(i) 29 ½ 2
(ii) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1 ½
(iii) 28 paired electrons ½
(iv) One unpaired electron ½
37 | P a g e
21. (i) BF3 is symmetrical molecule. Hence individual dipole 1
moments cancel out.
(ii) Due to presence of lone pair of electrons on nitrogen. 1
2
OR
(iii) It is due to resonance. 1
(iv) It is due to lp-lp repulsion in H2O molecule. 1
22. At constant volume
𝑑𝐸
𝐶𝑉 = ( )𝑉
𝑑𝑇
At constant pressure
𝑑𝐻 ½
𝐶𝑝 = ( )𝑃
𝑑𝑇
H = E + PV = E + RT 2
𝑑𝐻 𝑑𝐸 ½
= +𝑅
𝑑𝑇 𝑑𝑇
𝐶𝑝 = 𝐶𝑉 + 𝑅 1
𝐶𝑝 − 𝐶𝑉 = 𝑅 for an ideal gas
0r
Refer NCERT Chemistry page.169
23. (i) Conjugate acid of 𝑁𝐻2− = 𝑁𝐻3 ½
Conjugate acid of 𝑁𝐻3 = 𝑁𝐻4+ ½ 2
(ii) 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + 𝑝𝐾𝑏 = 14 1
24. The unbalanced chemical equation is
MnO4− (aq)+I− (aq)→MnO2(s)+I2(s)
The oxidation half reaction is ½
I− (aq)→I2(s)
The reduction half reaction is
MnO4− (aq)→MnO2(aq)
Balance I atoms and charges in the oxidation half reaction.
2I− (aq)→I2(s)+2e−
In the reduction half reaction, the oxidation number of Mn
changes from +7 to +4. Hence, add 3 electrons to reactant side of
the reaction.
2
Balance charge in the reduction half reaction by adding 4
hydroxide ions to product side.
To balance O atoms, add 2 water molecules to reactant side. ½
MnO4− (aq) + 3e− + 2H2O →MnO2(aq) + 4OH−
To equalize the number of electrons, multiply the oxidation half
reaction by 3 and multiply the reduction half reaction by 2.
6I−(aq)→3I2(s)+6e− ½
2MnO4−(aq)+6e−+4H2O→2MnO2(aq)+8OH−
Add two half cell reactions to obtain the balanced equation.
2MnO4−(aq)+6I−(aq)+4H2O(l)→2MnO2(s)+3I2(s)+8OH− ½
38 | P a g e
25. (i) Correct statement + example ½½
2
(ii) Correct statement + example ½½
26.
(i) 𝐶 + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2
One mole of carbon gives one mole of carbon dioxide on
burning.
1 mole of CO2 = 12 + 32 = 44 g 1
(ii) 𝐶 + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2
32 g of dioxygen reacts with one mole of carbon
16 g of dioxygen reacts with ½ mole of carbon
One mole carbon is available; therefore, carbon is excess 1
reactant and O2 is limiting reactant.
32 g of O2 reacts with 12 g of carbon to form 44 g of
𝐶𝑂2
16 g of O2 reacts with 6 g of carbon to form 22 g of 𝐶𝑂2
(iii)𝐶 + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2
32 g of dioxygen reacts with one mole of carbon 1
16 g of dioxygen reacts with ½ mole of carbon
Two moles carbon is available; therefore, carbon is 3
excess reactant and O2 is limiting reactant.
32 g of O2 reacts with 12 g of carbon to form 44 g of
𝐶𝑂2
16 g of O2 reacts with 6 g of carbon to form 22 g of 𝐶𝑂2
OR
(i) 1 mole of C2H5 contains 2 moles of carbon atoms 1
3 moles of C2H5 contains 2 × 3 = 6 moles of carbon
atoms.
(ii) 1 mole of C2H5 contains 6 moles of hydrogen atoms 1
3 moles of C2H5 contains 6 × 3 = 18 moles of hydrogen
atoms.
(iii)1 mole of C2H5 contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules of 1
ethane.
3 moles of C2H5 contains 6.023 × 1023 × 3 =
18.069 × 1023 = 1.8069 × 1024 moles of hydrogen
atoms.
27. (i) NH3 has higher dipole moment than NF3 because dipoles ½
are being added in NH3 whereas they are being
subtracted in NF3. ½
3
(ii) C1-sp2 C2-sp3

½
39 | P a g e
½
(iii)𝑂2+ (15) =
(𝜎1𝑠)2 (𝜎 ∗ 1𝑠)2 (𝜎2𝑠)2 (𝜎 ∗ 2𝑠)2 (𝜎2𝑝𝑧 )2 (𝜋2𝑝𝑥 2 = 1
𝜋2𝑝𝑦 2 )(𝜋 ∗ 2𝑝𝑥 )1
(iv)
28. (i) If Qc< Kc; the reaction tends towards forward direction
to attain equilibrium.
(ii) Correct statement
(iii)Hydroxides of group III are precipitated by adding
NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl. The role of NH4Cl is to
1
produce common ion effect.
𝑁𝐻4 𝑂𝐻 ⇌ 𝑁𝐻4+ + 𝑂𝐻 − 3
1
𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙 ⟶ 𝑁𝐻4+ + 𝐶𝑙 −
1
Due to common ion effect, the degree of dissociation of
NH4OH is suppressed and less 𝑂𝐻− are formed. This
less concentration of 𝑂𝐻− is sufficient to precipitate
group III cations but not the cations of higher groups
since the Ksp of group III < subsequent groups.
29. (i) Chain isomerism 1
(ii) The organic compound is fused with sodium so as to 1
convert N, S and halogen present in the organic 3
compound to their respective ionic sodium salts.
(iii) Pent-4-en-2-ol. 1
30. (i) Correct rule
1
(ii) But-2-ene will be formed.
1 3
(iii)CH3-CH=CH2< CH3-CH=CH-CH3< CH3-C(CH3)=CH-
1
CH3
31. (i) ns2np6 1
(ii) p-block 1
(iii)The order inwhich the energy of the available orbitals4d, 1
5s and 5p increases is 5s < 4d < 5p.The total number of 4
orbitals available are9.
1
40 | P a g e
The maximum number ofelectrons thatcan be
accommodated is 18; and therefore18 elements are there
in the 5th period. 1
OR
(a) The maximum capacity of f-subshell is of 14
electrons. The 4f subshell and 5f subshell are
gradually filled up in lanthanides and actinides
respectively, so there are only 14 lanthanides and 14 1
actinides.
(b) The maximum capacity of (n-1)d subshell is of 10
electrons. Thus, 3d, 4d and 5d series consists of 10
elements each.
32. (i) It is because aniline is steam volatile and immiscible 1
with water.
(ii) By steam distillation 1
(iii) Chromatography is based on the principle of different 1
adsorption.
4
We can separate orange colour because it is made up 1
off red and yellow colour.
OR
(a) Distillation under reduced pressure 1
(b) Simple distillation 1
33. (i) The total amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a 1
reaction is the same whether the reaction takes place in
one step or in number of steps.
(ii) (a) Standard enthalpy of combustion is the amount of
heat evolved when one mole of a substance under 1
standard condition is completely burnt to form product.
(b) Standard enthalpy of formation is the enthalpy
change accompanying the formation of one mole of a 1
substance from its constituent elements in their standard
state.
(iii)∆𝐻0 = ∆𝑈0 + ∆𝑛𝑔 𝑅𝑇
5
∆𝐻0 = (−10500 − 2477.57)𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 ½
= −12977.575 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
∆𝐺 0 = ∆𝐻0 − 𝑇∆𝑆 0
= −12977.58 − 298 × (−44.1)𝐽𝐾 −1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 ½
= −12977.58 + 13141.80
= 0.164 𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 ½
Since ∆𝐺 0 is positive, the process is non-spontaneous.
OR ½
(i) Correct statement
1
41 | P a g e
1
(ii) (a)
Extensive Property Intensive Property
The property that depends The property that depends
on the quantity of a matter on the nature of the
contained in the system. substance and not on the
e.g. mass, volume, heat amount of the substance.
capacity e.g. viscosity, refractive
index. 1
(b)
Isothermal Process Isobaric Process
When a process is carried Isobaric process is the one
out in such a manner that during which the pressure
the temperature remains of the system remains
constant, it is called constant.
isothermal process. ½
(iii)∆𝐺 = ∆𝐻 − 𝑇∆𝑆 ½
∆𝐺 = −𝑣𝑒 for spontaneous reaction ½
𝑇∆𝑆 > ∆𝐻
∆𝐻
⇒𝑇 > ½
∆𝑆
400
⇒𝑇> = 2000 𝐾
0.2
Above 2000 K, the process will be spontaneous.
34. (i) (a) Wurtz reaction: When two moles of alkyl halides ½
react with Na metal in presence of dry ether, higher
alkanes are formed.
𝐷𝑟𝑦 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟 ½
2𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙 + 2𝑁𝑎 → 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻3 + 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
(b) Friedel-Crafts alkylation: When benzene reacts with
alkyl halide in presence of anhydrous AlCl3, alkyl
benzene is formed. ½
½
5
(ii) A= 3-ethylpent-2-ene
1
(iii) Ethene decolourises bromine water but ethane does not.
42 | P a g e
OR 1
(i) (a) correct conversion
(b) correct conversion 1
(ii) (a) n-pentane has higher surface area than isopentane. 1
(b) Wurtz reaction occurs between two alkyl halides to 1
yield alkane. Methane has only one carbon atom, hence 1
cannot be prepared by using wurtz reaction.
(iii) To distinguish between ethene and ethyne: Add a few
drops of ammonical cuprous chloride to each of 1
ethylene (ethene) and acetylene (ethyne). No change
will be observed in the case of ethylene (ethene) but in
the case of acetylene (ethyne), red precipitate of copper
acetylide is formed.
35. (i) 24𝐶𝑟 = 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝6 4𝑠1 3𝑑 5 1
Half filled orbitals are more stable because of 1
symmetrical distribution of electrons and exchange
energy is maximum.
(ii) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle: It is impossible to 1
determine the exact position and momentum of fast-
moving subatomic particle like electron simultaneously.
∆𝑉 = 50 × [(100 − 99.99)%] ½ 5
0.01
= 50 × = 50 × 10−4 = 5 × 10−3 𝑚𝑠 −1
100
ℎ ½
∆𝑥. ∆𝑉 =
4𝜋𝑚
6.6 × 10−34 ½
⇒ ∆𝑥 =
4 × 3.142 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 5 × 10−3
⇒ ∆𝑥 = 1.154 × 10−2 𝑚 ½
43 | P a g e
SAMPLE PAPER - 4
SECTION-A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each
question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. The percentage of an element M is 53 in its oxide of molecular formula M 2O3. Its

atomic mass is about:
(a) 45 (b) 18 (c) 36 (d) 27
2. The angular momentum of an electron is zero. In which orbital may it be present?

(a) 3s (b) 3p (c) 3d (d) 4f
3. According to (n+l) rule, after np level is filled with electrons, the next electron will enter
into:
(a) (n+1) p (b) (n+1) s (c) (n-1) d (d) nd
4. Which of the following process involves absorption of energy?

(a) Cl + e − → Cl − (b) O + e − → O −
−
(c) S + e − → S − (d) O − + e − → O 2
5. For one of the element various successive ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol -1) are
given below:
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th
577.5 1180 2750 11,580 14,280
The element is:
(a) P (b) Mg (c) Si (d) Al
6. Which of the following are not state functions?

(I) q + w, (II) q , (III) w, (IV) H-TS
(a) (I) and (IV) (b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III) (d) (II) and (III)
7. At equilibrium of the reaction, 2X (g)+ Y(g) → X2Y (g), the number of moles of X2Y
at equilibrium is affected by:
(a) temperature and pressure (b) temperature only
(c) pressure only (d) temperature, pressure and catalyst used
8. Which of the following will occur if a 0.1M solution of a weak acid is diluted to 0.01
M at constant temperature?
(a) [H+] will decrease to 0.01 M (b) pH will decrease
(c) percentage ionization will increase (c) Ka will increase
44 | P a g e
9. HNO2 acts as an oxidant with which one of the following reagent:
(a) KMnO4 (b) H2S (c) K2Cr2O7 (d) Br2
10. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is:
(a) +10 (b) +5 (c) +6 (d) +3
11. Electrophiles are electron seeking species. Which of the following group contains only
electrophiles?
(a) BF3, NH3, H2O (b) AlCl3, SO3, NO2+
(c) NO2+, CH3−, CH3 C+ O (d) C2H5−, C2H5.,C2H5+
12. The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals.
(a) (C6H5)3Ċ < (C6H5)2ĊH < (CH3)3Ċ < (CH3)2ĊH
(b) (C6H5)2ĊH < (C6H5)3Ċ < (CH3)3Ċ < (CH3)2ĊH
(c) (CH3)2ĊH < (CH3)3Ċ < (C6H5)3Ċ < (C6H5)2ĊH
(d) (CH3)2ĊH < (CH3)3Ċ < (C6H5)2ĊH < (C6H5)3Ċ
13. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of their boiling point.
(i) n- butane (ii) 2-methylbutane (iii) n-pentane
(iv) 2,2-dimethylpropane
(a) i˃ ii˃ iii˃ iv (b) ii ˃ iii ˃ iv˃ i
(c) iv ˃iii ˃ ii ˃ i (d) iii ˃ ii ˃ iv ˃ i
14. What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethylbromomethane?
(a) 1-Bromo-1, 1- diethylmethane (b) 3- Bromopentane
(c) 1- Bromo-1-ethylpropane (d) 1- Bromopentane
Assertion (A): Cinnabar is a chemical compound whereas brass is a mixture.
Reason (R): Cinnabar always contains 6.25 times as much as mercury as
sulphur by weight. Brass can be made with widely different rat ratios
of copper and zinc.
Assertion (A): The opposite lobes of a p-orbital have opposite sign whereas
the opposite lobes of d-orbital have the same sign.
Reason (R): The opposite lobes of a p-orbital have opposite charge whereas
the opposite lobes of d-orbital have the same charge.
Assertion (A): Sixth period is the longest period in the periodic table.
Reason (R): Sixth period involves the filling of all orbitals of the sixth
energy level.
45 | P a g e
Assertion (A): For the reaction 2NH3 (g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g), ΔH > ΔU.
Reason (R): Enthalpy change is always greater than internal energy change.
SECTION-B
Thefollowing questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks
each.
19. In a reaction : C(s) + 2S (s) → CS2(l) .
4g carbon was heated with 8 g of sulphur.
(a) Which is the limiting reagent ?
(b) How much CS2 will be formed when the reaction is complete .
OR
What mass of CuCO3 is required to react completely with 8.1mL of
0.5 M H2SO4. (At. Mass of Cu = 63.5u) (2)
20. Give reason for the following :
(a) The two O-O bend length in O3 molecule are equal.
(b) Ethene molecule is trigonal planar. (2)
21. (a) On the basic of VSEPR theory predict the shape of BrF5 and ClF3 .
(b) Although NH3 and H2O both have sp3 hybridisation, bond angle of H2O
is less than NH3. Why? (2)
22. The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298K are
−890.3 kjmol−1, −393.5 kjmol−1 and −285.8 kjmol−1 respectively. Find out the enthalpy
of formation of methane gas from the data.
OR
Calculate the free energy change when I mole of NaCl is dissolved in water at
298K .
(Given: Lattice energy of NaCl= −777.8 kjmol-1 ,Hydration energy
= −774.1 kjmol-1 and ΔS= 0.043 KjK-1mol-1 at 298 K.) (2)
H
23. Calculate the P of the solution obtained when 1mL of 13.6M HCl is diluted with
water to give one litre of the solution . (2)
( Log 1.36 = 0.1335)
24. Balance the following equation in basic medium by ion – electron method
AsO33−+ MnO4− → AsO43−+ Mn2O3 (2)
46 | P a g e
25. (a) Write the structural formala for 2,3- dibromo -1- phenylpentane.
(b) Diphenyl ketone doesnot show tautomerism. Why ? (2)
SECTION-C
26. (a) The density of 3 molal solution of NaCl is 1.110 g/mL. Calculate the
molarity of the solution.
(b) Out of molarity and molality which is better of expressing the
concentration of the solution and why? (2+1)
27. Give reason for the following.
(a) F¯ cannot be formed easily as compared to Cl¯ ion from their respective
elements.
(b) The first element of all the groups show anomalous behavior.
(c) The increasing order of reactivity among group I element is
Li ˂ Na ˂ K ˂ Rb ˂ Cs. (3)
OR
Arrange the following as instructed :
(a) O, S, Cl, F (decreasing order of electrongain enthalpy )
(b) F, Cl, Br, I (increasing order of reactivity )
¯ 3− + 3+
(c) F ,N , Na , N (decreasing order of ionic radii)
28. (a) Write the conjugate acid and base of NH3 .
(b) 20 ml of 0.001M AgNO3 solution is added to one litre of 0.002 M
K2CrO4 solution. Will there be any precipitation ? (1+2)
−12
(Ksp for Ag2CrO4 is 2.4×10 )
29. (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethane and ethene .
(b) Giving reasons arrange the following in order of property mentioned
against each.
(i) n- pentane, iso-pentane, neo-pentane (increasing boiling point)
(ii) Ethene, ethane , ethyne (increasing acidic character) (3)
30. Answer any three of the following
(a) Draw the resonance structure of CH3COO¯.
(b) An organic compound is fused with sodium for testing halogen, nitrogen
and sulphur, why ?
(c) Which of the two: O2NCH2O¯ or CH3CH2O¯ is expect to be more stable
and why?
(d) Classify the following reaction in one of the reaction type:
(CH3)3CCH2OH +HBr → (CH3)2C(Br) CH2CH3 + H2O (3)
47 | P a g e
SECTION-D
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
31. A physicist was performing experiments to study the effect of varying voltage on
velocity and wave length of electrons on the basis when electric potential is applied,
electrons get accelerated, If the accelerating potential V is applied to an electron beam,
the energy acquired by the electron is expressed in electron-volt (eV) which is equal
to the charge in coulomb × potential applied in volts. This energy become the kinetic
energy of the electron. In first case the electron was accelerated through a potential
difference of 1 KV and second case was accelerated through the potential difference
of 2 KV.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What is the relationship between the wavelength (λ) and velocity (v) of
an electron?
(b) In which case (1st or 2nd ) the velocity is more and why?
(c) The mass of an electron is 9.1×10−31 Kg. If 0.5 KV is applied on it, what
will be its wavelength?
OR
What will be the velocity of a beam of electrons if they are to display a
de Broglie wavelength of 100 Å? (1+1+2)
32. In organic reaction mechanism the intermediate formed can be free radical,
carbocation, carbanion and carbene. The attacking reagent can be electrophile or
nucleophile. The inductive, electromeric, hyperconjugative may help in polarization
of covalent bond. Organic reactions may be regarded as substitution, addition,
elimination and rearrangement, oxidation and reduction reaction.After the compound
is obtained in pure state, qualitative analysis helps to detect elements present in organic
compound whereas quantitive analysis helps to find percentage of various elements.
Dumas and Kjedahl method help to determine the percentage of nitrogen, Carius
method for halogens and sulphur. Carbon and hydrogen are estimated by the amount
of CO2 and H2SO4 formed. Phosphorous oxidation is done by oxidising it to H3PO4,
sulphur to H2SO4. The percentage of oxygen is determined by taking the difference of
100 and percentage of all elements. Empirical formula gives simple ratios of elements
where as molecular formula gives exact number of each element present in compound.
(a) Write the order of stability of carbocation.
(b) An organic compound has 8% sulphur. What is the minimum molar mass of
compound?
(c) If Lassaigne extract of organic compound gives blood red color
with FeCl3, what does it show?
OR
Why should we add HNO3 to Lassaigne extract before testing for halogens?
(1+1+2)
48 | P a g e
SECTION-E
33. (a) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the
following data:
3
CH 3OH (l ) + O2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) + 2 H 2 O(l )  r H 0 = −726 Kjmol −1
2
C ( s) + O2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g )  c H 0 = −393Kjmol −1
1
H 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → H 2 O(l )  f H 0 = −286 Kjmol −1
2
(b) What is the difference between extensive and intensive properties?
(c) Predict the feasibility of the reaction when both ΔH and ΔS increases.
OR
(a) For the reaction 2 A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g)
ΔU 0 = –10.5 kJ and ΔS0 = –44.1 JK–1.
Calculate ΔG0 for the reaction, and predict whether the reaction may occur
spontaneously.
(b) Given N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) ; ΔrH0 = –92.4 kJ mol–1
What is the standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 gas?
(c) How do molar heat capacity at constant volume and at constant pressure are
related? (3+1+1)
+
34. (a) Write the molecular orbital configuration of N2, N2 .Calculate their bond
order and predict their magnetic behaviour.
(b) Out of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol, which has higher boiling point and
why?
(c) Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic character in the molecules.
LiF, N2, ClF3, K2O . (3+1+1)
35. (a) Discuss the mechanism of halogenations of benzene.
(b) Carry out the following conversions:
(i) Ethanoic acid to Methane
(ii) Propyne to Propanone
(iii) Benzene to p- Nitrobromobenzene (2+3)
OR
(a) Give the mechanism of addition of HBr to propene in presence of peroxide.
(b) Describe the following with the help of chemical equations:
(i) Wurtz reaction
(ii) Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction
(iii) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
***
49 | P a g e
MARKING SCHEME OF
SAMPLE PAPER - 4
Marks Total Page no.
Allotted Mark of
Q.No Value Points
s NCERT
Book
1 (d) 1 1 14
2M
 100 = 53
2M + 48
 M = 26.5  27
2 (a) 1 1 52
1
h
Angular momentum = {l (l + 1)} 2
=0
2
For s- orbital , l = 0.
3 (b) 1 1 58
After np , (n+1)s orbital filled.
4 (d) 1 1 87
As 2nd electron gain enthalpy is positive.
5 (d) 1 1 85
Between 3rd & 4th huge I. E. difference.
6 (d) 1 1 156
As q & W are not state functions.
7 (a) 1 1 191
Δng is negative, so ΔS decreases.
To make ΔG –ve, ΔH must be –ve. (As ΔH not given)
8 (c) 1 1 211
% ionisation increases on dilution.
9 (b) 1 1 256
10 (c) (Due to peroxide linkage) 1 1 259
11 (b) 1 1 342
12 (d) 1 1 346
As triphenyl free radical is stabilized by resonance.
13 (d) 1 1 372
As branching increases, b.p. decreases.
14 (b) 1 1 367
15 (a) 1 1 3
50 | P a g e
16 (c) 1 1 55
Due to wave function, not due to charge.
17 (c) 1 1 78
Periodic table is based on Bohr-Bury’s rule.
18 (c) 1 1 161
Δng = +ve
19 12g C needs = 64 g S
4 g C needs = 64 ×4 / 12 = 21.33 g S
But only 8g S given in question. 1
(a) S is the limiting reagent. 1 2
(b) Amount of CS2 formed = 76× 8/64 = 9.5g 18
OR 1
CuCO3 + H2SO4 →CuSO4 + CO2 +H2O
1
Moles of H2SO4 = 8.1×0.5/ 1000 = 0.00405
Mass of CuCO3 = 0.00405× 123.5 = 0.5g
20 (a) Due to resonance. 1
(b) Two C-atoms are sp2 hybridised, sp2 are trigonal 2 105
planar. 1 117
21 (a) Square pyramidal – BrF5 1 1
+
Bent T/ T-shape - ClF3 2 2 111
(b) More is the lp less is the bond angle. 2 118
1
As H2O has two lp but NH3 has one lp.
22 (a) Δf H CH4 = Δc H of C( graphite) + 2 Δc H of H2 1
− Δf H of CH4 2
= −74.8 kj /mol 1 167
OR 1
Δsol H = −774.1 + 777.8 = 3.7 kj /mol 173
ΔG = ΔH −TΔS 1
= 3700 J − 298×43 = −9114 J = − 9.114 kj / mol
23 M1V1 = M2V2
1× 13.6 = M2× 1000 2 212
M2 = 1.36 × 10-2 M 1
[ H+] = 1.36 × 10-2 1
pH = - log 1.36 × 10-2
= 1.8665
24 ½
− −
oxd half : [As O + 2OH → As O + H 2 O + 2e ]4
-3
3
-3
4 2 268
½
Re d half : 2 Mn O -4 + 8e − + 5H 2 O → Mn2 O3 + 10 OH −
.
--------------------------------------- 1
4As O 3-3 + 2 Mn O -4 + H 2 O → 4As O -43 + Mn2 O3 + 2OH −
51 | P a g e
25 (a) CH3 CH2CH (Br) CH (Br) CH2 C6H5 1
(b) Benzophenone has no alpha hydrogen. 2 340
1
26 (a) 3 molal NaCl = 3x 58.5= 175.5g present in 1kg
solvent 20
Mass of solution = 1000+175.5= 1175.5g ½
Volume of solution = 1175.5/ 1.110 = 1059.009mL ½
= 1.059 L
Molarity = n/V = 3/1.059 = 2.83 mol/L 1 3
(b) Molality
½+½
As it is involved with mass term which is
independent from temperature.
27 (a) Due to small size of F, high charge density &

more repulsion to the incoming electron. 84-86
(b) Due to small size, high charge density & absence of 1x3
d-orbitals.
(c) Because down the group size increases, effective 3
nuclear charge decreases & IE1 decreases. So
reactivity increases.
OR
(a) Cl > F > S > O 1x3 84-86
(b) I < Br < Cl < F
(c) N 3− > F − > Na + > N 3+
28 (a) Conjugate acid :- NH4+ & Conjugate base:- NH2− ½+½ 208
(b) M1V1 = M2V2
0.001× 20 = M2× ( 1000 + 20) 3 221
M2 = 1.96 × 10 −5 M 1
[Ag+] = 1.96 × 10 −5 M
K ip = [Ag+] 2 [CrO4 2−]
= [1.96 × 10 −5] 2 [2 × 10 −3] = 7.68 × 10 −13
1
K sp > K ip . So no ppt. formed.
29 (a) Ethane + Br2 water → no decolourisation of Br2 381

Water.
Ethene + Br2 water → decolourisation of Br2 water. 1x3 3 372
( By Baeyer’s reagent)
(b) neopentane < isopentane < n-pentane
As surface area increases b.p. decreases.
(c) Ethane < Ethene < Ethyne
As s- character increases, electronegativity 386
increases. So acidic character increases
52 | P a g e
30 (a)
345
1×3 3
(b) Na reacts with X, N & S present in the organic 354
compound to form acid radicals.
(c ) O2NCH2O¯. Because –NO2 is a - I effect group 344
whereas – CH3 is a +I effect group.
(d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction. 348
31 (a) λ = h/mv 1
(b) In 2nd case due to more potential. 1
(c) λ = h / (2meV) 1/2 = 54 A0 1 +1 46
OR 4
v = h /m λ = 6.62 x 105 / 9.1 = 7.2 x 104 m/s 1 +1
32 (a) 30 > 20 > 10 > CH3 + 1 347

(b) At least one S atom may present in the
compound. 1 359
8g S present in 100g
32 g present in 100 x 32 / 8 = 400 g.
(c) It shows the compound contains both N & S 1 4 355
combines with the Na to form NaSCN.
1
Then the NaSCN combines with the Fe3+ ion to
form [Fe(SCN)3], which is blood red colour.
OR
Sodium extract (Lassaigne's extract) is boiled with 1
dilute HNO3 before testing for halogens to decompose 1
NaCN or Na2S present in the Lassaigne's extract
otherwise these will produce white ppt. with AgNO3 and
would thus interfere with the test of halogens.
33 (a)
3
CH 3OH (l ) + O2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) + 2 H 2 O(l )  r H 0 = −726 Kjmol −1 ...(1)
2 169
C ( s) + O2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g )  c H 0 = −393Kjmol −1 .........(2)
1
H 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → H 2 O(l )  f H 0 = −286 Kjmol −1 (3)
2
1 5
C ( s) + 2 H 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → CH 3OH (l )  r H 0 = ? 1
2 1
Eqn (2) + Eqn (3)×2 – Eqn (1) 1
= –393 – 286 × 2 – ( –726) = – 239Kj/mol 1
(b) Extensive properties are mass dependent where as 162
intensive properties are mass independent. 1
(c) ∆ H is positive and ∆ S is also positive. In this 178
53 | P a g e
case, for ∆ G to be negative; T ∆ S should be more
than ∆ H . This is possible when temperature is
high.
OR
(a)
162
ΔG0 = ΔH0 − ΔS0 1

= − 12.98 – 298(44.1 × 10 −3) = 0.16 Kj
ΔG0 is positive. So the reaction is nonspontaneous 1
(b) Δ f H of NH3 = –92.4/2 = –46.2 kj/mol 167
(c) Cp – Cv = R ( for 1 mole ideal gas) 1
1
163
34 (a) 125
½×6
½ +½
(b) p- nitrophenol. Due to intermolecular hydrogen 128
bonding. 1 102
(c) N2 < ClF3 < LiF < K2O
35 (a) ½
393
5
1
(b) (i) CH 3COOH ⎯NaOH ⎯ ⎯+CaO
⎯⎯→ CH 3COONa ⎯NaOH ⎯⎯ ,
→ CH 4
(ii) 1
54 | P a g e
(iii) 1 371
387
1
392
OR
(a)
382
1
(b) (i) 371
(ii)
1
392
1
(iii) 380
55 | P a g e
SAMPLE PAPAR - 5
SECTION-A
1. The maximum number of molecules is present in
(a) 3.5 g of O2 gas (b) 1.5 g of H2 gas
(c) 5 L g of N2 gas at STP (d) 1.5 L of CO2 gas at STP
2. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by weight.
Therefore, the ratio of their no of molecules is
(a) 1:4 (b) 1:8 (c) 7:32 (d) 3:16
3. The total number of atomic orbitals in third energy level of an atom is
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12
4. Orbitals having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes is
(a) 3d (b) 4f (c) 5p (d) 6d
5. Which of the oxides is most basic in nature?
(a) BeO (b) MgO (c) Al2O3 (d) Na2O
+ +
6. N2 and O2 are converted to monocations N2 and O2 respectively. Which of the
following statement is wrong?
(a) N2+ becomes diamagnetic (b) In O+
2 , paramagnetism decreases
+
(c) In N2 , N-N bond weakens. (d) In O+
2 , the O-O bond order increases
. 7. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
(a) SiF4 (b) BCl3 (c) CHCl3 (d) CCl4
8. The oxide, which cannot act as a reducing agent is
(a) SO2 (b) ClO2 (c) NO2 (d) CO2
9. Under which of the following condition is the relation ∆H = ∆U + P∆V valid for a
closed system?
(a) constant pressure (b) constant temperature
(c) constant temperature and pressure
(d) constant temperature, pressure and composition.
10. Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure is
(a) zero (b) infinity (c) 40.50 kJ K-1 (d) 75.48 JK-1 mol-1
11. Enthalpy of sublimation of a substance is equal to
(a) enthalpy of fusion + enthalpy of vapourisation
(b) enthalpy of fusion
(c) enthalpy of vapourisation
(d) twice enthalpy of vapourisation
12. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
(a) n– pentane (b) 2–methylbutane (c) 2,2–dimethylpropane (d) n-butane
13. Which of the following can be used as the halide component for Friedel-Crafts
reaction?
(a) Cholorobenzene (b) Bromobenzene (c) Ethyl chloride (d) Choloroethene
14. Which of the following contain acidic hydrogen?
(a) n-butane (b) 1-butyne (c) 2-butyne (d) 2-butene
Assertion (A): Sixth period is the longest period in the periodic table.
Reason (R): Sixth period involves filling of all the orbitals of the sixth energy level.
56 | P a g e
Assertion (A): Decrease in Gibbs energy causes spontaneous reaction.
Reason (R): spontaneous reactions are invariably exothermic reactions.
Assertion (A): Benzene does not decolourize bromine water.
Reason (R): Benzene is stabilized by resonance due to delocalization.
Assertion (A): Toluene on sulphonation gives m-toluene sulphonic acid.
Reason (R): Sulphonation is a reversible reaction.
SECTION-B
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19. Calculate the amount of carbon dioxide that could be produced when
a) 1 mole of carbon is burnt in 16 g of dioxygen.
b) 2 moles of carbon are burnt in 16 g of dioxygen.
OR
(a) What is the law called which deals with the ratios of the volumes of the gaseous
reactants and products?
(b) What is the difference between empirical and molecular formula?
20. Give reasons:
(a) First ionisation enthalpy of beryllium is more than that of boron.
(b) Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than chlorine.
21. (a) Why do elements in the same group have similar physical and chemical
properties?
57 | P a g e
(b) Which element in the periodic table has highest electronegativity and why?
OR
Consider the following species:
N3−, O2−, F−, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+
(a) What is common in them?
(b) Arrange them in the order of increasing ionic radii.
22. (a) Enthalpy of neutralisation of a strong acid and a strong base is always constant.
Why?
(b) What are the two factors on which the spontaneity of a given process depends?
23. (a) Write the conjugate base of H3PO4.
(b) NaCl solution is added to a saturated solution of PbCl2. What will happen to the
concentration of Pb2+ ions?
24. (a) Mention the type of hybridization of each carbon in the compound CH3-CN.
(b) Draw the structure of 3-oxo-2-methylhex-4-enal.
25. What are conformations? Draw the Sawhorse projections of ethane.
SECTION-C
26. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other to produce ammonia according to the
following chemical equation:
N2(g) + 3 H2(g) 2 NH3(g)
(a) Calculate the mass of ammonia produced if 2.00 103 g of dinitrogen reacts with
1.00 103 g of dihydrogen.
(b) Will any of the two reactants remain unreacted?
(c) If yes, which one and what would be its mass?
OR
A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon, 71.65% chlorine. Its molar
mass is 98.96 g. What are its empirical and molecular formulae?
27. What transition in the hydrogen spectrum would have the same wavelength as the
Balmer transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ spectrum?
28. (a) AgF2 acts as a very strong oxidising agent. Explain.
(b) Balance the following redox reaction by ion electron method (in basic medium):
MnO4− (aq) + I − (aq) → MnO2 ( s ) + I 2 ( s )
29. For the reaction
2 A(g) + B(g) 2D(g)
ΔU = −10.5 kJ and ΔS = − 44.1 JK-1.
0 0
Calculate ΔG0 for the reaction, and predict whether the reaction may occur
spontaneously.
30. (a) Explain why alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to a
π-system.
(b) Define metamerism with an example.
(c) Write the IUPAC name of C6H5−O−−(CH2)6–CH3.
OR
(a) Arrange the following in order of property mentioned against each:
  
(i) (CH 3 )3 C , CH 3CH 2 C HCH 3 , CH 3CH 2CH 2 C H 2 (increasing stability)
58 | P a g e
(ii) CH 3CH 2COOH ,(CH 3 )2 CHCOOH ,(CH 3 )3 CCOOH (increasing acidic
strength)
(b) Benzylic free radical is more stable than allylic free radical. Why?
SECTION-D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an
internal choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A large number of orbitals are possible in an atom. These atomic orbitals are
precisely distinguished by what are known as quantum numbers. Each orbital is
designated by three quantum numbers labelled as n, l and ml.
The capacities of shells with a given principal quantum numbers are fixed by the rules
governing the permitted values of the quantum numbers and the Pauli exclusion principle.
The permitted values of quantum numbers are:
Principal quantum number n 1 to ∞
Azimuthal quantum number l 0 to n-1 (n values)
Magnetic quantum number m -l to +l (2l+1 values)
Spin quantum number s + 1⁄2 𝑜𝑟 − 1⁄2 (two values)
The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two electrons in the same atom may have the
same values of all four quantum numbers. It follows that, for a given value n, there are
2n2 different sets of values for the quantum numbers, because l may have the values
0,1,…..,n-1 and for each value of l there are 2l+1 values of m, and for each set of values
of l and m there are only two choices for s. Hence the capacity of nth quantum shell is
𝑙=𝑛−1 𝑛−1
2(𝑛 − 1)𝑛
2 ∑ (2𝑙 + 1) = 2 (2 ∑ 𝑙 + 𝑛) = 2 [ + 𝑛] = 2(𝑛2 − 𝑛 + 𝑛) = 2𝑛2
2
𝑙= 0 0
(a) List the quantum numbers (ml and l ) of electrons for 3d orbital.
(b) Which of the following orbitals are possible? 1p, 2s, 2p and 3f
(c) What are the values of principal quantum number (n) and azimuthal quantum
number (l) for 3d and 4p orbitals?
OR
How many electrons in an atom may have the following quantum numbers?
(i) n= 4, ms = − ½ (ii) n= 3, l = 0
32. An organic reaction occurs through making and breaking of bonds. The breaking of
bonds may occur homolytically leading to the formation of free radicals or
heterolytically generating positively and negatively charged species. The neutral and
positively charged species which are electron deficient are collectively called
electrophiles while neutral and positively charged species being electron rich are
called nucleophiles. An organic reaction usually involves the attack of a reagent on
the substrate molecules. The substrate molecule, although as a whole electrically
neutral, has centres of low and high electron density due to displacement of bonding
electrons. These electron displacements occur through inductive, electromeric,
resonance and hyperconjugation effect. Whereas inductive effect involve polarisation
of σ -bond caused by the polarisation of adjacent CC-bond, resonance effect involve
59 | P a g e
transfer of π-electrons along a conjugated system. Hyperconjugation effect, on the
other hand, involve σ-π conjugation. Both inductive and hyperconjugation effects
can be used to explain stability of carbocations and free radicals. The stability of a
molecule can also be judged on the basis of contribution of its resonance structures.
(a) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia. Give reason.
(b) How many electrons are present in the valence shell of the carbon atom of the
carbanion ion?
(c) Arrange the following in the order of property indicated for each set:
(i) −F, −CN, −COOH, −NO2, −I : Decreasing −I-effect.
(ii) Cl-CH2-COOH, Cl3C-COOH, CH3COOH, Cl2CH-COOH : Increasing acid
strength.
OR
(i) Why does SO3 act as electrophile?
(ii) CH2=CH− is a better nucleophile than CHC−. Explain.
SECTION-E
33. (a) Arrange the following in decreasing order of their bond angle: H2O, NH3, H2S
(b) On the basis of VSEPR theory, draw the shape of PCl5 and XeF4.
(c) What is the hybridisation state of Be in BeCl2? Though Be-Cl bond is polar,
BeCl2 is a non polar molecule Why ?
34. (a) 13.8 g of N2O4 was placed in a 1L reaction vessel at 400K and allowed to attain
equilibrium: N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g)
The total pressure at equilbrium was found to be 9.15 bar. Calculate Kp and
partial pressure at equilibrium. (R = 0.083 bar L mol-1K-1)
(b) Explain the following terms:
(i) Common ion effect (ii) Buffer solution
OR
(a) Which of the following are Lewis acids? H2O, BF3, NH3, AlCl3
(b) The solubility product of Al(OH)3 is 2.7 × 10-11. Calculate its solubility in gL─1.
(c) Consider the reaction: 2 SO2(g) + O2 ⇌ 2 SO3(g) + Heat
Indicate the direction in which the equilibrium is shifted when
(i) temperature is increased. (ii) pressure is increased.
35. (a) Write the chemical equations involved for the following reactions:
(i) Decarboxylation (ii) Friedel-Crafts acylation
(b) An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-one. Write
structure and IUPAC name of ‘A’.
(c) Benzene is highly unsaturated but behaves like saturated compound. Why?
OR
(a) Arrange the following set of compounds in order of their decreasing
relative reactivity with an electrophile:
(i) Chlorobenzene, 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene, p-nitrochlorobenzene
(ii) p-H3C-C6H4-NO2, p-O2N-C6H4-NO2, C6H5-CH3
(b) Explain stepwise mechanism for electrophilic substitution reaction of
formation of nitrobenzene from benzene.
60 | P a g e
MARKING SCHEME
SAMPLE PAPER - 5
Q. Value Points Marks PAGE NO.
No Allotted OF NCERT
BOOK
1. (b) 1.5 g of H2 gas 1 15
2. (c) 7:32 1 20
3. (c) 9 1 53
4. (b) 4f 1 55
5. (d) Na2O 1 95
6. (a) N2+ becomes diamagnetic 1 125
7. (c) CHCl3 1 108
8. (d) CO2 1 261
9. (a) constant pressure 1 161
10. (b) infinity 1 162
11. (a) enthalpy of fusion + enthalpy of vapourisation 1 165
12. (a) n– pentane 1 372
13. (c) Ethyl chloride 1 392
14. (b) 1-butyne 1 386
15. (c) A is true but R is false 1 76
16. (c) A is true but R is false 1 178
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1 390
explanation of A.
18. (d) A is false but R is true. 1 392
19. (a) According to the question, only 16 g of dioxygen is
1
available. Hence, it will react with 0.5 mole of carbon to give
22 g of carbon dioxide. 20
1
(b) According to the question, only 16 g of dioxygen is
available. It is a limiting reactant. Thus, 16 g of dioxygen can 20
combine with only 0.5 mole of carbon to give 22 g of carbon 1
dioxide.
OR 12
(a) Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous volume.
1
(b) An empirical formula represents the simplest whole 16
number ratio of various atoms present in a compound
1
whereas the molecular formula shows the exact number
of different types of atoms present in a molecule of a
compound.
20. (a) Be has full filled 2s orbital and so a large amount of
1 85
energy is required to remove electron than B in which
the electron is to be removed from 2p orbital.
(b) It is due to small size and large interelectronic
1 87
repulsion of fluorine than chlorine.
61 | P a g e
21. (a) Elements in the same group have similar outer electronic
1 79
configuration.
1
(b) F, due to its smaller size.
88
OR
1
(a) Each one of these ions contain 10 electrons.
1 84
(b) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F− < O2− < N3−
22. (a) This is because all strong acids and strong bases are
1 165
completely ionized in dilute solution.
(b) (i) Entropy should be positive.
1/2+1/2 176
(ii) Gibbs free energy should be negative
23. (a) 𝐻2 P𝑂4− 1 208
(b) Pb2+ ion concentration will decrease to keep Ksp constant. 1 220
24. (a) 1st carbon is sp and 2nd carbon is sp3 hybridized. 1 327
2 1
C H3 − C N
(b) CH3-CH=CH-CO-CH(CH3)-CHO 1 326
25. The spatial arrangements of atoms in a molecule that can be
obtained through rotation around carbon-carbon single bonds 1
are known as conformations. 375
OR
Molecular mass = 98.96
Element % Atomic Relative Simplest Simplest
mass no. of molar whole
moles ratio no.ratio
24.27 2.02
C 24.27 12 12 2.02 1
= 2.02 =1
2
4.07 4.07
H 4.07 1 1 2.02 2
= 4.07 =2
71.65 2.02 16
Cl 71.65 35.5 35.5 2.02 1
= 2.02 =1
98.96
Therefore, n = =2 1/2
49.5
Molecular formula = n × (Empirical formula)
= 2 × (CH2Cl) = C2H4Cl2 1/2
62 | P a g e
27. For He+ ion, the wave number associated with the Balmer
transition, n = 4 to n = 2 is given by:
1/2
The transition for Hydrogen will have the same wavelength.

Therefore,
1
67
1
This equation can only be true when and 1/2
28. a) Ag in +2 oxidation state is highly unstable and therefore
reduced to more stable state of +1. 1 273
b) [ MnO4− (aq) + 2 H 2O(l ) + 3e− → MnO2 ( s) + 4OH − ]  2
[2 I − (aq) → I 2 ( s) + 2e − ]  3
½
½
2 Mn𝑂4− (aq) + 6 𝐼 − (aq) + 4 H2O (l) → 2 MnO2(s)+ 3 I2(s) + 8 O𝐻 −
1 267
29. For the given reaction, 2 A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g)
∆ng = 2 – (3) = –1 mole
Substituting the value of ∆Uθ in the expression of ∆Hθ: ½
∆Hθ = ∆Uθ + ∆ngRT
= (–10.5 kJ) – (–1) (8.314 × 10–3 kJ K–1 mol–1 ) (298 K)
= –10.5 kJ – 2.48 kJ = –12.98 kJ ½
Putting the values of ∆Hθ and ∆Sθ in the expression of ∆Gθ :
∆Gθ = ∆Hθ – T∆Sθ 1
= –12.98 kJ – (298 K) (–44.1 J K–1 )
= –12.98 kJ + 13.14 kJ = + 0.16 kJ 183
Since ∆Gθ for the reaction is positive, the reaction will not
occur spontaneously. 1
30. (a) Due to hyperconjugation, alkyl groups act as donors when 1 347
attached to a π-system.
(b) It arises due to different alkyl chains on either side of the
functional group in the molecule. 341
For example, C4H10O represents methoxypropane (CH3OC3H7) 1
and ethoxyethane (C2H5OC2H5).
(c) Phenoxy heptane
OR 1 336
   1 342
CH 3CH 2CH 2 C H 2  CH 3CH 2 C HCH 3  (CH 3 )3 C
(a) (i)
(CH 3 )3 CCOOH  (CH 3 ) 2 CHCOOH  CH 3CH 2COOH 1
(ii)
(b) Benzylic free radical has more number of resonating 1 336
structures than allylic free radical.
63 | P a g e
31. (a) l = 2 , ml = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2 1
(b) 2s, 2p orbitals are possible 51,52
1
(c) n = 3 , l = 2
n=4,l=1 2
OR
(i) 16 electrons. (ii) 2 electrons.
32. (a) Alkyl groups increases electron density on N-atom due to 1

+I - effect and so electron pair donating capacity increases.
(b) 8 electrons.
(c) (i) NO2 > -CN > -COOH > -F > -I 1
(ii) CH3COOH < Cl-CH2-COOH < Cl2CH-COOH
341-343
< Cl3C—COOH 2
OR
(i) Due to resonance, sulphur acquires positive charge. It make
SO3 an electrophile.
(ii) In CH2=CH−, the C-atom carrying the –ve charge is sp2 -
hybridised while in CHC− the C-atom carrying the –ve charge
is sp- hybridised. Since sp2 –hybridised C-atom is less
electronegative and hence a better nucleophile than CHC−.
33. (a) NH3 > H2O > H2S 1
(b)
110-111
1+1
(a) In BeCl2, Be is sp-hybridisation. 119

1
BeCl2 is linear in geometry. Dipole moments are getting
cancel each other. So its dipole moment is zero. 1
34. (a) Number of moles = 13.8g/92 g = 0.15 mol
pV = nRT 1
200
p ×1L = 0.15 × 0.083 × 400 K
p = 4.98 bar
N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) 1
Initial pressure: 4.98 bar 0
At equilibrium: (4.98 – x) bar 2x bar
At equilibrium, PTotal 9.15 = (4.98 – x) + 2x 218
or x = 9.15 – 4.98 = 4.17 bar
Partial pressures at equilibrium are 1
PN2O4 = 4.98 – 4.17 = 0.81bar 219
p NO2 = 2x = 2 4.17 = 8.34 bar
64 | P a g e
Kp = (pNO2)2 / pN2O4 = = (8.34)2/0.81 = 85.87
(b) (i) If to an ionic equilibrium, a salt containing a common 1
210
ion is added, the equilibrium shifts in the backward direction.
(ii) It is a solution which resists any change in its pH value even 1
small amount of acid or base are added to it.
OR
(a) BF3, AlCl3 1
(b) Al(OH)3 ⇋ Al3+(aq) + 3 OH─(aq) 220
1
1 0 0
1-s s 3s
3+ ─ 3 3
Ksp = [Al ][ OH ] = s × (3s) ½
or 2.7 × 10-11 = 27 s4 or s= 1 × 10─3 mol L─1
Solubility of Al(OH)3 in gL─1 ½
= 1 × 10─3 × 78 =7.8 × 10─2 gL─1 1
(c) (i) backward direction 1 203
(ii) forward direction
35. (a) (i) CH COONa + NaOH CaO,
→
Heat
CH4 + Na2CO3
1
3
(ii) 371
392
(b) ‘A’ = CH3-CH=C(CH2-CH3)-CH2-CH3 1
IUPAC Name: 3-ethylpent-2-ene 1
(c) Due to resonance, double bonds present inside the benzene
ring are delocalized. So, it behaves like saturated compound. 1 383
OR
(a) (i) Chlorobenzene > p-nitrochlorobenzene >
2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene 390
(ii) C6H5-CH3 > p-H3C-C6H4-NO2 > p-O2N-C6H4-NO2.
1
(b)
392-393
1/2
1/2
1
1
65 | P a g e
SAMPLE PAPER - 6
SECTION – A
Which of the following contains same number of carbon atoms as are in 6.0 g
of carbon (C – 12)?
(a) 6.0 g Ethane
1 1
(b) 8.0 g Methane
(c) 21.0 g Propane
(d) 28.0 g CO
Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of
isoelectronic species?
(a) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
2 1
(b) Na+, Ca2+ , Sc3+, F–
(c) K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+
(d) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
The correct order of first ionization enthalpy among following elements, Be,
B, C, N and O is
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
3 1
(b) B < Be < C < N < O
(c) Be < B < C < N < O
(d) Be < B < C < O < N
Maximum bond angle is present in case of
(a) BBr3
4 (b) BCl3 1
(c) BF3
(d) Same in all
Which of the following compounds show the presence of intramolecular
hydrogen bond?
(a) H2O2
5 1
(b) HCN
(c) o-nitrophenol
(d) p-nitrophenol
One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy?
(a) Liquid Nitrogen
6 (b) Hydrogen Gas 1
(c) Mercury
(d) Diamond
Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is
correct?
7 1
(a) For an isothermal process, q = +w
(b) For an isochoric process, ΔU = -q
66 | P a g e
(c) For an adiabatic process, ΔU = -w
(d) For a cyclic process, q = -w
A system absorb 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises
from 27°C to 37°C. The value of ∆ U is
(a) 100 kJ
8 1
(b) 10 kJ
(c) 0 kJ
(d) 1 kJ
The standard electrode potential of elements A, B and C are +0.68 V, -2.50 V
and -0.50 V respectively. The correct order of their reducing power is
(a) A > B > C
9 1
(b) A > C > B
(c) C > B > A
(d) B > C > A
The oxidation state of I in 𝐻4 𝐼𝑂6− is
(a) +7
10 (b) +5 1
(c) – 1
(d) +1
Which one is strongest acid among following options?
(a) CH2FCOOH
11 (b) CH2ClCOOH 1
(c) CHCl2COOH
(d) CHF2COOH
What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?
H H2
H3C C C C C CH3
H
C2H5 CH3
12 1
(a) 2-Ethyl-5-methylhex-2-ene
(b) 2-Methyl-5-ethylhex-2-ene
(c) 2,5-Dimethylhept-2-ene
(d) 3,6-Dimethylhept-5-ene
The most stable carbanion among the following is
H2
(a) C CH2 (b) H3CO CH2
13 (c) CH2 (d) O2N CH2 1
67 | P a g e
14. Pure methane can be prepared by
(a) Soda lime decarboxylation
(b) Kolbes electrolytic method 1
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Reduction of alkene with Pd
Given below are two statements labelled as assertion (A) and reason (R).
Assertion(A): One atomic mass unit is defined as one-twelfth of the mass of
one carbon-12 atom.
Reason(R): Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundant isotope of carbon and
has been chosen as standard.
15 1
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Assertion(A): The heat absorbed during the isothermal expansion of an ideal
gas against vaccum is zero.
Reason(R): The volume occupied by the molecules of an ideal gas is
negligible.
16 Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below. 1
Assertion(A): Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations
of all frequencies.
Reason(R): The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower
frequency to higher frequency with an increase in temperature.
17 1
Assertion(A): Energy of resonance hybrid is equal to the average of energies
18 1
of all canonical forms.
Reason(R): Resonance hybrid cannot be presented by a single structure.
68 | P a g e
SECTION – B
In the reaction 2𝐴 + 4𝐵 → 3𝐶 + 4𝐷, when 5 moles of A react
with 6 moles of B, then
19 (i) which is the limiting reagent? 2
(ii) calculate the amount of C formed.
Calculate the uncertainty in the momentum of an electron if it is confined to a

20 linear region of length 1 × 10−10 𝑚. 2
Give reason
a) Chlorine has a higher negative electron gain enthalpy than Fluorine.
21 2
b) Nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy whereas oxygen has
negative .
Give reason:
22 i. Ethyl alcohol dissolves in water. 2
ii. H2O is liquid but H2S is gas at room temperature.
Balance the following equation by ion electron method.
𝐶𝑙𝑂3− + 𝑀𝑛2+ → 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 𝐶𝑙 − (𝑖𝑛 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑𝑖𝑐 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚)
23 2
OR
− −
𝑀𝑛𝑂4 + 𝐼 → 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 𝐼2 (𝑖𝑛 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑐 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚)
Give the product of the following reactions:
(a) H3C Na/Liq NH3
C C CH3
CH3
24 (b) Anhy. AlCl3 2
+ H3C C CH2Cl
CH3
Give the structure of the products of ozonolysis of the following

(a) 3-Methylbut-1-ene
(b) 2-Methyl-but-2-ene
25 OR 2
How will you bring about the following conversions?
(a) 1-Chlorobutane to 1-Bromobutane
(b) 2-Bromopropane to 2-Chloropropane
69 | P a g e
SECTION – C
(i) A box contains some identical red coloured balls, labelled as A, each
weighing 2 grams. Another box contains identical blue coloured balls,
26 3
labelled as B, each weighing 5 grams. Consider the combinations AB, AB2,
A2B and A2B3 and show that law of multiple proportions is applicable.
Give reason for any 3 of the following observations:
(a) 𝑁𝑎+ is smaller than Na.
(b) The electronegativity increases along a period from left to right.
27 3
(c) The first ionization enthalpy of oxygen is less than nitrogen.
(d) Lithium shows diagonal relationship with magnesium.
Write the MO configuration of 𝑁2 and 𝑁2+ . Calculate their bond order and
predict their magnetic character.
28 3
OR
What is hybridization? Explain the shape of NH3 by means of hybridization.
Describe the effects of
(a) Addition of H2
(b) Addition of CH3OH
29 3
(c) Removal of CO
On the equilibrium of the reaction
2𝐻2 (𝑔) + 𝐶𝑂(𝑔) ⇌ 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 (𝑔)
Why is Wurtz reaction not preferred for the preparation of alkanes containing
30 3
odd number of carbon atoms? Illustrate your answer by taking one example.
SECTION – D
questions that follow.
Chemical equilibrium is attained in a reversible reaction carried in a closed
container and is of dynamic nature. The value of equilibrium constant may be
expressed either as 𝐾𝑝 or 𝐾𝑐 and the two are related to each other as
𝐾𝑝 = 𝐾𝑐 (𝑅𝑇)∆𝑛
31 Free energy change at equilibrium point is zero. The value of equilibrium 4
constant gives the extent to which a particular reaction has proceeded to attain
the equilibrium. Its value gets reversed if the reaction is reversed and becomes
the square root of initial value if the reaction is divided by 2.
(a) How is the value of equilibrium constant affected when the molar
concentration of reactants is made twice?
70 | P a g e
(b) Concentration of which species are taken as constant while writing the
expression for chemical equilibrium?
(c) The following concentrations were obtained for the formation of NH 3
from N2 and H2 at equilibrium.[𝑁2 ] = 1.5 × 10−2 𝑀, [𝐻2 ] = 3 × 10−2 𝑀 and
[𝑁𝐻3 ] = 1.2 × 10−2 𝑀. Calculate the equilibrium constant.
OR
For the equilibrium reaction
2𝑁𝑂𝐶𝑙 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑂 (𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔)
the value of equilibrium constant, 𝐾𝑐 is 3.75 × 10−6 at 1069 K. Calculate 𝐾𝑝
for this reaction at this temperature.
The phenomenon of existence of two or more compounds possessing the

same molecular formula but different properties is known as isomerism. Such
compounds are called as isomers.
When two or more compounds have similar molecular formula but different
carbon skeletons, these are referred to as chain isomers and the phenomenon
is termed as chain isomerism
When two or more compounds differ in the position of substituent atom or
functional group on the carbon skeleton, they are called position isomers and
this phenomenon is termed as position isomerism
Two or more compounds having the same molecular formula but different
32 functional groups are called functional isomers and this phenomenon is 4
termed as functional group isomerism.
Metamerism arises due to different alkyl chains on either side of the
functional group in the molecule.
(a) Which type of isomerism is shown by methyl formate and acetic acid?
(b) Methoxypropane and ethoxyethane show which type of isomerism?
(c) Draw all the position isomers of butanol.
OR
Draw all the chain isomers of the compound having molecular formula
C5H12.
SECTION – E
33.How will you convert benzene into
(a) p-Nitrobromobenzene
(b) m-Nitrochlorobenzene
(c) p-Nitrotoluene 5
(d) Acetophenone
(e) Cyclohexane
71 | P a g e
OR
What happens when
(a) Benzene reacts with methyl chloride in presence of anhy. AlCl3
(b) Phenol reacts with zinc dust
(c) Sodium salt of benzoic acid on heating with soda lime
(d) Benzene reacts with acetic anhydride in presence of anhy. AlCl3
(e) Benzene heated with fuming sulphuric acid
The standard Gibbs free energy for the reaction
𝑁2 (𝑔) + 3𝐻2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔)
is -33.2 kJ/mol at 298 K.
(a) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the above reaction.
(b) What would be the equilibrium constant if the reaction is
34 5
1 3
𝑁 (𝑔) + 𝐻 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔)
2 2 2 2
(c) What will be the equilibrium constant if the reaction is
1 3
𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) ⇌ 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 𝐻 (𝑔)
2 2 2
(a) The threshold frequency for a metal is 7 × 1014 𝑠 −1 . Calculate ethe kinetic
energy of an electron emitted when radiation of frequency 1 × 1015 𝑠 −1 hits
the metal.
(b) The energy associated with Bohr’s first orbit is −2.18 × 10−18 𝐽 𝑎𝑡𝑚−1 .
What is the energy associated with fifth orbit?
35 5
OR
(a) Calculate the energy and frequency of the radiation emitted when an
electron jumps from 𝑛 = 3 to 𝑛 = 2 in a hydrogen spectrum.
(b) Write down the electronic configuration of 𝐶𝑢 and 𝑆.
72 | P a g e
SAMPLE PAPER - 7
SECTION – A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct
answer. Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in
this section.
Q.1 The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 129g of urea in 1000g of
water is 1.15g/ml. The molarity of this solution is
(a)1.78M (b) 1.02M (c) 2.05M (d) 0.50M
Q.2 For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌2Hl(g), the standard free energy is ∆G°
>0 The equilibrium constant (K) would be
(a) K = 0 (b) K > 1 (c) K=1 (d) K <l
Q.3 0.44g of a colourless oxide of nitrogen occupies 224 ml at STP. The

compound is:
(a) N2O (b) NO (c) N2O4 (d) NO2
Q.4 The no. of structural isomers for C6H14 is
(a)3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Q.5 In which pair of species, both species have similar geometry?
(a) CO2, SO2 (b) NH3, BH3
(c) CO32-, SO32- (d) SO42-,ClO4-
Q.6 The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations 25 eV and 50 eV respectively.
The relation between their wavelength  1 and  2 will be
(a) λ1 = ½ λ2 (b) λ1 = λ2 (c) λ1 = 2λ2 (d) λ1 = 4λ2
Q.7 The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K
are -890.3 KJ mol-1, – 393.5 KJ mol-1 and – 285.8 KJ mol-1 respectively.
Enthalpy of formation of CH4 will be
(a) – 74.8 KJ mol-1 (b) – 52.27 KJ mol-1
(c) + 74.8 KJ mol-1 (d) + 52.26 KJ mol-1
Q.8 If the radius of the first Bohr orbit is x, then de-Broglie wavelength of
electron in 3rd orbit is nearly
(a) 3x (b) 9x (c) 2πx (d) 6πx
Q.9 Among the halogens, the correct order of Electron gain enthalpy is
(a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) F > Cl < Br > I
(c) Cl > F > Br > I (d) F < Cl < Br < I
Q.10 Which of the following carbocation is most stable?
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Q.11 Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
(a) +5 (b) +3 (c) +6 (d) +10
Q.12 An alkyl bromide’x’ reacts with sodium in dry ether to form 2,5-dimethyl
hexane, the IUPAC name of the compound ‘x’is
(a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropane (b) 1-chloro-2-methylpropane
(c) 1-chloro-2-methylbutane (d) 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
Q.13
The correct order towards electrophilic substitution is

(a) iv> iii > ii > i (b) i> ii > iii > iv
(c) iii> ii > i > iv (d) iii> iv > i > ii
Q.14 Which of the following arrangements represent increasing oxidation
number of the central atom ?
(a) CrO2- , ClO3-,CrO42-, MnO4- (b) ClO3- , CrO42-, MnO4-, CrO2-
(c) CrO2-, ClO3- , MnO4- , CrO42- (d) CrO42- , MnO4-, CrO2-, ClO3-
Q.15 Assertion: Chemical reactions are generally carried out at constant
pressure.
Reason: We define another state function Gibbs energy, G, which is

related to entropy and enthalpy.
Q.16 Assertion(A): A mixture of sodium acetate and sodium propionate forms

a buffer solution.
Reason (R): A buffer solution reacts with small quantities of hydrogen or
hydroxyl ions and keeps the pH almost same.
Q.17 Assertion: The first ionisation enthalpy of Be is greater than that of B.

Reason: 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s
Q.18 Assertion: pi bonds are weaker than sigma bonds.
Reason: pi bonds are formed by the overlapping of p-p orbitals along their
axes
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SECTION - B
The following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks
each.
Q.19 Determine the molecular formula of an oxide of iron in which the mass
percent of iron and oxygen are 69.9 and 30.1 respectively. Given that the
molar mass of the oxide is 159.8 g mol-1(Atomic mass: Fe = 55.85, O =
16.00 amu)
Q.20 (a) Calculate the number of electrons which will together weigh one gram.
(b) Calculate the mass and charge of one mole of electrons.
OR
Yellow light emitted from a sodium lamp has a wavelength of 580 nm.
Calculate the frequency and wave number of the yellow light.
Q.21 1.0 mol of a monoatomic ideal gas is expanded from the state (1) to state
(2) as shown in Fig. 6.4. Calculate the work done for the expansion of gas
from the state (1) to state (2) at 298 K.
Q.22 Balance the equation by Ion electron method in basic medium:

P4 + OH– → PH3 + H2PO2–.
Q.23 (a) Point out the differences between ionic product and solubility product.
(b) The solubility of AgCl in water at 298 K is 1.06 x 10 -5 mole per
litre.Calculate its solubility product at this temperature.
Q.24 (a) Which is more suitable method for the purification of a compound in
liquid state which decomposes at or below its boiling point?
(b) How will you separate a mixture of ammonium chloride and common
salt?
OR
Which of the two: O2NCH2CH2O– or CH3CH2O– is expected to be more
stable and why?
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Q.25 (a) What is meant by the term Bond order?
(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of bond order:
N2, O2, O2+, O2-
SECTION - C
The following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
Q.26 10 ml of a solution of NaCl containing KCl gave on evaporation 0.93 g of
the mixed salt which gave 1.865 g of AgCl by reacting with AgNO3
solution. Calculate the quantity of NaCl in 10 mL of the solution.
Q.27 (a) Although both CO2 and H2O are triatomic molecules, the shape of H2O
molecule is bent while that of CO2 is linear. Explain this on the basis of
dipole moment.
(b) Give reason: Ethyl alcohol is completely miscible with water.
(c) Draw and name the shape of SF4.
OR
(a) Explain why BeH2 molecule has a zero dipole moment although the
Be—H bonds are polar?
(b) B2 is paramagnetic in nature while C2 is not. Explain.
(c) Draw and name the shape of ClF3.
Q.28 At 473 K, the equilibrium constant Kc for the decomposition of
phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5) is 8.3 x 10-3 . if decomposition proceeds
as:
(a) Write an expression for Kc for the reaction

(b) What is the value of Kc for the reverse reaction at the same
temperature?
(c) What would be the effect on Kc if
(i) More of PCl5is added (ii) Temperature is increased?
Q.29 Classify the following reactions in one of the reaction type studied in this
unit.
(a) CH3CH2Br + HS– → CH3CH2SH + Br–
(b) (CH3)2C=CH2 + HCl → (CH3)2CCl—CH3
(c) CH3CH2Br + HO– → CH2=CH2 + H2O + Br–
Q.30 (a) An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-
one. Write the structure and IUPAC name of ‘A’.
(b)Write the reaction involved in the above.
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SECTION - D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an
internal choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Q.31 Read the paragraph and answer the following:
About 118 elements are known which have been placed in 18 groups and
7 periods. The properties such as atomic radius, ionisation enthalpy (IE),
electron gain enthalpy etc. depend upon the electronic configuration of the
element. Metallic character increases in going down the group. The
oxidising property increases on going across a period. Periodic properties
show a regular gradation on moving from left to right in a period or from
top to bottom in a group. Down a group, the atomic/ionic radii, metallic
character and reducing character increase while ionisation enthalpy and
electronegativity decrease.
(a) Write the electronic configuration of Cu2+ ion.

(b) Arrange the following in decreasing order of non metallic character: B,
C, N, F, Si
(c) (i)Why the 2nd ionisation enthalpy is always greater than 1st ionisation
enthalpy?
(ii)Noble gases have positive electron gain enthalpy.Give reason.
OR
Identify the period and group for the element with Z = 114. Write the
outer electronic configuration of the element
Q.32 Read the paragraph and answer the following:
To understand the properties of organic molecules, like acidity, basicity,

stability of various species, and to understand the organic reactions and
their mechanism, it is very important that we revisit the electronic effects
operating especially with a detailed study of conjugated chemical bonding.
During most of the organic reactions, reagents either undergo heterolysis
to give rise to electrophiles and/ or nucleophiles; or they undergo
homolysis to give rise to free radicals. Electrophiles being electron
deficient search for electron rich site in the organic substrate to attack and
form the bond. But, if there are more than one electron rich sites in the
organic substrate, the electrophile obviously would prefer to attack on the
most electron rich site. On the other hand, nucleophiles being electron
rich, search for electron deficient sites in the organic substrate. How these
electron deficient and electron rich sites are created (or occur) in the
substrate and how can we predict them by looking at the structure of the
substrate so that we may predict the attack.
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(a)Which electron displacement effect explain the following correct orders
of acidity of the carboxylic acids?
(i) Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2 COOH
(ii) CH3CH2COOH > (CH3)2 CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH
(b) Write the structural formula of 4-chloropent-2-ene.
(c) Explain hyperconjugation effect. How does hyperconjugation effect
explain the stability of alkenes?
OR
Explain why (CH3)3C+ is more stable than CH3C+H2.
SECTION - E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each.
Two questions have an internal choice.
Q.33 (a) Derive the relationship between ΔH and ΔU for an ideal gas. Explain
each term Involved in the equation. (b)
Q.34 (a) Define azimuthal quantum number.

(b) Calculate the angular momentum of an electron present in 4f orbital.
(c) Write down the quantum numbers ‘n’, ‘l’ and ‘m’ of 3dxy orbital.
(d) Draw the shape of dx2–y2 and dz2 orbitals.
(e) The atoms with half filled and fully filled orbitals have extra stability.
Give reason.
OR
(a) Define: (i) Photo-electric effect
(ii) Black body radiations
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(b) If photon of the wave length 150 pm strikes an atom and one of its
inner bound electron is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 x 10 7 ms–1,
calculate the energy with which it is bound to the nucleus.
Q.35 (a) How will you convert benzene into
(i) p – nitrobromobenzene
(ii) m – nitrochlorobenzene
(b)Despite their – I effect, halogens are o- and p-directing in haloarenes.
Explain.
(c) Arrange the following set of compounds in order of their decreasing
relative reactivity with an electrophile
Chlorobenzene, 2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene, p-nitrochlorobenzene
OR
An alkyl halide C5H11Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene
‘B’, which reacts with Br2 to give a compound ‘C’, which on
dehydrobromination provides an alkyne with ‘D’. On treatment with
sodium metal in liquid ammonia, one mole of ‘D’ gives one mole of the
sodium salt of ‘D’ and half a mole of hydrogen gas. Complete
hydrogenation of ‘D’ yields a straight-chain alkane. Identify A, B, C and D.
Give the reactions involved.
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SAMPLE PAPER – 8
SECTION A
1. The number of moles of BaCO3 which contains 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms is [1]
(a) 0.5
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 6.02 ×1023
2. The electrons of the same orbitals can be distinguished by [1]
(a) Principal quantum number
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) Spin quantum number
(d) Magnetic quantum number
3. Why the size of an anion is larger than the parent atom? [1]
(a) Due to increased repulsion among the electrons.
(b) Due to decrease in effective nuclear charge.
(c) Due to increase in effective nuclear charge.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
4. In which of the following molecule octet rule is not followed? [1]
(a) NH3
(b) CH4
(c) CO2
(d) NO
5. One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy? [1]
(a) Liquid Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen Gas
(c) Mercury
(d) Diamond
6. For the chemical reaction [1]
3X (g) + Y (g) ⇌ X3Y (g)
the amount of X3Y at equilibrium is affected by
(a) Temperature and pressure
(b) Pressure only
(c) Temperature only
(d) Temperature, pressure and catalyst.
7. The oxidation number of Mn is maximum in [1]
(a) MnO2
(b) K2MnO4
(c) Mn3O4
(d) KMnO4.
8. Inductive effect involves [1]
(a) displacement of σ electrons
(b) delocalization of π electrons
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(c) delocalization of σ-electrons
(d) displacement of π-electrons
9. Which of the following reaction is used to increase the length of the carbon
chain? [1]
(a) Wolff Kishner reaction
(b) Clemmensen reduction
(c) Kolbe’s electrolysis
(d) Wurtz reaction
10.A sub-shell having n = 6 , l = 2 can accommodate a maximum of [1]
(a) 12 electrons
(b) 36 electrons
(c) 10 electrons
(d) 72 electrons
11.A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises from
27° C to 37° C. The value of ∆ U is: [1]
(a) 100 kJ
(b) 10 kJ
(c) 0 kJ
(d) 1 kJ
12.The incorrect statement among the following for a nucleophile is [1]
(a) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(b) Ammonia is a nucleophile
(c) Nucleophiles attack low electrons density sites
(d) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking
13.Which of the following compound will exhibit cis-trans isomerism? [1]
(a) Butanol
(b) But-2-yne
(c) 2-Butenol
(d) But-2-ene
14.The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compound in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is: [1]
(a) -CONH2,-CHO, -SO3H,-COOH
(b) -COOH,-SO3H,-CONH2,-CHO
(c) -CONH2, -SO3H,-COOH, -CHO
(d) -CONH2, -SO3H,-COOH, -CHO
15.Given below two statements labelled as Assertion and Reason. [1]
Assertion: 1.231 has three significant figures.
Reason: All numbers right to the decimal point are significant.
Select the correct answer from the option given below.
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(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
Assertion: BF3 molecule has zero dipole moment.
Reason: F is more electronegative and B–F bonds are polar in nature.
Assertion.
Assertion
17. Given below two statements labelled as Assertion and Reason. [1]
Assertion: Ag<Hg<Cr<Mg<K is increasing order of reducing power.
Reason: It is decreasing order of oxidation potential.
Assertion.
Assertion
Assertion: Acetylene is acidic in nature.
Reason: In Acetylene C atom is sp hybridised.
Assertion.
Assertion
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SECTION B
The following questions are very short type and carry 2 marks each.
19.One volume of a gaseous compound requires 2 volumes of O2 for combustion and gives 2
volumes of CO2 and 1 volume of N2. Determine the molecular formula of the compound.
[2]
20.Why do the elements of the 2nd period show anomalous properties than the other members
of their respective groups? [2]
21.Name two intensive and extensive properties of a system.
22.Calculate the oxidation number of underlined elements in the followings: [2]
Na2B4O7, CrO5
23.What is the type of hybridisation of each carbon in the following compounds? [2]
(a) (CH3)2CO
(b) CH3CH = CHCN
OR
Give the IUPAC name of the following compounds: [2]
(a)
(b) CH3-CH2-CH (CH3)-CH2-CN

24.What is meant by entropy of a system? What happens to the entropy during the following
changes? [2]
(a) A gas condenses into liquid.
(b) CaCO3(s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
25.Will CCl4 give white precipitate of AgCl on heating it with silver nitrate? Give reason for
your answer. [2]
SECTION C
questions are very short type and carry 3 marks each.
26.Define mole fraction and calculate the molarity of a solution of ethanol in water in which
the mole fraction of ethanol is 0.040. [1+2]
27.The general features of the structure of a hydrogen atom and hydrogen like species were
quantitatively explained by Niels Bohr. [1+2]
(a) Write any postulate of the Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom.
(b) Calculate the radius of the second orbit of Li2+.
OR
(a) Define blackbody radiation? [3]
2
(b) Draw the shape of dz orbital
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(c) What will be the wavelength of a ball of mass 0.1 kg moving with a velocity of 10 m/s ?
28.Give reasons for any 3 of the following observation. [3]

(a) Halogens act as good oxidizing agent.
(b) Electron gain enthalpy noble gas is almost zero.
(c) Be has higher ionization enthalpy than B.
(d) Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that of chlorine.
29.An organic compound contains 69% carbon and 4.8% hydrogen, the remainder being oxygen.
Calculate the masses of carbon dioxide and water produced when 0.20 g of this substance is
subjected to complete combustion. [3]
30.Write the mechanism involved in the nitration of benzene? [3]
SECTION D
choice and carries 4(1+1+2) marks each.
31.Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2]
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states it is impossible to determine simultaneously the
exact position and momentum (or velocity) of an electron. It rules out existence of definite
path of electron and other similar particles. Electron is a tiny particle. To see an electron, we
need highly energetic light. Highly energetic photons will strike with electrons and change
its velocity so position will be more certain but velocity will be uncertain. If we use less
energetic light, then velocity will be more certain but position of electron will be uncertain.
If we use light of moderate energy, there will be some uncertainty in both position and
velocity.
(a) If uncertainty in the position of an electron is Zero then what is the uncertainty in its
momentum?
(b) Uncertainty principle gave what type of concept?
(c) The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is 1 x 10-5 kg m/s. The uncertainty in its
position will be (h = 6.62 x 10-34 kg m2/s).
OR
Suppose uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then what about velocity in
uncertainty?
32.Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2]
Thermodynamics involves energy changes in chemical reactions and other processes.
Internal energy is total energy stored in a substance. We can specify absolute value of
volume but not the absolute value of internal energy. We can measure only change in internal
energy (∆U). Work done on the system is taken as positive and work done by the system is
taken negative. Heat (q) absorbed by the system +ve and heat given by the system is –ve.
∆U = q + w according to first law of thermodynamics. ∆H is measured at constant pressure;
∆U is measured at constant volume. ∆H, ∆S, ∆G and temperature help to decide spontaneity
of the process.
(a) What are the ways by which the internal energy of a system can be changed?
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(b) State a chemical reaction in which ∆H and ∆U are equal.
(c) At 298 K what will be the change in standard internal energy change for the given
reaction OF2 (g) + H2O (g) →O2 (g) +2HF (g) ΔH= -310kJ.
OR
At what temperature, reduction of lead oxide to lead by carbon i.e.,
PbO(s) + C(s) →Pb(s) + CO(s) become spontaneous. For the reaction, ΔH and ΔS are
108.4 kJ mol-1 and 190.0JK-1mol-1 respectively.
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions
have an internal choice.
33.(a) Arrange the bond pair electron and lone pair electron in the decreasing order of the
repulsive interactions among them. [1+1+1+2]
(b) A molecule of the type AB3E2 has three bond pairs and two lone pairs of electrons.
Predict the most stable arrangement of electron pairs in this molecule.
(c) The bond order value is an important property of a molecule. How is bond order related
to bond length?
(d) Write the electronic configuration of an oxygen molecule and justify its magnetic
character.
34.Common ion effect is a phenomenon based on Le-Chatelier’s principle. [2+2+1]
(a) Illustrate the common ion effect with an example.
(b) If the concentration of hydrogen ion in a soft drink is 3 x 10-3 M, calculate its pH.
( log 3 = 0.4771)
(c) Identify the Lewis acids and Lewis base from the following: OH-, BCl3, NH3, and H3O+.
OR
Calculate the hydrolysis constant and degree of hydrolysis and pH of 0.10 M KCN solution
at 25°C. Ka for HCN = 6.2 × 10-10. ( log 7.94 = 0.8998) [5]
35.Complete the following and identify ‘A, to ‘E’. [5]
( D= Major & E= Minor Product)

OR
(a) How will you convert benzene into: [3+1+1]
(i) Benzene sulphonic acid
(ii) Toluene
(iii) Acetophenone
(b) Distinguish between ethane and ethene by suitable chemical test.
(c) Arrange the following: HCl, HBr, HI, and HF in order of decreasing reactivity towards
alkenes.
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SAMPLE PAPER - 9
SECTION A
Eeach question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1 If 500ml of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500ml, what will be the molarity of the
solution obtained?
(a)1.5M (b) 1.66M (c) 0.017M (d) 1.59M
2 Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or
trajectories of elements?
(a)Pauli’s exclusion principle
(b) Heisenberg’s uncertainity principle
(c)Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
(d)Aufbau’s principle
3 Number of angular nodes for 4d orbital is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d)1
4 Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species?
(a) I>I->I+ (b) I+>I->I (c) I>I+>I- (d) I->I>I+
5 The volume of a gas is reduced to half from its original volume .The specific heat
will be
(a)reduce to half (b)to be doubled (c) remain constant (d) increase four times
6 Which of the following is not correct?
(a) ∆G is zero for a reversible reaction.
(b) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction.
(c) ∆G is negative for a spontaneous reaction.
(d) ∆G is positive for a non spontaneous reaction.
7 Which of the following molecule/ion does not contain unpaired electrons?
(a)N2+ (b)O2 (c)O22- (d)B2
8 Which of the following elements does not show disproportionation tendency?
(a)Cl (b)Br (c) I (d)F
9 The principle involved in paper chromatography is-
(a)adsorption (b)partition (c)solubility (d)volatility
10 Name the type of intermediate formed in the first step of the following addition
reaction.
H3C─HC═CH2 + H+ → ?
(a)20carbanion (b)10carbocation (c)20carbocation (d)10carbanion
11 Arrange the following halogens F2,Cl2 ,Br2 ,I2 in order of their increasing reactivity
with alkanes.
(a)I2<Br2<Cl2<F2 (b)Br2<I2<Cl2<F2 (c)F2<Cl2<Br2<I2 (d)Br2<I2<Cl2<F2
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12 Methane can be converted into ethane by the reactions
(a) chlorination followed by the reaction with alcoholic KOH
(b) chlorination followed by the reaction with aqueous KOH
(c) chlorination followed by Wurtz reaction
(d) chlorination followed by decarboxylation
13 Which of the following concepts is used to explain the acidic nature of BF3?
(a) Arrhenius concept
(b) Bronsted Lowry concept
(c) Lewis concept
(d) Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis concept
14 Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 x10-5 and Kb for NH4OH is 1.8x10-5.The pH of ammonium
acetate will be
(a)7.005 (b) 4.75 (c)7.0 (d) between 6 and 7
15 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)
Assertion(A):The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason(R):The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of
various atoms present in a compound.
Assertion(A):It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum
of an electron simultaneously.
Reason(R):The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.
Assertion(A): Though the central atom of both NH3 and H2O molecules are sp3
hybridised, yet H-N-H bond angle is greater than that of H-O-H.
Reason(R): This is because nitrogen atom has one lone pair and oxygen atom has
two lone pairs.
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Assertion(A):In the reaction between potassium permanganate and potassium
iodide, permanganate ions act as oxidising agent.
Reason(R):Oxidation state of manganese changes from +2 to+7 during the reaction.
SECTION -B
This section contains 7questions with internal choice in two questions. The
19 (a) Determine the number of sub-shells associated with n=5.
(b) How many electrons will be present in the subshells having ms value of +1/2 for
n=5? OR
(a) Arrange the following orbitals in the increasing order of energy:
4s,3s,3p,4d
(b) Which of the following orbital has the lowest and which has the highest
energy?
4s,4f,5s,7p
+
20 The radius of Na cation is less than Na atom .Give reason.
21 Identify the path functions and state functions out of the following :
enthalpy, entropy , heat , temperature , work , free energy
22 The enthalpy of atomisation for the reaction CH4(g)→C(g)+4H(g) is 1665kJ/mol.
What is the bond energy of C-H bond?
23 The ionisation of hydrochloric acid in water is given below
HCl(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
Identify the two pairs of conjugate acid-base pairs in this ionisation.
24 Balance the following redox reaction: (In acidic medium)
Cr2O72- + I- → Cr3+ + I2
OR
Balance the following the redox reaction: (In acidic medium)
MnO4- +SO32- → Mn2+ + SO42-
25 In DNA and RNA, nitrogen atom is present in the ring system. Can Kjeldahl method
be used for the estimation of nitrogen present in these ? Give reason.
SECTION-C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one questions. The
26 Explain the following observations for any three:
(a)Mg has larger first ionization enthalpy than Al.
(b)Zn is not considered as a transition element.
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(c)Second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is positive.
(d)Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that of chlorine.
27 Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of ethylene .
Given: Enthalpy of hydrogenation of ethylene, combustion of hydrogen and ethane
are -135.6kJ/mol, -286.2kJ/mol and -1560.6kJ/mol respectively at 298 K.
28 During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldhal’s
method, the ammonia evolved from 0.5g of the compound neutralized 10ml of 1M
H2SO4.Find the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
OR
In Carius method of estimation of halogen ,0.15g of an organic compound gave
0.12g of AgBr. Find out the percentage of bromine in the compound.
(Molecular mass of AgBr = 188 g mol-1)
29 Calculate the work done and the change in internal energy when 1L of ideal gas
expands isothermally into vacuum until its total volume is 5L?
30 An unsaturated hydrocarbon ‘A’ adds two molecules of H2 and on reductive
ozonolysis gives butane-1,4-dial, ethanal and propanone .Give the structure of ‘A’.
Write its IUPAC name and explain the reactions involved.
SECTION-D
The following questions are case based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4(1+1+2)marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the
31 The French physicist , De Broglie in 1924 proposed that matter like radiation should
also exhibit dual behaviour i.e both particle and wavelike properties. This means
that just as the photon has momentum as well as wavelength, De Broglie from his
analogy gave the relation between wavelength and momentum of a material particle.
(i)State the relation between wavelength and momentum according to De Broglie.
(ii)The mass of an electron is 9.1x10-31kg.If its K.E is 3x10-25J, calculate its
wavelength.
(iii)Out of electron and proton which one will have a higher velocity to produce
matter waves of the same wavelength? Explain it.
OR
When a cricket ball of mass 100g is thrown by a bowler at a speed of 100km/hr does
not move like a wave. Explain why it does not show wave nature. Calculate the
wavelength of the ball.
32 An organic reaction occurs through making and breaking of bonds. The breaking of
bonds may occur either homolytically leading to the formation of radicals or
heterolytically generating positively and negatively charged species. An organic
reaction usually involves the attack of a reagent on the substrate molecule. The
substrate molecule as a whole electrically neutral has centres of low and high
electron density due to displacement of bonding electrons. These electrons
displacements occur due to resonance, hyperconjugation, inductive effect and
electromeric effect.
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(i)Draw the possible resonance structure of CH3-O-CH2+.
(ii)Give two examples each of electrophile and nucleophile.
(iii)Difference between inductive effect and resonance.
OR
Justify SO3 act as a electrophile.
SECTION-E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5marks each. Two
33 (a) Define mole fraction.
(b) State the law of multiple proportions.
(c)A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen , 24.27% carbon and 71.65% chlorine. Its
molar mass is 98.96g. What is it’s empirical and molecular formula?
OR
(a)Give two concentration terms which are independent of temperature .Justify your
answer.
(b)Mention the concentration terms which is generally used to express-
i- composition of medicines
ii- increased level of pollutants of air
(c) In the reaction 2A + 4B → 3C + 4D, when 5 moles of A react with 6
moles of B, then
(i) which is the limiting reagent?
(ii) calculate the amount of C formed?
34 (a)Discuss the shape of AsF5 using VSEPR theory.
(b)Draw the lewis dot structure of NO2.
(c)Explain the hybridisation of AlCl4-.
(d)Give an example of polyatomic species having zero dipole moment.
(e)What type of hydrogen bonding is present in 2- hydroxybenzoic acid.
OR
Write the molecular orbital configuration of O2, O+ 2−
2 and O2 Calculate their bond
order and predict their magnetic character . Also arrange them in their increasing
order of their stability.
35 An alkyl halide C5H11Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene B which
reacts with Br2 to give a compound C, which on dehydrobromination gives an
alkyne D. On treatment with sodium metal in liquid ammonia, one mole of D gives
one mole of the sodium salt of D and half mole of hydrogen gas . Identify A, B, C
and D. Give the reactions involved.
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SAMPLE PAPER - 10
SECTION-A
1. Which of the following weighs the most?
(a) One g – atom of nitrogen
(b) One mole of water
(c) One mole of sodium
(d) One molecule of H2SO4
2. Which of the following contains same number of carbon atoms as are in 6.0 g of carbon
(C – 12)?
(a) 6.0 g Ethane
(b) 8.0 g Methane
(c) 21.0 g Propane
(d) 28.0 g CO
3. For a given principal level n = 4, the energy of its sub shells is in the order
(a) s < p < d < f
(b) s > p > d > f
(c) s < p < f < d
(d) f < p < d < s
4. A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms-1. The wavelength of de-
Broglie wave associated with it would be (Note: h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js)
(a) 6.63 × 10-37 m
(b) 6.63 × 10-31 m
(c) 6.63 × 10-34 m
(d) 6.63 × 10-35 m
5. Increasing order of electro negativity is
(a) Bi < P < S < Cl
(b) P < Bi < S < Cl
(c) S < Bi < P < Cl
(d) Cl < S < Bi < P
6. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of
5s²5p4 corresponds to the element present in:
(a) Group 16 and period 6
(b) Group 17 and period 6
(c) Group 16 and period 5
(d) Group 17 and period 5
7. The species having pyramidal shape is
(a) SO3 (b) BrF3 (c) SiO32- (d) OSF2
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8. Based on lattice enthalpy and other considerations which one the following alkali metals
chlorides is expected to have the higher melting point?
(a) RbCl
(b) KCl
(c) NaCl
(d) LiCl
9. The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is
(a) Two sigma, two pi
(b) One sigma, two pi
(c) One sigma, one pi
(d) Two sigma, one pi
10. Calculate the heat required to make 6.4 Kg CaC2 from CaO(s) and C(s) from the
reaction: CaO(s) +3 C(s) → CaC2(s) + CO (g)
Given that ∆f Ho (CaC2) = -14.2 kcal, ∆f H° (CO) = -26.4 kcal and ∆f H°(CaO) = -151.8
kcal
(a) 5624 kca
(b) 1.11 × 104 kcal
(c) 86.24 × 10³
(d) 1100 kcal
11. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in P-V diagram The net work
done by the gas during the cycle is equal to:
(a) 12P1V1
(b) 6P1V1
(c) 5P1V1
(d) P1V1
12. A weak acid HX has the dissociation constant 1 × 10-5 M. It forms a salt NaX on
reaction with alkali. The degree of hydrolysis of 0.1 M solution of NaX is
(a) 0.0001%
(b) 0.01%
(c) 0.1%
(d) 0.15%
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13. If equal volumes of 1M KMnO4 and 1M K2Cr2O7 solutions are allowed to oxidize
Fe2+ in acidic medium. The amount of iron oxidized will be:
(a) More with KMnO4
(b) More with K2Cr2O7
(c) Equal with both oxidising agents
(d) Cannot be determined
14. What is the correct IUPAC name of
(a) 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
(b) 4-formyl-3-nitro anisole
(c) 4-methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde
(d) 2-formyl-5-methoxy nitrobenzene
15. Assertion (A) : Though the central atom of both NH3 and H2O molecules are sp3
hybridised, yet H–N–H bond angle is greater than that of H–O–H.
Reason (R) : This is because nitrogen atom has one lone pair and oxygen atom has two
lone pairs.
16. Assertion (A): An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate can act as a buffer.
Reason (R) : Acetic acid is a weak acid and NH4OH is a weak base.
17. Assertion (A): In the reaction between potassium permanganate and potassium iodide,
permanganate ions act as oxidising agent.
Reason (R) : Oxidation state of manganese changes from +7 to +2 during the reaction.
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18. Assertion (A) : Pent- 1- ene and pent- 2- ene are position isomers.
Reason (R) : Position isomers differ in the position of functional group or a substituent.
SECTION-B
The following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19. The mass of precious stones is expressed in terms of ‘carat’. Given that 1 carat = 3.168
grains and 1 gram = 15.4 grains, calculate the total mass of a ring in grams and
kilograms which contains 0.500 carat diamond and 7.00 gram gold.
20. (i) Which of the following orbitals are possible?
(1p, 2s, 2p and 3f)
(ii)Explain by giving reasons, which of the following sets of quantum numbers are not
possible.
(a) n=1, l=0, ml=0, ms=-1/2
(b)n=1, l=1, ml=0, ms=+1/2
OR
Which out of Cu2+, Fe2+, Cr3+ has the highest paramagnetism and why?
21. Find the value of the equilibrium constant for the following conversion reaction at 298
K.
Δr Gθ = – 13.6 kJ mol-1.
22. The degree of dissociation of N2O4 is α according to the reactionN2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g)
at temperature T and total pressure P. Find the expression for the equilibrium constant
of this reaction.
23. Write the resonance structures of CH2 = CH-CHO and arrange them in decreasing order
of stability.
24. Give the different conformations of ethane with their
(i) Sawhorse representation and
(ii) Newmann Projection formulae.
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25. Balance the redox reaction by the oxidation number method:
𝐶𝑟2 𝑂72−(𝑎𝑞) + 𝑆𝑂32− → 𝐶𝑟(𝑎𝑞) 3+ + 𝑆𝑂42−(𝑎𝑞) (in acidic solution)
OR
Balance the redox reaction by ion – electron method:
𝑀𝑛𝑂4−(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐼(𝑎𝑞)
−
→ 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 (𝑠) + 𝐼2 (𝑠) (in basic solution)
SECTION-C
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
26. 3 grams of H2 react with 29 grams of O2 to yield water, then (1×3)

(i) Which is the limiting reagent?
(ii) Calculate the maximum amount of water that can be formed.
(iii) Calculate the amount of one of the reactants which remains unreacted?
OR
(i) State law of multiple proportions. (1+2)
(ii) 45.4 L of dinitrogen reacted with 22.7 L of dioxygen and 45.4 L of nitrousoxide
was
formed. The reaction is given below:
2N2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O(g)
Which law is being obeyed in this experiment? Write the statement of the law?
27. Answer any three bits from the following. (1×3)
(i) Why glucose, fructose, sucrose, etc. are soluble in the water though they are covalent
compounds?
(ii) What is the shape of NH4+ ion?
(iii) Which will form a stronger ionic bond?
(a) Na and F
(b) Na and Cl.
(iv) Draw Lewis structure of N3- ion.
28. The following reaction has attained equilibrium (2+1)
CO (g) + 2H2 (g) ⇌ CH3OH (g); ΔH° = – 92.0 kJ mol-1.
What will happen if
(i) the volume of the vessel is suddenly reduced to half?
(ii) The partial pressure of hydrogen is suddenly doubled
(iii) an inert gas is added to the system.
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29. Write the resonance structures of (1.5×2)
(i) CH3COO-
(ii) CH6H5NH2. Show the movement of electrons by curved arrows.
30. Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions of the
following compounds and mention the reason. (3)
SECTION-D
31. In IMMT, Bhubaneswar some scholars choose few elements to study their reactivity,
metallic and nonmetallic character. They observed that the first (ΔiH1) and the second
(Δ iH2) ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol-1) and the electron gain enthalpy (ΔegH) (in kJ
mol-1) which are given below:
Elements ΔiH1 Δ iH 2 ΔegH
I 520 7300 -60
II 419 3051 -48
III 1681 3374 -328
IV 1008 1846 -295
V 2372 5251 +48
VI 738 1451 -40
(i) Which of the above element is likely to be most reactive metal and why?
(ii) Which of the above element is likely to be least reactive and why?
(iii)The element in the above which can form a stable binary compound of MX2 (X
is halogen) and why?
OR
Which of the above element is likely to be metal, can form predominantly stable
covalent halide of formula MX and why?
(1+1+2)
32. The knowledge of fundamental concepts of molecular structure helps in understanding
and predicting the properties of organic compounds. You have already learnt theories of
valency and molecular structure. Also, you already know that tetravalence of carbon and
the formation of covalent bonds by it are explained in terms of its electronic configuration
96 | P a g e
and the hybridisation of s and p orbitals. It may be recalled that formation and the shapes
of molecules like methane (CH4), ethene (C2H4), ethyne (C2H2) are explained in terms of
the use of sp3, sp2 and sp hybrid orbitals by carbon atoms in the respective molecules.
Hybridisation influences the bond length and bond enthalpy (strength) in compounds.
The sp hybrid orbital contains more s character and hence it is closer to its nucleus and
forms shorter and stronger bonds than the sp3 hybrid orbital. The sp2 hybrid orbital is
intermediate in s character between sp and sp3 and, hence, the length and enthalpy of the
bonds it forms, are also intermediate between them. The change in hybridisation affects
the electronegativity of carbon. The greater the s character of the hybrid orbitals, the
greater is the electronegativity. Thus, a carbon atom having sp hybrid orbital with 50% s
character is more electronegative than that possessing sp2 or sp3 hybridised orbitals. This
relative electronegativity is reflected in several physical and chemical properties of the
molecules.
Answer the following questions: (1+1+2)
(i) Dot structure is also known as what?
(ii) Who synthesised an organic compound, urea from an inorganic compound,
ammonium cyanate?
(iii) Give the characteristic Features of π Bonds.
OR
Find out the percentage ‘s’-character in methane (CH4), ethene (C2H4), ethyne
(C2H2)?
SECTION-E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions
have an internal choice.
33. (i) A 25 watt bulb emits monochromatic yellow light of wavelength 5700A0. Calculate
the rate of emission of quanta per second.
(ii) What is the maximum number of emission lines obtained when the excited electron
of hydrogen atom in n = 6 drops to the ground state.
(iii) How many electrons in sulphur can have n + l = 3 ? (3+1+1)
OR
(i) Table-tennis ball has a mass 10 g and a speed of 90 m/s. If speed can be measured
within an accuracy of 4% what will be the uncertainty in speed and position?
(ii) Calculate the number of radial and angular nodes in 3p orbital.
(iii) What is the total no. of orbitals associated with the principal quantum number n =3
?
34. (i) For oxidation of iron, 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3 (s) entropy change is – 549.4 JK-1
mol-1 at 298 K. Inspite of negative entropy change of this reaction, why is the
reaction spontaneous? (ΔrH° = -1648 × 103 J mol-1).
(ii) Calculate the energy needed to raise the temperature of 10.0 g of iron from 25° C to
500°C if the specific heat of iron is 0.45 J (0°C)-1g-1. (3+2)
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35. (i) What is the general formula of Alkynes?
(ii) Give the I.U.P.A.C. names and structure of all alkynes having the molecular
formula C5H8.
(iii) Give any two methods for preparing acetylene. (1+2+2)
OR
(i)How will you prepare Alkanes by (3+2)
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Decarboxylation of sodium salts of fatty acids
(c) Kolbe’s electrolytic method.
(ii) How do alkanes udergo:
(a) substitution reactions with halogen
(b) oxidation by combustion
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QUESTION BANK
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. Formation of CO and CO2 illustrates the law of ————–.
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of Reciprocal proportion
(c) Law of Constant Proportion (d) Law of Multiple Proportion
2. The number of significant figures in 6.02 x 1023 is ————–.
(a) 23 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 26
3. What is the mass per cent of carbon in carbon dioxide?
(a) 0.034% (b) 27.27% (c) 3.4% (d) 28.7%
4. Which of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules?
(a) 16 g of O2 and 14 g of N2 (b) 6 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2
(c) 28 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2 (d) 32 g of CO2 and 32g of N2
5. The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro number.
Which of the following elements contains the greatest number of atoms?
(a) 4g He (b) 46g Na (c) 0.40 g Ca (d) 12 g He
6. The total number of ions present in 111 g of CaCl2 is
(a) One Mole (b) Two Mole (c) Three Mole (d) Four Mole
7.The reactant that totally consumed in a chemical reaction is called

(a) Limiting reagent (b) excess reagent
(c) deficient reagent (d) None of these
8.The concept of limiting reagent is applicable to the reaction having
(a) one reactant (b)one product (c)More than one reactant (d) none of these
9.Which of the following sample contain 2 x 1023 atoms.
(a)8.0 g of O2 (b) 3.0 g of Be (c) 8.0 g of O2 (d) 12.0 g of He
10.A chemical equation is balances according to the law of
(a) Law of Constant Proportion (b) Law of Multiple Proportion

(c) Law of conservation of mass (d) Law of Reciprocal proportion
SECTION-B (ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS)
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
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(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
1. Assertion(A): 1.231 has three significant figures.

Reason(R): All numbers right to the decimal point are significant.
2. Assertion(A): Significant figures for 0.200 is 3 whereas for 200 it is 1.
Reason(R): Zero at the end or right of a number are significant provided they are not
on the right side of the decimal point.
3. Assertion(A): One atomic mass unit is defined as one twelfth of the mass of one
carbon – 12 atom.
Reason(R): Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundant isotope of carbon and has been
chosen as standard.
4. Assertion(A): The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason(R): The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of
various atoms present in a compound.
5. Assertion(A): A reactant is totally consumed when a reaction goes to completion
is known as limiting reactant
Reason(R): The amount of limiting reactant limits the amount of product
formed.
SECTION C(CASE/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS)

The number of entities composing a mole has been experimentally determined to be
6.02214179 x 1023. 6.02214179 × 1023, a fundamental constant named Avogadro’s
number (NA ) or the Avogadro constant in honour of Italian scientist Amedeo Avogadro.
This constant is properly reported with an explicit unit of “per mole,” a conveniently
rounded version being 6.022×1023/mol. Consistent with its definition as an amount unit,
1 mole of any element contains the same number of atoms as 1 mole of any other element.
The masses of 1 mole of different elements, however, are different, since the masses of
the individual atoms are drastically different. The molar mass of an element (or
compound) is the mass in grams of 1 mole of that substance, a property expressed in units
of grams per mole (g/mol)
(a) How many atoms are present in 6g of carbon?
(b) How are 0.50 mol Na2CO3 and 0.50 M Na2CO3 different?
(c) A sample of copper sulphate pentahydrate contains 8.64 g of oxygen. How many
grams of Cu is present in the sample?
OR
Calculate the number of atoms in 100 g of sodium.
100 | P a g e
2.Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The word ‘stoichiometry’ is derived from two Greek words — stoicheion (meaning, element)
and metron (meaning, measure). Stoichiometry, thus, deals with the calculation of masses
(sometimes volumes also) of the reactants and the products involved in a chemical reaction.
Before understanding how to calculate the amounts of reactants required or the products
produced in a chemical reaction. Many a time, reactions are carried out with the amounts of
reactants that are different than the amounts as required by a balanced chemical reaction. In
such situations, one reactant is in more amount than the amount required by balanced
chemical reaction.
(a) What will be the mass of single carbon atom.

(b) Define limiting reagent.
(c) Calculate the amount of water (g) produced by the combustion of 16 g of
methane.
OR
(c) Calculate the molarity of the solution obtained by dissolving 120g of urea [Mol
wt.=60] in 880g of water. The density of the solution is 1.15g/mL.
MARKING SCHEME
Qstn Value Points Marks Total
No Alloted Marks
1 (d) Law of Multiple Proportion 1 1
2 (b) 3 1 1
3 (b) 27.27% (APPLYING) 1 1
4 (a) 16 g of O2 and 14 g of N2 (ANALSING) 1 1
5 (d) 12 g He 1 1
6 (c) Three Mole 1 1
7 (a) Limiting reagent 1 1
(c)More than one reactant 1 1
8
(EVALUATING/CREATING)
9 (b) 3.0 g of Be 1 1
(c) Law of conservation of mass (REMEMBERING & 1
10
UNDERSTANDING)
SECTION – B (ASSERTION / REASON QUESTION)
1 (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct 1 1
2 (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 1 1
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but reason is not 1 1
3
a correct explanation for assertion
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(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is a 1 1
4
correct explanation for assertion.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is a 1 1
5
SECTION - C(CASE/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS)
(a) The number of atoms in 6 grams of carbon is 3×10²³. 1 4
(b) 0. 5 mol Na2CO3 means the quantity of weight of Na2CO3 1
present whereas 0. 5M Na2CO3 means 0. 5 mol
Na2CO3presentin 1 L solutions. It measure of quantity of
Na2CO3in solution.
(c) In the compound CuSO₄.5H₂O, (5 + 4) = 9 moles of
Oxygen combine with 1 mole of copper.
Mass of 9 moles of Oxygen = No of moles × Molar mass= 9 1
× 16= 144 grams
1 And, mass of 1 mole of copper is 63.6 grams.
1
∵ 144 g of 'O' combines with 63.6 g of 'Cu'.
∴ 8.64 g of 'O' will combine with = (8.64 × 63.6/144) g of
Cu = 3.816 g of Cu
OR
23 grams of sodium (Na) contains 6.022×1023 number of
atoms.
100 g of sodium will contain =(6.022×1023/23)×100 number 1
of atoms.
=2.6182×1024 number of atoms. 1
(a) Mass of single carbon atom =12/6.022 x 1023= 1.99x10–23 1 4
(b) Limiting reagent is the substance that is totally consumed
when the chemical reaction is complete. The amount of 1
product formed is limited by this limiting reagent.
(c) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
16 g of CH4 corresponds to one mole.
1 mol of CH4 (g) gives 2 mol of H2 O (g). 2
2 Hence, (2 mol H2O × 18 g H2O)/1mol H2O = 36 g H2 O
OR
Mass of Urea=120g
Mass of water=880g
Total mass of solution=880+120=1000g
Voume of solution = mass / Density = 1000g / 1.15g/mL
Molarity of solution = (120g X 1000 X1.15) / 60g x1000mL
=2.30M
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Structure of Atom
SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. Which of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s α -
particle scattering experiment?
(a) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
(b) The radius of the atom is about 10–10 m while that of nucleus is 10–15 m.
(c) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.
(d) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction
2. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or
trajectories of electrons?
(a) Pauli’s exclusion principle. (b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
(c) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. (d) Aufbau principle.
3. If travelling at same speeds, which of the following matter waves have the shortest
wavelength?
(a) Electron (b) Alpha particle (He2+) (c) Neutron (d) Proton
4. For which of the following set of quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest
energy?
(a) 3, 2, +1, +1/2 (b) 4, 2, -1, +1/2 (c) 4, 1, 0, -1/2 (d) 5, 0, 0, +1/2.
(CBQ- Understanding and application)

5. The number of spherical nodes for 4d orbital is
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Three.
6. The maximum number of electrons in a sub shell with, l=3 and n=4 is;
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 10 (d) 12
(CBQ- Understanding and evaluation)
7. The ratio of e/m for a cathode ray:

(a) varies with a gas in a discharge tube (b) is fixed
(c) varies with different electrodes if hydrogen is taken (d) is maximum
8. The energy of second Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is -328 kj/mol. Hence the
energy of fourth orbit would be;
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(a) -41 kj/mol (b) -82 kj/mol (c) -164 kj/mol (d) -1312 kj/mol.
(CBQ- Understanding and application)
9. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of
radiation?
(a) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number multiples of
quantum number.
(b) Radiation is associated with energy.
(c) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but, in the form, of
small packets called quanta.
(d) The magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the
frequency. (CBQ- Critical thinking)
10.According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum for an electron of 5th orbit is:
(a) 5h/π (b) 2.5h/π (c) 5π/h (d) 25h/π

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Both Assertion and reason are incorrect
1. Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect most readily shown by cesium metal.

Reason (R): Photons have easiest access to the surface of cesium metal.
2. Assertion (A): The energy of an electron is mainly determined by principle
quantum number.
Reason (R): The principal quantum number is the measure of the most
probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus.
3. Assertion (A): All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical
behaviour.
Reason (R): The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number
of electrons in the atom.
4. Assertion (A): Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations of all
frequencies.
Reason (R): The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower
frequency to higher frequency with an increase in temperature
5. Assertion (A): Fe3+ ion is more stable than Fe2+ ion in the ground state.
Reason (R): Fe3+ ion has a greater number of unpaired electrons than Fe2+ ion
in the ground state
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According to Louis de Broglie, a French physicist, every moving material particle has a dual
nature i.e. wave and particle nature. The two characters are co-related by de Broglie relation,
λ= h/mv(p). Here λ represents wave nature while ‘p’ or ‘mv’ accounts for particle nature.
Since ‘h’ is constant, the two characters are inversely proportional to each other. This
relationship or equation is valid mainly for microscopic particles such as electron, protons,
neutrons, atoms, molecules or ions. It does not apply to semi micro or macro particles.
a) Among electron, proton, neutron and an alpha particle -which one will have the
longest wave length if all of them are moving at same speed.
b) Why is de-Broglie relation not applicable for macroscopic particle?
c) A particle ‘A’ moving with a certain velocity has a de Broglie wavelength of 1A0. If
the particle ‘B’ has the mass 25% that of particle ‘A’ and velocity 75% that of ‘A’,
calculate the de Broglie wavelength.
OR
c)What are the factors on which de-Broglie wavelength of a particle depend. A body
of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 100 m/s. Find out the wave length
associated with the wave.
We can pin point an Aeroplan moving in the sky. Whatever may be its speed, we can
locate both its exact position as well as direction. However, it is not possible to do so in
case of a moving microscopic particle such as electron. In fact, we cannot see any such
particles without disturbing it. This has been stated by Heisenberg in the form of
uncertainty principle. The mathematical form of the principle is; Δx. Δp≥ h/4π (constant).
Since the product of Δx and Δp (mΔv) is constant, if one is very small, other is bound to
be large. The principle as such has no significance in daily life since it applies to those
particles which we cannot see.
a) Heisenberg’s Uncertainty principle rules out the exact simultaneous measurement of
which two physical quantities.
b) How much would be the uncertainty in momentum, if the uncertainty in the position
of an electron is zero?
c) The mass of an electron is 9.1 x 10-31 kg and velocity of electron is 2.2 x 106 m/s, if
the uncertainty in its velocity is 0.1%, find out the uncertainty in position.
OR
c) State Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. If uncertainty in momentum of an electron
is 1 x 10-5kg, what will be its uncertainty in position.
105 | P a g e
MARKING SCHEME
MCQs
Q.No. Value Points Marks Total
for each Marks
key
points
1. (c) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called 1 1
orbits.
2. (b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. 1 1
3. (b) Alpha particle (He2+) 1 1
4. (b) 4, 2, -1, +1/2 1 1
5. (b) One 1 1
6. (a)14 1 1
7. (b) is fixed 1 1
8. (b) -82 kj/mol 1 1
9. (a) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number 1 1
multiples of quantum number.
10. (b) 2.5h/π 1 1
ASSERTION AND REASON
1. (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 1 1
2. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is a 1 1
3. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is a 1 1
4. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but reason is not a 1 1
correct explanation for assertion
5. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but reason is not a 1 1
correct explanation for assertion
SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
1 a) Electron 1 4
b) Wave length is very less , thus wave characteristics 1
diminished 0.5
c) mB= 0.25mA,vB=0.75vA , 0.5
λA= h/(mA vA) = 1A0 1
λB = h / (0.25mA .x 0.75 vA) = 5.33A0
OR 1
c) Position and Momentum 1
6.626 x 10-31m
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
2 a) Position & Momentum 1 4
b) Infinite 1
c) Correct formula 0.5
Correct substitution 0.5
106 | P a g e
Calculation and result (32nm) 1
OR
c) Correct statement 1
Correct formula, substitution and result 1
Classification Of Elements And Periodicity In Properties

SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. Which of the following is not a merit of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
a) It helped in correcting the atomic masses of some of the elements.
b) He predicted the properties of some undiscovered elements and left gaps for them.
c) He framed the periodic table with vertical and horizontal columns and gave shape
to it.
d) He gave separate places to isotopes in his periodic table.
2. What is the name and symbol of the element with atomic number 112?
a) Ununbium, Uub b) Unnilbium, Unb
c) Ununnilum, Uun d) Ununtrium,Uut
3. Which of the following electronic configurations of an atom has the lowest ionisation
enthalpy?
a) 1s2 2s2 2p3 b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 d) 1s2 2s2 2p5
4. The Ionic radius of cation is always———
a) Less than the atomic radius b) more than the atomic radius
c) Equal to atomic radius d) Cannot be predicted
5. The smallest ion among the following is:
a) Na+ b) Al3+ c) Mg2+ d) Si4+
6. An element has an atomic number 79. Predict the group and period in which the
element is placed.
a) 2 nd group,7th period b)11th group,6th period
c)13th group,6th period d)12th group,6th period
7. Few elements are matched with their successive ionisation energies,Identify the
elements.
Element IE1 (Kj/mol) IE2 (Kj/mol)

X 2372 5251
Y 520 7297
Z 900 1758
a) X-A noble gas, Y-Alkali metal, Z-Alkaline earth metal
b) X-Alkali metal, Y-A noble gas, Z-Alkaline earth metal
c) X-Alkaline earth metal, Y-Alkali metal, Z-A noble gas
d) X-Alkali metal, Y-Alkaline earth metal, Z-A noble gas.
107 | P a g e
8. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron
gain enthalpy of the given atomic species?
a) Cl<F<S<O b) O<S<F<Cl c) S<O<Cl<F d) F<Cl<O
9. An element X has atomic number 19. What will be the formula of its oxide?
a) X2O b) XO c) XO2 d) X2O3
10.In a group of the periodic table the Ionization enthalpies of the elements decreases
from top to bottom because of ———-
a) increase in densities b) decrease in chemical reactivities
c) increase in atomic sizes d) decrease in electronegativities

Direction: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a
statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
d) If both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion: Atomic number is a more fundamental property of an element than its
atomic mass.
Reason: Atomic number is equal to number of protons in an atom.
2. Assertion: The atomic size generally increases across a period and decreases down
the group.
Reason: Atomic size depends upon the valence shell electronic configuration.
3. Assertion: Shielding effect increases as we go down the group.
Reason: More is the number of electrons in the penultimate shell, more is the
shielding.
4. Assertion: Metallic character is highest at the extremely left side of the periodic
table. Reason: Ionization enthalpy increases across a period.
5. Assertion: Na2O is basic oxide whereas Cl2O7 is acidic oxide.
Reason: Elements on extreme left form basic oxides whereas elements on extreme
right form acidic oxides.

We must bear in mind that when Mendeleev developed his Periodic Table, chemists
knew nothing about the internal structure of atom. However, the beginning of the 20th
century witnessed profound developments in theories about sub-atomic particles. In
108 | P a g e
1913, the English physicist, Henry Moseley observed regularities in the characteristic
X-ray spectra of the elements. A plot of ν (where ν is frequency of X-rays emitted)
against atomic number (Z) gave a straight line and not the plot of ν vs atomic mass. He
thereby showed that the atomic number is a more fundamental property of an element
than its atomic mass. Mendeleev’s Periodic Law was, therefore, accordingly modified.
This is known as the Modern Periodic Law and can be stated as: The physical and
chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
Numerous forms of Periodic Table have been devised from time to time. Some forms
emphasis chemical reactions and valence, whereas others stress the electronic
configuration of elements. A modern version, the so-called “long form” of the Periodic
Table of the elements, is the most convenient and widely used. The horizontal rows
(which Mendeleev called series) are called periods and the vertical columns, groups.
Elements having similar outer electronic configurations in their atoms are arranged in
vertical columns, referred to as groups or families. According to the recommendation
of International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC), the groups are
numbered from 1 to 18 replacing the older notation of groups IA … VIIA, VIII, IB …
VIIB and 0. There are altogether seven periods. The period number corresponds to the
highest principal quantum number (n) of the elements in the period. The first period
contains 2 elements. The subsequent periods consists of 8, 8, 18, 18 and 32 elements,
respectively. The seventh period is incomplete and like the sixth period would have a
theoretical maximum (on the basis of quantum numbers) of 32 elements. In this form
of the Periodic Table, 14 elements of both sixth and seventh periods (lanthanoids and
actinoids, respectively) are placed in separate panels at the bottom. the IUPAC has
made recommendation that until a new element’s discovery is proved, and its name is
officially recognised, a systematic nomenclature be derived directly from the atomic
number of the element using the numerical roots for 0 and numbers 1-9. The roots are
put together in order of digits which make up the atomic number and “ium” is added
at the end. Groupwise Electronic Configurations Elements in the same vertical column
or group have similar valence shell electronic configurations, the same number of
electrons in the outer orbitals, and similar properties. Theoretical foundation for the
periodic classification. The elements in a vertical column of the Periodic Table
constitute a group or family and exhibit similar chemical behaviour. This similarity
arises because these elements have the same number and same distribution of electrons
in their outermost orbitals. We can classify the elements into four blocks viz., s-block,
p-block, d-block and f-block depending on the type of atomic orbitals that are being
filled with electrons. Two exceptions to this categorisation. Strictly, helium belongs to
the s-block but its positioning in the p-block along with other group 18 elements is
justified because it has a completely filled valence shell (1s) and as a result, exhibits
109 | P a g e
properties characteristic of other noble gases. The other exception is hydrogen. It has
only one s-electron and hence can be placed in group 1 (alkali metals). It can also gain
an electron to achieve a noble gas arrangement and hence it can behave similar to a
group 17 (halogen family) element. Because it is a special case, we shall place
hydrogen separately at the top of the Periodic Table.
a) According to Modern Periodic Law the physical and chemical properties of the
elements are periodic functions of their …….
b) What is IUPAC name of element having atomic number 107.
c) Explain Groupwise electronic configuration in periodic table.
OR
c) How did Moseley interpret the result of X-ray spectra experiment?
The s-Block Elements The elements of Group 1 (alkali metals) and Group 2 (alkaline
earth metals) which have ns1and ns2 outermost electronic configuration belong to the
s-Block Elements. They are all reactive metals with low ionization enthalpies. They
lose the outermost electron(s) readily to form 1+ ion (in the case of alkali metals) or 2+
ion (in the case of alkaline earth metals). The metallic character and the reactivity
increase as we go down the group. Because of high reactivity they are never found
pure in nature. The compounds of the s-block elements, with the exception of those of
lithium and beryllium are predominantly ionic. The p-Block Elements comprise those
belonging to Group 13 to 18 and these together with the s-Block Elements are called
the Representative Elements or Main Group Elements. The outermost electronic
configuration varies from ns2np1 to ns2np6 in each period. At the end of each period is
a noble gas element with a closed valence shell ns 2np6 configuration. All the orbitals
in the valence shell of the noble gases are completely filled by electrons and it is very
difficult to alter this stable arrangement by the addition or removal of electrons. The
noble gases thus exhibit very low chemical reactivity. Preceding the noble gas family
are two chemically important groups of non-metals. They are the halogens (Group 17)
and the chalcogens (Group 16). The non-metallic character increases as we move from
left to right across a period and metallic character increases as we go down the group.
These are the elements of Group 3 to 12 in the centre of the Periodic Table. These are
characterised by the filling of inner d orbitals by electrons and are therefore referred
to as d-Block Elements. These elements have the general outer electronic configuration
(n-1) d1-10 ns0-2. They are all metals. They mostly form coloured ions, exhibit variable
valence (oxidation states), Para magnetism and oftenly used as catalysts. However, Zn,
Cd and Hg which have the electronic configuration, (n-1) d10ns2 do not show most of
the properties of transition elements. In a way, transition metals form a bridge between
the chemically active metals of s-block elements and the less active elements of Groups
110 | P a g e
13 and 14 and thus take their familiar name “Transition Elements”. The two rows of
elements at the bottom of the Periodic Table, called the Lanthanoids, Ce (Z = 58) – Lu
(Z = 71) and Actinoids, Th (Z = 90) – Lr (Z = 103) are characterised by the outer
electronic configuration (n-2) f 1-14 (n-1) d 0–1ns2. The last electron added to each
element is filled in f- orbital. These two series of elements are hence called the Inner-
Transition Elements (f-Block Elements). They are all metals. Within each series, the
properties of the elements are quite similar. The chemistry of the early actinoids is
more complicated than the corresponding lanthanoids, due to the large number of
oxidation states possible for these actinoid elements. Actinoid elements are
radioactive. Many of the actinoid elements have been made only in nanogram
quantities or even less by nuclear reactions and their chemistry is not fully studied. The
elements after uranium are called Transuranium Elements. The elements can be
divided into Metals and Non-Metals. In contrast, non-metals are located at the top
right-hand side of the Periodic Table. The elements become more metallic as we go
down a group; the nonmetallic character increases as one goes from left to right across
the Periodic Table. Periodic Table show properties that are characteristic of both
metals and non- metals. These elements are called Semi-metals or Metalloids.
a) The metallic character and the reactivity ………... as we go down the group.
b) What is metalloid?
c) Give characteristics of noble gas elements.
OR
c) What are d-block elements?
MARKING SCHEME
Qstn Value Points Marks Total
No Allotted Marks
1. (d) Mendeleev could not give separate places to isotopes which 1 1
had different atomic weight in the periodic table.
2. (a) a) Ununbium, Uub 1 1
3. (b) The alkali metals have a very high tendency to lose electron 1 1
as their unipositive cation has the inert gas configuration. Thus
their IE value is very low. Among options, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 is an
alkali metal.
4. (a) Less than the atomic radius 1 1
5. (d) Si4+ 1 1
111 | P a g e
6. (b) The element with atomic number 79 is placed in 11th group 1 1
and 6th period. The electronic configuration
for Z=79 is [Xe]4f145d106s1, (n = 6)
As n=6, the element belongs to 6th period.
Group number = number of electrons in
ns subshell + number of electrons in (n -1) d subshell =1+10=11.
Note: For Xe, Z=54
7. (a) X has highest IE1 and IE2 hence, it is a noble gas Y has low 1 1
IE1 but very high IE2 hence, it is an alkali metal. Z has low IE1
than IE2 and IE2 is even lower than IE2 of alkali metal hence,
it is an alkaline earth metal.
8. (b)Generally, electron gain enthalpy increases in a period from 1 1
left to right but decreases in a group on moving down. Therefore,
halogens have very high electron affinities. Fluorine due to its
smaller size has unexpectedly low electron gain enthalpy than Cl.
Similar is shown in case of O and S. Thus, the order of electron
gain enthalpy is: O<S<F<Cl
9. (a) Element X with atomic number 19 will lose one electron to 1 1
form X+ with 18 electrons corresponding to the stable noble gas
electronic configuration.
Oxygen gains two electrons to form O2− ion. One O2− ion
combines with two X+ ions to form X2O.
Note: In a neutral molecule, the total charge on cations is
numerically equal to total charge on anions.
10. (c) 1 1
ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS
1. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the 1 1
correct explanation of assertion.
2. (d) If both assertion and reason are false. 1 1
3. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct 1 1
explanation of assertion.
4. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct 1 1
explanation of assertion.
5. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the 1 1
SOURCE BASED AND CASE BASED QUESTION
1. (a) Atomic numbers 1 4
(b) Unnilseptium 1
(c) Groupwise Electronic Configurations Elements in the same 2
vertical column or group have similar valence shell electronic
configurations, the same number of electrons in the outer
112 | P a g e
orbitals, and similar properties. theoretical foundation for the
periodic classification. The elements in a vertical column of the
Periodic Table constitute a group or family and exhibit similar
chemical behaviour. This similarity arises because these
elements have the same number and same distribution of
electrons in their outermost orbitals.
Or
Henry Moseley observed regularities in the characteristic X-ray
spectra of the elements. A plot of ν (where ν is frequency of X-
rays emitted) against atomic number (Z ) gave a straight line and
not the plot of ν vs atomic mass. He thereby showed that the
atomic number is a more fundamental property of an element
than its atomic mass.
2. (a) Increases 1 4
(b) The elements become more metallic as we go down a group; 1
the nonmetallic character increases as one goes from left to
right across the Periodic Table. Periodic Table show properties
that are characteristic of both metals and non- metals. These
elements are called Semi-metals or Metalloids.
(c) The end of each period is a noble gas element with a closed
valence shell ns2np6 configuration. All the orbitals in the valence 2
shell of the noble gases are completely filled by electrons and it
is very difficult to alter this stable arrangement by the addition or
removal of electrons. The noble gases thus exhibit very low
chemical reactivity.
OR
c) The elements of Group 3 to 12 in the centre of the Periodic
Table. These are characterised by the filling of inner d
orbitals by electrons and are therefore referred to as d-Block
Elements. These elements have the general outer electronic
configuration (n-1)d1-10ns0-2 . They are all metals. They mostly
form coloured ions, exhibit variable valence (oxidation
states), paramagnetism and oftenly used as catalysts.
However, Zn, Cd and Hg which have the electronic
configuration, (n-1) d10ns2 do not show most of the properties
of transition elements. In a way, transition metals form a
bridge between the chemically active metals of s-block
elements and the less active elements of Groups 13 and 14
and thus take their familiar name “Transition Elements”.
113 | P a g e
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment
(a) CH4 (b) NH3 (c) CO2 (d) NF3
2. MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X – M – X bonds are at
180°?
(a) four (b) two (c) three (d) six
3. The formal charge on each oxygen atom and P-O bond order in PO43- respectively
are
(a) 0.6, -0.75 (b) -0.75, 1.25 (c) 1.0, -0.75 (d) 1.25, -3
4. pℼ – dℼ bonding is present in which molecule
(a) SO32- (b) CO32- (c) NO3– (d) BO33-
5. Which molecule/ion out of the following does not contain unpaired electrons?
(a) N+2 (b) O2 (c) O22- (d) B2
6. CO is isoelectronic with
(a) NO (b) N2 (c) SnCl2 (d) NO2
7. Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds e.g., H2O, HF, NH3. The boiling
point of such compounds depends to a large extent on the strength of hydrogen bond
and the number of hydrogen bonds: The correct decreasing order of the boiling
points of above compounds is
(a) HF>H2O>NH3 (b) H2O>HF>NH3
(c) NH3>HF>H2O (d) NH3>H2O>HF
–
8. In N0 3 ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on nitrogen atom
are
(a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 1 (c) 1,3 (d) 4, 0
9. In which of the following would you expect the nitrogen to nitrogen bond is longest?
(a) N2 (b) N2F2 (c) N2H4 (d) All have equal bond lengths
10.The bond dissociation energy of B−F in BF3 is 646 kJ mol−1 whereas that
of C−F in CF4 is 515 kJ mol−1. The correct reason for higher B−F bond dissociation
energy as compared to that of C−F is
(a) Smaller size of B atom as compared to that of C atom.
(b) Stronger σ- bond between B and F in BF3 as compared to that between C and
F in CF4.
(c) Significant pπ−pπ interaction between B and F in BF3, whereas there is no
possibility of such interaction between C and F in CF4
(d) Lower degree of pπ−pπ interaction between B and F in BF3 than that
between C and F in CF4.
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
114 | P a g e
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct
1. Assertion(A): Bonding molecular orbital has greater stability than corresponding
antibonding molecular orbital.
Reason(R): The electron density in a bonding molecular orbital is located away from
the space between the nuclei while in antibonding molecular orbital it is located
between the nuclei of the bonded atoms.
2. Assertion(A): BF3 molecule has zero dipole moment.
Reason(R): F is electronegative and B–F bonds are polar in nature.
3. Assertion(A): Sodium chloride formed by the action of chlorine gas on sodium
metal is a stable compound.
Reason(R): This is because sodium and chloride ions acquire octet in sodium
chloride formation.
4. Assertion(A): Boiling point of cis isomers are higher than trans-isomers.
Reason(R): Dipole moment of cis isomers are higher than trans-isomers.
5. Assertion(A): Molecular nitrogen is less reactive than molecular oxygen.
Reason(R): The bond length of nitrogen is less than that of oxygen.
The attractive force which holds the two atoms together is called a chemical bond. A
covalent bond is formed by an equal sharing of electrons. A coordinate bond is formed
by unequal sharing of electrons. An ionic bond is formed by the transfer of electrons
from one atom to another. Octet rule, although very useful but is not universally
applicable. According to valence bond theory, a covalent bond is formed by
overlapping of half-filled atomic orbitals resulting in a lowering of energy and more
stability. Bond order is the number of bonds between atoms in a molecule. The higher
the bond order more will be stability and bond dissociation enthalpy but the smaller
the bond length. The polarity of a covalent bond depends upon the difference in
electronegativity. The covalent character of a bond depends upon polarising power,
smaller cation and bigger anions have higher polarising power. VSEPR theory helps
to predict the shapes of molecules.
a) Write the electron dot structure of N2O.
b) Out of CN+, CN–, NO, which has the highest bond order?
c) (i)What is the correct order of repulsion bp–bp, lp–lp, and lp –bp?
(ii) Draw the structure of XeOF4 on the basis of VSEPR theory.
OR
c) Which out of B2, CO, O2 and NO+ are paramagnetic and why?
2-
An increasing number of Hartree-fock wave functions are being made available for
simple molecules. While the molecular binding energies predicted by these wave
functions are too small by an amount equal to the correlation energy of the electrons,
the derived one-electron density distribution and those properties which are determined
by this distribution are correct to the second order. Thus, a meaningful discussion of
115 | P a g e
chemical bonding can be carried out in terms of Hartree-Fock one electron distributions
and their dependent properties. The force acting on a nucleus in a molecule is an
example of such a property, and, since this force is rigorously determined by classical
electrostatics, it provides an excellent basis for the discussion of chemical binding. What
is indeed available through these quantum mechanically determined density
distributions is a classical description of the chemical bond.
We shall apply such an analysis to the bond in the lithium fluoride molecule.
The lithium fluoride molecule possesses a dipole moment of 6.284D. The separation of
equal and opposite charges at the observed lithium fluoride bond length gives a dipole
moment of 7.51D. It is obvious that this molecule will possess a highly ionic bond by
any previous definition of the work “ionic.” According to Pauling’s definition of
iconicity as the ratio of the observed dipole moment to that obtained for complete charge
separation, the lithium fluoride molecule is 84% ionic and 16% covalent. With a
Hartree-Fock density distribution available for this molecule, such useful but ambiguous
definitions of bonding should be improved upon. The simplest physically realizable
model of an ionic bond is that of two oppositely charged ions in contact, each necessarily
polarized to a slight extent by the electric field of the other. We choose this as our
definition of an ionic bond. This definition relates a purely ionic bond to the complete
transfer of one or more units of negative charge. Slight distortions of the spherical
charge distributions of the ions must be allowed for, or the ionic bond becomes a
physically unrealizable situation. These small polarizations reduce the dipole moment
due to the complete transfer of the charge.
a) Why ionic bond is formed between two elements having large difference in their
electronegativity?
b) Out of NaCl, KCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 which one is most ionic and why?
c) An element A combines with element B. An atom of A contains two electrons in
the outermost shell whereas that of B has six electrons in its outermost shell. Two
electrons are transferred from the atom A to the atom B.
(i)What is the electronic structure of AB?
(ii) What is the electro valency of A and that of B?
OR
c) Give reason for the following:
(i) NaCl gives a white ppt with AgNO3 solution but CCl4 and chloroform does not
(ii) Ionic compounds have higher melting point than covalent compounds
MARKING SCHEME
Total
QSTN Value Points Marks Mark
NO Allotted s
1 Dipole moment of CO2 is zero because CO2 is a linear molecule and
the direction dipole moments are from C to O. These two dipole
moments cancel each other. 1 1
116 | P a g e
Dipole moment of CH4 is zero because in CH4 the direction of
dipole moment is from H to C
In case of NH3, the dipole moment is

from H to N and N to lone pair. So, it gives a net strong dipole
moment of value 1.46D.
In case of NF3, the dipole moment is from N to F and N to lone pair.
These opposite direction dipole moments somehow decrease the
value of net dipole moment and gives dipole moment of
value 0.46D.
Correct option: b
2 In octahedral molecule six hybrid orbitals directed towards the
corners of a regular octahedron with a bond angle of 90°.
According to the geometry, the number of X - M - X bonds at
180° must be three.
Correct option: c 1 1
3 In PO43−, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and the P−O bond
order are −0.75,1.25 respectively.
Bond order = Number of bonds/number of resonating
structures=5/4=1.25
In a given resonance structure, the O atom that forms double bond
has formal charge of 0 and the remaining 3 O atoms have formal
charge of-1 each.
In the resonance hybrid, a total of -3 charge is distributed over 4
oxygen atoms. So the formal charge of each O atom is −3/4 =−0.75.
Note:
To calculate the formal charge, the following formula is used.
Formal Charge = [Number of valence electrons on atom] – [non-
bonded electrons + number of bonds]
For O atom that forms double bond with P atom,
Formal Charge = 6] – [4 +2] = 0. 1 1
117 | P a g e
For O atom that forms single bond with P atom,
Formal Charge = 6] – [6 +1] =− 1.
Correct option: b
4 Only SO32-has pπ − dπ bonding as one of the bonds involves p-
orbital of O and d-orbitals of S.
Correct option: a 1 1
5 The molecular orbital configuration of ion is
contains no unpaired electrons.

The molecular orbital configuration of B2 molecule is
It contains 2 unpaired electrons.

The molecular orbital configuration of ion is
It contains one unpaired electron.

The molecular orbital configuration of molecule is
It contains 2 unpaired electrons.

6 CO is isoelectronic with N2. CO has 14 electrons, 8 from
oxygen and 6 from carbon. N2 has 14 electrons.
Correct option: b 1 1
7 We know that the extent of hydrogen bonding depends on
electronegativity and the number of hydrogen atoms available
for bonding. Among Fluorine, nitrogen and oxygen atoms,
increasing order of electronegativities is N<O<F
Correct option: b
1 1
8
A coordinate bond also called a dative covalent bond is a type of

covalent bond in which both electrons come from the same atom.
Nitrogen forms a coordinate bond with Oxygen as it cannot have
5 bonds. Although 2 electrons are shared in a coordinate bond,
the number of bond pairs is taken to be 1.
Hence the number of bond pairs are 4 and the number of lone
pairs is 0
Correct option: d 1 1
118 | P a g e
9 The nitrogen-nitrogen bond should be the shortest in N2, where
it is a triple bond, and the longest in N 2H4, where it is a single
bond. Experimental values for the nitrogen-nitrogen bond
lengths are 109 pm for N2, 122 p m 122pm for N2F2, and 147pm
for N2H4.
10 The lone pairs on the fluorine atom can undergo pπ−pπ
interaction with the empty 2p orbital that is present in boron.
Such a phenomenon will not occur in carbon as all the orbitals
are hybridized and filled. This back-bonding has a π- bond
nature as a sigma bond is already present between boron and
fluorine and makes the B−F bond harder to break. This results in
a higher energy of dissociation of the bond than other bonds
like C−F that do not have back-bonding.
1 c- (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
Electron density remains between the nuclei in bonding
molecular orbital while is located away from the nuclei in
antibonding molecular orbital . 1 1
2 b- Both (A and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
F is more electronegative than B thus makes B-F bond polar
but the net dipole moment cancels out in BF3 as it is trigonal
planar in shape. 1 1
3 a- Both (A and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
NaCl obtained from chlorine gas and sodium metal is stable
because in NaCl both acquire octet and become stable. 1 1
explanation of (A)
Due to polarity of cis form there is strong dipole -dipole
interaction which increases the boiling point of cis form from
its trans isomer. 1 1
explanation of (A)
As molecular nitrogen has triple bond its bond length is shorter
than molecular oxygen which has double bond. So, reactivity
of molecular nitrogen is less than molecular oxygen. 1 1
1 (a)
(b) CN-
(c) 1+1+2 4
119 | P a g e
(i) lp-lp> lp-bp> bp-bp
(ii)
OR
B2 : (σ1s) (σ*1s) (σ2s) (σ*2s)2 (π2px)1 (π2py)1
2 2 2
CO: (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (σ2pz)2

NO+: (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (σ2pz)2
O2 2- : (σ2pz)2(σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2
(π2py)2 (π*2px)2 (π*2py)2
As B2 has unpaired electrons in its pi bonding orbitals, it is
paramagnetic.
2 (a) The more electronegative element attracts the shared pair
of electron resulting in the formation of ions.
(b) KCl, on the basis of Fajan’s rule larger the size of cation
greater the ionic bonding and here the cation K+has larger size.
(c) (i)A2+B2-
(ii)A=+2 B= -2
OR
(i)Being an ionic compound NaCl gives Cl-ion and thus gives
white ppt with silver nitrate but CCl4is a covalent compound
and does not give Cl-.
(ii) In ionic compounds there exist a strong force of attraction
between the oppositely charged ions. So large amount of
energy is required to break the bond. 1+1+2 4
Chemical Thermodynamics
SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. Thermodynamics is not concerned about.
(a) Energy changes involved in a chemical reaction.
(b) The extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds.
(c) the rate at which a reaction proceeds.
(d) the feasibility of chemical reaction.
2. The state of gas can be described by quoting the relationship between
(a) pressure, volume, temperature (b) temperature, amount, pressure
(c) amount, volume, temperature (d) pressure, volume, temperature, amount.
3. In an adiabatic process, no transfer-of heat takes place between system and
surroundings. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under.
adiabatic condition from the following
120 | P a g e
4. During complete combustion of one mole of butane, 2658 kJ of heat is released.
The thermochemical reaction for above change is
5. In an adiabatic process, no transfer-of heat takes place between system and

surrounding. The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using
the expression:
The work can also be calculated from the PV plot by using the area under curve
within the specified limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (a) reversibly or (b)
irreversibly from Vi to Vf, choose the correct option.
(a) w (reversible) = w (irreversible) (b) w (reversible) < w (irreversible)
(c) w (reversible) > w (irreversible) (d) w (reversible) = w (irreversible) + pex. ∆V
6. For an ideal gas, CV and CP are related as:
(a) CV – CP = R (b) CV + CP = R (c) CP – Cv = RT (d) CP – Cv = R
7. For the reaction C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
(a) △H >△U (b) △H < △U (c) △H = △U (d) None of these
8. A reaction. A+ B→ C+ D +q is found to have a positive entropy. The reaction will be
(a) possible at high temperature (b) possible only at low temperature
(c) not possible at any temperature (d) possible at any temperature
9. The volume of gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific heat
will
(a) be reduced to half (b) be doubled
(c) remain constant (d) increase four times.
10.Although the dissolution of ammonium chloride in water is an endothermic reaction,
even then it is spontaneous if:
(a) ∆H is positive, ∆S is -ve (b) ∆H is +ve, ∆S is zero
(c) ∆H is positive, T∆S < ∆H (d) ∆H is +ve, ∆S is positive and ∆H< T∆S
121 | P a g e
ASSERTION-REASONING BASED QUESTIONS
In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason
(R) is given. Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below each
question.
1. Assertion (A): Combustion of all organic compounds is an exothermic reaction.
Reason(R): The enthalpies of all elements in their standard state are zero.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d)A is false but R is true.
2. Assertion(A): A Spontaneous process is an irreversible process and may be
reversed by some external agency.
Reason(R): Decrease in enthalpy is a contributory factor for spontaneity.
3. Assertion (A): The bond enthalpy of C-H bond in CH4 is nearly 416kJ mol-1
Reason (R) : In CH4 all the four C-H bonds have the same bond enthalpy
4. Assertion (A): A liquid crystallizes into a solid and is accompanied by
decrease in entropy.
Reason (R): In crystals, molecules organise in an ordered manner.
5. Assertion: The sum of q + w is a state function.
Reason: Work and heat are state functions.
122 | P a g e
There are two thermodynamic quantities very commonly used in thermodynamics.
These are 'internal energy' and 'enthalpy' represented by U and H respectively. Both are
state function. Their absolute values cannot be determined. If a reaction is carried out at
constant volume, the heat evolved or absorbed is called internal energy change (∆U)
and if the reaction is carried out at constant pressure, the heat evolved or absorbed is
called enthalpy change(∆H). Thus, the change in their value during a reaction can be
determined. The two quantities are related to each other. For a reaction, if one of them
is known, the other can be calculated. ∆U is usually determined with the help of bomb
calorimeter whereas ∆H is determined using a suitable calorimeter. (1 + 1 + 2)
a) Why absolute value of internal energy cannot be determined?
b) Write the relationship between enthalpy change, ∆H and internal energy change,
∆U, for a process occurring at constant pressure and constant temperature.
c) When methane at 27°C was burnt in a bomb calorimeter, the heat evolved was
885 kJ mol-1. How much heat will be evolved in kJ mol-1 if it were burnt in an
open vessel.
OR
c) How much change in internal energy will take place when a process goes through
the following stages :
Stage I( 1 atm,20L) → Stage 2 ( 1 atm,40L) → Stage 3( 0.5atm,40L) →
Stage 4( 1 atm,20L)
2. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. (1+ 1+ 2)
Besides internal energy and enthalpy, two more thermodynamic quantities very commonly
used are 'entropy' and 'free energy' represented by 'S' and 'G' respectively. The change in
free energy and change in entropy accompanying a process or a reaction are related by an
expression, called Gibbs-Helmholtz equation. These two quantities help to predict the
spontaneity of a reaction. Further, for a cell reaction, knowing the EMF of the cell, free
energy change of the cell reaction can be calculated or vice-versa. Similarly, for a reaction
in equilibrium knowing the standard free energy change of the reaction, equilibrium
constant of the reaction can be calculated and vice-versa.
a) What is entropy?
b) What is Gibb's Helmholtz equation?
c) Why for predicting the spontaneity of a reaction, free energy criteria are better
than the entropy criteria?
OR
c)Write down the expression for standard free energy change in terms of equilibrium
constant. State meaning of the symbols used.
123 | P a g e
MARKING SCHEME
Q.NO. Value Points Marks TO
Alloted TA
L
MA
RK
S
1 (c) Thermodynamics is not concerned with rate at which a 1 1
reaction proceeds. The rate of reaction is dealt by kinetics.
2 (d) State of a system can be described by state functions or state 1 1
variables which are pressure, volume, temperature and amount
of the gas (PV= nRT)
3 (c)For free expansion w = 0. For adiabatic process q = 0 From 1 1
first law of thermodynamics,
∆U=q + w
=0+0=0
Since there is no change of internal energy, hence temperature
will also remain constant, i.e., ∆T =0
4 (c) Exothermic reaction for combustion of one mole of butane is 1 1

represented as:
C4H10 (g) + 13/2 O2 (g) --------------→ 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (l)
∆cH = -2658.0 kJ moi-1
5 (b) w (reversible) < w (irreversible) 1 1
Area under the curve is greater in irreversible compression than

that of reversible compression.
6 (d) CP – Cv = R 1 1
Solution: For an ideal gas, CV and CP are related as CP – Cv = R
7 (c) Here △ng RT = 0 , because reactant and product contain 1 1
same number of gaseous molecules.
So that △H = △U + △ng RT ⇒ △H = △U
8 (d) possible at any temperature 1 1
9 (c) remain constant 1 1
10 (d) ∆H is +ve , ∆S is positive and ∆H< T∆S 1 1
124 | P a g e
1 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of 1 1
2 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of 1 1
3 (c) A is true but R is false 1 1
4 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1 1
5 (c) A is true but R is false 1 1
1 CASE BASED QUESTIONS
(a) Internal energy is the sum of different types of energies, sum
of which cannot be determined. 1
(b) ∆H= ∆U + ∆ng RT. 1
(c) . Given, ∆ U= -885 kJ mol-1
CH4(g)+2O2 (g) CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (l)
∆ ng = 1-3 = -2 1
∆H= ∆U + ∆ng RT. 4
=-885+(-2) (8.314 x 10-3) x 300
= -890 kJmol-1
OR 1
As the process, returns to the original state, i.e.,it is a cyclic
process, net internal energy change
(∆ U)=0.
2 (a) Entropy is a measure of randomness of a system. 1
(b) ∆G = ∆H-T∆S where ∆G, ∆H and ∆S are free energy change, 1
enthalpy change and entropy change respectively.
(c ) Criteria of free energy change is better because it requires free 2
energy change of the system only whereas the entropy change
requires the total entropy change of the system and the
surroundings. 4
OR
0 o
∆G = - RT In K where ∆ G is standard free energy change, K
is equilibrium constant, R is gas constant and T is temperature.
Equilibrium
SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. For the reversible reaction: N2 (g) + 3H2(g) ⇋ 2NH3 + Heat, The equilibrium
shifts in forward direction
(a) by increasing the concentration of NH3(g)
(b) by decreasing the pressure
(c) by decreasing the concentration of N2 and H2
(d) by increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
125 | P a g e
2. The solubility of Ca3(PO4)2 in water is y mol/L. Its solubility product is:
(a) 6y² (b) 36 y4 (c) 64 y5 (d) 108 y5
3. The following equilibria are given
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 , Equilibrium constant = K1
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO , Equilibrium constant = K2
H2 + 1/2O2 ⇌ H2O , Equilibrium constant = K3
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
5
2NH3 + O2 ⇌ 2NO + 3H2O in terms of K1, K2, K3, is
2
(a) K1 K2 K3 (b) 𝐾1 𝐾2 /𝐾3 (c) 𝐾2 𝐾33 /𝐾1 (d) 𝐾1 𝐾32 /𝐾2
4. In the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) the equilibrium concentrations of
PCl5 and PCl3 are 0.4 and 0.2 mole/lit respectively. If the value of Kc. is 0.5, what
is the concentration of Cl2 in moles/ lit?
(a) 2.0 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.5
5. The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction: N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) is given
by
Q = [NH3]²/[N2][H2]³, The reaction will proceed from right to left if
(a) Q = Kc. (b) Q < Kc (c) Q > Kc. (d) Q = 0
6. 1 mole of N2 and 2 moles of H2 are allowed to react in a 1 dm³ vessel. At
equilibrium 0.8 mole of NH3 is formed. The concentration of H2 in the vessel is
(a) 0.6 mole (b)0.8 mole
(c) 0.2 mole (d) 0.4 mole.
7. For the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) + heat
(a) 𝐾𝑝 = 𝐾𝑐 (𝑅𝑇)−2 (b) 𝐾𝑝 = 𝐾𝑐 (c) 𝐾𝑝 = 𝐾𝑐 𝑅𝑇 (d) 𝐾𝑝 = 𝐾𝑐 (𝑅𝑇)−1
8. The pH of 10-8 M HCl is

(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) between 7 and 8 (d) between 6 and 7
9. Aluminium chloride is
(a) Bronsted Lowry acid (b) Arrhenius acid
(c) Lewis acid (d) Lewis base
10.A solution which is 10 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+, Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with
-3
10-16 M sulphide ion. If Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10-15, 10-23, 10-20 and
10-54 respectively, which one will precipitate first.
(a) FeS (b) MnS (c) HgS ( d) ZnS

question.
126 | P a g e
1. Assertion(A): When Qc=Kc, reaction is at equilibrium.
Reason(R): At equilibrium, ΔG is 0.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
2. Assertion(A): Addition of silver nitrate to an aqueous solution of sodium chloride
and sodium bromide solution will first precipitate AgBr rather than AgCl.
Reason (B): Ksp of AgCl is less than that of AgBr.

3. Assertion(A): When CaCO3 (s) is heated, the loss of CO2 (g) from the system
causes the reaction to go almost to completion to leave a residue of CaO (s).
Reason (R): Heating helps gas particles to move with more energy.

4. Assertion(A): Increasing order of acidity of hydrogen halides is HF < HCl < HBr <
HI
Reason (R): While comparing acids formed by the elements belonging to the same
group of periodic table, H–A bond strength is a more important factor in determining
acidity of an acid than the polar nature of the bond.

5. Assertion(A): A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
Reason(R): The catalyst forms a complex with the reactants and provides an
alternate path with lower energy of activation for the reaction.The forward and
reverse reactions are affected to the same extent.
127 | P a g e
Temperature, pressure and molar concentrations are the three factors which can disturb
the equilibrium in a reversible reaction. Their effect is governed by Le-Chatelier’s
principle, whereas high concentration of reactants always favors the formation of the
products irrespective of its nature, the effect of temperature and pressure depends upon
the nature of reaction. Pressure does not disturb the equilibrium point in a reaction in
which the reactants and products have same number of moles in the gaseous state.
a) What is the effect of increase in temperature on the solubility of a gas in water.

b) he formation of NH3(g) is exothermic in nature. What will happen if the temperature
of the reaction mixture is increased?
c) In a gaseous reaction, the reactant moles are more than the product moles. Explain
the effect of increase in pressure on the equilibrium state with example.
OR
Explain why an inert gas does not alter the state of chemical equilibrium when
added at constant volume.
We all know that the acidic and basic characters of different solutions are expressed in
terms of pH values. pH scale helps in comparing their relative acidic and basic strengths.
These values undergo a change as the nature of different solutions change. However,
sometimes the pH of particular medium or even a biological process to be maintained
even when a small amount of acid or base is added. This is achieved with the help of
buffer solution.
a) Define buffer solution.

b) Give the name of buffer which controls the pH of human blood
c) Can equimolar mixture of HCl and NaCl behave as a buffer? Explain your answer.
OR
c) Write the expression for Henderson’s equation for pH of acidic and basic buffer.
MARKING SCHEME
Q N. Value Points Marks Total
Allotted mark
1. (d) by increasing pressure and decreasing temperature 1 1
2. (d) 108 y5 1 1
3. (c) 𝐾2 𝐾33 /𝐾1 1 1
4. (c) 1.0 1 1
5. (c) Q > Kc. 1 1
6. (b) 0.8 mole 1 1
7. (a) 𝐾𝑝 = 𝐾𝑐 (𝑅𝑇)−2 1 1
128 | P a g e
8. (d) between 6 and 7 1 1
9. (c) Lewis acid 1 1
10. (c) HgS 1 1
1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 1 1
of A.
of A.
3. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 1 1
explanation of A.
of A.
of A.
1 (a) The solubility of gases in liquids decreases with 1 4
increasing temperature.
(b) Raising the temperature shifts the equilibrium to left 1
and decreases the equilibrium concentration of ammonia 1
(c) shifts the equilibrium in the forward direction
2𝑆𝑂2 + 𝑂2 ⇌ 2𝑆𝑂3 1
OR
When an inert gas is added to the equilibrium system at
constant volume, then the total pressure will increase.
But the concentration of reactants and products (ratio of
their moles to the volume of the container) will not
change. Hence, the position of the equilibrium will be
unaffected.
2 (a) The solutions which resist change in pH on dilution or 1 4
with the addition of small amounts of acid or alkali are
called Buffer Solutions.
(b) Carbonic acid – bicarbonate ion
(c) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid, not a weak
acid, so the combination of these two solutes would not
make a buffer solution. 1
OR
Expression for Handerson’s equation for pH of acidic 2
buffer
[𝐴𝑐𝑖𝑑]
𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔
[𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑡]
Expression for Henderson’s equation for pH of basic
buffer 1
[𝐵𝑎𝑠𝑒]
𝑝𝐻 = 14 − {𝑝𝐾𝑏 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔 } 1
[𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑡]
129 | P a g e
Redox Reaction
SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. Oxidation state of each chlorine in CaOCl2 is/are

a) +3 b) +1 c) – 1 d) +1, – 1
2. A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid & sulphuric acid is heated. During this
reaction which element undergoes maximum change in oxidation number?
a) S b) H c) Cl d) C
3. The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate in alkaline medium is
a) Molar mass /5 b) Molar mass /3
c) Molar mass /2 d) Equal to Molar mass
4. The decolourisation of 1 mole of KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is
a) 1/2 b) 3/2 c) 5/2 d) 7/2
5. Consider the titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr’s salt
solution using dimethylamine as indicator. The number of moles Mohr’s salt
required per mole of dichromate is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
6. A cell is constructed by coupling the two electrodes Sn/Sn 2+ // Cu/Cu2+. If
E0 (Sn2+/Sn), E0(Cu2+/Cu) & E0cell are −0.14 V, 0.34 V & 0.48 V respectively. The
correct representation of the cell is
a) Sn(s) / Sn2+ (0.1 M) // Cu2+ (1.0M) /Cu(s)

b) Sn(s) / Sn2+ (1.0 M) // Cu2+ (1.0M) /Cu(s)
c) Sn(s) / Sn2+ (1.0 M) // Cu2+ (0.1M) /Cu(s)
d) Cu (s) /Cu2+(1.0 M) // Sn2+(1.0M) / Sn(s)
7. The products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolysed in a cell
having inert electrodes are
a) Na & Br2 b) Na & O2 c) H2, Br2 , NaOH d) H2 & O2
8. A compound contains atoms of 3 elements A, B & C. If the oxidation number of A is
+2, B is +5 & that of C is −2. The possible formula of the compound is
a) A3(BC4)2 b) A3(B4C)2 c) ABC2 d) A3(BC3)2
9. Which of the following colour changes shown during redox titrations is not correct?
a) Cr2O72− oxidises the indicator diphenylamine to produce blue colour showing end
point.
b) Iodine formed by oxidation of I− ions gives blue colour with starch showing end
point.
c) KMnO4 in the form of MnO4−ions gives pink colour showing end point.
d) Thiosulphate ions (S2O32−) gives blue colour showing end point.
10.Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?
a) Formation of Fe (CO)5 from Fe
b) Liberation of H2 from steam by iron at high temperature.
130 | P a g e
c) Rusting of iron sheets
d) Decolourisation of blue CuSO4 solution by iron.

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of
Reason (R) is given. Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
each question.
1. Assertion(A): - The only way to get F2 from F−is to oxidise electrolytically.
Reason(R): - The recovery of halogens from their halides requires an oxidation
process.
a) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c) Assertion is true & Reason is False.
d) Reason is true & Assertion is False.
2. Assertion(A): - Inert electrolytes like KCl , KNO3 are used in salt bridge.
Reason(R): - Salt bridge provides an electric contact between the two solutions
without allowing them to mix with each other.
assertion.
3. Assertion(A): - For the Daniell cell, Zn/Zn2+ // Cu2+/Cu with Ecell =1.1 V, the
application of opposite potential greater than 1.1V results into flow of electron from
cathode to anode.
Reason(R): - Zn is deposited at anode & copper is deposited at cathode.
a) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
Reason is true & Assertion is False.
4. Assertion(A): -In the iodometric titration, starch is used as an indicator.
Reason(R): - Starch is a polysaccharide.
assertion.
5. Assertion(A): Among halogens fluorine is the best oxidant.
Reason(R): Fluorine is the most electronegative element.
131 | P a g e
assertion.
SECTION C (CASE/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS)

The reaction in which oxidation &reduction takes place simultaneously is known as
redox reaction. Reduction involves addition of electrons or decrease in oxidation
number. The reverse of this defines the process of oxidation. Substances which
oxidises other substance are known as oxidants, while those which reduces other
substance are known as reductants. In terms of electronic concept, reductants are
electron donors while oxidants are electron acceptors. Oxidation numbers are always
whole numbers or zero & must be always calculated on the basis of their structures
& never from their molecular formulae. Redox reactions may involve combination of
atoms/molecules, decomposition of substances, displacement of metals & non-metals
& disproportionation of a particular species which may be metals, non-metals or ions.
Redox reactions can be balanced both by oxidation number method as well as ion-
electron method.
a) Can we use KCl as electrolyte in the salt bridge of the cell,

Cu(s) / Cu2+(aq) // Ag+(aq) / Ag(s)
b) Define disproportionation reaction. Give an example.
c) Permanganate ion (MnO4−) reacts with SO2 gas in acidic medium to produce Mn2+&
bisulphate ions (Balance by ion electron method)
OR
c) Chlorine is used to purify drinking water. Excess of chlorine is harmful. The excess
of chlorine is removed by treating with sulphur dioxide. Present a balanced equation
for the reaction for this redox change taking place in water.
Redox reactions play a pivotal role in chemistry & biology. The values of standard
reduction potential (E0) of the two half cell reactions decide which way the reaction is
expected to proceed. A simple example is Daniel Cell in which Zinc goes into solution
& copper gets deposited.
The standard reduction potential of ions at 298 K are given below.
132 | P a g e
Electrode reaction E0( In volts)
Cl2(g) +2e− → 2Cl−(aq) + 1.36 V
− −
I2(g) +2e → 2I (aq) + 0.54 V
−
2+
Cu (aq) +2e → Cu(s) + 0.34 V
−
+
2H (aq) + 2e → H2(g) 0.00
−
2+
Cd (aq) + 2e → Cd(s) −0.40 V
−
2+
Fe (aq) + 2e → Fe(s) − 0.44 V
−
3+
Cr (aq) + 3e → Cr(s) −0.74 V
−
2+
Zn (aq) + 2e → Zn(s) − 0.76 V
−
3+
Al (aq) + 3e → Al(s) − 1.66 V
−
2+
Mg (aq) + 2e → Mg(s) − 2.36 V
Using these data, give the correct explanation for the following questions.
a) On the basis of standard electrode potential values, suggest whether the reaction:
Fe(s) + Cd2+(aq) → Cd(s) + Fe2+(aq) is feasible or not?
b) Arrange the following metals in the order in which they displace each other from the
solution of their salts. Al, Cu, Fe, Mg & Zn. Assign reason.
c) The colour of KI solution containing starch turns blue when it is shaken with cold
Chlorine water. Explain why?
OR
c) A cell is prepared by dipping a chromium rod of 1M Cr2(SO4)3 solution & an iron
rod in 1M FeSO4 solution. In this cell
i) Which electrode will act as anode?
ii) Which electrode will act as cathode?
iii) What will be the cell reaction?
iv) What will be the standard EMF of the cell?
MARKING SCHEME
(MCQ)
Q.N Value Points Marks Total Mark
Alloted
1. d) +1,-1 1 1
2. c) Cl 1 1
3. b) Molar mass /3 1 1
4. c) 5/2 1 1
5. d) 6 1 1
6. b) Sn(s) / Sn2+ (1.0 M) // Cu2+ (1.0M) /Cu(s) 1 1
7. c) H2, Br2 , NaOH 1 1
8. a) A3(BC4)2 1 1
9. d) Thiosulphate ions (S2O32−) gives blue colour showing 1
end point.
10. a) Formation of Fe (CO)5 from Fe 1 1
133 | P a g e
Assertion – Reasoning question
1. b) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is not the 1 1
2. a) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is the 1 1
3. a) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is the 1 1
Case Based Question
1. a) KCl cannot be used as electrolyte in the salt bridge 1 4
because Cl− ions will combine with Ag+ ions to form white
precipitate of AgCl
b) The reaction in which the same species is both oxidised ½
as well as reduced is known as disproportionation reaction.
P4 + 3NaOH → PH3 + 3NaH2PO2 ½
In this reaction “0’ oxidation number of P4 is oxidised to +1
in NaH2PO2 & reduced to -3in PH3.
c) Skeleton equation for the given reaction
MnO4−(aq) + SO2(g) → Mn2+(aq) + HSO4−(aq)
[MnO4−(aq) + 8 H+ + 5e− → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O ] X 2
( Reduction) ½
[ SO2(g) + 2H2O −2e− → HSO4−(aq ) + 3H+ ] X 5 ½
( Oxidation) 1
2MnO4−(aq) + 5SO2(g) + 2H2O+ H+→ 2Mn2+(aq) +
5HSO4−(aq )
OR
Skeleton equation for the process
Cl2(aq) + SO2(aq) + H2O(l) → 2Cl−(aq) + SO42−(aq) ½
Cl2(aq) + 2e─ → 2Cl−(aq) ½
( Reduction)
SO2(aq) + 2H2O(l) ─ 2e─ → SO42−(aq) + 4H+(aq) 1
( Oxidation)
Cl2(aq)+SO2(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2Cl−(aq) + SO42−(aq) +
4H+(aq)
Source Based Question

1. a) E0Fe2+/Fe =
─0.44 V & E0Cd2+/Cd = ─0.40 V 4
In the reaction , Fe(s) + Cd2+(aq) → Cd(s) + Fe2+(aq)
Fe acts as anode & Cd acts as cathode ½
E0cell= E0C ─ E0A= ─ 0.40 ─ ( ─0.44) = +0.04V
134 | P a g e
As E0cell is +ve , the redox reaction Fe(s) + Cd2+(aq) → ½
Cd(s) + Fe2+(aq)
Is feasible.
b) Metals having more ─ve electrode potential is a stronger ½
reducing agent than having less ─ve electrode potential .
Hence the metal having more ─ve electrode potential can
displace metals from their salt solution having less ─ve
electrode potential than it.
Hence the order in which they can displace each other from ½
the solution of their salts are Mg, Al, Zn, Fe & Cu.
c) Since Cl2 (E0Cl2/Cl─ = +1.36 V) is a stronger oxidising
agent than
I2 (E0I2/I─ = +0.54 V) therefore when Cl2 is passed through
KI solution , 1
Cl2 gets reduced to colourless Cl─ ion while I─ ions gets
oxidised to violet coloured iodine.
Cl2(aq) + 2I─(aq) → 2Cl─(aq) + I2(s) 1
The I2 produced forms a blue coloured inclusion complex
with starch & hence solution turns blue.
OR
3+/
i) As Cr Cr electrode has lower electrode potential it will ½
act as anode.
ii) As Fe2+/ Fe electrode has higher electrode potential it ½
will act as cathode.
iii) At anode: Cr(s) ─ 3e─ → Cr3+(aq) ] X 2
At Cathode: Fe2+(aq) +2e─ → Fe(s) ] X 3 ½
Cell reaction: 2Cr(s) + 3 Fe2+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq) + Fe(s)
iv) The EMF of the cell is E0cell= E0C ─ E0A ½
= ─ 0.44 ─ ( ─0.74) = +0.30V
Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques

SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. The displacement of electrons in a multiple bond in the presence of attacking reagent
is called
(a) Inductive effect (b) Electromeric effect
(c) Resonance (d) Hyper conjugation.
2. Which of the following compounds have all C-C bond length equal?
A. Phenol B. Benzene
C. Toluene D. Para ethoxy phenol
(a) Only B (b) A, B, C only
(c) A, B, C, D (d) Only A and B
135 | P a g e
3. AgF is not detected by Lassaigne’s test because:
(a) Fluoride gets oxidised to form fluorine gas.
(b) Fluoride ion forms precipitate with sodium extract.
(c) AgF is soluble in water.
(d) AgF is not stable and hence not formed.
4. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon in its structure?
(a) CH2 = CCl – CH = CH2 (b) CCl2 = CCl2
(c) CH2 = C = CH2 (d) CH2 = CH – CH = CH
5. The chemical formula of Acetylene is:
(a) C2H2 (b) CH3 (c) C3H2 (d) CH2
6. The structure of 4-Methylpent-2-en-1-ol is:
(a) CH3CH2CH=CHCH2OH (b) (CH3)2C=CHCH2CH2OH
(c) (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH2OH (d) CH3CH(OH)CH-CH=C(CH3)2
7. Hyperconjugation is most useful for stabilizing which of the following carbocation?
(a) Neopentyl (b) Tert-butyl
(c) Iso-propyl (d) Ethyl
8. Which of the following group do not give addition reactions?
(a) C≡C (b)C=C (c) C=O (d) CH3-CH3
9. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane is C13H12. How many structural isomers
are possible when one of the hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine atom?
(a) 8 (b)7 (c) 4 (d) 9
10.Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name?
(a) 3-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane (b) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-ethylheptane
(c)5-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane (d) 4,4-Bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane
question.
1. Assertion(A): Carbon free radicals are extremely reactive in nature.
Reason(R): Free radicals are formed due to hemolytic bond cleavage in non- polar
solvents.
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion
2. Assertion(A): Acetylene is acidic in nature.
Reason(R): Acetylene is sp hybridised.
Assertion.
for Assertion
136 | P a g e
3. Assertion: HC ≡ C– is more stable than H2C = CH–
Reason(R): HC ≡ C– has more s-character than H2C = CH–
Assertion.
for Assertion
4. Assertion(A): Energy of resonance hybrid is equal to the average energies of all the
canonical forms.
Reason(R): Resonance hybrid cannot be represented by a single structure.
Assertion.
for Assertion
5. Assertion(A): Alkyl groups act as electron donors when attached to π–system.
Reason(R): It is due to hyperconjugation.
Assertion.
for Assertion
1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Organic compounds are formed by covalent bonding. The nature of covalent bonding
can describe with help of hybridisation, sp, sp 2 and sp3. The structure and reactivity
depends upon type of bonds present in organic compounds. Organic compounds can
be classified on the basis of functional groups. Organic reactions mechanisms are
based on structure of substrate and the attacking reagent.
The intermediate formed can be free radical, carbocation, carbanion or carbene. The
attacking reagent can be electrophile or nucleophile. The inductive, electromeric,
resonance and hyperconjugative effect may help in polarisation of covalent bond.
Organic reactions may be regarded as substitution, addition, elimination and
rearrangement, oxidation and reduction reaction.
[1+1+2]
(a) What is free radical?
137 | P a g e
(b) Identify electrophilic centre in the following:
CH3CH=O, CH3CN
(c) Write resonance structures of CH2=CH-CHO, indicate relative stability of the
contributing structures.
OR
(c)Explain hyperconjugation effect. How does hyperconjugation effect explain the
stability of alkenes?
It is essential to purify an organic compound. The method used for purification
depends upon nature of compound and impurity present in it. The most common
methods to purify a solid is sublimation and crystallization. Liquid are purified by
simple distillation, fractional distillation steam distillation, distillation under reduced
pressure. After the compound is obtained in pure state, qualitative analysis help to
detect elements present in organic compounds whereas quantitative analysis helps to
find percentage of various elements.
Dumas and Kjeldahl method help to determine percentage of nitrogen, Carius method
for halogens and sulphur. Carbon and hydrogen are estimated by amount of CO 2 and
H2O formed. Phosphorous estimation is done by oxidizing it to H 3PO4, sulphur to
H2SO4. The percentage of oxygen is determined by taking difference of 100 and
percentage of all elements. Empirical formula gives simple ratios of elements whereas
molecular formula gives exact number of atoms of each element present in a
compound. [1+1+2]
(a) Name the method used to purify aniline.
(b) Name two classes of compounds in which Kjeldhl’s method cannot be used for
estimation of nitrogen.
(c) In Dumas’ method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.3g of an organic compound gave
50mL of nitrogen collected at 300K temperature and 715mm pressure. Calculate
the percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound. (aqueous tension at
300K = 15 mm)
OR
(c) 0.9 g of organic compound on combustion gave 2.64 g of CO2 and 0.63 g of H2O.
Calculate the percentage of C and H in the compound.
MARKING SCHEME
Q. Value Points Marks Total
No Alloted Marks
1 (b) Electromeric effect 1 1
2 (a) Only B 1 1
3 (c) AgF is soluble in water. 1 1
4 (c)CH2 = C = CH2 1 1
5 (a) C2H2 1 1
6 (c) (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH2OH 1 1
7 (b) Tert-butyl 1 1
8 (d) CH3-CH3 1 1
138 | P a g e
9 (c) 4 1 1
10 (b) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-ethylheptane 1 1
1 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the 1 1
correct explanation for Assertion
2 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the 1 1
3 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the 1 1
4 (d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct 1 1
5 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the 1 1
1 (a) A free radical is termed as a molecular species which can 1 4
contain an unpaired electron in its atomic orbital and can exist
independently.
(b) Elctrophilic centre in CH3CHO is aldehydic carbon i.e., 1
carbon bonded with oxygen. Similarly in CH3CN electrophilic
centre is carbon bonded with nitrogen or carbon of nitrile
functional group as they will have partial positive charge due to
polarity of the bond.
(c)
OR
The relative stability of various classes of carbonium ions may
be explained by the number of no-bond resonance structures that
can be written for them. Such structures are obtained by shifting 1
the bonding electrons from an adjacent C-H bond to the electron
deficient carbon so the positive charge originally on carbon is
dispersed to the hydrogen. This manner of electron release by
assuming no bond character in the adjacent C-H bond is called 1
Hyperconjugation. Greater the hyperconjugation greater will be
the stability of alkenes.
2 (a) Steam distillation because it is steam volatile and immiscible 1 4
with water.
(b) Nitro compounds, Azo compounds and compounds
containing nitrogen in ring, e.g., pyridine. 1
(c) Vol. of N2 = 50 ml
Room temp = 300 K
Vapour pressure of water at 300K = 15 mm
Actual pressure (dry gas) = 715 - 15 = 700 mm Hg. 1
139 | P a g e
Convert the Vol. at experimental conditions to vol at STP.
P1V1/T1=P2V2/T2
=41.9 cm3
Convert the volume at STP into mass
222400 cm3 of N2 at STP weights 28 g.
41.9 cm3 would weight
28×41.922400g
% of N2.
Mass of N2 at STP/Mass of the substance taken×100
28×41.9×100/22400×0.3=17.46%
OR
12×weight of CO2 formed
% of C = × 100=
44×weight of organic compound 1
12×2.64
× 100=80%
44×0.90
2×weight of H2O formed 1
% of H = × 100
18×weight of organic compound
2×0.63
= × 100=7.77%
18×0.90
1
Hydrocarbon
SECTION -A (MCQs)
1. Ozonolysis of an organic compound 'A' produces acetone and propionaldehyde in
equimolar mixture. Identify 'A' from the following compounds
a) 1 – Pentene b)2 - Methyl - 1 - pentene
c) 2 - Methyl - 2 – pentene d)2 - Pentene
2. Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
a) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
b) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
c) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
d) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°
3. n-propyl bromide on treating with alcoholic KOH produces
a) propyne b) propene
c) propane d) propanol
4. Identify the compound A and B in the following reaction sequence
𝐻2𝑆𝑂4
CaC2(s) + H2O(l) → A(g) → B(l)
𝐻𝑔𝑆𝑂4
a) A is ethylene, B is acetaldehyde
b) A is acetylene, B is propionaldehyde
c) A is ethane, B is ethanol
d) A is acetylene, B is acetaldehyde.
5. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with
a) Pd/H2 b) Zn – HCl
c) Sn – HCl d) Zn – Hg
140 | P a g e
6. An organic compound on treatment with Br2 in CCl4 gives. bromo derivative of an
alkene. The compound will be
a) CH3 – CH = CH2 b)CH2 – CH = CH – CH2
c) CH ≡ CH d) CH2 = CH2
7. In the compound CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2–C ≡CH2 the C2 – C3 bond is of the type
a) sp – sp² b) sp³ – sp³
c) sp – sp³ d) sp² – sp³
8. On mixing certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultraviolet light, one
forms only one monochloro alkane. The alkane could be:
a) Neopentane b) Propane
c) Pentane d) isopentane
9. Propene on reaction with chlorine water gives
10.The overlapping of orbitals in benzene is of the type

a) sp – sp b) p – p c) sp2 – sp2 d) sp3 – sp3
In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of
Reason (R) is given. Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
each question.
1. Assertion(A): Boiling point of alkanes increases with increase in molecular weight.
Reason(R): van der Waal’s forces increase with increase in molecular weight.
2. Assertion(A): Sodium acetate on Kolbe’s electrolysis gives methane.
Reason(R): Methyl free radical is formed at anode.
3. Assertion(A): All the hydrogen atoms in CH2 =C= CH2 are attached to sp2 hybridized
carbon atom.
Reason(R): All the carbon atoms in its are sp2 hybridized.
141 | P a g e
4. Assertion(A): Trans-pent-2-ene is polar but trans-but-2-ene is non-polar.
Reason(R): The polarity of cis-isomer is more than trans which are either non-polar
or less polar.
5. Assertion(A): Methane cannot be obtained by Wurtz reaction.
Reason(R) : Wurtz reaction leads to the formation of symmetrical alkane having
an even number of carbon atoms.
Alkanes are normally inert to chemical reactions in the absence of a spark or a high-
intensity light source. Alkanes, like all hydrocarbons, burn in the presence of oxygen
to produce carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) as well as heat. Chlorine (Cl2) and
bromine (Br2) react with alkanes and cycloalkanes by substituting a halogen for one or
more hydrogens. Although the processes are exothermic, they require a source of
energy to start them, such as ultraviolet light or a high temperature, as in the
chlorination of cyclobutene. Alkenes and alkynes, which are unsaturated hydrocarbons,
are substantially more reactive than their parent alkanes. They react quickly with
bromine to add a Br2 molecule across the C=C double bond. This reaction can be used
to detect alkenes and alkynes. Bromine solutions in CCl4 have a bright red-orange
colour. There is no change when Br2 in CCl4 is combined with a sample of an alkane
at first. When Br2 is combined with an alkene or alkyne, its colour fades quickly.
a) How does a hydrocarbon react when it combusts?
b) What happens when 2-methyl propane is heated with KMnO4?
c) What type of reaction takes place when n-hexane is heated in presence of anhydrous
AICl3 and HCl?
OR
c) What happens when but-2-yne reacts with H2 in presence of Lindlar's catalyst.
Hydrocarbons are compounds of carbon and hydrogen only, obtained from coal
and petroleum mainly which are major sources of energy. Hydrocarbons are
classified as open chain, saturated (alkanes), unsaturated (alkenes and alkynes), cyclic
(alicyclic) and aromatic based on structure.
Alkanes show conformational isomerism due to free rotation along C-C bond leading
to staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane. Staggered conformation is more
stable. Alkenes show geometrical (Cis-trans) isomerism due to restricted rotation
around carbon-carbon double bond. Benzene and benzenoid show aromatic character.
142 | P a g e
They follow Huckel rule (4n+2)π electrons which must be delocalised. The presence
of activating and deactivating groups decide the position of electrophile after
electrophilic substitution. Polynuclear fused aromatic hydrocarbons have
carcinogenic property. Benzene is prepared by polymerisation of ethyne and by
heating sodium benzoate with soda lime.
a) Why is staggered form of ethane more stable than eclipsed form?
b) Out of butene and 2-butene which will show geometrical isomerism?
c) What do you mean by cis- trans- isomer? Why is cis-2-butene has higher boiling
point than trans-2-butene?
OR
c) Name the parent aromatic compound. Why is cyclopentadienyl anion aromatic?
MARKING SCHEME
Q.NO Value Points Value
point
1. (c) 2 - Methyl - 2 – pentene 1
2. (b) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon- 1
carbon double bonds.
3. (b) propene 1
4. (d) A is acetylene, B is acetaldehyde. 1
5. (a) Pd/H2 1
6. (c) CH ≡ CH 1
7. (d) sp² – sp³ 1
8. (a) Neopentane 1
9. 1
10. (c) sp2 – sp2 1

5ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS
1. (a): Explanation: Greater is the molecular mass, greater is the 1
magnitude of vander Waal’s forces of attraction and hence higher the
boiling point.
2. (d): Explanation: Sodium acetate on Kolbe’s electrolysis gives 1
ethane. It is formed at anode.
3. (c): Explanation: The two H-atom on first carbon and the two H- 1
atoms on the third carbon atom are attached to sp2 hybridised carbon
atoms. The central carbon atom is sp-hybridized.
4. (b): Explanation: The vector sum of all polar bonds in trans-pent-2- 1
ene is not zero but the vector sum is zero in trans-but-2-ene.
5. (a): Explanation: Wurtz reaction involves the formation of alkanes 1
by heating alkyl halide with sodium in ether. In this reaction two
alkyl radicals join together to form an alkane. The net result in this
reaction is the formation of symmetrical alkane (R–R) having an
even number of carbon atoms.
143 | P a g e
SOURCE BASED AND CASE BASED QUESTION
(a)When hydrocarbons are burned in the presence of oxygen (O 2),
1. carbon dioxide (CO2) and water are produced (H2O). When 1
hydrocarbons are burned, carbon monoxide (CO) can be produced
if there is too much carbon or too little oxygen present.
(b) 2-methyl propane is heated with KMnO4 undergoes oxidation

reaction to form 2-methyl propan-2-ol. 1
KMNO4
(CH3)3CH → (CH3)3COH
𝑂𝑋𝐼𝐷𝐴𝑇𝐼𝑂𝑁
(c) When n−hexane is heated with anhydrous AlCl3 and HCl gas, at
573 K under a pressure of about 30−35 atmosphere, it isomerises to
give a mixture of branched chain alkanes.
𝐀𝐥𝐂𝐥𝟑 .𝐇𝐂𝐥 1
CH3(CH2)4CH3 →CH3−CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3 +
𝑯𝒆𝒂𝒕
CH3CH2CH(CH3) CH2CH3 1
OR
In presence of lindlar's catalyst (H2,Pd/BaSO4), alkynes undergo
partial reduction. The addition of the hydrogen substituent always
proceeds via syn addition (addition of the substituent on the same side
of the bond). Therefore, the final product is purely cis-isomer of the
alkene i.e cis-but-2-ene
1
CASE BASED TYPE QUESTIONS
2. a) From the structures of staggered and eclipsed conformations,
torsional strain in the staggered conformation is less than that
of the eclipsed conformation. Thus, the staggered conformation 1
is more stable than the eclipsed conformation because staggered
conformation has no torsional strain.
b) But-2-ene shows geometrical isomerism.
Reason: Because in Butene one of the carbons has two of the 1
same substituent (H), so does not exhibit geometric isomerism.
But, but-2-ene shows geometrical isomerism due to restricted
rotation about the double bond.
c) The isomer in which two identical atoms or groups lie on the
same side of double bond is called cis-isomer. The isomer in
which two identical atoms or groups lie on the opposite side of 1
double bond is called cis-isomer. Boiling point depends on
dipole moment, greater the dipole moment greater the boiling
144 | P a g e
point. Cis- isomer has more dipole moment. So higher boiling 1
point.
OR
Benzene is the parent aromatic compound. Since it has six π- 1
electrons (2 π bond and 1 lone pair), follows 4n+2 electrons 1
rule, thus it is aromatic in nature.
145 | P a g e

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SUPPORT MATERIAL

MODEL SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

REGIONAL TRAINING CENTRE

1. Which of the following is the lightest?

Non-terminal alkynes are reduced in the presence of Na or Li metal dissolved in

following given reaction?

21 (i) Because acetone molecules lack hydrogen

27 (a) The energy of photon

(c) In non-terminal alkynes reaction, anti-

33 (a) The permanent displacement of sigma (σ) 3+2 5 344,

35 (a) The ni = 4 to nf = 2 transition will give 5 49,

1. Which of the following pair of compounds obey law of multiple proportion?

10. The structure of 4-Methylpent-2-en-1-ol is:

Reason (R): Both HCl and H2SO4 are strong acids.

5 (b) H2O 1 1 111

8 (a) 𝑆2 𝑂4 2− < 𝑆𝑂32− < 𝑆2 𝑂6 2− 1 1 260

9 (c) Electromeric effect 1 1 346

10 (c) (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH2OH 1 1 337

13 (c) Propanone 1 1 387

14 (a) CH3 – CH2 -CH = C(CH3)2 1 1 383

15 (c) A is true but R is false. 1 1 88

16 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1 1 170

Since, 28 kg N2 reacts with 6 kg of H2

But we have only 10 kg of H2, therefore, H2 is limiting

21 (a) A pure liquid is made of only one type of 2

22 Standard enthalpy of formation of a compound is the 1 2 167

(a) compounds are involved in formation of CaCO3

27 (a) Ununoctium, (Uuo) ½+½ 3 77

29 (a) According to first law of thermodynamics: 3 158

internal energy change is 310 J

30 (a) C —Br since Br is more electronegative than H. 1 3 327

31 (a) 1.4 g of N2 = 14/28 mol = 0.05 and 0.05 × 6.02 × 4

sulphur will be limiting reactant.

Using Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

(c) There are 4 subshells that associated with n =4; 1

(c) The equilibrium will be

(ii) In salt analysis NH4Cl is added in 1 208

(d) CH3-CH(CH3)(OH)-CH2-CH2-CH3. 1 337

25. Explain the following giving example:

(ii) C1-sp2 C2-sp3

1. The percentage of an element M is 53 in its oxide of molecular formula M 2O3. Its

2. The angular momentum of an electron is zero. In which orbital may it be present?

4. Which of the following process involves absorption of energy?

6. Which of the following are not state functions?

10 (c) (Due to peroxide linkage) 1 1 259

27 (a) Due to small size of F, high charge density &

29 (a) Ethane + Br2 water → no decolourisation of Br2 381

32 (a) 30 > 20 > 10 > CH3 + 1 347

ΔG0 = ΔH0 − ΔS0 1

The transition for Hydrogen will have the same wavelength.

32. (a) Alkyl groups increases electron density on N-atom due to 1

(a) In BeCl2, Be is sp-hybridisation. 119

13 (c) CH2 (d) O2N CH2 1

Calculate the uncertainty in the momentum of an electron if it is confined to a

Give the structure of the products of ozonolysis of the following

The phenomenon of existence of two or more compounds possessing the

Q.3 0.44g of a colourless oxide of nitrogen occupies 224 ml at STP. The

The correct order towards electrophilic substitution is

Reason: We define another state function Gibbs energy, G, which is

CO: (σ1s)2 (σ1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ2s)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (σ2pz)2