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SBQ 1

Middle age Lady visits your clinic after 5 years for routine
examination. She is taking tricyclic antidepressants. You obtain
bitewing.
Q1. What treatment will you give for distal surface of 25:
A. Tunnel Prep
B. No treatment
C. Recall and X-ray after 6 months
D. CPP-ACP and recall after 6 months
E. Remove existing restoration and restore with composite

Q2. What is the main technical error in the IOPA radiograph:

A. Cone-cut
B. Insufficient angulation
C. Poor contrast
D. Patient didn't bite properly
E. Film placed too posteriorly

Q3. What is seen at the distal surface of 37 beneath CEJ

A. Cervical Burn out
B. Caries
C. Horizontal fracture
D. Iatrogenic removal of lower 8

Q4. What treatment will you give for 36?

A. root planning of 36
B. refilling of existing restoration

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C. removal of 38 and 47
Q5. patient complains that lower left back region gets
sore sometimes. What could be the reason?
A. Open contact between 36 and 37
B. Secondary caries under restoration.
C. Food packing
D. D.periodontal problem

Q5. Patient INR 2.1 what should be your management?

A. Recheck next 24hrs
B. Refer for GP to declare her condition
C. Fill concern and start your procedure
D. It’s not contraindicated

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SBQ 2

Patient 37 y medically fit Non-smokers drink cola every day night had come
to you complain from teeth sensitivity he had previous composite filling on
his premolars 5 years ago.
1. From clinical appearance what cause can be for his teeth wear?
A. Erosion and attrition
B. Attrition
C. Extrinsic Erosion
D. Erosion and abrasion
2.How will you know the process is still active?
A. Shiny well demarcated facets.
B. Dentine is stained.
C. Dentine is unstained.
D. Restoration margins elevated with dentine exposed
3. What should be your Management of this case:
A. Diet analysis
B. Seal exposed dentine to prevent injury to the pulp.
C. night guard
D. temporary restoration
E. Dahl appliance.

4.Long term treatment for his sensitivity:

1. Resin modified GIC
2. Sensitizer
3. Amalgam
4. Composite

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SBQ 3

A13 yr boy.Hasn't been to a dentist for 5 yrs. Conscious

about discoloration of teeth.Discoloration in central
incisors, lateral incisors, canines, both maxillary and
mandibular.

Q1. What is the condition?

A. Chronoligical Enamel Hypoplasia
B. Enamel hyperplasia
C. Enamel hypomineralisation
D. Amelogenesis imperfecta

Q2. What is the the most common cause?

A. Systemic factors (most common)
B. Local factors
C. Genetic factors
D. Maternal infection during pregnancy
N.B Systemic diseases like congenital
syphilis and others are the most
significant factors

Q3. At which age did the defect occur?

A. At birth
B. 6 months
C. 1 year (it must be after the age of 6m
and before age of 3years)

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D. 3 years
E. 6 years

Q4. Treatment plan for this condition?

A. Porcelain veneers
B. Composite veneers (minimal preps are needed)
C. Bleaching
D. Microabrasion with remineralisation.
E. GIC veneers

Q5. The photo shows over-retained submerged lower second molars.

What is the cause for this?
a. Agenesis of 2nd premolars.(Most common cause)
b. Ectopic eruption of 2nd premolars.
c. patient cannot bite properly
d. absence of succedaneous tooth/premolar 75

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SBQ 4

MR William GP doctor come to you complain sensitivity and bad odder in his
upper lift side he missed his last appointments for scaling and polishing with
oral therapist since months, he maintains routine dental care at home and
would you to extract his molar as he did for other side and tell you if not do
then he will.
1) What is the cause of the patients complain? (diagnosis)
A. open contact and food impaction
B. mesial caries on 35
C. chronic periodontitis
D. poor oral hygiene

2) what is the cause for his bad odour?

A. Overhang amalgam restoration
B. gingivitis
C. pocket on 24
D. poor oral hygiene

3) he insists on extraction of his molar

A. take OPG & convince him. maybe change his mind
B. refer to oral surgeon for 2nd opinion
C. extract 26 as he insists, and he will do it anyway, make him sign a
consent form
D. give him instruments to do extraction

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4) what you should tell him about from BWs:

A. recurrent carious on 36
B. modify his diet
C. maintain OH

5) How would you treat this patient:

A. scaling OH instruction
B. raises a flap
C. remove cause scaling and root planning

6) patient taking warfarin INR should cheeked

A. day before
B. 6hr before
C. Up to 3 days before
D. No need to check

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SBQ 5

Patient 16 y refer from his GP for dental assessment and treatment

plan, He was on balanced diet brush his teeth twice daily, Medical
history recording Dilantin drug. Ask about his gingival appearance

Q1. What is the medical condition if patient is taking Dilantin?

A. DM type 2
B. Epilepsy
C. hypertension
D. Hypothyroidism

Q2. What is recommended treatment?

A. Gingivectomy
B. scaling and polishing
C. Professional debridement and oral prophylaxis with plaque control
instructions can help resolve a Problem
D. stop medication

Q3. What more you can see in clinical examination?

A. Stains in 21 22 23
B. Retained plaque do you to gingival over growth
C. Abrasion do you too traumatic tooth brush
D. Hormonal gingival over growth

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SBQ 6

child come with his mum which she asked you for urgent treatment
he came from school, appear well, lough and not complain you
examine him clinically and observe teeth with blackness on molars,
He brushes twice daily and has average OH.

1. What treatment he need to do immediately?

A. Tooth preparation GIC restoration
B. CVk pulpotomy
C. Take OPG
D. No treatment

2. what prophylaxis can you apply away with his twice brush
daily?
A. apply fluoride 22600 in office
B. apply fluoride 12300 in office
C. no treatment and review 6 months
D. mouthwash 200 ppm

3. patient come back complain from dental fluorosis after 13 years you
receive a summons from the authorities for illustration your assistant
tells you he still has copy of his record

A. Tell your assistant it’s not valid

B. Let him send copy to authorities

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SBQ7

The Only Ortho

Patient girl 11y came with her mother from FAR rural area in public
transport worried about her smile and they cannot wait too much
as they want to go back home with last public transportation she
was in good diet and healthy there was OPG.

1. What’s the chief complaint that caused that appearance:

A. Ectopic eruption for permanent canine
B. Malposed position of lateral

2. If you decide its impact tooth what is the direct cause of retained
63?

3. if u decided to remove cause surgically but not sure about doing

space maintainer in clinic as u did it since long time in your school
study so what to do?
A. Extraction of c with space maintainer
B. Extraction of 22 without space maintainer
C. Refer to orthodontist
D. refused Treatment

4. She was had a diastema bet two central incisors what the most
probable cause:
A. Normal development
B. UGLY DUCKLING stage
C. Meisodens

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Hand BOOK SBQ 8 (most common repeated SBQ every exam)

A 64-year-old patient who is receiving warfarin as part of the management of

his atrial fibrillation tells you that one of his lower right back teeth was restored
three years ago by a dentist who has since retired from your practice.
The tooth is now occasionally sensitive to hot and cold. The clinical notes
confirm the history and indicate that the tooth was restored using a resin
composite material.
You obtain the attached periapical radiograph.

Q 1 In addition to testing the pulp vitality with either cold or an electric pulp
tester, which of the following clinical tests or procedures would be the most
appropriate to assist in making a diagnosis?
A. Orthopantomogram
B. Bite-wing radiograph
C. Percussion
D. Crack testing
E. INR

Q 2 In case like this Class II composite restorations of posterior teeth are more
likely to fail due to recurrent caries if

A. the material is placed in increments because of the risk of leakage

between the increments.
B. a glass-ionomer lining is used because of the risk that the lining will leach
out over time.
C. occlusal loads are applied to the marginal ridge due to flexure of the
material.

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D. the curing time is extended due to greater shrinkage of the material.

E. the gingival margin is on dentine because bonding under these conditions
is unpredictable.

Q 3 Given the history and the radiographic evidence, would you expect the
“sensitivity” to hot and cold that the patient reports to be
A. sharp, occurring once or twice per week and only with ice-cream and
hot coffee?
B. sharp and relieved on removal of the hot or cold stimulus?
C. dull and lingering for 1-2 minutes?
D. always present but worse after a hot or cold stimulus?
E. worse in the morning

Q 4 If you decided to extract the tooth and in planning for the procedure you
find that that the patient’s INR is 2.4, would you:
A. Proceed with the extraction and provide appropriate post-operative
instructions.
B. Proceed with the extraction and suggest that the patient stop their
warfarin for 3 days
C. Suggest that the patient stop their warfarin and commence taking
125mg aspirin before returning in 3 days to have the tooth removed.
D. Consult the patient’s cardiologist to discuss stopping their warfarin
treatment.
E. Refer to patient to a consultant Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeon who is
best placed to manage complex surgical problems such as this.

Q 5 After removal of the 46, which of the following prosthodontic options

would be most appropriate?
A. Immediate placement and immediate restoration with a dental implant.
B. Replacement with an immediate removable partial denture.
C. Replacement with a removable partial denture after the extraction site
has healed.
D. Replacement with a fixed bridge.
E. No replacement until the patient has had an opportunity to assess their
functional and aesthetic concerns.

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SBQ 9

Female patient 45y with fillings and consulting with naturopath. A

lady with 12 amalgam restorations over fifteen years old , recently
consulted a naturopath , is allergic to nickel, wants to remove all the
amalgam restorations.

Q1. What will you advise her?

A. Report to the Mercury & Dental amalgam at the NHMRC
B. Replace all the Restorations
C. Explain that the level of mercury is not high enough to cause toxicity

Q2. Photo attached of the buccal mucosa along

occlusal plane, diagnosis is
A. Lichen planus
B. Lichenoid reaction (may occur with amalgam)
C. Frictional keratosis

Q2. What’s your management?

A. Incisional biopsy
B. Excisional biopsy
C. Prescribe STERIODS as its clinically diagnosed
D. vitality test

Q3. how to treat patient?

A. replace amalgam because naturopath is saying
B. replace because she wanted or due to toxicity
C. replace all amalgam as all were defected
D. only replace amalgam in 37

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SBQ 10

 Platelet swelling become larger over time what should not be

one of your differential diagnosis?
A. Follicular
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Odontogenic cyst
D. Nasopalatine cyst

SBQ 11
You had a school teacher patient on Friday night she had
irreversible pulpitis and she told that she can't tolerate Rubber Dam
at all Your practice is 300 km away from city. she was preparing
herself to attend in a wedding on Sunday What could you do for her
as a dentist?
A. Do pulp therapy without rubber dam and use cotton roll
as an isolation
B. Extract the tooth
C. Refer to endodontist
D. Give her topical analgesic
E. Give her systemic analgesic to control pain

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SBQ 11
You are in dental centre for elderly people with other 4 dentists,
400 km from Sydney.

1. Ms. Baker had immediate complete denture for 4 years, which

fractured many times. She presents today with midline fracture.
What’s is your treatment:
A. Fix the fracture segment and reline all surface.
B. Reline just posterior area.
C. Place stainless steel wire and fix the fracture denture.
D. remake the denture

2. Your second patient is Ms. Baker husband present for relining,

which of the following considered as an indication for relining:
A. Assessment of VD before relining as then it would increase 2 mm after
relining.
B. Assessment of VD as it decreases 2 mm after relining
C. Adjust periphery of denture and decrease VD for relining.

3.Your next patient is Mr. John 80 yrs. old with gagging related complete
denture is inserted two months ago, what's your initial treatment:
A. Increase VD
B. Adjust retention and peripheral seal and give anti emetics.
C. Reline the posterior area.
D. Reduce the posterior area to completely avoid hamular notch
and junction between hard and soft palate.

4. Next patient with upper acrylic denture with lateral extracted 2 months
ago, how you replace it:
A. Take impression with denture in place and send it to lab.
B. Take impression alone without denture and send it to lab.

5. Next patient present with chrome cobalt complete denture

with fracture clasp on lower premolar from point of emersion,
what you do?
A. Advice the patient that denture need to replace it.
B. Leave it as there is enough clasps on opposite side can provide good
retention
C. Resolder it
D. use wrought wire in replacement

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SBQ 12

Medically comprised patient refer to you from his specialist,

concern about red lesion on his palate

1. What’s your probable differential Diagnosis?

A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Frictional keratosis
C. Fordyce granules

2. What’s your management?

A. Chlorhexidine mouth wash
B. Immediate biopsy
C. Corticosteroid medication
D. Prescribe Antibiotic

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SBQ 13
A twenty-year-old male had a bar fight yesterday After a night drinking.
Today he wakes up with pain in right corner of face and deviation of
mandible & notices that his upper and lower teeth are not meeting when
he bites. OPG was given, suffered a blow or a trauma to his left facial side

Q1. According to Australian Medical Guidelines how many drinks

per day is the maximum recommended dose for a male?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q2. How many ml in a Standard Drink?

A. 10ml
B. 15ml
C. 20ml
D. 25ml

Q3. Type of fracture in X-ray?

A. Fracture body
B. Fracture ramus
C. Fracture subcondylar with displacement
D. Fracture condylar

Q4. Type of treatment?

A. Close reduction
B. Open reduction

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SBQ 14
A patient has type I diabetes and alcoholic. Multilocular
radiolucency in the angle of the mandible (multilocular was given
in the text of the question).
1) What is the diagnosis?
A. dentigerous cyst
B. ameloblastoma 2
C. odontogenic keratocyte

2) Best radiograph for it?

A. lateral oblique
B. OPG
C. MRI
D. CBCT
E. Occlusal radiograph

3) What is the treatment?

A. enaculation, extraction, Carnoy's solution
B. resection
C. excision
D. marsupialization
E. curettage

4) What is the major risk in this patient?

A. poor healing
B. infection
C. control of glucose before operation
D. control of glucose after operation
E. fracture of mandible

5)Long term prognosis?

A. Left TMJ dysfunction
B. Right TMJ dysfunction

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SBQ 15

A 45-year-old lady presents with a loose crown on a front tooth. She

complains about dislodged post and core crown. She had this post
and core for last 10-15 years.
Q1. What investigation will help
A. Vitality
B. Probing
C. Percussion
D. OPG
Q2. What could be the cause of dislodgement of the post core
that has least favourable prognosis
A. Vertical root fracture
B. Internal resorption
C. Luting cement issue
Q3. How will you treat this patient?
A. Crown lengthening
B. Crown lengthening and orthodontic extrusion
C. Better post fabrication
D. Extraction

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E. Gingivoplasty

Q4. What is the significant problem in replacing the post core

A. Insufficient ferrule
B. Retention
c. Absence of seal
Q5. If this tooth is extracted, what is best method of restoration
which is long lasting
A. Implant
B. Fixed bridge
C. Cantilever bridge
D. RPD

Q6. Patient had undergone hip replacement, what will you do

before performing the procedure?
A. Refer to Orthopaedic to consult regarding prophylaxis
B. No prophylaxis required
C. Prescribe 2g amoxycillin one hr orally
Prescribe 2g IV just before the procedure

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SBQ 16

Patient 70-year-old. Photo of total upper prosthesis with

hyperplasia of tissue about buccal flanges of prosthesis. He
had previously RPD and had no problem, after the immediate
prosthesis done after extraction and was corrected many
times.
Q1. What is possibly the diagnosis?
A. Chronic tissue hyperplasia
B. Connective tissue fibromatosis
Q2. What is cause?
A. Chronic trauma of buccal flanges of prosthesis
Q3. What to do?
A. Excision and biopsy correct buccal part of prosthesis
B. Send to specialist for laser surgery
C. Immediate surgery
D. Adjust denture
Q4. If you do biopsy, what would be diagnosis?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Fibrous hyperplasia

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SBQ 17
You are working today in a hospital for oral health department,
with your specialist prof of Oral pathologist you have seen multiple
patients
1. first patient has white lesion on ventrolateral surface of his
tongue, non-symptomatic, patient is smoker and social drinker,
what was the lesion
A. Candida
B. SCC
C. lichen planus
D. frictional keratosis
 what is the most common cause?
A. Autoimmune reaction
B. trauma
C. Hereditary
D. Idiopathic

2. Second patient with clinical photo Best option

describes lesion feature?
A. White patch with stria
B. White patch with erythematous area
C. White patch with irregular margins
D. White patch with reticular margin

 The Patient was worried if it may transform

to malignancy, what would u tell the patient:
A. Lesion has high malignancy potential
B. Lesion has no malignancy potential
C. Lesion has 3 % percent malignancy potential

 What you can see on histology section (was given)

A. Hyperplastic tissue with displacement
B. Hyper plastic tissue with out displacement
C. Idiopathic

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D. Squamous cell carcinoma

3- Your next patient coming with blister

On lateral mucosa of the mouth complain
From eye redness and irritation in the
last period, she didn’t seek specialist
device, blister become enlarge, painful.
What should be your first step to
manage?

A. incisional biopsy
B. refer to ophthalmology
C. antibiotic

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A patient presented to your clinic for restoration on upper tooth

you decide to give infiltration anaesthesia, he came back after
3days with lesion on his lower lip and proclaiming that this
happened because of your treatment, the patient reports that he is
under stress recently because he will have an exam next week,
smoker and social alcohol drinker.

1. If trauma is excluded, what could be the cause?

A. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Recurrent herpes simplex
C. Herpes zoster
D. Erythema multiforme

2. what could not be the cause out of these?

A. using hot sterilized instrument
B. biting his anesthetized lips
C. heat from lightening up a smoke while anesthetized
D. heat from food
E. hot handpiece or scaler

3. how lesion can start on patient:

A. burning, tingling
B. Mucosal ulcers

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4. what you can advise patient if lesion appear again in future?

A. prescribe Mycostatin
B. use acyclovir cream 5% for 5 days after first sign
C. prescribe topical steroid for him
D. use acyclovir cream over the counter at first sign of occurrence

5. patient unhappy and Want to complain on you what you

should do?
A. Inform him that not anyone can make a complaint about a health
service.
B. wait for patient to his change his mind
C. call your indemnity insurers
D. Ensuring patients or clients have access to information about the
processes for making a complaint.

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SBQ 19
James 17 years old, who is a cyclist and drinks a lot of sports drink presents
for routine check-up. X-ray was given. There was caries on 47 (occlusal). It is
extending into dentin just 1-2mm away from pulp. Intraoral picture was
given, which had a stained pit 1mm on occlusal surface of 47. The patient did
not have any symptoms now.
Q1. What is the management?
A. CPP-APP
B. Diagnose as dental caries and do an exploratory cavity preparation
C. Deep fissure sealing with fluoride releasing material
Q2. patient missed your appointment and reports a few weeks later
with pain on eating hot or cold food which disappears after
removal of stimulus. You make a provisional diagnosis of reversible
pulpitis. What is your management now?
A. Place an intermittent dressing now and a definite restoration later
B. Refer to endodontist
C. Pulp extirpation
Q3. The patient missed appointment again and presents a few
weeks later with spontaneous pain from the tooth. You make a
provisional diagnosis of irreversible pulpits. What will you do now?
A. Refer to specialist endodontist
B. RCT on 47
C. Extraction
D. OPG to find the erupting 3rd molar
Q4. The patient drinks sports juices often and takes dry fruits to
keep him energetic so that he can perform well. The patient is at
risk for caries, generalised sensitivity. What will your advice the
patient?
A. To change it with fresh fruit
B. Stop sports drinks
C. Drink plenty of fluids during training
D. Advise to use a fluoride mouthwash within one hour after training

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1. You were taking routine dental x ray for female patient which
after one month call you back in emergency manner tell you she
did pregnancy test and just now she know about her pregnancy
when you did radiographic test, very worried about her baby,
what you should tell her about x-ray in pregnancy?
A. No need to be worry there is No side effects from dental x-ray
B. make medical consultation
C. dental x-ray should avoid in whole pregnancy
D. dental x-ray should avoid in first trimester

2. your dental assistant who taking x-ray in clinic is pregnant what

you should tell her?
A. Takes x-ray if enquired.
B. x-ray unit should empower by another unpregnant assistant
C. Use led apron
D. Take x-ray, but measure x-ray which not exceed 10 sp per year

3. According to diagram below where should Where should dentist

stand to get less radiation dose?

A. 2m away in Point B
B. 2m away in point C
C. 2m away in Point A
D. 2mm away in any point

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4. Patients OPG with cat symphysis part what error you can see?

A. Chin too high

B. Patient slumped
C. Too far forward
D. Too far back

5. NAME this radiographic view?

A. Maxillary preapical
B. Water view
C. Maxillary occlusal
D. Latter occlusal view

 What you can see from x-ray?

A. Mucositis
B. Periodontitis
C. Gingivitis
D. Periimplantitis

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 What gland release MOST SEROUS saliva during day:

A. Sublingual
B. Submandibular
C. Parotid
D. submental

A. Which instrument do we use in second sextant for subgingival

calculus removal
A. Scaler
B. Gracey 11/12
Gracey 13/14/
C. Gracey 1/2
D. Universal 4R/4L

B. Dental assistant responsibility most not:

A. Fixed Ortho bracket
B. Take IO x-ray
C. Implemented in oral prophylaxis program
D. Take impression
E. OHI

C. Blade angle of curettage during sharpening of root surface

A. 30-40
B. 40-50
C. 70-80
D. 90-100
E. 100-110

D. which of the following nerve fibres of pulp are responsible

first for thermal test?
A. A beta
B. A delta

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C. A beta and A delta nerve fibres

D. A alpha and A delta nerve fibres

E. The main advantage of microfilled composite:

A. High thermal conductivity &high crushing strength
B. Low thermal conductivity &low crushing strength
C. High thermal conductivity &low crushing strength
D. Low thermal conductivity &high crushing strength

F. Which of the methods of cold testing are preferred for pulp

testing?
A. regular ice (frozen water)
B. CO1
C. fl ooding the arch with chilled water
D. blast of air from the air/water syringe
E. Carbon dioxide

G. Wet instrument after the complete cycle of sterilization with

autoclave?
A. Overloaded cycle
B. impure water
C. overfilling of water chamber
D. sterilized instrument paper side kept downwards

H. shopping for your new dental clinic with your assistant and decide to
buy pre-vacuum steam steriliser B cycle as it
A. spore test indicator of microbial test
B. qualitative and penetration test
C. validation process done every 2 years unless used very less
D. helix test

I. Patient on Renal dialysis due to chronic renal failure suffered

Anemia. Which of the following would you expect to decrease?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin B12
C. Iron

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D. Folate
E. Vitamin K

J. Which material is the most associated with adverse

reactions?
A. Impression plaster
B. ZOE
C. poly ether
D. PVS
E. conditioned silicone

K. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing

bottle syndrome?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canines
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors

L. Which one has least effect on periapical tissues?

A. Gutta Percha
B. Silver point
C. Sealer
D. NAOCL

M. Tranexamic acid mouthwash

A. Should combined with AB prophylaxis
B. Ready mead bottle of 4.7%
C. Used for 5-7 days post-surgery
D. Can be made freshly in your clinic

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N. Put material according to their solubility in increasing order

A. GIC, ZNO, Polycarboxylate, Resin.
B. Resin, Polycarboxylate, ZNO, GIC.
C. Polycarboxylate, GIC, Resin, ZNO.
D. Resin, GIC, ZNO, Polycarboxylate.

O. High copper amalgam in comparison with low copper

amalgam its
A. Less Conduct
B. More titration times
C. Less Creep
D. Less Dimensional stability
E. Increase gamma 2 reaction

P. What cells does not present in pulp:

A. Plasma cells
B. Fat cells
C. Histocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. Fibroblasts

Q. which bony defect has most chances of regeneration?

A. Suprabony
B. One wall defect
C. Two wall defects
D. Three wall defects

R. The optimum penetration of a self-threading pin in dentin is

A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.0 mm
C. 2.0 mm
D. 2.5 mm
E. 3.0 mm

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S. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing

bottle syndrome?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canines
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors

 What doesn’t affect plaque formation

A. Bacteria
B. Oral hygiene
C. Mouth breath
D. Tooth morphology
E. Crowding

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