Physics - D1

1) A wire is stretched to double of its length. The strain is

A) 2 B) 1 C) zero 3) 0.5
2) A 2 m long rod is suspended with the help of two wires of equal length. One wire is of
steel & its cross – sectional area is 0.1 cm2 and another wire is of brass & its cross –
sectional area is 0.2 cm2. If a load w is suspended from the rod and stress produced
in both the wires is same, then the ratio of tensions in them will be
A) depend on the position of W
B) T1/T2 = 2
C) T1/T2=1
D) T1/ T2 = 0.5
3) One end of a uniform wire of length L and of weight w is attached rigidly to a point in
the roof and a weight w1 is suspended from its lower end. If S is the area of cross –
section of the wire, the stress in the wire at a height 3L/4 from its lower end is
w w  ( w / 4) w  (3w / 4 ) w w
A) 1 B) 1 C) 1 D) 1
S S S S
4) With in the limit of elasticity, which of the following graph obey Hooke’s law?

A) B) C) D)

5) A wire of length L and area of cross – section A is stretched by a load. The elongation
produced in the wire is l. If Y be the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire, then
force constant of the wire is
YL YA YA Yl
A) B) C) D)
A L l A
6) When the load on a wire is increased from 3 kg – wt to 5 kg – wt, the elongation
increases from 0.61 mm to 1.02 mm. The required work done during the extension of
the wire is
A) 16 ×10 -3 J B) 8 × 10-2 J C) 20 × 10-2 J D) 11 × 10-3 J
7) The stress – strain curves of three wires of different materials are shown in figure. P,
Q and R the elastic limits of the wires.
I. Elasticity of wire P is minimum.
II. Elasticity of wire Q is maximum.
III. Tensile strength or R is maximum.
Which of the following statement (s) is / are correct?
A) Only I B) Both I and III C) Only II D) None of these

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8) A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross –sectional area A is stretched, well within
elastic limit, horizontally between two pillars (figure). A mass m, is suspended from
the, mid – point of the wire, strain in the wire is
x2 x
A) B)
2L2 L
C) x2/L D)x2/2L
9) Measurements on real gases deviate from the values predicted by the ideal gas law at
A) high temperature B) low temperature C)room temperature D) all of These
10) The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 49 × 10 C . What is the fractional
-5 -1

change in density for a 30C rise in temperature?

A) 0.0155 B)0.0145 C) 0.0255 D) 0.0355
11) Which of the following graph shows the variation of volume of water with increase in
temperature?
A) B) C) D)

12) Water is used as a coolant because of

A) low specific heat capacity B) high specific heat capacity
C) warms up quickly D) None of the above
13) A block of ice at 0C is slowly heated and converted into steam at 100C. Which of
these curves represent the phenomenon qualitatively?

A) B) C) D)

14) Cooking is difficult on hills because

A) atmospheric pressure is higher B) atmospheric pressure is lower
C) boiling point of water is reduced D) Both B and C
15) Calculate the rate of loss of heat through a glass window of area 1000 cm2 and
thickness 0.4 cm, when temperature inside is 37C and outside is -5C. Coefficient of
thermal conductivity of glass is 2.2 × 10-3 cal s-1 cm-1 K-1
A) 450 cal s-1 B) 231 cal s-1 C) 439 cal s-1 D) 650 cal s-1
16) The wavelength m = 5.5 × 10-7 m corresponds to a temperature of the sun of 5500 K.
If the furnace has wavelength m equal to 11 × 10-7 m, then temperature of furnace is
A) 5000 K B) 1750 K C) 3750 K D) 2750 K
17) At what temperature will the filament of 100 W lamp operate, if it is supposed to be
perfectly black body of area 1.0 cm2?
A) 3449 k B) 2049 K C) 3000 K D) 3010 K

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18) An object kept in a large room having air temperature of 25C takes 12 min to cool
from 80C to 70C. The time taken to cool for the same object from 70C to 60C
would be nearly
A) 10 min B) 12 min C) 20 min D) 15 min
19) A bimetallic strip is made of aluminium and steel (Al>steel). On heating, the strip will
A) remain straight B) get twisted
C) bend with aluminium on concave side D) bend with steel on concave side
20) The mass of 22.4L of any gas is equal to its molecular weight (in grams) at
A) 270 K and 1 atm B) 273 K and 1 atm
C) 273 K and 10 atm D) 270 K and 10 atm
21) Which of the following diagrams (graphs) is the correct representation of ideal gas
behavior?

A) B) C) D)

22) A balloon has 5.0 g mol of helium at 7C. Calculate the total internal energy of the
system.
A) 5 × 104 J B) 2.9 × 104 J C) 1.74 × 104 J D) 8 × 104 J
23) Total number of degree of freedom for a molecule moving along a straight line is
A) one B) two C) three D) four
24) The molecule of a given mass of gas have rms velocity of 200 ms at 27C and
-1

1.0 × 105 Nm-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are
respectively, 127C and 0.05 × 105 Nm-2, the rms velocity of its molecules (in ms-1) is
400 100 2 100
A) B) C) D) 100 2
3 3 3
25) Molecule of CO at moderate temperature have energy
7 5 3 1
A) kBT B) kBT C) kBT D) kBT
2 2 2 2
26) The stress – strain curves are drawn for two different materials X and Y. It is observed
that the ultimate strength point and the fracture point are close to each other for
material X but are far apart for material Y. We can say that materials X and Y are
likely to be(respectively)
A) ductile and brittle B) brittle and ductile
C) brittle and plastic D) plastic and ductile
27) The adjacent graph shows the extension (l) of a wire of length 1 m suspended from
the top of a roof at one end with a load w connected to the other end. If the cross-
sectional area of the wire is 10-6m2, calculate the Young’s modulus of the material of
the wire.
A) 2  1011 Nm-2
B) 2  10-11Nm-2
C) 3  10-12Nm-2
D) 2  10-13Nm-2
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28) The Young’s modulus of the material of the wire of length L and radius r is Y Nm-2 If
the length is reduced to L/2 and radius r/2, the Young’s modulus will be
A) Y/2 B) Y C) 2Y D)4Y
29) The ratio of tensile stress to the longitudinal strain is defined as
A) Bulk Modulus B) Young’s modulus C) shear modulus D) compressibility
30) The energy stored per unit volume in copper wire, which produces longitudinal strain
of 0.1% is (take, Y = 1.1×1011 Nm-2)
A) 11 × 103 Jm-3 B) 5.5 × 103 Jm-3 C) 5.5 × 104 Jm-3 D) 11 × 104 Jm-3
31) A body cools from 75C to 70C to time t1, from 70C to 65C in time t2 and from 65C
to 60C in time t3, then
A) t3 > t2 > t1 B) t1 > t2 >t3 C) t2 >t1 = t3 D) t1 > t2 < t3
32) A body at a temperature of 727C and has surface area 5 cm2, radiates 300 J of
energy each minute. The emmisivity is (given , Boltzmann constant = 5.67×10-8 Wm-2
K-4)
A) e = 0.18 B) e = 0.02 C) e = 0.2 D) e = 0.15
33) A black body at 1227C emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of
5000 Ǻ. If the temperature of the body is increased by 1000C, the maximum intensity
will be observed at
A) 4000Ǻ B) 5000Ǻ C) 6000Ǻ D) 3000Ǻ
34) A hot liquid kept in a beaker cools from 80C to 70C in 2 min. If the surrounding
temperature to 30C, then the time of cooling of the same liquid from 60C to 50C is
A) 240 s B) 360 s C) 480 s D) 216 s
35) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is 9 times that of steel. In the
composite cylindrical bar shown in the figure, what will be the temperature at the
junction of copper and steel?
A) 75C
B) 67C
B) 25C
D) 33C
36) The unit of thermal conductivity is
A) J m-1 K-1 B) W m K-1 C) Wm-1 K-1 D) J m K-1
37) 19 g of water at 30C and 5 g of ice at -20C are mixed together in a calorimeter. What
is the final temperature of the mixture?
(Take, specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g-1(C)-1 and latent heat of fusion of ice =- 80 cal g-1)
A) 0C B) -5C C) 5C D) 10C
38) A beaker is completely filled with water at 4C. It will overflow, if
A) heated above 4C B) cooled below 4C
C) Both heated and cooled above and below 4C respectively
D) None of the above
39) Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are 1 and 2. Lengths of brass
and steel rods are l1 and l2 respectively. If (l2-l1) is maintained same at all
temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
A) 1l 22 = 2 l 12 B)  12 l2 =  22 l1 C)1l1 = 2l2 D) 1l2 = 2l1

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40) A gas is compressed isothermally. The rms velocity of its molecules
A) increases B) decreases
C) first increase and then decreases D) remains the same
41) If at the same temperature and pressure, the densities of two diatomic gases are d1
and d2, respectively. The ratio of mean kinetic energy per molecule of gases will be
A) 1: 1 B) d1 : d2 C) d1 : d2 D) d2 : d1
42) The mean free path of molecules of a gas (radius) is inversely proportional to
A) r3 B) r2 C) r D) r
43) A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting
all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is
A) 4 RT B) 15 RT C) 9 RT D) 11 RT
Cp
44) If 7 g N2 is mixed with 20 g Ar, the of mixture will be
Cv
17 11 17 17
A) B) C) D)
6 7 11 13
Cp
45) The ratio of the specific heats =  in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by
Cv
 1  n  2  n
A) 1   B) 1   C) 1   D) 1  
 n  3  n  2

Chemistry
46) The alkane that gives only one mono-chloro product on chlorination with Cl2 in
presence of diffused sunlight is
A) Isopentane B) 2, 2- dimehylbutane C) Neopentane D) n-pentane
47) The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is
A) q=0, T<0 and w>0 B) q<0, T=0 and w=0
C) q>0, T>0 and w>0 D) q=0, T=0 and w=0
48) The IUPAC name of the following compound is
CH3
|
H3C – C –CH3
|
CH3
A) 1-methylisobutane B) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
C) 2, 2-dimethylpropane D) 2-methylisobutane
49) In the following the most stable conformation of n-butane is:

A) B) C) D)

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50) Which of the following are not state functions?
I) q + w II) q III) w IV) H – TS
A) I and IV B) II, III and IV C) I, II and III D) II and III
CH3
|
51) The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH – CH2CH2CH3 is
A) n-hexane B) 2-methylpentane C) 4-methylpentane D) 3-methylpentane
52) The reaction of ethyl magnesium bromide with water would give
A) Ethane B) Ethyl alcohol C) Ethyl bromide D) Ethyl ether
53) Three thermochemical equations are given below:
i) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g); rH0 = x kJ mol-1
1
ii) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO(g); rH0 = y kJ mol-1
2
1
iii) CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g); rH0 = z kJ mol-1
2
Based on the above equations, find out which of the relationship given below is
correct?
A) x = y - z B) z = x + y C) x = y + z D) y = 2z – x
54) Which of the following is a termination step in halogenations?
  
A) Cl - Cl 
hv
Cl Cl B) CH 4  Cl 
hv
C H 3  HCl
   
C) CH 3Cl  C l 
 C H 2Cl  HCl D) H 3 C  C l 
hv
CH 3Cl
55) The total number of -bond electros in the following structure is:
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 4
56) Consider the following processes:
H (kJ/mol)
1/2 A→B +150
3B → 2C+D - 125
E + A → 2D +350
For B + D → E + 2C, H will be:
A) 525 kJ/mol B) – 175 kJ/mol C) - 325 kJ/mol D) 325 kJ/mol
57) Consider the given reactions
i) CH 3C  CC 2 H 5  H 2   A
Pd / C
H2

ii) CH 3C  CC 2 H 5  H 2  B
Na / liq .
NH 3

A and B respectively are

A) cis and trans – alkene B) trans and cis- alkene
C) alkane and alkene D) alkene and alkane

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58) The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH  C – CH = CH2 is:
A) 1-butyn-3-ene B) but-1-yne-3-ene C) 1-butene-3-yne D) 3-butene-1-yne
59) For the reaction
N2 + 3H2 2NH3, H =?
A) E + 2 RT B) E – 2RT C) H = RT D) E - RT
60) Consider in the following reaction.
CH3
|
H 2O / H 
CH3 – C – CH = CH2    A + B
| Minor Product Minor Product
CH3
The major product is:
CH3 CH3
| |
A) CH3 – C – CH – CH3 B) CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3
| | | |
OH CH3 OH CH3
CH3 CH3
| |
C) CH3 – C – CH – CH3 D) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2
| | | |
CH3 OH CH3 OH
61) Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical isomerism?
A) Butanol B) 2-Butyne C) 2-Butenol D) 2-Butene
1
62) Enthalpy of CH 4  O2  CH 3OH is negative. If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and
2
CH3OH are x and y respectively, then which relation is correct
A) x > y B) x < y C) x = y D) x  y
63) The value of rG0 is equal to
A) – 2.303 RT log K B) + 2.303 RT log K
C) rH – TrS
0 0 D) Both A and C
64) The correct structure of trans-2 hexenal is

A) B) C) D)

65) For the gas phase reaction,

PCl5(g) PCl3(g)+ Cl2(g)
Which of the following conditions are correct?
A) H = 0 and S < 0 B) H > 0 and S > 0
C) H < 0 and S < 0 D) H > 0 and S < 0
66) Which of the following expression is correct for a reversible process in a state of
equilibrium?
A) G = -2.30 RT log K B) G = 2.30 RT log K
C) G = -2.303 RT log K
0 D) G0 = 2.303 RT log K
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67) The most suitable reagent for the following conversion is:

cis-2-butene
A) Na/liquid NH3 B) H2, Pd/C, quinoline C) Zn/HCl D) Hg2+/H+, H2O
68) Reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is
A) R – F > R – Cl > R – Br > R – I B) R – I > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F
C) R – I > R – Cl > R – Br > R – F D) R – F > R – I > R – Br > R – Cl
69) The change in the energy of system if 500 cal of heat energy are added to a system
and system does 350 cal of work on the surroundings will be
A) – 150 cal B) + 150 cal C) + 850 cal D) – 850 cal
70) Which one is the correct order of acidity?
A) CH  CH>CH3 – C  CH>CH2 = CH2>CH3 – CH3
B) CHCH>CH2 = CH2>CH3 – C CH>CH3 – CH3
C) CH3 – CH3 >CH2 = CH2 >CH3 – C  CH>CH  CH
D) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2> CH3 – C CH>CH CH
71) How many stereoisomers does this molecule have?
CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3
A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 2
72) Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is (Given that 1 L bar =
100 J)
A) 5 kJ B) 25 J C) 30 J D) – 30 J
73) Some meta-directing substituent’s in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is
most deactivating?
A) – SO3H B) – COOH C) – NO2 D) – C  N
74) Which of the following is not chiral?
A) 2, 3 – Dibromopentane B) 3 – Bromopentane
C) 2 – Hydroxypropanoic acid D) 2 - Butanol
75) Choose the correct equation.
C
A) C m  B) q=cmT C) CP – CV = R D) All of these
n
76) Consider the reaction given below.

Here, A and B respectively are

A) Propene and methanol B) Propane and ethanol
C) Propene and ethanol D) Propene and ethanol

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77) Given,
Cdiamond+O2→CO2; H = -395.3 kJ/mol
Cgraphite+O2→CO2; H = -393.4 kJ/mol
The enthalpy change (H) for the reaction
Cgraphite →Cdiamond in kJ/mol is
A) +1.9 B) – 1.9 C) +3.8 D) – 3.8
78) Consider the following reaction,
CaC2 + H2O → X
Here X refers to
A) Ethene B) Ethyne C) Methyne D) None of these
79) In the given reaction,
H2(g) → 2H(g); H = 435.0 kJ mol-1
The enthalpy change is known as
A) Enthalpy of formation B) Enthalpy of atomisation
C) Bond dissociation enthalpy D) Both B and C
80) Consider the reaction given below

32333) K
+ Conc. HNO3 + Conc. H2SO4 (  A + H2O

Here, A refers to

A) B) C) D) All of these

81) The correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides toward SN1 is as follows.
A) 20 halide > 30 halide > 10 halide > CH3X
B) 30 halide > 10 halide > 20 halide > CH3X
C) 30 halide > 20 halide > 10 halide > CH3X
D) CH3X > 10 halide > 20 halide > 30 halide
82) For a given reaction , H = 355 kJ mol-1 and S = 83.6 JK-1 mol-1. The reaction is
spontaneous at (Assume that H and S do not vary with temperature)
A) T < 425 K B) T > 425 K C) All temperatures D) T > 298 K
83) Consider the reaction given below.

+ RX    A + HCl,
Anhyd . AlCl 3

A) Methylbenzene B) Toluene C) Alkylbenzene D) Ethylbenzene

84) The allylic and benzylic halides follow (NCERT XII, HDA, P.284, Q.40)
A) SN1 mechanism B) SN2 mechanism
C) Both SN1 and SN2 mechanism D) None of the above
85) If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at
270C, the entropy change for the process would be
A) 1.0 J mol-1 K-1 B) 0.1 J mol-1 K-1
C) 100 J mol-1 K-1 D) 10 J mol-1 K-1

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86) Consider the reaction given below

Ni ,
+ A 

Here, A is
A) H2 B) 2H2 C) 3H2 D) 4H2
87) Which of the following is not correct?
A) PhCH2Br > PhCHBrCH3 > PhCBr (CH3)2 (SN1)
B) R – I > R – Br > R – Cl (SN2)
C) CH2 = CH – Cl < CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl < PhCH2 – Cl (SN1)
D) R – Cl < R – Br < R – I (SN1)
88) A process will be spontaneous at all temperature if
A) H>0 and S<0 B) H<0 and S>0
C) H<0 and S<0 D) H>0 and S>0
89) Consider the following alkyl halides:
C2H5I C2H5Cl C2H5Br C2H5F
I II III IV
The correct order of dehydrohalogenation is
A) I>III>II>IV B) III>IV>II>I C) I>II>III>IV D) IV>III>II>I
90) Select the product of the reaction

+ Cl2   ?
Anhydrous
FeCl3

A) B) C) D) Both A and C

Biology
91) Who found that in green parts of plants glucose is made and glucose is stored as
starch:
A) Sach B) Arnon C) Arnold D) Englemann
92) The membranous system of grana is responsible for
A) trapping light energy but no ATP and NADPH2 formation
B) trapping light energy and also for fixation of CO2
C) for ATP and NADPH2 formation but not for light trapping
D) for light capturing and also for NADPH2 and ATP formation
93) What is/are the function of accessory pigments?
A) they enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilized for
photosynthesis
B) they absorb light and transfer the energy to reaction centre
C) they protect reaction centre from photo-oxidation
D) all
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94) Which helped in confirming that oxygen evolved in photosynthesis comes from water.
A) H218O B) 14CO2 C) 15NO3 D) 3H2O
95) If all the carriers involved in light reaction of green plants are placed in a sequence on
redox potential scale, a characteristics shape like _____ is formed.
A) V B) Z D) Y D) 
96) Which one is false?
A) H2S, not H2O, is involved in photosynthesis of purple sulphur bacteria
B) Light and dark reaction are stopped in the absence of light
C) Calvin cycle in the grana of chloroplast
D) ATP is produced during light reaction via chemiosmosis
97) In chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP, H+ diffuses through ATP-synthetase-
A) From the stroma into thylakoid lumen/space
B) From thylakoid space into stroma
C) From the cytoplasm into stroma
D) From the periplastidal space to stroma
98) Which of the following begins the Calvin cycle and is the commitment step that
results the entire pathway being carried out?
A) 3PGA    3 pgald
ATP , NaDPH 2
B) The regeneration of RuBP
C) CO2 + RuBO  3PGA D) As a Cycle, it can start at any point
99) Why Calvin cycle is called C3 cycle?
A) Primay CO2 acceptor is C3 compound
B) many intermediate compounds are C3 compound
C) 1st Satble product is 3PGa which is a C3 compound
D) None
100) C4 plants are able to minimize photorespiration because C4 plants-
A) Do not carry out the Calvin cycle B) Use PEPCase to intiate CO2 fixation
C) Exclude Calvin cycle D) Do not show respiration
101) I. They have special type of leaf anatomy
II. They tolerate higher temperature
III. They show a response to high light insensities.
IV. They lack photo-respiration V. They have greater productivity of biomass
The above characters are shown by:
A) All monocots B) C3 plants C) All C2 plants D) All C4 plants
102) Cam helps the plants in:
A) Reproduction B) Conserving water
C) Secondary growth D) Disease resistance
103) The first hypothesis that oxygen released during photosynthesis is derived from water
was proposed by:
A) Engelmann B) Priestley C) Van Niel D) Blackman
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104) Green house crops such as tomatoes and bell pepper produce higher yields. This due
to:
A) CO2 enriched atmosphere leads to higher yields
B) CO2 is a limiting factor to photosynthesis
C) Diffused light in green house
D) Tomatoes and bell pepper are not C3 plants
105) Photo-respiratory reactions are operates in:
A) Chloroplast, ribosomes and peroxisomes
B) Chloroplast, mitochondria and peroxisomes
C) Mitochondria, peroxisomes and lysosomes
D) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and ribosomes
106) Glycolysis was discovered by:
A) Embden B) Meyerhof C) Parnas D) All
107) Respiration is:
A) Anabolic + Exergonic B) Catabolic + Exergonic
C) catabolic + Endergonic D) Anabolic + Endergonic
108) Function of respiration is to:
A) Make ATP B) Make NADH
C) Get rid of glucose D) Get rid of CO2
109) For gaseous exchange plants have:
A) Stomata B) Lenticels C) Porin D) A and B
110) Which one is false for glycolysis?
A) Substarte level phosphorylation occurs B) The end products are CO2 and H2O
C) ATP is formed D) ATP is used
111) During glycolysis for each mole of glucose oxidised to pyruvate:
A) 6 moles of ATP are produced B) 2 moles of NAD+ are produced
C) 2 moles of ATP are used, and 4 moles of ATP are produced
D) No ATP is produced
112) Which of the following cellular metabolic processes can occur in the presence or
absence of O2?
A) Glycolysis B) Fermentation
C) TCA cycle D) Electron transport coupled with chemiosmosis
113) If O2 is not present, yeast cells break down glucose to:
A) CO2 + H2O B) CO2 + Lactic acid
C) CO2+ pyruvic acid D) C2H5OH and CO2
114) In term of efficiency at converting the energy of glucose in ATP:
A) Aerobic glycolysis is better than TCA cycle
B) Eukaryotic cells are more efficient than prokaryotic cells
C) Electron transport chain is not necessary for high efficiency
D) Anaerobic conditions are much less efficient than aerobic

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115) Which of the following statement regarding metabolic pathways is false?
A) Many of the steps of glycolysis can run in reverse
B) Starch, sucrose or glycogen must be hydrolysed before it can enter the glycolysis
C) After fats are digested glycerol enters glycolysis by forming DHAP
D) After fats digestion, fatty acids can no longer participate in cellular respiration
116) In a chloroplast, the highest number of protons are found in
A) Stroma B) Lumen of thylakoids
C) Inter-membrane space D) Antennae complex
117) Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in:
A) Grana B) Pyrenoid C) Stroma D) Both grana and stroma
118) Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO2 levels
because of:
A) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
B) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2
C) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products
D) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
119) The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of
the following pairs of elements is involved in this reaction?
A) Manganese and potassium B) Magnesium and molybdenum
C) Magnesium and chlorine D) Manganese and chlorine
120) In photosynthesis, the light-independent recations take place at
A) Photosystem I B) Photosystem II
C) Stromal matrix D) Thylakoid lumen
121) Photosystem II occurs in:
A) Stroma B) Cytochrome
C) Grana D) Mitochondrial surface
122) A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is
A) Transpiration B) Glycolysis
C) Photosynthesis D) Photorespiration
123) In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
A) thin walls, many intercellular space and no chloroplasts
B) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
C) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts
D) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
124) C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to
A) Higher leaf area
B) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells
C) Presence of thin cuticle
D) Lower rate of photorespiration
125) In the leaves of C4 plants malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the
cells of
A) bundle sheath B) phloem C) epidermis D) mesophyll

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126) Stomata of CAM plants
A) never open B) are always open
C) open during the day and close at night
D) open during the night and close during the day
127) Which pair is wrong?
A) C3 – Maize B) C4 – Kranz anatomy
C) Calvin cycle – PGA D) Hatch and Slack Pathway – Oxalo acetic Acid
128) End products of aerobic respiration are
A) sugar and oxygen B) water and energy
C) Carbon dioxide, water and energy D) carbon dioxide, and energy
129) How many ATP molecules are produced by aerobic oxidation of one molecule of
glucose?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 38 D) 34
130) Fermentation products of Yeast are
A) H2O + CO2 B) Methyl alcohol + CO2
C) methyl alcohol + Water D) ethyl alcohol + CO2
131) End product of glycolysis is
A) acetyl CaA B) pyruvic Acid
C) glucose 1-phosphate D) fructose 1-phosphate
132) EMP can produce a total of
A) 6 ATP B) 8 ATP C) 24 ATP D) 38 ATP
133) Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is
known as
A) TCA-pathway B) glycolysis C) HMS_-pathway D) Krebs cycle
134) NADP + is reduced to NADPH is
A) HMPs B) Calvin Cycle C) glycoysis D) EMP
135) The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the
formation of
A) ATP in one large oxidation reaction B) sugars
C) nucleic acids D) ATP in small stepwise units
136) Mendel did not purpose the theory of:
A) Dominance B) Incomplete dominance
C) Segregation D) Independent assortment
137) Pleiotropic gene has:
A) Single genotype B) Multiple genotype
C) Multiple Phenotype D) Single Phenotype
138) A cross between hybrid and recessive parent is:
A) Back cross B) Test cross
C) monohybrid cross D) Dihybrid cross
139) In a red and white flowered cross of Mirabilis Jalapa, F2 generation has red, pink and
white-flowered in the ratio of:
A) 2:1:1 B) 1:1:2 C) 1:2:1 D) 1:0:1

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140) How many types of gametes will be produced by individuals having genotype AaBbCc?
A) Two B) Four C) Six D) Eight
141) Substitution of a purine nucleotide by pyrimidine nucleotide is called:
A) Transition B) Transversion C) inversion D) Transduction
142) Trisomy has a chromosome complement of:
A) 2n-1 B) 2n+2 C) 2n+3 D) 2n+1
143) Which of the following truly represents a heterozygous organism?
A) XXyy B) RRYy C) xxYY D) RrYy
144) Which one of the following is sex-linked disease?
A) Haemophilia B) Down’s syndrome C) Albinism D) Turner’s syndrome
145) The combined form of coupling and repulsion is:
A) Crossing over B) Mutation C) Linkage D) Disjunction
146) In mice black coat colour (allele B) is dominant to brown coat colour (allele B). The
offspring of a cross between a black mouse (BB) and a brown mouse were allowed to
interbreed. What percentage of the progeny would have black coats?
A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100%
147)
Column I Column II
I. Chromosomal aberration A. An additional sex chromosome
II. Down’s syndrome B. Inversion
III. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Presence of an extra chromosome
IV. Turner’s syndrome D. Absence of sex chromosome
The correct match is:
A) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C B) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
C) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D D) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
148)
Column I Column II
I. Linkage A. Recombinaton of gene
II. Mutation B.More than two sets of chromosomes
III. Crossing over C. Morgan
IV. Polyploidy D. Hugo de Vries
The correct match is:
A) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D B) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
C) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A D) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
149) Which of the following hormones produces anti-inflammatory reactions, suppresses
immune response, stimulates RBC production, and is also involved in maintaining
cardiovascular system and kidney functions?
A) Aldosterone B) Epnephrine C) Cortisol D) Norepinephrine

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150) Which of the following best describe the functions of corticosteroid hormones?
I. Depresses the immune response
II. Stimulates sexual and reproductive activity
III. Influences blood glucose concentration
IV. Influences ionic and osmotic concentration of blood
A) All B) I, II, III C) IV D)None
151) Which of the following statements is correct about glucagon?
A) Glucagon acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes)
B) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
C) Glucagon reduces the cellular glucose uptake and utilization
D) All
152) Insulin, a peptide hormone like glucagon, has all the following effects except —
A) Insulin acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose
uptake and utilization
B) Insulin causes a rapid movement of glucose from blood to hepatoc’jtes and
adipocytes
C) Insulin is hypoglycemic factor D) Insulin reduces glycogenesis
153) The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained jointly by —
A) Insulin and epinephrine B) Insulin and nor-epinephrine
C) Insulin and glucagon D) Glucagon and cortisol
154) Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex disorder called –
A) Diabetes mellitus B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Cretinism D) Myxoedema
155) A pair of testis is present in the ___________ sac (outside abdomen) of male individual.
Testis consists of__________tubules and,___________ or interstitial tissue
A) Testicular, seminiferous, stromal B) Scrotal seminiferous, stromal
C) Scrotal, uriniferous, stromal D) Scrotal, semniferous, seminal
156) Go through the following points —
I. Regulate the development, maturation and functions of epididymis, vas deferens,
seminal vesicle, prostrate gland. urethra, etc.
II. Stimulate muscular growth of facial and axillary hairs, aggressiveness, low pitch of
voice, etc.
III. Stimulates spermatogenesis
IV. Act on CNS and sexual behaviour (libido)
V. Produce anabolic (synthetic) effect on protein and carbohydrate metabolism
VI. The Leydig’s cell/interstitial cells (present in intertubular space) secrete this
hormone under the influence of LH
Above points are associated with _________ hormones—
A) FSH B) Progesterone
C) Androgens (e.g. Testosterone) D) Melatonin

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157) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Testis and ovary function as a primary sex organ as well as endocrine gland
B) Ovaries are located in thoracic cavity of females
C) Ovary produces ovum, 2 groups of steroid hormones (estrogen and progesterone)
D) Ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissue
158) Find the odd one out with respect to site of hormones production —
A) Epinephrine, Nor-epinephrine,Cortisol B) FSH, TSH, GH
C) Progesterone, Testosterone, Relaxin D) Insulin, Glucagon, Thymosin
159) After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted into —
A) Graafian follicle B) Corpus callosum
C) Corpus lutem D) Corpus spongiosum
160) Progesterone —
A) Supports pregnancy
B) Stimulates the formation of mammary alveoli
C) Stimulates milk secretion (Lactation) D) All
161) Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
A) Sutton B) Boveri C) Morgan D) Mendel
162) The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2
plants, can be understood using
A) Wenn diagram B) Pie diagram C) A pyramid diagram D) Punnet square
163) In a marriage between male with blood group A and female with blood group B, the
progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible genotype of
parents?
A) IA i (Male); IB i (Female) B) IA i (Male); IB IB (Female)
C) IA IA (Male); IB IB (Female) D) IA IA (Male); IB i (Female)
164) In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a ehite flower and in F1
generation, pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2
generation showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from
the following.
A) This experiment does not follow the principle of dominance
B) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
1 1 1
C) Ratio of F2 is (Red): (Pink): (White)
4 2 4
D) Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment
165) A woman has an X – linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This
chromosome can be inherited by
A) Only daughters B) Only sons
C) Both sons and daughters D) Only grandchildren

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166) Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
humans?
a) Dominance b) Co-dominance c) Multiple allele
d) Incomplete dominance e) Polygenic inheritance
A) b, c and e B) a, b and c C) a, c and e D) b, d and e
167) The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IAIB and IAI.
Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and
phenotypes are possible?
A) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes B) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
C) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes D) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
168) Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization
experiments?
A) 1840-1850 B) 1857-1869 C) 1870-1877 D) 1856-1863
169) Match the terms in Column – I with their description in Column – II and choose the
correct option.
Column – I Column – II
a) Dominance i) Many genes govern a single character
b) Codominance ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele
expresses itself
c) Pleiotropy iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express
themselves fully
d) Polygenic inheritance iv) A single gene influences many characters
a b c d a b c d
A) ii i iv iii B) ii iii iv i
C) iv i ii iii D) iv iii i ii
170) Alleles are
A) true breeding homozygotes B) different molecular forms of a gene
C) heterozygotes D) different phenotype
171) Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column – I Column – II
a) Pituitary gland i) Grave’s disease
b) Thyroid gland ii) Diabetes mellitus
c) Adrenal gland iii) Diabetes insipidus
d) Pancreas iv) Addison’s disease
a b c d a b c d
A) iii ii i iv B) iii i iv ii
C) ii i iv iii D) iv iii i ii
172) Select the correct statement
A) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia
B) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes
C) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia
D) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis
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173) Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in
height, because.
A) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
B) Bones loose their sensitivity of Growth Hormone in adults.
C) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.
D) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
174) Which one of the following hormones though synthesized elsewhere is stored and
released by the master gland?
A) Luteinizing hormone B) Prolactin
C) Melanocyte stimulating hormone D) Antidiuretic hormone
175) A pregnant female deliver a body who suffers from stunted growth, mental
retardation/low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of
A) Low secretion of growth hormone B) Cancer of the thyroid gland
C) Over secretion of pars distalis D) Deficiency of iodine in diet
176) Norepinephrine
1) Is released by sympathetic fibres 2) Is released by parasympathetic fibres
3) Increases the heart rate 4) Decreases blood pressure
Which of the above said statements are correct?
A) 1 and 4 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 2 and 4
177) Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?
A) Stroma B) Germinal epithelium
C) Vetelline membrane D) Graafian follicle
178) Sertoli cell are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as
A) GH B) Prolactin C) LH D) FSH
179) Adrenaline directly affects on
A) S.A. node B) -cell of Langerhans
C) dorsal root of spinal cord D) epithelial cells of stomach
180) Hormones, thyroxine, adrenaline and the pigment melanin are formed from
A) tryptophan B) glycine C) tyrosine D) proline

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