Fiitjee: Common Test

FIITJEE COMMON TEST
(eSANKALPRN024,WA1-WA4,RA1)
CLASS-IX-PHASE-IV-SAT
PHASE TEST
QP CODE:
Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 100
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Instructions
 The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.
 Each question carries +1 marks.
 There is No negative marking.
 Attempt All questions.
 Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
 All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
 The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
 This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
Name of the Candidate : ……………….……………………………………………………………
Enrollment Number :……………………………………………………………………………..

2020-CLASS-IX-PHASE-IV-SMPCB-SAT-(eSANKALPRN024,WA1-WA4,RA1)-(OBJ)2
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
SECTION I: SOCIAL SCIENCE

(Part A)
1. Which one of the following cricket clubs was founded in 1787?

(A) Marylebone Cricket Club (B) Indian Cricket Club
(C) Hembledon Cricket Club (D) Stockholm Cricket Club
2. In which one of the following years was the first-leg before law published?
(A) 1780 (B) 1784
(C) 1774 (D) 1775
3. The rich people who played cricket for pleasure were known as:
(A) Amateurs (B) Patronage
(C) Professionals (D) Cricket players
4. Which one of the following was the first Indian Cricket club?
(A) Calcutta Cricket Club (B) Mumbai Cricket Club
(C) Delhi Cricket Club (D) Oriental Cricket Club
5. In which one of the following years, India entered the world of test cricket?
(A) 1930 (B) 1929
(C) 1932 (D) 1928
6. Which one of the following countries had played the first one-day international match in 1971?
(A) India and England (B) Pakistan and South Africa
(C) India and Pakistan (D) England and Australia
7. Which one of the following had created a global market for cricket?
(A) Test series
(B) Satellite television and worldwide reach of multinational television
(C) World Series Cricket
(D) One-day international cricket match
8. The first professional to lead the English team

(A) Vijay Hazare (B) Thomas Hughes
(C) Len Hutton (D) Garry Sobers
9. Mulattos were
(A) Afro Caribbeans (B) Blacks
(C) Tribals (D) Afro Europeans
10. Which of the following constituted the 5th team in the Pentangular Tournament?
(A) The Europeans (B) The Christians
(C) The Rest (D) The Muslims
Space for Rough Work
11. Which one of the following was considered the most suitable national dress of India for men?
(A) Waist length coat (B) Chapkan (a long buttoned coat)
(C) Turban and Shoes (D) Bhaggy trousers
12. Name the wife of first member of Indian Civil Services (ICS) who adopted the Parsi style of wearing the sari?
(A) Sarala (B) lady Bachoobai
(C) Jnanadanadini Tagore (D) Kasturba Sari
13. Why was Lord Curzon decided to partition Bengal?

(A) To control the growing opposition to British rule
(B) To increase the export of cotton and indigo
(C) To stop the Swadeshi Movement
(D) To increase the demand for raw material such as cotton and indigo
14. When and where did Gandhiji first appear in a lungi and kurta with his shaved head?
(A) 1904, Johannesburg (B) 1911, Pretoria
(C) 1900, Adelaide (D) 1913, Durban
15. Changes in women's clothing came about as a result of the _____________

(A) Two world wars (B) American Revolution
(C) Russian Revolution (D) French Revolution
16. Ideas of simplicity in clothing reflected

(A) equality (B) liberty
(C) fraternity (D) social inferiors
17. The Rational Dress Society was started in

(A) France (1881) (B) USA (1881)
(C) Britain (1881) (D) India (1881)
18. The National Women's Suffrage Association was headed by

(A) Mrs Stanton (B) Lucy Stone
(C) Amelia Bloomer (D) Elizabeth II
19. The first community to incorporate western styles in dress form in India were
(A) Muslims (B) Dalits
(C) Parsis (D) Hindus
20. Which of the following two items created misunderstanding among the British and Indians?
(A) Turban and hat (B) Turban and shoes
(C) Khadi and mill made cloth (D) Wearing and taking off of shoes
21. Which one of the following states is the most populous state of India?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra
22. The magnitude of population growth refers to :

(A) The total population of an area
(B) The member of persons added each year
(C) The rate of which population increases
(D) The number of female per thousand males
23. India's share in world population

(A) 20% (B) 16.7%
(C) 18% (D) 14.7%
24. The average density of population in India in 2011 was

(A) 284 person/sq. km (B) 324 persons sq. km
(C) 382 persons sq. km (D) 395 persons sq. km
25. The female literacy level in India in 2011 was

(A) 65.46% (B) 54%
(C) 75% (D) 80%
26. Name the state having the highest percentage of literacy level :
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) Punjab (D) West Bengal
27. The rate or pace of population increase per year is referred to as which of the following?
(A) Absolute increase (B) Magnitude of increase
(C) Annual growth rate (D) Population change
28. Fundamental Rights can be suspended by

(A) The Union Cabinet (B) The President
(C) The Chief Justice of India (D) Either of the above
29. Which one of the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic using of human beings?
(A) Right to equality (B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to freedom (D) None of the above
30. Which of the following statements regarding the rights is not true?
(A) Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law
(B) Rights protect minorities from the oppressions of majority
(C) In most democracies, the basic rights of the citizens are written down in the constitution
(D) Under no circumstance, the government can violate the rights of its citizens
31. Of which country was Kosovo a province before its split?

(A) USSR (B) Yugoslavia
(C) South Africa (D) Germany
32. What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ as?
(A) The brain of our Constitution (B) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(C) The heart of our Constitution (D) The soul of our Constitution
33. How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian Constitution provide?
(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 8
34. In India which one of the following is not a Constitutional Right?

(A) Right to freedom (B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality (D) Right to constitutional remedies
35. Stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India
(FCI) :
(A) Food stock (B) Food grain stock
(C) Buffer stock (D) All the above
36. The price at which the food grains are sold to the consumers by the fair price shops in known as
(A) Purchase Price (B) Consumers Price
(C) Issue Price (D) Selling Price
37. 'Seasonal’ and 'Chronic' are the two types of :

(A) Poverty (B) Hunger
(C) Insecurity (D) Food availability
38. Which of the following crop's production increased rapidly in India after Green Revolution?
(A) Mustard & Groundnut (B) Sugarcane and Sunflower
(C) Wheat and Rice (D) Tea and Coffee
39. The concept of ‘entitlements’ was introduced by :

(A) Pranab Mukherjee (B) Amartya Sen
(C) Manmohan Singh (D) Sonia Gandhi
40. Which institution was set up by ‘Maharashtra Academy of Development Science’ to facilitate a network of
NGOs?
(A) Gramin banks (B) Grain banks
(C) Co-operative banks (D) Commercial banks
SECTION II: MATHEMATICS

(Part A)
1. The sum of the length, breadth and the height of a cuboid is 5 cm and length of its diagonal is 3 cm.
Find the total surface area of the cuboid.
(A) 30 cm2 (B) 20 cm2
(C) 15 cm 2
(D) 18 cm2
2. Two hemispherical vessels can hold 10.8 liters and 50 liters of liquid respectively. The ratio of their inner
curved surface areas is
(A) 16 : 25 (B) 25 : 9
(C) 9 : 25 (D) 4 : 3
3. Find the total surface area of a hollow metallic hemisphere whose internal radius is 14 cm and the thickness
of the metal is 7cm.
(A) 4774 cm2 (B) 4477cm2
(C) 4747 cm 2
(D) 7744 cm2
4. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and BOC = 130°. Then
value of ADC is
(A) 65° (B) 25°
(C) 55° (D) 75°
5. A right circular cylinder of volume 1386 cm 3 is cut from a right circular cylinder of radius 4 cm and height 49
cm, such that a hollow cylinder of uniform thickness, with a height of 49 cm and an outer radius of 4 cm is left
behind. Find the thickness of the hollow cylinder left behind.
(A) 0.5 cm (B) 2 cm
(C) 1.5 cm (D) 1 cm
6. The volume of a right prism, whose base is an equilateral triangle is 1500 cm3 and the height of the prism
is 125 cm. Find the side of the base of the prism.
(A) 8 cm (B) 4 cm
(C) 16 cm (D) 24 cm
7. A circular pizza is to be shared equally among eight friends such

that each gets a share equal to sector AOB (as in figure). The value
of AFC is
(A) (B)
(C) (D) None of these
8. A circular garden of radius 15m is surrounded by a circular path of width 7m. If the path is to be covered with
tiles at a rate of Rs 10 per m2, then find the total cost of the work. (in Rs.)
(A) 8410 (B) 7140
(C) 8140 (D) 7410
9. The point of concurrency of angle bisectors is called as

(A) orthocentre (B) incentre
(C) circumcentre (D) centroid
10. When the radius of a sphere is doubled, the volume of the sphere becomes
(A) double (B) four times
(C) eight times (D) none of these
11. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 264 m2 and its volume is 924 m3. The height of the cylinder is
(A) 4 m (B) 6 m
(C) 8 m (D) 10 m
12. The diagonal of a cube of length 5 m is:

(A) m (B) m
(C) m (D) m
13. In the given figure, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. The value of x is

(A) 85°
(B) 70°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
14. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle and PQR is

straight line. The value of x is:
(A) 10° (B) 12°
(C) 15° (D) 18°
15. Two numbers are chosen from 1 to 5. The probability for the two numbers to be consecutive is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. If V is the volume of cuboid of dimension a, b, c and s is the surface area then is equal to
(A) (B)
(C) (D) none of these
17. A cone with radius equal to 2 cm and height 2 cm is melted to form a sphere of radius (r). What is the radius
(r) of sphere?
(A) 21/4 (B) 21/2
(C) 2 1/3
(D) 21/5
18. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. The value of x + z is
(A) 180°
(B) 170°
(C) 160°
(D) 150°
19. The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio of 7 : 4. A path 4m wide running all around
outside it has an area of 416cm2 so the length and breadth of the field are
(A) 28m, 16m (B) 4m, 4m
(C) 32m, 16m (D) 24m, 4m
20. The ratio of areas of two squares, one having diagonal double than the other is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 4 : 1
SECTION III: PHYSICS

(Part A)
1. Which of the following cannot travel through vacuum?

(A) Light waves (B) Heat waves
(C) X-rays (D) Sound waves
2. A big explosion on the moon cannot be heard on the earth because

(A) The explosion produces high frequency sound waves which are inaudibles
(B) Sound waves require a material medium for propagation
(C) Sound waves are absorbed in the atmosphere of moon
(D) Sound waves are absorbed in earth’s atmosphere
3. Mechanical waves (sound waves) in a gas is

(A) Transverse (B) Longitudinal
(C) Neither transverse nor longitudinal (D) Either transverse or longitudinal
4. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100 m apart and whose velocity is 25 m/sec. These
waves strike the boat once every
(A) 2500 sec (B) 0.25 sec
(C) 1500 sec (D) 4 sec
5. The wavelength of sound is 10 cm. Its frequency is (if speed of sound is 330 ms -1)
(A) 330 cycle per sec (B) 3.3 kilocycle per sec
(C) 30 megacycle per sec (D) 3×109 cycle per sec
6. A source of frequency 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.02 m. How long does it take the wave to travel
300 m?
(A) 70 sec (B) 60 sec
(C) 12 sec (D) 30 sec
7. The velocity of sound in any gas depends upon

(A) Intensity (B) Amplitude
(C) Density and elasticity (D) None of these
8. If frequency of a wave is 330 Hz, and velocity of wave in air is 330 ms -1, then, the wavelength of the wave is :–
(A) 0.5 m (B) 1 m
(C) 2 m (D) 3 m
9. Which of the following sound waves can we hear :–

(A) 10 Hz (B) 25000 Hz
(C) 16000 Hz (D) 5 Hz
10. In which of following medium, speed of sound is highest :–

(A) Air (B) Water
(C) Steel (D) Vacuum
11. Time period of a second pendulum is :–

(A) 4 sec (B) 2 sec
(C) 10 sec (D) 1 sec
12. The frequency of a source of sound is 15 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in 2 minutes?
(A) 300 (B) 900
(C) 1800 (D) 500
13. A source is producing 15 waves in 3 sec, the frequency of wave is :–

(A) 4 Hz (B) 10 Hz
(C) 5 Hz (D) 15 Hz
SECTION IV: CHEMISTRY

(Part A)
1. In which one of the following pairs the two species are both isoelectronic and isotopic?
(Atomic numbers : Ca = 20, Ar = 18, K = 19, Mg = 12, Fe = 26, Na = 11)
(A) 40Ca2+ and 40Ar (B) 39K+ and 40K+
24 2+
(C) Mg and Mg 25
(D) 23Na and 24Na+
2. If a species has 16 protons, 18 electrons and 16 neutrons. Find the species and its charge
(A) S1– (B) Si2+
(C) P 3–
(D) S2–
3. Energy of one mole of photons of radiation whose frequency is 5 × 10 14 Hz isd
(A) 199.51 kJ mol–1 (B) 189.51 kJ mol–1
(C) 198.51 kJ mol –1
(D) 188.51 kJ mol–1
4. If the energies of the two photons are in the ratio of 3 : 2, their wavelengths will be in the ratio of
(A) 9 : 4 (B) 2 : 3
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 3 : 2
5. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

(A) Azimuthal quantum number (B) Spin quantum number
(C) Principal quantum number (D) Magnetic quantum number
6. Which of the following atoms in its ground state has the highest number of unpaired electrons?
(A) Chromium (24) (B) Iron (26)
(C) Manganese (25) (D) Vanadium (23)
7. The maximum number of electron in a subshell is given by the expression

(A) 2n2 (B) 4l + 1
(C) 4l + 2 (D) 4l – 2
8. In the ground state of Cu+, the number of shells occupied, subshells occupied and unpaired electrons
respectively are
(A) 4, 8, 0 (B) 3, 6, 1
(C) 3, 6, 0 (D) 4, 7, 2
9. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is

(A) ns2np3 (B) ns2np4
(C) ns2np5 (D) ns2np6
10. Nitrogen has the electronic configuration 1s 2 2s2 and not 1s2 2s2 which is determined
by
(A) Pauli exclusion principle (B) Aufbau principle
(C) Hund’s rule (D) Uncertainty principle
11. The waves used by artificial satellites for communication is……..

(A) Microwaves (B) Infrared waves
(C) Radio waves (D) X-rays
12. An atom has a net charge of 1. It has 18 electrons and 20 neutrons. Its mass number is
(A) 37 (B) 35
(C) 38 (D) 20
13. If three neutrons are added to the nuclei of 92U235, the new nucleus will have an atomic number of
(A) 89 (B) 95
(C) 90 (D) 92
SECTION V: BIOLOGY
(Part A)
1. Platyhelminthes have:
(A) Three germ layers (B) No true coelom
(C) Dorso-ventrally flattened body (D) All of the above features
2. Octopus, Pila and Unio belongs to the phylum:

(A) Echinodermata (B) Mollusca
(C) Arthropoda (D) Annelida
3. Which character is not found in Vertebrates?

(A) Presence of notochord (B) Having paired gill pouches
(C) Having ventral nerve cord (D) Having coelom
4. An example of phylum Echinodermata is:

(A) Prawn (B) Starfish
(C) Octopus (D) Apis
5. Choanocytes are unique to:

(A) Protozoa (B) Porifera
(C) Mollusca (D) Ctenophora
6. ‘Systema Naturae, Genera Plantarum’, was written by:

(A) Darwin (B) Linnaeus
(C) Aristotle (D) John Ray
7. The causative organism of elephantiasis belongs to phylum:

(A) Arthropoda (B) Protozoa
(C) Porifera (D) Nematoda
8. The first embryophyte but non-vascular plants is:

(A) Marchantia (B) Riccia
(C) Funaria (D) All of these
9. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the taxonomic hierarchy?

(A) Division, order, family, class (B) Division, class, order, family
(C) Family, division, order, class (D) Class, order, family, division
10. The kingdom Protista consists of:

(A) Multicellular organisms whose chromosomes are not enclosed in a nuclear membrane
(B) Unicellular organisms whose chromosomes are not enclosed in a nuclear membrane
(C) Unicellular organisms whose chromosomes are enclosed in a nuclear membrane
(D) Multicellular organisms whose chromosomes are enclosed in a nuclear membrane
11. Which of these is not included in the kingdom Fungi?

(A) Plants with chloroplasts (B) Organism with hyphae
(C) Organisms which grow on tree trunk (D) Moulds
12. Which of the following are characteristics of both bacteria and fungi?
(A) Cell wall, unicellular and mitochondria
(B) Cell wall, DNA and plasma membrane
(C) Plasma membrane, multicellularity and Golgi apparatus
(D) Nucleus, organelles and unicellularity
13. Cavity present in sponges is called………………

(A) Coelenteron (B) Spongocoel
(C) Pseudocoelom (D) Schizocoelom
14. Which of the following kingdoms contains ‘extremophiles’?

(A) Eubacteria (B) Archaebacteria
(C) Fungi (D) Protista
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

(eSANKALPRN024,WA1-WA4,RA1)
CLASS-IX-PHASE-IV-SAT
PHASE TEST
QP CODE:
Scholastic Aptitude Test
ANSWER
Social Science-SECTION-I (Part –A)
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. A
16. A 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A
26. A 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. D
31. B 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. C
36. C 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. B
Mathematics-SECTION-II (Part –A)
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. A 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
Physics-SECTION-III (Part –A)
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. C
Chemistry-SECTION-IV (Part –A)
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. C
11. A 12. A 13. D
Biology-SECTION-V (Part –A)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. B

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Name of the Candidate : ……………….……………………………………………………………

Enrollment Number :……………………………………………………………………………..

SECTION I: SOCIAL SCIENCE

1. Which one of the following cricket clubs was founded in 1787?

8. The first professional to lead the English team

Space for Rough Work

13. Why was Lord Curzon decided to partition Bengal?

15. Changes in women's clothing came about as a result of the _____________

16. Ideas of simplicity in clothing reflected

17. The Rational Dress Society was started in

18. The National Women's Suffrage Association was headed by

Space for Rough Work

22. The magnitude of population growth refers to :

23. India's share in world population

24. The average density of population in India in 2011 was

25. The female literacy level in India in 2011 was

28. Fundamental Rights can be suspended by

31. Of which country was Kosovo a province before its split?

Space for Rough Work

34. In India which one of the following is not a Constitutional Right?

37. 'Seasonal’ and 'Chronic' are the two types of :

39. The concept of ‘entitlements’ was introduced by :

Space for Rough Work

SECTION II: MATHEMATICS

7. A circular pizza is to be shared equally among eight friends such

(C) (D) None of these

Space for Rough Work

9. The point of concurrency of angle bisectors is called as

12. The diagonal of a cube of length 5 m is:

13. In the given figure, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. The value of x is

14. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle and PQR is

Space for Rough Work

(C) (D) none of these

Space for Rough Work

SECTION III: PHYSICS

1. Which of the following cannot travel through vacuum?

2. A big explosion on the moon cannot be heard on the earth because

3. Mechanical waves (sound waves) in a gas is

Space for Rough Work

7. The velocity of sound in any gas depends upon

9. Which of the following sound waves can we hear :–

10. In which of following medium, speed of sound is highest :–

11. Time period of a second pendulum is :–

13. A source is producing 15 waves in 3 sec, the frequency of wave is :–

Space for Rough Work

SECTION IV: CHEMISTRY

5. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

Space for Rough Work

7. The maximum number of electron in a subshell is given by the expression

9. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is

11. The waves used by artificial satellites for communication is……..

Space for Rough Work

2. Octopus, Pila and Unio belongs to the phylum:

3. Which character is not found in Vertebrates?

4. An example of phylum Echinodermata is:

5. Choanocytes are unique to:

6. ‘Systema Naturae, Genera Plantarum’, was written by: