TEST II Question
TEST II Question
TEST II Question
BDS
B.Sc. Nursing
Paramedical/Applied Sciences
Physics
1. The dot products of two vectors is 3 times the
magnitude of their cross product. Then angle between 10. The time period of a geostationary satellite is:
these vectors is: a. one year
b. one month
a. /2 b. /3 c. /4 d. /6 c. one day
2. The greatest height to which a man can throw is h. d. dependent on height above earth's surface
The greatest distance to which he can throw is: 11. A pendulum clock gains 5 seconds per day at 16°C and
a. h/2 b. h c. 2h d. 4h loses 15 seconds per day at 40°C. Then the clock keeps
3. The kinetic energy acquired by the body of mass m correct time at
after travelling a fixed distance from rest under the a. 20°C b. 22°C c. 24°C d. 32°C
action of a constant force is: 12. The internal energy of a gas is given by U = 2PV. It
a. directly proportional to expands from V0 to 2V0 against a constant pressure P0.
m The heat absorbed by the gas in the process is:
b. inversely proportional to m
a. 2P0V0 b. 4P0V0 c. 3P0V0 d. P0V0
c. directly proportional to m
13. When water vapour condenses into water, its entropy
d. independent of m
a. Increases
4. Two hail stones with radii in the ratio 1:2 fall from
a great height through the atmosphere. Then their b. Decrease
momenta are in the ratio of: c. Remains unchanged
a. 1:2 b. 1:4 c. 1:16 d. 1:32 d. First decreases and then increases
5. The dimensions for the ratio of magnetic moment and 14. The quantity PV/KT (K = Boltzmann's constant)
angular momentum are same as: represents:
a. specific charge a. number of moles of the gas
b. charge b. total mass of the gas
c. frequency d. time c. number of molecules in the gas
6. A body of weight W rests on a rough horizontal
d. density of the gas
plane. If the angle of friction be then least force
that will move the body on the plane will be: 15. A metal sheet has circular hole in it. when it is heated,
the diameter of the hole.
a. W cos b. W tan a. Increase
c. W cot d. W sin b. Decrease
7. A stone is revolved in a vertical circle. Speed at bottom c. Does not change
most point is 8gR , where R is the radius of circle. d. None of these
The ratio of tension at the top and the bottom is: 16. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3 c. 2 : 3 d. 1 : 4 pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied
8. The graph of velocity of a particle executing SHM which increases the internal energy of the gas is
against its displacement is: a. 2/5 b. 3/5 c. 3/7 d. 5/7
a. a sine carve 17. If a unit charge is taken from one point to another over
b. elliptical an equipotential surface , then
c.parabolic a. Work is done on the charge
d. a straight line b. Work is done by the charge
9. A tank is filled to a height H. The range of water c. Work on the charge is constant
coming out of a hole which is a depth H/4 from the d. No work is done
surface of water level is:
2H 3H 3H
a. b. c. 3 H d.
3 2 4
-1-
𝐺 𝐺
a. nG b. (n-1)G c. d.
𝑛 𝑛−1
33. Metallic sphere of radius ‘R’ is charged to potential
18. One cannot see through fog because of: ‘V’ . Then charge q is proportional to
a. refraction b. scattering a. V b. R
c. diffraction d. dispersion
c. Both a and b d. None
19. An achromatic combination of lenses produces
34. The conductivity of super conductor is
a. Images in black & white
a. Infinite b. Very large
b. Coloured images
c. Very small d. Zero
c. Images unaffected by variation of refractive index with
wavelength 35. In LCR circuit during resonance:
d. Highly enlarged images a. power factor is zero
20. The end correction of a reasonance column is 1 cm. b. power factor is one
Then the diameter of the tube is nearly c. power developed across resistance is zero
a. 2cm b. 3.3cm d. power developed across capacitance is not zero
c. 1.65 cm d. 6.65cm 36. The least best metal to be used for photoemission is
21. The apparent frequency noted by a listener moving a. Potassium b. Sodium
away from a stationary source is 10% less than the real c. Cesium d. Lithium
frequency. If the velocity of sound is 330m/s, then
37. An AC supply gives 30 V rms which is fed on a pure
velocity of the listener is
resistance of 10 ohms. The power dissipated in this is
a. 16.5 m/s b.8.25 m/s
a. 90.2 W b. 180 W c. 45 W d. 90 W
c.33m/s d. 60m/s
38. The density of nucleus is of order of
22. A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their
a. 103kg/m3 b. 1010kg/m3
lengths are in the ratio 2:1. The pole strength of the
two pieces will be in the ratio: c. 1017kg/m3 d. 1024kg/m3
a. 2:1 b. 1:2 c. 1:1 d. 4:1 39. The mutual inductance between two coils depends on.
23. One surface of a double convex lens is silvered . Then a. Medium between the coils
it will behave as: b. Seperation between the coils
a. Convergent lens b. Convex mirror c. Orientation between the coils
c. Plane glass plate d. Concave mirror d. All of these
24. The unit of illuminance is: 40. Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactor.
a. lumen b. lux c. candela d. watt The function of the moderator is
25. When sound waves travel from air to water, which of a. To control the energy released in reactor
the following remains constant? b. To absorb neutrons & stop chain reaction
a. Velocity b. Frequency c. To cool the reactor
c. Wavelength d. All the above d. To slow down the neutrons to thermal energies.
26. A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real 41. Field inside a solenoid is
image on reflection. The incident beam is
a. Directly proportional to length
a. Parallel b. Convergent
b. Directly proportional to current
c. Divergent d. None of these
c. Inversely proportional to number of turns
27. If pressure amplitude of a sound wave is tripled, the
d. Inversely proportional to current
intensity of sound increases by a factor of:
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d.√3 42. The production of continuous x-ray is due to
28. Magnetic field is caused by a. transition of electron between inners shells of the target
a. Stationary charge b. knock out of electron of target atom from inner shell by
b. A moving positive charge only incident bombarding electron.
c. A moving negative charge only c. acceleration of the incident electrons by nucleus of
d. Moving positive & negative charge both target atom
29. A 60V battery is connected to a 20 resistor. What is d. none of above
terminal potential corresponding to maximum heat
43. An -particle is accelerated through a p.d of 200
generation in the 20 resistor?
volts. The increase in its kinetic energy will be:
a. 20V b. 30V a. 100ev b. 200ev c. 400ev d. 800ev
c. 40V d. 10V 44. The electrons in hydrogen atom are transited from
30. A capacitance is a perfect insulator for ground state to third excited state. The number of
emission lines will be:
a. direct current b. alternating current
a. 10 b. 6 c. 4 d. 2
c. direct as well as alternating current 45. The emission of electrons does not occurs in:
d. none of the above a. thermionic emission
31. Two spheres of densities in the ratio 2 : 1 and b. X-ray emission
diameters in the ratio 1 : 2 have specific heats 1 : 3. c. Secondary emission
Then ratio of their thermal capacities will be d. photoelectric emission
a. 1:6 b. 1:12 c. 1:3 d. 1:4 46. The ozone layer absorbs
32. A voltmeter has a resistance of GΩ & range of V volt. a. Ultraviolet rays b. Infrared rays
The value of resistance used in series to convert it into c. X-rays d. Light ray
a voltmeter of range nV volt is
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47. Wein’s displacement law is useful for finding 64. The oxidation number of S in S8, S2F2 and H2S are
a. Mass of star b. Radius of star
respectively :
c. Temperature of star d. Density of star
a. 0, +1 and -2
48. The quark combination of proton
b. -2, +1 and -2
a. udd b. uud c. u𝑢̅d d. 𝑢̅dd
c. 0, +1 and +2
49. Two P.N.P transistors in series give:
a. a positive OR circuit b. a negative OR circuit d. -2, +1 and +2
c. a positive AND circuit d. a negative AND circuit 65. The rate of reaction between A and B increases by a
50. Zener diode is used for factor of 100, when the concentration of A is increased
a. Rectification b. Amplification
10 folds, the order of reaction with respect to A is
c. Filtration d. Stabilisation
a. 10 b. 1 c. 4 d. 2
Chemistry 66. The density of a 10.0% of mass KCl solution in water
51. Active mass of 56 gm of N2 contained in 2 litre flask is: is 1.06gcm-3 . Its molarity is
a.16 molesL-1 a. 1.489M b. 1.420M
c. 1.420 mol kg-1 d. 1.489 mol kg-1
b.32molesL-1
67. Which property of an element is always a whole
c. 1 mole L-1 d. 0.1 moles L-1
52. Hybridized orbitals used by carbon in CH2Cl2 is: number ?
a. Four sp3 b. Four sp2 a. Atomic weight
c. Four sp d. One s and three p. b. Equivalent weight
53. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in
c. Atomic number d. Atomic volume
an empty container at 25 C. The fraction of the total 68. Acetaldehyde is the rearrangement product of:
pressure exerted by hydrogen is a. Methyl alcohol b. allyl alcohol
a. 1/2 b. 8/9 c. 1/9 d. 16/17 c. vinyl alcohol d. all are correct
54. For a given reaction, t1/2 = 1/Ka the order of this reaction 69. Molecular solids are generally
is: a. Good conductors of electricity
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 b. Quite hard
55. The molecular mass of CO2 is 44 amu. Avogadro c. Quite brittle
number is 6.02 1023. Therefore, the mass of one d. Volatile
molecule of CO2 is: 70. The correct order of radii is :
a. 3.6510-23 b. 3.651023 a. N < Be < B
c. 7.3110-23 d. 7.311023
56. The solubility product of AgCl is 410-10 at 298 K. The b. F- < O2- < N3-
solubility of AgCl in 0.04m CaCl2 will be: c. Na < Li < K
a. 210-5 M b. 110-4 M d. Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4-
c. 510-9 M d. 2.210-4 M 71. A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is
57. The unit of electric charge is equal to? strongly reducing agent due to the presence of
Faraday a. Sodium atoms b. Sodium hydride
a.
Avogadro number c. Sodium amide d. Solvated electrons
Avogadro number 72. The variety of coal containing the maximum
b. percentage of carbon is
Faraday
c. Faraday Avogadro number a. Lignite b. Anthracite
c. Peat d. None of these
d. None of these
73. The primary valency of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is :
58. The pH of an aqueous solution is 4. Its pOH will be
a. +3 b. +2 c. +1 d. Zero
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
74. Which of the following ions is expected to be
59. The hydrogen bond is strongest in? paramagnetic?
a. Water b. Ammonia a. Cu+ b. Zn+2 c.Fe+2 d. Se+3
c. Hydrogen fluoride d. Acetic acid 75. Which of the following salts does no impart colour to
60. The molarity of an acid is 2 M. How many moles are the flame?
present in 1 litre of solution: a. LiCl b. KI
a. 4 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 c. MgCl2 d. CaCl2
61. Volume of 4.4 gm of CO2 at STP is: 76. UV rays can be checked by:
a. 2.24 Litres b. 22.4 Litres a. Flint glass b. Crooke's glass
c. 4.48 Litres d. 44.8 Litres. c. Soda glass d. Pyrex glass
62. Amount of oxygen produced if 112ml H2 is collected by 77. Permanent magnets are generally made of alloys of
the hydrolysis of water is:
a. Co b. Zn c. Sb d. Pb
a. 0.032g b. 0.32g
c. 0.64g d. 0.064g 78. The hybridization of carbon in carbon monoxide is :
63. Entropy of the universe is a. SP3 b. SP c. SP d. dSP2
79. Turpentine oil can be purified by:
a. zero
a. Steam distillation
b. constant b. simple distillation
c. continuously increasing c. vacuum distillation
d. continuously decreasing d. fractional distillation
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80. Froth floatation process for the concentration of ores 94. Which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic
is a practical application of : substitution reaction?
a. vinyl chloride b. allyl chloride
a. adsorption
c.benzyl chloride d.chlorobenzene
b. absorption 95. Which substance does not give silver mirror test?
c. coagulation a. C6H5CHO b.CH CH
d. sedimentation c. HCOOH d. CH3CHO
81. Semi water gas is 96. Which substance doesn't give iodoform test with
a.CO+H2 b. CO+H2+N2 NaOH/I2?
c. CO+H2+CO2 d. CO2+N2
a. C6H5COCH3
82. Royal water is:
a. Conc. HNO3 b. CH3CH2COCH3
b. aqua regia c. CH3CHO d. CH3COCH2COCH3
c. conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 97. The reaction in which Bakelite is formed by the
d. Dil. HNO3 polymerization of phenol and formaldehyde in
83. The allotropic form of carbon which is used for presence of NaOH is known as-
making lead pencil is: a.Stephen’s reaction
a. Lamp black b.Charcoal b.Ladarer Mannase reaction
c. Graphite d. Gas carbon c.Stephen’s reaction d.Mendius reaction
84. In Friedel craft's reaction, electrophilic reagent is: 98. Delocalisation of electrons involving bond is known
a. AlCl3 b. RCO+ as
c. RCOCl d. Carbene a. Mesomeric effect
85. Solder is an alloy of: b. Tautomeric effect
a. lead and tin b. tin and copper c. Electromeric effect
c. copper and zinc d. zinc and tin d. Hyperconjugation
99. Cyclohexanol is a:
86. The IUPAC name of given compound is: a. Phenol b. Primary alcohol
CH2 – CN c. Secondary alcohol d. Tertiary alcohol
100. Indigo belongs to the class of :
CH - CN a. mordant dye
b. vat dye
CH2 - CN c. direct dye
a. 1,2,3 – Tricarbonitrile propane d. disperse dye
b. Propane – 1,1,1 - tricarbylamine Zoology
c. Propane – 1,2,3 - tricarbonitrile 101. Which of the following was absent from the earth's
d. 3 – Cyanopentane dinitrile atmosphere at the time of origin of life?
87. The number of 2° amine isomers present in C4H9NH2 a. Methane b. Ammonia c. Water d. Oxygen
are
102. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by:
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7
88. Acetone and propen -2-ol are : a. P. falciparum b. P. vivax
a. positional isomers c. P. ovale d. P. malarial
b. keto-enol tautomers
c. functional isomers d. chain isomers 103. Skeleton of sponges is secreted by:
89. Chloroethane reacts with X to form diethyl ether. What a. Scleroblasts b. Osteoblasts
is X c. Choanocytes d. Amoebocytes
a. NaOH b. H2SO4 c. C2H5ONa d. Na2S2O3
90. ` RCH2CH2OH can be converted to RCH2CH2COOH 104. Pattern of cleavage in frog's egg is:
by the following sequence of steps a. holoblastic b. holoblastic & unequal
a. KCN, H3O+ c. holoblastic & equal d. meroblastic
b. PBr3, KCN, H2/P+
c. PBr3, KCN, H3O+ d. HCN, PBr3, H3O 105. Herdmania belongs to:
91. Chlorine reacts with neopentane to give: a. Hemichordata
a. Neopentyl chloride b. Tert.butylchloride
b. Urochordata
c. Pentylchloride d. All
92. The correct order of acid strength of the following c. Cephalochordata
compounds is: d. Gnathostomata
A. Phenol B. p-Cresol C. m-Nitrophenol D. p-
Nitrophenol 106. Parapodia are found in:
a. A > B > D > C a. Oligochaeta b. Polychaeta
b. C > B > A > D c. Arthropoda d. Hirudinea
c. D > C > A > B d. B > D > A > C 107. Which is not adaptive feature of volant adaptation of
93. When benzaldehyde reacts with conc. NaOH, the birds?
sodium benzoate and benzyl alcohol is formed by a. Preumatization of bone
a. Etard reaction b. Keeled sternum & highly developed cerebellum
b. Sandmeyer reaction c. Prehensile tail
c. Zerewitnoff’s reaction d. Absence of urinary bladder
d. Cannizaro reaction
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108. Which of the following is also known as cuddle 122. In frog the ureter is a urinogenital duct in:
hormone?
a. Progesterone b. Oxytocin a. Male b. Felame
c. Prolactin d. Androgen c. Male and Female d. Male or Female
109. The main function of ligament is: 123. Wrinkles in old age is due to
a. Myosin fibres b. Actin fibres
a. joining of two bones
c. Collagen fibres d. Elastin fibres
b. joining of two muscles 124. In malarian infection, lysolecithin which destroy RBC
c. joining of muscle to bone is secreted by
d. joining of muscles to nerves a. Plasmodium b. RBC
c. Spleen d. Liver
110. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through:
125. Metamorphosis in insects is controlled by the
a. Mutations hormone:
b. Hybridization a. Pheromones b. Thyroxine
c. Mutations with natural selection c. Ecdysone d. Juvenile
d. Continuous variations with natural selection 126. Meibomian glands are present in
a. Ears b. Skin c. Eyes d. Lungs
111. Dinosaurs disappeared during__________period. 127. In the tympanic cavity there is an aperture in which
a.Jurassic b.Triassic the stapes is fitted. It is
a. Foramen trioseum b. Fenestra rotunda
c. Cretaceous d. Permian c. Fenestra ovalis d. Foramen ovale
112. Addison's disease is caused by:
128. The major mode of transmission of AIDS in South-East
a. hyposecretion of corticosteroid
Asia is:
b. oversecretion of corticosteroid
c. hyposecretion of LH a. Blood transfusion
d. hyposecretion of pituitary gland b. Sexual intercourse
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140. Pace setter of the heart is 155. Tuberous roots are found in:
a. S.A node b. A.V. node a. Beta vulgaris
c. Bundle of His d. Purkinje fibres
Botany b. Daucus carota
141. The method of classification, called cladistics, is based c. Ipomoea batatas d. Raphanus sativus
on: 156. Velamen is found in:
a. natural system b. mutation theory a. Vanda b. Rosa
c. artificial system d. evolutionary history c. Viscum d. Santalum
142. RNA primer is needed for 157. Rate of photosynthesis is maximum in :
a. DNA replication a. Orange light b. yellow light
b. Translation
c. Blue light d. violet light
c. Transcription
d. Repairing damaged DNA 158. Which of the following part of Funaria, sporophyte is
143. In many bacteria, the cell membrane becomes involved in the dispersal of spores?
invaginated and folded to form: a. Calyptra b. Operculum
a. pili b. cristae c. fimbriae d. mesosomes c. Peristome d. Annulus
144. Most of the photosynthesis in the world is carried out 159. The tapetal cell has more than one nucleus because it
by shows:
a. Grasslands a. Meiotic division only
b. Marine algae b. Mitotic division
c. Freshwater algae
c. Mitosis and endomitosis
d. Forests
d. Amitosis and endomitosis
145. Amla belongs to family:
160. The adjacent nucleotides are connected together by
a. Labiatae b. Fabaceae
a. 3 hydrogen bonds b. 2 hydrogen bonds
c. Solanaceae d. Euphorbiaceae
c. phosphodiester bonds d. glycosidic bonds
146. The enzyme invertase hydrolysis sucrose into
a. Fructose & mannose 161. The germination of seed inside the fruit itself is
b. Glucose & fructose described as
c. Fructose & glucose Phosphate a. Hypogeal germination
d. Glucose & Fructose phosphate
b. Epigeal germination
147. Spore mother cells of bryophytes are:
c. Viviparous germination
a. haploid b. diploid
d. Oviparous germination
c. tetraploid d. polyploid
162. Which is not produced during anerobic respiration?
148. Zygote of Spirogyra produces four haploid nuclei, in
a. CO2 b. ATP c. Ethanol d. H2O
which:
163. The function of guard cells is
a. one is functional
a. Photosynthesis b. Gaseous exchange
b. two are functional
c. Respiration d. Transpiration
c. three are functional d. all are functional
164. Auxin is associated with
149. In Pinus, the third tier of embryonal cells from below a.Enzyme synthesis b.Root initiation
is known as:
c. Growth retardation d.Germination of seed
a. rosetic tier
165. The site for Krebs cycle is :
b. suspensor tier
a. Grana b. Cristae
c. embryonal tier d. free-nuclear tier
c. Mitochondria d. Ribosome
150. Gene mutation occurs in:
a. Chloroplast b. Mitochondria 166. Phellem is lies
c. DNA d. Cytoplasm a. Outside vascular bundle
151. Which of the following maintains continuity between b. Outside cork cambium
the water and lipid phase inside and outside the cells? c. Inside vascular bundle
a. Cell wall b. Lecithin d. Inside cork cambium
c. Cell vacuole d. Cell membrane of woody plants 167. Photochemical reactions in the chloroplasts are directly
152. The type of pollination found in Calotropis is: involved in:
a. dicliny b. herkogamy a. fixation of carbon dioxide
153. The following is also termed as 'molecular scissor' c. formation of phosphoglyceric acid
a. Restriction endonuclease b. Topoisomerase d. photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP to ATP
c. Helicase d. Ligase 168. Apogamy is:
154. Annual rings are not formed in monocot because: a. reproduction of virus
a. vascular bundles are not arranged in a ring b. failure of fusion of gametes
b. steam is weak and thin
c. development of bacteria
c. vascular bundles are not present
d. loss of function of reproduction
d. xylem is not present
169. Lichen is found in higher plants in the form of:
a. Symbiont b. Parasite
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c. Commensal d. Colonal organism 186. a – bc – c – abb – bca –
170 Lateral roots of dicot plants arise through a. abbba b. accba c. cccbc d. cbbac
a. Vascular meristem 187. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, "If
b. Intercalary meristem you give me three cards, you will have as many as E
has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many
c. Pericycle
as D has." A and B together have 10 cards more than
d. Apical meristem what D and E together have. If B has two cards more
171. Circinate vernation in fern refers to: than what C has and the total number of cards be 133,
a. Presence of adventitious roots how many cards does B have?
a. 22 b. 23 c. 25 d. 35
b. Coiling of young leaves
188. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg
c. Leaf gaps in state when a new person comes in place of one of them
d. Attachment of sori an leaf surface weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new
172. The bacteria with single flagellum at both end is person?
a. Atrichous b. Monotrichous a. 76 kg b. 76.5 kg c. 85 kg d. 85. 5 kg
c. Amphitrichous d. Lophotrichous 189. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of
5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their
173. Aerenchyma provides: ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's
a. flexibility to plants present age in years?
b. mechanical strength to plants a. 24 b. 27 c. 40 d. 30
c. buoyancy to hydrophytic plants 190. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at
d. promoting nature of photosynthesis simple interest, but he includes the interest every six
months for calculating the principal. If he is charging
174. Among them which group does not belong bryophytes? an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest
a. Hepaticopsida b. Bryopsida becomes:
c. Pteropsid d. Anthoceropsida a. 10% b. 10.25% c. 11% 11.5%
175. Drupe contains: 191. Which one will replace the question mark?
a. stony endocarp b. stony mesocarp
c. edible epicarp d. edible endocarp
176. Nissl granules in cyton of nerves are rich in
a. RER b. Golgi bodies
c. Mitochondria d. SER a. 75 b. 26 c. 25 d. 20
177. Nucleolar organizer is the term for 192. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
a. Primary constriction
b. Secondary constriction
c. Nucleolus d. Nuclear matrix
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
178. Antibody like substance produced by host cell after a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
infection of fungi is 193. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from
a. Antibiotic b. Insecticide the given sheet of paper (X).
c. Phytoalexins d. Antitoxin
179. The segregation ratio in F2 generation for Mendel
Dihybrid cross is
a. 3:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 12:3:1 d. 9:3:3:1
180. When embryosac directly develops from the cells of
a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only
nucellus it is called
c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 4 only
a. Apomixis b. Apospory 194. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of
c. Apogamy d. Parthenogenesis placement of the dots as in Figure-X.
M.A.T.
181. Find the odd word.
a. Slip b. Diamond c. Googli d. Doorsa
182. AB11CD, EF13GH, IJ17KL, ?
a. MN18OP b. MN19OP a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. MN21OP d. MN23OP
183. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When 195. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that
two boy joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is would complete the figure matrix.
his new rank from the end?
a. 25th b. 26th c. 27th d. 28th
184. What is the angle between the hands of clock at 7:10?
a. 185o b. 155o c. 170o d. 165o
185. At sunrise, Ram and Shyam are having a
conversations, standing in front of each other. If Ram's
shadow is in right hand of Shyam. In which direction
Ram is facing?
a. East b. West c. North d. South
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
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a. Only I follows
196. Find the number of triangles in the given figure. b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Neither I nor II follows
199. Statement: Should we scrap the system of formal
education beyond graduation?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It will mean taking employment at an early
a. 11 b. 13 c. 15 d. 17 date.
197. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the II. No. It will mean lack of depth of knowledge.
mirror image of the given combination. a. Only argument I is strong
b. Only argument II is strong
c. Both I and II are strong
d. None of these
200. Choose the closely related water – image of the
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
given condition:
198. Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that
commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of
India directive to operate a post shipment export
credit denominated in foreign currency at
international rates from January this year. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Courses of Action:
I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are
to be suspended.
II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such
directives to commercial banks.
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