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Assistant Director, Town Planning

Section A: General Awareness

1. Total Tally of Medals won by India in Summer London Olympics-2012 was :

1 four
2 five
3 three
4 six
Correct answer-(4)

2. Which of the following films from India was nominated for Academy Awards under the
category of Foreign Language films?

1 Barfi
2 Lagan
3 Rang de Basanti
4 Devdas

Correct answer-(2)

3. Which of the following classical dance forms is most popular in Kerala ?

1 Kathak
2 Bharat Natyam
3 Odisi
4 Kathakali
Correct answer-(4)

4. Which of the following books has been authored by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad ?
1 Discovery of India
2 India Wins Freedom
3 The Story of My Experiments with Truth
4 Ideas of a Nation
Correct answer-(2)
5. The Great Tohuku Disaster in March 2011 off the Pacific Coast of Japan was caused by :

1 accidental nuclear explosion

2 tornado
3 earthquake under the sea near by
4 cyclone

Correct answer-(3)

6. Last Governor General of India was :

1 Dr. Rajendra Prasad

2 Viscount Mountbatten
3 C. Rajagopalachari
4 Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Correct answer-(3)

7. The equator passes through :

1 Sri Lanka
2 Indonesia
3 India
4 Laos

Correct answer-(2)

8. Number of cities in India, with population of one crore or more (2011 census) is:

1 five
2 four
3 three
4 two

Correct answer-(4)

9. Under RTI Act, 2005 the committee which recommends names for appointment of Chief
Information Commissioner includes:

1 Chief Justice of India

2 Speaker of the Lok Sabha
3 Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
4 Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Correct answer-(3)
10. If a person is aggrieved by a decision of central or state public information officer, the
aggrieved person can file an appeal to a senior officer of the public authority under section 19
of the RTI Act, within :

1 ninety days
2 sixty days
3 thirty days
4 seven days

Correct answer-(3)

11. Dalton's Atomic Theory has been challenged by :

1 General Theory of Relativity

2 Theory of Sub-atomic (nuclear) Particles
3 Theory of Uncertainty
4 Quantum Theory

Correct answer-(2)

12. Archimedes' Principle can be used in :

1 Finding specific gravity of certain solids

2 Generating electricity from thermal power plants
3 Finding velocity of light
4 Explaining chemical reactions

Correct answer-(1)

13. Scientific Methods are based on :

1 study of cause and effects relationship

2 reasoning
3 conducting experiments
4 all of above

Correct answer-(4)

14. Developing scientific temper is enshrined in the Constitution of India :

1 as a fundamental right
2 as a directive principle of state
3 as a fundamental duty
4 as a human right

Correct answer-(3)
15. Epidemics can be prevented by :

1 vaccination
2 providing potable water
3 scientific disposal of wastes
4 by all of above

Correct answer-(4)

16. HIV is caused by :

1 bacteria
2 virus
3 mosquitoes
4 worms

Correct answer-(2)

17. Which fuel was used in first stage of satellite launch vehicles (SLVs) in India?

1 CNG
2 refined petrol
3 aviation fuel
4 solid fuels

Correct answer-(4)

18.Green House Gases Effects are produced by

1 water vapour and clouds

2 Burning fossil fuels
3 Vehicular emissions
4 above all

Correct answer-(4)

19. Which, amongst the following, is the tallest ?

1 Taipei 101 in Taipei

2 Petronas Twin Tower in Kuala Lumpur
3 Khalifa Burg in Dubai
4 Eiffel Tower in Paris

Correct answer-(3)
20. Organic farming includes:

1 scientific use of chemical fertilizers

2 spraying chemicas by air
3 ripening of fruits by scientific use of chemicals
4 none of above

Correct answer-(4)

21. Female Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1000 males) in India as per Census 2011 is nearest
to :

1 920
2 940
3 960
4 980

Correct answer-(2)

22. Punishment for violation of certain provisions in The Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education Act 2009 stipulates :

1 Imposition of Fine
2 Simple Imprisonment.
3 Rigorous Imprisonment
4 both-imposition of fine and simple imprisonment

Correct answer-(1)

23. President of the United States of America (USA) holds office for a period of :
1 six years
2 five years
3 four years
4 three years

Correct answer-(3)

24. During hundred years (1901-2000) rise in sea level around the world was closest to :

1 10 inches
2 20 inches
3 30 inches
4 40 inches

Correct answer-(1)
25. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) generated per day in Municipal Corporation of Greater
Mumbai (MCGM) is closest to :

1 4,000 MT
2 6,000 MT
3 8,000 MT
4 10,000 MT

Correct answer-(2)

Section B: Planning
Theoretical Aspects of Planning

26. Spatial model of urban land use planning, where a city grows from several nodes rather
than from one nucleus is called:

1 Sector
2 Multi Nuclei
3 Ribbon Development
4 Concentric Zone
Correct answer-(2)

27. Which of the following is the method of Demographic Projections?

1 Cohort Component
2 Exponential Growth
3 Logistic Growth
4 All the above

Correct answer-(4)

28. The Neighbourhood Unit Theory in urban planning was conceptualized by:

1 C.A. Perry
2 Homer Hoyt
3 Patrick Geddas
4 Von Thunen

Correct answer-(1)

29. Sampling method in which a homogenous listing is done for different groups of population
and then collecting a certain percentage of samples from each group is called:

1 Simple Random Sampling

2 Stratified Sampling
3 Cluster Sampling
4 Systematic Sampling
Correct answer-(2)

30. Which of the following states has the highest number of persons in urban area?

1 Tamil Nadu
2 Kerala
3 Maharashtra
4 Uttar Pradesh
Correct answer-(3)

31. The urban growth theory which states that development takes place along the routes on
which the movement is concentrated is called :

1 Circular
2 Sector
3 Nucleus
4 Axial

Correct answer-(4)

32. Which district in Maharashtra has experienced highest urban growth rate during 2001-11?

1 Thane
2 Raigarh
3 Nandurbar
4 Gadchiroli

Correct answer-(2)

33. Central Act on effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental
protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any
legal right has the title of :

1 The Mines Act, 1952

2 Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
3 National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
4 Industrial Development and Regulation Act, 1951
Correct answer-(3)

Regional Plan

34. Methodological framework to identify regional units and analyse their spatial structure
systematically is called as:

1 Polarisation
2 Regionalisation
3 Functionalisation
4 Formalisation
Correct answer-(2)
35. Population of a city grew from 1,05,000 to 1,55,000 in ten years. The annual rate of growth
of population is:
1 3.4%
2 4.0%
3 34%
4 40%

Correct answer-(2)

36. According to the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act (MR&TP), 1966 for
hearing the suggestions and objections received on draft Regional Plan, the “Regional
Board” appoints:

1 Metropolitan Planning Committee

2 Regional Planning Committee
3 Area Planning Task Force
4 Tribunal of Appeal

Correct answer-(2)

37. A statutorily demarcated zone for manufacture of goods or rendering services or for both or
as a Free Trade and Warehousing Zone is known as:

1 Eco-sensitive Zone
2 Ecological Zone
3 Special Economic Zone
4 Special Transition Zone

Correct answer-(3)

38. In Maharashtra, the total built-up area for low cost housing which is to be handed over
to State Government in lieu of various concessions provided for ‘Special Township Projects’ has
recently been revised:

1 From 15% to 20%

2 From 10% to 20%
3 From 15% to 25%
4 From 10% to 25%

Correct answer-(2)

39. A Regional Planning Authority may undertake “development” through:

1 Land Acquisition
2 Land Pooling
3 Transfer of Development Right
4 All the above
Correct answer-(4)

40. Functions of a Metropolitan Planning Committee DO NOT include :

1 Integration of rural and urban area planning

2 Integration of spatial and sector planning
3 Optimal utilization of investment in the area
4 assignment of taxes to ULBs in metropolitan area

Correct answer-(4)

Development Plans

41. A town with a population of 60,000 has an average household size of 5. The number of
occupied dwelling units is 10,500 out of which 10% is dilapidated. The present housing shortage
is:

1 2550
2 1500
3 1405
4 2600

Correct answer-(1)

42. Under MR&TP Act, to initiate the process of preparation of development plan, the Planning
Authority has to:

1 Delineate the proposed area

2 Make a declaration of its intention
3 Submit the proposal to State Government
4 invite suggestions / objections to the proposal

Correct answer-(2)

43. Rajiv Awas Yojana of the Central Government addresses housing need of :

1 MIG
2 LIG
3 Government Employees
4 Slums Dwellers Correct answer-(4)

44. GRIHA is rating for green buildings given by:

1 Development Alternatives
2 Bureau of Energy Efficiency
3 The Energy and Resources Institute
4 Institute of Renewable Energy
Correct answer-(3)

45. If any modification needs to be carried out after publication of a Development Plan, the
Planning Authority:

1 Submits proposed modification to State Government

2 Submits proposed modification to TCPO of Central Government
3 submits proposed modification to Director, Town Planning in the state
4 Cannot make modification after publication of Development Plan

Correct answer-(1)

46. A plot of Land has been reserved/allotted in the development plan. A period of 10 years has
lapsed since such allotment/reservation without land having been acquired. In such a case (u/s
127, MR&TP Act) which of the following in correct:

1 Land gets automatically de -reserved

2 Owner has to serve notice to planning authority
3 Owner may straight away construct a house on the land
4 None of the above

Question cancelled

47. A neighbourhood with a total area of 300 hectares has been planned for a gross density of
300 pph. If the residential area is 60% of the total area, then net density of the neighbourhood
will be:

1 200 pph
2 450 pph
3 500 pph
4 650 pph

Correct answer-(3)

48. A Planning Authority can directly receive funds for implementation of Development Plan
through :

1 Loan from Multilateral Agencies

2 Loan from Bilateral Agencies
3 Grant/loan from Government
4 All the above

Correct answer-(3)
49. ‘Desires Lines’ are associated with:

1 Demand and Supply analysis in Economic Planning

2 Origin-Destination analysis in Transport Planning
3 Cut and Fill analysis in Landscape Planning
4 Income analysis in Financial Planning

Correct answer-(2)

50. The rationale for increasing public participation in planning process is to:

1 Promote transparency and accountability

2 Increase the efficiency of service delivery
3 Improve the quality of decision making
4 All the above

Correct answer-(4)

Town Planning Schemes

51. Which of the following governs the implementation of the Town Planning Schemes in
Maharashtra?

1 Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966

2 Maharashtra Housing and Area Development Act, 1976
3 Maharashtra Municipality Act, 1985
4 Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act, 1949

Correct answer-(1)

52. In a Town Planning Scheme, if the size of the reconstituted plot is smaller than that of the
original plot, the compensation amount is reflected in the difference between:
1 Semi Final Value of plot and Final Value of plot
2 Original Value of plot and Final Value of plot
3 Original Value of plot and Semi Final Value of plot
4 None of the above

Correct answer-(3)

53. The Tribunal of Appeal set up for a Town Planning Scheme in Maharashtra comprise :
i. President ii. Arbitrator iii. Two Assessors iv. Representative of Planning Authority

1 i, ii and iii
2 i, and iii
3 i, ii, iv
4 i, ii, iii, iv

Correct answer-(2)

54. In Maharashtra, if the Planning Authority fails to submit the draft Town Planning
Scheme within the period specified:

1 State Government can appoint an Officer to prepare and submit the draft scheme
2 Planning Authority can apply for extension of time period.
3 Planning Authority can make fresh declaration for the same scheme after stipulated time.
4 All the above

Correct answer-(4)

55. As per section 99 of MR&TP Act, the contribution by the owner of a plot in meeting the cost
of Town Planning Scheme should :

1 Not exceed 50% of the increment estimated by the Arbitrator

2 Include the cost of plot reserved for public purpose
3 Include the cost of plot reserved for Planning Authority
4 All the above
Correct answer-(1)

56. If a contiguous area for which a Town Planning Scheme is to be prepared lies within the
jurisdiction of two separate Planning Authorities then :

1 State Government forms a Special Planning Authority for the scheme

2 Each Planning Authority makes its own scheme
3 Planning Authority where larger area falls is liable for making the scheme
4 Planning Authority which serves larger population is liable for making the scheme

Correct answer-(1)

57. In Maharashtra, under a Town Planning Scheme, the Original, Semi Final and Final market
values of plot is computed with reference to the value on the day when :

1 Final Scheme was submitted

2 Draft Scheme was submitted
3 Sanction was issued by the State Government
4 Intention to prepare scheme was declared

Correct answer-(4)

58. In Town Planning Scheme, the decision of Arbitrator is considered as final and has binding
on all parties in case of :

1 Demarcation of area for public purpose

2 Contribution to be levied on each final plot
3 Estimation of the amount of compensation payable
4 Exemption granted to religious organization

Correct answer-(1)

Development Control

59. The per capita daily water requirement for a 200-bedded Hospital as per model building bye
laws, circulated by TCPO, Ministry of Urban Development is:
1 135 liter
2 450 liter
3 500 liter
4 200 liter
Correct answer-(2)

60. As per the model building byelaws of TCPO, the maximum net density of dwelling units per
hectare for low income group (LIG) housing is up to :

1 200
2 350
3 300
4 150

Correct answer-(3)

61. As per MR&TP Act 1966, the land owned by Central Government is:

1 Exempted from paying the development charge

2 Partially exempted from paying the development charge
3 Liable to pay the minimum development charge
4 Liable to pay the stipulated development charge
Correct answer-(1)

62. If a person undertakes development without the requisite permission, the Planning
Authority may:

1 Serve notice for discontinuation of work

2 Ask to demolish unauthorized structure
3 Itself demolish unauthorized structure
4 All the above
Correct answer-(4)

63. The maximum permissible ground coverage allotted to a Foreign Mission for non residential
purpose as per model building bye-laws of TCPO is:
1 33%
2 25%
3 35%
4 50%

Correct answer-(2)

64. Land appurtenant to a building is used for a purpose independent of the building,
development charge may be levied:

1 Separately for the building and the land

2 same as for the building
3 same as for the appurtenant land
4 Only on the area on which building stands

Correct answer-(1)

65. Any person aggrieved by the assessment of development charge levied by the Planning
Authority can ordinarily make an appeal (under 124G) before the expiry of : :

1 60 days
2 45 days
3 30 days
4 90 days

Correct answer-(2)

Acts and Rules

66. As per the Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act 1949, NO permission from the
Municipal Commissioner is required to erect a sky-sign when :

1 It is illuminated
2 Any addition or alteration is made
3 It is re-erected on expiry of approved period
4 It relates to the trade carried within the building upon which it is erected

Correct answer-(4)

67. Who can set up an SEZ ?

1 Private Developer
2 PSU /State Government
3 Joint Sector Company
4 All the above
Correct answer-(4)

68. If land falling under the area of a Regional Plan is assessed under Maharashtra Land and
Revenue Code, the owner of the land has to seek approval for construction of any structure on
that land from:

1 Collector
2 Regional Planning Board
3 Municipal Corporation
4 No approval is required

Correct answer-(1)

69. According to the Special Economic Zones Act 2005, the minimum requirement of contiguous
land for a multi-product SEZ in North-Eastern States is:

1 500 hectares
2 200 hectares
3 1000 hectares
4 100 hectares

Correct answer-(2)

70. As per Maharashtra Land Revenue Code the land revenue assessed by the Collector is fixed
for the maximum period of:

1 99 years
2 30 years
3 10 years
4 5 years

Correct answer-(4)

71. Which one of the following is correct?

1 Panchayats receive funds for implementation of centrally sponsored schemes.

2 The enactment of the 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992 bestows constitutional
status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI)s
3 Panchayats receive funds as local body grant as recommended by the Central and state
finance Commissions
4 All the Above
Correct answer-(4)

72. As per the Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act 1949, permission is to be obtained
for which of the following:

1 Reconstruction of principal staircase or to alter its position

2 Repair and maintenance of the exterior wall
3 Construction of parapet of 1.5 m. or less in height
4 Reconstruction of portions damaged by natural calamity according to the earlier
specification

Correct answer-(1)

73. X mortgages a house of the value of Rs. 1,00,000 to Y for Rs. 50,000. Afterwards, Y buys the
house from X. Stamp duty is payable on sale deed is :

1 Rs. 1,00,000 less the amount of stamp duty already paid for the mortgage
2 Rs. 1,00,000
3 Rs 1,50,000
4 Rs 50,000

Correct answer-(1)

74. According to the MR&TP Act 1966, for developing a New Town on the area designated in
Regional Plan the New Area Development Authority can acquire any land:

1 Within the area designated as the site of the new town

2 Adjacent to the area designated for the new town
3 Whether adjacent to that area or not, but required for provision of amenities for the new
town
4 All the above

Correct answer-(4)

75. Which of the following does NOT have the status of Planning Authority in Maharashtra?

1 CIDCO
2 MIDC
3 Airports Authority of India
4 SRA
Correct answer-(3)

Section C: Valuation and Land Acquisition

Theoretical Aspects of Land Valuation

76. Estimate of the price that is likely to be obtained if a property were to be sold in the market
is termed as :

1 Cost
2 Value
3 Worth
4 None of the above

Correct answer-(2)

77. Valuation made under the provisions of enabling legislation and for the purposes and
requirements under which the valuation is to be made is termed as:

1 Statutory Valuation
2 Non statutory Valuation
3 Consent Valuation
4 Residual Valuation

Correct answer-(1)

78. The valuation of a property is done for the purposes of :

1 Acquisition
2 Sale/Purchase
3 Mortgage
4 All the above

Correct answer-(4)

79. The highest estimated price that a buyer would pay and a seller would accept for a
property in an open and competitive market and where both the parties make informed
choices without compulsion is called :

1 Market Value
2 Lease Value
3 Speculated Value
4 Purchase Price

Correct answer-(1)

80. Which of the following characteristics results in high demand of a landed property :
1. Transferability
2. Marketability
3. Productivity
4. All the above
Correct answer-(4)

Valuation of Lands and Building

81. Appropriateness of the method of valuation depends on:

1 Purpose of valuation
2 Type of Property
3 Availability of relevant data
4 All the above
Correct answer-(4)

82. Which of the following methods of valuation is best suited for undeveloped land with latent
value after development :

1 Residual Method
2 Replacement cost approach
3 Belting Method
4 Cost Method

Correct answer-(1)

83. Which method of valuation assumes that the value of some properties will be related to the
profit or annual return which can be made from their use ?

1 Profit Method
2 Belting Method
3 Contractors Method
4 Comparative Method

Correct answer-(1)

84. Which of the following factors need to be considered while adopting Comparative Method
of Valuation?
1 Property market is heterogeneous
2 It is volatile
3 Adequate Availability of details of recent transactions in the same area
4 All the above

Correct answer-(3)

85. Which method of valuation is generally used for those properties which are not bought and
sold in the market and valuation is done for technical or accounts purposes only?
1 Residual Method
2 Developmental Method
3 Contractor's Method
4 Comparative Method

Correct answer-(3)

86. Belting method of valuation is generally practiced when:

1 The building is of public use and is not salable in the market

2 The plot size is big and has less frontage and more depth
3 Information available on transaction of properties in the same area is weak
4 When the real estate market is volatile

Correct answer-(2)

87. Best method suited to valuation for a Church, which is a specialized property, will be:

1 Development Method
2 Income Capitalization Method
3 Contractors Method
4 All the above

Correct answer-(3)

88. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, future value of Rs. 100/-invested at present, after
two years, will be:

1 INR 120
2 INR 121
3 INR 122
4 INR 125

Correct answer-(2)

89. In case of leasehold property, the value of the lessee's interest in the property is:
1 maximum at the beginning of the lease period
2 minimum at the beginning of the lease period
3 remains constant through out the period
4 maximum at the end of the lease period

Correct answer-(1)

90. The Development method of valuation is also called as :

1 Profit Method
2 Residual Method
3 Belting Method
4 Contractors Method

Correct answer-(2)

Rental Value and its Estimation

91. Indicator of estimated rental value of a property, which expresses the ratio between gross
scheduled income and its price, is called :

1 Gross Rent Multiplier

2 Capitalization Rate
3 Capital Asset Pricing
4 Ratable Value

Correct answer-(1)

92. Which of the following, in respect of a rented property, are considered as Landlord’s
outgoings ?

1 Repairs
2 Insurance
3 Rates and Taxes
4 All the above
Correct answer-(4)

93. The factors affecting the rental value of a property are:

1 Location
2 Age
3 Floor
4 All the above

Correct answer-(4)
94. The sum which needs to be invested at the present time, at given rate of interest in order to
accumulate Rs 1 by the end of the given period of time” is termed as:

1 Present value of Rs 1/
2 Remuneration Fund
3 Annual sinking fund
4 Outgoing Fund
Correct answer-(1)

95. A purchaser may view property transaction from the position of :

1 social and commercial benefits, if he / she prefers to use it

2 annual return from the investment made
3 selling at a higher price at a later date
4 all above
Correct answer-(4)

Acquisition of Land and Building

96. As per Land Acquisition Act 1894, which of the following is NOT taken into account while
computing compensation ?

1 Affected person compelled to change his residence or place of business

2 Urgency of acquisition
3 Loss of standing crop
4 Adverse effects on other properties of affected person

Correct answer-(2)

97. Within how many days of preliminary notification, affected persons can raise objection to
the land acquisition?

1 30 days
2 45 days
3 60 days
4 180 days
Correct answer-(1)

98. In case land acquisition is withdrawn under section 48 of LA Act ,

1 No compensation is to be paid
2 Compensation for damage suffered is to be paid
3 Compensation only for 50% of the total damage is to be paid
4 Compensation is to be paid only on agriculture land
Correct answer-(2)
99. According Section 8(1) of Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill 2011, a
committee headed by Chief secretary has to examine the proposal of land acquisition, if the
land to be acquired is equal to or more than :

1 100 hectares
2 100 acres
3 50 acres
4 50 hectares
Correct answer-(2)

100. According to the Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill 2011, consent of
how many affected families is essential for land acquisition for transfer to a private company
for a public private partnership project t?

1 one-third
2 two-fifths
3 four-fifths
4 one-half

Correct answer-(3)

Date : 3rd September, 2013