1.

For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to,
A. Avoid buccal pulp horn
B. Avoid lingual pulp horn
C. Remove unsupported enamel
D. Conserve lingual dentine

page 708 sturdevants...also, it maintains dentine support for the lingual cusp

2. For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should,

A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance given choice
B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
C. reduce 2mm for retention form

page 769 sturdevants- it mentions 2mm to be reduced uniformly with functonal cusp and 1.5 mm for
non functional cusp for resistance

fundamentals of operative dentistry a contemporary approach( this material is given by Aider) says
that some operators choose flat base but not scientific justification for doing so.

3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should,

A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly

page 181 mount & hume

4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam

restorations is true?
A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay.

its a clinical question which is to picked among the choices given as its a true/false question.
marginal breakdown is greater in low copper amalgam than high copper.

page 233 mount & hume explains the different reason for marginal fracture

5. The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed,

A. Parallel to the outer wall
B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth

page 393, bouchers, operative dentistry

1
6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is,
A. Injecting too low
B. Injecting too high

page 233 malamed

7. Which one of the following is used in water fluoridation:

A. SnF2 given choice
B. 1.23% APF
C. H2SiF2
D. CaSiF2
E. 8% Stannous fluoride

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Water_fluoridation according to this it should b either NaF or choice C

8. The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is,
A. H2O2
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Polyacrylic acid

page 181 mount & hume, i think the cavity is conditioned with polyacryic acid and cleaned with
water prior to the placement of gic

9. The most mineralised part of dentine is,

A. Peritubular dentine

page 23 sturdevants

10. A 45 years-old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and
oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had no
swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate
restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal
tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical area of ramififaction. The patient’s
temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at
the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is:
A. Acute periapical abscess

2
B. Angioneurotic oedema
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute maxillary sinusitis
E. Acute apical periodontitis

page 359, bouchers, endodotics

11. B

http://books.google.com.au/books?id=C_T3WQ-
a1MMC&pg=PA163&lpg=PA163&dq=internal+resorption+and+trauma&source=bl&ots=K61Fm4NEKe
&sig=1WPaAye9sf96HVaSJkdjUMwtdYg&hl=en&ei=goLlToXnOu6WiQeXmeHvBA&sa=X&oi=book_r
esult&ct=result&resnum=4&ved=0CD0Q6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=internal%20resorption%20and
%20trauma&f=false

12.E

oxf, management of avulsed tooth->sequelae 108

13.

14.B

 http://www.dentalarticles.com/nbde/2/questions.php?n=5 – question from nbde. Images below

are from this webpage:

Explanation for answer and all the other choices:

3
15. C (Ten Cate/140, 141, 199)

16.A

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=n2TJDryohrMC&pg=PA61&dq=zones+of+caries+in+dentin&hl=en&ei=hYnlToy1O4-
tiQfa07m2BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=7&ved=0CF4Q6wEwBg#v=onepage&q=zones%20of%20caries%20in
%20dentin&f=false

17.A

nerve innervation.3/7

http://eduframe.net/SVECW/Texts%5Cpdfpublishmanikya1.pdf

18.A

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maxillary_first_molar#External_Root_Morphology. It says: “ Although

the palatal root generally appears straight on radiographs, there is usually a buccal curvature in
the apical third.”

19.A

 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/10503867. It says:

“The predominant appearance of the periradicular area in the teeth with vertically fractured roots was
the "halo" lesion (57%); by contrast, in the non-vertically fractured roots group, a "periapical"
radiolucent lesion was most frequently found (55%). Angular bone loss (14%) and periodontal
radiolucency (14%) were also typical radiolucent lesions in the vertically fractured teeth.”

4
http://books.google.com.au/books?id=BPPHAa3-1rMC&pg=SA1-
PA76&dq=vertical+tooth+fracture,perio+abscess+like+appearance&hl=en&ei=lv_lTsjGN--
tiQeWqoS3BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=1&ved=0CDUQ6wEwAA#v=onepage&q=vertical%20tooth%20fracture%2Cperio
%20abscess%20like%20appearance&f=false. It says:

20.A

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=aV1kEf7mlckC&pg=PA1312&dq=indirect+pulp+capping&hl=en&ei=jgHmTp7xFeyOiAf9raS2BQ&s
a=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-thumbnail&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=indirect%20pulp
%20capping&f=false

21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no

response to pulp tests you should
A. Review again later
B. Start endodontic treatment
C. Extraction of tooth
page 120 oxford,pediatric dentistry-pulpal sequalae following trauma

22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a

recently traumatised tooth
A. Obtain baseline response
B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality
page122,widmer

23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics

A. Decalcification of dentine
B. Cleaning debris from root canal
265 waltons

24. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or

10mg of diazepam for sedation

5
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is
given one hour preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post
operatively
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil
age 
page 54 TG explains choice B,C and D, page 30 widmer for choice E, its flumazenil

25. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient

A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of
blood from HIV patient
B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of
blood from HIV patient
C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that
active disease is not present
case 26 Odell
From ADA infection control guidelines: “...considering the virulence of the organism,
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is highly infectious, the chance that this disease will be transmitted
by a contaminated penetrating injury is approximately one in three (depending on the
infective status of the source of injury). In comparison, the chance of transmission of the
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) by similar means is one in 30; and for HIV/AIDS, one in 300.”

26. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization

procedures; what would you recommend as the BEST method
to verify that sterilization has occurred**
A. Use spore test daily
B. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each
package
C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
D. Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly
E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly

Answer: E > B
 page 23 of  ADA infection guidelines, which says:
“Steam sterilizers which have not been calibrated or validated should be monitored by a
weekly test using a biological indicator or alternatively each load must be processed with a
biological emulator (an integrating indicator indicating time, temperature and moisture
sometimes called a Biological Emulator because it is timed to change colour at a
temperature of 134°C. It is at this point that the probability of residual viable organisms
remaining is less than one in a million - the sterility assurance level)”.
 But Sturde/375: “In dental offices, sterilisation must be monitored weekly with biologic
spore tests... and daily with colour-change process-indicator strips”. Further, it says: “place one of
the colour change strips into every surgical pack and in at least one instrument pack in the centre of
each load.” Text in Sturde contradicting itself?? So E > B.

6
27. A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered
questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis.
The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental
therapy is
A. Extreme susceptibility to pain
B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
C. Recurring oral infection
D. Increased tendency to syncope
E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia
page 425 Burket, as it effects the vitamin K dependent clotting factors 2,7,9 and 10 

28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by

A. Bell’s palsy
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region
E. Ludwig’s angina
no reference but choice A, B, C and E do not cause loss of sensation of lips ,# of mandible only causes
this out of the given choices 

29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible
sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second
fracture is most likely to be present in
A. Symphysis region
B. Left body of the mandible
C. Left sub-condylar region
D. Right sub-condylar region
E. sub-condylar region
page 548 White and Pharoah

30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in

a patient being assessed for oral surgery are
A. Elevated temperature and nausea
B. Palpitations and malaise
C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea
D. Erythema and pain
E. Pallor and tremor
page 66 TG

31. D

boucher 434

32. D

Odell pg 83

Oroantral fistula 

7
33.C

TG:potential complications of L.A

34. B and C

For choice B:
http://www.exodontia.info/files/JOMS_2005._Lingual_Nerve_Damage_After_Mandibular_Third_Mo
lar_Surgery_-_A_Randomized_Clinical_Trial.pdf says:

“The results of the present investigation were similar to Carmichael and McGowan’s 1 findings, where a
significant increase in incidence of lingual nerve deficit was found when a lingual flap retractor was used.
Conversely, Pogrel et al,6 Rud,12 and Yeh13 assert that lingual flap retraction allows a higher protection to lingual
nerve from permanent lesions despite the possibility of temporary lesions.”

http://www.exodontia.info/files/Dental_Update_ _Nerve_Damage_and_Third_Molar_Removal.pdf:
“Lingual nerve: At the usual site of injury (adjacent to the lower third molar) the nerve is covered with only a
thin layer of soft tissue and mucosa, rather than being in a bony canal. Consequently, if sectioned, the cut nerve
ends retract apart and, if the adjacent soft tissue is also distorted, the nerve ends may become misaligned and
trapped or constricted by scar tissue. Regeneration of axons across a gap will be less successful than if the nerve
ends remain in apposition”.
 Inhibition of conduction signals caused by damage of the myelin sheath is known as
neuropraxia.
 Disruption of the axonal system without accompanying injury to the nerve trunk is known as
axonotmesis.
 Neurotmesis involves damage to nerve fibers, usually the result of severing a nerve and
destroying the adjacent connective tissue.

Seddon’s classifications of peripheral nerve damage

There are three distinct classifications and degrees of nerve injury:

 Neurotmesis is the most serious degree of nerve injury. It involves the disruption of the
nerve and the nerve sheath.
 Axonotmesis occurs when the majority of the supporting structures of the nerve are
preserved, but disruption of the nerve fibers is still observed. Wallerian degeneration
often occurs in the near the proximity of the injury site.
 Neurapraxia is least serious form of nerve injury.

Regarding Choice C, Peterson says: “There is little doubt that an initial intravenous dose of
steroid at the time of surgery has a major clinical impact on swelling and trismus in the early
postoperative period. However, if the initial intravenous dose is not followed up with additional
doses of steroids, this early advantage disappears by the second or third postoperative day. Maximum
control of swelling requires that additional steroids be given for 1 or 2 days following surgery. The
two most widely used steroids are dexamethasone and methylprednisolone. ”
See http://www.medicinaoral.com/medoralfree01/v13i2/medoralv13i2p129.pdf - study that
says choice C is correct.

8
 

35.E

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Enkephalin

Enkephalins regulate nociception in body

36. B

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platelet

The function of platelets is the maintenance of hemostasis.

This is achieved primarily by the formation of thrombi, when damage to the endothelium of blood

vessels occurs. On the converse, thrombus formation must be inhibited at times when there is no
damage to the endothelium.

37.B

NBDE http://www.dentalarticles.com/nbde/4/questions.php?n=115&action=results  

Suppuration involves the formation of pus in an infected area. Pus is formed from tissue fluid, cellular
debris, dead and dying neutrophils and dead bacteria. Necrosis refers to decay and decomposition of
living material so it is included here. Accumulation of tissue fluid is also included. Neutrophils will kill
microorganisms through the use of lysosomal enzymes but may also lyse themselves, which is
autolysis. These dead neutrophils build up in the pus. Choice 2, lymphocytes are not involved and
choice 2 is our answer. Lymphocytes may produce antibodies from plasma cells which are derived
from B lymphocytes or they may be involved in cell mediated cytotoxicity as in T lymphocytes.
However, they are not found in pus. So the correct answer to question is choice 2.

38.D

VESICULO–BULLOUS LESIONS :- These lesions are in the form of superficial blisters of diameter
<5mm (vesicle) and >5mm (bulla) usually filled with a clear fluid.

Classification :-

1.Hereditary –Epidermolysis bullous dystrophica

2.Viral – Small pox, Measles, Chicken pox, Herpes simplex, Herpes zoster, Herpangina, Hand Foot
Mouth disease

9
3.Muco cutaneous – Erythema multiforme, Bechet's syndrome , Reiter syndrome, Steven Johnson
syndrome

4.Immunological – Pemphigus ( vulgaris, vegetans, foliaceous , erythematous),Benign mucous

membrane pemphigoid

5.Psychosomatic – Bullous lichen planus

6.Allergic –Stomatitis medicamatosa, Stomatitis venennata

7.Toxicity – Toxic lesions

8.Miscellaneous – Submucous fibrosis, Apthous stomatitis, Thermal and Chemical burns.

39. D

Low white cell counts may be due to a recent infection such as a cold/flu. It can also be associated
with chemotherapy, radiation therapy, myelofibrosis and aplastic anaemia (failure of white and red cell
creation, along with poor platelet production). In addition, many common medications can cause
leukopenia (see below). HIV and AIDS are also a threat to white cells.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leukopenia

40.D

oxford

facial pain->trigeminal neugralgia

41  :- C

Erythema migrans is an inflammatory condition which manifests as rapid appearance and

disappearance of atrophic areas with white demarcated borders

It is benign self limiting disease

It is commonly seen on the lateral and the dorsal surface of the tongue

Page 403 Boucher

42  :-B

Hairy leukoplakia is an important manifestation of HIV

10
It is commonly seen in male homosexuals

It has a soft corrugated appearance and is painless

Page 224 cawson. Also see Q 734.

43  :-B

The answer given is A

But please have a look at page no 167 Boucher

It is a similar question

Therefore, I am a bit confused

44  :-B

It is slow growing 

It rarely metastasis 

It can metastasize and involve bone

Has good prognosis

And radiation is a treatment option

45  :-A

The answer given is D

But please refer page 247 Cawson which says that carcinoma of the tongue is more common on
anterior lateral border of the tongue and floor of mouth

Also please read page 156 Shafers which says that lesions on the posterior part of the tongue are
usually of higher grade of malignancy, metastasize earlier and has poor prognosis

46  :-C

It is a common side effect of antibiotic (antibiotic associated diarrhoea)

The antibiotics most commonly involved are lincosamides, ampicillin, cephalosporins

11
Page 17 and 18 TG

47  :-D

Net

48  :-D

http://www.oralcontraceptives.com/about_benefits.asp

49  :-A

http://pharmacologycorner.com/antiplatelet-agents/

50  :-C

These are typical features of Primary hyperparathyroidism (Osteitis fibrosa cystica)

Other features:-

a. pathologic fracture

b. joint stiffness

c. bone pain

d. giant cell tumor

e. malocclusion with sudden drift in the teeth with definite spacing

Page 899 Shafers

51  :-B

The opposite is true ie low caries and severe periodontal disease

52  :-A

12
Cameron page 240

Factor VIII is decreased as well as platelet increasing the bleeding time and activated partial
thromboplastin time

53  :-A

In leukemia there is fall in RBC resulting in anemia , weakness

Also there is leucocyte infiltration in the gingiva resulting in gingival inflammation

There is decrease platelet count resulting in spontaneous bleeding and bruising

54  :-A

Tonsillar lymph node is also known as submandibular lymphnode 

55 :- E

Page 120 Edward Odell

56. X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The
emulsion contains particles of,
A. Silver nitrate crystal
B. Metallic silver in gelatine
C. Silver bromide in gelatine
D. Silver nitrate in gelatine
E. Potassium bromide in gelatine

Answer: C.
 W&P/71: composed primarily of silver halide grains (mainly silver bromide) embedded
in an emulsion (gelatinous material).

57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using type D film of
200mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the
exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to film distance?
A. 0.5s
B. 1.0s
C. 2.0s
D. 0.25s
E. 0.125s

13
Answer: B or A?

T1 = 0.25s, D1 = 20cm; T2 = ?, D2 = 40cm

1. Considering that exposure time is directly proportional to the square of distance, i.e. T ∞ D2
T2 / T1 = (D2)2 / (D1)2
or, T2 = (1600 / 400) X 0.25 = 1s (Option B)

2. But if T ∞ D,
T2 / T1 = D2 / D1
Or, T2 = 0.5s (option A)

58. You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp
and 70kVp machines. With single change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the
approximate affects on exposure time?
A. No effect
B. Half the time
C. Double
D. Quarter
E. Triple the time

Answer: B (see 2nd and 3rd bullet points)

From http://www.dentallearning.org/course/fde0030/x-ray_characteristics.htm :
 The most common settings for dental x-ray units are 70 kVp (kilovoltage peak) or 90
kVp.
 If the kVp were to be changed on a dental x-ray unit, a 15% increase in kilovoltage
would double the density on the radiograph. (same situation as the question -
changing from 60 to 70 kVp will double the density)
 In this case, an operator would have to cut the exposure time in half to keep the
same density on the film.
 The kilovoltage is responsible for the quality of the x ray beam.
 Milliamperage (mA) is responsible for the quantity or number of rays produced.
 For dental use, the normal range for milliamperage is between 7 and 15 mA.
59. When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary x
ray beam and a distance from the patient’s head of at LEAST:
A. 0.5 metres
B. 1 metre
C. 1.5 metres
D. 2 metres
E. 3 metres

Answer: D
W&P/65: 6feet or 1.8m (roughly = 2m) at an angle of 90-135 o to the central beam.

60. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy
is,
A. Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combination paste
B. Quick setting hydroxide cement
C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement
D. Gutta-percha
E. Polycarboxylate cement

14
Answer: C
 Cameron Widmer/110 mentions three suitable materials
unreinforced ZOE paste, Ca hydroxide paste (Pulpdent)- NON SETTING (so choice B is
wrong) and iodoform paste.

61. When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns, should the depth for
reduction of the proximal surface be similar to the depth of the buccal and lingual
surfaces?
A. Yes; reduction of all wall is similar for best retention
B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area
C. No, the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the cervical bulge
D. Yes, all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown can be seated
E. No, because of lateral constriction, the lingual surface needs greatest reduction

Answer:B
Cameron Widmer/81, point 3-5. Bucco-lingual reduction should be kept to a minimum as these
surfaces are important for retention. Same question- Boucher/505, 4 th ques.

62. 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor
in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury.
Which of the following should be considered?
A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide
B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp
C. Pulpotomy using formocresol
D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling
E. Pulpectomy and apexification

Answer: A. Boucher/507, 2nd question, Cameron Widmer/113. The pulp exposure is large. Option
B is for small pulp exposures.

63. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing bottle syndrome?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canines
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors
E. Mandibular molars

Answer: C

64. Which of the following anomalies occurs during the initiation and proliferation
stages of tooth development
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Enamel hypoplasia
D. Oligodontia
E. Ankylosis

Answer: D. Boucher/481, 1st question. Such disturbances lead to abnormality in tooth number or
absence of one or more teeth, leading to oligodontia.

65. Which is the right sequence of the histological stages of tooth development?

15
A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization
B. Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization
C. Proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization
D. Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization

Answer: A. Boucher/480, last question

66. A healthy 6 years-old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar
with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred?
A. Extraction
B. Indirect pulp treatment
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy
E. Antibiotic coverage

Answer: D
 The natural tooth, being the space maintainer (Cam Wid/347), should be preserved as
long as possible. So pulpectomy followed by root filling with a resorbable paste is the
treatment of choice.

67. To produce a stable correction of an upper labial segment in lingual crossbite; it is

essential to:
A. Use fixed appliances
B. Have adequate overbite
C. Treat during growth
D. Use posterior capping
E. Increase vertical dimension

Answer: B > C.
In favour of B: Question says “stable correction”. In order to retain corrected bite, an adequate
overbite is essential.
In favour of C: McDonald/651: “Anterior cross bite of one or more of the permanent incisors....
should be treated as soon as it is discovered. Delayed treatment can lead to serious complications
such as loss of arch length.”

68. Which of the following is a typical consequence of dental crowding, assuming no

primary tooth has been lost prematurely?
A. Overlapping of lower incisors
B. Palatal displacement of upper canines
C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars
D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26
E. Rotation of 16 and 26

Answer: A
Reference: Cawson/60, Q 3.13. Also given as a typical consequence is “7s erupting buccal to the
line of the arch.”

69. The lamina dura is seen on periapical radiographs as:

A. Usual radiolucency between tooth root and surrounding bone as a thin white line.
B. Cribriform plate of bone making the tooth socket
C. Dense crestal bone consistent with a healthy periodontal status
D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone

16
Answer: B.

 W&P/168, 169 and Ten Cate/260: “Bundle bone is that bone... into which the fibre
bundles of the pdl are inserted. It is called lamina dura because of an increased
radiopacity.”
  http://www.merriam-webster.com/medical/lamina%20dura. It says:
“Definition of LAMINA DURA: the thin hard layer of bone that lines the socket of a
tooth and that appears as a dark line in radiography—called also cribriform plate.”
 Choice D can't be the answer because it says "pattern of radiopaque lines". Please note
that it means multiple radiopaque lines (pattern of lines) and not a single line.
 Cribriform plate is another name for lamina dura but its radiographic appearance cannot
be described as cribriform (literally meaning perforated). However, out of the given
choices, it's the most appropriate one. Had the first choice been about radiopacity, it
would have been the answer.

70. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative
gingivitis?
A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP
B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodens
C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes
D. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans oral capnocytophaga
E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia

Answer: A. Carranza (10th ed) calls it a fusospirochaetal infection.

71. In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is

true
A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility
B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic
inflammatory periodontal disease
C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been
weakened
D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested
individually for hyper mobility
E. Reliance on radiograph is essential
page547 Caranza, chapter: clinical diagnosis

72. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis

(Desquamative gingivitis)
A. It is caused by hormononal imbalance
B. Is seen only at or after menopause
C. Is frequently caused by lichen planus
D. Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis
E. Is related to nutritional disturbance
page411 Caranza, chapter: Desquamative gingivitis95% of Desquamative gingivitis are seen
in LP and cicatricial pemphigoid

17
73. The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently
supplemented with tetracycline because flora involved is
predominant
A. Aerobic
B. Strictly anaerobic
C. Facultative or microaerophilic
D. Resistant to other antibiotic
page 699 Caranza, chapter:treatment of aggressive periodontitis, AA is the main causative
organism

74. The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root

planning is by
A. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness
B. Use air for visual inspection
C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched
sound which indicates a smooth, hard surface.
D. Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease
oedema and bleeding
E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later.
page 786 Caranza, chapter:Scaling and Root planing, choice A&B are also an option, to be
done immediately after s&rp,but choice E is the best

75. Probe pressure at the sulcus of pocket should not be more

than enough to
A. Feel the top of the crestal bone
B. Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp
C. Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit
D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues
E. Limit the lateral pressure
page 786 Caranza, chapter:clinical diagnosis

76. A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingiva

with minimal trauma to the tissues because of
A. Has a round base
B. Is easy to sharpen
C. Has rounded cutting edges
D. Provides good tactile sensitivity
E. Has two cutting edges
page 777 Caranza,scaling and root planing, where it says sub gingival scaling and root
planing by curettes rely heavily on the tactile sensitivity,also because of the design like
curved blade,rounded toe and curved back. 

77. Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surface in

periodontal surgery is to
A. Sterilise the root surface
B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast
C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface
D. Assist the biding of lamina dura
E. Prevents post operative infections
page 974 Caranza, ch:reconstructive periodontal surgery, D is the given answer, but how can

18
Lamina dura be binded, when its only a radiograhic structure?

78. Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to

dental caries THE MOST EFFECTIVE is
A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation
B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and
maturation
C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following
tooth eruption
D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel
mineralization and maturation
93 TG,says water fluoridation is the effective method. During the formation of enamel the
only ways on fluorde ingestion is through water

79. When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation

containing high concentrations of fluoride; the major reaction
is
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Calcium fluoride
C. Stannous fluoride
D. Fluorapatite
93 TG

80. Several approaches have been suggested to increase the

fixation of professionally applied topical fluoride, which of the
following statements IS INCORRECT regarding increasing the
fixation
A. Increase concentration of fluoride in solutions
B. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution
C. Increase the exposure time to topical fluoride
D. Pre-treat the enamel with 0.5% phosphoric acid
E. Use NH4F rather than NaF at a lower PH
repeat question

81. Biopsy is least useful in the diagnosis of

A. Geographic tongue
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Cysts
D. Granuloma
E. Myeloma

Biopsy MAY be needed for aphthous ulcers. See below:

 Odell/87: for dd of aphthous ulcers: some features of the examination, blood tests
OR A BIOPSY may be helpful in certain cases, but the history is most important.
 Burket/64: With regard to aphthous ulcers: “Biopsies are only indicated when it is
necessary to exclude other diseases, particularly granulomatous diseases such as
Crohn’s disease or sarcoidosis.”
 Not indicated for geographic tongue.

82. In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close

19
to which muscles
A. Buccinator and superior constrictor
B. Medial and lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid and superior instructor
D. Temporal and lateral pterygoid
E. Temporal and medial pterygoid
Malamed page 230 says point of insertion is pterygo mandibular raphe and its muscle
contents are buccinator and sup constictor of pharynx

83. The extraction of maxillary deciduous molar in 5 years old

child; you should use
A. Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement
B. Rotation
C. Distal pressure and movement
D. Labial-lingual movement
page 386 oxford,oral surgery-the exttraction of teeth

84. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation

and what function does it serve after it is made
A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the
incisal guidance.
B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination
of the incisal guidance.
C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the
articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the
patient.
D. To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the
condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the
condylar paths of the patient.
Chapter MMR in Nallaswamy

85. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of

large cavity in permanent molar tooth is
A. Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars
B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars
C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars
D. Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars
E. Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar
page 224 waltons it says MB pulp horns in first molars are high and as Maxillary molars are
comparatively bigger than mandibular, it’s the one which get exposed
SAME ANSWER FOR DECI MOLAR ALSO – BOUCHER/502, Q.1 OF
RESTORATIVE SECTION.

From NBDE forum:

During the preparation of a Class II cavity, which of the following permanent teeth pulp horns will be 
the most subject to accidental exposure? 
A. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar 
B. Distofacial of a mandibular first molar 

20
C. Facial of a mandibular first premolar 
D. Lingual of a mandibular first premolar

86.A

no refernce

87.A

no refernce

88.C

89.A

http://en.allexperts.com/q/Dentistry-966/2010/2/Prosthodontics-2.htm

90.B

boucher

91.D

thou given answer is B but i feel due to lingual plate fracture or loss during molar extraction,D would b
appropriate

21
92.C

oxf immediate comp denture.

93.C

boucher pedo section

94.C

boucher pedo n microbiology

oxf.perio plaque

95.C

boucher pedo

96.A

repeated

97.D

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=WPvoEPsf0iQC&pg=PA23&dq=muscle+responsible+for+opening+of+mouth+dentistry&hl=en&ei=
FXzoTuDvJouViQf6qZDmCA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=6&ved=0CFcQ6wEwBQ#v=onepage&q=muscle%20responsible%20for
%20opening%20of%20mouth%20dentistry&f=false

98.C

i think its best option as according to following link,crowding  and mesial drifting will be evident.

Arch length n spacing are other problems.

At older age tooth loss is not a prob in mixed dentition but at an early age of abt 3yrs,it really affects
the whole mouth

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=JyX_KnXDEz8C&pg=PA19&dq=loss+of+tooth+in+mixed+dentition+and+its+effects&hl=en&ei=N3
3oTpGrNeO0iQfzmOWWBA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-

22
thumbnail&resnum=1&ved=0CDMQ6wEwAA#v=onepage&q=loss%20of%20tooth%20in%20mixed
%20dentition%20and%20its%20effects&f=false

99.A

profile is determined by these landmarks

100.C

nallaswamy pg 393

soft tissues are compressible->increased stress on abutment tooth->harmful effects on abutment

it also says stress breakers used to avoid damage to abutment tooth.pg409

101-A (Shafer's     -  Page 572) 

102-E
Choice A - definitely
Choice B – is not a sequel according to Carranza/472, maybe according to ingle
(http://books.google.co.nz/books?id=C_T3WQ-
a1MMC&pg=PA114&lpg=PA114&dq=pulp+necrosis+due+to+occlusal+trauma&source=bl&ots=K61Ij
1JLSk&sig=2bULfKUmyNN80VxQq0_InlxhAoM&hl=en&sa=X&ei=pTMOT4vrFcidiAf_jb0E&ved=0CCw
Q6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=pulp%20necrosis%20due%20to%20occlusal%20trauma&f=false)
Choice C (hypercementosis):
From http://books.google.co.nz/books?
id=Spk0V6TrCggC&pg=PA586&lpg=PA586&dq=hypercementosis+due+to+occlusal+trauma&source=
bl&ots=hWhgIWW2NA&sig=jHUDQoAQvYQParQIX9uyVkrYkYE&hl=en&sa=X&ei=MDUOT8zhKeWeiA
ep-uQz&ved=0CCUQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=hypercementosis%20due%20to%20occlusal
%20trauma&f=false :

And from http://books.google.co.nz/books?

id=WnZ0Ek2nP4wC&pg=PA500&lpg=PA500&dq=hypercementosis+due+to+occlusal+trauma&source
=bl&ots=sNaezgc6iH&sig=s-Vo5D-YZl4LhbKCB9gzXoIqvb4&hl=en&sa=X&ei=MDUOT8zhKeWeiAep-
uQz&ved=0CCgQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=hypercementosis%20due%20to%20occlusal
%20trauma&f=false :

23
Choice D -Triangulation = vertical bone loss
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bone_destruction_patterns_in_periodontal_disease)
103-A (Shillinburg -  Page 161)
          (Option C and D says using pin but pin retained are less retentive)
          (Couldn't find reason to exclude Class V inlay)
104-D as extension of the helps to prevent air obstruction 
105-C
(TG and Edward O Dell)
         (More common in mandible than maxilla; It is not an infection so prophylactic medicine will
have no effect on occurrence of dry socket;
          There is no exudate as there is no infection but there is exposed bone;Alvogyl and ZOE helps to
relieve pain by providing soothing effect)

106. Answer: B. SLOB rule. Since the object moves to the Same side as the x-ray beam, it
should be Lingually or palatally placed

107. Answer: A Herpangina

Explanation: Shafer (4th ed/pg 375) ‘‘Caused by Coxsackie group A virus....most commonly
seen in young children... chiefly a summer disease...... begins with sore throat, low-grade
fever, headache, sometimes vomiting, prostration and abdominal pain.. patients soon
exhibit small ulcers, each showing a gray base and inflamed periphery on the anterior
faucial pillars and sometimes on the hard and soft palates, posterior pharyngeal wall,
buccal mucosa and tongue. These ulcers are preceded by the appearance of numerous small
vesicles... The ulcers do not tend to be extremely painful, although dysphagia may occur.”

Could not find a reference for “pain in the ear”

108. Answer: B
Reference; Oxford handbook (5th ed/pg129, 130)
S= Sella (mid point of sella turcica)
N= Nasion (most anterior point on fronto-nasal suture)
Point A= position of deepest concavity on anterior profile of maxilla

So it signifies the relation of the maxilla with the anterior cranial base
The normal value of SNA angle is 81 +/- 3 degrees

109. Answer: D
Reference: Oxford Handbook (5th ed/pg 98)- “Injuries to primary teeth... Crown fracture:
RCT if pulp is involved or extract.”

24
110. Answer: B

Root development is ¾ complete when a tooth erupts (Bhalajhi)- so there are no

abnormalities of the tooth or surrounding structures (as seen on OPG)

Shafer (4th ed/pg 261)- “Eruption cyst:... clinically, the lesion appears as a circumscribed,
fluctuant, often translucent swelling of the alveolar ridge over the site of the erupting
tooth... Cause for the development is not known... often requires not treatment... However,
a small portion of the tissue overlying the tooth is sometimes removed to facilitate
eruption.”

111. Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of
the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this?
A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min (this is normal, less than 0.7 ml/min is high caries)
B. S. mutans concentration of 105 organism/ml (this is normal)
C. A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans
D. A lactobacilli concentration of 105 organism/ml
E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5
Mount and Hume: Page 72 and 74, SHOWS BOTH COULD BE CORRECT

Also, from http://health.groups.yahoo.com/group/supportforadc/messages/1437?

threaded=1&m=e&var=1&tidx=1 :
“Laboratory test indicators for high caries risk are: S. mutans more than 10 6, LB more than
105 and 3cc saliva in 4min.
So answer is D.”
Also see Q434

112. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Down’s syndrome?

A. Decreased neutrophil function
B. Macroglossia
C. Macrodontia
D. An increased susceptibility to periodontal disease
E. Congenitally missing teeth
Oxford page 757
Cawson's MCQS-In Orthodontics Section, Page 95-96,question3.111 (I have a very unclear
photocopied version so i am of sure about the exact landmarks)

113. The MOST common carcinoma in the mouth is,

A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/
B. Carcinoma of the lips
Shafer, Page no:101

114. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors erupted, but yet only three
permanent first molars are erupted. Oral examination reveals a large gingival
bulge in the un-erupted permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the
alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molar crown and three
fourth tooth developments, there are no other radiographic abnormalities. The
most appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan in such situation would be:
A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation.
B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure
C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to
erupt into its place.
D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molar
E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic

25
traction. 
Page 192, eruption cyst,Widmer

115. 12 years old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with bleeding
and general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage this patient?
A. Prescribe Metronidazole 100mg
B. Locally debride, give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2 mouth wash.
C. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling
D. Refer for haematological screening
E. Advise for bed rest with supportive and palliative treatment
Page 298 Widmer, Bouchers MCQs, page:415 from oral diagnosis and treatment planning

116. C boucher,community and preventive dentistry

117. C  boucher,community and preventive dentistry

118. E..the answer also includes...increase or decrease

for detail have a look at this link.

http://www.dentalcare.com/en-US/dental-education/continuing-education/ce371/ce371.aspx?
ModuleName=coursecontent&PartID=3&SectionID=-1
 
 Oxford pg37 see graph

119. B
 contemporary oral surgery,,
larry j peterson.page 367
 all odontogenic infections managed by incision and drainage
 
 oral and maxillofacial surgery ,
sumit sanghai,page 123.
confirm presence or abscene of pus by needle aspiration.if pus obtained,dnt aspirate more than 2-
3drops.if pus cannot b aspirated , leave the area to be managed medically,incision and drainage can
be performed only if pus is aspirated

MY ANSWER IS A. From http://forums.studentdoctor.net/archive/index.php/t-599141.html:

 If the prognosis is poor dentoalveolar abscess is not a contraindication for extraction.
(Dental Decks 2008)
 in my view the treatment for acute and chronic alveolar abscess is different.
in case of an acute abscess....its better to establish drainage through the root canal
followed by conventional endodontic therapy after the symptoms subside.
while in chronic, endodontic therapy is the treatment of choice.
in my view this ques is not rightly put
 
120. C oxford, pg 176.
S.mutans synthesizes extracellular polysaccharides glucan and fructan, specially from sucrose and
promotes its colonization.

Mcq 121   :- C (Although option B is also correct but i feel the more appropriate option is C as water
fluoridation mainly reduces smooth surface caries)
Mcq 122   :- A (page 30 Oxford which says that clinical situation is more advanced as compared
to radio-graphic picture
Mcq 123   :- E (Edward Odell Page 47)
Mcq 124   :- B (page 274 Oxford which says active lesions needs restoration with GIC)

26
Mcq 125   :- C  (Option A is excluded as resin bridges isn't indicated in deep bite cases; Option B is
excluded as central incisor shouldn't be used as an abutment for cantilever bridge due to its root
configuration)

126. Answer: C (given in answer key). Can’t find references for the choices.
127. A is false because recently erupted teeth have wide apical foramina and may give false
results

 B is true- according to pathways of the pulp (Cohen) pg 18, “A response by the pulp to
electric current only denotes that some viable nerve fibres are present in the pulp and are
capable of responding.”

 C is false- according to pathways of the pulp (Cohen) pg 18, “The response of the pulp to
electric testing does not reflect the histologic health or disease status of the pulp.”
128. A is true (Sturdevant/pg 492)- “Treating the prepared tooth for bonding requires etching
and then application of an adhesive.....”
 B-false because a matrix or plastic strip can be used to protect the adjacent tooth
 C is false because etching is used in all cases and not just those where extra retention is
required
 D is false because it can be used in deep cavities also

129. DOUBTFUL: The answer given is E but I haven’t been able to find references for C and
D. A and B are mentioned in Sturdevant (pg 607) causes. B is mentioned as cause of
discolouration on Cohen/505

130. Answer is A. According to Oxford (5th ed/pg 272)- Order of retention is C<B<A

131. Reconstructing the occlusal anatomy is based on

A. Functional factors
B. Depth of restoration on a tooth
C. Necessity to restore normal anatomy

132. How do you prepare floor of pulp chamber in molars

A. Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate
B. Use round bur to flatten the floor
C. Under cut walls
D. Use flat end fissure bur to make it leveled
Waltons page 236-7, describes not to follow b and d 

133. When do you finish campsite resin restorations

A. Immediately after curing
B. After 24 hours
C. A week after placement
Sturdevant Page;496

134. Where Café au lait spots are seen

A. Von Willebrand’s disease
B. Recklinghausen
C. Neurofibroma
Neurofibromatis/von Recklinghausen's disease, page 120 Burkets

135. Von Willebrand disease is

A. Haemophilic disease
B. Bacterial Endocarditis

27
C. Congenital cardiac disease
D. Rheumatic fever
Page 284-285 Widmer

136.C
oxford page 345
these are moved buccaly,frequently need a variety of rocking movements
(pls check this out again as am lil confused wid ROCKING MOVEMENT but first movement is usually
buccaly)
 
137.B
1.pethidine administered to pts already receiving MAOI causes serious toxicity..including
hyperthermia and excitement
2.Pethidine must never be used in the presence of MAOIs because of the risk of a fatal excitatory
interaction.
 
138.B
A blow to the anterior mandibular body is the most common reason for condylar fracture.
The force is transmitted from the body of the mandible to the condyle.
The condyle is trapped in the glenoid fossa.
 Commonly, a blow to the ipsilateral mandible causes a contralateral fracture in the condylar region.
 
139. A
oxford pg 230.
restoration are prone to fracture at isthmus so provide adequate depth,
 
140.D
composite.
shrinkage   1-4%
surface erosion.  wear is less because of presence of fillers
water absorption..  its water resistant
silicate
shrinkage..increased n prominent
surface erosion.high
water absorption.high

141  -B (The exact range is 0.3%-0.4%:-Skinner Philips)

142  -C (The exact is 1.42%:-Skinner Philips)
143  -C (Skinner Philips)
144  -D (Skinner Philips)
145  -B (Cawson No irradiation as chances of developing malignancy is high,the other two options are
not treatment options for fibrous dysplasia)

A. Marsupialization
B. In velation and packing ap??
C. Cold well??
D. Surgical curettage
E. None of the above

Answer: D (Laskin vol 2/574)- “small lesions may be curetted completely..” for large
lesions- conservative surgical excision

A is used to treat cysts (Laskin/437)

147. Oil or water on impression for treatment casts causes:

A. An increase of the quality
B. No alteration

28
C. A decrease of the quality
D. Bubbles on the cast
E. None of the above

Answer: C. Explanation Water on impression can cause the cast to have a rough surface
(Stewart/159).
Oil- since oil is hydrophobic, the stone mix will not be poured adequately over the area with
oil on it, hence the reduction in quality

148. What is Path of Insertion

A. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of
final rest position
B. The movement of the appliance from the points of rest position until it is not in
contact with teeth

Answer: A (Reference Stewart/228)

149. What is Path of Removal:

A. The appliances movement from the rest position to the last contacts of its rigid
parts with the supporting teeth
B. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of
final rest position

Answer: A (Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms - 8)

150. When correction preparation for re-contouring of occlusal surface is to be

applied, grinding only of the adjusted surface:
A. Should not be felt flat
B. Requires a flat crown
C. Requires no contact with adjacent teeth
D. Should be felt flat
E. None of the above

Can’t understand the question. Answer given is A (also seems logically correct to me for
recontouring of occlusal surfaces)

151. To obtain a desired projection of occlusal loads, the floor of

the occlusal rest should
A. Be convex
B. Slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? of abutment
C. Slope from Contact?? of abutment towards the marginal ridge
D. Be concave
E. Does not slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? of abutment
F. None of the above
I think its slope from the marginal ridge towards the center of the abutment??
Page 606, RPD section of Bouchers mcq

152. The transfer of stress by Tensile Action employs T. reaction;

a process that within limit
A. Fails to promote bone growth
B. Promote bone growth and maintenance

29
C. Fails to promote maintenance
D. None of the above

153. Which of the following arrears CAN NOT be determined by

survey analysis of partially edentulous cast
A. Areas to be revealed as blocked out to properly locate Rigid parts of a
frame work
B. Areas to be shaped to properly locate Rigid parts of framework
C. Areas used for guideline planes
D. Areas used for retention
E. Areas used for support
F. Depth of rest seats
apart from this choice all are the uses of surveyor

154. In partial dentures the guidelines “Guiding Planes” serve to

A. Aids in balancing occlusion
B. Assure predictable clasp retention
C. Form right angle with the occlusal plane
D. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachment
E. Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp
Page 610, RPD section of Bouchers mcq

155. Rough surface of porcelain /Porosity/ is a result of

A. Lack of compression
B. Sudden high temperature    
Page 582, FPD section of Bouchers mcq,Q.30

156. A oxford pg 254,255. Same question Boucher/593, Q88: poorly designed framework
results in flexing of metal and porcelain fracture.
improper load distribution occurs as a result of improper framework
 
157. A
 Water plays a very important role in the cement. Initially it serves as the medium, later, it slowly
hydrates the matrix, adding to the strength of the cement.so increasing water ,increases the
strength ,but not the setting time.
 
158. A  oxford pg,256
The retainer and pontic are usually remote from each other
A typical type of cantilever bridge is the 3-unit cantilever bridge.
This consists of two abutment crowns that are positioned side by side on the same side of the missing
tooth space.
The pontic is then connected to the two crowns which extend into the missing tooth space.
 
159. A   clinical removable parial prosthodontics.Kenneth  L. Stewart, pg6

Law says that the total root surface area of all the teeth which will support a bridge must equal or
exceed the total root surface area of the teeth being replaced.

160. A
usually overjet and overbit are considered for ortho purpose, so for aesthetics consider bridge or PD,

30
161   :-A (Type IV is also for bridge Skinner Philips)
162   :-B (the other two structures ain't present on the root surface)
163   :-A (Faulty jaw relationships are the commonest cause of persistent discomfort under complete
dentures)
164   :-A (post dam is the junction of fixed and movable tissues on the palate where fovea palatini is
present)
165   :-A (B is the definition of erosion)

166. Modulus of elasticity is defined as:

A. The stress at the proportional limit
B. The stress-strain ratio within the proportional limit

Answer: B (Skinner or Phillips 10th ed/54)- also called Young’s modulus or elastic modulus-
measure of stiffness or rigidity. It is the slope of the elastic region of the stress strain
diagram. Elastic region is the straight line region of the diagram when the stress remains
below the proportional limit. Also see second last ques on Boucher/333.

167. Tissue conditioning materials: (Silicon lining materials)

A. are more resilient than plastic acrylic
B. can minimise any bacterial colonies

Answer A: These are resilient soft flowing liner materials (Boucher/575, last question &
pg576, 1st ques.); serves as a shock absorber
According to Phillips 10th ed/264, 265: most commonly used soft reliners are plasticised
acrylic resins. Main drawback- loss of elasticity due to leaching of plasticisers. Silicone
reliners do not have this problem so they maintain elasticity for longer periods. But their
main problem is lack of adhesion to the denture base.
Choice B is false because tissue conditioners tend to accumulate food and lead to microbial
colonisation (Phillips/266)
SEE Cawson Q 1.38

168. The most common cause of RCT “Root Canal Treatment” failure is:
A. The canal not filled completely (short obturation)
B. Over filled canals

Answer: A. According to Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp, pg 358: “In an early radiographic
study of success and failure, Ingle indicated that 58% of failures were due to incomplete
obturation”.

169. The position of the lingual cusp of a maxillary first premolar during setting of
teeth and on occlusal view is positioned:**
A. Distally
B. Mesially
C. Central bucco-lingually

Answer given is B but I can’t get the exact meaning of the question.

31
However, according to Winkler 2nd ed/258: “the lingual cusp of the first maxillary premolar
falls on the lower common central fossa at the midpoint of the distal marginal ridge of the
first mandibular pm and mesial marginal ridge of the second pm...”

170. Lateral canals are usually found at:

A. The middle of the root
B. First third of the root close to the crown
C. The apical third

Answer: C. Reference: Carranza 10th ed/873: “The majority of accessory or lateral canals
occur in the apical portion of the root, with decreased numbers in the furcation area. They
are more common in the posterior teeth.”

171. The cause of development of lateral canals is

A. Cracks in Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
Page 356 Bouchers, 2nd question on this page

172. Transillumination is used to**

A. To find intrinsic tooth coloration
B. To detect caries
C. Pulp-stones
D. Hemorrhagic pulp
E. Calculus
Its given in Caries diagnosis in Oxford, SAQ 21's answer given by Jigisha duo also has explained this
fact.
 
173. What is the common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral
cavity
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Osteosarcoma
we did this before, repeated question as 113

174. Replantation of avulsed tooth 2 ½ hours after incident; the

most likely diagnosis is
A. External resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Pulp stones
Oxford, Pediatric dentistry, managemet of avulsed tooth and page 342, Bouchers Endodontics last
question on this page 

175. The emergency treatment for painless necrotic pulp is

A. Drainage through canals
B. None
page 350, Bouchers Endodontics , 1st question on this page gives an almost explanation required, i
suppose.

32
176.A  endodontics,By John Ide Ingle, Leif K. Bakland, pg572
bacteria are primary source of periradicular inflammation and endodontic failure.
 
177.A (pls check it again)
Glass ionomer cement bonds to tooth structure via direct chemical bonding without using any
adhesive system. To improve the adhesion of this material, pretreating the dentin surface with a
conditioner is recommended.
 
178.A
Sequence is as follows:
isolation
pumice prophylaxis
etching37% phosphoric acid-30sec
rinse
self etching adhesive
light cure(polymerization)
 
179.A textbook of prosthodontics by nallaswamy,pg534
its a type of facebow that locate the absolute hinge axis or true hinge axis.
 
180.A > C. Reference: Stewart/297 – see hard copy

From http://forums.studentdoctor.net/archive/index.php/t-438891-p-5.html
The answer is B. as plaque retention is a very important issue/disadvantage with the use of
partial denture(RPD). So B could be right

181   :-A
182   :-A
183   :-B
184   :-A
185   :-C

181    :-A(Stewart pg 393  However,the question seems to be incomplete as it doesn't say whether
they asking in maximal intercuspation or eccentric movement
                                      The natural teeth and artificial teeth should be in complete contact in maximal
intercuspal position)
182    :-A(Skinner pg 224)
183    :-B(Boucher mcqs pg 348)
184    :-A(Skinner pg 289 due to release of internal stresses)
185    :-C(Davenport pg 83 0.50mm - Wrought Metal)

186. When surveying:

A. Tilt the cast

Answer: A (Stewart 2nd ed/224): “The position of the cast being studied can be changed on the
surveying table to allow the designer to analyse what effect this changing of the tilt will play on
the relative parallelism of the structures.... Any combination of tilts may be used but excessive
tilts must be avoided.”

187. What statement is false:

A. Not to survey when making the crown

Answer: A (Stewart 2nd ed/ 226): “Cast restorations are frequently required on abutment teeth or
other teeth that will be contacted by the partial denture.... As the restorations are being waxed, the
working casts with the dies and wax patterns in position should be placed on the surveying table,

33
and the tilt of the table adjusted .... guiding planes parallel to the path of insertion of the
prosthesis may be prepared in the wax patterns...”. So the above statement is false.

188. A Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome, but Co-Chrome has high
modulus of elasticity.
A. The first statement is false the second is true
B. Both are true
C. The first is true the second is false
D. Both are false

Answer: B (Oxford 5th ed/298):

“Cast (cobalt chrome) clasps are stiff....”

We know that modulus of elasticity is a measure of stiffness of the material (Phillips 10th ed/54)
so the 2nd statement is true

“...but gold clasps are more flexible...” so the 1st statement is also true.

189. Overdentures are best used for,

A. Canines and premolars
B. Posterior teeth

Answer: A (Oxford/328): “choosing abutment teeth.... order of preference: canines, molars,

premolars, incisors.”

190. What is the main reason of ordering another periapical radiograph of the
same tooth:
A. To disclose the other roots
B. To observe tooth from different angle

Answer: B (according to me). The answer given is A. Please give your suggestions.

191. The ideal length of RCT is

A. At the apex
B. As far as you can obturate
C. 0.5 t0 1.5 mm before the apex
Oxford, Restorative Dentistry, Canal preperation-1

192. Retentive part of clasp position is

A. Below the survey line
B. Above survey line
C. As close as possible to the gingival margins
Similar to Q.194,if its gingivally located then its below the survey line

193. To minimize the load on free end saddle partial denture

A. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimension
B. Use mucco-compressive impression
Oxford, rpd design, according to what is in here both the options are right, 

194. Retentive Clasps

A. Alloy with high modulus of elasticity
B. Clasp arm is gingivally located

34
Bouchers MCQ,RPD Page 603,5th question

195. Internal resorption of RC usually

A. Asymptomatic
B. Painful
Bouchers MCQ,Endo Page 360,5th question

196.B endodontics.By John Ide Ingle, Leif K. Bakland,pg131

(its chemical cautery)
197.B oxford pg 289
198.A boucher pg 345
199.A oxford pg288
200.A.boucher pg 117

201    :- A
202    :- A

Explanation for 201 & 202:-

Hydrodynamic theory suggests that whenever there is a rapid movement of fluid inward or outward in
the dentinal tubules results in distortion of sub-odontoblastic nerve plexus generating a neural impulse

This rapid change in the pressure results in activation of A-delta fibres causing sharp shooting pain

Whenever,dentin is cut or hypertonic solution applied to the cut dentin there is movement of fluid in
the outward direction eliciting pain

203   :- A
204   :- A 

There are 3 types of angioneurotic edema:-

a.Allergic (to nuts, antibiotics, other allergens)

b.Drug induced ( for eg ACE inhibitors)
c.Hereditary

205   :- A

The reducing zone is the hottest zone and is blue in color

If we use the oxidizing zone it will oxidise the alloy and also,the temperature is low as compared to the
reducing zone

206. To increase the stability of the lower denture,

A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongue
B. The occlusal plane should be above the tongue
C. The lingual flanges should be concave

 Choice A is the most appropriate answer out of the given options

Reference Q. 1.23, Cawson (“tongue rests on the occlusal surfaces”),
Also, according to winkler/254: “dorsal surface of tongue is nearly level with the
occlusal surface of the posterior teeth.”

 Cawson further says that any restriction of the tongue laterally or vertically causes loss of
stability. For that reason, choice B is false since it will lead to restriction of the tongue in
the horizontal dimension.

35
  Choice C will also cause loss of stability since the tongue will engage the concavity and
cause dislodgement (mentioned in explanation to the same question in Cawson).

 Out of the given options, only option A will not restrict tongue movement and hence is
the most appropriate answer.

207. If the investment is burned out rapidly, what will happen:

A. Back pressure porosity
B. Cracking of the investment

Answer: B. Reference: Phillips 10th ed/504. Results in fins or spines on the surface of the casting

208. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:**

A. Weak edge strength and lack of surface details
B. Dimensional inaccuracy

Answer: A. Reference: Phillips 10th ed/494, 495, Rosenstiel 3rd ed/433

 According to these references, THE BIGGEST DISADVANTAGE of gypsum die
material is poor resistance to abrasion while carving the wax pattern. This means weak
edge strength.

 Lack of surface detail is not mentioned anywhere as a disadvantage but according to

Phillips/495, electroformed metallic dies have a very high surface detail reproduction. So
this could be a relative disadvantage of gypsum based die materials in comparison with
electroformed metallic die materials. On that basis, option A is the most appropriate
answer.

 Choice B is not mentioned anywhere as a disadvantage

 See Q301 also

209. Overdenture advantage is,**

A. Proprioceptors

Answer: A. Reference; Oxford 5th ed/328, Cawson, Q 1.37; it also reduces the rate of alveolar
ridge resorption

210. In electro surgery, the tissue may stick to the electrode because of ,
A. The current intensity is too high
B. The current intensity is too low

Answer: B. Too low an intensity of the current would cause insufficient temperature of the
electrode and hence incomplete burning of soft tissue, which would stick to the electrode.
However, I could not find a specific reference for this answer.

211. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it

A. Contains micro filled
B. Better colour matching
Oxford, dental materials section on resin composite (constituents and properties) gives an
overall idea

36
212. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown
is by
A. Tapering
B. Long path of insertion
Nallaswamy, FPD- tooth preparation chapter,page 567-8, Both are retentive features, ideal
tapering for best retention is 0 degree(parallel walls)  which is practically impossible, so there
is an ideal degree of taper. Also increasing in taper also decreases retention.Same is explained
in Shillinburg Principle of tooth preparation. Also see Rosenstiel/181-185.

Cawson, Q2.56

213. Wrought metal is to be

A. Marble
B. Quenched
C. Subjected to /undergone/ cold treatment during processing
(annealed)
Anusavice, page 633, I think the answer is not in the correct frame or may be something is
missing

DP Basic/244, point 11.: “Co-Cr alloys can be cold worked but not heat hardened. Gold
can be heat hardened but not cold worked.”

214. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam
A. Through the contacts.
oxford, Restorative dentistry-Isolation and moisture control

215. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental

complaint
A. Acute periodontal abscess
B. Chronic periodontal abscess
C. Apical abscess
D. Chronic alveolar abscess (according to me)

Justification given for C as answer. Bouchers MCQ,page 490 , 3rd question on this page,
almost same question
216.A
Supra bony=supracrestal or supra alveolar:-
-The base of the pocket is coronal to the underlying alveolar bone.
-Occur with horizontal bone loss.
Infrabony:-
-angular/vertical bone loss
 
217.A
DEFINITION: its inflammation of supporting tissue of teeth,usually a progressive
destructive change leading to loss of alveolar bone and part of periodontal ligament
 

37
218.C
The average, healthy pocket depth is around 3 mm with no bleeding upon probing.
Depths greater than 3 mm can be associated with "attachment loss" of the tooth to the
surrounding alveolar bone, which is a characteristic found in periodontitis.
 
219.A
fibroblast phagocytosize collagen fiber by extending cytoplasmic process
to the ligament –cementum interface & by resorbing the inserted collagen
fibrils & the fibrils of cementum matrix.
 
220.C oxford pg 184,periodontology.
false pockets are due to gingival enlargements

221     :-C

The answer given is A....But I feel C is more appropriate as crowding makes oral hygiene
maintenance difficult

222    :-B 

The areas of cementum which are soft indicate presence of decay.....GIC will help by fluoride release
and also esthetic....

223. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection:

A. Chlorhexidine
B. H2O2
C. EDTA
D. Ethyl alcohol
E. Eugenol

Answer: Most appropriate answer seems to be E followed by B and D (in that order). Reasons:

 A is useful: Cohen/258
 B has been used as an irrigant but is not very effective : Cohen/258: “The effervescence
created by mixing NaOCl with hydrogen peroxide has been used to remove debris from
the root canal, but this is not an effective method.”
 C is useful: Cohen/260
 D does not have any direct antimicrobial effect but facilitates the action of other irrigants :
See image below:

38
E is not useful: According to Cohen/265: “The antimicrobial action of ZINC OXIDE creates a
low level but long lasting antimicrobial effect.... Free EUGENOL always remains in the mass and
acts as an irritant.” So zinc oxide and not eugenol has antimicrobial properties.

224    :-A

As apical fragment usually has best prognosis and no treatment is usually required but we need to
keep it under observation as there are chances of loss of vitality of the apical 2/3rd root

225    :-D

To know the status of root formation and the location of intruded tooth...

226. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or ‘does not detect vitality’ in some
papers/ ,
A. Traumatised teeth
B. Just erupted teeth
C. Multi-rooted teeth
D. Capped teeth
E. Necrotic pulp

Answer: D. Reference: Cohen 9th ed/18: “The electric pulp tester will not work unless the probe
can be placed in contact with or be bridged to the natural tooth structure.”

227. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located:

A. In the pulp chamber under mesiolingual cusp
B. In the pulp chamber opposite the mesio-distal fissure of the buccal cusp
C. Under the distolingual cusp

39
Answer: A. Cohen 9th ed/205, figure 7-101

228. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is,

A. Skin rush with swollen lips and eyes

Answer: A. Haven’t been able to find a solid reference for this.

229. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with,

A. Diabetics
B. Rheumatic fever

Answer: B. Therapeutic guidelines/136, 140.

230. What is not an effect of (drug??):

I. Sedation
II. Excitement
III. Analgesia
IV. Hypnosis
V. General anaesthesia
A. none of the above
B. All of the above
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, IV and V

Answer given is D. The question seems to be incomplete..

231. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which

naturally appearing product
A. Serotonin
B. Histamine
C. Enkephalins
In Pharmacology its given that opiod analgesics produces endogenous peptides having
mophine like action called as opiopeptides like enkephalins,endorphins and dynorphins.

232. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more

when
A. Injection in supine position
B. Injection into vascular area
C. Injection without vasoconstrictors
D. Intravenous injection
TGA, LA section, in toxicity: 

233. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI); which

are is contra indicated
I. Barbiturate
II. Local anaesthetic
III. Pethidine
IV. Acetyl salicylic acid
A. All of the above
B. None of the above

40
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV “check Q137 too”
TGA OPIODS

234. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed

restoration which interferes with the occlusion
A. Apical abscess
B. Pulpal necrosis
C. Apical periodontitis
Torabinejad, Chapter 4, Page 58 says hyperocclusion causes AP

235. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted

teeth is
A. Removal of enough bone
B. Preoperative assessment
C. The flap design
D. The use of general anaesthetic
Chapter 6,Page-49, in Dimitrioulis, its explained how Assessment of surgical difficulty is
important, the factors which includes the pre operative assessment are :Access,root
pattern,degree of erruption,depth of impaction,angulation of tooth,age of the patient and
sex/race

236.A,B
(cant find any refernce from text books ,just searched on net and found this one,hope it helps)
 
Most benign and malignant tumors manifest as painless mass.
However,malignant tumors may invade nerves,causing localised or regional
pain,numbness,paresthesia,causalgia,or a loss of motor function.
 
237.A oxford pg 322. denture problems and complaints.
 
238.A
 
239.B oxford pg 505 and 727.
 
An inherited defect of membraneous bone formation, usually autosomal
dominant.
Skull and clavicles are affected.
Multiple supernumerary teeth.
Multiple unerupted teeth with retention of primary dentition.
240.B odell pg 303

241   :- F... A and B

Pemphigus and Herpes simplex both form intra-epithelial vesicle or bullae ( Burket/69: classical
lesion of pemphigus is a thin walled bulla... rapidly breaks but continues to enlarge.
Burket/52: HSV infection: vesicles appear 1 or 2 days after prodrome occurs, quickly
rupture)
Aphthous ulcer as the name suggests in an ulcer and there is no vesicle formation
ANUG causes punched out interdental ulcers
Erythema migrans is represented by migratory areas of erythema on the dorsal surface of the tongue
Erythema multiforme: Intact bullae rarely seen (Burket/58)

41
Cawson/153, Q6.80:
 Intact vesicles or bullae seen in herpetic stomatitis and mucous
membrane pemphigoid
 Not seen in (other choices of same question) – pemphigus vulgaris,
Stevens Johnson syndrome, lichen planus
Also see Q388, 1036

242    :-A

They are most common and have a typical snowy-white, lacy, starry or annular pattern

243    :-C

Denture stomatitis is due to candidal infection and Nystatin is an anti-fungal agent

244    :-B

Shafer's page 62 table

245    :-A

Oxford page 450

246   :-D

A is sebaceous glands seen on the buccal mucosa and is a normal anatomical variant 

247   :-A

Explanation same as above (Mcq 246)

248   :-B

A can cause angular chelitis but in a complete denture wearer B is more common

249   :-D

As in osteogenesis imperfecta there is bulbous crowns and short roots with narrow flame shaped
pulps but there is no sign of alveolar damage 

250  :-B

The other two are local signs of infection...

251. How would you diagnose a periapical abscess:

A. Pain on percussion
B. Pain when eating hot food
C. Pain when eating cold food
D. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray

Answer: D. Ref Cohen 9th ed/36, 37. Pain on percussion occurs in ACUTE abscess but not in
CHRONIC so ‘A’ is not a universal feature of a periapical abscess.

252. A diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse; what would
you do:

42
A. Give glucose
B. Administer O2
C. Administer adrenaline
D. Inject insulin

Answer: A. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia. Ref. Therapeutic Guidelines/178, Davidson 19 th ed/652

BUT weak pulse is not mentioned in either text as a symptom. Please give references if you find
any.

253. How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma:

A. Excision
B. Excision and extraction of teeth
C. Radiation
D. Surgery and radiation

Answer: D. Shafer 4th ed/119-127. A combination of surgery and radiation has been mentioned as
the treatment modality under all the sections on epidermoid or squamous cell carcinoma (lip,
tongue, floor of the mouth, gingiva, etc.)

254. In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar:

A. Rotation
B. Buccally
C. Lingually

Answer: B. Ref. Oxford 5th ed/345: “deciduous teeth are extracted using the same principal” (as
permanent teeth). It also mentions that permanent molars are moved buccally first and since
movements for the deciduous teeth are the same, B should be the answer. But forceps that engage
the furcation areas sgould not be used for deciduous teeth.

255. An impression with elastomer in custom tray has been taken for crown
preparation; it will be two days before the impression gets to the laboratory
for construction of the crown. Which impression material is preferred?
A. Polyether
B. Thiokol or meraptan rubber
C. Condensation silicone
D. Vinyl polysiloxane

Answer: D. Ref Oxford 5th ed/626.

 A is not preferred because it absorbs water
 B (another name for polysulfide) “should be cast within 24h” so it is also not preferred
 C is prone to shrinkage
 D or addition silicone is very stable and can be posted or stored prior to casting so it’s the
best answer

256. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a vital molar tooth;
what type of amalgam mix would you prefer:

A. A large mix to ensure homogeneity

B. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualities
C. Several small mixes, sequentially triturated
D. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratios
E. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed

43
Answer: C. (MY DOUBT - How does ‘vital molar’ affect the answer?)

 A is ruled out because condensation around pins is time consuming and the amalgam may
be set before the last few increments are filled. As per Phillips 10 th ed/394: “the longer the
time between mixing and condensation, the weaker is the amalgam”. Also, “a fresh mix
of amalgam should be made if condensation takes longer than 3 to 4 minutes”
 B is ruled out because excessive mercury in the restoration is not desirable
 C is the appropriate answer because trituration of a new increment takes only a few
seconds
 D is also ruled out because mercury alloy ratio is decided as per the manufacturer’s
instructions and cannot be varied too much
 E- false “addition of mercury after trituration is contraindicated” (Phillips 10 th ed/390)

257. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is most likely

to be due to:
A. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the composite
B. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the composite
C. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamel
D. Salivary pellicle growth at the interface
E. Setting contraction of the composite resin
 A and B are ruled out because filler and resin content affect the wear resistance of the
composite material. Their hydrolysis has no bearing on the marginal integrity of the
restoration.
 C- possible but not the most likely cause
 D- does not affect the marginal integrity
 E- most appropriate (Sturdevant 4th ed/483)

258. The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is:
A. 45-60°
B. 70-85°
C. 45-80°
D. 95-110°
E. 130-150°

Answer: D. Ref, Sturdevant 4th ed/300. “Cavosurface angle of 90 degrees produces maximal
strength...” and “... to remove extensive caries, tilting the bur is often indicated .... and provide a
90- to 100-degree cavosurface angle” (also see Q258)

259. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that
during setting or in function the light cured material tends to:
A. Seal the margins better and completely
B. Exhibit less wear on time
C. Undergo greater colour change
D. Shrink more rapidly
E. Posses greater fracture toughness

 A: According to Sturdevant 4th ed/480: it is theorised that polymerisation shrinkage in the

centre (as shown by self cured composites) rather than at margins (as shown by light
cured composites) may help maintain marginal adaptation. So the opposite of ‘A’ is true.
 B: Method of curing is not related to wear resistance. It is a function of the filler content

44
  C: False. Its opposite is true. Sturdevant (pg 480) says, “light cured composites exhibit
greater colour stability” and self cured ones are less colour stable due to “eventual
breakdown of polymerisation-initiating tertiary amines.”
 D: True (by exclusion of other choices). Reference needed
 E: Not mentioned. But may be true since light cured composites have lesser internal
porosities as opposed to self cured ones where air bubbles are included while mixing of
the components.

260. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that has been
etched by an acid solution; you would expect:
A. Arrest of enamel caries by organic sulphides
B. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 days
C. Continued enamel declassification in the etched area
D. Slight attrition of the opposing tooth

Answer: B. According to Oxford 5th ed/614 remineralisation of etched enamel occurs so that
AFTER 24 HOURS, it appears the same as untreated enamel

 A and D are clearly false.

Why C is false: According to Sturdevant 4th ed/493, “even though etched areas of enamel appear
normal after several days, SEM has shown that etched enamel is not completely remineralised
even after 90 days.” But this does not mean that demineralisation continues, so C is also false

Boucher/281, Q53: enamel expected to return to normal within 48hours and penetration of
enamel by calcium-phosphate salts.

261. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam you

should consider
A. 2mm reduction while forming a flattened surface
B. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cusps
C. 4mm reduction while forming a flattened surface
D. 4mm reduction while following the original contour of the surface
page 768 Sturdevants', i am a bit doubtful here also, 

262. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the

occlusal surface of class II cavity on a mandibular first
premolar in order to
I. Remove unsupported enamel
II. Prevents encroachment on the buccal pulp horn
III. Prevents encroachment on the lingual pulp horn
IV. Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
E. IV only
Sturdevant’s  Page 708-9, it mentions both the choices

45
263. In radiographs, an incipient carious lesion limited to the end
of the proximal surface of posterior tooth appears as
A. Radiopaque area
B. Triangle with apex towards the tooth surface
C. Larger in radiographs than actual lesion (see expl. on 1000/41) or E
D. All of the above
E. None of the above – also possible
page 272, white and pharoah, where it says that early lesions in enamel are radiolucent, classic
triangle shape with its "base" at the tooth surface, I am bit doubtful... as in the question it says
apex..?? (Boucher/374, Q7 for caries progression diagrams)

264. In regards to carbide burs; the more number of cutting

blades and low speed will result in
A. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surface
B. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surface
C. More efficient cutting and a smoother surface
D. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface
page 121 Mount and hume, where it says that carbide burs with more number of blades(around 30)
are used for polishing and are less efficient when compared to the ones with less number(around 6)
of cutting blades,

265. For an onlay preparation during the restoration of a tooth,

which one of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE means for
verifying adequate occlusal clearance
A. Wax bite chew in
B. Proper depth cuts
C. Visual inspection
D. Articulating paper
Rosenstiel/206.
266. Choose statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM
A. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver, tin, copper and zinc
B. Amalgam is an alloy of two more metals that have been dissolved in
each other in the molten state.
C. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals, one of them is mercury
D. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is
mixed with mercury
E. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals, one of them is tin
Definition of Amalgam, a straight question

267. At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavity

walls in a class II preparation for amalgam should be finished
A. An acute angle
B. An obtuse angle X
C. A right angle

46
D. An angle of 45°
Page381 operative dentistry section in bouchers and Sturdevants , page 679, where it says the cavo-
surface angle 90-100 degree. (also see Q258). Why not B: See hard copy.

268. Teenager has swelling involving his upper lip, the corner of
his nose and a region under his left eye. The swollen area is
soft, fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on
the left side. His body temperature is 39°. What is the first
thing you would do after taking history and temperature
A. Refer him to physician
B. Anaesthetise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instant
relief
C. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swelling
D. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teeth
E. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is
reduced
Page418 ODAT section in bouchers and case 41 in Odells page 195, its a clinical question, infection
involving the buccal space which could be arising from either 23 or 24 or25 or 26  

269. The prognosis of tooth with apical resorption is

A. Poor
B. Good if apex can be sealed
C. Dependant upon periapical surgery
D. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment
of the canal
Page358 endodontic section in bouchers

270. The term TUGBEN?? is related to : “When used in connection

with a master Gutta Percha cone in endodontics”
A. Tensile strength of the gutta percha
B. Consistency of gutta percha
C. Size of the cone
D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm
E. Length of the cone
assuming its TUGBACK Page346 endodontic section in bouchers

271.C endodontics volume 1 by john ide ingle,pg573

anatomical limits of pulp space are the dentino cemental junction apically and pulp chamber coronally.
canals filled to the apical dentinocemental junction are filled to the anatomical limit of the
canal.beyond this limit periodontal structures begin.
 
272.D
Ref. Cohen and boucher pg 354 last question – see expl also.
 
273.E
dental decks,prosthetic portion.crown n bridge,answer of 1st question.
 
274.A

47
 
275.A
dental decks ,crown n bridge
 
276.D
Nalla/613

277.C
oxford pg 244.
labial reduction 1.2-1.5mm
 
278.C
 
279.C
saddle is part of denture that fits oral mucosa of basal seat,restores normal contour of sofft tissues of
dentulous mouth and supports the artificial teeth
 
280.D
cant find any reference so jus a guess
281     :-C

Definition of minor connectors

282    :-B

When the direct retainer comes into contact with the tooth, the framework must be stabilized against
horizontal movement for the required clasp deformation to occur which is provided by the reciprocal
arm

283    :-D

Page 91 Stewart

284. Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp during its clinical
use probably indicates that the:
A. Ductility was too low
B. Hardness was too great
C. Ultimate tensile strength was too low
D. Tension temperature was too high
E. Elastic limit was exceeded

Answer: E
 Distortion means permanent deformation. Elastic limit is defined as the max stress a
material can withstand before it becomes plastically deformed (Phillips/59)
 Not C: UTS is defined as the stress required to fracture a material (Phillips/59)
 Also see Q298

285. Which of the following is true regarding preparation of custom tray for elastomeric
impression?
A. Adhesive is preferred over perforation
B. Perforation provides adequate retention
C. Adhesive is applied immediately before procedure
D. Perforations are not made in the area over the prepared tooth

Answer: B

48
  A could be regarded as false: Phillips recommends the use of adhesives but does not
mention anywhere that adhesives are better than perforation for retention. This has not
been mentioned anywhere else either.
 B is true: See http://www.moderndentistrymedia.com/may_june2010/terry.pdf. It says:

“Surface preparation of the custom tray can significantly affect the retention of the
impression material and can improve adhesion between impression material and tray.
Methods for improving retention/adhesion include: perforating or roughening of the
custom tray surface with tungsten carbide burs and application of adhesive solutions.”

 C is false: The article above also says that a drying time of at least 15 minutes is
recommended so adhesive should be applied a minimum of 15 minutes before and not
“immediately” before the procedure.

 D: Not mentioned anywhere. Logically, perforation improves retention so perforating the

tray in the area of the prepared teeth would only improve the quality of the impression.
Had it been true, it would have been mentioned as one of the disadvantages of using
perforated stock trays for elastomeric impressions.

 Other points:
 Acrylic custom tray is better than other materials (thermoplastic etc.)
 Distortion of impression can be minimised by reducing bulk of impression material.
So custom trays are better since they result in a uniform impression thickness of 2-4
mm.

Wax spacer should be covered by foil and then acrylic should be adapted over it. Otherwise some
amount of wax would always stick to the tissue side of the acrylic tray and interfere with the
setting of the impression.

286    :-B

As if the retentive arm is active it will exert adverse forces on the abutment tooth

287    :-B

Stewart/38. Why C is wrong – see explanation on 1000/48

288    :-C

It is formed by coalescence of several mucous glands

289   :-B

49
Page 314 Oxford

290    :-D

As if the overdenture's hygiene is not maintained it will result in plaque accumulation and thus, caries
and periodontal diseases

291. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture

therapy:
A. Trauma to extraction site
B. Increased the potential of infection
C. Impossibility for anterior try in
D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge

Answer: C. Winkler 2nd ed/363. A, B, D are false- the opposite of these choices is true
(Winkler/362)

292. Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in:

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Von Willebrand’s syndrome
C. Addison’s desease

Answer: B. Shafer 4th ed/753

293. Which statement BEST describes plaque:

A. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can not be rinsed off teeth
B. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be rinsed off teeth
C. It is a soft film composed mainly of non calcified bacteria and can not be
rinsed off the teeth
D. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can not be rinsed off the teeth
E. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can be rinsed off teeth.

Answer: C. Carranza 10th ed/137. “Plaque is primarily composed of bacteria in a matrix of

salivary glycoproteins.... this matrix makes it impossible to remove the plaque by rinsing...”

294. The gingiva of a child is diagnosed on the basis of all of these except of:
A. Contour of gingival papilla
B. Sulcus depth
C. Contour of Nasmyth membrane
D. Tight filling of gingival collar

Answer C. Other choices are features that are used to assess gingival health.

295. Which one of the following statement is correct,

A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle
B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X
C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle
D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle

A- True. See the following image for reference.

50
B- False. Reparative or tertiary dentin can be formed later in response to injury (Tan Cate 3 rd
ed/155)
C-False (no such entity as acquired enamel cuticle). Last product is primary enamel cuticle.
D- False. remnants of ameloblasts form it

296. In regard to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin; the
microfill resins tend to have,
A. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength
B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength
C. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength
D. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength

Answer: B. Phillips 10th ed/288

297. Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapour form because of,
A. It is accumulative and causes liver poison
B. It is accumulative and causes kidney poison
C. It induces neoplasia in the liver
D. It is accumulative and causes brain poison
E. It induces neoplasia in the brain

Answer: D.
Reference: Internet: http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/healthguidelines/mercuryvapor/recognition.html
It says:
“Effects on Humans: Mercury vapor can cause effects in the central and peripheral nervous systems,
lungs, kidneys, skin and eyes in humans. It is also mutagenic and affects the immune system
[Hathaway et al. 1991; Clayton and Clayton 1981; Rom 1992]. Acute exposure to high
concentrations of mercury vapor causes severe respiratory damage, while chronic
exposure to lower levels is primarily associated with central nervous system damage
[Hathaway et al. 1991]. Chronic exposure to mercury is also associated with behavioral changes and
alterations in peripheral nervous system [ACGIH 1991]. Pulmonary effects of mercury vapor
inhalation include diffuse interstitial pneumonitis with profuse fibrinous exudation [Gosselin 1984].
Glomerular dysfunction and proteinuria have been observed mercury exposed workers [ACGIH 1991].
Chronic mercury exposure can cause discoloration of the cornea and lens, eyelid tremor and, rarely,
disturbances of vision and extraocular muscles [Grant 1986]. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions have
been reported in individuals exposed to mercury vapor [Clayton and Clayton 1981]. Mercury vapor is

51
reported to be mutagenic in humans, causing aneuploidy in lymphocytes of exposed workers
[Hathaway et al. 1991].”
Also, according to Sturdevant/160, once absorbed, it has a tendency to accumulate in the liver,
kidney and brain.

298. The elastic limit may be defined as the **,

A. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failure
B. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failure
C. The minimum stress required to induce permanent deformation of a structure
D. Minimum stress in structure
E. Maximum strain that can be measured.

Answer: C > A?

The words “under tension” are confusing me in ‘A’ while ‘C’ does not look right since it means
that permanent deformation can occur at elastic limit also. See explanation to Q284 above.

Phillips 10th ed/59. Defined as the max stress a material can withstand before it becomes
deformed

299. Rank the following impressions materials according to their flexibility

A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide Eugenol
B. Silicone> Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol
C. Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol>Silicone
D. Alginate> Silicone> Polysulfide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol
E. Alginate> Zinc Oxide Eugenol> Silicone> Polysulphide

Answer: A. Ref: Internet resources. However, answer given is D

Phillips 10th ed/57: Flexibility = strain produced in response to a given stress

300. Denture resins are usually available as powder and liquid that are mixed to
form a plastic dough; the powder is referred to as,**
A. Initiator
B. Polymer
C. Inhibitor
D. Monomer
E. Dimer

Answer: B. Reference: Phillips 10th ed.

301. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of

stone dies used for crown fabrication
A. They lack accurate reproduction of surface details
B. Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original
impression
C. The strength of the stone
D. The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the
dies.
See expl. to Q208. Re choice C –“edge” strength is less

302.Glass Ionomer Cement sets because of**

52
A. Acid-Base reaction
B. Addition polymerisation reaction
C. Growth of glass crystals
D. Slip plane locking
E. Solvent evaporation
Phillips/526, it says with the exception of Ca(OH) 2 and resin products, most cements set by acid-base
reaction.... powders consist of either glass/metallic oxides
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glass_ionomer_cement#Setting_Reaction says, “The setting reaction is
an acid-base reaction between the acidic polyelectrolyte and the aluminosilicate glass”.

303. The articular surface of the normal temporomandibular joint

are lined with
A. A specially adapted, highly fibrous tissue
B. Hyaline cartilage
C. Chondroitin-6-phosphate
D. Highly vesiculated tissues
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tempero-mandibular_joint

304. When all other removable partial denture consideration

remains unchanged; clasps constructed of which material can
be engage the deepest under cut
A. Chrome cobalt casts
B. Nickel chrome casts
C. Wrought stainless steel
D. Wrought gold
See hard copy for explanation

305. Which one of the following types of pain is most likely to be

associated with cranio mandibular disorders
A. Exacerbated pain by hot or cold food
B. Keeps patient awake at night
C. Associated with muscle tenderness
D. Associated with trigger spots related to the trigeminal nerve
TGA Dental management of  patient taking medications for chronic musculoskeletal disorders, in this
TM disorders

306. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the**

A. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of upper and
lower incisors
B. Mechanical equivalent at the compensating curve
C. Same as condylar guidance
D. Estimated by the equation: Incisal guidance = 1/8 of condylar
guidance
Nallaswamy, page 109 definition & 193 describes the choice A.

307. When immature permanent molars that have been treated

with Ledermix pulp capping, the most probable pathology is
A. Chronic inflammation of the pulp
B. Necrosis of the pulp
Page 103 Cameron &Widmer, pulp capping the choice of treatment when the pulp is still vital, while
necrosis requirs endodontic approach

53
308. Child with rampant caries taking medicine with high quantity
of sugar; the best way to help preventing caries is
A. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener
B. Report the patient is having expectorant
C. Give him the syrup during sleep time
D. Give him inverted sugar
page 41(sugar),94(rampant caries,128(sugar free medications) oxford

309. How many ppm “ Part Per Million” of fluoride are present in
water supply in case of temperate climate**
A. 1 ppm
B. 2 ppm
C. 8 ppm
D. 1.2 ppm
0.6-1.1ppm as per ADA guidelines/4

310. The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth are

A. Deciduous teeth have a higher pulp horns and larger pulp chambers
B. Deciduous teeth have flatter contact areas
C. Deciduous teeth have thinner enamel surface
D. All of the above
oxford page 74, pediatric dentistry

311.B
oxford pg 233.class IV,pg 618
 
312.C
mount and hume pg 207
it states that in dentine binding system, three components are used now.acid atchent,primer(chelating
agent ,EDTA,acidic primer) and adhesive
 
313.A
Before the solution is deposited, the plunger should be lightly depressed then released: this will
allow aspiration of fluid from the tissues. If blood is aspirated, the needle should be moved and
aspiration repeated before injection in order to avoid intravascular placement of local anaesthetic
solution
 
314.B
oxford pg 288
lateral condensation:one master G.P.+accessory or lateral GP
A.cant use only one gp as canal will not b sealed properly,chances of microleakage
C.it doesnt make any sense.
 
315.E
cant find any refernce,i assume  E is correct as occlusion is a combined effort of all these factors
 
316.A
oxford pg 345
lower 5  :  rotated and lifted
upper 5 :  two roots or a flattened root,buccally,pull down,buccally
 
317.B
oral surgery By Fragiskos D. Fragiskos pg83
buccolingual pressure is applied and range of motion depends upon the morphology of buccal and
lingual alveolar bone.the lingual alveolar bone is very thin as compared to buccal which is unyieiding
therefore the force that mobilize the third molar must b lingually.

54
 
318.B
odell  pg 174

Taking the examples of lignocaine and mepivacaine from Odell:

we need to calculate the maximum volume (in ml) of a 2% solution that can be given

ACCORDING TO TG/50:
Maximum dose is 4.4mg/kg (to a maximum of 300mg)
So the maximum volume that can be safely given is that containing 300mg of ligno/mepivacaine

2% means 2GRAMS contained in 100ml

OR 2000mg contained in 100ml
OR 1mg contained in (100/2000)ml OR 20MG/ML (GIVEN IN TG)
OR 308mg contained in [(100/2000)X308] ml = 15.4ml
So the maximum volume of 2% ligno or mepivacaine that can be safely given to a 70kg male
is 15.4ml OR 7 cartridges of 2.2ml each OR 8.5 cartridges of  1.8ml each

These calculations are based purely on the data given in Odell..

But Odell mentions half a cartridge less than our calculated answers as max permitted doses for both
2.2ml and 1.8ml cartridges. This is probably because he wants the clinician to keep the dose safely
less than the maximum permitted dose.

However, our answer matches the table on therapeutic guidelines, pg 50, 51

 
319.A

From http://www.ellisteeth.demon.co.uk/ibbetson%20RBB.pdf :

The article, Replacement-Adv_Disadv, says, “The commonest reason for failure is through
debonding at the tooth-resin metal interface. This typically occurs when the cement lute is
subjected to shear forces created by unfavourable occlusal loading.”

Also see question on 1000/53

 
320.B
setting and hydroscopic=function of silicate binder
strength and rigidity=function of gypsum binder

321     :-A

That is why the retentive arm of the clasp is placed below the height of contour

322    :-A

As the distal free end saddle is tissue supported, the alveolar bone goes continues resorption so
requires more relining

323    :-C

couldn't find any references but it seems the most logical

55
324    :-?

I guess none should be the option as pocket is a soft tissue change so can't be seen on X-ray

325   :-A

Function depends on occlusal form

326   :-A

Which results in dental caries and Page 91 TG

327   :-B

Gangrenous pulp is death of pulp and is infected so requires RCT

328   :-A

As the eugenol in ZOE will interfere with composite polymerisation

329   :-E

Caranza Page 468

330   :-B

page 462 oxford and it is useful both diagnostically and therapeutically with 80% success rate

331. Which nerve is anesthesised in anterior border of ramus and 1 cm above

occlusal plane of lower posterior teeth:
A. Lingual nerve
B. Long buccal nerve

Answer: B. Malamed/235

332. In an X ray the mesio buccal root of upper first molars is elongated because
of:
A. Mesio angular horizontal
B. Too big vertical angulation
C. Too small vertical angulation
D. High angulation

Answer: C. White and Pharoah/90, 148. Too small vertical angulation or too negative an angle of
the tube. Negative angle means tube is pointing upwards.

333. Which of the following is false in regard to Cleft-Palate?

A. May be submucous
B. More common in males than females
C. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing loss
D. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general
population.

Answer: D
A, B, C are correct (Shafer/14), D is false (not mentioned anywhere)

56
334. Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease:**
A. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosis
B. A communicable disease
C. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healing
D. Systemic diseases have no effects on it
E. ZoE paste will accelerate healing

Answer: E (various references on the internet)

A:false- finger tissue is soft and depressible and small amount of mobility can go undetected
because of it. Blunt ends of metallic instruments should be placed on the facial and lingual
aspects
B: false- not communicable (or contagious)
C: false- soft tissue assessment is a part of diagnosis
D-false-link is mentioned and studied in great detail
E- true-covers healing tissue and prevents contamination and irritation. Actually, it
FACILITATES healing

335. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is,

A. Inclusion of platinum foil

B. Use of weak cementum
C. Voids of porcelain
D. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm

Answer: D (Rosenstiel)-inadequate reduction leads to insufficient thickness of porcelain

336. Pontic replacing upper first molars in a bridge should:

A. Slightly compress soft tissues
B. Be clear of soft tissues
C. Be just in contact with soft tissues

Answer: C (Modified ridge lap, Rosenstiel/520)

337. A labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core porcelain
jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch; the crown will appears:
A. Short
B. Long
C. Narrow
D. Wide

Answer: C.

338. What is NOT characteristic of root canal filing materials (“obturation

material”)
A. Tacky adhesive to walls
B. Radio opaque
C. Not irritating
D. Quick in setting

Answer: D. Cohen/369, box 10-1. Opposite of D is true.

57
339. The best location of pin in class II inlay is,
A. Where the biggest thickness is
B. Mesial and distal angle
C. Contact area

Answer: A or B.
Reference: Sturde/774- “there should be at least 1mm of sound dentin around the pinhole-
minimal pulp inflammation, maximum stress distribution”. This placement is possible when pins
are placed in the area of the greatest thickness (of dentin, which is not mentioned in the
question).
Also, “in the cervical third of molars and premolars, pinholes should be near line angles of the
tooth..” so if Choice B matched this statement, it would be correct.

From:http://books.google.co.nz/books?
id=ZqJtTV6DLTAC&pg=PA390&lpg=PA390&dq=location+of+pins+in+class+II+inlays&source=bl&ots=B
_n1bjqIR7&sig=cN7LKzFUA1gYlqxrrJDtTKQU5P4&hl=en&sa=X&ei=lDUaT__YBOaaiAfo1OH_Cw&ved=
0CCgQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=location%20of%20pins%20in%20class%20II%20inlays&f=false
According to the table below, pins should be placed at the corners (angles of most teeth). So B could
be the answer

Also, from http://www.identalhub.com/dental-what-are-pins-and-posts-in-dentistry-757.aspx:

Most desirable locations for pin holes are corners of the tooth and least desirable are in the middle
of facial, lingual, mesial and distal surfaces of a tooth.
Dentist should try and place pins in locations where they will be surrounded by optimum bulk of
dentin and restorative material.

ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION WOULD DEPEND ON THE EXACT WORDING OF

CHOICES A AND B.

58
340. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished,
A. 24 hours after application
B. Immediately after application
C. 3 to 4 days
D. 3 to 4 weeks
E. Not at all

Answer: B. 24h waiting period is required for conventional (chemically cured) GIC (Sturde/535)

341. Caries which is close to the pulp chamber; on x rays you find
dent in dent; the right treatment is
A. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgam
B. Pulpectomy
C. Pulpotomy
D. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam
i think its a clinical application question , choice B and C is not appropriate as the caries has not
reached the pulp, between A nd D, Znoe is an irritant to pulp, so choice D makes more sense

342. Dental plaque produces

A. Chelation
B. Dental caries
C. Acids
page:36, oxford,

343. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is

A. Better marginal sealing
B. Less corrosion
C. Better tensile strength
D. Higher and immediate compressive strength
page664 oxford,DM-Amalgam, both are gamma 2 phase related and high cu doesnt have tin mecury
Also see below:
6. Dental amalgams that are made from alloys containing 6 percent copper, compared to those
made from alloys containing 13 percent copper 
1. Have higher concentration of the tin-mercury phase. 
2. Are more resistant to tarnish and corrosion. 
3. Demonstrate less creep or flow. 
4. Generally have lower compressive strength. 
5. Demonstrate less marginal breakdown in clinical service. 

A. (1) (3) (4) 

b. (2) (3) (5) 
c. (1) and (2) 
d. (4) and (5) 
e. (1) and (4)

Answer: (e)
Ref. *compared to 
their low-copper amalgam counterparts, high-copper alloys exhibit the following physical properties:
Greater strength, less tarnish and corrosion, and less creep.
*http://www.endoexperience.com/documents/decsamalgam.pdf

344. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pin is

A. Friction locked
B. Too expensive

59
C. Not all sizes available
D. May cause tooth cracking
page 771 Sturdevats, where says it causes crazing of dentine,the choices given a) doesnt make any
sense to me, B and C is not correct because its not expensive and all sizes are available

345. In which class of cavities do composite restorations show

most durability
A. I
B. II
C. IV
D. III
E. V
  cannot find any reference,

346. How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with
amalgam
A. 1mm
B. 1.5mm
C. 2mm
D. 2.5mm
page 769 Sturdevats'

347. Upper premolar with MO cavity; what is important about the

application of the matrix band: “the question has shown too as
….What is complicated by”
A. The mesial concavity of the root surface
B. Small lingual pulp
C. High buccal pulp horn
D. High lingual pulp horn
E. Concavity of distal root surface
there is a mesial concavity on the mesail side at the cervical third of the coronal part between the
buccal and lingual cusps,which extends down into the root surface forming mesial inter radicular
groove.

348. Etching techniques are used always to

A. minimise the leakage of restorations
B. for aesthetic considerations
page 238 Sturdevats' along with this feature and it provide adequate retentions
Also very imp. (see highlighted portion in image below) from
http://www.forp.usp.br/bdj/bdj13(1)/trab06131/trab06131.html

It says, “Acid etching removes the smear layer, opens the dentinal tubules, increases dentinal
permeability and decalcifies the intertubular and peritubular dentin. The depth of the
decalcification is affected by various factors, including pH, concentration, viscosity and application
time of the etchant.”

60
349. Sjogren syndrome is characterised by
A. Dryness of the mouth
B. Dryness of the eyes
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. All of the above
page 760 oxford,syndromes of head and neck

350. Long use of Tetracycline is characterised by**

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Candida Albicans
page 460,625 oxford

351.C
same as 236,
the most important is paraesthesia followed by other features mentioned in answer of 236
 
352.A
because it is hardest of all types of gold.
 
353. B
i m just assuming type 4 instead of 3 from the given options as its the closest one,pls add if u know
anything more.
 materials in dentistry,By Jack L. Ferracane,pg 188
 
type 1(soft) and 2(medium) used for inlays
type 3(hard) for crown and bridge
type 4(extra hard) for partial dentures
 
354.A
the only option given is wax as we usually do waxing for vertical dimensions.
 
355.B applied dental materials By John F. McCabe, Angus Walls,pg40
it states;
the ability to record detail depends on flow of material at moulding temperature which is jus above the
mouth temperature for direct techniques and jus above room temperature for indirect technique
 
356.C
amalgam contamination results in delayed expansion,formation of air bubbles and porosity,which may
lead to microleakage,resulting in secondary caries.
 
357.A
obvious findings.
 
358.B
tg pg 108,111
 
359.B
oxford pg 586
 
360A
posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies to roots of 7,8 and two roots of maxillary  1st molar
middle superior alveolar nerve supplies mesio buccal root of maxillary 1st molar,1st and second
bicuspid teeth
anterior superior  nerve supplies to maxillary incisors n canine

361    :-A

There is vesicle formation which is not seen in Apthous ulcers....

61
362    :-B

The rete pegs have a saw tooth appearance and the inflammatory infiltrate is in the upper lamina
propria  

363    :- A and C 

(As the underlying mucosa is cut from the protective action of saliva resulting in candidal infection)
Micanozole is the best, then amphoterecin and the last and least effective one is nystatin, as it gets
dissolved by saliva. This was taught by the person who wrote oral medicine in TG.

364    :-B

Ground glass appearance is seen in the late stage of Paget's disease

365    :-B

Cavernous sinus thrombosis is severe life threatening condition but is rare

The patient is severely ill with severe rigors, fever, deteriorating sight and limited eye movement

366    :-C

As all of them occur in non-vital tooth so thermal and electric are inconclusive for differentiating
between them
Also, radiograph is inconclusive as they almost have same radiographic appearance
The treatment for all is same i.e.usually RCT

367    :-A

Acute apical periodontitis is a painful inflammation of the periodontium as a result of trauma, infection
or irritation through root canal regardless of the vitality of the tooth

368    :-B

Marsupialization is creating a surgical window in the wall of the cyst and evacuation of the cystic
contents
 
369    :-A

Page 118 TG which says microscopic examination of smear and culturing of saliva helps in the
diagnosis of candidiasis

370    :-B

TG which says that as it results in teeth discoloration it is avoided in children below 8 years and some
avoid till 12 years 

371. Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently:

A. Near the angle of the mandible
B. In the maxilla
C. At the mandibular symphysis

Answer: A. Shafer/279: Molar ramus area of the mandible is most frequently involved.

372. A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and a history of steroid
therapy presents for multiple extractions. The dentist should consult the
patient’s physician because:
A. Patient is more susceptible to infection

62
B. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortex
C. Patient will need haematological evaluation

Answer: B. Reference: Therapeutic Guidelines/74: “The most common cause of adrenal

suppression is the medical use of corticosteroids,.. used in the mgmt of some inflammatory and
immune disorders (eg rheumatoid arthritis, severe dermatological conditions, severe asthma).”

373. A patient whose hands feel warm and moist is MOST likely to be suffering from:**
A. Anxiety
B. Congestive cardiac failure
C. Thyrotoxicosis

Answer: C.

 According to http://www.endobible.com/condition/thyrotoxicosis-or-hyperthyroidism/
examination: “hot, red and sweaty hands occur in hyperthyroidism”

 According to Davidson/12: clinical features of cardiac failure:“ fatigue, listlessness, poor effort
tolerance, PERIPHERIES ARE COLD and BP is low.” Poor cardiac output leads to blood
supply being diverted away from the peripheral circulation (extremities, skeletal muscles)
hence the fatigue and cold extremeties.

 One of the symptoms of anxiety includes “ cold or sweaty hands and/or feet”
(http://www.webmd.com/anxiety-panic/guide/mental-health-anxiety-disorders )

374. An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic

administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the preoperative
regimen:**
A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally
B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation
C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Answer: A. Reference: Therapeutic Guidelines/137

375. A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical
lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous
yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis:
A. Measles
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Answer: C. Reference: Shafer/365

A, B, D are ruled out on the basis of the description of the respective diseases.
Measles: Shafer/378
Erythema multiforme: Shafer/818
Stevens Johnson syndrome: Shafer/818

376. The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis is:

A. Herpes simplex bacteria
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Herpes zoster virus
D. Borrelia vincentii

63
Answer: B

377. To reduce the risk of side effects of local anaesthetic injections; you should
follow all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Aspirate before injection
B. Use the smallest effective volume
C. Use the weakest efficient percentage strength
D. Inject rapidly

Answer: D.
A, B, C can be followed because ‘A’ avoids systemic effects and ‘B, C’ are directed towards
minimising the total dose of the drug

378. The most potent viricidal properties: (another format of the same question:
‘Indicate which of the following has viricidal properties’)
A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Alcohol 70%
E. Quaternary ammonium

Answer: C Please go with A, as naocl is recommended by current guidelines

(https://mail.google.com/mail/?shva=1#search/371-380/135c6d17e4a6e7df )
 Choice C: Reference: CDC website (“Several investigators showed that >2% aqueous
solutions of glutaraldehyde, buffered to pH 7.5–8.5 with sodium bicarbonate effectively
killed vegetative bacteria in <2 minutes; M. tuberculosis, fungi, and viruses in <10
minutes; and spores of Bacillus and Clostridium species in 3 hours”)
 Choice D: Alcohol is also viricidal: As per CDC document, “Ethyl alcohol, at
concentrations of 60%–80%, is a potent virucidal agent inactivating all of the
lipophilic viruses (e.g., herpes, vaccinia, and influenza virus) and many hydrophilic
viruses (e.g. adenovirus, enterovirus, rhinovirus, and rotaviruses but not hepatitis A virus
(HAV) or poliovirus). Isopropyl alcohol is not active against the nonlipid enteroviruses
but is fully active against the lipid viruses. Studies also have demonstrated the ability of
ethyl and isopropyl alcohol to inactivate the hepatitis B virus (HBV) and the herpes virus,
and ethyl alcohol to inactivate human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), rotavirus,
echovirus, and astrovirus.”
 Choice A: Several studies have demonstrated the effectiveness of diluted sodium
hypochlorite and other disinfectants to inactivate HIV
 Choice E: Quaternaries sold as hospital disinfectants are generally fungicidal,
bactericidal, and virucidal against lipophilic (enveloped) viruses; they are not
sporicidal and generally not tuberculocidal or virucidal against hydrophilic
(nonenveloped) viruses
 Choice B: According to the article http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC88911/:
“Chlorhexidine is not always considered a particularly effective antiviral agent, and its
activity is restricted to the lipid-enveloped viruses. Chlorhexidine does not inactivate
nonenveloped viruses such as rotavirus, HAV, or poliovirus. Its activity was found by
Ranganathan (389) to be restricted to the nucleic acid core or the outer coat, although it is
likely that the latter would be a more important target site.
 Please go with A, as naocl is recommended by current guidelines

64
379. Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in
patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT:
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Severe uncontrolled diabetes
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Mumps
E. Leukaemia

Answer: D. Since no immunosuppression is seen in this disease

A, C, E lead to abnormalities of the immune response; B makes the patient prone to infections

380. At what rate should chest cardiac compression be done in an adult: **

A. 12 times a minute
B. 24 times a minute
C. 50 times a minute
D. 80 times a minute

Answer: D. Reference: Australian Resuscitation Council CPR Guidelines on the internet:

“100/minute or almost 2/second... for ALL AGES”.

381. Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a general

anaesthetic agent because of**
A. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentration
B. Adverse affects on liver
C. Poor analgesics affects
i am unable to find reference for this and the question doesnt seems ok, as n2o is not used as GA
instead it’s a sedative, i have tried to paste one question from dental decks below, hopefully you
guys get it (*not received- PK)

From http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2614651/ (American Dental Association)-

article saved in pdf format as N2O. Excerpts:
Analgesic mechanism:
Unlike other anesthetics, nitrous oxide produces a mild analgesic effect at subanesthetic
concentrations. The mechanism for this effect most likely involves an interaction with the
endogenous opioid system because it is abolished by administration of the opioid
antagonist, naloxone. The strongest evidence is that nitrous oxide stimulates release of
enkephalins, which bind to opioid receptors that trigger descending noradrenergic
pathways.

Effect on respiration:
Similar to other inhalation agents, nitrous oxide produces a dose-dependent depression
of ventilatory drive with greater influence on the ventilatory response to hypoxemia than
to hypercapnia. As little as 0.1 MAC nitrous oxide can depress hypoxemic drive by
50%.4,5 This is to say that if respiratory depression occurs, nitrous oxide obtunds the
body's normal response to lowered oxygen tension rather than to elevated carbon
dioxide tension. Because patients who have significant chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease rely almost entirely on hypoxemic drive, some authorities suggest that nitrous
oxide should be avoided in these patients. Reasons cited include not only its depression
of hypoxemic drive, but also, because high oxygen concentrations are delivered with
nitrous oxide, its use may remove the stimulus for hypoxemic drive. However, if the
principles of moderate sedation are followed, the patient can always be instructed to
breathe more deeply.

65
Also see Master vol. 2/148 for technique, etc.

382. How can a periodontal pocket be recognised**

A. X-Ray
B. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe
C. Periodontal marker
D. Bitewing radiograph
E. Sharp explorer
F. Study cast
OXFORD, PERIO,POCKETING, PAGE 218

383. The final material you use for endodontically treated

deciduous molars is**
A. Amalgam
B. GIC
C. Composite resin
D. Wrought base metal crown
OXFORD,PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY,NON VITAL PULP TECHNIQUES,PAGE101

384. Which type of cells does an abscess contain

A. Mast cells
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Epithelial cells
CARANZA PAGE 449, WHERE ITS SAYS THAT THE NEUTROPHILLS ARE THE PREDOMINANT CELLS 
RESPONSIBE FOR PUS FORMATION

385. The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of**

A. Actinomycosis
B. Candidosis
C. Viral infection
D. Keratocyte
BOUCHERS, PAGE 412, 1ST QUESTION

386. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to**

A. Avoid Osteomyelitis
B. Control pain
TGA AND OXFORD SAYS THAT THE MAIN SYMPTOM OF DRY SOCKET IS THE PAIN SO THE
TREATMENT LINE SHOULD BE FOCUSED TO CONTROL THE PAIN

387. Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia

A. Sjogren’s syndrome
B. Emotional reaction
C. Antidepressants drugs
D. Submandibular sialolith
OXFORD, ORAL MEDICINE,SALIVARY GLAND DISEASE,PAGE 456. AS SUB-MANDIBULAR SIALOLITH
CAUSES ONLY OBSTRUCTION OF THE AFFECTED GLAND WHILE OTHER GLANDS IS FUNCTIONAL

388. Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in**

A. Herpes simplex infection

66
B. Oral lichenoid reaction
C. Aphthous ulceration
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
E. Cicatricial pemphigoid

Also A: see Q241 expl (Cawson reference)

OUT OF A,B,D AND E WHICH ARE VESICULO-BULLOUS LESIONS ,WHERE THE VESILCES OR BULLAE
RUPTURE, CICATRICIAL PEMPHIGOID/BENIGN MUCOUS MEMBRANE PEMPHIGOID HAS SUB-
EPITHILAIL BULLAE WHICH ARE COMPARITIVELY MORE INTACT BECAUSE OF ITS THICK WALL,
SHAFERS PAGE 822 (Persist for 24-48hours: Shafer/836) AND OXFORD 442-444

Also see Q241, 1036

389. Painful salivary gland are MOST likely to be indicate to**

A. Mucocele
B. Mumps
C. Sjogren’s syndrome
OXFORD, ORAL MEDICINE,SALIVARY GLAND DISEASE,PAGE 456, OUT OF THE GIVEN CHOICES,
MUMPS ARE THE ONLY ONES CAUSED BY INFECTION WHERE PAIN IS ONE OF THE SYMPTOM.

390. A patient with an acetone odour would be suspected

suffering from
A. Heart disease
B. Liver damage
C. Diabetes
ITS A DIRECT QUESTON, DIABETES IS CONSIDERED ONE OF THE SYSTEMIC CAUSE FOR HALITOSIS,
WHICH IS THE TYPICAL"ACETONE ODOUR"

391.A
shafers pg 397
disease begins as marginal gingivitis.
 
392.B
oxford pg 177
calculus (especially subgingival calculus) is ssociated wid pdl diseases
 
393.E
shafer's pg375
fibers are wavy,not elastic,and straighten under occlusal pressure
 
394.A
tg pg 47,eliminates all options other than A
 
395.A
lil confused for B
as in edentulous pt whole face is affected
 
396.A
space maintainer should b provided then
 
397.C
mcqs in orthodontics by Vijayalakshmi
q24
 
398.B and C

67
B is best option
pg 124 oxford
class 2 div 1 upper incisors upright ,proclined.increased overjet
class 2 div 2 upper incisors retroclined,overjet usually increased but may be decreased.
 
399.
option missing
maximum catridges 7
15ml
 
400.B.(i think it should be decrease instead of increase to make it an exception)
 
for me,B is right,oxford pg 28
A,C,E are mentioned in mount n hume
 couldnt find any refernce for D.but i think its also right.
 
 pls help by having a luk at the following references page 26 mount n hume.
oxford pg 28.
at higher ph
fluoride binds to protein
ph drops
release of free ionic fluoride
the actions are augmented

68
402. Regarding the amount of fluoride required to reduce caries according to age
and level of fluoride in drinking water, which of the following figures is
incorrect**
A. 1 years-old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in drinking water is
0.3PPM
B. 3 years old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in drinking water is
0.7PPM
C. 6 years old child requires 1mg of fluoride when drinking water containing
0.5mg

Answer: C

Reference: Oxford/31 (table). I think in choice C, ppm should replace mg since the latter makes
no sense.

69
Dental Decks say (mg here means mg/day):
 birth to 6mths no fluoride
 6mths to 3yrs - 0.25mg Fl if water fl is <0.3ppm and no fl for higher levels of water fl
 3 to 6yrs - 0.5mg fl if water fl is <0.3 ppm, 0.25mg fl if water fl is 0.3-0.6ppm
 >6yrs - 1mg fl if water fl is <0.3ppm, 0.5 mg fl if water fl is 0.3-0.6ppm
 NO Fl if water fl >0.6ppm for ANY age.... so ans is C
403   :-E

As there is mandibular deficiency or maxillary excess in Class II malocclusion.

(Could anyone please tell me where is it given that Class II division 1 is skeletal discrepancy and
Class II division 2 is dental discrepancy)
Useful reference: http://jorthod.maneyjournals.org/content/26/3/195.full

404   :-A and B

As the tooth is ankylotic the roots don't grow at the same rate as the other teeth and it might result in
mesial inclination of permanent 1st molar

405  :-B

Seems most logical.....However, it is best to extract the tooth as it may damage the permanent tooth
germ
We can't wait as in a preschool child the root formation would be complete therefore, it wont
spontaneously reerupt (wrong..)

My answer: A (but since X-ray is not a treatment,) or C (since incisor in a preschool child is
most likely deciduous, it may re-erupt. Acc. to Ox/98 waiting period = 1-6mos.) [Ref: Cam
Wid/129, 131, Ox/98].

Treatment options for intruded deciduous tooth (Cam Wid/129, 131; Ox/98):

 If completely intruded –extract

 If partially intruded and not impinging on permanent successor (confirmed by X-ray or

a palato-superiorly displaced crown, meaning root apex is clear of the permanent tooth
bud) – wait 1- 6months (acc. to Ox/98) as the tooth may re-erupt.

 If partially intruded and impinging on permanent successor (confirmed by X-ray or a

labio-superiorly displaced crown) – extract

 If partially intruded and perforating labial plate – extract

A (but since X-ray is not a treatment,) or C (since incisor in a preschool child is most likely
deciduous, it may re-erupt. Acc. to Ox/98 waiting period = 1-6mos.) [Ref: Cam Wid/129, 131,
Ox/98].

406  :-B

As it is important to maintain the deciduous tooth as long as possible

407  :-A

As the pulpal floor is very thin 

408  :-C

MB,ML,DB,DL

70
See 1st post of this forum:
http://forums.studentdoctor.net/archive/index.php/t-613111.html (see 1000/67 for overview of
this). Acc o this answer is D (five).
Also see below (from
http://www.columbia.edu/itc/hs/dental/d7710/client_edit/anatomy_primary_slides_printout.pdf):

409. All of the following are keratinised EXCEPT of:

A. Crevicular epithelium
B. Palatal epithelium
C. Alveolar mucosa
D. Free gingiva
E. Attached gingiva

Answer: A, C

Reference: Carranza/48, 52

410  :-B

411. How can you improve the adhesion of a fissure sealant:

A. Acid etching technique

Answer: A

412. The advantage of using dental floss over rubber point (dam) interdentally:
A. Remove plaque and debris in interproximal surfaces
B. Polish
C. Massage of the interdental papillae
D. Aid and recognise subgingivally

71
Answer: I think D is a better answer than A. Trying to find references.

413. After prophylactic treatment, you decide to change the flora to a nonacidogenic
by changing the diet. How long does it take to achieve this change:
A. Few weeks
B. Several months or longer
Answer given is B. Have not been able to find references so far..

414. Which one of the following is a non-calorie sweetener:

A. Mannitol
B. Saccharin
C. Xylitol

Answer: B. A and C are carbohydrate based and have some caloric value. Saccharin has no
caloric value.

 Mannitol and xylitol: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mannitol

"Mannitol is a sugar alcohol; that is, it is derived from a sugar by reduction..... Other
sugar alcohols used are xylitol and sorbitol. It also has a low glycemic index, making it a
low carb food." (note that it is LOW carb, not non-carb)
 Saccharin: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saccharin#Chemistry
"Although saccharin has no food energy, it can trigger the release of insulin in humans
and rats, presumably as a result of its taste, [4][5][6] as can other sweeteners like aspartame."

415. A 6 years-old child who has a history of primary herpes simplex has got a
recurrent infection. What is the likely cause:
A. Herpes labialis

Answer: A. Shafer/366

416. A newly placed restoration interferes with occlusion. What will be the
periodontal response:
A. Thickening of the periodontal membrane

Answer: A. Carranza 10th ed/471

417. In class II restorations, all of the following are considered to occur as

probable causes of periodontal problems except:
A. Flat ridge
B. Faulty or not proper contour
C. Not properly polished restoration
D. Cervical wall is too deeply apical
E. Overextension of lining in cavity

Answer: E.
A, B, C will lead to plaque accumulation and D will hamper plaque removal

418. Angular type of bone resorption can be seen more often in:**
A. Occlusal traumatism
B. Food particles retention
C. Periodontosis

72
D. All of the above

Answer: A and C (Carranza 10th ed/471, 507, 508). Periodontosis=Localised Aggressive

periodontitis-characterised by vertical bone loss in incisor and 1 st molar regions. I do not consider
B as a correct option because plaque is the main cause of bone destruction, not food/debris.

419. What is the most important function of periodontal ligament:

A. Keep teeth in the socket
B. Protect alveolar bone
C. Provide nutrition

Answer: A. Reference: Ten Cate 3rd ed/247: “It is a connective tissue particularly well developed
for its principal function of supporting a tooth in its socket.”

420. The periodontal ligament in a tooth without use appears to be:

A. Narrow
B. Wide

Answer: A. Reference: Carranza 10th ed/471: “insufficient stimulation causes thinning of the
PDL..”

421. Which radiographic method would you use in assessing

periodontal conditions and lesions
A. Bitewing
B. Periapical
C. Occlusal
D. Panoramic

A better than B. B (=periapical) does not mention paralleling or bisecting

oxford,History and examination- investigations, page 18

In favour of paralleling technique:

Carranza/562: “long cone paralleling technique projects the most realistic image of the level
of the alveolar bone.... An additional projection that can be used for the evaluation of the
alveolar crest is the bite-wing projection.”

In favour of bitewing:
Acc. to Decks (07-08)/100:

422. What does CPITN stand for

A. Community Periodontal Index of Treatment needs
oxford,perio-epidemiology of perio disesae, page.208

73
423. Vertical incision of mucoperiosteal flap should be
A. Always extending to the alveolar mucoperiosteal
B. Bisect the middle of gingival papillae
C. Must be at the right (or line?) angle of the tooth
Page 930, Carranza, (choice A “these incisions should extend beyond the muco-gingival line into the
alveolar mucosa”, choice B- not true. C it says in the diagram that vertical incision should be given at
the line angle of the tooth.)

424. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment followed by

atrophy of marginal gingiva at the same level results in
A. False periodontal pocket
B. Periodontal pocket recession
C. Gingival cleft
D. True pocket
page 65 and 369 Carranza

425. Calculus attaches to teeth surface by**

A. Acquired pellicle
B. Interlocking to the crystals of the tooth
C. Penetrated into enamel and dentine
D. Mechanical interlocking
E. All of the above
Page 173 Carranza, choice C- i think calculus attaches to enamel and cementum, so the instead of
dentine it could be cementum,

426. The width of normal periodontal ligament space is

A. 0.25 to 0.5mm
B. 1mm
Page 68 where it says the average width is .2mm and page 73 there is a table in Carranza, si i would
probably go with a choice which has .2mm.

427. The incision angle in Gingivectomy is

A. 45° to the tooth in an apical direction(only choice)
Page 913 Carranza it mentions that the incision in gingivectomy is directed coronally and in
oxford ,page 238 the angle is 100-110degree, which seems correct with the diagram in carranza,

428. The MOST common place for initiation of gingivitis is

A. Interdental papillae
B. The free gingival ridge
C. The attached gingiva
D. The marginal gingiva

Carranza/363

429. Which is the MOST local factor in the aetiology of periodontal

disease
A. Occlusal trauma
B. Calculus
C. Brushing habits
D. Coarse food
oxford,perio,calculus, page.204

74
430. Incisive foramen when are superimposed over apex of root
on radiograph may be mistaken to be
A. Cyst
B. Cementoma
C. Odontoma
page 159 white & pharoah, due to its proximity to the maxillary central incisors,anatomically
between them,by clinical examination and with an intact lamina dura in the radiographs, the both
can be differentiated,where it also says that incisive foramen may enlarge when they change incisive
canal cyst which will also mimic dental pathology

431 D
textbook of endodontics by nisha garg pg 176
age-regression in pulp shape and size
irritants-abrasion,attrition,caries
calcific metamorphosis-trauma
calcification
resorption-internal resorption
 
432 B is major use of peri dressing others are:
internet
primarily provides comfort to pt
protects from further injusy
control bleeding
help in close adaptation of flap wid underlying tissue
Zn oxide eugenol usually used
 
433 A
ten cate pg299
buffering
protection
pellicle formationmaintainence of tooth integrity
 
434 A
boucher and oxford
pg 38
 
435 A
boucher n oxford pg 36
major culprit
 
436 B
Carranza/464: “diagnosis of FI is made by probing with a specially designed probe...
radiographs may be helpful but view may be obscured by the angulation of the x-ray beam
and other structures.”
 
437 A
oxford pg 30
 
438 A
See second and third questions on Boucher/264

439 A
Malamed. Also remember relative positions of needle for blocks of IAN and lingual n.
 
440 B
Boucher/268 (See all ques. of this type)

75
441      :-A

As intravascular injection may cause systemic complications

Also, hypersensitivity reactions to LA are very rare

442      :-C

Definition of disinfectant
It is used on inanimate objects

443. What is to be done with instruments after surgically treating a patient with
confirmed diagnosis of hepatitis B,**
A. Soak them in hypochlorite solution “Milton”
B. Sterilize, scrub and sterilize
C. Handle them with two pairs of household rubber gloves
D. Scrub them with iodine surgical solution

Answer: B (most appropriate out of the given options).

As per the universal precautions, all instruments must be treated as being contaminated with
HIV/hepatitis B. So no change is needed in the usual approach to sterilisation. Recommended
procedure is cleaning > drying > bagging > sterilisation.

444     :-B

Steam sterilisers provide a simple, dependable, cost effective method to sterilise heat-tolerant
dental instruments. They can be used for wrapped and unwrapped instruments but direct steam
at a required temperature and pressure for a specified time is required to kill microorganisms
and spores

445     :-B

Mucoperiosteal flap is a full flap and therefore the mucosa shouldn't be seperated

446     :-A

As it causes vasoconstriction thus reducing the post-op swelling

447     :-A

This will prevent damage to the succedaneous tooth

448    :-B

Common with the lower impacted third molar

449. A patient presents to you with a history of local pain in the lower right
posterior region, insisting that you extract his lower teeth. The teeth in
question are vital without any pathology. You diagnosis is:
A. Odontalgia
B. Referred pain
C. Trigeminal neuralgia

Answer: C

76
  Can’t be A- it’s a symptom, not diagnosis
 Can’t be B: There would be a primary site of pain also
 Option C: only remaining and likely option

450    :-C

451. A 30 years-old male complains of painless swelling in the buccal mucosa. It

has been present for about six months. He admits “playing with it”. He is
concerned because this might represent cancer. The base is narrow; the most
likely diagnosis is:
A. Irritation fibroma

Answer: A. Shafer/137, 139. Same question: Boucher/413

Clinical features of fibroma:
 elevated lesion
 sessile or occasionally pedunculated
 Slow growing
 At any age, more common in 3rd, 4th, 5th decades
 Most common on gingiva, buccal mucosa, tongue, lips, palate

452. A patient is complaining of an open sore on the buccal mucosa. The lesion is
painless, ulcerated, has indurated margins, 1.5 cm in diameter, covered by
greyish-white exudate, enlarged lymph nodes and tender, negative tuberculin
test and positive serology. The diagnosis is:**
A. Chancre /Primary lesion of syphilis

Answer:A.
Shafer/351: “usual primary lesion is an elevated, ulcerated nodule showing local induration and
producing regional lymphadenitis. Such a lesion on the lip may have a brownish, crusted
appearance.”
According to Boucher/169, 2nd last question, pg 170, 4th question- chancre:
 Develops at site of initial inoculation
 Single lesion (not multiple)
 Contains Treponema pallidum
 Has no specific clinical appearance
 Potentially infectious to dentists (mucous patches are also infectious, but gummas and
leutic glossitis lesions are not)

453. An old male presents complaining of having numerous white lesions in the
oral cavity within past few days. Prior to this the family physician prescribed
chlorite tetracycline for an upper respiratory infection, the patient is taking
this antibiotic for the past two weeks; lesions are relatively non-painful,
slightly elevated, adhered plaques on the lip mucosa, buccal mucosa and the
tongue. MOST LIKELY to be:
A. Moniliasis (Which is candidiasis)

Answer: Chlortetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic and its use can lead to candidiasis.

454. Characteristic of Squamous Cell Carcinoma:**

A. White skinned people
B. Alcoholic and smokers

77
C. It reacts far simply to radiotherapy

Answer: B (Shafer/113 mentions these as the top two etiologic factors)

Not A: Basal cell carcinoma is more common in whites (Caucasians): Shafer/110 “the protective
role of skin pigmentation has also been shown to account for the relative rarity of skin cancer in
blacks”
Not C: As per Shafer (various sections on SCC): response of lesions to treatment (including
radiation therapy) varies with location, size, etc. Presence of metastases complicates prognosis
and response to treatment.

455. How can you differentiate between a benign epithelial tumour and a
carcinoma:
A. Soft papillomatous mass, not indurated or not fixed /Moves freely/ and
pedunculated.
Answer:A. Reference: Wood and Goaz (don’t have that book so can’t give a page number. Please
supply references for this.)

456. What is the characteristic feature of gingivitis in AIDS patient:**

A. Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet.
B. Correlating with other pathogenetic lesions of AIDS and does not resolve to periodontal
conventional treatment
C. Severe pain
Answer: B.
 Carranza 10th ed/527, 528: “Linear Gingival Erythema (LGE - the characteristic gingivitis
lesion seen in AIDS/HIV infection) may be refractory to treatment”, “LGE is sometimes
responsive to corrective therapy but these lesions may undergo spontaneous remission”
 Not A: association with platelets is not mentioned
 Not C: Not a feature of LGE

457. The characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is:

A. Blood metastasis
B. Does not erode bone
C. Intensive involvement / inveterately characteristic/
D. Radio resistant

Reference: Shafer/110, 112

 C is true : see next two points
 Not A (pg 110): “practically no tendency for metastasis”
 Not B (pg 110): “untreated lesions... infiltrate adjacent and deeper tissues and may even
erode deeply into cartilage and bone”
 Not D (pg 112): “responds well to treatment”

458. What is the significance of erosive lichen planus:**

A. High malignant potential
B. Some malignant potential

Answer: B Reference: Therapeutic Guidelines/110: “There is a slightly elevated risk of the

development of oral scc, particularly in erosive forms..”

459. Where does the bone resorption show in a pulp necrosis of a deciduous molar:
A. At the root apex
B. At the bifurcation

78
C. On the buccal side of the tooth
D. On the lingual side of the tooth

Answer: B
Reference: http://www.agd.org/publications/articles/?ArtID=7457 : “Accessory canals are present
in the floor of the primary tooth pulp chamber and allow the toxins from the necrotic pulp in the
chamber to travel to the bone in the furcation and affect that bone first. Loss of lamina dura and
decreased radiopacity of the bone in the furcation are the first signs of dead or dying pulps. Vital
pulp therapy would not be appropriate for teeth that demonstrate these radiographic changes. The
superimposition of the furcation of the maxillary molars on the palatal root makes it difficult to
obtain an accurate reading for radiolucency in the earliest stages.”

Also, according to pg 213 of the following article:

http://www.aapd.org/media/policies_guidelines/g_pulp.pdf : “Since failure of a primary molar
pulpotomy may be evidenced in the furcation, posterior tooth pulpotomies should be monitored
by radiographs that clearly demonstrate the interradicular area.”

460. To extract upper deciduous molars, the movement should be:

A. Buccal first to move tooth
B. Palatal first to move tooth
C. Distal first to move tooth
D. Rotation movement
E. Fraction of the tooth

Answer: A. Need references

461. 8 years old child, on examination you find 75 with carious

exposure. On X-ray you find 35 missing. Your treatment is
A. Extraction of 75 allowing 36 to move mesially
B. Pulpotomy on 75 and wait indefinitely
C. Extraction of 75 and place a fixed space retainer to be replaced with
fixed bridge.
D. Extraction of 65 and 75

bouchers 505, 1st question, which is similar, in this case as 35 is missing it even more necessary to
save the tooth as long as possible

462. Which of the following is true

A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis
B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingivae
C. Periodontitis is the primary cause of teeth lost after the age of 35.(given choice)
D. All periodontal pockets can be identified by x-ray
E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

page 122 Carranza, says periodontitis is the cause of attachment loss after the age of 35-39, also
choice A, is also correct as antibiotics are used systemically (metronidazole) and
locally(tetracycline/mouth wash) for the treatment of periodontitis

463. Longest lasting resin restorations are

79
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
no reference

464. Pin Restoration with which material has the best retention
A. Amalgam
B. Gold inlay
C. Composite
D. Glass Ionomer
page 766 Sturdevant

465. Acute apical abscess-emergency treatment

A. Open and drain for two days
B. Antibiotic and analgesic
C. Clean and Ledermix
Page 128 tga

466. TMJ dysfunction common symptom is

A. Clicking
B. Locking
C. Pain in the muscles of mastication
paage 229 burkets

467. Gagging reflex is caused by

A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Facial nerve
D. Recurrent laryngeal
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glossopharyngeal_nerve, i have kept a "code 9/g", 9th cranial
nerve=glossppharyngeal=gag reflex

468. Which impression material should NOT be kept in water

within one hour: “in another paper was: 30 mins before pouring”
A. Polyether
B. Condensation silicone
C. Polyvinyl silicone
Page: 224 Anusavice ,where it says polyether and poly vinyl silicone(additional silicone) are not
required to be poured immediately (i.e. within 30 min) but out of these poly ether is hydrophobic,
and  for the 2nd part of the question the appropriate one is condensation silicone

469. High copper amalgam lasts longer than low copper amalgam
because of**

80
A. Increased compressive strength
B. Increased corrosion resistance
C. High creep
D. Increased tensile strength
E. Decreased setting expansion
bouchers page 379, operative dentistry

470. Porosity in acrylic dentures is caused by

A. Contraction porosity in thickest point of the denture
B. Insufficient pressure during flasking causes it 
page 49 odells, choice A is gaseous porosity's definition while B is contraction porosiy

471.B
loss of interocclusal distance when manible is in rest position, decreased free way space 
dental decks,occlusion
 
472.C
 
473.B
in undiluted sodium hypochlorite
 
474.A
 
475.A
A is first choice den comes C and B
 
476.B
Mcracken pg 8
guiding plane surfaces are parallel to path of placemnt and parallel to each other,preferably these
surfaces are made parallel to long axis of abutment teeth
 
477.C
 A= mccracken 274,material should b poured within 2hrs,if impression is kept dry,cast can b
poured for upto 7days
B=not mentioned anywhere
C= should always b stored dry
D= not stored in humid area coz it absorbs water,swells.oxford 626

http://www.scribd.com/doc/22544300/Mccracken-s-Removable-Partial-Prosthodontics-
11th-editon : McCracken/274: “The materials should be poured within 2 hours; however,
manufacturers claim that if the impression is kept dry, clinically acceptable casts can be
poured for up to 7 days.”
 
478.A
about 1mm and dats y fracture occurs in these crowns
 
479.D
GIC has  least solubity than all mentioned materials
 
http://airforcemedicine.afms.mil/idc/groups/public/documents/afms/ctb_108338.pdf
Solubility (lowest to highest):
Resin < glass ionomer < zinc phosphate < polycarboxylate < ZOE

480. Neither A nor B

81
From: http://forums.studentdoctor.net/archive/index.php/t-438891-p-3.html :

Preparation for class II composite :

according to Summit

Bevels in enamel provides more area for acid etching and bonding in addition bevel is
designed to expose enamel rods transversely to achieve more effective etching pattern.

a)facial and lingual proximal margins: should be bevelled 0.5 mm at approximately a 45

degree angle to the surface
b) gingival margin: should be bevelled if margin is above the cementoenamel junction
c) occlusal cavosurface margin bevel should be avoided (rules out option B)
because avoidance of bevel prevents 
1-the loss of sound tooth structure
2-decreases the surface area of the final restoration
3-lessons the chance of occlusal contact
4-eliminate a thin area of composite that would be more susceptible to fracture 
5- presents a well demarcated marginal periphery

From Sturde/554 about CONVENTIONAL class II composite prep:

 Usually, bevels not placed on facial and lingual walls of proximal box. However,
these bevels can be placed if proximal box is already wide faciolingually AND if
additional retention is necessary (since bevelling improves retention).
 Bevel is not usually placed on the gingival cavosurface margins (to protect the little
bit of enamel in the gingival/cervical area) – further rules out option B

Conclusion from Sturde/554: conventional class II composite prep is similar to that of

amalgam, except
 no secondary retention features
 extensions are less
 no requirements for a 90 degree margin UNLESS prep extends to root surface
(meaning there is no enamel in the gingival portion of prep).

Also from Sturde/557: conclusion about MODIFIED (conservative) composite prep:

Extensions are dictated by caries – NO bevelling or secondary retention is indicated

So, for composite class II (conventional or modofied), DO NOT give bevels on gingival or
occlusal cavosurface angles. In proximal box, facial and lingual bevels usually not given but
CAN be given IF.. (see 1st bullet point in second box.)

Neither A nor B is an exact answer.

481    :-B

As Chrome cobalt are more rigid therefore, can't be placed in deeper undercuts

482    :-C

That is why the lower molars are placed buccally

Couldn't find any reference to exclude option D

82
483    :-A

10-12% females are more allergic to nickel as compared to 6% males

Nickel allergy is due to nickel salt formation

484   :-C
Why Pulpotomy and not pulp cap? – tooth is vital, small exposure (these points would justify pulp cap)
BUT 2week old injury (coronal pulp probably infected) – so pulpotomy
As the duration of exposure was long (2 weeks) and the root development would be
incomplete
Oxford pg 111.
Also see Boucher/507, Q4 and 5, and Ox/100, 101

485. During mouth preparation for RPD on a tooth adjacent to edentulous area, there is
dentine exposure:
A. Restoration is required
B. Proceed with rest seat preparation and fabrication if involved area is not more than 2mm

Answer: I think A for the prevention of sensitivity and caries but I’m not sure

486   :-B

In this way the soft tissue support would be in harmony with tooth framework
Page 465 Stewart

487   :-A

At some point before the tooth erupts into the mouth, but after the maturation stage, the ameloblasts
are broken down. Consequently, enamel, unlike many other tissues of the body, has no way to
regenerate itself. After destruction of enamel from decay or injury, neither the body nor a dentist can
restore the enamel tissue. Enamel can be affected further by non-pathologic processes

488   :-A

I flattens the cheeks and prevents food getting caught in the vestibule
B.D.Chaurasia page50-51

489   :-B

It pulls the posterior part of the tongue forwards resulting in tongue protrusion
B.D,Chaurasia Chapter tongue

490   :-C

That is why hybrid has more strength due to mixture of filler particles

491. A patient has a small incisal fracture of the maxillary incisor. Which is the
best material to resist fracture at the acid etched tooth composite interface:
A. Micro-filled composite
B. Hybrid composite
C. GIC
D. Silicate

Answer: B

83
The question mentions “acid-etched tooth composite surface” so it logically means that one of the
composites will be used. Since hybrid composite has greater strength than microfill
(sturdevant/477), it should be the choice.
Not C and D because their physical properties are inferior to those of composites

492. The principal factor involved in oral para-function is related to:

A. Periods of stress
B. Occlusal pre-maturities during mandibular closure

Answer: B. Can’t find a reference for this

493. During manual palpation, the mucosa is thin in:

I. Midline of the palate
II. Mylohyoid region
III. Over torus palatinus
A. I, II and III
B. None of the above
C. I and II
D. II and III

Answer: A. References required

494. The path of the condyles during mandibular movements depends on:
A. Articular eminence, meniscus/capsule of TMJ and muscle attachments

Answer: A.
Muscle attachments are always involved
For articular eminences and meniscus (articular disc)- Sturde/45: “rotational opening of mandible
(hinge movements)- between inferior surface of (articular) disc and during wide opening or
protrusion, discs move anteriorly with condyles and produce sliding motion in the superior joint
space between the superior surface of the disks and the articular eminences.”
Meniscus=articular disc (white and pharoah/540)

495. While doing RCT you gave dressing with a paper point wetted with CHKM
(camphorated and mentholated chlorophenol) solution. The patient arrives
the next day with severe pain. There is no swelling but the tooth is tender to
percussion. You will:**
A. Replace with similar dressing and prescribe antibiotic
B. Replace with corticosteroid paste
C. Retrieve paper point surgically
D. Remove the dressing and leave for several days before replacing it.
E. Provide incision and drainage

Answer: B
Can’t find a specific reference but B seems to be the most logical..

496. The area of the posterior palatal seal includes which of the following:
A. [left][right]
B. Hamular notch

84
Answer: B. Winkler/108: “extends medially from one tuberosity to the other. Laterally, the seal
extends through the hamular notch, continuing 3-4 mm anterolaterally approximating the
mucogingival junction.”

497. The best method of cleaning and toilet cavity:

A. Alcohol
B. Citric acid
C. Water
D. Organic acid

Answer: C. Sturde/302: “free the preparation of visible debris with warm water from the syringe
and then to remove the visible moisture with a few light surges of air from the air syringe... it is
important not to dehydrate the tooth by overuse of air or by the application of alcohol..”

498. Herpetic infection is an iatrogenic infection spread by the infected’s:

A. Serum
B. Vesicle
C. Vesicle fluid and saliva

Answer: C. See the highlighted text in the image below.

499. Periapical abscess is differentiated from periodontal abscess by:

A. Pulpal radiology
B. History and vitality test
C. X-ray and history

Answer: B. Carranza/874 (all points are mentioned)

85
500. You may suspect poor reaction to bleeding if there is a history of:
A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Hypertension

Answer: A. Reference: http://www.thebiomedicapk.com/articles/66.pdf

“Coagulopathy in patients with liver disease results from impairments in the clotting and
fibrinolytic systems, as well as from reduced number and function of platelets. As liver
parenchymal cells synthesize most factors of the clotting and the fibrinolytic systems, levels of
these procoagulant and anticoagulant as well as fibrinolytic and antifibrinolytic factors will
decrease in plasma. These changes may be minor in patients with mild liver disease but are severe
in patients with cirrhosis.”

501. Maxillary central incisor located palatally causes

A. Prolong stay of primary central incisor
B. Supernumerary teeth
bouchers 513, pedo, i think the question should be 'due to' rather than 'causes'

502. Toxicity of anaesthetic is assessed by

A. Dose which is given
B. Percentage of solution
C. Vasoconstrictions amount
tga 47, gives other reasons of toxicity if LA goes inadvertently as iv 

503. Children born with cleft palate, microdontia and glossoptosis

have
A. Christian disease
B. Trenches-Collins Syndrome
C. Pierre-Robin Syndrome
page 760 oxford and 383 widmer, nowhere there is a mention of microdontia, instead its
micrognathia. its actual term is robin sequence

504. Which of the following penicillin are readily destructed by

stomach acid
A. Methicillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Phenoxy methyl
D. Penicillin G
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Penicillin_G

505. What is not correct about Long Buccal Nerve**

A. Passes through two heads of pterygoids muscles
B. Supplies mucosa over lower and upper molars
C. Supplies the buccinator muscle
D. Supplies skin over buccinator
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Long_buccal_nerve, this link explains what is required for this mcq

506. N2O excretes through

A. Urine
B. Lungs
dental decks, pedo-2nd question

507.Radiopaque lesions are seen in

86
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Paget’s disease
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Chronic renal failure
white and pharoah 420 for choice a and  456-7 for choice c and d , says they are radiolucent, page
447 says Pagets in advanced are radioopaque

508. The causative organism in localised juvenile periodontitis is

Actinomyces actinomycete comitans which is**
A. Gram positive facultative aerobic
B. Gram positive facultative anaerobic non-motile rod
C. Gram negative facultative anaerobic non-motile
160 caranza,200 oxford,http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aggregatibacter_actinomycetemcomitans (says
it is gram negative, facultative, non-motile rod) 

509. Which of the following is NOT significant factor in

determining virulence of a.a.??**
A. It effects chemotaxis
B. Produces leukous toxins
C. Destroys collagen
D. It is immuno-suppressive
161 caranza,

510. Density of film is decreased by increasing the

A. MA
B. Exposure time
C. Developing time
D. Rinsing time
page 74 white and pharoah, A,B and C are directly proportional to the density

511B
natural tooth is best space maintainer.
both A ,B used after extraction of primary tooth
A (used in lowers only)
A and B used after extractions to maintain space for
erupting permanent ,
preventing drifting of primary,
not interfering wid erupting permanent tooth.
 
512.B
only elevated alkaline phosphate is found in lab test wid normal serum calcium phosphate and 25
hydroxyvitamin D,other than this is , pts have a chance of hypercalcemia and fractures due to
increase in bone resorption.
 
513.C
other options are irrelevant,not mentioned anywhere.
start wid first step as mentioned in C
30 chest compressions (2compressions per second) followed by 2 breaths.contnue till signs of life
return or assistance arrives

Choice A – incorrect since 25-30% cardiac output is achieved under optimal conditions (see
the 2 references below) whereas Choice A says it is achieved at 60 compressions per minute.

From http://www.acssurgery.com/acs/ReviewQuestions/0801.htm :

87
CPR is not nearly as effective as a contracting heart; cardiac output of only 25% to 30% of
normal can be achieved even under optimal conditions with chest compressions.

From http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7469152 :

Choice B – doubt
Choice C – Not correct – not recommended (?precodial thump)
Choice D – Not correct – interruptions should be minimised (ARC-CPR)
 
514.A
angina
immediate management required,no need to check ECG,or other stuff first..
such pts should b advised to bring ther own medication.if not so:
firstly
glyceryl trinitrate ( spray400 microgram or tablet 300-600microgram )
OR
 isosorbide dinitrate 5mg administered
secondly
administer Oxygen.
See 1000/81 for explanation of pt position
 
515.C
The normal structures found on the lateral borders of the tongue are the foliate papillae, which
appear as a series of vertical ridges on the posterior borders. .
 foliate papillae aretaste buds for sour and acidic stimuli.
 
516.C
See hard copy/78 for all the conditions from DP
delayed eruption a feature of followings:
Down syndrome
vitamin D refractory rickets
ricketes
lead poisoning
osteopetrosis
 
 
517.A

88
boucher 516,last question also explains it
 
518.D
repeated question
non vital tooth,no( emergency) treatments like pulpectomy or pulpotomy
 
519.C
trauma to pulp usually occurs,resulting in pulp death or root resorption,evident as discoloration of
the tooth
 
520.B , C and E 
internet.
a color handbook of oral medicine
A=false as its common on palate,mucosa or pre existing area of pigmentation
D=cutaneous melanoma mor common

521   :-C

The effect of heparin decreases in 8 hours

522   :-B and D

Repeat question
As pit and fissures are difficult areas to reach, water fluoridation doesn't improve the pit and fissures
caries incident and are more effective for smooth surface caries

523   :-A

Six monthly topical fluoride application has proved effective

524   :-B

Preferably include 2weekend days and 2 weekdays

Diet counselling is important as it is a preventive approach
O dell case 1

525   :-A

Common in mandibular 1st premolar

Shafers page 1008

526   :-A

Angioneurotic edema can result due to allergic reaction to antibiotics or is hereditary

527   :-A

Typical features of Measles

Oral lesions appear 2-3 days before skin lesions
Shafers

528   :-B

Scalers have two cutting edges and sharp tip

Curettes have two cutting edges and rounded toe
Caranza page 750-751

529   :-B

It is more common in mandible

89
Shafers page 371

530   :-A

Ranula and mucocele are more common in young adult and there is usually no pain
Shafers

531. What is TRUE in regard to branchial cyst:

A. Situated on the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle

Answer: A
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1110351-clinical#a0217 :
 Primary branchial cleft cyst lesion: Branchial cysts are smooth, nontender, fluctuant
masses, which occur along the lower one third of the anteromedial border of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle between the muscle and the overlying skin.
 Branchial cleft cysts are congenital epithelial cysts, which arise on the lateral part of the
neck from a failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft in embryonic
development.

532. Damage/injury to which nerve causes dilation of pupils:

A. Oculomotor
B. Ansa cervicalis
C. Abducens

Answer: A (BD Chaurasia/90).

Effects of paralysis of oculomotor nerve (III CN):
 Ptosis (drooping of eyelid)
 Lateral squint
 Dilatation of the pupil
 Loss of accommodation
 Slight proptosis (forward projection of eye)
 Diplopia (double vision)

533. After an inferior alveolar nerve block the patient develops paralysis of eyelid,
upper lip and lower lip on that side. This means that the L.A was deposited
in:
A. The parotid gland

Answer: A. Malamed/234
 “Transient facial paralysis (facial nerve anaesthesia)- produced by deposition of la into
the body of the parotid gland. Signs and symptoms- inability to close upper eyelid &
drooping of the upper lip on the affected side.”
 Prevention (Malamed/291): make sure needle contacts medial surface of ramus before
depositing L.A. solution.
 Note: only motor function is affected, no sensory anaesthesia related to facial nerve.
 Management: reassure pt (effect will last few hrs and resolve without residual effects),
remove contact lens, apply eye patch (since pt can’t close eye) until muscle tone returns,
record incident

534. By which of the following mechanism reduces Aspirin pain:

A. It is anti inflammatory by the release of histamine
B. It blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway.

90
Answer: B. KD Tripathi/451, 453
 Aspirin inhibits COX irreversibly by acetylating one of its serine residues, prevents
conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins, which sensitise nerve endings
 Also causes obtunding of peripheral pain receptors

535. Patient with haemophilia presents which of the following findings:**

A. Increased prothrombin time
B. Increased bleeding time
C. Increased clotting time

Answer: C. Shafer/753:
 Haemophilia: CT is increased, BT, PT are normal
 Von Willebrand’s disease: BT is increased, CT, PT are normal

536. The pulpal floor of the Class II cavity for a mandibular first premolar should
be:
A. Parallel to occlusal plane
B. Perpendicular to long axis
C. Tilted Lingually
Answer: C Sturde/708:
 to avoid the buccal pulp horn and also avoid weakening of the lingual cusp
 Must see Q. 28, Boucher/380

537. Marginal leakage at the proximal gingival cavosurface of a recently restored

class II can be caused by:
I. Insufficient condensation
II. First proximal increment was too large
III. Neglecting to wedge the matrix
IV. Hand manipulation instead of mechanical
V. Debris contamination
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, V
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

Answer given in answer key is C. Not sure. Please give references. I (insufficient condensation)
is mentioned as a cause of marginal voids in amalgams on Sturde/667

538. What is the danger of using air as a cooler during cavity cutting:
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Odontoblast is drawn into the tubule

Answer: B. See highlighted portion in image below:

91
Walton/391:
“A prolonged blast of compressed air to freshly exposed vital dentin will cause a rapid outward
movement of fluid in patent dentinal tubules... rapid outward flow of fluid in the dentinal tubules
stimulates mechanoreceptors in the subjacent pulp, thus producing pain. Rapid outward fluid
movement may also result in odontoblast displacement; odontoblasts are dislodged from the
odontoblast layer and pulled outward into the tubules...”

539. In RCT the ideal root filling:

A. Ends at the apex
B. Extends beyond apex to achieve a good seal
C. Ends at the dentino-cemental junction

Answer: C. It is the most appropriate option here.

According to Cohen/363, 365: “Early studies identified the DCJ as the apical limit of obturation.
However, this landmark cannot be determined clinically.... In addition, the DCJ does not coincide
with the narrowest portion of the canal or apical constriction... Traditionally, the apical point of
termination has been 1mm from the radiographic apex.. Whereas the guideline of 1mm from the
apex remains rational, the point of apical termination of the preparation and obturation remains
empiric”.

540. Where is the narrowest part of the pulp:

A. At the radiographic apex

92
B. At the dentino-enamel junction
C. At the orifices

None of these seems to be the correct answer. See explanation to the previous question. The
narrowest portion of the pulp (or root canal) is the apical constriction (located at an average
distance of 1mm from the radiographic apex).
If choice B was dentino-cemental junction, it could have been marked as the answer.

541. Which of the following is MOST useful in differentiating

between apical abscess and periodontal
A. Percussion
B. Vitality tests
C. Cold tests
D. Heat tests
page 76-79 waltons, percussion is the one which can diffrentiate both,especially in this case when its
apical acess where the sensation to touch even can elicit response from the offended tooth.
while all types of vitality tests(electric/cold/heat) only can tell if pulp's vitalality is present(by the
patinet's response, this could be vital or partially necrosed pulp as well) or absent(if patient shows
no response, showing the pulp is necrosed). vitality tests are not confirmative and should be
accompanied by clinical and radiographic findings.

542. What is the ideal length for a post in post-core in an

endodontically treated tooth
A. 2/3 of the tooth length
B. ½ of the tooth length
C. 1.5 times that of the crown
D. Same as the anticipated crown
195 Shillburg, where it says ideal length is either 2/3rd of the root length or same size of the crown

543. Which is correct in regards to shade selection of crowns

A. It should be selected before starting preparation
B. Chroma is the lightness/darkness of colours
C. Value is the colour itself
D. Hue is the concentration of colours
page 427 shillinburg, the drawbacks taking after the preparation are change in colour due to the
preparaton and dehydration of the tooth, choice b,c,and d are incorrect.

544. How many mg of fluoride ions are obtained from 2.2 mg

tablet of NaF
A. 0.5mg
B. 1 mg
C. 1.5mg
D. 10mg
page 457 widmer, 2.2*.45=0.99mg=1mg

545. Strain is defined as **

A. An external force
B. An internal force to oppose external load
C. Deformity opposed the applied load
bouchers 333

546. Size of pulp chamber within the tooth is influenced by

93
A. Age
B. Parafunctional
C. History of the tooth /abrasion, erosion, caries/
D. All of the above
page 55 waltons

547. Self polymerising acrylic resins differs from heat cured resins
because they exhibit
A. Higher molecules weight
B. Higher content of residual monomers
5% in cold cure v/s 0.5% in heat cure (also see Q141-144)
page 735 Anusavice, explains how the residual monomer effect on the plasticizer which reduces the
strength of the denture base and it compromises the bio compatibility by being an irritant

548. The advantage of firing porcelain in vacuum**

A. Reduces size of air-bubbles incorporated thus decreasing porosity
B. Removes water before firing, increasing the hardness of porcelain
C. Significantly lowers firing temperature
bouchers 587 2nd question

549. The contraction (Gaseous) porosity in inlays is related to**

A. Overheating of the alloy
B. Molten gases
C. Diameter of the sprue
D. Overheating of investment
page 50 odells, assuming the question is gaseous porosity

550. Where would you expect to find the Mylohyoid on relation to

periphery of complete denture
A. Mandibular buccal in the midline
B. Mandibular lingual in the midline
C. Mandibular disto buccal area
bouchers 543 ,1st question, 544 shows the position of mylohyoid.

551.C
its always coz of poor oral hygiene in cervical area not in lingual or buccal areas,mostly followed by
old age and gum recession.
 
552.
A is my answer according to wot we do clinically
but give here is C.
 
 
553.Cor D
oxford pg280.says
40% have two canals,separate foramina in 1%
 
554.A
retention achieved by chemical or mechanical means
 
555.B
soldering done initially,
Any changes,painting  porcelain on crown in layers,carried before out just before curing,so proper
handling is important at this stage.

94
 
556.A
better retention achieved by placing retentive armof retainer gingivally
 
557.B
oxf pg 320
it causes metal corrosion. (staining – Cawson, Q.8.37)
best for acrylic dentures wen used overnight.
 
558.B
trauma due to unstable denture occurs,
also called as denture irritation hyperplasia.
poor oral hygiene associated wid candida(denture stomatitis)
 
559.B
textbook of prostho by nallaswamy pg130
 
560.C
its free way space that occurs at re rest(sting face height) ,it never changes  over time

561  :-B

Ala-Tragal line extends from ala of the nose to the tip of the tragus
It forms 8degree angle with the Frankfort horizontal plane
Nallaswamy and Net

562   :-B

The indications of cuspless teeth are:-

a.poor ridge
b.poor neuromuscular control
c.patient's with interarch distance problem
d.orthognathic ridge relation
e.horizontal chewers
Page 562 Bouchers

563   :-A

In the ecological shift there is transition from early aerobic environment characterized by gram positive
facultative specis to a highly oxygen deprived environment predominated by gram negative anaerobic
organisms
caranza page 146

564   :-A

Glucan and fructan are formed

Page 202 oxford

565   :-C

Filler particles mainly improve the mechanical, physical and chemical property
In load bearing area we will require composite with high strength like hybrid which has high content of
filler particles
Sturdevant

566   :-A

It results in reversible pulpitis which should resolve within 2-3days

567   :-D

95
Radiographic examination may show widened pdl or rarefaction in case of pulpless teeth

568  :-A

It should be ideally 6mm away from the maxillary gingival margin and 3mm from the mandibular
gingival margin to prevent trauma to the gingiva
Nallaswamy page 327

569  :-C

That is why there is no enamel formation throughout life

Strudevant page 21

570. When you try to seat a crown on a tooth you find a discrepancy of 0.3mm at
the margin; you will:
A. Reduce inner surface of crown
B. Remake a new crown
C. Smooth the enamel at the margin
D. Hand burnish crown margins

Answer: B

A, C, D are not advisable.

571. In regard to Chlorhexidine mouth wash:**

A. Is anionic
B. Used in 0.02% concentration
C. Used in 0.12% concentration
D. Penetrates the gingival crevice/pocket

Answer: C. Explanation given in the answer key is quite good. I have referred Lindhe’s Clinical
Periodontology and Implant Dentistry 5 th ed.

572. Glycerine trinitrate given to an angina patient acts by:

A. Giving relief of pain by decreasing venous return
B. Decreasing blood pressure and causes headache

Answer: A (KD Tripathi/522, 523)

 Reasons for A: “Nitrates cause peripheral pooling of blood → decreased venous return →
decreased preload on heart.... → major beneficial effect in classical angina”
 B is also correct- nitrates do cause a fall in BP and headache is an adverse effect due to
vasodilatory action. BUT decrease in BP is not the main beneficial action for angina
patients SO A IS THE BETTER OPTION.

573. Which of the following is NOT a complication of radiation to head and neck
area:**
A. Xerostomia
B. Mucositis
C. Increased caries
D. Heightened taste sensation
E. Increased risk of osteomyelitis

Answer: D. Loss of taste sensation is experienced by patients (White and Paharoah/33)

96
574. A female patient is diagnosed with Addison’s disease. Which of the following
does not confirm this:
A. Weakness, lassitude
B. Anorexia, nauseas, fatigue
C. Hypotension
D. Bony expansion
E. Amenorrhea

Answer: D. All others are symptoms (Davidson/726, Table 16.36). Amenorrhoea is mentioned as
a symptom on http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/116467-clinical#showall
Cawson/179, Q7.32: Almost the same question – also mentions vitiligo as a symptom

575. Which of the following conditions is not associated with periodontal

destruction in primary teeth:
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Stevens Johnson syndrome
C. Hypophosphatasia
D. Papillon-Lefebvre syndrome
E. Cyclic neutropenia

Answer: B. Patients of Stevens Johnson syndrome show oral lesions in the form of vesicles and
bullae which rupture and become extremely painful. Perio destruction is not mentioned
(Shafer/818).

576. In patients with exposed root surfaces:

A. Ask to use low abrasive dentifrices
B. It is because of dental hypersensitivity

Answer: A. It is not the result but a cause of hypersensitivity.

577. Which of the following is the best index to evaluate gingival health:
A. Gingival index by Loe and Silness
B. Periodontal index
C. Periodontal disease index
D. OHI-S

Answer: A (quantitates gingivitis). Reference: Soben Peter, internet

 B and C mainly assess periodontal status (not gingival status)
 D quantitates the amount of deposits (calculus and debris)

578. In surveying; calibration of examiners data is important because:

A. It reduces the errors in gathered data.

Answer: A. It leads to reduction in inter- and intra-examiner variability in gathering data for
surveys
According to http://www.biomedcentral.com/content/pdf/1472-6831-10-8.pdf :
The World Health Organisation recommendation in "Oral Health Surveys; Basic Methods"(4th
Edition, 1997) is that examiners taking part in epidemiological surveys should attend training and
calibration sessions that should last for at least four to five days and should lead to intra- and
inter-examiner agreement over scores in the range of 85 - 95%”.

97
579. A patient is resistant to caries but has a periodontal disease. In this case, sucrose in diet
is important because:
A. Sucrose is greatly involved in plaque development
B. S. mutans produces Levans frictions which are used by periodontal pathogens
C. The streptococcus mutans cannot survive with a continual supply of sucrose
D. Existing plaque must continue to get sucrose in order to grow

Answer: A
B is a less appropriate answer because it says “... MUST continue”, implying thereby that sucrose
is essential for plaque growth and plaque would stop growing in the absence of sucrose. This
point is not mentioned in the textbooks.
Ref: Boucher/272, last question. Another reference in support for option A:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/3159073 :
Role of sucrose in plaque formation
Rölla G, Scheie AA, Ciardi JE.
Abstract
Results are presented which support the concept that the bacterial enzyme glucosyltransferase
(GTF) plays a crucial role in sucrose induced plaque formation. GTF was shown to adhere
strongly to anionic, hydrophobic and polysaccharide solid materials, and to be able to produce
glucans in the adsorbed state. It appears conceivable that GTF adsorb to teeth and produce
glucans. Glucan chains on the surface of the bacteria and glucans on the tooth surfaces interact
(pack) and form a strong binding mechanism. The rigid alpha 1,3 linked glucans produced by
Streptococcus mutans are particularly suited for interaction of this kind. This mechanism could
account for sucrose-induced binding of bacteria to enamel, pellicle covered enamel and
preformed plaque. S. mutans would adhere particularly strongly to tooth surfaces in the presence
of sucrose, according to this model.

580. Cariogenicity of Streptococcus mutans is because of the production of:

A. Glucans
B. Levans
C. Fructans
D. Sucrose

Answer: A. See explanation to previous question.

581. A child consumes a toxic dose of fluoride. You will**

A. Induce vomiting
B. Gives a lot of fluids
C. Gives a lot of fluids and sodium bicarbonates
D. Ask patient not to eat for 45 minutes
E. Give milk, calcium tablets or magnesium tablets
page 67-8 Widmer, explains why choice A should not be followed, its milk of magnesia 

582. Collimation is done to

A. Reduces the size of the beam, so it is easy to visualise the central X
ray.
B. Avoids unnecessary exposure to radiation of surrounding tissues of the
patient

98
page 12 whit and pharoah, choice A partly is also correct where its saying reduces the size of
the beam, as collimation also educes the size of the xray , but the visualising part of xray i am
not sure

583. In X rays filtration is used to**

A. Remove low energy X rays
B. Reduce exposure time
C. Reduce size of the beam
page 11 whit and pharoah,also explains inherent and external filtration is total filtration 

584. In calculus formatio, the epitaxic concept is one of the

theories. Which of the following is true
A. Mineralisation occurs when calcium and phosphate content is high
B. The presence of matrix would start initiate formation of nucleus
C. The amorphous materials would convert to calcium phosphate and
hydroxy phosphate
175 caranza, 

585. Gemination is**

A. Division of single tooth, twining
B. Fusion of two or more crowns of teeth
C. Fusion of two or more roots
page 240 widmer,

586. In primary teeth, failure of Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy is MOST

likely to produce**
A. External resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Necrosis of the pulp
D. Ankylosis
boucher 505, 3rd question
 From Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol Oral Radiol Endod. 2009 Nov;108(5):e127-
33 (Clinical and radiographic outcomes of calcium hydroxide and formocresol
pulpotomies performed by dental students): “Internal resorption was the most
common radiographic failure in all 3 pulpotomy techniques.”

 From Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol Oral Radiol Endod. 2008 Aug;106(2):e94-8.
Epub 2008 Jun 13 (Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy in primary teeth. Part I: internal resorption
as a complication following pulpotomy): “Internal resorption was the main reason
for failure; however, internal resorption was not affected by physiological root
resorption”.

587. A raised dot on X ray film is present to

A. Orient exposure side
B. Differentiate between left and right side
C. Dip during developing
page 53 white and pharoah

588. What does the fixes solution in developing X-rays do

A. Removes unexposed silver halide crystals

99
B. Removes exposed silver halide
C. Fixes the developed film
page 68 white and pharoah

589. When the developing solution is correctly mixed and x ray

film is being developed for normal time; but the solution is too
warm, the outcome film will be
A. Too light
B. Too dark
C. Fogged
page 74 white and pharoah

590. Kaposi’s sarcoma

A. Seen on buccal mucosa in HIV as purple lesion
B. Seen on palate of most HIV patient
C. Should be biopsy
page 476 oxford
591.A

dental erosion ,particulary of palatal aspects of maxillary teeth

pyloric stenosis is narrowing (stenosis) ofoutlet of lower end of stoamch,pylorus

intrnet

592.B

as soon as a tooth appears in oral cavity micro organisms start appearing.

read somewhere in boucher but now cant find where was it.

593.B

Fungiform anterior 2/3rd of tongue;200-300 papillae-1600 taste buds

circumpallate papillae ,inverted V sulcus,separate anterior n posterior tongue:8-12 papillae-250 taste

buds each

circumpallate are associated wid salivary gland ,Von Ebner gland

Folliate:posterolteral surface:1000taste buds

Filiform on dorsal surface of anterior tongue:no taste buds

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=sGhzMnst1j8C&pg=PA770&dq=papillae+and+von+ebner's+glands&hl=en&ei=FvbKTrPyF8mviQfu
uv3cDg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=3&ved=0CD4Q6wEwAg#v=onepage&q=papillae%20and%20von%20ebner's
%20glands&f=false

100
 

594.B

enamel rods are more configurated on occlusal surface.

oxf pg 74.

anatomy of primary tooth.

595.C

intracranial hypertension 

dilation of eyes(6th nerve usually involved)

http://books.google.com.au/books?id=t_qq-1E-
lFsC&pg=PA67&dq=maxilla+fracture+and+intracranial+hypertension&hl=en&ei=x0HUTvGTN4iViAf5-
sWoAw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=2&ved=0CDoQ6wEwAQ#v=onepage&q=maxilla%20fracture%20and
%20intracranial%20hypertension&f=false 

596. A

boucher pg135

597.B (internet)

A=shortens REM sleep(active sleep in babies)=  internet

C=carbamazepine-anticonvulsant used mostly for epilepsy,neurelgia= oxf pg 424 drug induced

lesions of mouth

D =not recommended for <16s=oxford pg592, sedation.

598.A

it lies anteromedial to inf alv nerve.

599.B

various reference (internet n books) on branches of maxillary artery n their supply

600.C

101
hemarthrosis :one or several joints tend to bleed (elbow ,knees,ankles)

X-linked recessive hereditary hemorrhage

deficiency of VIII (type A)

 oxf pg 492 other haematological disorders.

601    :-A

Penicillin remains first choice of drug for all the odontogenic infections
Tg and Synopsis of minor oral surgery

602    :-A

There is maximum swelling for two-three days

Salt water gargle increases the speed of reduction of swelling and thus, it should be started after 24
hours

603    :-B

Maintaining normal diet is very important for a diabetic patient as there are chances of hypoglycaemic
attack
If the patient hasn't had his food he should be sent back to have his meals

604    :-D

Warfarin should be stopped atleast 3 days before extraction

Ampicillin is required as the patient has prosthetic valve,therefore there are chances of infective
endocarditis

605    :-A

Loss of gingival attachment can result in either gingival recession and/or pocket formation 

606    :-D

If the angulation is more oblique it results in unclear appearance of lamina dura even though the
periodontium is healthy
White and Pharaoh page 168

607   :-A

It is called Sphenopalatine neuralgia, Horton's syndrome

Bouchers page 422

608. A mandibular permanent first molar has to be extracted, this will affect:
A. Adjacent teeth
B. Teeth in the same quadrant
C. Both arches the same side
D. Full mouth

Answer: D

Carranza/476, 477

609. The places for newly erupted mandibular molars are created by:
A. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorly

102
B. Apposition of alveolar process
C. Apposition of inferior boarder of mandible

Answer: A
Reference: Bhalajhi/34

610. A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which
has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the
past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be:
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Carcinoma of the parotid
C. Lymphoma of parotid

Answer: B > C

 A is ruled out since facial nerve involvement is rare (Shafer/232)

 In favour of C: Adenolymphoma is firm, not painful (Shafer/237). Against C:
adenolymphoma seldom attains a size of more than 3-4cm.
 B- symptoms in favour: firm, paraesthesia (Shafer/245, which also mentions that there
may be clinical resemblance to pleomorphic adenoma in some cases); symptoms against-
slow growing, no early local pain
The question suggests that the lesion was initially benign as it was painless and was growing slowly
However, the patient has observed paraesthesia which suggests malignant transformation
It is firm which suggests that it is not infection

611. What is the histopathology of the pathogenesis of the plaque following 21 days
of plaque accumulation:
A. Primarily infiltrate of plasma cells
B. Primarily infiltrate of lymphocytes
C. Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvement
D. Infiltrate of neutrophils

Answer: A. Carranza/358. “The predominance of plasma cells is thought to be a primary

characteristic of the established lesion.. ” Early bone involvement is not mentioned as a feature.

612. What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:**

A. Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPP
B. Spontaneous bleeding interproximal
C. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytes
D. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis

Answer: All seem correct.

 A: Carranza/528, 529 (A necrotising, rapidly progressive form of periodontitis.....
characterised by soft tissue necrosis, rapid periodontal destruction, and interproximal
loss)
 B: See highlighted text in the image below
 T4/T8 (T4 = CD4+ T cells) ratio is suppressed in HIV infection. See highlighted text in
the image below.
 C: reduction in T4 and increase in T8 numbers results in depression of T4/T8 ratio. Role
of reduction of T4 (or CD4+ T cells) and hence T4/T8 ratio is mentioned in highlighted
text below.

103
  D: Also true. See explanation of choice A (“...rapid periodontal desctruction”, which
means deep pockets)
 The text below is from an article on necrotising ulcerative periodontitis from the journal
Annals of Periodontology

613. What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:**

A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase
B. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topically
C. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient

Answer: A
 Effective, preferably during the prodrome (TG/116). Davidson/31 “Acyclic antivirals are
the treatment of choice.. Therapy must commence in the first 48 hours of clinical
disease.”
 B: False because idoxuridine has not been proven to be effective (TG/116)

104
  C: False. According to http://www.aidsinfo.nih.gov/DrugsNew/DrugDetailT.aspx?
int_id=8, “Oral acyclovir is approved by the FDA for the treatment of initial and
recurring episodes of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections in immunocompromised patients.”

614. The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is:

A. Hereditary
B. Drug induced
C. Plaque induced
D. Leukaemia

Answer: C
According to http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/j.1834-7819.2010.01199.x/abstract,
“Gingival enlargements are a common clinical finding and most represent a reactive hyperplasia
as a direct result of plaque related inflammatory gingival disease.”

615. A 13 years-old boy has enlarged gingivae; gives a history of Dilantin sodium
what is you treatment:**
A. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty
B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning
C. Stop medication

Answer: B.
 According to Carranza/921, gingival surgery is indicated if the lesion does not respond to
oral hygiene improvement, scaling and root planing.
 A: not done as the first step in management
 C is false: Carranza/920 recommends first considering drug substitution but drug should
not be stopped/substituted without consulting the patient’s physician

616. A patient has improperly formed DEJ, reduction in size of pulp chamber,
chipping and attrition of enamel that would MOSTLY be:
A. Fluorosis
B. Amelogenesis imperfecta
C. Dentinogenesis imperfect

Answer: C (Shafer/59). All features are mentioned.

617. What is wrong in regard to (water jet spray) hydrotherapy:

A. Does not harm gingivae
B. Removes plaque
C. Removes acquired pellicle

Answer: A
 Boucher/280, last question.
 Can be harmful to gingiva. See http://eim.sagepub.com/content/14/3/141.abstract

618. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characteristic by:**

A. Hypodontia or anodontia

Answer: A (Shafer/806). Hypo-hidrosis, -trichosis, -dontia

619. During extraction of a maxillary third molar the tuberosity is fractured;

however, it remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. Which of the

105
following procedures should be employed:**
A. Remove the tuberosity and suture
B. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if required
C. Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then suture.
D. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm, leave in place and suture

Answer: B. Boucher/437, 2nd question

620. An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in

a 50 years-old female reveals chronic inflammation; you would:**
A. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to
return in six months
B. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignant
C. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses and re-examination
D. Repeat the biopsy

Answer: D. Clinical features indicate malignancy so biopsy should be repeated. Please help with
references. This question is probably given in Boucher.

621. What is the MOST common consequence of an allergic

response to medication
A. Skin rash “dermatitis” with swelling of lips and eyes
181-2 tga

622.How many time do you breath in mouth to mouth

resuscitation
A. 10-12 times a minute
B. 4-6 times a minute
181-2 tga, 2breath=30compressions @ 2/sec=15sec=2breath=30compressions @
2/sec=15sec=2breath=30compressions @ 2/sec=15sec=2breath=30compressions @
2/sec=15sec=2breath

623. What cause a reduce of pulmonary ventilation

A. Laryngeal muscle paralysis
B. Air way obstruction
no referene

Answer: B
From http://forums.studentdoctor.net/archive/index.php/t-438891-p-5.html :

This question is incomplete. It should specify the laryngeal muscle group paralysed: 

If laryngeal abductors are paralysed, adductors close the glottis completely and there is
reduction in pulmonary ventilation.

If laryngeal adductors are paralysed, glottis remains open (high risk of aspiration) but
pulmonary ventilation does not suffer.

Airway obstruction - whether complete or incomplete, temporary or permenant (till person

dies) - does reduce pulmonary ventilation. 

106
I would choose airway obstruction as the answer, rather than laryngeal muscle paralysis as
the group is not specified and they can be affected individually depending which fibres of
recurrent laryngeal nerve are affected.

624. What would you do if the systole is elevated**

A. Calm down the patient
page 165 odell, ch.34 anxious patient
625. What would you do if the diastole is elevated
A. Investigate systemic cause
page 165 odell,ch.34 anxious patient

626. Which are non-calcified areas in the child’s cranium

A. Fontanelles
straight question,definition

627. Koplik’s spots are associated with one of the following

A. Viral infection
B. Diabetes
C. Measles
D. Rubella
E. Candidosis
page 510 bouchers, ODATP

628. What is Von Reckling hausen disease

A. Neurofibroma
B. Necrosis of bone produced by ionizing radiation
page 761 oxford, its multiple neurofibromas

629. How do treat the cause of airway obstruction

A. Extension of the neck
B. Flexion of the neck
page 175 tga, in case of complete obstruction , 1st step in cricothyroidotomy

630. How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before

extraction
A. 6000000 units of benzoyl penicillin
B. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively
page 136-7 tga
631.A

B=increases bleeding,trauma,healing problems

C and D used for post op pain.

though aspirin better than codeine for pain relief.

632. C

From http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leukocytosis :

107
 

633.C

tg pg 135

oxford pg570

amoxicillin is drug of choicein prophylaxis

634.B

oxford pg 436

Addisons disease:

melanotic hyperpigmentation of oral mucosa(cheek)

635 D

tg pg167

oxford pg521

636.B

oxford pg 492,542

637.B

Transfusion medicine and hemostasis.

By Christopher D. Hillyer, pg405

hyperleukocytosis. leukemic cell count >100,000/microl

108
secondary to acute leukemia.

638.E

oxford pg 184

Aggrssive periodontitis:severe form of generalized periodontitis affecting young adults(20-35 yrs)

639.F

tg pg 136

640.A

tg pg 115

coxsackie virus:

herpangna

hand and mouth disease

641  -A

Vitamin K is also known as Phyloquinone or anti-hemorrhagic vitamin

It helps in hepatic synthesis of factors II,V,VII,IX and X

It absence or deficiency results in increase in Clotting time and tendency to bleed profusely

642  -C

The major concern in trauma cases is airway obstruction which results due to following causes:-

a.bleeding from oral/facial structures

b.aspiration of foreign materials

c.regurgitation of stomach components

643 -A or D(mostly)

109
No answer is given but I couldn't find any references stating excitement or leaning as a sign of
neurological trauma. The question may be wrongly quoted.

Could find references for every other sign given

644 -D

Erythromycin is a Macrolide used for acute dental abscesses mainly in patients allergic to Penicillin

It enhances activities of warfarin and digoxin

645 -A

646 -D

Explanation for both 645 and 646 

Corticosteroid is an immunosuppressant and anti-inflammatory drug

Prolong use of corticosteroids results in opportunistic infections like candidiasis and herpes infection

It also causes skin atrophy 

Thus the dose of corticosteroids needs to be increased prior to surgery to prevent adrenal crisis

Side effects from a short course of systemic steroids

If systemic steroids have been prescribed for one month or less, side effects are rarely serious.
However the following problems may arise:

 Sleep disturbance
 Increased appetite
 Weight gain
 Psychological effects, including increased or decreased energy
Rare but more worrisome side effects of a short course of corticosteroids include: mania,
psychosis, heart failure, peptic ulceration, diabetes and aseptic necrosis of the hip.

Side effects from a longer course of systemic steroids

110
Nearly everyone on systemic steroids for more than a month suffers from some adverse effects,
depending on daily dose and how long they have been on systemic steroids. These may include
any of the following problems, which are not listed in any particular order of importance.

Skin problems
The skin is prone to the following adverse effects from prolonged courses or high doses of
systemic steroids. These may include:

 Increased risk of skin infections such as bacterial infections (e.g. cellulitis) and fungal
infections (e.g. tinea, candida)
 Skin thinning resulting in easy bruising (purpura), skin tearing after minor injury and slow
healing; these effects are most prominent on sun exposed areas particularly the backs
of the hands and the forearms.
 Stretch marks (striae), particularly under the arms and in the groin.
 Steroid acne: clusters of small spots on face, chest and upper back.
 Excessive hair (hypertrichosis) and hair loss (alopecia)
 Subcutaneous lipoatrophy (loss of fat under the skin surface) from injected steroid that
does not go deep enough into the muscle

For osteoporosis - From http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glucocorticoid :

Excessive glucocorticoid levels resulting from administration as a drug

or hyperadrenocorticism have effects on many systems. Some examples include inhibition of
bone formation, suppression of calcium absorption (both of which can lead to osteoporosis),
delayed wound healing, muscle weakness, and increased risk of infection. These
observations suggest a multitude of less-dramatic physiologic roles for glucocorticoids.

647. Esophagitis, herpes simplex, colitis during 5 weeks. You will find the same
signs in:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Erythema multiforme
C. AIDS

Answer: C. All the conditions (including CMV colitis) are mentioned in Davidson.

648 -E

Option A:-allows approximation of the shoulders infront of the chest

Option B:-Thus the skull tends to be large

Option C:-There is high arched palate and cleft palate

Option D:-Absence of cellular cementum,prolonged retention of deciduous teeth

649 -E

111
It is also called Sideropenic dysphagia

It is mainly due to iron deficiency mainly in females

Along with it there is loss of normal keratinization

Glossitis with atrophy of filiform and later fungiform papillae

650 -A

Repeat question

651. In patients with morphine coma, what is the medication of choice to reverse
its act:
A. Bradykinin
B. Epinephrine
C. Amphetamine
D. Naloxone

Answer: D. KD Tripathi/447. Pure morphine antagonist, iv injection of 0.4-0.8 mg promptly

antagonises all actions of morphine.

652. Why are streptococci resistant to penicillin:**

A. They produce penicillinase.

Answer: A (http://jac.oxfordjournals.org/content/44/2/141.full)

653. When comparing the mesio-distal length of the second deciduous molar with
the length of the 2nd premolar, the deciduous tooth is:
A. Longer
B. Shorter
C. Near the same size

Answer: A. See image below. The link is:

http://www.umdnj.edu/opengweb/ABO%20Lit/61.%20Leeway%20Space%20and%20the
%20Resolution%20of%20Crowding%20in%20the%20Mixed%20Dentition.%20Sem%20in%20Orthod,
%201%20188-194,%201995.%20A.%20Gianelly.pdf

112
654. How do you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia MOST accurately:
A. History

Answer: A. Shafer/855: “The unusual clinical nature... provides the key for establishing the
diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia.”

655. How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s disease:**
A. Like a normal child
B. Like a diabetic child
C. Like a haemophilic child

Answer: C. Shafer/753. A and B are clearly wrong.

656. The zygomatic process serves as:

A. Origin of masseter muscle
B. Origin of temporalis
C. Protects parotid gland
D. Insertion of lateral pterygoid

113
Answer: A. BD Chaurasia/116. Originates in three layers from different sections of the zygomatic
process and arch.

657. Treatment of patient with herpes simplex:**

A. Symptomatic treatment and acyclovir
B. Idoxuridine

Answer: A. Shafer/366
 Treatment of primary HSV infection... is only supportive and symptomatic
 Antibiotics are useful for prevention of secondary attacks (acyclovir being the main one)
 Also see my explanation to Q613
 Why not B: Goodman, Gilman/2049: “Inhibitory concentrations of idoxuridine for HSV-
1 are 2 to 10 g/ml, at least tenfold higher than those of acyclovir. Idoxuridine lacks
selectivity... In the United States, idoxuridine is approved only for topical treatment of
HSV keratitis.”

658. Painless bluish lump filled with fluid on the lips; MOST likely is:
A. Smoker’s keratosis
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Mucocele
D. Fibroma
E. Fibro-epithelial polyp

Answer: C. Shafer/558,558: Most frequently on the lower lip, superficial lesion appears with a
bluish, translucent cast..

659. The diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris is confirmed by:**

A. Tzanck cells
B. Test dose of corticosteroid
C. Test of anti body
D. Histological immunofluorescence
E. Serological test for auto antibody

Answer: D.
 Shafer/834: Immunofluorescent testing has proven to be of great value in the diagnosis of
pemphigus, especially when clinical or microscopic findings are inconclusive.
 Tzanck Test: Shafer/833: used as a rapid supplemental test for pemphigus. Detects
Tzanck cells.
 Also see Boucher/411, Q62: Biopsy of EARLY lesion (for Tzanck cells) and Nicolsky’s
sign afford the best help in arriving at a diagnosis of pemphigus. But immunofluorescence
has not been mentioned as a choice there. So based on the first bullet point, D is still the
best answer.

660. Paget’s disease under microscope shows:

A. Mosaic pattern

Answer: A. Shafer/691. Mosaic bone and eventually “jigsaw puzzle” appearance on histological
section.

114
661. Ameloblastoma on x-rays shows as
A. Soap bubbles
373-5 white and pharoah, describes its locartion  mostly in mandibular molar - ramus region,
radiographically, its well defined with internal septa creating internal compartments which gives 
honey comb appearance when the internal compartmentare small and ssoa bblle appearance when
it large.

662. Ankyloglossia is caused by

A. Edentulous ridge
B. Short lingual frenum
C. Short labial frenum
page408 widmer

663. What is NOT CHARACTERISTIC finding in carcinoma of the

mouth
A. Elevation
B. Fixation
C. Invasion
D. Verrucoid appearance
E. Pain
page 452 oxford, oral medicine, oral cancer explains the characteristics of oral squamous cell
carcinoma and page 116 describes the characteristic of the term verrucoid due to its appearance

664. Blow to the mandible resulted in deviation to the left on

opening; x-rays show unilateral fracture, where would you
expect the fracture**
A. Neck of the left condyle
B. Neck of the right condyle
C. Body of the left condyle
D. Body or the right condyle
PAGE 549-50 WHITE AND PHAROAH,DEVIATION IS ON THE SAME SIDE DURING CONDLAR NECK #, IT
ALSO SAYS THAT THERE ALSO HEAD OF CONDLYLE FRACTURE  

665. Marble bone disorder is**

A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteopetrosis
PAGE 544 OXFORD, BONE DISEASE

666. In regards to dentinogenesis imperfecta on x-rays, What is

TRUE
A. Short and blunted roots
B. The pulp canal is obliterated
C. Big pulp chamber, thin dentine and normal enamel
D. Type III, characteristic shell teeth
E. All of the above
PAGE 309 WHIE AND PHAROAH, CHARACTERISTICS OF THE DISEASE

667. Exfoliative cytology will not help in the diagnosis of

A. Herpes simplex infection, ONLY OPTION

115
PAGE 173 WIDMER, IT SAYS EXFOLITIVE CYTOLOGY CAN BE USED,FOR A QUICK DAIGNOSIS,
CHARACTERISED BY THE DEMONSTRATION OF BALLOON CELLS AND MULTI NUCLEATED GIANT
CELLS. DRAWBACK OF THIS IS CANNOT DIFFERENTIATE HSV AND VZV. PAGE 337 SHAFERS. CLINICAL
FEAURES AND HISTORY ARE HELPFUL IN DIGNOSIS WHILE PCR TECHNIQUE TO DETECT VIRAL
ANTIGEN ARE THE BEST.

668. Treatment of Anaphylactic shock

A. Adrenalin 1mp IV
PAGE183-5 TGA, ALL THE METHODS ARE DESCRIBED DURING EMERGENCY SITUATION LIKE
ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK

669. The treatment of angioneurotic oedema

A. Anti histamine 10mg IV
B. Chlorphenamine maleate as Piriton by Allen
C. Hydrochloride 25 mg IM
D. Corticosteroid drugs or with adrenaline.
PAGE182-5 TGA, IT ALSO SAYS DURING MILD ATTACKS ANTIHISTAMINE ORALLY,

670. Most congenitally missing teeth are

A. Mandibular 3rd molars
B. Mandibular 2nd premolars
C. Maxillary lateral incisor
PAGE 220-1 WIDMER, 3RD MOLARS>MAX LATERALS>2ND PREMOLAR>MAND CENTRAL, PLEASE
HAVE A LOOK IN GEN INFO SECTION OF PEDODONTIA IN DENTAL DECKS

671.

cant find any refernce for D

all mentioned options are linked with immunodeficency but cant find the one specifically linked wid
secondary deficiency.

672.C

balaji pg 340

all other options are mentioned there.

673.A

profit pg90

boucher pg 485

oxf pg 124,ortho definitions

674.B

dental decks

116
page 48 explains all about the calculation,pls have a luk.

When lenghth is doubled,distance is also doubled.according to inverse square,the resultant beam is

one fourth as intense.

FORMULA:

ORIGINAL INTENSITY/NEW INTENSITY =NEW DISTANCE2 /ORIGINAL DISTANCE2

675.A

http://books.google.com.au/books?id=2l9OcyLYy8sC&pg=PA71&dq=vitamin+C+and+
+organisms&hl=en&ei=j4TNTsafDY-yiQful6CzDg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=4&ved=0CEkQ6wEwAw#v=onepage&q=vitamin%20C%20and
%20%20organisms&f=false

676.B

m not sure abt the fracture site mentioned in question.think question is bit confusing.assuming it to be
facial fracture,have a luk in

oxford pg 464.

reduction,fixation,immobilization

677.A

shafers pg 474

pulp may respond to irritation by dentinal sclerosis or by forming repartive dentine instead of
progressing to pulpitis

678.A

odell case 12.

table 12.1

679. C

117
Pediatric dentistry book says: (http://books.google.co.nz/books?
id=pqhzzcjCFH4C&pg=PA137&lpg=PA137&dq=isthmus+class+II+amalgam+fracture+prevention&source=bl&ots=nX67V_0RV7&sig=cXj1HBj
EoftR3SwsYstSGJIFSSs&hl=en&sa=X&ei=U1H8TrXcM-WQiQfsh5jSAQ&ved=0CCoQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=isthmus%20class%20II
%20amalgam%20fracture%20prevention&f=false )

Ox/230: “amalgam restorations are prone to # at isthmus... therefore sufficient depth must be
provided in this area.”

Can’t be C (inadequate width) because Sturde/697 says “isthmus width should be as narrow as
possible and no wider than one quarter of the intercuspal distance.” So isthmus width is not an issue.
Sturde/705 says that “rounding axio-pulpal line angle increases bulk and decreases stress
concentration” so inadequate depth of isthmus is more important than width to prevent fracture.

oxf pg 84. class II in primary molars

depth 1.5mm-2mm

width 1/3 -1/2 distance between cusps

oxf pg 230

proximal classII permanent molar

width 1/4-1/5 intercusp

680.A

oxford

pg124

lips dnt meet at rest 

681  :-A

Respiratory depression effect of barbiturates increases with concomitant use of alcohol, opiates,
benzodiazepines

The other adverse effects of barbiturates are :-

a. tolerance

118
b.sluggishness 

c. incoordination

d. thinking difficulty

e. slowness of speech

f. faulty judgement

g. drowsiness

h. shallow breathing

682  :-A

Hutchinson's triad is seen in congenital syphilis which is transmitted from infected mother to the child
and not inherited

The triad is hypoplasia of incisors and molar teeth, 8th nerve deafness, interstitial keratitis

The other symptoms are frontal bossing,short maxilla,mulberry molars,mandible protuberance

Page 453 Shafers

683  :-C

684  :-The given answer is D

However, Nitrous oxide is not contraindicated in sickle cell anaemia 

Contraindications include 

a.COPD and emphysema

b.Pregnant females in their first trimester

c.Patients who have cold

d.Patients who are claustrophobic

Pls check the below link which says it is used in Asthma and Sickle cell anaemia

http://books.google.com.au/books?id=SZRMrjzUb8gC&printsec=frontcover#v=onepage&q&f=false

684. Nitrous Oxide is contraindicated in:

A. Heart disease
B. Asthma
C. Mental retardant

119
 D. Sickle cell anaemia

Answer: A or C

Reference: Cameron Widmer/27

See image below from http://www.dentalcare.com/en-US/dental-education/continuing-

education/ce92/ce92.aspx?ModuleName=coursecontent&PartID=3&SectionID=-1

From http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1413427-overview#a05:

Absolute contraindications
 Overall, nitrous oxide is a very safe drug with few absolute contraindications.
 Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in patients with significant respiratory compromise.
 The blood:gas partition coefficient of nitrous oxide is 34 times greater than that of nitrogen.
This differential solubility means that nitrous oxide can leave the bloodstream and enter air-
filled cavities 34 times faster than nitrogen. As a result, nitrous is contraindicated in patients in
whom expansion of these air-filled cavities could compromise patient safety. This includes
patients with pneumothorax, pulmonary blebs, air embolism, bowel obstruction, and those
undergoing surgery of the middle ear.

Relative contraindications
 Caution must be exercised in individuals with a history of stroke, hypotension, and
known cardiac conditions.
 Nitrous oxide is known to interfere with vitamin B12 and folate metabolism. In patients with
these preexisting conditions, nitrous oxide should only be used with full precautionary
consideration and close monitoring. Particular precautions should be taken in pediatric patients
with underlying vitamin B12 deficiency (genetic or environmental) and conditions related to
vitamin B12 deficiency.
 Nitrous oxide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy. It is known to have potential teratogenic
and fetal toxic effects, particularly with chronic use.
Dental contraindications
 Dental nitrous oxide may be contraindicated in patients with severe nasal congestion, those who
breathe through their mouths, or those unable to wear a nasal mask.
Some patients, especially children experiencing severe anxiety or extreme uncooperativeness, may
not be good candidates for this milder therapy and may require more potent sedating intravenous or
general anesthesia.

685  :-A

Green, black, orange or brown extrinsic stains is due to chromogenic bacteria or dietary in origin

Chlorhexidine mouthwash causes brown stain by combining with dietary tannin

686  :-B

120
Upper molars and premolars-buccal

Upper canine -side of the nose

Lower incisors,premolars and molars-labial/buccal

Lower 2nd mandibular molar-lingually

Master dentistry page 67

687  :-A

A periradicular infection may break through the bone resulting in drainage of pus usually in the labial
or buccal mucosa

The sinus tract ultimately heals by formation of granulation tissue after root canal therapy

688  :-A

Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland tumor

It is more common in the lower pole of the superficial lobe of the gland

689  :-A

690  :-A

A-Early lesion of gingivitis

B-Established lesion of gingivits(2-3weeks)

691. A young patient has all incisors, some premolars and some canines erupted
but no 2nd molars are showing: What is his age?
A. 8 years
B. 11 years
C. 13 years
D. 14 years

Answer: B. Based on chronology tables. Cameron & Widmer/454

692. Patient with Class II div I malocclusion has ANB of:

A. +2

121
B. -2
C. +8
D. -8
Normal value of ANB> 2o signifies Class II (Laura Mitchell/66)

693. In hairy tongue you will find:

A. Elongated filiform papillae

Answer: A. Shafer/29

694. Which muscle has insertion in the pterygoid raphe:**

A. Superior constrictor of the pharynx
B. Middle constrictor of the pharynx
C. Inferior constrictor of the pharynx

Answer: A. BD Chaurasia/185:
 Origin from pterygoid hamulus, pterygomandibular raphe, medial surface of the mandible
at the posterior end of the mylohyoid line, side of posterior part of the tongue.
 Inserted in median raphe in the posterior wall of the pharynx.

695. Which micro-organisms in periapical lesion would you find microscopically:

A. Aerobes
B. Aerobes to mainly anaerobes

Answer: B. Cohen/544: “flora of ... diseased periapices is dominated by obligate anaerobes

(90%)....”

696. What is ESR? “erythrocyte sedimentation rate”

A. A test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle through a column
of liquid. A non-specific index of inflammation

Answer: A. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Erythrocyte_sedimentation_rate

697. The first thing to do when syncope occurs in apprehensive patient:

A. Head should be lowered

Answer: A. Latest management protocol given in Therapeutic Guidelines/167

698. Which of the following is staphylococcal infection:

A. Scarlet fever
B. Pericarditis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Carbuncle

Answer: D. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbuncle. Caused by Staph. aureus.

699. What is TRUE about Chrome-Cobalt partial denture:

A. No immersion of dentures in hypochlorite

Answer: A. See image below. Also - staining – Cawson, Q.8.37

122
700. Patient with eruption cyst; your treatment would be:
A. Observation, mostly it bursts spontaneously

Answer: A. Shafer/261: “... often requires no treatment...”

701. The expected age of patient with rapid progressive

periodontitis
A. Between 15 and 25 years of age 
509 carranza

702. Which of the following has proven to be the MOST important

in community preventive program
A. Dental awareness of the community
B. Institution of oral hygiene measures
C. Water fluoridation 
page 55 wider

703. The water fluoridation is 0.5ppm; what is the recommended

supplemental fluoride concentrations for 3 year old child
A. 0.25mg
B. 0.50mg
C. 1.00mg
D. 0mg
page 494 pedo, bouchers

704. Rhomboid glossitis is

A. Candidal infection
page 177 wider

705. The image of x ray is too pale the MAIN cause is

123
A. Old expired film,
 page 74 white and pharoah

706. The beam that goes from cathode to anode is consisted of

A. Electrons
page 6 white and pharoah

707. In the mouth of new born baby; what sort of bacteria you
expect to find
A. None 
39 widmer

708. The transmission of RNA into DNA called

A. Transcription given choice
dna =>rna- transcription and rna=>dna is reverse transcription
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transcription_%28genetics%29

709. How often a bitewing should be taken for children

A. Every visit routinely
B. Every year after parent’s permission given choice
page 47 widmer, ithink its a clinical question, radiographs can be taken depending on the clinical
situation also, while for routine dental check up its once a year

710. To obtain the MOST accurate X rays of teeth; the tooth film
distance should be (Close/far) as anatomical restriction will
permit. What is TRUE in this regard
A. The paralleling technique favours the bisecting technique.
page 654 bouchers 2nd question

711.A

dental decks

perio :Gin/gpdl

mainly progesterone

712.A

clinical oriented pharmacology:By Dr J G Buch

pg 74

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=PaOhT_4zBL8C&pg=PA74&dq=atropine+and+salivary+secretion&hl=en&ei=TsfOTrvZEeqpiAfk45

124
TsDg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=5&ved=0CEUQ6wEwBA#v=onepage&q=atropine%20and%20salivary
%20secretion&f=false

dental decks also explains this(pharma)

powerful anticholinergic.blocks salivary secretions.causes xerostomia.

713.A

714.A

dental decks perio:pdl/ging

4th question

dominent WBC noted in inflammatory infiltrate of ANUG is neutrophils

dental decks perio: inf

2nd question

neutrophils are first to arrive as a result of inflammation

715.A

oxf pg 596

anaesthesia drugs n def

hepatotoxix reactions but very rare

716.A

a manual of paedatric dentistry

 By R. J. Andlaw, W. P. Rock

pg 25

(intravenous  sedation) diazepam but its more effective in adults than children,lil painful.

717.A

shafers pg110

submaxillary and submental lymph nodes

125
 

718.A

boucher pg 647

719.B

tg pg135

720.

not sure abt B (given in key)

as in decks

4th question of  perio:ging/pdl states if theres systemic involvement,antibiotic therapy administered in
ANUG

A,B,C also seems to be correct.

721    :-A

It has been seen that within a month there is reduction in bleeding on probing by 80% and the pocket
depth reduction in the range of 2-3mm

722    :-A

ANUG/AUG is also known as Vincent's disease or trench mouth

It is a painful infection of periodontal tissues
In case of presence of systemic signs and symptoms Metronidazole 400mg (child 10mg/kg upto
400mg) 12 hourly for 5days is prescribed
Tg

723   :-A

It is also known as Pharmacodynamics

It is a biochemical and physiological mechanism by which the drug produces a response in living
organism

724   :-A

Class III is a proximal cavity without involvement of incisal edge

According to the new classification it is Site 2 lesion

725   :-B

'Hinge-axis determination: The actual hinge-axis can be determined clinically by the use of a
kinematic facebow. This is a device attached to the lower jaw or teeth with a rod extending around
onto the side of the face with its tip lying on the skin in the region of the condyle. The patient opens
and closes the jaw in a hinge-like manner and the end of the rod is adjusted until its tip performs a
pure rotation only. The point on the skin opposite the tip therefore lies on the hinge-axis. The two
sides are usually done separately

726  :-B

126
The colour of the tooth is due to dentin
Enamel is usually semitranslucent and mostly gray
The colour of the tooth depends on the thickness of the enamel and underlying dentin
The thickness of the enamel decreases cervically thus the gingival colour differs from incisal colour

727  :-A

Steven johnson syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme

It is a muco-cutaneous lesion characterized by presence of target or iris lesions
There is typical crusting and bleeding of lips

728  :-A

There are sensitive sites on silver bromide crystals which when exposed results in formation of Latent
image by absorbing the electrons produced 
When this latent image is developed and fixed it results in formation of visible radiological image

729   :-B

15degree and 30degree Occipitomental view is useful for maxillary sinus 

It helps to reveal

a.Antral opacity
b.Fluid level
c.Fracture

730. Fluoride in water community of 4ppm will result in:

A. No mottling
B. Mottling in almost all permanent teeth except some molars
C. Mottling in permanent premolars only

Answer: B

Reference: Soben Peter/340 (See tables VIII and IX):

 0.7 - 1.2ppm –prevents caries, no fluorosis

 1.5 - 3ppm (consumed for more than 5-10 yrs) – mild dental fluorosis
 3 - 8ppm (consumed for over 15-20 yrs) – severe dental and mild skeletal
 8ppm or more (consumed for more than 5-10 yrs) – severe dental and skeletal

Since first molars begin calcification at birth, they may at least in part, be spared the effect of
mottling. So B is the best answer here.

731. What is NOT TRUE about Hydrotherapy (Water Jet):

A. Removes pellicle from tooth surface
B. Removes dental plaque
C. Causes no harm to gingiva

Answer: C
 Can be harmful to gingiva. See http://eim.sagepub.com/content/14/3/141.abstract
 Boucher/280, last question.

732. Which of the following is not considered in the estimation of gingival index:
A. Nasmyth’s membrane

127
Answer: A. Soben Peter/153. Signs of inflammation are noted

733. When examining intra orally between the side of the tongue and the lateral
border of the mandible, you expect to:
A. Palpate the lymph nodes
B. Palpate the borders of the tongue

Answer: A. Burket/17. Used for submandibular and sublingual salivary glands and
submandibular lymph nodes.

734. Black hairy tongue is MOSTLY seen in:

A. HIV patient

Not A. Check http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_hairy_tongue and Shafer/29 (hairy tongue). Black

hairy tongue is hypertrophy of the filiform papillae. Candida is responsible for it. Oral hairy
leukoplakia is associated with HIV infection (Davidson/117). Also see Q 42.

See Boucher/404, 1st ques.: black hairy tongue is due to proliferation of filiform papillae but IT IS
NOT a discoloured colony of Candida albicans.

735. What is TRUE about water fluoridation:

A. Will have no effects after the eruption of permanent teeth

Still looking for specific references for this one.

736. When there is a fracture of condyle, the muscle responsible for elevation of
condyle is:
A. Lateral pterygoid muscle
B. Medial pterygoid muscle
C. Masseter muscle

Answer: A. According to http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1283150-overview#a0104 ,

“..the lateral pterygoid tends to cause anterior and medial displacement of the condylar head.”

737. Dentinogeneses imperfecta develops in:

A. Initial stage
B. Proliferation stage
C. Histodifferentiation stage
D. Morphology stage

Answer: C.
http://www.hawaii.edu/medicine/pediatrics/pedtext/s01c12.html : “DI is an analogous condition
in which the hereditary defect is in the dentin layer and dentinal organic matrix. It may be seen
alone or occur with osteogenesis imperfecta, an inherited defect in collagen formation resulting in
osteopenic bones, bowing of the limbs, bitemporal bossing, and blue sclera (4,6). During the
histodifferentiation stage of tooth development, odontoblasts fail to differentiate normally,
leading to poorly calcified dentin.”

738. Compared to dental plaster all die stones:

A. Require less gauging water
B. Require more gauging water
C. Require the same quantity of gauging water

128
D. Are beta-hemihydrate
E. None of the above

Answer: A. Phillips/202- as per comparison of W:P ratio of various types of gypsum materials

739. The MOST effective manner to produce a hard surface on a cast is by:
A. Employ as much water as possible on mixing
B. Employ as little water as possible on mixing
C. Adding 2% of borax to the mix
D. Adding calcium tetraborate
E. None of the above

Answer: B.
 Phillips/205: “strength of the stone is indirectly proportional to the W:P ratio, it is most
important to keep the amount of water as low as possible. ” Also see Stewart/149.
 A is clearly false
 C and D are false: Borax and borates are retarders (Phillips/198). Addition of accelerator
or retarder lowers both wet and dry strengths of the gypsum product (Phillips/201).

740. When dry cast is immersed in water saturated with calcium sulphate:**
A. There is contraction
B. There is negligible expansion
C. There is definite expansion
D. There is no change
E. None of the above

Answer: C. See this link- http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16765160. Webshot below:

 However, the answer given in the key is B. I could not find a proper reference in the
textbooks.

129
741. Fusion temperature of impression compound should occur
A. Below mouth temperature
B. Above mouth temperature
C. As of the skin temperature
D. At the room temperature
E. None of the above
250 anusavice, fusion temperature is the temperature below which the plasticity of the impression
compound decreases. (if you guys have subbarao have a look in that , its explained in an easier way)

742. The flow of the following percentage is allowable for impression compound (type I) at the oral
temp of 37º
A. 6% given choice
B. 10%
C. 2%
D. 20%
E. None of the above

Acc. to ADA spec no. 3 at 37oC, flow should be 6% or less. From

http://books.google.co.nz/books?
id=vfxsE_o_7BcC&pg=PA149&lpg=PA149&dq=flow+of+impression+compound+ada+specification&so
urce=bl&ots=SdoVFBN7zj&sig=cEVVo1TOqi5_kr3HAl7zgP4xAME&hl=en&sa=X&ei=uWElT7jjPMW3iQ
fZh8ihBA&ved=0CDgQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=flow%20of%20impression%20compound%20ada
%20specification&f=false (see image below)

CLASSIFICATION ACC. TO ADA SP. NO.3:

Type I:
 Low fusing compound – green stick compound.
 Medium fusing compound – impression compound.
Type II:
 High fusing compound – tray compound.

APPLICATIONS:

Type I:
 For making primary impressions.

130
  For individual tooth impression
 For peripheral tracing or border moulding.
 To check undercuts in inlay preparation.

Type II:
 To make a special tray.

743. The disadvantage of heating the impression compound in a

water bath is
A. It may become brittle
B. It may become grainy
C. Lower moles with constituents are leached out
D. The plasticity of the compound may be altered
E. All of the above
251 anusavice, i think the question should be prolonged immersion in hot water or heating

744. Generally there is ???? zinc oxide eugenol impression pastes

between flow are
A. Working time
B. Accelerator
C. Setting time
D. Composition
E. None of the above
253 anusavice, i tried to jumble around to get the meaning of this question, in this page properties
about Znoe is explained.

745. Dental impression material are hydrocolloids of

A. The emulsoid type given choice
B. The suspension type
C. The sol type
D. The get type
E. None of the above

page 232 Anusavice, where emulsoid and suspension type is defined, i have an old book of dental
material called Subbarao, where it says hydrocolloid is emulsoid, but based on the definition of
suspension type is appropriate.

Answer: C. Phillips/114

746. Elastomers are**

A. Hydrophilic
B. Hydrophobic
C. Water-loving impression material
D. Potassium alginates
E. None of the above

131
210/232 Anusavice- says they are also called as non aquesous elastomeric impression materials are
hydrophobic, while polyether is least hydrophobic but even it absorbs water which could alter the
dimensions, in polysulphides it accelerates setting. Aqueous elastomeric impression materials like
alginate and agar are hydrophilic (NO SUCH THING AS AQUEOUS ELASTOMERIC
MATERIALS. So for this question, consider only non-aqueous elastomeric materials –
other name ‘elastomers’ acc. to Phillips/140) .

Craig/362: “Of all the impression materials discussed in this chapter, only hydrocolloids
can be considered truly hydrophilic. All of the elastomeric impression materials possess
advancing and receding contact angles greater than 45 degrees. There are, however,
differences in wetting among and within types of elastomeric impression materials.
Traditional addition silicone is not as wettable as polyether. When mixes of gypsum
products are poured into addition silicone, high contact angles are formed, making the
preparation of bubble free models difficult. Surfactants have been added to addition
silicones by manufacturers to reduce the contact angle, improve wettability, and simplify
the pouring of gypsum models. This class with improved wetting characteristics is most
accurately called hydrophilized addition silicone.”

747. The polysulfide rubber impression material are

A. Not sensitive to temperature when curing
B. Quite sensitive to temperature when curing
C. Less sensitive to temperature than silicone rubber
D. The same sensitivity to temperature as silicone rubber
E. None of the above
212 Anusavice

From http://www.medicaljournal-ias.org/Belgelerim/Belge/KeyfQUEJSOTDMR67835.pdf
The silicone impression materials are not so sensitive to changes in temperature and
humidity as are the polysulfide products (rules out A, C, D)

748. The elastic properties of rubber impression material

A. Improve with time
B. Deteriorate with time
C. Deteriorate when exposed to temperature
D. Improve when exposed to temperature
E. None of the above
226 Anusavice

749. The effect of temperature rise above 100ºC on heat cured

denture base acrylic resins is
A. Produces porosity on the external portion of the resin.
B. Produces porosity on the internal portion of the resin.
C. Produces porosity on the surface of the resin.
D. Prevents porosity on the interior of the resin
732 Anusavice

750. The principle cause of failure of amalgam restoration is

A. Improperly prepared amalgam
B. Improper cavity preparation
C. Perio involvement

132
D. Particles of amalgam
E. None of the above
520 Anusavice where it explains that there are many factors attributing to the failure  of amalgam
restoration, assuming under latest advances using pre capsulated amalgam with amalgamator the
best option would be B
751.B

Cant find anything regarding reduced occlusal area

752.A

essentials of operative dentistry,By I. Anand Sherwood, pg235

less mercury have better  properties.

753.A

dental decks

says:copper tin phase results in superior properties

cant find more than this regarding secondary reaction.

754.

755.B

enamel surface requires modification, see in detail in the given link

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=JfAOAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA51&dq=enamel+surface+and+bonding&hl=en&ei=L-
XUTr3jMuWemQW6sPBW&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=1&ved=0CDEQ6wEwAA#v=onepage&q=enamel%20surface%20and
%20bonding&f=false

etching the enamel surface

756.A

pg57 in the above mentioned book

757.C

micromechanical interlocking and chemical bond through ionic bond

133
 

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=geE1Zeui1bMC&pg=PA720&dq=acid+etching+and+chemical+and+physical+nature+of+tooth&hl=
en&ei=ZevUTtvbDuz1mAXFgsxR&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=3&sqi=2&ved=0CEYQ6wEwAg#v=onepage&q=acid%20etching%20and
%20chemical%20and%20physical%20nature%20of%20tooth&f=false

question seems to be quite strange and doubtful.

pls add anything if u find something regarding this question

758.A

mount and hume pg224

Creep is progressive permanent deformation of a set amalgam under load.

Low copper amalgams show high creep values of greater than 2.5%,associated with greater margin
fracture.

759.A

enamel rods are perpendicular to dentinoenamel junction

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=n2TJDryohrMC&pg=PA18&dq=enamel+rods+in+permanent+teeth&hl=en&ei=_O_UTt2rEsySiQevv
Pz2Dg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=1&ved=0CDoQ6wEwAA#v=onepage&q=enamel%20rods%20in%20permanent
%20teeth&f=false (see screen shot below):

134
  

760.E

all other options explained in oxf pg 28 

safety and toxicity of fluoride

extrinsic stain usually a consequence of one of these:coffee,tea,red wine,carrot and tobacco

761   :-A

Methyldopa is a centrally acting anti-hypertensive drug

It can be used in conjunction with a diurectic in hypertensive crisis

Adverse effects on oral cavity are :-

a.Xerostomia resulting in root caries

b.Candidial infection

c.Poor denture retention

d.Lichenoid eruptions

e.Tongue discoloration

135
762   :-D

Angina presents at crushing chest pain in the centre of the chest radiating to the left arm and neck/jaw

Glyceryl trinitrate is given sublingually as there is a tremendous blood supply below the tongue

763  :-A 

Until there is 30-40% demineralisation of the tooth the decay will not be evident radiographically 

Page 300 White and Pharaoh

764. The lamina dura is absent in which condition:

A. Von Recklinghausen
B. Paget’s
C. Periapical granuloma

Answer: C > B

References:
 For A: W&P/441, 442: changes in mandibular morphology, enlargement of coronoid
notch and mandibular canal
 For B: lamina dura may become less evident (W&P/508), often, loss of a well-
defined lamina dura (Shafer/690), obliteration of the pdl space [DP (clinical)/80,
point 18]
 For C: loss of lamina dura around the apex (W&P/370)
 Periapical granuloma is not given in the answer but if we read it in White and Pharaoh it says
the lamina dura is absent whereas in Grossman it is given the continuity is lost so shall we
include option C too in the answer....

765  :-D

Couldn't find any reference 

But White and Pharaoh says the object which is in the same vertical plane as the tooth the object will
not move

Cyst,Abscess and Granuloma are all in the same vertical plane as the central incisor whereas incisive
foramen is independent of the apex of the central incisor so I think it is the appropriate answer

766  :-B

136
Mandible is more common as compared to maxilla as mandible has high density and poor vascularity 

It is initiated mainly by trauma like extraction

Conservative treatment includes tetracycline with debridement

If it is not responding to the conservative approach resection can be considered

Neelima Malik page 666

767  :-A and B

Osteosarcoma:-

Ill defined borders

Hair on end appearance 

Mandible more common

Page 469 White and Pharaoh

Scleroderma:-

It is a connective tissue disorder characterised by hardening of the skin

Page 531 White and Pharaoh

768  :- A or D (?)

 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lamina_dura
 Link posted afterwards:
http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=HO5qCgsYmy0C&pg=PA334&lpg=PA334&dq=cribriform+plate+lamina+dura&source=bl&
ots=A7x9fE0ebQ&sig=lWKKRR6sL2aRKgzhqob5L_OnO74&hl=en&ei=iRnWToadEq-
fiAeZ2P2sDw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=4&ved=0CC8Q6AEwAw#v=onepag
e&q&f=false

769  :-E

137
Bitewing are heplful to detect interproximal caries before it becomes clinically evident

Also it helps to determine the alveolar crest height

Page 148 White and Pharaoh

770  :-B

Maxillary sinus become evident from distal aspect of canine

Zygomatic process are seen in the apical region of 1st and 2nd molars

771. At the age of four years, the x rays reveal calcification of:
A. All deciduous and first permanent molars
B. All permanent except of 3rd molars
C. All deciduous
D. All permanent

Answer: B. Ref Cameron Widmer/454, chronology table

772. The diagnosis of ortho cases is by:

A. Measurement of cranium size
B. Recording profile
C. The relation of dentition and the jaw to the cranium
D. Determination of overbite size
E. Determination of jaw size

I think B, C, D and E are all used for diagnosis. Which is the best answer?

773. Full mouth x ray survey at birth reveals:

A. Ten teeth are present
B. Twenty teeth are present
C. Twenty four teeth are present
D. Twelve teeth are present

Answer: C. All deciduous teeth and permanent first molars would be seen. Calcification of first
permanent molars begins at birth (Cameron Widmer/453, 454)

774. When adhesive is used with a polysulphide impression material:

A. Should be thin and dry

 Answer: A. Ref Phillips/149: “Adhesion can be obtained by the application of a minimal,

uniform thickness of adhesive to the plastic tray...”
 But the word “dry” is not mentioned there

775. When a probe penetrates between tooth and amalgam:

A. It is not always an indication of caries

Answer: A. Sturdevant/409: “ditching can be diagnosed..by the explorer dropping into the
opening as it crosses the margin.”

138
776. Reversible hydrocolloid impression materials in comparison to alginate are:
A. Better for undercuts areas

Answer: A, since alginate has lower tear strength than agar. See image below:

777. You can increase the retention of a Maryland bridge by:

A. Incorporating mesh work in wax pattern
B. Perforation techniques in the metal cast

Maryland bridge refers to a type of resin retained bridge where the cast metal framework is
ETCHED by electrolysis to produce micro-roughness of the surface and thus micromechanical
retention. Choices A and B are two of the methods to improve retention of resin retained bridges.
In other words A and B are also types of resin retained bridges. Maryland bridge is a third type of
resin retained bridges. So, neither of these can be the answer. Ref Rosenstiel/674-676

778. Maryland bridges are made of:

A. Nickel chrome

Answer: Ni-Cr and Co-Cr (base metal alloys). Rosenstiel/674

779. The Initiation of the curing process in self cure acrylic resins is achieved
by:**
A. Benzyl peroxide

Answer: A. Ref Oxford/640

780. The objective of pulp capping is to:

A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp
B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp
C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp
E. None of the above

Answer: B. Ref Cameron Widmer/101. (“promotes pulpal healing with the formation of
reactionary dentine”).

781. The objective of pulpotomy is to

A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp
B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp
C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp
E. None of the above
103 Widmer, by amputating the inlamed coronal pulp

139
782. What contra indicate pulp capping
A. Accidental exposure on vital young molars
B. When inflammation of radicular pulp is already present
C. When roots are greatly curved and tortuous
D. When anterior tooth is vital and immature with wide open apices
E. None of the above
102 widmer, as rct/pulpectomy/ extraction is indicated

783. Tow successive negative cultures are

A. Absolutely necessary for successful endodontic treatment
B. Not always necessary for successful endodontic treatment
C. Not questioned today as a dogmatic requirement in endodontics
D. Unquestioningly it adhered for successful endodontic treatment
E. None of the above

page 379 waltons, it explains that histologic examination s impossible without a surgery,
which is impracticable, so with current technology clinical signs and symptoms with xray are
the practical options

B or ?C: Walton/258: “Some practitioners believe that persistent positive cultures may
indicate a poorly debrided canal, missed canals, or resistant strains of bacteria; these
conclusions have not been proved and are debatable. However, proponents recommend that
at least one negative culture be obtained before obturation, which requires more than one
appointment. Currently, this approach is seldom used.”

784. What indicates for a periapical surgery

A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal
filling may lead to fracture of the root
B. When root canal treatment is faulty
C. When there is danger of involving other structures
D. When the bony defect is so extensive that the edges of the incisors will
collapse
E. None of the above
waltons 359-362 , B- need not be surgery always as re treatment is an option, C-is a
contradiction

From Ingle – See indication no. 2 (http://books.google.co.nz/books?

id=aV1kEf7mlckC&pg=PA1234&lpg=PA1234&dq=indications+of+periradicular+surgery
&source=bl&ots=TKjMPOGpZ2&sig=gfB7Paut9VP1Em4SgZvuBY_xN5E&hl=en&sa=X
&ei=kngmT7eRN-aTiQfSmpB9&ved=0CC8Q6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=indications%20of
%20periradicular%20surgery&f=false)

Screen shot below:

140
Also see Cohen/727 for rationale

785. In regards to external resorption**

A. Continues after successful endo treatment
B. Stops in most cases following successful endodontic treatment
C. Continues only in mandibular incisors after successful endo treatment
D. Stops in maxillary lateral incisors after successful endodontic
treatment
E. None of the above
119 oxford,pediatrc dentistry, management of avulsed tooth

Cohen/633 (Treatment of external resorption due to external injury to root surface and
inflammatory stimulus in root canal): “root canal disinfection removes stimulation to
periradicular inflammation, and the resorption will stop”

786. The concomitant perio-periapical lesion as the cause of

endodontic failure
A. Cannot be discovered prior to endo treatment
B. May be discovered prior to endo treatment
C. Is most commonly found in maxillary teeth
D. Is most commonly found in mandibular teeth
E. None of the above

97-99 waltons, as the more perio signs are more evident

787. X rays are used in endodontic treatment to

A. Aid in the diagnosis of periapical hard tissue lesion
B. Determine the number, location, shape, size and direction of roots and
root canals
C. Confirm the length of root canals
D. Evaluate the adequacy of the complete root canal filling
E. All of the above

141
page 79 waltons, its a direct clinical question 

788. To achieve optimum cavity preparation which of the

following factors of internal anatomy must be considered
A. Outline form
B. The age and shape of pulp chamber; in addition to the direction of
individual root canals. given choice
C. Internal external relationship
D. Intra-coronal preparation
E. None of the above
page 236 waltons, explains that outline form includes choice A and B

789. Irrigation in root canal treatment, should be undertaken at

frequent intervals during instrumentation to**
A. Removes cementum falling from the canal
B. Remove noxious material since it may be forced to the apical foramen
resulting in periapical infection
C. Destroy all micro organism in the canal
D. Stop instruments from going beyond the apical foramen
E. None of the above
page 263 waltons,

Expl given in answer key:

Abbot Page 42: It is necessary to use irrigating solutions to, 1.Lubricate the canal walls, 2.
Remove debris. 3. Act as solvent (organic and inorganic matter) 4.Act as antimicrobial
agent. 5. Aid cleansing in areas that are inaccessible to mechanical cleansing
methods.

790. The length of the tooth is established by

A. Good undistorted pre-operative x ray
B. Adequate coronal access to all canals
C. Adjustable endo millimetre ruler
D. Definite repeatable plane of reference to anatomical landmark on tooth
E. All of the above
page 252 waltons,

791.D

repeated.

all types explained previously

792.C

Cameron pg 77

not to include all fissures,needs small isthmus and a dovetail for retention.

142
793.C

 repaeted

794.A

repeated question,

795.E

basically its degeneration of reduced enamel epithelium

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reduced_enamel_epithelium

796.A

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/9851348

nothing mentioned abt xrays and plaster models as initials for diagnosis n treatment planning so my
answer will be classification as an initial.

797.A

cameron,pg 15 common reasons for referring a child,child management

798.B

799. D  considering tha answer to be PDL NECROSIS

cant find any reference relating bone necrosis.only pdl necrosis is evident on separation of teeth.

800.A and B

A=malocclusion always lead to TMJ dysfunction

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=cwom9OTMmGYC&pg=PA556&dq=tooth+loss+and+tmj+dysfunction&hl=en&ei=19rUToW_Msftm
AXLkO1M&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-thumbnail&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=tooth%20loss
%2Cvertical%20dimension%2C%20tmj%20dysfunction&f=false

143
 

B=reduced vertical dimension

box7.1

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=LtMP1nG8ajAC&pg=PA30&dq=tooth+loss+and+its+effect+on+vertical+dimension&hl=en&ei=pt3U
TsOtE6q6iAf0m_ly&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=9&ved=0CGAQ6wEwCA#v=onepage&q=tooth%20loss%20and%20its%20effect
%20on%20vertical%20dimension&f=false

801  :-A

When ameloblast finish enamel formation they leave a thin membrane on surface of the enamel which
is called primary enamel cuticle(PEC)
After eruption of the teeth the remnant of PEC is called Nasymth's membrane
Page 301 Orbans

802  :-A

Reduced enamel epithelium which is formed by epithelial enamel organ reduced to form flat cuboidal
cells fuse which oral epithelium to form JE
It is 3-4 layers thick initially but later it can be 10-20 layers thick
Page 23 caranza

803  :-C

At 6 years of age the permanent 1 st molars erupt

Space for it is created by resorption on anterior side of ramus and deposition on the posterior side of
mandible thus lengthening the body of mandible
Page 34 Bhalajhi

804. An 8 years-old child has a badly broken deciduous molar. What is the best
material to restore it:
A. Amalgam
B. Gold
C. Composite
D. GIC

Answer: C > D (see explanation below)

 A can be ruled out: Amalgam- according to Cam-Wid/77: indicated for moderate caries
risk, uncooperative children (where moisture control is an issue) but high viscocity GIC,
GIC and composites give comparable success while preserving tooth structure
 B (gold)- not sure if this is indicated at all in children
 C (composite)- Cam-Wid/80: for “small to moderately sized occlusal and proximal
cavities”. Also “satisfactory for primary molars if the child is cooperative.”
 For D: Cam-Wid/78- “GIC: because of lack of strength, should not be used in large
restorations that are subject to significant occlusal load in teeth that need to be retained
for more than 3 yrs”. BUT GIC has the property of fluoride release also

805  :-D

Mesioversion is tooth is mesial to the normal position

144
Distoversion is tooth is distal to the normal position
Linguocclusion is tooth or teeth are placed lingually

806  :-The answer given is C

However, I couldn't find any reference

In Mcdonalds it is given that X-rays prior to eruption of first permanent molar is too be taken only if the
proximal surfaces of the teeth ain't visible
They have mentioned X-rays after 6 years of age

806. A full x ray is recommended in children by age of:**

A. 2 years- first visit
B. 2 years for uncooperative kids
C. 3-5 years

Answer: C
 No direct references found
 W&P/161: mentions that some operators prefer a panoramic radiograph instead of the
four periapical films recommended for children with primary dentition.
 So a full mouth survey with whole set of PAs is not recommended for 3-6 yrs but
panoramic is alright.
 B is clearly wrong,
 A may not be a good option for a 2 year old at the first visit.

807. The percentage of malocclusion after early loss of deciduous teeth is:
A. 60%

Answer: A (reference?)
Remember
 Space loss in mandibular arch > maxillary arch after premature loss of first primary molar
 Space in the mandible is lost by both mesial migration of posterior teeth and distal
movement of anterior teeth

808  :-A

After eruption completion of root formation in permanent teeth occurs in two-three years
Page 94 Profitt

809  :-A

Other etiological factors for malocclusion are :-

a.Arch-length tooth-material discrepancy

b.Supernumerary teeth
c.Prolong retention of deciduous teeth
d.Size and shape abnormalities  

Bhalajhi

810  :-A

Hawley's appliance along with two finger springs can close small midline diastema in 3-6 months
It is useful in patients having good posterior occlusion
It is mainly a removable retainer
Net and Bhalajhi

145
A and C both are correct hawleys appliance are meant mainly for space closure of incisors(midline
diastema) or for canines but they do serve a purpose of retainer jaypee pg 430

Doubts: 811, 812, 815, 817

811. Helical spring is used for:

A. Ectopically erupting permanent molars

Doubt

812. The function of varnish:

A. To reduce initial marginal leakage “Short-term leakage”
B. To prevent long term leakage

Doubt

813. Turner’s tooth is:**

A. Due to infection of primary tooth

Answer: A. Shafer/55: Explanation of Turner’s tooth: “if deciduous tooth becomes carious when
crown of succeeding primary tooth is being formed,.... may disturb the ameloblastic layer of the
permanent tooth and result in a hypoplastic crown.”

814. The outcome of rapid wax burn out is:

A. Cracking of the investment
B. Back pressure porosity

Answer: A. Phillips/504: “too rapid a heating rate may cause cracking of the investment”
B is false: back pressure porosity is due to entrapped air (Phillips/521)

815. The MAIN purpose of burnishing is:

A. To help eliminating excess mercury
B. To condense margins
C. Polishing of filling

Answer: A. Sturdevant/682: Precarve burnishing is a form of condensation. Purpose of

condensation - adapt amalgam to prep walls, produce a void-free restoration, have as low Hg as
possible to improve strength and decrease corrosion.

Please give a more specific reference from Mount and Hume if possible.

816. What happens to etched composite resins after setting?

A. Expand
B. Contract
C. Contract and expand
D. Expand and contract

Answer: B. Sturde/479: composites shrink while hardening

817. Which of the following muscles elevates the lower lip:

A. Orbicularis oris
B. Mentalis

146
C. A + B

Answer: B (slight doubt)

 http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/835209-overview#aw2aab6b9 : Elevation of lower
lip is not mentioned clearly anywhere
 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mentalis : Mentalis raises and pushes up the lower lip (same
mentioned in Cawson/41, Q3.70)

818. The MOST common cause for midline fracture is:

A. Impact
B. Fatigue

Assuming that the question relates to complete dentures, the answer is B.

http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16399277 : “Complete dentures typically fracture along the
midline due to crack initiation and propagation from stressed areas”.

819. The function of a face bow is to:

A. Orient maxilla to TMJ

Answer: A. See image below from Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms-8.

820. Hypoplasia as seen in x rays:**

A. Thick enamel surface
B. Thin enamel surface
C. Sometimes large pulp chamber
D. Cannot be detected on X rays

Answer: B. White & Pharoah/346: Radiographic features of amelogenesis imperfecta-

“hypoplastic AI... density appears normal... relatively thin, opaque layer of enamel”

821. Function of matrix band

A. Substitute for the missing wall so adequate condensation forces can be
applied
B. Permit re-establishment of proper contact lines
C. Restrict extrusion of amalgam and prevent formation of an “overhang”
D. Provide adequate physiological contour for the proximal surface
E. Provide an acceptable surface texture to the proximal surface
F. All of the above
382 Boucher operative dentistry, 2nd question

822. Which composite is used in load bearing areas**

A. Hybrid composite only choice

147
page 477 sturdevants, this is the best for load bearing areas

823. The palatal canal of maxillary molars is found Under

A. Disto lingual cusp
B. Mesio lingual cusP 
244 WALTONS, 
mb canal- lies dital to the mb cusp tip
db canal- lies distal to the mb canal
palatal canal- lies dital to ml cusp tip
mb2 canal- lies lingual to main mb canal,

824. Obturator in cleft palate plate is maintained by

A. Cohesion
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Retention in the defect
D. Patient support it with the tongue
page 429 balaji it does not mention the role of  atmospheric pressure, i think B is the correct option ,
in oxford and wider also i am unable to find 

825. In a fixed moveable bridge where should the moveable

connectors “non rigid” be placed
A. Distal to anterior retainers
B. Mesial to posterior retainers
page 97 shillinburg, fig 24, non rigid/ female/mortise/key way sits on the distal to the anterior
retainer 

826. What do expect after successful pulpectomy in the periapical

area
A. Apical foramen is closed by cementum calcified tissues 
360 Bouchers, endo, 3rd question

827. Frenum is consisted of what kind of tissues

A. A fold of mucous membrane
781 nallaswamy

828. What is the minimal labial reduction for porcelain metal

crowns
A. 1mm
B. 1.5mm
C. 0.5mm
page 142 shillinburg( minimum of 1.2mm required)

829. What is the function of flux

A. To protect alloy from oxidation, and distribute metallic oxides as they
are formed

148
609 anusavice

830. What is TRUE

A. Boiling point of acrylic > boiling point of water
B. Boiling point of acrylic is similar to that of water
C. Boiling point of acrylic < boiling point of water
733 anusavice, says boiliing point of monomer n 100.8 degrees Celsius.

831.A

http://www.porcelainenamel.com/pei502.htm :

“Being glass-like, porcelain enamel is much stronger in compression than in tension.”

 

see thermal expansion

832.B

repeated 441

833.C

to detect radiolucency biopsy is must.

i think blood test may or may not be as important as extraction and biopsy

834.C

fundamentals of inflammation,by charles N,pg441

clinical pattern of periodontitis involves active and pasive progression of inflammation

835.D

periodontology jaypee,pg 346

combined purpose of this technique is pocket elimination and widening the zone of attached ginigiva.

836.D

periodontology jaypee,pg 83

toothache,tenderness on percussion,tooth mobility,periodontal abscess,cemental tears,infrabony

pocket,attrition,pathologic migration,root resorption

149
 

837.B

as bleeding is associated primarily with gingivits.

also key explains it well

838.B

shafers pg725

839.B

shafers pg 723

numerous unerupted supernumerary

840.A

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hepatitis_B

These particles are not infectious and are composed of the lipid and protein that forms part of the
surface of the virion, which is called the surface antigen (HBsAg), and is produced in excess during
the life cycle of the virus.

841  :-A

Clinical question
Subgingival debridement is included in phase 1 of periodontal therapy and review is in
the maintenance phase of periodontal therapy
The preferred sequence of periodontal therapy is

Emergency phase (includes extraction of hopeless teeth)

                 |
Etiotropic phase
                 |
Maintenance phase
                 |
        /\
surgical           restorative 
phase              phase

It is important to put the patient in maintenance phase immediately after etiotropic phase to preserve
the results obtained and prevent further recurrence

842  :-B

Lower energy x-rays have less effect thus decreasing beam intensity and increasing patient exposure
1.5mm of Al is used for filtration (external filtration)

843  :-B

150
The lesion described indicates an eruption (haematoma) cyst which arises in the oral mucosa by
separation of follicle from around the anatomical crown of an erupting tooth

844. The loss of the first deciduous molar in 10 years-old children requires:
A. Band and loop to maintain space
B. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space maintainer is needed or not
C. No treatment

Answer: C

Explanation: first pm’s erupt at 10-12 yrs

845  :-B

The procedure is called Caldwell Luc approach

It provides better access
Page 152 Peterson

846  :-B

Central hemangioma causes slow expansion of the jaw which may be painful or painless
Boucher 168
Expansile conditions of the jaw include, Central giant cell granuloma, gigantiform cementoma,
ossifying fibroma and benign cementoblastoma.

847  :-D

The most common congenitally missing tooth is lower second premolar other than third molars
Page 459 Boucher

848  :-C

The sugars produced are glucan and fructan mainly from sucrose
Glycogen is glucose polymer which is stored in animal cells
Oxford

849  :-D

Repeat question
Many people have confusion regarding headache but in Drugs Used In Dentistry headache is given
as a side effect
There is profound amnesia and also various side effects

850  :-B

Formocresol is used for primary teeth pulpotomy 

Pulp in the root canal has to be free of inflammation
It is used in 1:5 dilution 
If the bleeding during pulpotomy doesn't stop in 5 minutes pulpectomy should be performed 

851. After you have successfully treated an Angle’s class II division I malocclusion,
the ideal class I incisor relationship has been produced and 14, 24 were
extracted. The arches are now well aligned. What molar occlusion will there
be at the end of treatment when all spaces are closed:

151
A. Full unit Class II
B. ½ unit class II
C. Class I
D. ½ unit Class III
E. Full unit Class III

Answer: C. Cawson/79, 80. The other choices are impossible.

852. The tonsillar nodes are located at:

A. The mandible angle
B. The jugular-digastric interaction
C. Mylohyoideus intersection
D. Internal carotid level

Answer: A. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lymph_node : “Tonsillar OR Sub-mandibular: These nodes

are located just below the angle of the mandible, along the underside of the jaw on either side.”

853. In herpangina the MOST reliable diagnosis is by:**

A. Immunofluorescence
B. Microscopy
C. Serology

DOUBT
 According to http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/218502-workup#showall : “Isolation of
enterovirus in cell culture remains the criterion standard for diagnosis.  To isolate the virus,
obtain cultures from swabs of the nasopharynx. Other specimens that may produce an isolate
include stool and rectal swabs, urine, serum, and CSF.”
 Can’t find A as the answer anywhere
 B is false: Same website mentions that no histopathologic findings are specific to herpangina.
 Explanation given in the answer key says C is the answer

854. Metallic plates backing the intra oral films are for:**
A. Reducing the flexibility of films
B. Reducing patient exposure to x rays
C. Increasing the bending capacity of films

Answer: B. White and Pharoah/73. Reduces patient exposure by absorbing some of the residual
x-ray beam..

855. The fixing time for dental x ray should be:

A. 5 minutes at 20ºC
B. At least 10 minutes
C. Until it clears up
D. 2 minutes at 40ºC

Answer: B. W&P/102. Place the hanger in the fixer solution for 10 mins and agitate for 5 of
every 30 seconds.

856. The developing time for dental x ray should be:

A. 5 minutes at 20ºC
B. At least 10 minutes
C. Until it clears up
D. 2 minutes at 40ºC

152
Answer: A. W&P/101: development time is 5 mins at 68 oF (=20oC)

857. What is the range of the visible light cure beam:

A. 100-120 nm
B. 200-300 nm
C. 400-430 nm
D. 470 nm or 450-500 nm

Answer: D. Oxford/610: initiator i activated by blue light (460-470nm)

858. When is a gingival groove LEAST required:

A. When restoring with GIC for abrasion
B. When restoring with GIC for root caries
C. When restoring with GIC base and composite lamination
D. When restoring with amalgam

DOUBT. Can’t really understand the question.

859. Corrosion and discolouration of amalgam restorations is usually caused by:

A. Sulphur oxides
B. Oxygen
C. Chlorides
D. Over trituration

Answer:A. Sturde/156. This is closest to the correct answer. SULPHIDES formed by chemical
corrosion cause discolouration.

860. When you find ditching in an amalgam filling you would:

A. Replace the defective filing
B. Repair defect with unfilled resins

Answer: B

According to Sturde/409, 410:

 Shallow ditching (less than 0.5mm)-repair amalgam restoration

 Deep ditching (more than 0.5)- replace

861. What is the reason that pulp calcified after trauma

A. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death, 
page 55 Walton, explains about calcific metamorphosis, unfortunately, what's mentioned in the
choice is not given anywhere.

862. Which is TRUE in regards to the preparation of occlusal rests

A. Use an inverted cone bur
B. Use a flat fissure bur
C. Parallel to occlusal plane
D. At right angle to the long axis of tooth

153
E. None of the above

Answer: E
Stewart/296, 297. Small round bur should be used (so both A and B are wrong). Angle mentioned in
D should be less than 90o (so C and D are also wrong). Also see Boucher/606

863. Patient presents with fever of 39ºC, pain, swelling of upper

lip and nose. Radiograph shows an enlargement of periodontal
ligament space of 11 which has a large restoration without a
base. What would your treatment be
A. Recision and antibiotic
B. Antibiotic, analgesic followed by root canal treatment after remission
of acute phase.
C. Complete debridement of root canal, analgesic and antibiotic
D. Remove restoration, apply a sedative dressing with corticosteroids
128-9 TGA

864. Cervical finish line of full veneer crown preparation should

be placed
A. Just supragingival whenever is possible
B. According to the depth of gingival crevice
C. Subgingival to reduce ability of recurrent caries
D. At the junction of tooth and amalgam core
349 Nallaswamy,585bouchers,fpd section

865. Why do we itch enamel for composite restorations

A. To increase surface area
B. To decrease surface area
C. Does not really change the surface area
D. Increase the chemical bonding capability
E. Decrease the chemical bonding capability
670 oxford,dental materials-acid etch technique

866. All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap

except of
A. Base is wider than free margin
B. Mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteum
C. Base has an adequate blood supply
D. Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of
operation
E. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone
41-2 Dimitroulis, the name suggest that itss mucous membrane plus periosteum forming muco
periostal flap, 433 bouchers 5th question,437 4th question

867. Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of

154
vertical dimension
A. Aesthetic
B. Phonetics
C. Gothic arch tracing
D. Swallowing
131 Nallaswamy explains choice a,B,D while 146- explains Gothis arch tracing , used in horizontal jaw
relation

868. Zinc oxide impression material

A. May cause irritation to mucosa
B. Is a thermoplastic material
252 Anusavice, where it says that oil of cloves can be replaced by eugenol or we can use non
eugenol paste, choice B-examples are impression compound, agar
 
869. The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually
means
A. Current intensity is too high
B. Current intensity is too low
C. Dispersion plate not applied to patient
D. None of the above
bouchers 593, 1 st question

870. How do remove the smear layer in root canal treatment

A. Use of 0.5% hypochlorite sodium
B. Hedstrom file
C. EDTA 
265 Waltons
871.A

mount and hume,pg228

to achieve proper adaptation and eliminate excess mercury.

872.no reference

873.B

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=n00wduJKk90C&pg=PA202&dq=depth+for+a+pinhole&hl=en&ei=6sPWTpvgIIPsmAWks4DYCw&s
a=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-thumbnail&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=lower%20molar%20cusp
%20fracture&f=false

From http://medind.nic.in/eaa/t07/i1/eaat07i1p39.pdf : “Mandibular molars (67%) were

more prone to incomplete fractures than maxillary molars.”

155
 

874.E

nallaswamy pg356

A.Long clasp arm=more flexibility

B.cross section= half round and round clasp

half round clasp...flexible in one plane

round clasp....round more preffered;flexible in all planes

C.material= cast alloys selecteddepending on width of undercut

D.Degree of taper=uniform taper from origin to tip

875.B

sturdevent

1.3-2mm depending upon diameter of pin used

but for vital pulp?????its questionable!

876.B

oxf pg 84.clas II in molars

877.B

nallaswamy pg 316

it positions the master cast and remount the diagnostic cast on the surveying table.

878.A

although molten gases causes voids however any contamination in the mould may cause voids and
roughness 

http://www.todentalcare.com/forum/viewtopic.php?f=127&t=616

879.B

156
A. ADVANTAGES OF CHLOROFORM  (Endo by nisha pg125,218)

a) chloroform applied on primary cone will dissolves  GP ,thus giving gud apical seal

b) chloroform used to remove the GP from canal

B.DISADVANTAGES OF GP  (endo by nisha page 213)

a) GP difficult to use in small canals

b)easily displaced by pressure

c) lacks adhesive quality

880.B

mount n hume pg 45

880.

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=n00wduJKk90C&pg=PA202&dq=depth+for+a+pinhole&hl=en&ei=6sPWTpvgIIPsmAWks4DYCw&s
a=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-thumbnail&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=FISSURE
%20SEALANTS&f=false

it says initiation of caries can b prevented but nothing mentioned abt freshly established or existing
caries anywhere...

so i will not go for either option.

will add in doubtful if u ppl cant find the answer options correct..also have a luk at mount n hume 

881  :-A

The prime requirement of major connectors is rigidity

It causes broad distribution of applied forces 

Page 22 Stewart

882   :-A

One or two teeth on the opposite side of the mouth (preferably the contralateral teeth) should be
tested first so that the patient becomes acquainted with the sensation. Testing the opposite side of the
mouth also lets the clinician know the patient's normal level of response

Page 17 Cohen

157
883   :-C

The highest root surface area is of upper 1st molar and lowest root surface area is of lower central
incisor

884   :-B

Repeat question

885. In regard to marginal leakage in amalgam:

A. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary caries
B. Seal the margin with fissure sealant would prevent further breakdown
C. Secondary caries may develop

Answer: C (?)

 Marginal leakage is mentioned, not ditching so B is less likely to be correct

 Re. A: wider gap more easily cleansable?

886  :-B

Edward Odell case 1

Pit and fissure caries begins at the fissure wall thus it is difficult to diagnose as the view is obscured
by superficial enamel

887  :-A

 Posterior buccal vestibule

•Thickness determined by the masseter muscle

•Coronoid process of the mandible encroaches on the space during lateral excursion

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=xuQobXlb40YC&pg=PA9&lpg=PA9&dq=coronoid+process+in+relation+to+maxillary+denture&sour
ce=bl&ots=PlreuDcROT&sig=YcJaQ4Voo8HNOdoG6LzH2jvUixU&hl=en&ei=_p3cTqvjLcWsiAfg27nJ
DQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CC4Q6AEwADgU#v=onepage&q=coronoid
%20process%20in%20relation%20to%20maxillary%20denture&f=false

888   :-B

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/chroma

158
889. How long should acrylic self-cure special trays been made prior to taking
impression:
A. 12 hrs
B. Immediately after fabricating it
C. After been left in water for an hour
D. Wait for an hour before pouring

Answer: A

Reference: Rosenstiel/368: “To avoid distortion from continued polymerisation of the resin, the
tray should be made at least 9 hours before its use. When a tray is needed more urgently, it can
be placed in boiling water for 5 minutes and allowed to cool to room temperature.”

890   :-B

Therefore, it is very important to explain the patient the importance of maintenance of hygiene of the
denture

If the hygiene is not maintained it results in plaque accumulation resulting in gingivitis and
deterioration of the remaining structures

891. What of the following is TRUE regarding the placement of the movable
component of the non-rigid connector in a fixed bridge:
A. Should be placed on the longer retainer
B. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector

 Rosenstiel/71: non rigid connector of a fixed-movable bridge (mortise to be precise) is

placed on the distal aspect of the anterior retainer (see Q825 also). The anterior abutment
is the usually the minor abutment and provides support only (Oxford/256). So the anterior
retainer cannot be the longer retainer (as mentioned in choice A). So A is not true.
 reference to justify choice B: http://club.topsage.com/thread-962138-1-1.html. It says:
“Occasionally the fixed and moveable connectors are reversed but this has a number of
disadvantages. The retainer with the moveable connector (the minor retainer) is smaller
and less visible and so is better in the more anterior abutment tooth. Mesial drift tends to
unseat distal moveable connectors, but is resisted by mesial ones”.

892. When lateral incisor is lost a patient has Class II Division II type with deep
bite. Which of the following is contra indicated:
A. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutment
B. Non-rigid connector with central incisor as abutment

Answer: B. The prosthesis is subjected to great stress because of the malocclusion and deep bite.
A cantilevered prosthesis, that too with a non rigid retainer (choice B) cannot be a good choice in
this situation. According to Rosenstiel/65: “Long term prognosis of the single unit cantilever is
poor.... cantilever will induce lateral forces... may be harmful”

893. What is the neutral zone:

A. The zone where displacing forces are neutral
B. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced

Answer: B

159
Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms-8: “the potential space between the lips and cheeks on one side
and the tongue on the other; that area or position where the forces between the tongue and cheeks
or lips are equal”.

894. What is the Bilaminar Zone:**

A. Formed of, or having, two laminae, or thin plates. Which is the distal
attachment of superior hard lateral plate
B. A vascular, innervated tissue that plays an important role in allowing the
condyle to move foreward

Answer: B
http://uwmsk.org/tmj/anatomy.html:
“The MENISCUS is a fibrous, saddle shaped structure that separates the condyle and the
temporal bone. The meniscus varies in thickness: the thinner, central intermediate zone separates
thicker portions called the anterior band and the posterior band. Posteriorly, the meniscus is
contiguous with the posterior attachment tissues called the bilaminar zone. The bilaminar
zone is a vascular, innervated tissue that plays an important role in allowing the condyle to
move foreward. The meniscus and its attachments divide the joint into superior and inferior
spaces.”

895. Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the mandible:
A. Contraction of lateral pterygoid
B. Contraction of temporalis
C. Contraction of the suprahyoid muscles
D. Contraction of the infrahyoid muscles
E. Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible are the forces
of gravity

Answer: B and D
 BDC/124: depression of mandible mainly by lateral pterygoids, also by digastrics,
geniohyoid and mylohyoid- when mouth is opened wide or against resistance.
 For details of infrahyoid muscles: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infrahyoid_muscles

896. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate related to hardness:

A. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylic
B. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten carbide>amalgam>acrylic
C. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten Carbide>Amalgam>Acrylic

Answer: A
Reference: http://www.reade.com/Particle_Briefings/mohs_hardness_abrasive_grit.html :

“Mohs' scale of hardness... based on the susceptibility of a material to be scratched. [In the
original classification] Talc, the softest, was numbered No. 1 and Diamond, the hardest, was
numbered No. 10.”

Tungsten carbide     9

Porcelain, feldspathic     6 - 7
Enamel     5

897. How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay:
A. 2 mm to achieve a good retention form
B. 2mm to achieve a good resistance form

160
C. 1mm

Answer: B.
 Sturde/769: “reduction of cusps is usually required to achieve adequate resistance form...
The goal is to ensure that the final restoration has restored cusps with a minimal thickness
of 2mm of amalgam for functional and 1.5mm for non functional cusps.”
 Also see Q261

898. How long would it take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a
root filling in a tooth with a periapical lesion:
A. 6 months
B. 1 month
C. 3 months

DOUBT. Reference needed

 In the third month (after RCT with laser) according to the discussion section of the
article “Q898-apical_healing”

 Odell/222: “RCT should be reviewed for at least 4 years because complete healing may
require considerable time.” Table on this page says: that if a residual radiolucency is
present but is smaller in size even after 4 years, the success of treatment is ‘uncertain’.
Some authorities suggest observation for a further 3 years.

899. The major cause of mentalis muscle hyperactivity is:

A. Class II Division I
B. Tongue thrust

Answer: A. See image below.

900. When treating a non-vital tooth with a fistula presented, the fistula should be
treated by:
A. Surgical incision
B. Antibiotic coverage
C. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula

Answer: C.
 Option A is wrong (incision is not a treatment modality for any fistula)

161
  According to Therapeutic Guidelines, antibiotics should only be given as an adjunct to
dental procedures so option B is also not true
 Second para in image below shows that options A and B are not true:
 That leaves Choice C. See first para in image below.

901. To increase the setting time of phosphate cements you would

A. Use a cold glass slab
465 anusavice,it says it increases both working and setting time, i think it holds for all materials using
cold slab 

902. 27 years old female; shows sudden oedematous rash and

collapses after an injection of barbiturates. Your management
is
A. I.M. 0.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration
184 tga

903. Which of the following procedures will not achieve

sterilization
A. Hot air at 160ºC “320ºF” for 90mins
B. Boiling water at 100ºC “210ºF” for 2 hours
C. Autoclave at 121ºC “250ºF” under 15psi for 20 mins
D. Dry heat at 177ºC “350ºF” for 60mins
E. All of the above will achieve sterilisation
page 13 Dimitrulis, has given all the above mentioned figures except choice B as boiling water do not

162
sterilise, autoclave at 134-137°C for three minutes is the best

904. 50 years old man presented after a full mouth extraction

complaining that he “bled all night”. Which of the following pre
existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative
bleeding
A. Blood pressure reading of 180/110
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Elevated prothrombin time
D. A & D are correct
E. None of the above
454 bouchers 4th question

905. Long bone growth by

A. Mitosis in osteoblast
B. Mitosis of osteoblast
C. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysis
D. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis

From http://books.google.co.nz/books?
id=VRnFkfvRT4EC&pg=PA41&lpg=PA41&dq=long+bone+growth+epiphyseal+plate+app
osition+interstitial&source=bl&ots=_QIn4BM3xt&sig=w0hkqWPSygUBK8Yj1kcTAksnSY
I&hl=en&sa=X&ei=6lApT-
HKNYWQiQfHr7XAAg&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&q=long%20bone%20growth
%20epiphyseal%20plate%20apposition%20interstitial&f=false :

cotd....

163
Last image => C is not the answer, D is the answer

906. What is TRUE in regards to oral lesions of reticular lichen

planus
A. Never accompanied with skin lesions
B. Always accompanied with skin lesions
C. Lesions may present anywhere
D. Lesions may present on legs
E. Lesions may present on arms
oxford page 466,OM, oral manifestation of skin disease

907. Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenetic
potential is
A. Lymphocytic bone graft
B. Freeze-dried bone graft
C. Heltozygo?? Marrow graft
D. Cortical bone graft
E. Cancellous bone graft

Cancellous bone marrow graft is an autograft (Carranza/697) so it has greater osteogenic

potential.

908. A patient states that for ALMOST a year now, she has had a
rubbery, firm, painless nodule within the substance of parotid
gland. This MOST likely is
A. Mucocele
B. Lymph node
C. Benign mixed tumour
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Sialolith with encapsulations
page 221-221, shafers, pleomorphic adenoma

164
909. The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is
A. Use lead collimator
page 37, white and pharoah

910. The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in

deciduous molar is
A. Density of lamina dura
page 106,case 22 odell, its explained what happens in external replacement resorption/ankylosis

911.A

shafers pg 55

dentinal tubules larger in diameter

less numerous or may b absent

912.C

oxf 70

913.E

NBDE,ortho q14

sella turcica or ant cranial base

From http://www.cleber.com.br/burling6.html :
“Sella turcica or the anterior cranial base is considered one of the most stable areas from
which growth changes can be registered, and sella-nasion superimposition is practical and
accurate for measuring increments.”
 

914.C

pg 172 Jaypee

my point of view is :as theres overgrowth of lower jaw so anterior plane will prevent further growth of
mandible,allowing a better jaw relation till full growth achieved

915.A

oxford anterior open bite 148

916.E

master dentistry.periodontal disease. 15pg

165
917.E

assuming the blank as tissue exposure.

http://www.dent.ohio-state.edu/courses/d664/09/Periodontal%20flap%20surgery%201.pdf

918.A

angular bony defect and mobilty occur

919.A 

 oxf 213 explains both 918,919

920.B,D

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Receding_gums#Gingival_grafting

921   :-C

The other contraindication is inadequate attached gingiva

From http://www.drbui.com/artpocketreduce.html :
“Contraindication would be the inadequate attached gingiva or the ramus is located right
next to the distal of the tooth and thus no area for the wedge to be removed.”

922   :-E

Fluoride doesn't directly cause tooth discolouration

It might result in enamel opacity and mottling
The staining is extrinsic caused by uptake of various agents from diet or produced by plaque bacteria

923. Two conditions of enamel facilitate the post eruptive uptake of fluoride:
A. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentine
B. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisation
C. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities

Answer: B

 Reference: Soben Peter/293: “acquisition of fluoride by the enamel surface appears to

continue at a perceptible rate as long as the tissue remains porous.”
 Also, according to SP/292, 293, order of fluoride conc. = cementum > dentin > enamel
(CDE)

924  :-A and B

Tg
The enamel formed in the presence of Fl is more acid resistant due to formation of Fluoroapatite
It inhibits metabolism of plaque bacteria

925  :-E

166
Flexibility of an infrabulge clasp is primarily related to its length, but the cross-sectional form, taper,
and metallurgical
properties also impact clasp flexibility
Page 61 Stewart

926. Protrusive movement in wax:

A. Cannot be perforated

Answer: A

 Reference: http://www.lsmdb.ro/cursuri/An4/Protetica/02%2015%20CAPITOL%20CARTE
%20Diagnostic%20Casts%202001%20Contemp_Fixed_Prosth_ROSENSTIEL.pdf. It says:
“However, it is essential that the teeth not perforate the record. Any tooth contact during
record fabrication can cause mandibular translation due to neuromuscular protective reflexes
governed”.

927  :-A

The information given is incomplete

However, blood count does not help in diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis
The atypical monocytes help in diagnosis
Also, Paul Bunnel test to determine antibodies helps to confirm the diagnosis

928  :-A

The other advantages are:

a.decrease heat generation and pressure
b.better operator control and ease of operation
c.instruments last longer
d.patients are less apprehensive

929  :-B

The answer given is A and explanation in the answer sheet given is indirect pulp capping 4 weeks and
direct pulp capping 6-8 weeks
But please check Ingle page 868 and 871 which says exactly opposite
It says for indirect pulp capping 6-8 weeks are required whereas for direct 4 weeks

930  :-A

The minimum crown to root ratio for abutment is 1:1 and optimum 2:3
Page 89 Shillinburg

931. What does contraindicate bridge works:

A. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments

Answer: A. Based on Ante’s law.

932. Elasticity of impression material will lead to ideally:

A. Prevent distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth

Answer: A. Phillips/143: mentioned with regard to rapid removal of impression: “.... deformation
is mostly elastic and thus recoverable, which minimises the distortion.”

933. A patient has been coming to your clinic for several times complaining about
soreness under the denture, what would you do:

167
A. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps

There could be other causes also. Is this the main cause?? Not sure.

934. What is the difference between arcon and non arcon articulator:
A. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment

Answer: A. As per definition of this articulator given in Nallaswamy.

935. Purplish lesions on the buccal mucosa that have been there since birth; the
diagnosis is:
A. Haemangioma
B. Erythema
C. Naevus

 Answer: A. Shafer154: haemangioma- most cases present at birth, deep red or bluish red
in colour
 Not C: the term naevus applies to a lesion containing melanin pigment
 Can’t be B

936. Elevators are not used in:

A. Dividing third lower molar roots

Answer: A. Laskin/8: As lever or wedge.

937. What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping:
A. Accidental exposure of pulp
B. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic tooth
C. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks

Answer: C (pulpotomy or pulpectomy should be performed depending on severity of symptoms)

B → Indirect pulp cap
A → Direct pulp cap
Ref. Cameron Widmer/113

938. How would you treat hyperaemia (hyperaemic tooth):**

A. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cement
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Corticosteroid paste

Answer: C
According to Oxford/289, it is useful if anaesthesia of the hyperaemic pulp cannot be achieved.
Dressing with this reduces inflammation.

939. A patient comes to you complaining of pain in a tooth, the tooth was filled
with composite long time ago; what would you do:
A. X ray, remove filling and restore with temporary filling

Answer: A. Need reference for treatment protocol. When to give a temporary filling and
when to go for a permanent restoration straightaway?

940. Use of inhalation general anaesthesia:

168
A. Halothane should not be less than 5%
B. Oxygen must not be less than 30%

Using inhalational sedation (nitrous oxide and oxygen) for relative analgesia, oxygen
concentration is never less than 30 per cent (Oxford/590).

941. Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is

likely to be caused by
A. Acromegaly
B. Paget’s disease
C. Giant cell lesion
D. Primordial cysts
E. Dental cysts
choice(page314 imer) A and B do not occur in children generally, page232 widmer and 416
Oxford,oral surgery, non-tumour hard tissue lumps

942. For fissure and sealant treatment to be a part of the

primarily retentive care
A. Place sealant on teeth which are at high risk of caries
B. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth
page 86 widmer

943. Periodontal pocket is measured between

A. CEJ to base of pocket
B. Top of the gingiva to the base 
page 434Carranza, the periodontal pocket, choice A is loss of attachment

944. When you apply a pressure of 0.25N to measure pocket

depth
A. 4 mm indicates periodontitis
page 552 Caranza says about the pressure and 497 says about mild moderate and severe
periodontitis and their respective measurements of attachment loss

945. Which of the following elements is not found in normal

periodontal membrane
A. Fibroblast
B. Epithelial cells
C. Erythrocytes
D. Vest cells of malaise
E. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes  chapter -tooth supporting structures, though
it says that defense cells are present in pdl, as the question is asking normal pdl rather than
inflammed/infected

946. Which of the following situations make periodontal disease

more sever
A. Enough proximal surface
B. Too wide bucco lingual embrasure
C. Missing proximal contacts
page 179 caranza,

169
947. The auxiliary occlusal rest on tooth for partial denture should
be placed
A. Away from edentulous space
B. Adjacent to edentulous space given choice
C. Near fulcrum line
D. Away from fulcrum line
346 nallaswamy, 49 stewart, both of these books mentions that auxillary/secondary rests are
placed either anterior or posterior to the fulcrum line, where its function is to prevent the
lifting away of distal extension,while choice B, i think it holds for primary rests where they
are placed next to the edentulous space

948. A vital tooth has a crown cemented to a pin retained

amalgam cored; where does failure occur
A. Between crown and cement
B. Between core and cement
C. In the crown and the root
D. In the core and the margin preparation
no reference, please have a look 393 bouchers ,conservative and 783 sturdevants where it
explains the failure of pin retained amalgam, while here in the options are based on aspect
between the core and the cown

949. Which is NOT a result of toxic dosage of local anaesthetic

A. Angioneurotic oedema
B. Hypotension
C. Respiratory depression
D. Hypertension
47 tga, choice A s a result of allergy not toxicity, choice D, hypertension may be a printing
mistake, as systemic toxiciy causes hypotension

950. Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of

A. Branchial cyst
B. Thyroglossal duct cyst
C. Ranula
D. Retention cyst
E. Globulomaxillary cyst
page 67 shafers,chapter 1-developemental disturbances of oral and para oral structures, they
are situated at the midline of the neck at the base of the tongue

951. B

http://findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_hb4384/is_4_37/ai_n28998305/

It appears that environmental tobacco smoke, which has immunosuppressive properties and is a
known risk factor for infections of the cranial organs

952.C

170
Endodontics, Volume 1 By John Ide Ingle,pg574

A high degree of succes is achieved with overfilling..so leave as such if theres no discomfort

953.C

same as above

954.B

repeated

955.A

repeated.

nerve supply to all teeth explained in that question

956.A

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=n2TJDryohrMC&printsec=frontcover&dq=textbook+of+operative+dentistry&hl=en&ei=q1LdTvqOHIj
LrQf8mum2BA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=3&sqi=2&ved=0CEoQ6wEwAg#v=onepage&q=rough%20tooth
%20surface&f=false

page 112

at high speed,cross cuts tend to produce rough surface,newer burs have reduced number of cross
cuts.

957.B

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=n2TJDryohrMC&printsec=frontcover&dq=textbook+of+operative+dentistry&hl=en&ei=q1LdTvqOHIj
LrQf8mum2BA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=3&sqi=2&ved=0CEoQ6wEwAg#v=onepage&q=rubber%20dam%20and
%20gingival%20tissue%20damage&f=false

171
it says punch big holes in the sheet so that it can be stretched to involve more teeth

punching small holes not mentioned anywhere.

From ADC_prelim group:

958.A

959.A

Prosthodontics By Soratur

pg 149

more efficient retention is obtained by frictional resistance.

960.C

dental journal of australia.

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=cusaAQAAMAAJ&q=undercut+area+is+predetermined&dq=undercut+area+is+predetermined&hl=
en&ei=6WTdTsWREsKhiAKWqrXnAw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=7&ved=0CE4Q6wEwBg

if undercut is predetermined ,undesirable areas can be eliminated nad full advantage can be taken of
desirable undercut by engaging hem wid resilient retaining area.

961  :-B

Phenytoin gingival hyperplasia begins with interdental papilla but later involves the marginal gingiva

172
Its treatment requires mainly discontinuation of phenytoin

In case of gingival fibromatosis it is hereditary and gingivectomy is treatment of choice

Caranza

962  :-A

http://www.bcb.uwc.ac.za/Sci_Ed/grade10/mammal/bone.htm

963  :-A

Page 593 Bouchers (Q89)

964  :-B

Class II division 2 has deep bite

In case of deep bite Maryland bridges are contraindicated

965  :-A and B

If it is lower 1st premolar A would be correct

If it is lower 2nd premolar or 1st molar B would be correct

Page 459 and 460 Shillinburg

966  :-B

It due to Vitamin b12 , iron deficiency

If the question was angular cheilitis in complete denture wearers A would be right answer

967  :-B

173
968  :-C

Explanation for 967 and 968

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=EpQaUi1OPPQC&pg=PA240&lpg=PA240&dq=properties+of+type+III+and+type+IV+metals+used
+in+dental+bridges&source=bl&ots=g0NP39Bz12&sig=kSdLNKFWQ7ECi1SlFEjH49DeVhI&hl=en&ei
=ryDfTrPLJsWaiQfN9NW2BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=10&ved=0CFkQ6AEwCQ#v
=onepage&q=properties%20of%20type%20III%20and%20type%20IV%20metals%20used%20in
%20dental%20bridges&f=false

969  :-A

The condylar head gets displaced anteriorly, medially with lateral rotation

Page 380 Neelima Malik

970.:-A
pg 64 of tg,m not sure abt prosthetic  heart valve pt
for minor oral surgery wid INR <4.0,surgery can b carried out but wot abt warfarin.
i feel warfarin not recommended as it increases bleeding during surgery(i read in a website) 
and heparin is also an anticoagulant so why stopping warfarin and starting heparin..

971. What is your management with a chronic oral antral fistula for some time after the
extraction of maxillary first molar?
A. Surgical closure
B. Anti-biotic and nasal decongestant
C. Wash the antrum
D. All of the above

Answer: D. Odell/81-85, case no. 18.

972. Pigmented naevus can undergo malignant:

A. Always
B. Never
C. 10 to 15%

Answer: C. Shafer/92: “it is estimated that 14 per cent of large congenital naevi may undergo
malignant transformation.”

973. The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral cavity are: **
A. Palate and gingivae
B. Tongue and floor of the mouth
C. Tongue and palate

174
Answer: B. Shafer/113, Table 2-4: Lower lip > tongue > Floor of mouth > Gingiva > Palate >
Tonsil > Upper Lip > Buccal Mucosa > Uvula

974. A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows acantholysis
and supra basilare, your diagnosis is:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bulla lichen planus
C. Erythema multiform
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answer: A. Shafer/832. These are mentioned as characteristic histologic features.

975. What is TRUE about Oral mucosal pigmentation?

A. Commonly seen in ethnic groups
B. Commonly an amalgam tattoo
C. Commonly oral melanoma
D. Commonly melanotic naevus

Answer: A. Reference: http://books.google.co.nz/books?id=zLwXQYnq-

lcC&pg=PA29&lpg=PA29&dq=most+common+cause+of+oral+pigmentation&source=bl&ots=ks5v9T
Mj2N&sig=DXPOSI3Y_Pkkf-
B_koamBHcNdqs&hl=en&ei=qebhTtrmMeeciAeQ2Om2BQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnu
m=10&ved=0CGwQ6AEwCTgK#v=onepage&q=most%20common%20cause%20of%20oral
%20pigmentation&f=false

976. What is TRUE in regard to osteogenesis imperfecta:

A. Manifests with blue sclera
B. May be associated with deafness
C. Sex linked disorder of bones that develop in cartilage

Answer: A, B
 Ref. Shafer/675: “characteristic c/f is the occurrence of pale blue sclerae”
 Reference in support of choice B: http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1256726-clinical
 C is false: Shafer/674: generally autosomal dominant

977. Increasing which of the following factors will decrease the density of a
radiograph:
A. Milliampere
B. Time
C. KvP Kilovoltage
D. Object-film distance
E. Focal spot-object distance

Answer: D (?). Cannot find references for effects on density. But D is the only choice which has a
different effect on the radiographic image (in terms of sharpness) than the other choices.

 Ref. For choices A, B, C: White and Pharoah/13, 14: A and B lead to increase in the
quantity of radiation, therefore radiographic density. C leads to increase in the energy and
thus penetrability of photons.
 D: Increasing object film distance increases blurring (W&P/87)
 E: Increasing focal spot to object distance decreases blurring (W&P/86)

175
978. Which of the following will increase sharpness:
A. Larger focal spot
B. Smaller focal spot
C. Increase object-film distance

Answer: B. Ref W&P/86: “methods for minimising loss of image clarity.... use as small an
effective focal spot as possible.”

979. The MOST common staphylococcal infections is:

A. A localised purulent infection of the skin
B. Diffuse purulent infection of the skin
C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis
D. Impetigo

Answer: A. Reference http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/971358-clinical

980. What is TRUE in regard to Basal Cell Carcinoma

A. Metastasis is common
B. Erodes bone
C. More common in oriental races
D. Cannot occur in oral mucosa according to definition\

Answer: B, D (Shafer/110)

 A is false: “practically no tendency for metastasis”

 B is true: “untreated lesions... infiltrate adjacent and deeper tissues and may even erode
deeply into cartilage and bone”
 C is false: skin pigmentation is protective. So more common in Caucasians, not orientals
 D is true: “does not arise from the oral mucosa and is never seen in the oral cavity unless
by local invasion”
981. In severe periodontitis; probe
A. Get stopped by calculus
B. Goes beyond connective tissues of junctional epithelium
C. Touches coronal end of junctional epithelium
D. Touches the middle of junctional epithelium
E. Touches sulculuar epithelium
page 552 & 969(figure) carranza, 

982. Characteristic of mucogingival involvement

A. A pocket of more than 4 mm depth
B. Only 1mm of attached gingiva remains
C. Pocket extends to the mucogingival junction
page 1008 carranza,
 
983. The role of Guided Tissue Regeneration G.T.R. is
A. Prevents apical migration of junctional epithelium
B. Allow the growth of connective tissue in contact with surface
C. Prevent apical migration of junctional epithelium
page972 carranza,

984. The critical plaque PH is

176
A. 6
B. 5.5
C. 4
D. 4.5
page 40 oxford- chapter Sugar in P&C Dentistry

985. When it is acceptable for patient to hold radiographic film

packet in the patient’s mouth
A. Patient is very young and can not understand direction
B. Patient is physically handicapped and unable to hold the film
C. Film should never be held by the dentist
D. There is a lack of time and radiograph is essential
page 41 white and pharoah, says operator should be 6ft/2m at an angle 90-135degree away
from the central ray

986. Common cause of poor diagnosis in avulsion Replantation

A. External resorptive defects
bouchers 508 pedodontics 2nd question

987. Posterior vital molar with core the best material to restore it
is
A. Amalgam
page 556, Nallaswamy

From
http://www.nature.com/bdj/journal/v192/n9/full/4801411a.html (Crowns and other extra-
coronal restorations: Cores for teeth with vital pulps):

 Amalgam has traditionally been regarded as the best build-up material under
conventionally cemented crowns as it has good bulk strength and is sealed by its own
corrosion products. It is not especially technique sensitive providing that during
placement it is well condensed and is not grossly contaminated by blood or saliva.
Although it is possible to find rapidly setting amalgams it is usually better to delay
crown preparation for at least 24 hours.

 Although composite is as strong as amalgam, it has only recently been accepted as a

good core material, albeit a less forgiving one. Without dentine bonding agents
microleakage is a significant problem.

988. The function of incisor pin of an articulator

A. Horizontal and vertical overlap
294 bouchers (CD book),page 160, nallaswamy

989. Which of the following is important consideration when

deciding whether to design an upper partial denture without
anterior flange
A. The amount of labial alveolar bone resorption
no reference

990. Zinc Oxide and eugenol impression paste

177
 A. Can not be used in areas with undercuts
pge 685 oxford, dental material-impression material

991. A

sturdevent pg 490 (4 points)

 enamel rods exposed by bevelling are effectively etched,

 increase in etched surface results in stronger enamel to resin bond which increases retention
of restoration and reduces marginal leakage and marginal discoloration.
 Furthermore bevelling facilitate restoration to blend more esthetically with coloration of
surrounding tooth structure.
 Bevels are usually not placed in posteriors because etching almost do the same job.

992. A

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=Q2SP8cOZPvkC&pg=PA79&dq=denture+stomatitis+normal+oral+flora&hl=en&ei=zIHdTpzhOufbm
AWTl9D0BA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-thumbnail&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=denture
%20stomatitis%20normal%20oral%20flora&f=false

993.A

least frequent and most difficult to treat

http://books.google.com.au/books?id=5B6TahZ0-
eQC&pg=PA165&dq=cervical+third+of+root+fracture&hl=en&ei=mY7dTrukC-
XbmAWa8Kz6BA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=3&ved=0CD4Q6wEwAg#v=onepage&q=cervical%20third%20of%20root
%20fracture&f=false

994.

check out the given table.

it says no response to pulp vitality,no symptoms but xray findings depend upon periapex status in pulp
necrosis.

i feel this table is worth reading for other issues as well..have a luk!

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=zMaF2HB8JwcC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_summary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q=necroti
c%20pulp%20and%20radiolucency&f=false

178
 

995.A

oxf pg 24

996.repeated,

explanation by pulkit is more than enough.

997. B

dentinal tubules(enamel spindles)-only a few of dentinal tubules extend thru DEJ into enamel for few
millimeters

peritubular dentine(intratubular dentine)-2times thick in outer dentine than inner.

intertubular dentine-main mass of dentine

http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=BUNyjNVu5wcC&pg=PA71&dq=dentinoenamel+junction,dentinal+tubules,intertubular+peritubular
&hl=en&ei=2gfeTtvCDYrBiQfDkuyhBQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=dentinoenamel%20junction%2Cdentinal%20tubules
%2Cintertubular%20peritubular&f=false

998.A

179
999.no reference

1000.no reference

1001   :-A

No where they have mentioned 2mm below CEJ

But they have mentioned just 1mm below the free gingival margin or 2mm apical to clinical crown
Grossman page 273

1002  :-C

Net 
It bound anteriorly by mylohyoid, laterally by retromolar pad,posterolaterally by superior constrictor,
posteromedially by palatoglossus

1003  :-C

Repeat question
Page 162 Grossman

1004  :-B

Grossman page 264

The tooth weakens by removal of roof of pulp chamber and loss of dentin
Also, the pulpless tooth has 9% less moisture as compared to tooth with pulp

1005   :-D

Tg
Extractions are to be carried out before starting radiotherapy to prevent osteoradionecrosis
Also, it is very important to give prophylactic hyperbaric oxygen
Without it antibiotic coverage is futile

1006  :-A

The other indications for re-restoration are 

a.Fracture
b.Marginal void
c.Secondary caries
d.Overhang
e.Poor proximal contour

1007  :-D

Class I is reversible pulpitis

After treating reversible pulpitis the patient may experience pain for 2-3 days and sometimes weeks
Grossman 66

1008  :-D

Bouchers page 356

1009  :-A

Couldn't find reference

180
1010  :-B

Finding reference 

1011. “Pop off” of a porcelain veneer from the underlying gold crown is due
to:**
A. Too thick application of pure gold surface conditioner
B. Contamination at the porcelain metal interface
C. Under firing the opaque layer
D. All of the above

Answer: D. Ref Boucher/588, 1st question. All these factors inhibit the formation of a chemical
bond between porcelain and surface oxide on the metal.

1012. Attrition in elderly, why do teeth maintain contact:

A. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition of cementum
B. Increased interocclusal distance
C. Formation of dentine

Answer: A. Ref. Carranza/64: “ideally, the rate of active eruption keeps pace with tooth wear,
preserving the vertical dimension of the dentition. As teeth erupt, cementum is deposited at the
apices and furcations of the roots, and bone is formed along the fundus of the alveolus and at the
crest of the alveolar bone.”

1013. The MOST likely factor contributing to tooth eruption is:**

A. The growing root
B. Bone growth
C. Vascular pressure
D. The developing periodontal ligament

Answer: D. Ref. Boucher/123, 2nd question and Ten Cate/280: “most of the evidence now
available indicates that the force for eruptive tooth movement resides in the pdl.”

1014. The initial condylar guidance of 25 degrees was wrong and is changed to 45
degrees. What changes will you make to achieve balanced occlusion:
A. Decrease incisal guidance
B. Reduce cusps height
C. Increase compensation curve

Answer: A or C. According to Winkler/245, fig 13-28 (C): “.... the condylar path is now steeper.
To rebalance, we must either make the incisal guidance less or increase the compensating curve
or the plane of occlusion.”

1015. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in preventing caries of:
A. Pit and fissure
B. Smooth surface
C. Inaccessible areas

Answer: C > A

181
  According to Cameron-Widmer/43, the main action of ALL fluoride modalities
(including community water fluoridation) is topical effect on the enamel surface.
Inaccessible areas cannot benefit from this topical effect plus they can’t be cleaned at all.
So, C looks like a better answer than A.

 According to an editorial in the Journal of the American Dental Association: "It is

estimated that 84% of the caries experience in the 5 to 17 year-old population involves
tooth surfaces with pits and fissures. Although fluorides cannot be expected appreciably
to reduce our incidence of caries on these surfaces, sealants can." (Journal of the
American Dental Association 1984; 108:448.)

1016. A patient complains of sensitivity, on examination you find a composite filling

restoring a good cavity preparation without any secondary caries; what is
your next step:
A. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamed
B. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp
C. Ask patient to come back in six months
D. Repeat restoration

Answer: C. Since there is no caries.

1017. What is the shape of an occlusal rest:

A. Spoon shape with rounded margin

Answer: A. Stewart/296: “floor must be inclined toward the centre of the tooth and must be
spoon shaped.”

1018. What kind of regeneration is found after periodontal surgery:

A. Regeneration of cementum
B. Long junctional epithelium

Answer: B. (Carranza) unless some type of reconstructive technique is used, e.g. bone grafting.

1019. What is NOT TRUE about gingivitis:

A. Mobility

Answer: A (since pdl is not affected)

1020. Why is the frequency of carbohydrate intake more important than the
quantity:
A. Low number of streptococcus mutans
B. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentration
C. Homo formation is better at high sugar intake
D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

Answer given is D. Need references.

1021. Gingivitis is not caused by

A. Diabetes
B. Viral infection
gingivitis is caused by HSV (Page173 widmer), diabetes do not cause gingivitis 

182
1022. The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of
A. 2-5 hours
B. 5-12 hours
C. 12-30 hours
D. 30-48 hours
E. 48-96 hours
page 55 tga, here it mentions the range is from 12-70 hours,C is the closest possible

1023. Myxoedema occurs due to**

A. Hypersecretion of the thyroid
B. Hypersecretion of the adrenal
C. Hyposecretion of thyroid-hypothyroidism
D. Hyposecretion of the adrenal
widmer page 314

1024. Ulcers, necrosis and plasma cells at the basal membrane

with atrophic thin areas, reduced rete pegs will be diagnosed
as
A. Desquamative gingivitis
page 420 Carranza, chapter -desquamative gingivitis

1025. Which of the following is seen in benign mucosal membrane

pemphigoid**
A. Tzanck cells
B. Intraepithelial vesicles
C. Histopathology like aphthous ulcer
D. Scarring of the conjunctiva
page 420 Carranza, chapter -desquamative gingivitis

1026. In syphilis
A. Primary lesion is not contagious
B. Oral lesions are not seen in less than 1%
C. Spirochetes disseminate in 24 hours
page 409 Boucher

1027. Which of the following is TRUE about syphilis?

A. The spirochetes disseminate rapidly throughout the body within
24hour after contact
B. Both the primary chancre and the secondary mucous patch stages of
the disease are highly infectious
C. Only the lesions of the primary and secondary stages are contagious
D. All of the above
page 409 bouchers
page 434, oxford, OM-bacterial infections of the mouth

1028. Which of the following is not true about warfarin

A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction
B. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time
C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly
D. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of

183
coumarin
Odell case: 37 explains choice D, tga page 64 explains choice A, warfarin increases prothrombin time
also. i am not sure how it effects the extrinsic pathway as warfarin are vitamin k antagonist which
prevents liver from making factors 2,7,9 and 10, which are not involved in extrinsic pathway. Even
the choice C i think it stands out only because its about Heparin which is an another anticoagulant
like warfarin

From http://www.enotes.com/coagulation-tests-reference/coagulation-tests :

 The PT measures the function of the extrinsic and common pathways of the
coagulation cascade.
 The PT test is used to (1) screen for hereditary or acquired factor deficiencies in the
extrinsic/common pathway (i.e., VII, X, V, II, I), (2) screen for specific factor or non-
specific inhibitors (such as the lupus anticoagulant), (3) monitor anticoagulant
therapy with vitamin K antagonists such as Coumadin and warfarin, and (4) assess
the effect of vitamin K deficiency, which is an index of liver damage in patients with
chronic liver disease.

 The aPTT measures the function of the intrinsic and common pathways of the
coagulation cascade.

1029. Staphylococcus aureus can cause which of the following

infection
A. Thyroiditis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Scarlatina
E. Pneumonia
492 Shafers', chapter-disease of pulp and periapical tissues, there is no involvement of staph
infection in the other options.

1030. A 10 year old child presents with crowding of the

dentition and desires correction. What your next step would be
A. Perform mixed dentition analysis
B. Extract the deciduous teeth
C. Ask the patient to come after the deciduous teeth fall off and complete
permanent dentition erupts
D. Apply a fixed appliances
E. Review in yearly intervals
page 181-2 Bhalajhi, as the question says that the patient is having mixed dentition, 10 years when
3,4,and 5's are erupting or about to erupt and  with crowding, mixed dental analysis is the next step,
which leads us to decide the treatment which are choice B and D. choice C is incorrect .

1031.A

TG: adverse effects of NSAIDS table.pg31

1032.A

184
repeated

oxford perio chap

1033.A

repeated

tg syncope

1034.D

cameron,removable appliances.

modified hawley appliance(usually with z spring) can b used in maxilla to correct one or two teeth in
cross bite.

1035. C

check out explanation on key

1036.B

balaji,pg23

A:multiple small ulcers preceded by vesicles,lip ,palate,attached gingiva are common sites

B:recurrent,painful ulcers on tongue,floor of mouth,vestibular mucosa,

C:multiple painful ulcers preceded by bullae,shows positive nikolskys sign

Also see Q241, 388

 

1037.D

shafers pg 81

histological features:long ,thin,finger like projections extending above the surface of mucosa.

1038.D

scietific support:

185
http://books.google.com.au/books?
id=hV2_TdmoDo8C&pg=PA99&dq=thiamine+is+useful+in+cellular+energy+production&hl=en&ei=VU
rfTqONEunamAX1ip2bBQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=book-
thumbnail&resnum=8&sqi=2&ved=0CFkQ6wEwBw#v=onepage&q=is%20thiamine%20useful%20in
%20cellular%20energy%20production&f=false

1039. A

Mount and Hume pg 41

Topical fluoride is more effective in inhibiting smooth surface caries. It is less effective in fissure or
interproximal caries because of the difficulty of removing stubborn or mature plaque. Daily application
of topical fluoride to demineralised root surfaces over a period of 2-4 months will lead to significant
hardening of the exposed dentine indicating that a remineralising balance has been established.

1040.A

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rheumatic_fever

1041   :-A

Amino acids degrade through urea cycle and it involves deamination

It mainly results in formation urea
Rarely there may be production of uric acid or ammonia
Wikipedia

1042  :-B

Any lesion on the tongue which persists for 3 weeks or more should be biopsied to rule out cancerous
involvement
Page 412 Boucher similar question (Q65)
Boucher/401, Q20: same question. Answer is “biopsy the lesion”

1043  :-C

Lymphoma, Kaposi's sarcoma, HIV gingivitis, Hairy leukoplakia, AUG are all group 1 lesions ie they
are highly associated with HIV
Squamous cell carcinoma, other fungal and bacterial infection, cat scratch disease, osteolmyelitis,
sinusitis are all group 3 lesions ie rarely associated with HIV
Oxford page 476

1044  :-B

Debridement involves scaling and root planing under LA and improved plaque control mainly by
adjunctive mouthrinses (commonly chlorhexidine 0.2% 10ml for 1 minute or chlorhexidine 0.12% 15ml
for 1 min-8 to 12 hourly)
After debridement antibiotic therapy is to commenced (metronidazole 400 mg 12 hourly for 5 days)
TG says that it is important to refer the patient to a specialist as NUG may result in NUP

186
1045  :-C

Dicumoral interferes with prothrombin synthesis 

Page 76 Bouchers

1046  :-A

Garre's osteomyelitis is also known as chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periostitis

It is mainly seen in young people 
Mandible is often affected rather than maxilla
It is caused due to central dental infection
Treatment requires endodontic or extraction of the tooth
 
Doubt :- why not B as well
Shafers says that condensing osteitis is response of the bone to an infection or inflammation resulting
in proliferation of the bone

Please check page 686 and 691 Shafers

1047  :-A

Silver cone is contraindicated in the tooth which will require post placement
The use of engine driven burs to cut the butt end of a silver cone deep enough for placement of a post
can dislodge the cone with loss of apical seal or perforation
Page 252 Grossman

1048  :-A

When the distal extension denture base is dislodged from its basal seat, it tends to rotate around the
fulcrum lines. 
Theoretically, this movement away from the tissue can be resisted by the activation of the direct
retainer, the stabilizing components of the clasp assembly, and the rigid components of the
partial denture framework that are located on definite rests on the opposite side of the fulcrum line
away from the distal extension base.
These components are referred to as indirect retainers 
The indirect retainer components should be placed as far as possible from the distal extension base,
which provides the best leverage advantage against dislodgment

1049  :-A

Hamular notch is depression between maxillary tuberosity and hamulus of medial pterygoid
If it is not recorded properly it will result in lack of border seal causing lack of retention

1050  :-A

It is the compensating curve of spee

It is an imaginary curve of spee joining the buccal cusp of the mandibular posterior teeth starting from
the canine passing through the head of the condyle
Page 195 Nallaswamy

1051. When patient bites in protrusion with complete dentures you notice that the
posterior teeth do not meet, what would you do to solve this:
A. Increase the compensatory curve
B. Decrease the angle of the occlusal plane

Answer: A
 Nallaswamy/192, 193: “When a patient with steep incisal guidance brings his mandible
forward, there will be more jaw separation [posteriorly]..... the condylar guidance has a

187
 similar effect... If compensating curve is made steeper, the posterior contact will be
preserved during protrusion..”

1052. The MOST common reason for full denture failure:

A. Inadequate interocclusal clearance

Answer: A. Can’t find references for this one. Have tried Winkler, Nallaswamy, Oxford, internet.

1053. A complaint of burning tongue in an elderly female would be a result of:

A. A systemic allergy
B. Allergy because of denture
C. Psychogenic

Answer: A, B, C.
 Ref. http://www.34-menopause-symptoms.com/burning-tongue.htm:
“There are several possible causes of burning tongue, but because it is most common in
postmenopausal women, researches believe the primary cause in women is hormonal
imbalance, specifically low estrogen levels. In fact, burning tongue affects up to 40% of
menopausal women”.
 Other causes:

 If the patient is a denture wearer, B can also be the answer (according to Boucher/572, 5 th
question)

1054. In posterior crossbite situation which are the supporting cusps:

A. Upper buccal and lower lingual cusps

Answer: A. Mitchell/140, fig 13.1

1055. The bilaminar zone in reference to TMJ refers to:**

A. The upper and lower joint spaces
B. The distal attachments of the lateral pterygoid to the condyle

See Q 894

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1056. What is the MOST COMMON configuration of the mesial buccal canal of
upper first molars:**
A. Two canals and one foramina

Answer: A. Master Dentistry 2/63 “two canals may be present in the MB root in 90% of cases
with approx half ending in two foramina.”

1057. What does “SYNERESIS” in prosthodontics mean:

A. Loss of water and contraction

Answer: A, as per definition on Phillips/112

1058. Why would you invest the wax pattern as soon as possible in an indirect inlay
fabrication:
A. Minimise distortion
B. Avoid contraction
C. Avoid expansion

Answer: A.
 Phillips/466, 467: “Distortion is probably the most serious problem that one can
experience when forming and removing the pattern from the mouth or die... Waxes tend
to return to their original shape after manipulation... the casting fits best when the pattern
is invested immediately after its removal from the preparation.”

1059. Upon palpation, which of the following areas would be found to have
overlying mucosa:
I. Midline of the palate
II. Mylohyoid ridge
III. Mental foramen
IV. Incisive foramen
V. Tori
A. I and II
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, V
D. None of the above
E. All of the above.

Answer: E. All these structures have overlying mucosa.

1060. Why do people with cleft palates/lips have speech difficulties:

A. Difficulties in keeping the intraoral pressure.

Answer: A

Ref. Cameron Widmer/384: “Speech problems - Poor velopharyngeal closure and oro-nasal
fistulae.”

1061:- B (No, it’s d. 1 and 3 are correct)

189
Dentin bonding systems involve an unfilled, liquid acrylic monomer mixture placed onto an acid
etched and primed dentin surface.

The primer depends on hydrophilic monomer such as 2-hydroxyethyl methacrylate (so

statement 1 is correct) to easily wet hydrophilic dentin surfaces that contain some moisture. Bond
strength primarily achieved by micromechanical (so statement 2 is wrong) bonding to
INTERtubular dentin.

Page 182 Sturdevant

 Statement 3 will be correct if it is rephrased to refer to the hybrid layer (Sturde/183,

1st col., 2nd para)
 Statements 4 is wrong
 So only 1 and 3 (after slight change) are correct= d is the answer.

For second point please follow the following link

http://airforcemedicine.afms.mil/idc/groups/public/documents/afms/ctb_108336.pdf. It says:

“Primer (Adhesion Promoter, Adhesion Enhancer, Bifunctional Monomer, Hydrophilic Monomer) – is

usually a bifunctional monomer in a volatile solvent such as acetone or alcohol; a bifunctional
monomer is one that has a hydrophilic end (i.e., one with an affinity for water) and a hydrophobic end
(one lacking an affinity for water); examples of bifunctional monomers include HEMA...”

1062:- C

Ox/274:
 Home bleaching – 10-15% carbamide peroxide
 In-office bleaching – 30-35% carbamide or hydrogen peroxide (choice d)

Commercial bleaching products are available as both clear gels and white pastes

Carbamide peroxide degrades into 3% hydrogen peroxide (active ingredient) and 7% urea

1063  :-C

Have come to this answer by the method of excluding the other option

A and B :- These are made of abrasives such as carborundum (green) or alundum (white or pink)
which are moulded into a range of shapes and fixed directly to a bur    shank.They are commonly
used for shaping, smoothing, and finishing cast metal and porcelain restorations out of the mouth.
For this purpose they are usually used at medium speeds in the straight handpiece

D  :- Crosscuts are needed on fissure burs to obtain adequate cutting effectiveness

190
       Crosscuts burs used at high speed produce unduly rough surface

       Sturdevant page 333

E  :- Medium diamond abrasive instruments have diamond particle size ranging from 88 to 125
micrometer

       Diamond abrasives used for finishing range between 10 and 38 micrometer

1064  :-A

This attachment averages 2 mm in width

Any restoration which results in infringement on the zone of biological width results in gingival
inflammation, pocket formation and alveolar bone loss

Thus it is recommended that there should be atleast 3.0 mm between the gingival margin and bone
crest

1065  :-A, B, C (update: C. See below in large font)

It is important to prevent air trapment to avoid formation of void or incorporation of air in the
restoration material

Thus syringe technique is preferred over hand instrument

If there a void it has to be repaired by preparing the area and rerestoring 

From http://www.unisi.it/dl2/20100303094346961/papacchini.pdf#page=50 :

“The influence of the oxygen-inhibited layer on bond strength has already received some
attention, although there is no consensus in the literature on how this incompletely
polymerized surface can affect the layer-layer interaction. Divergent reports on the
existence of a positive correlation between the oxygen-inhibited layer and the adhesive
strength (Truffier-Boutry et al., 2003), and other studies that reported no significant
differences (Finger et al., 1996) (Kupiec and Barkmeier, 1996) (Suh, 2004) or even a
detrimental correlation (Eliades and Caputo, 1989) (Rueggeberg and Margeson, 1990) (von
Beetzen et al., 1996) further contributed to the controversy of this issue.”

191
From http://www.jcd.org.in/article.asp?issn=0972-
0707;year=2008;volume=11;issue=4;spage=159;epage=161;aulast=Sehgal :
“during the polymerization of the resins, diffusion of oxygen into the resin inhibits the
polymerization reaction by forming peroxide radicals.  [9] An unreacted double bond or a
free monomer layer in the surface will remain after curing as the reactivity of oxygen is
much higher with a radical than with a monomer.  [10] This free monomer layer remaining on
the surface after curing is known as the oxygen-inhibited layer and is always formed when
the composites polymerize in the presence of air. A common perception is that the oxygen-
inhibited layer is required before adding more layers of bonded composite to increase the
strength. Reports on how this oxygen-inhibited layer affects the bond strength have been
inconsistent. Studies have shown positive correlation indicating that the oxygen-inhibited
layer increases the bond strength by the formation of covalent bonds within an
interpenetrating network. [11],[12] In contrast to this, it has also been reported that this layer
induces brittleness due to inadequate links.[13],[14] However, some recent studies have
concluded that the presence of an oxygen-inhibited layer made no significant difference to
the bond strength of composites.”

Answer should be C (undesirable, should be removed) Sturde (somewhere

in the chapter on dentin bonding and composite) advocates removal of air
inhibition layer by application of a moist cotton pellet.

1066  :-D

http://www.caulk.com/assets/pdfs/products/IRM_DFU_EN.pdf :

IRM® Material powder:

 Zinc oxide
 Poly-Methyl Methacrylate (PMMA) powder
 Pigment
IRM® Material liquid:
 Eugenol
 Acetic acid

1067  :-B

At any given point on the root surface, the surface of the root is parallel with the inner surface of the
pulp chamber

192
Mount and Hume 154

1068  :-C

The pin hole should be 2-3 mm deep into dentine and no more than 1 mm of the pin should be
left standing into the cavity

Mount and Hume 154

1069  :-A

Couldn't find any references

From http://www.dentaldiamond.ee/dental-materials/amalgam-dental-amalgam/5/ :
Spherical or irregular low-copper alloys may be triturated at low speed (low energy), but
most high-copper alloys require high speed (high energy).

B is definitely incorrect

C is incorrect: Corrosion products are formed but takes a longer time as compared to conventional

D is incorrect: Galvanism is not related to copper content

E is incorrect: Have better properties 

1070  :-B

Lamination of resin-modified glass-ionomer (which is also called as hybrid gic / dual cure gic)

It is unnecessary to etch a resin-modified glass ionomer when laminating it with composite

resin, because there appears to be sufficient bonding capacity in the HEMA, incorporated in
the cement, to ensure an adequate chemical bond  between the two materials.

Sturde/304: “GIC bonds to both tooth structure and composite”

1071: a

I tried to copy the table given in Sturdevant

Sorry couldn't do it

Please refer page 219 Sturdevant

193
See the following explanation. The first underlined sentence rules out statement no. 4. On
this basis, only Choice A remains (= 1, 2, 3 are correct).

Craig/614: The compressive and tensile strengths of hybrid ionomer cements are similar to
those of glass ionomer cements (see Table 20-3). The fracture toughness is higher than that
of other water based cements but lower than composite cements. The bond strength to
moist dentin ranges from 10 to 14 MPa and is much higher than that of most water-based
cements. Hybrid ionomer cements have very low solubility when tested by lactic acid
erosion. Water sorption is higher than for resin cements. Fluoride release and
rechargeability are similar to glass ionomer cements. The early pH is about 3.5 and
gradually rises. Clinical experience indicates minimal postoperative sensitivity.

1072  :-E

Boucher page 382 similar question

1073. In the hand instrument formula, 13-80-8-14, the number 14 represents the
a. width of the blade
b. blade length
c. blade angle
d. primary cutting edge angle
e. none of the above.

Answer: c.
Sturde/311: For a four number formula (wide cut long BAngle):
1) 1st no. = Width of blade (in tenths of mm)
2) 2nd no. = Primary cutting edge angle in clockwise centigrades
3) 3rd no. = blade length in mm
4) 4th no. = blade angle in clockwise centigrades
For a three number formula, 1), 3) and 4) are used.

1074. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of glass ionomer cements?

a. strong in compression but weaker in tension
b. the matrix is formed during the initial set of the cement
c. sets via an ion exchange reaction that continues for at least 24 hours
d. suitable for use as a core build up material in anterior teeth
e. all of the above are correct

Answer: d.
a. True – Phillips/557, Table 25-1
b. True – Phillips/533
c. True – Phillips/533, Oxford/618
d. False – Cohen/809

194
1075. Which statements about the dentinal smear layer are TRUE?
1. must be removed prior to the application of bonding agents
2. can be produced by high speed, low speed, or hand instrumentation
3. removal has little effect on increasing dentin permeability
4. effectively removed by sequential treatment of sodium hypochlorite and EDTA
5. may contain viable microorganisms

a. 1, 2, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 5
e. all of the above

Answer: a. (1, 2, 5 are true)

1.- true
2.- true – sturde/240, image below (any type of instrumentation)
3.- false (see image below)
4.- false- the reverse sequence is true (see image below)
5.- true (see image below)

1076. When considering visible light cured composites, which of the following statements is
incorrect?
A. An air-inhibited layer is present superficially on the composite.
B. The wavelength of the light which affects the initiator is in the range of 450 to 500
nanometres.
C. All other things equal. The light generally penetrates deeper into a small-particle
composite than it does into a microfilled composite.
D. B and C

195
 E. All are true

Answer: C
A. is correct, see image below:

B. Correct (see Q. 857)

C. Incorrect. Reverse is correct. Sturde/201: “filler particles tend to scatter light. Smaller filler
particles, in the range of 0.1 to 1 microns, interfere most with the light and maximise
scattering.”

1077. The clinical advantage of porcelain laminate veneers over composite resin veneers is:
A. Colour stability and resistance to abrasion
B. Availability of self-curing or light activated placement
C. Minimal over-contouring of the treated teeth
D. May be used in edge to edge occlusion or Class III relationships.

Answer: A
A. True- definite advantage of porcelain over composites
B. is a feature of composites
C. Have not been able to find this anywhere. Tooth prep for both ranges between 0.5 to 0.75
mm (half the depth of enamel) midfacially.

196
D. May not be true. These situations would require greater strength in the incisal region.
 Although Sturde/624 says: “Because of the strength of the porcelain and excellent bond
to enamel, incisal fractures are rarely encountered.”
 Article from Compendium (saved as “Successful_veneers-Compendium”) says, “Incisal
edge position should be noted, as veneers should be avoided in cases with edge-to-
edge and cross-bite occlusion.”
 But Odell/127: “if there is wear on the incisal edge then porcelain veneers, which are
inherently brittle, may fracture and direct composite veneers may be preferable.”
 Also, Odell/127: porcelain veneers in cross bite and in edge to edge relation with
opposing teeth have been mentioned as being at risk for chipping of incisal edges and
debonding.

1078. The ductility of metal is usually expressed in terms of the:

A. Yield strength
B. Percent elongation
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Ultimate tensile strength
E. Young’s modulus

Answer: B (Phillips/68- mentions the answer directly)

UTS is defined as the stress required to fracture a material (Phillips/59)

1079. On X-ray, hypoplasia of enamel is

A. radiolucent
B. radiopaque
C. can’t detect
D. sometimes radiopaque, sometimes radiolucent

Answer: A
White and Pharoah/346 (mentioned directly)

1080. Which of the following statements concerning the use of radiography for children is
incorrect?
A. techniques are the same as those used in adults
B. easier because of the smallness of the child’s mouth
C. made difficult by the child’s nervousness and his tendency to gag
D. helpful in overcoming some of these difficulties is considerate handling of the child, the
use of small size film and the use of ultra speed

Answer: B
Smallness of the mouth makes radiography difficult. Other choices are correct.

1081. The lateral cephalometric radiograph is used to:

197
 A. study the growth of the face in (comparison) relation with the base of the skull
B. treat the jaw with discrepancy and malocclusions

Answer: A. It is a diagnostic technique and not a treatment modality.

1082. Why do you take x-rays at different horizontal angulations?

A. To find more canals
B. To find more foramina
C. To find vertical fractures

Answer: A (to some extent B also. See below.)

Cohen/116: “allows the dentist to locate additional canals or roots... It also helps to
determine the bucco-lingual position of fractures.”

1083. Horizontal angulation of x-ray tube towards the mesial:

A. Buccal roots move distally

Answer: A. Using SLOB rule.

1084. Titanium is used in dentistry

A. In a very pure form in implants
B. In an alloy with aluminium in casting for crowns and bridges
C. In an alloy with nickel in orthodontic wires
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

Answer: E. Commercially Pure Titanium (cpTi) for implants- Phillips/658, Ti-6Al-4V alloy for
casting (Phillips/457), NiTi for ortho wires (Phillips/649- due to shape memory and
superelasticity).

1085. A 50 years-old patient presents with pain from time to time on light cervical abrasions.
What is your first management to help patient in preventing pain in the future?
A. Change dietary habits
B. Change brushing habits
C. GIC fillings

Answer: B. The most probable cause should be removed to prevent pain

198