FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20) Test-03

CHEMISTRY
46. The ferric ion is detected by the formation of a 52. Which of the following is a polar aprotic solvent?
prussian blue precipitate on addition of potassium (1) CH3OH (2) DMF
ferrocyanide solution. The formula of the Prussian
blue compound is (3) CCl4 (4) CS2
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4 53. Consider the given compounds
(3) KFe[Fe(CN)6] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)4] OH
OH
47. Which of the following species is expected to be
colourless? (i) (ii)
(1) [Ti(H2O)6]+3 (2) [Ti(NO3)6]–3
(3) [Cr(NH3)2]+ (4) [Fe(CN)6]–4 OCH3
48. Colour of coordination compounds depends on the OH
crystal field splitting. What will be the correct order
of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible (iii)
region? CH3
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ The correct order of increasing acidic nature is
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (2) (ii) < (i) < (iii)
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (3) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (4) (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(4) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ 54. When phenol is treated with conc. HNO3, the major
49. The major product of the given reaction is product obtained is
OH OH
CH3 NO2
+ HBr (1) (2)
NO2

CH3 CH3 OH OH
(1) (2) Br NO2
NO2 NO2
Br

CH3 (3) (4)

CH2Br
(3) (4) NO2 NO2
Br 55. Allyl chloride on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives
(1) Propadiene (2) Propene
50. Consider the given reaction
(3) Propanone (4) Acrylic acid

CH4  I2   CH3I  HI
56. The number of stereoisomers possible for the given
Which of the given reagents can be used to carry compound is
out this reaction?
(i) HIO3 (ii) HNO3 HO CH = CH – CH – OCH 3
OH
(iii) LiAlH4 (iv) Pt/H2
(1) Two (2) Four
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) only
(3) Six (4) Eight
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
57. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3
51. Among all of the given reactions, an unsaturated oxidation state is [Ar]3d 5. W hat is its atomic
product is formed, except number?

(1) CH3CH2CHCl2 + NaNH2   (1) 25 (2) 26
alc.
 (3) 27 (4) 24
(2) 3CHCl3 + 6Ag  

58. Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is
(3) RNH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH   + 4 (MnF4) but highest oxidation state in oxides is
(4) CH3CH2OH + PCl5 

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Test-03 FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20)
+ 7 (Mn2O7) because NO2
(1) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen OH
(3) (4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) Fluorine does not posses d-orbitals O2N NO2
(3) Fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state
65. Which of the following reactions gives phenol?
(4) In covalent compounds fluorine can form single
bond only while oxygen forms double bond + –
N2Cl
Cl (1eqv.) aq.KOH K Cr O
59. Ethyl benzene 
2
 A 
 B 
2 2 7
C (1) H3PO2(aq)
h H
Compound C is a/an
(1) Alcohol (2) Aldehyde
SO3H
(3) Ketone (4) Diketone 1. NaOH, fuse
(2)
60. Oil of wintergreen is 2. H+/H2O

(1) Phenyl benzoate (2) Phenyl salicylate

Sodalime
(3) Salicylaldehyde
(3) Methyl salicylate (4) Acetyl salicylic acid 

61. Which is/are not correct about Fries rearrangement? (4) All of these
(1) It involves anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst
LiAlH4
(2) It is an example of electrophilic substitution 66. CH3 – C – CH2 – C – OCH2CH3 Product(s).
(excess)
(3) It involves the formation of carbanion O O

(4) All of these The product formed is

hydrolysis (1) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH2CH3
62. Ethyl acetate  PhMgBr 
 X  Product
(excess)
OH
The final product is

Ph OH (2) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – OH

Ph OH
(1) (2)
OH Ph (3) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – OH
OH OH O

(3) Ph (4) O
Ph Ph (4) CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – OC2H5
63. Identify the correct reaction(s) OH
OH
(1) CrO2Cl2
(i) B2H6, ether conc. H2 SO4
67. – X  Y
(ii) H2O2, OH
(Major)
OH ONa
CHO Major product Y is
(2) CHCl3
NaOH

OH O (1) (2)
+
K2Cr2O7/H
(3)
O
(3) (4)
(4) Both (2) & (3)
64. Which of the following gives carbon dioxide on 68. Major product formed in the following reaction is
reaction with NaHCO3?
conc. HI
OH COOH 1 eq
O
(1) (2)

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FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20) Test-03

CH3 OH
(1) HO – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C – CH3
(1) + Picric acid
I
CH3
(2) I – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C – CH3 (2) CHCl3 + conc. HNO3
OH (3) Picric acid + NaCl
(4) Chlorobenzene + Chloral
CH3
(3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – C – CH3 75. In which of the following reactions the major product
is an ether?
I
CH3 Cl
(4) I – CH – CH – CH CH = C – CH
2 2 2 3
(1) CH CH ONa++
3 2
69. Which ion would you expect to have the largest
splitting of d-orbitals?
conc. H2SO4
(1) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (2) [Fe(CN)6]–3 (2) CH3CH2OH
413 K
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 (4) [Fe(H2O)6]+3
CH3
70. Which one of the following combines with Fe+2 ion H2SO4
(3) CH3 CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3
to form a brown ring complex? Heat
OH
(1) N2O (2) NO
(4) All of these
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
71. Which of the following compounds undergoes fastest OCH2CH3
reaction with water?
Cl 76. + HI (excess) Product(s)
(1) (2) CH = CH – Cl
I
Cl
CH2CH2Cl CH –CH3 (1) CH3CH2OH +

I
(3) (4)

(2) CH3CH2I +
72. Consider the following reaction
SOCl Mg (i) CO OH
PhCH2OH 
2
 A 
Dry ether
B 
2
 C
(ii) H3O

Product C is (3) + CH3CH2I

(1) PhCOOH (2) PhCH2CH2OH (4) No reaction

(3) PhCH2CHO (4) PhCH2COOH 77. Which of the following is most volatile?
NaNH2 CH3CH2Br (1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH3
73. CH3CH2CHCl2 3 equivalent X Y .
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
Product Y is
(3)
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2
CH3
(2) CH3CH2CH2NHCH2CH3
(3) CH3C  CCH2CH3 O

(4) CH3C  CH (4)

74. Chloropicrin can be formed by reaction of

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Test-03 FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20)

Br2/CCl4
OCH3 CH3
78. Trans-2-pentene Product set-1 NH2 Cl
(P1) (3) (4)
Baeyer's reagent

Product set-2
(P2) 82. Which of the following reactions involves formation of
new C – C bond?
Choose the correct statement with respect to above
(1) Carbylamine reaction
reactions.
(1) P1 is a meso compound whereas P2 is pair of (2) Kolbe’s reaction
enantiomers (3) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(2) Both P1 and P2 are pair of enantiomers (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) P1 is a pair of enantiomers whereas P 2 is a 83. Which of the following complex is homoleptic?
meso compound
(1) Li[AlH4]
(4) Both P1 and P2 are meso compounds
79. Compound most reactive towards sodium is (2) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
(1) t-Butyl alcohol (2) Benzyl alcohol (3) [Co(en)(NH3)2(H2O2)]Cl2
(3) Phenol (4) Iso-butyl alcohol (4) Both (2) & (3)
80. Most acidic of the given compounds is HBr Mg dry ether
84. CH3–CH=CH2 Ph–O–O–Ph
A  B
OH (Major)

Phenol
NO2 NO2

(1)
C
NO2 For the above reaction, identify the correct statement
OH CH3
NO2 (1) B is CH 3CH – MgBr
(2)
CH2 – CH2 – CH3
OH
(2) C is
(3)
NO2
H3C – CH – CH3
OH

(3) C is
(4)
(4) C is CH3 – CH2 – CH3
NO2 85. Consider the following reaction sequence:
OCH3
CH3
KNH2 / liq NH3
81. Major product Cl2/h Cl2
excess A anhy. AlCl3 B
NaOH
Cl
C+
OCH3 H
OCH3
D
The correct option among the following is
(1) (2)
NH2 CCl3 CH2OH
NH2

(1) B is (2) D is
Cl
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FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20) Test-03
CCl3
CH2Cl

(3) B is (4) B is

Cl
Cl
(major)

86. If 1-Phenyl ethanol can be prepared by reaction of A

and B f ollowed by hydrolysis then A and B
respectively are
(1) Benzaldehyde and methyl magnesium bromide
(2) Acetaldehyde and phenyl magnesium bromide
(3) Benzyl magnesium bromide and formaldehyde
(4) Both (1) & (2)
NBS aq. KOH
87. CH2 = CH – CH3 X Y. Y is

(1) CH3 – CH – CH3

OH
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH

(3) CH2 – CH – CH3

OH OH
(4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH
88. Which of the following complex has maximum
stability?
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]3 (2) [Cr(en) (NH3)4]3
(3) [CrF6]3 (4) [Cr(en)3]3


M C O
89. 


Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for
above schematic diagram of metal carbonyl?
(1) It shows synergic bonding interactions in a
carbonyl complex
(2) The (M–C)  bond is formed by the donation of
a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital of metal
into the vacant antibonding * orbital of carbon
monoxide
(3) CO acts as -donor and -acceptor
(4) All of these
90. Which among the following has highest dipole
moment?
(1) CH3F (2) CH3Br
(3) CH3Cl (4) CH3 – I

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Test-03 FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20)

BOTANY
91. Orchids and bees show 95. Consider the following statements and select the
(1) Competition option that correctly fill in the blanks.
(2) Proto-cooperation (a) Lysine-rich-maize variety is ______.
(3) Mutualism (b) Cereals are generally deficient in ______.
(4) Commensalism (c) Legumes are commonly deficient in ______.
92. Read the following statements and state true (T) or (a) (b) (c)
false (F)
(1) Rattan Lysine Tryptophan
A. SCP can be obtained f rom unicellular or
multicellular microorganisms. (2) Shakti Tryptophan Methionine
B. Fungus Methylophilus has high rate of biomass (3) Rattan Cysteine Lysine
and growth.
(4) Protina Methionine Cysteine
C. Spirulina can be grown on sewage and animal
96. Energy crop used in proalcohol programme in Brazil
manure to produce large quantities.
for complete replacement of petrol or gasoline with
D. Single cell protein is protein rich biomass which alcohol is
is used as food or feed.
(1) Sugarbeet (2) Potato
A B C D
(3) Sweet clover (4) Sugarcane
(1) F F T T
97. All the given statement are true for androgenic
(2) T F T T
haploids, except
(3) T T F T
(1) Useful in mutation breeding
(4) F T T F
(2) Are produced by using unfertilized ovules
93. Statement A - Sharbati sonora is improved wheat
variety of sonora-64. (3) Normally, they produce sterile haploid plants

Statement B - Due to development of semi dwarf (4) Used to maintain pure lines
wheat varieties, wheat production increased from 11 98. Read the following statements and select the correct
million tonnes to 75 million tonnes from 1960 to 2000. ones.
(1) Only statement A is correct (a) Roquefort cheese is ripened by bacterium,
(2) Only statement B is correct Propionibacterium sharmanii.
(3) Both statements A & B are correct (b) Leavening is caused by secretion of amylase
and maltase by yeast.
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(c) Dosa and idli are prepared from fermented
94. Mark the mismatched pair preparation of rice, by using fungi.
(1) Black rust of wheat – Puccinia graminis tritici (d) Toddy is made from fermenting sap of Caryota
(2) Black rot of crucifers – Xanthomonas campestris urens.
(3) Late blight of potato – Phytophthora infestans (1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (a) & (c)
(4) Red rot of sugarcane – Pseudomonas rubrilineans (3) All except (b) (4) (b) & (d)
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FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20) Test-03
99. Identify the light zone of lake that receives light below (1) A – Wine, B – Beer
compensation point and is also known as twilight (2) A – Gin, B – Vodka
zone.
(3) A – Whisky, B – Rum
(1) Limnetic zone (2) Euphotic zone
(4) A – Brandy, B – Gin
(3) Disphotic zone (4) Profundal zone
107. How many of the following are microbial organisms
100. If in a pond, there are 48 fishes last year and through which can be used as biocontrol agents?
reproduction 10 new fishes are added taking the
current population to 58. What will be the birth rate Lady bird beetle, Dragonflies, Bacillus
per fish per year? thuringiensis, Gambusia fish, Trichoderma

(1) 0.172 (2) 0.827 (1) One (2) Two

(3) 0.208 (4) 4.8 (3) Three (4) Four
101. Which of the following is very time consuming and 108. Formation of biogas is three step ___A___ process
tedious process of plant breeding? involving ___B____, acidogenesis and ___C___.
(1) Evaluation and selection of parents A B C
(2) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents (1) Aerobic Methanogenesis Solubilisation
(3) Selection and testing of superior recombinants (2) Anaerobic Hardening Solubilisation

(4) Testing, release and commercialisation of new (3) Anaerobic Solubilisation Methanogenesis
cultivars (4) Aerobic Leavening Methanogenesis
102. Floating debris from sewage is removed by 109. In mung bean, induced mutation helped in the
(1) Sequential filtration incorporation of resistance to
(1) Yellow mosaic virus
(2) Sedimentation
(2) Tobacco mosaic virus
(3) Sludge digesters
(3) Bacterial blight
(4) Aeration tank
(4) White rust
103. The enzymes that help in clarifying fruit juices are
110. Read the following statements.
(1) Lipase and catalase
(a) The technology of biogas production was
(2) Pectinases and proteases developed in India mainly due to efforts of IPM
(3) Amylase and lipase and KVIC.
(4) Catalase and amylase (b) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its
pollution potential.
104. Highly inflammable and major component of biogas
is (c) All solids that settle f rom sewage af ter
sedimentation form primary effluent.
(1) Methane (2) Carbon dioxide
(d) If the waste water is to be used for domestic
(3) Hydrogen gas (4) H2S purpose then tertiary sewage treatment is done.
105. Jinghua-1 and Guan-18 are two important varieties of How many of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
__ A __ and __ B __ respectively which are (1) One
produced by androgenic haploid culture.
(2) Two
Choose the option which correctly fills up the given
(3) Three
blanks A and B.
(4) Four
(1) A – Maize, B – Rice
111. Choose the incorrect statement.
(2) A – Wheat, B – Rice
(1) Biofortification is the most practical means to
(3) A – Wheat, B – Maize improve public health
(4) A – Rice, B – Wheat (2) W heat is a secondary crop which is
106. __A__ is produced by fermented cereals while domesticated when primary crop fails.
__B__ is produced by molasses. (3) Agriculture contributes about 33% of India’s GDP.
Choose the option which correctly fills up the given (4) Haploid culture technique was developed by
blanks A and B. Guha and Maheshwari in Solanaceae members

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Test-03 FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20)
112. Match the column–I (v ariety) and column–II 117. How many of the given microbes are associated with
(resistance to disease). the formation of butter milk?
Column–I Column–II Streptococcus cremoris, Penicillium camemberti,
Penicillium roquefortii, Streptococcus lactis,
a. Pusa swarnim (i) Chilly mosaic virus Lactobacillus acidophilus, Leuconostoc cremoris
b. Himgiri (ii) White rust
(1) Two (2) Three
c. Pusa shubhra (iii) Leaf and stripe rust
(3) Four (4) Five
d. Pusa sadabahar (iv) Curl blight black rot
118. Which of the following is used as biofuel substitute
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) of fossil fuel?
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) Sesbania (2) Melilotus
113. Rice variety ADT-37 is developed by a cross (3) Jatropha (4) Crotolaria
between
119. The first antibiotic discovered by Alexander Fleming is
(1) Two plants belonging to same variety
(1) Penicillin (2) Erythromycin
(2) Two variety of same species
(3) Neomycin (4) Fumagillin
(3) Different species of same genus
120. Among wheat, maize, rice, barley, cotton, mango
(4) Two different genera and sunflower, how many of them are old world crops?
114. Which of the following is the crucial step for the (1) Three (2) Four
success of plant breeding experiment?
(3) Five (4) Six
(1) Testing, release and commercialisation of new
cultivars 121. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and
select the correct option stating which ones are true
(2) Selection and testing of superior recombinants (T) and which ones are false (F). The statements are
(3) Collection of variability (A) Trichoderma are free living fungi that are very
common in root ecosystem.
(4) Evaluation and selection of parents
(B) Baculoviruses, have negative impacts on plants,
115. Read the following statements. mammals and birds.
(a) Actively growing regular and differentiated mass (C) Statins resemble mev alonate and is non
of cells is callus competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase.
(b) During hardening, plantlets are kept under (D) Yeast is used for commercial production of
reduced light and low humidity ethanol.
(c) Legumes are commonly deficient in sulphur (A) (B) (C) (D)
containing amino acids
(1) T F T T
(d) Gynogenic haploids are obtained by using
unfertilized ovules (2) T F F T

How many of the given statement(s) is/are correct? (3) T F F F

(1) One (4) T T T F

(2) Two 122. Statement A- Autotrophic microbe widely distributed

in aquatic and terrestrial environment which can fix
(3) Three atmospheric nitrogen.
(4) Four Statement B- Fungus that f orms symbiotic
116. Select the correct match w.r.t. alcohol and their association with roots of higher plants.
substrate used. Given statement A and B are correct for
Alcohol Substrate used A B
(1) Gin – Fruit juice (1) Azospirillum Azotobacter
(2) Vodka – Rye malt
(2) Anabaena Azotobacter
(3) Beer – Barley malt
(3) Nostoc Glomus
(4) Brandy – Fermented cereals
(4) Oscillatoria Azospirillum
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FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20) Test-03
123. Identify the given diagram and choose the correct Population Interaction
option.
Commensalism Parasitism Mutualism
(1) (iii) (i) & (ii) (ii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (ii) & (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) & (iii) (ii) (iv)

127. Match the following correctly.

Column–I Column–II

(1) It causes respiratory infection (a) Stenohaline (i) Wide range of temperature
(b) Eurythermal (ii) Narrow range of salinity
(2) It is associated with ripening of roquefort cheese
(c) Euryhaline (iii) Wide range of salinity
(3) It is used in alcoholic fermentation
(d) Stenothermal (iv) Narrow range of temperature
(4) It is used in detergent formulations
(1) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iii), (d) (iv)
124. The population density in a given habitat at time
t +1, is represented by the relation (2) (a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iv), (d) (iii)

(1) Nt = Nt+1 + [(B + I) + (D + E)] (3) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d) (iv)

(2) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)] (4) (a)(ii), (b)(iii), (c)(i), (d) (iv)
128. Thick layer of fat blubber below the skin acts as
(3) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + E) + (D + I)]
insulator and reduce loss of body heat, is
(4) Nt = Nt+1 [(B + I) – (D + E)] characteristic feature of
125. Which of the following curve represents more realistic (1) Kangaroo rat (2) Desert lizard
growth curve?
(3) Seals (4) Goat
Population density 

Population density 

129. Tropical rain forest is not characterised by

(1) Maximum leaching
(1) (2) (2) Woody climbers and epiphytes
(3) Permafrost soil and Birches
Time Time (4) 4 - 5 strata
Population density 

Population density 

130. Find correct match w.r.t. salinity (parts per thousand

- ppt)
(1) > 6 ppt in inland water
(3) (4)
(2) 50-55 ppt in sea water

Time Time (3) < 5 ppt in inland water

126. Read the following statements (4) < 100 ppt in hypersaline lagoon

(i) Cuckoo lays its eggs in crow’s (host) nest 131. A pyramid with pre-reproductive individuals being
marginally more than reproductive individuals, the
(ii) Tight one-to-one relationship with the pollinator
population is said to be a with b age
species of wasp and fig tree.
pyramid.
(iii) Intimate relationship between algae and fungi in
Lichens. (1) a. Declining, b. Urn shaped

(iv) Close association in grazing cattle and cattle (2) a. Expanding, b. Triangular
egret birds. (3) a. Stable, b. Bell shaped
Find correct option w.r.t. population interactions (4) a. Expanding, b. Bell shaped

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Test-03 FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20)
132. Find correct match w.r.t. A, B and C in (i) Heat gain or heat loss is function of ____B____
diagrammatic representation of organismic
(ii) Larger animals have ______A____ relative to
responses
their _____C_____.
(iii) Bears go into ___E____ during winter.
(iv) Some snails go into ______D_____ to avoid
A desiccation in summer.
Internal level

B
The correct option is
C
(1) B – Surface area
C – Aestivation
A – Large surface area
External level (2) D – Aestivation
(1) B – Regulators, nearly all plants
C – Volume
(2) A – Conformers, 99% animals
(3) A – Small surface area
(3) C – Partial regulators, all birds & plants
E – Aestivation
(4) B – Conformers, nearly all plants
133. Find mismatch w.r.t. population interaction. (4) E – Hibernation
B – Volume
Nature of interaction Species A Species B
135. In the interaction between A and B species, one
(1) Predation + – species is benefited and other is harmed in
(2) Competition + +
(1) Parasitism and amensalism
(3) Amensalism 0 –
(2) Commensalism and predation
(4) Commensalism + 0
(3) Predation and parasitism
134. Read the following statements, find the right fill up for
respective blank A, B, C and D in the giv en (4) Mutualism and competition
statements

ZOOLOGY
136. Among the following which one is a viral disease? 139. Which one is not related with allergy?
(1) Cholera (1) Hay fever
(2) Tuberculosis (2) Asthma
(3) Diphtheria (3) Anaphylactic shock
(4) Chikungunya (4) Myasthenia gravis
137. Dengue fever is caused by 140. Computed tomography uses________to generate
(1) RNA containing Arbovirus three dimensional images of organs

(2) DNA containing Arbovirus (1) Non ionising radiations

(3) Paramyxovirus (2) X-rays

(4) Varicella zoster virus (3) Gamma rays

138. Gamogony during life cycle of Plasmodium starts (4) UV rays

and completes in 141. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
(1) Humans only (1) These originate in thyroid gland
(2) Humans and f emale Anopheles mosquito (2) They originate in secondary lymphoid organs
respectively
(3) They originate in all primary lymphoid organs
(3) Female Culex mosquito and humans respectively
(4) They can respond to antigen only af ter
(4) Female Anopheles only undergoing maturation through thymus

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FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20) Test-03
142. Which one of the following statements is correct? 149. Which of the following is done to evolve a pure line
(1) Benign tumor shows the property of of an animal?
metagenesis (1) Outcrossing (2) Inbreeding
(2) Metastasis is the property of malignant tumors (3) Outbreeding (4) Crossbreeding
(3) Use of antihistamines and steroids gives a quick 150. There are several species of honey bees which can
relief from anabolic effects of testosterone be reared. The most common species commercially
(4) Antibody mediated immunity is also known as reared in India is
cell mediated immunity (1) Apis florea (2) Apis dorsata
143. Antibodies produced by plasma cells are ____in (3) Apis mellifera (4) Little bee
nature
151. Which of the following is not an edible marine water
(1) Glycoproteins (2) Glycolipids fish?
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Sterols (1) Pomfret (2) Hilsa
144. Natural killer cells hav e the property to kill
(3) Mackerel (4) Cirrhinus
intracellular pathogens or cancerous cells. Select the
statement which does not hold true for them? 152. Vector which can be used to diff erentiate
recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of
(1) They recognise their target due to reduced
the ability of non-recombinants to produce blue
expression of MHC-I molecules on them
colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate
(2) They destroy their target by perforin action ‘X-gal’ is
(3) They recognise their target by exclusiv e (1) pBR322 (2) pUC8
presence of MHC-II molecules on them
(3) Ti plasmid (4) YAC
(4) They destroy their target by antibody dependent
cell mediated cytotoxicity 153. W hich of the following has been incorrectly
matched?
145. Secretory antibody primarily found in mucus coated
surfaces of human body is (1) Ligase – Molecular glue

(1) IgD (2) IgE (2) -galactosidase – Encoded by lac Y gene

(3) IgA (4) IgG (3) Restriction – Molecular scalpel
endonucleases
146. Formation of a toxic greyish membrane in the throat
making breathing difficult by choking the throat is the (4) Cellulase – Used in cell wall digestion of
symptom of plants
(1) Poliomyelitis 154. Poultry disease coccidiosis is caused by
(2) Rabies (1) Babesia (2) Eimeria
(3) Diphtheria (3) Toxoplasma (4) Nosema
(4) Tuberculosis 155. In case of EcoRI, R represents
147. Naturally acquired active immunity is exemplified by (1) Genus (2) Species
(1) Anti tetanus serum (ATS) (3) Strain (4) Restriction enzyme
(2) Antivenom 156. Which of the following enzymes is used for treating
(3) Colostrum fed to the new born a bacterial cell for removal of its cell wall?

(4) Dev elopment of memory cells against an (1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulase
infection in the body of a person. (3) Chitinase (4) Amylase
148. W ater borne diseases spread rapidly in large 157. Which of the following genes encodes for a protein
sections of populations which share a common water controlling growth of corn borer?
source, hence becoming epidemics. Which of the
(1) Cry I Ac (2) Cry II Ac
following is an example of such disease?
(3) Cry I Ab (4) Cry II Ab
(1) Cholera
(2) Chicken pox 158. Select the incorrect match.

(3) Malaria (1) Adenosine deaminase – SCID

(4) Pneumonia (2) Insulin – Eli Lilly

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Test-03 FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20)
(3) Interleukins – Enhancement of action (3) Only (c) (4) (a), (b) & (c)
of immune system 165. Which of the following is an example of auto-immune
(4) Dolly, Polly, Molly – Transgenic animals disease?
159. Which of the following has been used as a vector for (1) SCID (2) AIDS
introducing nematode-specific genes in infected (3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Graft rejection
tobacco plants?
166. CD-8 T cells differ from plasma cells in their
(1) Meloidogyne incognita
(1) Site of maturation
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Cell membrane receptors
(3) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium
(3) Property of releasing T-cell receptors as
(4) Virus with RNA genome antibodies
160. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by mating of (4) Both (1) & (2)
selected animals of the breeding population with
unrelated superior organisms of the same breed. This 167. Select the incorrect match w.r.t disease and the
is called causative agent.

(1) Inbreeding (1) Diphtheria – Corynebacterium

(2) Outcrossing (2) Small pox – Varicella zoster

(3) Cross-breeding (3) Plague – Yersinia pestis

(4) Interspecific hybridisation (4) Pertussis – Bordetella

161. Perforins, the cytolytic proteins, are involved in 168. The stage of Plasmodium parasite which does not
get digested in the mosquito stomach when it sucks
(1) Non-specific immunity infected human blood is
(2) Specific immunity (1) Signet ring stage
(3) Humoral mediated immunity (2) Cryptozoite
(4) All of these (3) Merozoite
162. Which of the following event during malaria is (4) Gametocyte
responsible for chills and high fever recurring after
every 3 to 4 days? 169. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the disease and its
diagnostic test.
(1) Entry of sporozoites in human blood
(1) Dengue – Wayson stain test
(2) Release of metacryptozoites from hepatocytes
(2) Syphilis – Widal test
(3) Release of haemozoin particles along with
rupture of RBCs (3) Tuberculosis – Mantoux test
(4) Formation of gametes in the blood of humans (4) Plague – Tourniquet test
163. Antibody that can prevent infection caused by 170. Secondary immune response is
Poliovirus, Haemophilus and C.diphtheriae is (1) Second and vigorous immune response against
(1) IgA a pathogen
(2) IgD (2) Slow and short lived response against two
pathogens entering at the same time in the body
(3) IgM
(3) Immune response triggered by memory cells
(4) IgE
(4) Both (1) & (3)
164. Consider the following statements about Antigen
Presenting Cells (APCs) and select the option with 171. Providing passive immunity to a person will include
incorrect statements. all strategies, except
(1) Administration of anti tetanus serum
(a) Macrophages, dendritic cells and B-lymphocytes
can act as APCs (2) Providing IgA antibodies to the new born through
colostrum
(b) They engulf the pathogens and present their
fragments in secondary lymphoid organs (3) Poliomyelitis vaccine administered to a child
(c) B and T-lymphocytes act as antigen presenting (4) Administration of antisera against viper toxin
cells 172. Longest incubation period is characteristic of which
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c) species of Plasmodium?

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FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20) Test-03
(1) Plasmodium falciparum Nicotiana mimics the action
(2) Plasmodium vivax tabacum of neurotransmitter
adrenaline
(3) Plasmodium ovale
179. The diagram below shows how mutations in certain
(4) Plasmodium malariae genes X & Y can lead to cancer. Use the diagram
173. Ascariasis is an acquired helminthic disease which to answer the question that follows.
occurs/spreads through
(1) Fomites
(2) Mosquitoes X Y
(3) Houseflies
(4) Embryonated eggs present in soil
174. Immediate recovery from a deadly microbial infection
can be provided by injecting
(1) Killed pathogen (2) Anti-serum
(3) Toxoids (4) Attenuated pathogens What do X and Y stand for? Select the correct
175. 'Paratope' is the immuno competent region present option.
on X Y
(1) Antigen (1) Mutagens Mutagens
(2) FC region of antibody (2) Carcinogens Proto-oncogenes
(3) Fab component of antibody (3) Proto-oncogenes Tumor suppressor genes
(4) Constant parts of heavy chains of antibody (4) Mutagens Tumor suppressor genes
176. Vaccine which is synthesised by genetic engineering 180. Which of the following is an opportunistic infection in
containing only surface antigens of the pathogen is AIDS caused by a protozoan?
(1) DPT (1) Pneumocystis pneumonia
(2) Recombivax-HB (2) Tuberculosis
(3) TT (3) Toxoplasmosis
(4) OPV (4) Kaposi’s sarcoma
177. During amoebic dysentery caused by Entamoeba
histolytica, the infective stage for a human host is
(1) Magna form (2) Minuta form
(3) Octanucleate cyst (4) Tetranucleate cyst
178. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. name,
source and action of some drugs originally derived
from the plants?
Name Source Action
(1) Vincristine Leaves of Treatment of
Catharanthus leukemia
roseus
(2) Codeine Papaver Relieves pain
somniferum
latex
(3) Taxol Yew tree bark Inhibits cancerous
tumor
(4) Nicotine Leaves of Depressant; as it


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Test-03 FOR ONE YEAR PRACTICE AIATS Test-03- (2019-20)

07/11/2018 Code-C

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice AIATS Test-03 Time : 3 Hrs.

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (3) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (4) 39. (3) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (1)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (1) 113. (3) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (3) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (1) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (1)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (1) 121. (2) 157. (3)
14. (2) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (3) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (1) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (4) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (1) 91. (3) 127. (1) 163. (1)
20. (1) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (3) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (2)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (4) 132. (2) 168. (4)
25. (4) 61. (3) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (3)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (2) 63. (4) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (1) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (3)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (3) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (4) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (1) 72. (4) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (3)

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