28/08/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST – 14
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A
1. The work function of a metal is w0 and λ is
wavelength of incident radiation. There is no
emission of photoelectron when
hc hc
(1) λ = (2) λ <
w0 w0

hc hc
(3) λ ≤ (4) λ >
w0 w0 (1) 2 gh (2) 2gh

2. Two pillars are at distance of 6.28 m from each (3) gh (4) 3 gh

other. What should be the maximum distance of
an observer from pillar to see them separately? 4. A liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion γ is

(θR = 1 arc minute) filled in a container having coefficient of linear

γ
(1) 21.6 km (2) 43.2 km expansion . On heating, liquid level in the
3
(3) 10.8 km (4) 5.1 km container will
3. The velocity of liquid coming out of a small hole
(1) Fall (2) Rise
of a large vessel containing two different liquids
shown in figure is (3) Remain same (4) Becomes half

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

5. The kinetic energy of a body varies directly as 10. A farsighted person cannot focus distinctly
square of time elapsed. The force acting varies objects closer than 100 cm. The lens that will
directly as permit him to read from a distance of 50 cm, will
have a focal length:
(1) t (2) t
(1) +50 cm (2) –50 cm
1
(3) (4) t0 (3) +100 cm (4) –100 cm
t
11. The value of alternating emf (E) in the given
6. For the arrangement shown in figure, the tension circuit will be
in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is
(g = 10 m/s2)

kg
=2 µ = 0.6
m
37º

(1) 12 N
(2) 21.6 N (1) 200 V (2) 220 V
(3) 0 N 220
(3) V (4) 100 V
(4) 2.4 N 2
7. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is 12. What is the current through an ideal P – N
released from rest in a uniform electric field E. junction diode shown in figure below?
The KE of particle after time t is:

qEt 2 q 2E 2t 2
(1) (2)
2m 2m

q 2E 2t qE 2t 2
(3) (4)
2m 2m (1) 40 mA (2) 20 mA
8. A body possesses kinetic energy x, moving on a (3) 10 mA (4) 80 mA
rough horizontal surface, is stopped in a distance
13. If force (F), mass (M), length (L) are taken as
y. The friction force exerted on the body is
fundamental quantities, dimensions of time will
x x be
(1) (2)
y y (1) [M L F]

x (2) [M L F–1]
y
(3) (4)
y x (3) [M1/2 L1/2 F1/2]
(4) [M1/2 L1/2 F–1/2]
9. Figure shows four plates each of area A and
separated from another by a distance d. What is 14. Resistance of given carbon resistor is
the capacitance between P and Q?

Aε0 2 Aε0 (1) 10 × 103 Ω ± 5%

(1) (2)
d d (2) 10 × 104 Ω ± 5%

3 Aε0 4 Aε0 (3) 10 × 103 Ω ± 10%

(3) (4)
d d (4) 10 × 104 Ω ± 10%

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15. The correct graph between logeR and 21. A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius r
loge(θ – θ0) during cooling of a body may be k
under a central attractive force F = – , k is
(R is the rate of cooling and θ0 is surrounding r
temperature) constant. The time period of its motion is
logeR logeR proportional to
(1) r1/2 (2) r
(1) (2) (3) r2/3 (4) r3/2
O O 22. An insect of mass m = 2 g is inside a vertical
loge (θ – θ 0) loge (θ – θ 0)
drum of radius 1 m that is rotating with an
logeR logeR angular velocity of 10 rad/s. If the insect does not
fall off then the minimum coefficient of friction is
(3) (4) ω
O loge (θ – θ 0) O loge (θ – θ 0)

16. If T is the half-life of a radioactive material, then

T 1m
the fraction that would remain after a time is
2
1 1
(1) (2)
2 2

2 −1 2 +1
(3) (4) (1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
2 2
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4
17. Two balls each of mass 1 kg moving in opposite
23. A body of moment of inertia 4 kg m2 rotating with
directions with speed 15 m/s collides and
an angular speed of 4 rad/s has the 4x J of
rebounds with the same speed. The magnitude
kinetic energy. Determine the value of x.
of impulse imparted to each ball due to other is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 15 kg m s–1 (2) 5 kg m s–1
(3) 8 (4) 16
(3) 30 kg m s–1 (4) 10 kg m s–1
24. In rotational motion of a rigid body about an axis,
18. If length of stretched string is increased by 50% particles move with
keeping mass per unit length same, then in order
to keep its frequency of vibration constant, its (1) Same linear and angular velocity
tension must be increased by (2) Same linear but different angular velocity
(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) Different linear but same angular velocity
(3) 75% (4) 125% (4) Different linear and different angular velocity
19. In case of horse pulling a cart, the force that 25. Two circular rings (of same material) are of same
causes the horse to move forward is the force thickness. The diameter of first ring is twice that
that of second. The moment of inertia of first ring as
(1) The cart exerts on the horse compared to that of second is

(2) The ground exerts on the horse (1) 4 times (2) 8 times

(3) The horse exerts on the cart (3) 16 times (4) 2 times
26. A rain drop of radius r falls in air with terminal
(4) The horse exerts on the ground
velocity v. What is the terminal velocity of a rain
20. The position x of a particle of mass 2 kg moving drop of radius 3r?
along straight line is given as x = (t – 2)2, where t
is in second and x is in metre. The work done by v
(1) (2) 3v
the force in first 2 s is 3
(1) 0 J (2) –16 J v
(3) (4) 9v
(3) 16 J (4) 32 J 9

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

27. Consider a process on a system shown in figure 32. Magnetic flux through a closed conducting
below. During the process, the work done by the loop of resistance 4 Ω changes with time as
system φ = (2t2 + 8t + 6) Wb, where t is time in seconds.
The heat produced from t = 0 to t = 2 s is
224 112
(1) J (2) J
3 3
86 172
(3) J (4) J
3 3
(1) First increases then decreases 33. ISRO observed the wavelength of sodium line
(2) First decreases then increases emitted by a star is 589.6 nm. The actual
wavelength emitted by star is 589 nm. The speed
(3) Continuously increases
of the star with respect to us would be
(4) Continuously decreases
(1) 306 km/s (2) 206 km/s
28. A Carnot engine working between the
(3) 406 km/s (4) 106 km/s
temperature 500 K and 1000 K does a work of
1000 J. The heat energy supplied by the source 34. An electromagnetic wave propagates in a
to the engine per cycle is medium, whose electric field vector is given as
E = 200sin (18×108t + 8x) V m–1. Refractive index
(1) 1000 J
of medium and amplitude of magnetic field will be
(2) 1500 J
3 2
(3) 2000 J (1) µ= ;B = × 10 –6 T
2 0 3
(4) 2500 J
4 2
29. An observer moves towards a stationary source (2) µ= ; B0 = × 10 –6 T
3 3
of sound with a velocity one-fourth of the velocity
of sound. What is the percentage increase in the 3 8
(3) µ= ; B0 = × 10 –6 T
apparent frequency? 2 9

(1) 25% (2) 50% 4 8

(4) µ= ;B = × 10 –6 T
(3) 10% (4) 20% 3 0 9

30. The equation of a wave travelling on a string is 35. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current
of 4 A flows through two identical resistors. The
  x 
= y 10 sin  π  5t –   , where x, y are in cm and t ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in
  4  same time interval will be
is in second. The velocity of wave is
(1) 1 : 1
(1) 40 cm/s, in x-direction
(2) 1 : 2
(2) 40 cm/s, in –x-direction
(3) 2 : 1
(3) 20 cm/s, in x-direction
(4) 4 : 1
(4) 20 cm/s, in –x-direction
SECTION-B
31. A metal wire of uniform mass is used as simple
36. An electric bulb and a capacitor are connected in
pendulum. If the temperature of metal wire is
series with an AC source. On increasing the
increases by 10ºC and coefficient of linear
frequency of the source, the brightness of the
expansion of the wire is 2 × 10–6 ºC–1, the time
bulb:
period of pendulum will increase by
(1) Remains same
(1) 1 × 103 %
(2) Increases
(2) 1 × 10–3 %
(3) Decreases
(3) 2 × 103 %
(4) First increases then decreases
(4) 2 × 10–3 %
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-14 (Code-A)

37. In a meter bridge experiment, the galvanometer 43. Electric field in a region is E = 3 ĵ N/ C .
shows a null point when jockey is pressed at
Equipotential surfaces are parallel to
40.0 cm using a standard resistance of 100 Ω as
(1) xy plane (2) xz plane
per the diagram. The least count of the scale
(3) yz plane (4) All of these
used is 1 mm. The unknown resistance is nearly
44. A square loop of side l is placed at a separation a
with a very long wire AB, in same plane. If the
current through BA is increasing in the direction
shown, the induced current produced in the loop
is
A

(1) (66.7 ± 0.1) Ω (2) (66.7 ± 0.3) Ω

a
(3) (33.3 ± 0.1) Ω (4) (33.3 ± 0.3) Ω
B
38. Determine the energy required to launch a
(1) Clockwise
satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of
(2) Anti-clockwise
mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
altitude of 3R. (3) Zero
(4) First clockwise then anti-clockwise
5GMm 5GMm
(1) (2) 45. A proton is revolving in a circular path with
6R 3R
constant speed. Angle between angular
GMm 7GMm momentum and magnetic dipole moment
(3) (4) associated with it is
3R 8R
(1) 0º (2) 45º
39. A photocell works on the principle of
(3) 90º (4) 180º
(1) Bernoulli’s principle (2) Photoelectric effect 46. The potential energy of a particle varies with x
(3) Kirchhoff’s rule (4) Radioactivity law according to the relation U(x) = x2 – 4x. The point
x = 2 is a point of
40. Density of nucleus is of the order of
(1) Stable equilibrium (2) Unstable equilibrium
(1) 1012 kg/m3 (2) 1016 kg/m3
(3) Neutral equilibrium (4) None of these
(3) 1017 kg/m3 (4) 1024 kg/m3     
47. If A ⋅ =
B 3 A × B then angle between A and
41. Power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is 
B will be
1 3 π π
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 6 4
(3) 1 (4) Zero π π
(3) (4)
42. Which of the following represent the variation of 3 2
intensity of magnetisation (I) versus magnetising 48. In an isobaric process, the absolute temperature
force (H) graph for a diamagnetic substance? is doubled. The mean free path (λ) and the
I I relaxation time (τ) will become respectively
1
(1) (2) (1) times and 2 times
2
O H O H
(2) 2 times and 2 times
1
(3) 2 times and times
(3) (4) 2
1
(4) 2 times and times
2

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

49. A man is swimming with speed 10 km/h in still 50. The displacement wave in a string is given as
water crosses a river of width 1 km along the y = 5sin(62.8x – 157t). Here y and x are in cm
shortest path in 10 minutes. The velocity of river and t in second. The wavelength of the wave is
flow is
1
(1) 4 mm (2) mm
(1) 6 km/h (2) 7.5 km/h 2
(3) 10 km/h (4) 8 km/h (3) 1 mm (4) 2 mm

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The correct relationship between edge length (a)
and radius of atom (r) for BCC unit cell is (1) (2)

3r 4r (3) CH3CHO (4) HCHO

(1) a = (2) a =
4 3 57. In the given reaction sequence, major product B
is
(3) a = 2 2 r (4) a = 2r

52. Which of the following is an example of

ferrimagnetic substance?
(1) CrO2 (2) Co
(3) MnO (4) Fe3O4
53. 56 g of CO contains (NA = Avogadro's No.)
(1) (2)
(1) NA molecules (2) 0.5 NA molecules
(3) 4 NA molecules (4) 2 NA molecules
54. Angular momentum of electron in 3rd stationary
orbit of hydrogen atom is (3) (4)

h 3h 58. The amine which is most basic in aqueous

(1) (2) solution is
π 2π
(1) (CH3)2NH (2) (CH3)3N
h h
(3) (4) (3) CH3NH2 (4) NH3
2π 3π
59. The maximum prescribed concentration of
55. Major product of the given reaction is manganese in drinking water is
(1) 5 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
(3) 0.005 ppm (4) 0.5 ppm
60. Monomer of orlon is
(1) (2)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

61. Which among the following is not an aromatic
species?

(3) (4) (1) (2)

56. Which among the following compounds on
reaction with methyl magnesium bromide
followed by hydrolysis gives a tertiary alcohol? (3) (4)

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62. Major product of the given reaction is 70. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
dil. KMnO
CH3=
CH CH2 
273 K
4
→

(1) CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3CH(OH)CH2(OH)
(3) CH3COCH3
(1) 1-methyl-3-chloro-4-methoxybenzene
(4) CH3COCH2CH3
(2) 2-chloro-4-methylanisole
63. The compound which will not show geometrical
isomerism is (3) 1-chloro-2-methoxy-5-methylbenzene
(1) PhCH = CHPh (2) (Ph)2C=CHCH3 (4) 1-methoxy-2-chloro-4-methylbenzene
(3) CH3CH=CHCH3 (4) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 71. Which of the following gases can be liquefied
64. The molarity of 20 volume H2O2 is nearly most easily?
(1) 3.4 (2) 5.1 (1) N2 (2) O2
(3) 2.1 (4) 1.8 (3) H2 (4) NH3
65. Which one of the following ions has the largest 72. The total kinetic energy associated with
size in aqueous solution? n moles of monoatomic gas is
(1) Cs+ (2) Na+ 3 3
(1) kT (2) nRT
(3) K+ (4) Li+ 2 2
66. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 1 1
element is (3) nRT (4) kT
2 2
(1) B > Ga > Al > Tl > In 73. Entropy is a
(2) Tl > In > Ga > Al > B (1) State function and extensive property
(3) Tl > In > Al > Ga > B (2) State function and intensive property
(4) In > Tl > Ga > Al > B
(3) Path function and intensive property
67. 0.16 g of an organic compound gave 0.094 g of
(4) Path function and extensive property
AgBr by Carius method. The percentage of Br in
the compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, 74. Which of the following is correct for a reaction to
Br = 80 u) be spontaneous?
(1) 38% (2) 25% (1) ∆G = +ve, ∆H = +ve (2) ∆H = –ve, ∆S = +ve
(3) 12.5% (4) 50% (3) ∆G = +ve, ∆H = –ve (4) ∆H = +ve, ∆S = –ve
68. Which of the following species cannot behave as 75. The pH of 1 M CH3COONa solution in water will
electrophile? be nearly (pKa for CH3COOH = 4.74)
(1) BF3 (2) AlCl3 (1) 6.4 (2) 10.4
(3) NH+4 (4) SO3 (3) 9.4 (4) 7.4
69. Least stable carbocation among the following is 76. Conjugate base of H3BO3 is
(1) H2BO3– (2) B(OH)4–

(3) HBO32– (4) BO3–

3
(1) (2)
77. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
needed to react completely with one mole of
oxalate ion in acidic solution is
5 3
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 2 2
2 1
(3) (4)
5 2

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

78. The rate constant for a first order reaction which 87. Which among the following carboxylic acids has
has half-life 231 s is the highest pKa value?
(1) 10–4 s–1 (2) 3 × 10–3 s–1 (1) HCOOH (2) C6H5COOH
(3) 10–6 s–1 (4) 3 × 10–2 s–1 (3) O2NCH2COOH (4) CH3COOH
79. For a chemical reaction X → P, the rate of 88. Select the ion of minimum limiting molar
reaction doubles when the concentration of X is conductivity in water at 298 K.
increased 4 times. The order of reaction with
respect to X is (1) CH3COO– (2) SO2–
4

1 1 (3) Cl– (4) OH–

(1) (2)
2 3 89. Shape of XeF4 molecule is
(3) 1 (4) Zero (1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral
80. Among the given options, enthalpy of atomisation (3) Square planar (4) Pyramidal
is maximum for
90. Species having two unpaired electrons is
(1) Sc (2) Ti
(1) He2+ (2) B2
(3) Mn (4) V
81. The migration of colloidal particles under the (3) O2– (4) N2
influence of an electric field is known as
91. Depletion of ozone in stratosphere is due to
(1) Brownian movement
(1) CF2Cl2 (2) CO2
(2) Dialysis
(3) C6H6 (4) C6H6Cl6
(3) Electrophoresis
92. Major product of the given reaction is
(4) Electro-osmosis
82. The coagulating power of ions for haemoglobin
decreases in the order
(1) Na+ > Ca2+ > Al3+ (2) PO3– 2–
4 > SO 4 > Cl
–

(3) Al3+ > Ca2+ > Na+ (4) Cl– > SO2– 3–
4 > PO 4 (1)
83. Which of the following processes is endothermic?
(1) O → O– (2) O– → O2– (2)
(3) Na → Na– (4) Cl → Cl–
(3)
84. Correct electronic configuration of cobalt in
complex cation [Co(NH3)6]3+ is (Atomic No. of Co
is 27) (4)
4 2 4 1
(1) t 2g eg (2) t 2g eg
93. When glucose reacts with Br2 water, it gives
(3) t 62g e0g (4) t 52g e1g (1) Saccharic acid (2) Gluconic acid

85. Select the compound of highest covalent (3) n-Hexane (4) Formic acid
character. 94. Aldol condensation will take place in
(1) NaCl (2) NaF (1) HCHO (2) PhCHO
(3) NaBr (4) NaI
SECTION-B (3) (4) (CH3)3CCHO
86. Anionic species obtained on reaction of XeF2 with
PF5 is 95. Correct formula of calamine is
(1) [XeF7]– (2) [PF6]– (1) ZnO (2) ZnS
(3) [PF4]– (4) [XeF3]– (3) ZnCO3 (4) CuCO3

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 Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-14 (Code-A)

96 An ideal solution made by mixing two volatile 99. The cis-alkenes are formed by the reduction of
components A and B. If the vapour pressure of alkynes with
solution is 170 mm Hg, then mole fraction of A in (1) NaBH4
vapour phase is
(2) Na/liq. NH3
=(PA° 200
= mm Hg, PB° 100 mm Hg ) (3) H2 – Pd/C, BaSO4
(1) 0.72 (2) 0.82 (4) Fe + HCl
(3) 0.68 (4) 0.50 100. Consider the following chlorides
97. Strongest reducing agent among the following is
(1) NH3 (2) BiH3
(3) AsH3 (4) PH3
98. Which of the following compounds is not an The correct order of reactivity towards SN1
antacid? reaction is
(1) Ranitidine (1) C > B > A
(2) Cimetidine (2) B > A > C
(3) Magnesium hydroxide (3) C > A > B
(4) Serotonin (4) B > C > A

BOTANY
SECTION-A 105. Select the true one about prions
101. The taxonomic category which comes just after (1) Has RNA as genetic material
species in ascending order of taxonomic (2) Abnormally folded proteins
hierarchy is
(3) Larger than viruses
(1) Family (2) Genus
(4) RNA shape is same as in TMV
(3) Order (4) Division
106. Mark the incorrect about ribosomes
102. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Smallest cell organelle
(1) In unicellular organisms growth is (2) Membraneless
synonymous with reproduction
(3) Found in cytoplasm of prokaryotes
(2) A scientific name has two words in binomial
(4) Not found in double membrane bound cell
nomenclature
organelles of any eukaryotes
(3) Herbarium contains pressed and preserved
107. Select the incorrect statement about plasma
plant specimens
membrane
(4) Botanical gardens are 'in situ' conservation
(1) Most common types of lipids are
strategies
phosphoglycerides
103. Which of the following are good indicators of
(2) Tails of lipids are non-polar
water pollution?
(3) Proteins show flip flop movement within the
(1) Diatoms (2) BGA membrane
(3) Methanogens (4) Archaebacteria (4) Polar heads are present towards outer side
104. The organism which perform oxygenic 108. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is synthesized
photosynthesis is during which phase of cell cycle in animal cells?
(1) Chlorobium (2) Nostoc (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(3) Nitrosomonas (4) Nitrococcus (3) G2 phase (4) M phase

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CST-14 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

109. Pairing of homologous chromosomes during 117. If two molecules A & B move in the same
zygotene is called direction. This movement can be called
(1) Dyad formation (1) Antiport (2) Symport
(2) Synapsis (3) Uniport (4) Guttation
(3) Congression of chromosomes 118. Biological nitrogen fixation is conversion of
(4) Agglutination of chromosomes (1) N2 → NH3 (2) NH3 → NO2–
110. The feature not related to family Fabaceae is
(3) NO2– → NO3– (4) NO3– → N2/NH3
(1) Vexillary aestivation
119. Which of the following nutrient is required for
(2) Pod fruit
auxin synthesis?
(3) Non endospermous seeds
(1) B (2) Mg
(4) Presence of perianth
(3) Ca (4) Zn
111. All of the following have half inferior ovary,
120. The chlorophyll molecule in reaction center of
except
PS II has maximum absorption at
(1) Rose (2) Plum
(1) 680 nm (2) 700 nm
(3) Mustard (4) Peach
(3) 720 nm (4) 460 nm
112. Parenchyma is living tissue. Select the incorrect
121. Select the incorrect one about Photosystem I
one about it
(1) Found in stroma lamellae
(1) Cells are generally isodiametric
(2) Involves in non cyclic photophosphorylation
(2) Walls are thin and cellulosic
(3) Has chl a which shows maximum absorption
(3) May have small intercellular spaces
at 700 nm
(4) Provides mechanical support to young stem
(4) Is not involved in cyclic photophosphorylation
as has lignin deposition
122. Which of the following steps of respiration takes
113. Select the odd one w.r.t. ground tissue system
place in cytoplasm?
(1) Pericycle (2) Pith
(1) ETS (2) Krebs cycle
(3) Epidermis (4) Cortex
(3) Glycolysis (4) Link's reaction
114. Select the incorrect match.
123. The respiratory quotient is unity for
(1) Cycas - have seeds but no fruits
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates
(2) Selaginella – heterosporous
(3) Fats (4) Organic acids
(3) Marchantia – Dioecious liverwort
124. The plant hormone which counteracts apical
(4) Wolffia – non vascular plant dominance is
115. Egg apparatus of embryo sac has (1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
(1) Two egg cells (3) Ethylene (4) ABA
(2) One egg cell + one synergid 125. Which of the following hormones is also known
(3) One egg cell + one antipodal as stress hormone?
(4) One egg cell + two synergids (1) Cytokinin (2) ABA
116. Movement of molecules takes place along the (3) Auxin (4) Ethylene
concentration gradient in 126. Algae are/have
(1) Simple diffusion (1) Always diploid
(2) Facilitated diffusion (2) Chlorophyllous
(3) Active transport (3) Only unicellular
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Well developed vascular tissues
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-14 (Code-A)

127. Isogametes are not produced by SECTION-B

(1) Ulothrix (2) Volvox 136. A bioactive molecule _______ is used as an
(3) Spirogyra (4) Rhizopus immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant
patients produced by the fungus Trichoderma
128. Myotonic dystrophy is polysporum.
(1) Autosomal dominant disorder (1) Statins (2) Amylase
(2) Autosomal recessive disorder (3) Cyclosporin A (4) Streptokinase A
(3) Sex linked recessive disorder 137. Biocontrol agent Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is
(4) Sex linked dominant disorder used to control
129. Cleistogamy ensures seed set formation. This is (1) Butterfly caterpillars
an advantage but still there are disadvantages (2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
too. One of the disadvantage is
(3) Aphids
(1) It brings genetic variations
(4) Mosquitoes
(2) Pollinators are not required
138. A population interaction in which one species is
(3) Genetic variations are limited in progeny benefitted and other species remains unaffected
(4) Flowers remain fragrant throughout the life (+, 0) is called
130. Two to three layers of anther wall which are (1) Mutualism (2) Proto-cooperation
ephemeral called (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
(1) Middle layer (2) Epidermis 139. Mortality refers to
(3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum (1) Death rate (2) Birth rate
131. Females are heterogametic in all, except (3) Immigration (4) Emigration
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper 140. The Pioneer community in xerarch succession is
(3) Butterflies (4) Moth (1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton
132. In lac operon, the product of 'i' gene binds to the (3) Lichens (4) Ferns
operator
141. Reservoir for phosphorus cycle is
(1) When bacterial cell has abundant amount of
(1) Troposphere
lactose
(2) Ionosphere
(2) When bacterial cell has no lactose
(3) Located in Earth's crust
(3) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
(4) Stratosphere
(4) RNA polymerase synthesizes β galactosidase
continuously 142. Which of the following is most important cause of
animals and plants to become extinct?
133. The size of mini satellites is
(1) Co-extinction
(1) 1 to 2 kb (2) 0.1 to 20 kb
(2) Co-evolution
(3) 1-6 bp (4) 100-120 bp
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
134. Protoplast is
(4) Alien species invasion
(1) Cell without tonoplast
143. Which of the following is ex-situ conservation
(2) Cell without cell wall strategy?
(3) Cell without cell membrane (1) Wildlife safari park (2) Biosphere reserves
(4) Cell without double membrane bound cell (3) Hotspots (4) National parks
organelles
144. Montreal protocol was signed is 1987 but
135. Variety of Brassica resistant to white rust is became effective in
(1) Pusa komal (2) Pusa sadabahar (1) 1989 (2) 1994
(3) Pusa swarnim (4) Pusa shubra (3) 1992 (4) 1999

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145. The part of atmosphere which acts as a shield 148. Starch sheath is found in endodermis of
absorbing UV radiations from the sun is called
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot root
(1) Ionosphere (2) Stratosphere
(3) Monocot root (4) Monocot stem
(3) Troposphere (4) Both (1) and (3)
149. Roots have all, except
146. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. symbols used for
pedigree analysis (1) Pericycle

(1) → Affected male (2) Hypodermis

(3) Radial vascular bundles
(2) → Affected female
(4) Epiblema
(3) → Five unaffected offspring 150. Loading of sucrose in sieve tube elements is
(4) → Mating between relatives (1) Simple diffusion

147. There is no tRNA for codon which has sequence (2) Active process
(1) AGU (2) AUG (3) Facilitated diffusion
(3) UAA (4) UUU (4) Osmosis

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Select the mismatch among the following.
151. Number of chromosomes present in the meiocyte (1) ZIFT – Transfer of zygote or early embryos
of house fly is (with upto 8 blastomeres) into fallopian tube
(1) 12 (2) 6 (2) GIFT – Gametes are transferred in uterus
(3) 24 (4) 48 (3) IUT – Transfer of embryos with more than 8
152. Read the following statement and choose the blastomeres within uterus
option that correctly fills the blank.
(4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection - Sperm is
Small amounts of urea could be eliminated directly injected into the ovum
through ________.
157. Read the following statements about
(1) Lungs (2) Saliva
Echinoderms and choose the option that
(3) Bile (4) Liver correctly fill the blanks A and B.
153. The first human hormone produced by
Adult echinoderms show A symmetry, but
recombinant DNA technology is
(1) Insulin (2) Melatonin their larvae show B symmetry.

(3) Testosterone (4) Progesterone (1) (A) – Radial; (B) – Radial

154. The human embryo develops from (2) (A) – Bilateral; (B) – Bilateral
(1) Only hypoblast cells (2) Inner cell mass
(3) (A) – Radial; (B) – Bilateral
(3) Allantois (4) Trophoblast
(4) (A) – Bilateral; (B) – Radial
155. Given below is the percentage of nitrogenous
158. Which type of vector is used to introduce a
bases present in four different samples of the
genetic material. Identify, which sample belongs functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes, in gene
to an RNA virus therapy for ADA deficiency?

(1) Sample A : A-23%, G-27%, C-27%, T-23% (1) Plasmid

(2) Sample B : G-22%, A-28%, C-22%, T-28% (2) Bacteriophage
(3) Sample C : U-22%, G-23%, C-23%, A-32% (3) BAC
(4) Sample D : C-8%, A-42%, G-8%, T-42% (4) Retrovirus

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159. Match column I with column II w.r.t. gestation and 163. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
choose the correct option. and organisations without authorisation from the
concerned country and its people is called
Column I Column II
(1) Bio-infringement
a. Foetus develop (i) End of second (2) Biopatent
limbs and digits trimester
(3) Biopiracy
b. First movements (ii) End of first (4) Bio-exploitation
of foetus month
164. All of the following are complications of STIs,
c. Heart formed (iii) Fifth month except
(1) Pelvic inflammatory diseases
d. Eye-lids separate (iv) End of second (2) Periodic abstinence
and eye lashes month (3) Ectopic pregnancy
are formed
(4) Still births
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 165. Colostrum is the milk produced during the initial
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) few days of lactation. It is essential to develop
resistance for the new-born babies because it
160. Which of the following is an active ATPase
contains antibodies of
enzyme?
(1) IgG type (2) IgM type
(1) Light meromyosin
(3) IgA type (4) IgE type
(2) Globular head of meromyosin
166. Carefully read the following statements and
(3) Tropomyosin
choose the option that correctly fill the blanks
(4) Tail of meromyosin (A) and (B).
161. Enzyme commission number of amylase is In human ear, the membranous labyrinth is
(1) 6.2.7.1.2 (2) 3.2.1.1 surrounded by a fluid called A , and is itself
(3) 2.3.1.4.1 (4) 3.2.1 filled with a fluid called B .
162. Consider the following statements and choose
(1) A – Perilymph, B – Endolymph
the option that correctly fill the blanks (A) and
(B). (2) A – Endolymph, B – Perilymph

Statement I : The intercellular material of (3) A – Perilymph, B – Perilymph

cartilage is A and resists compression. (4) A – Endolymph, B – Endolymph

167. Which of the following will not be released when
Statement II : Bones have a B ground there is a decrease in blood pressure/volume?
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen (1) Atrial natriuretic factor
fibres which give bone its strength.
(2) Aldosterone
(1) (A) – Hard and non-pliable
(3) ADH
(B) – Solid and pliable
(4) Renin
(2) (A) – Solid and pliable
168. Bioluminescence can be seen commonly in the
(B) – Hard and non-pliable organisms of Phylum
(3) (A) – Soft and non-pliable (1) Cnidaria
(B) – Solid and pliable (2) Ctenophora
(4) (A) – Solid and pliable (3) Coelenterata
(B) – Soft and non-pliable (4) Cyclostomata

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169. Read the following statements about enzyme co- Case I Case II
factors and choose the option that correctly
states them true (T) or false (F). (1) Natural passive Artificial passive
(A) Co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine immunity immunity
dinucleotide contain the vitamin B3
(2) Natural active immunity Natural passive
(B) Haem is the transient bound co-enzyme for immunity
enzyme catalase
(C) Co-factors are non-protein constituents that (3) Natural active immunity Artificial passive
bound to some enzymes, to make them immunity
catalytically active
(4) Natural active immunity Artificial active
(D) Zinc is a co-enzyme for enzyme immunity
carboxypeptidase
(A) (B) (C) (D) 174. Choose the incorrect match.

(1) T F T F (1) Oral steroidal – Inhibition of ovulation

(2) F F T T contraceptive pills
(3) F F T F (2) IUDs – Inserted by doctors and
(4) T T T F expert nurses in uterus
170. The mating of more closely related individuals (3) Copper releasing – Make the uterus
within the same breed for 4-6 generations is IUDs unsuitable for
known as implantation, inhibit
(1) Out-crossing ovulation
(2) Inbreeding
(4) Hormone – Make cervix hostile to
(3) Cross-breeding releasing IUDs the sperms
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
175. Study the alimentary canal of cockroach and
171. A gene is expressed in a host organism, which select the option that correctly define the
does not naturally have this gene or gene structure whose function is given below.
fragment. Such a host organism is called as
(1) Novel host
(2) Heterologous host
(3) Non-recombinant host
(4) Homologous host
172. The crops engineered for glyphosate are
resistant/ tolerant to
(1) Nematodes (2) Herbicides
(3) Worms (4) Bacteria
173. Study the following given cases carefully. (i) A structure which secrete digestive juice.
Case I : A person is infected by SARS CoV-2, (ii) A structure used for storing of food.
with very mild symptoms and is quarantined at (iii) A structure which helps in removal of
home. He gets healthy within few days without excretory products from haemolymph.
taking any medications.
(iv) A structure which help in grinding the food
Case II : Another person also got infected by particles.
same coronavirus strain, with severe symptoms
like difficulty in breathing, sore throat, fever and (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
has lost the sense of smell and taste. He has (1) A B C D
been admitted to hospital and given convalescent (2) D A C B
plasma therapy.
(3) C B D A
Which type of immunity is associated with the
above two cases? (4) C A D B

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176. Which of the following can be caused by anxiety, 181. Read the following statements about cells
food poisoning, over eating and spicy food? present in gastric glands and choose the correct
option.
(1) Indigestion
Statement I : Paneth cells secrete mucus.
(2) Constipation
Statement II : Chief cells secrete HCl and
(3) Diarrhoea
intrinsic factor.
(4) Jaundice
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
177. Read the statements w.r.t dinosaurs and choose correct
the correct option. (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Statement I : About 85 mya, the dinosaurs incorrect
suddenly disappeared from the earth. (3) Both statements are correct
Statement II : Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 (4) Both statements are incorrect
feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like 182. To form the shoulder joint, glenoid cavity
teeth. articulates with the
(1) Both statements are correct (1) Clavicle
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) Scapula
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (3) Head of the humerus
incorrect
(4) Acromian process
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 183. Flavr savr variety of tomato, remains fresh for a
correct longer period than normal tomato due to
178. Select the incorrect match. (1) Presence of pest resistance gene
(1) JG cells of kidney – Erythropoietin (2) Over expression of gene coding for enzyme
(2) CCK – Stimulate secretion of polygalacturonase
gastric juice (3) Silencing of gene coding for enzyme
(3) Gastrin – Stimulates secretion of polygalacturonase
HCl and pepsinogen (4) Presence of vitamin A and C
(4) GIP – Inhibits gastric motility 184. Study the given statements about HIV.
179. An Rh -ve female, conceive twin boys in her first (i) The primary target cells for HIV are
pregnancy. What is the probability of suffering macrophages and helper T-lymphocytes
from erythroblastosis foetalis in this first (ii) HIV is a non-enveloped retrovirus, having two
pregnancy by the Rh +ve foetus? identical molecules of ss RNA genome
(1) 33.3 per cent (iii) HIV gets attached to the CD8 receptors
present on helper T-lymphocytes, to gain
(2) 50 per cent
entry in them
(3) 0 per cent
(iv) A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(4) 100 per cent enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
180. How many features given below in box are (ELISA)
present in skeletal muscles? (v) Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs
is only partially effective
Voluntary, Uninucleate, Attached to bones,
How many of the above given statements are
Striations, Intercalated discs
correct?
(1) Two (1) Two
(2) Three (2) Four
(3) One (3) Five
(4) Four (4) Three

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185. Which of the following animal evolved into first 192. Read the following statements about blood and
amphibians that lived on both land and water? choose the option that correctly states them true
(1) Neopilina (2) Lobe finned fishes (T) or false (F).
(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Ichthyosaurs (A) A healthy individual has 12-16 g of
SECTION-B haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood

186. All of the following structures of internal ear are (B) IgA antibodies are mainly involved in allergic
responsible for maintenance of balance of the reactions
body and posture except (C) Eosinophils resist infections and are
(1) Crista ampullaris (2) Macula utriculi associated with allergic reactions
(3) Macula sacculi (4) Organ of Corti (D) Spleen is the graveyard of RBCs
187. Which part of the brain is involved in the (A) (B) (C) (D)
regulation of sexual behaviour?
(1) T T T T
(1) Corpora quadrigemina
(2) F T T T
(2) Only hypothalamus
(3) T F F T
(3) Limbic system and hypothalamus
(4) T F T T
(4) Cerebellum
193. The brain capacities of Homo habilis were
188. Read the following statements w.r.t regulation of
respiration and choose the correct option. (1) 900cc (2) 650-800cc
Statement I : Respiratory rhythm centre present (3) 1400cc (4) 1350cc
in the medulla region of brain, is primarily
194. Complete the analogy
responsible for regulation of normal rhythm of
breathing. Industrial pollutants : Occupational respiratory
Statement II : The role of oxygen in the disorders :: Cigarette smoking : ______
regulation of respiratory rhythm is very (1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
significant.
(3) Rhinitis (4) Heart attack
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
195. The copy number of the linked DNA in the vector,
correct
is controlled by a sequence called as
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect (1) Ori site

(3) Both statements are correct (2) Selectable marker

(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) Palindromic sequence

189. How many external rows of ciliated comb plates (4) Recognition site
are usually present in the body of comb jellies? 196. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
(1) 8 (2) 12 Animal kingdom
(3) 10 (4) 16
(1) Ctenophora – Radial symmetry
190. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquitoes is an
example of (2) Aschelminthes – Coelomate
(1) Stabilising selection (3) Annelida – Segmentation present
(2) Balancing selection
(4) Platyhelminthes – Incomplete digestive
(3) Disruptive selection system
(4) Directional selection
197. Select the odd one out regarding excretion in
191. In which of the following connective tissue, cells
cockroach.
does not secrete fibres of collagen or elastin?
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (1) Urecose glands (2) Nephrocytes

(3) Blood (4) Bone (3) Antennal glands (4) Fat body

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198. Complete the analogy for the following Choose the option that mention only correct
Flagellar movement : Spermatozoa : : Amoeboid statements.
movement (1) Only a, b and c
(1) Ciliated epithelial cells (2) Only a and c
(2) RBCs (3) Only b, c and d
(3) Leucocytes (4) a, b, c and d
(4) Cuboidal epithelial cells
200. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
199. Consider the following statements regarding contraceptives
hormonal disorders
(1) Natural method of – Periodic
a. Grave’s disease is a form of hypothyroidism
contraception abstinence
b. Excessive secretion of growth hormone after
puberty leads to acromegaly (2) Copper releasing – CuT
c. Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex IUD
disorder called diabetes mellitus
(3) Hormone releasing – Multiload 375
d. Cretinism is the defective development and IUD
maturation of the growing baby due to
hypothyroidism during pregnancy (4) Non-medicated IUD – Lippes loop

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Edition: 2020-21