NEET FTS-3 (CODE-A) HA 27-03-2020 Hindi PDF
NEET FTS-3 (CODE-A) HA 27-03-2020 Hindi PDF
NEET FTS-3 (CODE-A) HA 27-03-2020 Hindi PDF
Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456
Test - 3
Topics covered :
Physics : d.kksa dk fudk; rFkk ?kw.kZu xfr] xq:Rokd"kZ.k
Chemistry : Å"ekxfrdh] lkE;koLFkk
Botany : dksf'kdk: thou dh bdkbZ] dksf'kdk pØ o dksf'kdk foHkktu, ikniksa esa ifjogu
Zoology : ikpu ,oa vo'kks"k.k] 'olu vkSj xSlksa dk fofue;
funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsaA
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA
PHYSICS
(1)
Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
3. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular 3. f=T;k R rFkk æO;eku M dh ,d pdrh ls] dsUæ ls
R
hole of radius is removed from a distance 3R R
4 nwjh ls f=T;k dk ,d o`Ùkh; fNæ fu"dkflr
4 4
3R fd;k tkrk gSA pdrh ds 'ks"k Hkkx dk ry ds
from centre. The moment of inertia of
4 yEcor~ v{k rFkk ewy pdrh ds dsUæ ls xqtjus okys
remaining part of disc about an axis perpendicular
v{k ds lkis{k tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS
to plane and passing through centre of original
disc is 255
(1) MR 2
255 512
(1) MR 2
512 238
(2) MR 2
238 512
(2) MR 2
512 237
(3) MR 2
237 512
(3) MR 2
512
253
(4) MR 2
253 512
(4) MR 2
512
4. ,d fcUnq æO;eku m ,d jLlh ftldk ,d fljk
4. A point mass m moves in a circle of radius R with ,d fNæ ls xqtjrk gS] dh lgk;rk ls ,d fpduh
speed v on a smooth horizontal table, with the
{kSfrt est ij pky v ls f=T;k R ds o`Ùk esa xfr
help of a string whose other end passes through a
hole. By pulling the string, the radius of circle is 2R
djrk gSA jLlh dks [khapdj o`Ùk dh f=T;k dks
2R 3
reduced to . The final angular momentum of rd ?kVk;k tkrk gSA æO;eku dk vafre dks.kh;
3
mass is laosx gS
3 3
(1) mvR (1) mvR
2 2
2 2
(2) mvR (2) mvR
3 3
(3) mvR (3) mvR
1 1
(4) mvR (4) mvR
3 3
5. Three identical uniform spheres, each of mass M 5. æO;eku M rFkk f=T;k R okys rhu le:i xksyksa dks
and radius R, are placed as shown in figure. The
fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj j[kk tkrk gSA v{k AB ds
moment of inertia of the system about the axis AB
is lkis{k fudk; dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS
46 36 46 36
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2 (1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
5 5 5 5
19 17 19 17
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2 (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
5 5 5 5
(2)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
7. The moment of inertia of a uniform triangular 7. le:i æO;eku ?kuRo ds ,d le:i f=Hkqtkdkj
lamina of uniform mass density will be (all three iVy dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gksxk (lHkh rhuksa v{k iVy
axis lie in the plane of lamina) ds ry esa fLFkr gSa)
(3)
Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
10. A torque of 10 N m is applied on a wheel having 10. 10 N m dk cyk?kw.kZ dks.kh; laosx 5 kg m2/s okys
angular momentum 5 kg m2/s. If torque is ,d ifg;s ij vkjksfir gSA ;fn cyk?kw.kZ ifg;s dh
supporting the motion of wheel, then angular
momentum of the wheel after 3 second is
xfr dks lgk;rk çnku djrk gS] rc 3 lsd.M ds
ckn ifg;s dk dks.kh; laosx gS
(1) 35 kg m2/s (2) 30 kg m2/s
(1) 35 kg m2/s (2) 30 kg m2/s
(3) 40 kg m2/s (4) 25 kg m2/s
(3) 40 kg m2/s (4) 25 kg m2/s
11. Two rings each of mass M and radius R, are
placed with common centre such that their planes
11. æO;eku M rFkk f=T;k R ds nks oy;ksa dks mHk;fu"B
are mutually perpendicular. The moment of inertia dsUæ ds lkFk bl çdkj j[kk tkrk gS fd buds ry
of the system about an axis through the centre ijLij yEcor~ gSaA fudk; dk dsUæ ls xqtjus okys
and perpendicular to plane of one of the ring is v{k rFkk ,d oy; ds ry ls yEcor~ v{k ds lkis{k
5 2
tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS
(1) MR 2 (2) MR
2 5 2
(1) MR 2 (2) MR
2
3 2
(3) MR 2 (4) 2MR
2 3 2
(3) MR 2 (4) 2MR
2
12. A particle of mass 2 kg is projected at an angle of
60° above the horizontal, with a speed 12. æO;eku 2 kg ds ,d d.k dks {kSfrt ds Åij 60° ds
20 m/s. The magnitude of angular momentum of dks.k ij pky 20 m/s ls ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA tc
the particle about point of projection, when it is at d.k vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ ij gksrk gS] rc ç{ksi.k fcUnq ds
maximum height will be
lkis{k d.k ds dks.kh; laosx dk ifjek.k gksxk
(1) 300 kg m2/s (2) 120 3 kg m2/s (1) 300 kg m2/s (2) 120 3 kg m2/s
(3) 40 3 kg m2/s (4) 150 kg m2/s (3) 40 3 kg m2/s (4) 150 kg m2/s
13. Four similar particles of mass m are orbiting in a 13. æO;eku m ds pkj leku d.k vius xq:Rokd"k.kZ cy
circle of radius r in the same angular direction ds dkj.k leku dks.kh; fn'kk esa f=T;k r ds ,d o`Ùk
because of their gravitational attractive force. The
esa pDdj yxkrk gSA çR;sd d.k dk osx gS
velocity of each particle is
1 GM GM
1 GM GM (1) (1 + 2 2) (2) (1 + 2 2)
(1) (1 + 2 2) (2) (1 + 2 2) 2 r r
2 r r
GM 1 + 2 2 GM 1 + 4 2
(3) (4)
GM 1 + 2 2 GM 1 + 4 2 r 2 r 2
(3) (4)
r 2 r 2
(4)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
14. A point P lies on the axis of a fixed ring of 14. ,d fcUnq P dsUæ O ls nwjh R 3 ij æO;eku M
mass M and radius R at a distance R 3 from rFkk f=T;k R dh fLFkj oy; ds v{k ij fLFkr gSA
centre O. The particle starts from P and reach at
d.k oy; rFkk d.k ds eè; xq:Rokd"kZ.k ds çHkko esa
O under gravitational attraction between ring and
particle. The speed of particle at distance R from P ls xfr çkajHk djrk gS rFkk O rd igq¡prk gSA
centre is dsUæ ls nwjh R ij d.k dh pky gS
GM 2GM GM 2GM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R R R R
GM GM GM GM
(3) ( 2 − 1) (4) ( 2 − 1) (3) ( 2 − 1) (4) ( 2 − 1)
2R R 2R R
15. Two small masses M1 and M2 are placed at 15. nks NksVs æO;ekuksa M1 rFkk M2 dks ,d nwljs ls d nwjh
distance d apart. The minimum speed with which ij j[kk x;k gSA nks æO;ekuksa ds eè; ,d eè;fcUnq
a particle of mass m projected from a point ls ç{ksfir æO;eku m ds ,d d.k dh U;wure pky
midway between the two masses, so as to escape D;k gksuh pkfg, rkfd iyk;u vuUr rd gks?
to infinity, is
2G(M1 + M2 ) G(M1 + M2 )
2G(M1 + M2 ) G(M1 + M2 ) (1) v = (2) v =
(1) v = (2) v = d d
d d
G(M1 + M2 ) 1 G(M1 + M2 )
(3) v = 2 (4) v =
G(M1 + M2 ) 1 G(M1 + M2 ) d 2 d
(3) v = 2 (4) v =
d 2 d 16. dsIyj dk f}rh; fu;e (vFkkZr~ {ks=Qy fu;e) fdl
16. Kepler’s second law (i.e. law of area) is based on ij vk/kkfjr gS?
(1) Law of conservation of area (1) {ks=Qy laj{k.k dk fu;e
(2) Law of conservation of momentum (2) laosx laj{k.k dk fu;e
(3) Law of conservation of angular momentum (3) dks.kh; laosx laj{k.k dk fu;e
(4) Law of conservation of energy (4) ÅtkZ laj{k.k dk fu;e
17. Kinetic energy of a satellite in an orbit depends on 17. ,d d{kk esa ,d mixzg dh xfrt ÅtkZ fdl ij
(1) Mass of satellite only fuHkZj djrh gS?
(2) Radius of orbit only (1) dsoy mixzg ds æO;eku ij
(3) Mass of central planet only (2) dsoy d{kk dh f=T;k ij
(4) All mass of satellite, mass of central body and (3) dsoy dsUæh; xzg ds æO;eku ij
radius of orbit
(4) mixzg ds æO;eku] dsUæh; oLrq ds æO;eku rFkk
18. The amount of work done in bringing three
d{kk dh f=T;k lHkh ij
particles each of mass 0.1 kg slowly from infinity,
to the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 0.2 18. æO;eku 0.1 kg ds rhu d.kksa dks vuUr ls Hkqtk
m is 0.2 m ds leckgq f=Hkqt ds 'kh"kks± rd ykus esa fd,
(1) –1.0 × 10
–11
J (2) 1.0 × 10
–11
J x, dk;Z dh ek=k gS
–11 –11
(3) –2.0 × 10
–11
J (4) 2.0 × 10
–11
J (1) –1.0 × 10 J (2) 1.0 × 10 J
–11 –11
(3) –2.0 × 10 J (4) 2.0 × 10 J
19. Two particles of equal mass M go round a circle of
radius R under the action of their mutual 19. leku æO;eku M ds nks d.k vius vU;ksU;
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle xq:Rokd"kZ.k dh fØ;k ds çHkko esa f=T;k R ds ,d
is o`Ùk ds pkjksa vksj tkrk gSA çR;sd d.k dh pky gS
GM GM GM GM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R 2R R 2R
GM 1 GM GM 1 GM
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3R 2 R 3R 2 R
(5)
Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
20. Consider a planet in solar system which has mass 20. lkSj-e.Mj esa ,d xzg ij fopkj dhft, ftldk
equal to that of the earth and average density
æO;eku i`Foh ds æO;eku ds leku gS rFkk vkSlr
twice that of the earth. If an object weighs w on
earth, then its weight on planet is ?kuRo i`Foh ds vkSlr ?kuRo ls nksxquk gSA ;fn ,d
oLrq dk i`Foh ij Hkkj w gS] rc xzg ij bldk Hkkj
(1) w (2) 2 w
gS
2/3 1/3
(3) (2) w (4) 2 w
(1) w (2) 2 w
21. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of 2/3 1/3
(3) (2) w (4) 2 w
earth is g, the speed with which a body hit the
earth surface, when released from a height equal
21. ;fn i`Foh dh lrg ij xq:Roh; Roj.k g gS] tc ,d
to radius of earth is oLrq dks i`Foh dh f=T;k ds cjkcj Å¡pkbZ ls NksM+k
tkrk gS] rc i`Foh dh lrg ls oLrq fdl pky ls
(1) gR (2) 2gR
Vdjk;sxh?
gR (1) gR (2) 2gR
(3) 2 gR (4)
2 gR
(3) 2 gR (4)
22. Three particles of masses 2M, m and 3M are 2
placed at points A, B and C respectively with 22. æO;eku 2M, m rFkk 3M ds rhu d.kksa dks Øe'k%
3 fcUnqvksa A, B rFkk C ij j[kk x;k gS rFkk
BC = AB. m is very small than 2M and at time
2 3
t = 0 they are all at rest. At subsequent times
BC = AB. m, 2M ls vR;f/kd NksVk gS rFkk le;
2
before any collision takes place t = 0 ij ;s lHkh fojkekoLFkk ij gSaA fdlh Hkh VDdj
ds gksus ls igys vuqorhZ le; ij
(6)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
26. Two small kids weighing 8 kg and 12 kg, are trying 26. 8 kg o 12 kg Hkkj ds nks NksVs cPps] dsUæ ij vkyEc
to balance a seesaw of total length 3 m with the
fulcrum at centre. If one of the kid is sitting at one
okys 3 m dqy yEckbZ ds >wys dks larqfyr djus dh
end, the distance of other kid from fulcrum is dksf'k'k djrs gSA ;fn ,d cPpk ,d fljs ij cSBk
gqvk gS] rc vkyEc ls vU; cPps dh nwjh gS
(1) 1.5 m (2) 4/3 m
(3) 1.4 m (4) 1.0 m (1) 1.5 m (2) 4/3 m
(3) 1.4 m (4) 1.0 m
27. A uniform cylinder is released, from rest from top
of an inclined plane of inclination θ and length l. If 27. ,d le:i csyu dks vkufr θ o l yEckbZ ds vkur
cylinder rolls without slipping, the speed of ry ds 'kh"kksZ ls fojke ls NksM+k tkrk gSA ;fn csyu
cylinder at bottom of plane is fcuk fQlys yq<+drk gS] rc ry ds iSans ij csyu dh
4 2 pky gS
(1) gl sin θ (2) gl sin θ
3 3 4 2
(1) gl sin θ (2) gl sin θ
(3) gl sin θ (4) 2gl sin θ 3 3
(3) gl sin θ (4) 2gl sin θ
28. A cubical block of mass M and edge length l slides
down a rough inclined plane of inclination θ with a 28. M æO;eku o Hkqtk yEckbZ l dk ,d ?kukdkj xqVdk
uniform velocity. The torque of the normal force on ,dleku osx ls θ vkufr ds [kqjnjs vkur ry ij
the block about the centre of cube has a
uhps fQlyrk gSA ?ku ds dsUæ ds lkis{k xqVds ij
magnitude
vfHkyEc cy ds cyk?kw.kZ dk ifjek.k gS
1
(1) Zero (2) mgl cos θ 1
2 (1) 'kwU; (2) mgl cos θ
2
1
(3) mgl sin θ (4) mgl cos θ 1
2 (3) mgl sin θ (4) mgl cos θ
2
29. The linear mass density of a rod of length l, with
29. l yEckbZ dh NM+ dk gYdk fljk ewy fcUnq ij gS] NM
lighter end at origin is given λ= (2 + 3 x 2 ). The
dk js[kh; æO;eku ?kuRo λ= (2 + 3 x 2 ) gSA ewy
distance centre of mass of rod from origin is
fcUnw ls NM+ ds æO;eku dsUæ dh nwjh gS
l (4 + 3l 2 ) l (4 + 3l 2 )
(1) (2) l (4 + 3l 2 ) l (4 + 3l 2 )
(2 + l 2 ) 2(2 + l 2 ) (1) (2)
(2 + l 2 ) 2(2 + l 2 )
l (4 + 3l 2 ) l
(3) (4) l (4 + 3l 2 ) l
4(2 + l 2 ) 2 (3) (4)
4(2 + l 2 ) 2
30. A circular plate of diameter d is kept in contact
with a square plate of edge d as shown in figure.
30. d O;kl dh o`Ùkh; IysV dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj d
The thickness and density of material are same Hkqtk dh oxkZdkj IysV ds lEidZ esa j[kk tkrk gSA
everywhere. The centre of mass of composite inkFkZ dh eksVkbZ rFkk ?kuRo lHkh txg leku gSA
system will be la;qDr fudk; dk æO;eku dsUæ gksxk
(7)
Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
31. Consider a gravity free hall in which a tray of mass 31. ,d xq:Ro eqDr gkWy ij fopkj dhft, ftlesa m
M, carrying a cubical block of ice of mass m and æO;eku o Hkqtk L dh cQZ ds ?kukdkj xqVds xzg.k
edge L, is at rest in the middle. If ice melts by what
distance does the centre of mass of the tray and
fd, gq, M æO;eku dh ,d Vªs eè; esa fojke esa gSA
ice system descend? ;fn cQZ fi?kyrh gS] rc fdruh nwjh ls Vªs dk
æO;eku dsUæ rFkk cQZ fudk; uhps vkrs gS?
L
(1)
3 L
(1)
3
L
(2) L
4 (2)
4
L
(3) L
2 (3)
2
(4) Zero
(4) 'kwU;
32. The escape velocity from a spherical planet is
about v0 km/s. The escape velocity from a planet
32. ,d xksyh; xqg ls iyk;u osx dk eku yxHkx
v0 km/s gSA xzg nksxquh f=T;k o ekè; vkSlr ?kuRo
having twice the radius and half the mean density
okys xzg ls iyk;u osx gS
(1) v 0 2
(1) v 0 2
v0
(2) v0
2 (2)
2
(3) 2v 0 (3) 2v 0
(4) 4v 0 (4) 4v 0
33. The force between a hollow sphere of mass M and 33. dks'k ds vUnj M æO;eku ds [kks[kys xksys o fcUnq
point mass m inside the shell is æO;eku m ds eè; cy gS
(8)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
34. The correct variation in the value of acceleration 34. tc ge i`Foh dh lrg ls dsUæ dh vksj xfr djrs
due to gravity(g) with depth (d) as one moves
gS] rc xgjkbZ (d) ds lkFk xq:Roh; Roj.k (g) ds eku
towards the centre from surface of earth is
esa lgh ifjorZu gS
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
(9)
Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
39. A man of mass 50 kg is at one end of 6 m long 39. 50 kg æO;eku dk ,d O;fDr 'kkar ty esa fojke esa
boat of mass 100 kg rests in still water. The man fLFkr 100 kg æO;eku dh 6 m yEch uko ds ,d
moves to the centre of boat and sits there. The
centre of mass of the system will shift by
fljs ij gSA O;fDr uko ds dsUæ dh vksj xfr djrk
gS rFkk ogk¡ cSBrk gSA fudk; dk æO;eku dsUæ
(1) 0 m (2) 1 m
fdruk foLFkkfir gksxk?
(3) 5/3 m (4) 1.5 m
(1) 0 m (2) 1 m
40. A force F= 2iˆ + β jˆ + 3kˆ is acting at a point having (3) 5/3 m (4) 1.5 m
position r = 8iˆ + 6 ˆj + 12kˆ . The value of β for 40. ,d cy F= 2iˆ + β jˆ + 3kˆ fLFkfr r = 8iˆ + 6 ˆj + 12kˆ
which angular momentum about origin is okys fcUnw ij dk;Zjr gSA β ds fdl eku ds fy,
conserved, is
ewyfcUnw ds lkis{k dks.kh; laosx lajf{kr gS?
1 3
(1) (2) 1 3
3 2 (1) (2)
3 2
(3) 1 (4) –1 (3) 1 (4) –1
41. The ratio of the acceleration of a disk of mass m 41. fcuk fQlys vkufr dks.k θ ij uhps yq<+dus rFkk
and radius R rolling down an incline of angle θ fcuk yq<+ds vkur ij uhps fQlyus ds fy, m
without slipping and slipping down the incline
æO;eku o R f=T;k dh pdrh ds Roj.k dk vuqikr
without rolling is
gS
1 3
(1) (2) 1 3
3 4 (1) (2)
3 4
2 2
(3) (4) 2 (3) (4) 2
3 3
42. A rope is wound around a solid cylinder of mass 3 42. ,d jLlh dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj 3 kg æO;eku o
kg and radius 20 cm as shown in the figure. A 20 cm f=T;k ds Bksl csyu ds ifjr% ck¡/kk tkrk gSA
mass of 4 kg is suspended from the other end and
4 kg æO;eku dks ,d fljs ls yVdk;k tkrk gS rFkk
released. The linear acceleration of 4 kg mass is
NksM+k tkrk gSA 4 kg æO;eku dk js[kh; Roj.k gS
4g 5g 4g 5g
(1) (2) (1) (2)
11 11 11 11
6g 8g 6g 8g
(3) (4) (3) (4)
11 11 11 11
43. A person sitting firmly over a rotating chair has his 43. ,d ?kw.khZ dqlhZ ij n`f<+r cSBk ,d O;fDr viuh
arms stretched. If he fold his arms, his kinetic Hkqtkvksa dks rkfur fd, gq, gSA ;fn og Hkqtk,sa eksM+rk
energy about the axis of rotation gS] rc ?kw.kZu v{k ds lkis{k bldh xfrt ÅtkZ
(1) Increases (1) c<sxh
(2) Decreases (2) ?kVsxh
(3) Remain same (3) leku jgsxh
(4) May increase or decrease (4) cM+ ;k ?kV ldrh gS
(10)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
44. A satellite moving around the earth in a circular 44. ,d mixzg i`Foh ds pkjksa vksj r f=T;k dh o`Ùkh;
orbit of radius r with speed v, if suddenly loses
some of its energy. Then
d{kk esa v pky ls xfr'khy gS] ;fn vpkud viuh
dqN ÅtkZ [kks nsrk gS, rc
(1) r will increase and v will decrease
(1) r c<+sxk rFkk v ?kVsxk
(2) Both r and v will decrease
(2) r rFkk v nksuksa ?kVsaxs
(3) Both r and v will increase
(3) r rFkk v nksuksa c<sxsa
(4) r will decrease and v will increase
(4) r ?kVsxh rFkk v c<+sxh
45. The density of a planet is two times that of the
earth, and acceleration due to gravity at the 45. ,d xzg dk ?kuRo i`Foh ds ?kuRo dk nksxquk gS] rFkk
surface of planet is half that at the surface of xzg dh lrg ij xq:Roh; Roj.k i`Foh dh lrg ij
earth. If radius of earth is R, then the radius of xq:Roh; Roj.k dk vk/kk gSA ;fn i`Foh dh f=T;k R
planet would be gS] rc xzg dh f=T;k gksxh
R R
(1) (2) 2 R (1) (2) 2 R
2 2
R R
(3) (4) 4 R (3) (4) 4 R
4 4
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is a path function? 46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d iFk Qyu gS\
(1) Internal energy (2) Enthalpy (1) vkarfjd ÅtkZ (2) ,UFkSYih
(3) Entropy (4) Heat (3) ,UVªkWih (4) Å"ek
47. For a reaction, 47. ,d vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ∆H = 25 kJ mol–1 rFkk
∆H = 25 kJ mol and ∆S = 75 JK mol .
–1 –1 –1
∆S = 75 JK–1 mol–1 gSA
The minimum temperature above which the fdl U;wure rki ij mijksDr vfHkfØ;k Lor%
reaction is spontaneous will be izofrZr gksxh\
(1) 200 K (2) 233.3 K (1) 200 K (2) 233.3 K
(3) 333.3 K (4) 400 K (3) 333.3 K (4) 400 K
48. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction 48. ;fn vfHkfØ;k H2 + I2 2HI ds fy, lkE; fu;rkad
H2 + I2 2HI is K, then the equilibrium constant 1 1
K gS, rks vfHkfØ;k HI H2 + I2 ds fy, lkE;
1 1 2 2
for the reaction HI H2 + I2 will be fu;rkad gksxk
2 2
1 1
(1) K2 (2) (1) K2 (2)
K K
1
1 (3) (4) K
(3) (4) K K2
K2
49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ∆H =∆U
49. For which of the following reaction, ∆H =∆U ?
gS\
(1) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(1) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(3) 2HI(g) I2(g) + H2 (g) (3) 2HI(g) I2(g) + H2 (g)
(4) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (4) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
50. For the following processes 50. fuEufyf[kr izØe ds fy, ∆H (kJ/Mol) ds eku uhps
∆H (kJ/Mol) fn, x, gSa
A → B –x A → B –x
2B → C + D– y
2B → C+D –y
E+B → 3C –z
E+B → 3C –z
2A + 3B → 3D + E ds fy,, ∆H gksxk
For, 2A + 3B → 3D + E, ∆H will be
(1) 2z + x – 2y (2) z – 2x + 3y
(1) 2z + x – 2y (2) z – 2x + 3y
(3) – z + 2x – 2y (4) z – 2x – 3y
(3) – z + 2x – 2y (4) z – 2x – 3y
51. ;fn 10 eksy vkn'kZ xSl fuokZr esa izlkfjr gksrh gS]
51. If 10 moles of an ideal expands in vacuum, then
the work done will be rks fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk
(1) Zero (2) 10 J (1) 'kwU; (2) 10 J
52. If enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B, C 52. ;fn pkj vEy A, B, C rFkk D dh mnklhuhdj.k
and D are – 50, – 20, – 53 and – 42 kJ eq–1, ,UFkSYih Øe'k% – 50, – 20, – 53 rFkk – 42 kJ eq–1 gS,
respectively when they are neutralised by a tc ;s ,d lkekU; {kkj }kjk mnklhuhd`r gksrs gSa]
common base then the strongest acid among the
rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls izcy vEy gS
following is
(1) A (2) B
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(3) C (4) D
53. fuEufyf[kr izØeksa esa ls fdlesa ,UVªkWih c<+rh gS\
53. In which of the following processes, entropy
increases? (1) v.Ms dk mcyuk
(1) Boiling of egg (2) jcM+ dks [khapuk
(2) Stretching of rubber (3) ty dk fgeu
(3) Freezing of water (4) ty ok"i dk la?kuu
(4) Condensation of water vapour 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d foLrh.kZ xq.k gS\
54. Which of the following is an extensive property?
(1) rki (2) vk;ru
(1) Temperature (2) Volume
(3) ?kuRo (4) nkc
(3) Density (4) Pressure
55. 10–8 M HCl foy;u dk pH gS
55. pH of 10–8 M HCl solution is
(1) 7 (2) 6.5
(1) 7 (2) 6.5
(3) 8 (4) 6.9
(3) 8 (4) 6.9
56. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d yqbZl vEy ugha gS\
56. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?
(1) AlCl3 (2) NH3
(1) AlCl3 (2) NH3
(3) B2H6 (4) BF3
(3) B2H6 (4) BF3
57. ,d foy;u ds pH eku esa 2 ls 4 rd o`f) dh tkrh
57. The pH of a solution is increased from 2 to 4, its
gS, rc bldh H+ lkanzrk
H+ concentration will
(1) esa 100 xquk deh gksrh gS
(1) Decreased by 100 times
(2) Increased by 100 times (2) esa 100 xquk o`f) gksrh gS
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
– –
58. The conjugate acid of HSO4 is 58. HSO4 dk la;qXeh vEy gS
(1) SO24− (2) SO3 (1) SO24− (2) SO3
59. Which of the following mixtures is not a buffer? 59. fuEufyf[kr feJ.kksa esa ls dkSulk ,d cQj feJ.k
(1) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
ugha gS\
(2) NH4OH and NH4Cl (1) CH3COOH rFkk CH3COONa
(1) 5 × 10–9 (2) 1 × 10–10 60. ;fn HX dk Ka 1 × 10–4 gS, rks X– vk;u dk Kb gksxk
(3) 1 × 10–4 (4) 2 × 10–5 (1) 5 × 10–9 (2) 1 × 10–10
61. For the reversible reaction (3) 1 × 10–4 (4) 2 × 10–5
PCl5(g) + heat PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) 61. fuEufyf[kr mRØe.kh; vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE; vxz
The equilibrium will shift in the forward direction
fn'kk esa foLFkkfir gksxk
(1) By decreasing the temperature PCl5(g) + Å"ek PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(3) x kJ (3) x kJ
(4) 2x kJ
(4) 2x kJ
65. Total heat capacity for adiabatic process is
65. :)ks"e izØe ds fy, dqy Å"ek /kkfjrk gS
(1) Zero (2) 1 (1) 'kwU; (2) 1
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
66. Work done in a reversible isothermal expansion is 66. mRØe.kh; lerkih; izlj.k esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gS
given by
Vf
V (1) – 2.303 nRT log
(1) – 2.303 nRT log f Vi
Vi
Pi
P (2) – 2.303 nRT log
(2) – 2.303 nRT log i Pf
Pf
Vf
V
(3) 2.303 nR log
(3) 2.303 nR log f Vi
Vi
(4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
(4) Both (1) and (2)
67. 21 g ,yqfefu;e ds rki dks 250 K ls 350 K rd
67. The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 21 g of aluminium from 250 K to
c<+kus ds fy, vko';d Å"ek dh ek=k gS
350 K is (Specific heat of aluminium is (,yqfefu;e dh fof'k"V Å"ek 0.9 J (°C)–1 g–1 gS)
0.9 J (°C)–1 g–1) (1) 1590 J (2) 2010 J
(1) 1590 J (2) 2010 J (3) 1890 J (4) 2400 J
(3) 1890 J (4) 2400 J 68. ,d xSl ds fy, γ 1.66 gS, rc xSl gksxh
68. For one of a gas, γ is equal to 1.66, the gas will
(1) ,dyijek.kqd (2) f}ijek.kqd
be
(1) Monoatomic (2) Diatomic
(3) f=ijek.kqd (4) prq"ijek.kqd
(3) Triatomic (4) Tetraatomic 69. Lor% izo`fÙk ds fy, vko';d ifjfLFkfr gS
69. Necessary condition for spontaneity is (1) ∆S 0
=
fudk;
(1) ∆Ssystem =
0 (2) ∆H 0
=
fudk;
(2) ∆Hsystem =
0 (3) ∆G =0
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
71. If enthalpies of formation of CH4(g), CO2(g) and 71. 25°C rFkk 1 atm nkc ij CH4(g), CO2(g) rFkk
H2O(l) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure are –x, H2O(l) dh lEHkou ,UFkSYih Øe'k%–x, –y rFkk
–y and – z kJ/mol respectively, then enthalpy of
– z kJ/mol gS] rks CH4 (g) dh ngu ,UFkSYih gksxh
combustion of CH4 (g) will be
(1) x – y – z kJ/mol (2) x – y – 2z kJ/mol
(1) x – y – z kJ/mol (2) x – y – 2z kJ/mol
(3) z + x – y kJ/mol (4) z – 2x – y kJ/mol
(3) z + x – y kJ/mol (4) z – 2x – y kJ/mol
72. ;fn fu;r nkc ij fudk; dks 50 J Å"ek nh tkrh gS
72. The change in internal energy if 50 J of heat is
given to the system at constant pressure and rFkk fudk; }kjk 20 J dk;Z fd;k tkrk gS] rks
20 J of work is done by the system will be vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu gksxk
(1) – 30 J (2) 30 J (1) – 30 J (2) 30 J
73. The thermodynamic process for which volume 73. fdl Å"ekxfrdh izØe ds fy, vk;ru fu;r jgrk
remains constant is gS\
(1) Isothermal process (2) Isobaric process (1) lerkih; izØe (2) lenkch izØe
(3) Adiabatic process (4) Isochoric process (3) #)ks"e izØe (4) levk;rfud
74. If the solubility of a salt A2B3 in its saturated
74. ;fn yo.k A2B3 ds lar`Ir foy;u dh foys;rk s mol
solution is s mol L–1, then its solubility product will
be L–1 gS, rks bldk foys;rk xq.kuQy gksxk
75. Which pair will show common ion effect? 75. dkSulk ;qXe lkekU; vk;u izHkko n'kkZ,xk\
(1) HCN + NaCN (2) HCl + NaCl (1) HCN + NaCN (2) HCl + NaCl
(3) NaOH + NaCl (4) H2SO4 + Na2SO4 (3) NaOH + NaCl (4) H2SO4 + Na2SO4
76. At temperature higher than 25°C, which of the 76. 25°C ls mPp rki ij 'kq) ty ds lanHkZ esa
following options is correct regarding pure water? fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk fodYi lgh gS\
(1) [H+] = [OH–], pH = 7 (1) [H+] = [OH–], pH = 7
77. If for a reaction, 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) , KC is 77. ;fn vfHkfØ;k 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) ds fy, KC
2 × 104. Then the Kp for the reaction at the same 2 × 104 gS] rks leku rki ij vfHkfØ;k ds fy, Kp
temperature will be gksxk
(1) 2 × 104(RT)2 (2) 2 × 104 RT (1) 2 × 104(RT)2 (2) 2 × 104 RT
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
79. Enthalpy change for the reaction, 79. vfHkfØ;k 4O(g) → 2O2 (g) ds fy, ,UFkSYih ifjorZu
4O(g) → 2O2 (g) is –a kJ. The dissociation energy –a kJ gSA O-O cU/k dh fo;kstu ÅtkZ gS
of O-O bond is (1) –4a kJ (2) –a/2 kJ
(1) –4a kJ (2) –a/2 kJ (3) a/2 kJ (4) 2a kJ
(3) a/2 kJ (4) 2a kJ 80. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk H2O esa vR;f/kd foys;'khy
80. Which of the following is most soluble in H2O? gS\
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5.0× 10–13)
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5.0× 10–13)
(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8× 10–10)
(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8× 10–10)
(3) CuS (Ksp = 6.3 × 10–36)
(3) CuS (Ksp = 6.3 × 10–36)
(4) AgI (Ksp = 8.3 × 10–17)
(4) AgI (Ksp = 8.3 × 10 )
–17
81. ,lhfVd vEy rFkk lksfM;e ,lhVsV ds leku eksy
81. The pH of 1 L solution containing equal moles of ;qDr 1 L foy;u dk pH gS (,lhfVd vEy dk pKa =
acetic acid and sodium acetate is
4.74)
(pKa of acetic acid = 4.74)
(1) 9.47 (2) 4.74
(1) 9.47 (2) 4.74
(3) 5.82 (4) 6.91
(3) 5.82 (4) 6.91
82. 0.3 M HCl rFkk 0.1 M NaOH dks leku vk;ru esa
82. pH of a solution obtained by mixing equal feykus ij izkIr foy;u dk pH gS
volumes of 0.3 M HCl and 0.1 M NaOH is
(1) 1 (2) 1.5
(1) 1 (2) 1.5
(3) 2 (4) 2.5
(3) 2 (4) 2.5 83. 0.1 M CH3COOH ds fo;kstu dh dksfV gS
83. Degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH3COOH is (Ka = 1 × 10-5)
(Ka = 1 × 10–5) (1) 0.01 (2) 0.02
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.025 (4) 0.05
(3) 0.025 (4) 0.05 84. 500 K rFkk lkE; ij ,d can ik= esa H2 dh lkaærk
84. At equilibrium, the concentrations of H2 = 1 × 10 M,
–2 = 1×10–2 M, N2 dh lkaærk = 4 × 10–1 M rFkk
N2 = 4 × 10–1 M and NH3 = 2 × 10–3 M in a sealed NH3 dh lkaærk = 2 × 10–3 M gSA fuEufyf[kr
vessel at 500 K. The value of Kc for the reaction vfHkfØ;k ds fy, Kc dk eku gksxk
N2(g) + 3H2 2NH3(g) will be N2(g) + 3H2 2NH3 (g)
(1) 0.01 (2) 100 (1) 0.01 (2) 100
(3) 0.1 (4) 10 (3) 0.1 (4) 10
85. Bomb calorimeter is used to calculate 85. ce dSyksjhehVj dk mi;ksx fdldh x.kuk ds fy,
(1) ∆U (2) ∆G fd;k tkrk gS\
(3) ∆H (4) ∆S (1) ∆U (2) ∆G
(3) Exchange of only energy is possible (3) dsoy ÅtkZ dk fofue; laHko gS
(4) Exchange of only matter is possible (4) dsoy nzO; dk fofue; laHko gS
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
87. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a 87. ;fn ,d vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE; fu;rkad dk eku 2
reaction is 2 × 107, then at equilibrium the system × 107 gS, rks lkE; ij fudk; esa gksxk
will contain
(1) vf/kdka'k mRikn
(1) Mostly products
(2) vf/kdka'k vfHkdkjd
(2) Mostly reactants
(3) dsoy vfHkdkjd
(3) Only reactants
(4) Equal concentrations of reactants and (4) leku lkanzrk ds vfHkdkjd rFkk mRikn
products 88. 27°C ij ,d ;kSfxd ds xyu dh xqIr Å"ek
88. Latent heat of fusion of a compound is 3000 J/mol gS] rc ÅtkZ ifjorZu gksxk
3000 J/mol at 27°C. Entropy change will be
(1) 12 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 10 JK–1 mol–1
(1) 12 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 10 JK–1 mol–1
(3) 0.1 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 1.5 JK–1 mol–1
(3) 0.1 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 1.5 JK–1 mol–1
89. 25 °C ij nqcZy vEy o nqcZy {kkj ds tyh; foy;u
89. At 25°C, the pH of an aqueous solution of a weak
acid and a weak base is given by
dk pH gS
(1) pH = 7 + (pKa – pKb) (1) pH = 7 + (pKa – pKb)
1
(2) pH = 7 −
1
(pK a − pK b ) (2) pH = 7 − (pK a − pK b )
2 2
1
1
7 + ( pK a − pK b )
(3) pH = 7 + ( pK a − pK b )
(3) pH =
2 2
7 + ( pK b − pK a )
(4) pH =
7 + ( pK b − pK a )
(4) pH =
BOTANY
91. The non membranous cell organelle common to 91. f>Yyh jfgr dkSulk dksf'kdkax çksdSfj;ksV~l o
both prokaryote and eukaryote is ;wdSfj;ksV~l nksuksa esa mHk;fu"V gksrk gS?
(1) Centriole (2) Nucleoid (1) rkjddsUæ (2) U;wfDy;kWM
(3) Ribosome (4) Nucleolus (3) jkbckslkse (4) dsfUæd
92. Prokaryotic cell cannot have 92. çksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk esa ugha gks ldrk gS
(1) dsUædh; f>Yyh
(1) Nuclear membrane
(2) xq.klw=
(2) Chromosome
(3) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
(3) Cell wall
(4) IykTek f>Yyh
(4) Plasma membrane 93. çksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk ds fy, vlqesfyr dh igpku
93. Identify the incorrect match for prokaryotic cell. dhft,A
(1) Mesosome – Respiration (1) ehlkstkse – 'olu
(2) IykfTeM – thuksfed DNA
(2) Plasmid – Genomic DNA
(3) XykbdksdsfyDl – thokf.od dksf'kdk dks
(3) Glycocalyx – Protects bacterial cell
lqjf{kr j[krk gS
(4) Chromatophore – Photosynthetic pigment (4) ØksesVksQksj – çdk'kla'ysf"kr o.kZd
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
(18)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
100. The smallest cell organelle is not found in/on 100. lcls NksVh dksf”kdkax fdl ij ugha ik, tkrs gSa\
(1) Plastids (2) Mitochondria
(1) IykfLVM ¼yod½ (2) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k
(3) RER (4) Nucleolus (3) RER (4) dsfUnzd
101. Which of the given is true for cilia but false for 101. fn;k x;k dkSulk i{ekHk ds fy, lgh gS ijUrq
prokaryotic flagella?
izksdSfj;ksfVd d”kkHk ds fy, xyr gS\
(1) Help in locomotion (1) pyu esa lgk;d gksrk gS
(2) Made up of tubulin proteins (2) V~;wC;wfyu izksVhu dk cuk gksrk gS
(3) Is extension of cell wall (3) dksf”kdkfHkfÙk dk foLrkj.k gksrk gS
(4) Basal body is made up of proteinaceous rings (4) vk/kkjh dk; izksVhu;qDr oy;ksa dk cuk gksrk gS
102. A. Centrioles form spindle fibres during cell 102. A. rkjddsUnz dksf”kdk foHkktu ds nkSjku rdqZ rarqvksa
division. dk fuekZ.k djrk gS
B. Higher plant cells lack spindle fibres as they B. mPp ikni dksf”kdkvksa esa rdqZ rarqvksa dk vHkko
lack centrioles. gksrk gS D;ksafd buesa rkjddsUæksa dk vHkko gksrk
(1) Only A is true gS
(2) Only B is true (1) dsoy A lgh gS
(2) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Both A and B are true
(3) A o B nksuksa lgh gSa
(4) Both A and B are false
(4) A o B nksuksa xyr gSa
103. Nucleolus
103. dsfUnzd
(a) Is non membrane bound structure
(a) f>Yyh jfgr lajpuk gS
(b) Is larger and more numerous in cells (b) dksf”kdk foHkktu ds varxZr dksf”kdkvksa esa cM+h o
undergoing cell division.
vf/kd la[;k esa gksrh gS
(c) Is the site of 70S ribosome assembly. (c) 70S jkbckslkse lewgu dk LFky gksrk gS
(1) Only (a) is true (1) dsoy (a) lgh gS
(2) Only (b) is true (2) dsoy (b) lgh gS
(3) Both (a) and (b) are true (3) (a) o (b) nksuksa lgh gSa
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) are true (4) (a), (b) o (c) lHkh lgh gSa
104. The chromosome having p and q arm 104. p o q Hkqtk okys xq.klw=
(1) Appear V-shaped during anaphase (1) Ik”pkoLFkk ds nkSjku V-vkdkjh gksrk gS
(2) mi&e/;dsUnzh xq.klw= gS
(2) Is sub-metacentric chromosome
(3) vaR;dsUnzh xq.klw= gS
(3) Is telocentric chromosome
(4) ds ,d fljs ij xq.klw=fcUnq gksrk gS
(4) Has centromere at its one end
105. thokf.od dksf”kdk dks fpifpik vfHky{k.k iznku
105. The structure which provides gummy or sticky djus okyh lajpuk
character to bacterial cell, is
(1) isIVkbMksXykbdsu dh cuh gksrh gS
(1) Made up of peptidoglycan
(2) dksf”kdk dh vkd`fr fu/kkZfjr djus ds fy,
(2) Responsible to determine the shape of the cell mÙkjnk;h gksrh gS
(3) Comprises of polysaccharides (3) ikWyhlSdsjkbM~l dh cuh gksrh gS
(4) Found in all bacterial cells (4) lHkh thokf.od dksf”kdkvksa esa ik;k tkrk gS
106. Identify single membrane bound cell organelle 106. buesa ls ,dy f>Yyhc) dksf”kdkax dh igpku
among these dhft,A
(1) Mitochondria (2) Centriole (1) ekbVksdkf.Mª;k (2) rkjddsUnz
(3) Plastid (4) Lysosome (3) yod ¼IykfLVM½ (4) ykblkslkse
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
(20)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
114. Activity of all of the given cell organelles can be 114. fdlds vfrfjDr fn, x, lHkh dksf”kdkaxksa dh
seen in a germinating fatty or oil containing seed, fØ;kfof/k] vadqj.k olk ;k rsy okys cht esa gks
except ldrk gS\
(1) Mitochondria (2) Glyoxysome (1) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k (2) XykbvkWDlhlkse
(3) gfjryod (4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
(3) Chloroplast (4) Both (1) and (3)
115. fdl izkoLFkk esa dksf”kdk,¡ dsoy mikip;h :Ik ls
115. The phase in which cells are only metabolically
lfØ; gksrh gS ijUrq izpqj ek=k esa ugha gksrh gSa\
active but do not proliferate, is
(1) G2 izkoLFkk (2) varjkykoLFkk
(1) G2 phase (2) Interkinesis
(3) G0 izkoLFkk (4) G1 izkoLFkk
(3) G0 phase (4) G1 phase 116. ØkseSfVM~l dk foikVu fdl nkSjku gksrk gS\
116. Separation of chromatids are seen during (1) iwokZoLFkk (2) Ik”pkoLFkk
(1) Prophase (2) Anaphase (3) vaR;koLFkk (4) e/;koLFkk
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase 117. v/kZlw=h foHkktu I ds ckn mRiUu gksus okyh iq=h
dksf”kdk,¡ v/kZlw=h foHkktu II ds ckn mRiUu gksus
117. Daughter cells produced after meiosis I are similar
to daughter cells produced after meiosis II, in
okyh iq=h dksf”kdkvksa ds leku gksrh gS
(1) xq.klw= la[;k esa
(1) Chromosome number
(2) DNA dh ek=k esa
(2) DNA content
(3) vkuqoaf”kd laiwjd esa
(3) Genetic compliment (4) izfr xq.klw= esa ØkseSfVM~l dh la[;k esa
(4) Chromatid number per chromosome 118. fdlds vfrfjDr ,d prq’d lHkh ls lEcfU/kr gksrk
118. A tetrad is related with all, except gS\
(1) LFkwyiV~V ¼iSdsVhu½ esa gksrk gS
(1) Seen is pachytene
(2) ,d ;qxyh prq’d ds :Ik esa gksrk gS
(2) A bivalent appear as tetrad
(3) esa 4 flLVj ØksesfVM~l gksrs gSa
(3) Contains 4 sister chromatids (4) v/kZlw=h II esa ugha gksrk gS
(4) Not seen in meiosis II 119. vf/kdka'k dksf'kdkax G1 çkoLFkk esa f}xqf.kr gksrk gS
119. Most cell organelles duplicate in G1 phase but ijUrq rkjddsUæ o ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dk f}xq.ku fdl
duplication of centriole and mitochondria is seen nkSjku gksrk gS\
during (1) S çkoLFkk
(1) S phase (2) G2 çkoLFkk
(2) G2 phase (3) Øe'k% S rFkk G2 çkoLFkk
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
127. Withdrawal of protoplast of a plant cell from its 127. ijklj.kh fØ;k ds dkj.k ikni dksf'kdk ls ty dh
wall due to excessive loss of water from cell due
to osmotic action, is
vR;f/kd gkfu ds dkj.k bldh dksf'kdk fHkfÙk ls
thoæO; dk vyx gksuk D;k dgykrk gS\
(1) Plasmolysis
thoæO;dqapu
(1)
(2) Endosmosis
(2) var%ijklj.k
(3) Deplasmolysis
(3) thoæO;fodqapu
(4) Active transport
(4) lfØ; ifjogu
128. The correct expression for a flaccid cell is
128. <+hyh dksf'kdk ds fy, lgh vfHkO;Dru gS
(a) DPD = OP
(a) DPD = OP
(b) ψ s =0
(b) ψ s =0
(c) TP = Negative
(c) TP = _.kkRed
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(1) (a) rFkk (b) (2) (b) rFkk (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a) rFkk (c) (4) lHkh (a), (b) rFkk (c)
129. Absorption of water by hydrophilic substance
129. foy;u ds fuekZ.k ds fcuk tyjkxh inkFkZ }kjk ty
without forming a solution is called
dk vo'kks"k.k D;k dgykrk gS?
(1) Plasmolysis
(1) thoæO;dqapu
(2) Imbibition
(2) var%'kks"k.k
(3) Osmosis
(3) ijklj.k
(4) Deplasmolysis
(4) thoæO;fodqapu
130. Symplastic pathway of water movement involves
all, except 130. fdlds vfrfjDr ty dh xfr ds flIykfLVd iFkØe
esa lHkh lfEefyr gksrs gS?
(1) Cytoplasm
(1) dksf'kdæO;
(2) Plasmodesmata
(2) IykTeksMsLekVk
(3) Cell wall
(3) dksf'kdkfHkfÙk
(4) Vacuole
(4) jl/kkuh
131. A. Root pressure is related to re-establishment of
continuous chains of water molecules in xylem 131. A. ewynkc ok"iksRltZu }kjk mRiUu o`gr ruko ds
under enormous tension created by varxZr tkbye esa ty v.kqvksa dh lrr Ük`a[kyk
transpiration. ds iqu%LFkkiu ls lacaf/kr gSA
B. Root pressure is responsible for guttation. B. ewy nkc fcUnqL=ko ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gSA
(1) Only A is true (1) dsoy A lgh gS
(2) Only B is true (2) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Both A and B are true (3) A o B nksuksa lgh gSa
(4) Both A and B are false (4) A o B nksuksa xyr gS
132. Absorption of water by roots is maximum in 132. ewyksa }kjk ty dk vo'kks"k.k vf/kdre gksrk gS
(1) Soil with high salt concentration (1) mPp yo.k lkaærk okys e`nk esa
(2) Water logged soil (2) tykØkafr e`nk esa
(3) Soil with 0°C (3) 0°C okys e`nk esa
(4) Well watered and well aerated soil (4) ty;qDr o okru;qDr e`nk esa
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
133. Complete the below given statement by choosing 133. A o B ds fy, lgh fodYi ds p;u }kjk uhps fn,
correct option for A and B.
x, dFku dks iw.kZ dhft,
“ A microfibrils are oriented B and make it
“ A lw{erarqd B vfHkfoU;Lr gksrs gS rFkk ja/kz ds
easier for the stoma to open.
[kqyus ds fy, bls vklku cukrk gS
A B
A B
(1) Pectin Longitudinally
isfDVu
(1) yacor :i ls
(2) Cellulose Radially
(2) lsY;wykst vjh; :i ls
(3) Pectin Radially (3) isfDVu vjh; :i ls
(4) Cellulose Longitudinally (4) lsY;wykst yacor :i ls
134. Choose the odd one for chief sink for mineral 134. [kfut rRoksa ds eq[; flad ds fy, fo"ke in dk
elements. p;u dhft,
(1) Meristematic cells (1) foHkT;ksRdh dksf'kdk
(2) Developing fruits (2) ifjo/kZu Qy
(3) th.kZ i.kZ
(3) Senescent leaves
(4) r:.k i.kZ
(4) Young leaves
135. ¶yks,e jl fdlds vfrfjDr eq[;r% vU; lHkh dk
135. Phloem sap mainly consists of all, except
cuk gksrk gS
(1) Sucrose (2) Water (1) lqØkst (2) ty
(3) Inorganic nitrogen (4) Hormones (3) vdkcZfud ukbVªkstu (4) gkeksZu
ZOOLOGY
136. Select the incorrect match w.r.t role of following 136. fuEufyf[kr tBjh; dksf'kdkvksa dh Hkwfedk ds lanHkZ
gastric cells. esa xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) 'ys"ek xzhok – E;wdl L=for djrh
(1) Mucus neck – Secrete mucus
cells dksf'kdk,a gS
(2) eq[; dksf'kdk,a – isfIlukstsu L=for
(2) Chief cells – Secrete pepsinogen djrh gS
(3) Parietal cells – Secrete vitamin B12 (3) iSjkbVy – foVkfeu B12 L=for
dksf'kdk,a djrh gS
(4) Oxyntic cells – Secrete HCl
(4) vkWfDlfUVd – HCl L=for djrh gS
137. In which type of dentition, a set of deciduous teeth dksf'kdk,a
is replaced by a set of permanent teeth? 137. fdl çdkj ds nar foU;kl esa] nw/k ds nkarksa dk
(1) Heterodont (2) Thecodont leqPp; LFkk;h nkarksa ls çfrLFkkfir gks tkrk gS?
(3) Diphyodont (4) Monophyodont (1) fo"kenarh (2) xrZnarh
138. The enzyme that is not present in pancreatic juice (3) f}ckjnarh (4) ,dckjnarh
is 138. og ,atkbe tks vXuk'k;h jl esa mifLFkr ugha gksrk
(1) Lipase gS
(1) ykbist
(2) Enterokinase
(2) ,UVsjksdkbust
(3) Chymotrypsinogen
(3) dkbeksfVªfIlukstu
(4) Amylase
(4) ,ekbyst
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
144. Tooth enamel is A in origin and is secreted by 144. nk¡r dk buSey mRifÙk eas A gksrk gS rFkk B
B . Here A and B respectively are }kjk L=for gksrk gSA ;gk¡ A o B Øe'k% gS
(1) Ectodermal, Ameloblasts (1) ,DVksMeZy, bySeydksjd (vehyksCykLV)
(2) Ectodermal, Odontoblasts (2) ,DVksMeZy, vksMksUVksCykLV
(3) Mesodermal, Osteoblasts (3) ehlksMeZy, vfLFkdksjd
(4) Mesodermal, Ameloblasts (4) ehlksMeZy, buSeydksjd (vehyksCykLV)
145. Read statements A and B and select the correct 145. A vkSj B dFkuksa dks if<+, vkSj lgh fodYi dk p;u
option. dhft,A
A. The saliva secreted by salivary glands A. ykj xzafFk;ksa }kjk L=for ykj nar {k; ds fo:)
provides protection against dental caries. j{kk çnku djrh gS
B. Glisson’s capsule is associated with pancreas B. Lru/kkfj;ksa esa fXylu laiqV vXuk'k; ls lacaf/kr
in mammals.
gksrk gSA
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) dFku A rFkk B nksuksa lgh gS
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) dFku A rFkk B nksuksa xyr gS
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (3) dFku A lgh gS fdUrq B xyr gS
(4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct (4) dFku A xyr gS fdUrq B lgh gS
146. Cystic duct is associated with 146. fiÙkk'k;h ufydk lacaf/kr gksrh gS
(1) Liver (1) ;d`r ls
(2) Pancreas (2) vXuk'k; ls
(3) Parotid gland (3) d.kZiwoZ xzafFk ls
(4) Gall bladder (4) fiÙkk'k; ls
147. How many of the given items in the box are 147. ckWDl esa fn, x, inksa esa ls fdrus ykj esa L=for
secreted in the saliva? gksrs gS?
+ + + +
Na , K , Amylase, Lysozyme, HCO3− ions Na , K , ,ekbyst] ykblkstkbe, HCO3− vk;u
148. Which layer of wall of gastrointestinal tract is 148. tBjka=h; iFk fHkfÙk dh dkSulh ijr :ikrafjr gksdj
modified to form gastric glands and crypts of tBjh; xzafFk;k¡ vkSj yhcjdqu-çxqfgdk fufeZr djrh
Lieberkuhn? gS?
(1) Mucosa (1) E;wdkslk
(2) Serosa (2) fljkslk
(3) Sub-mucosa (3) lc-E;wdkslk
(4) Muscularis (4) eLdqysfjl
149. An elongated and compound gland situated 149. ,d nhf?kZr vkSj la;qDr xzafFk tks ‘C’ vkdkj dh xzg.kh
between the limbs of the ‘C’ shaped duodenum is ds eè; mifLFkr gksrh gS
(1) Spleen (2) Pancreas (1) Iyhgk (2) vXuk'k;
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Thymus gland (3) ,Mªhuy xzafFk (4) Fkkbel xzafFk
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
150. Which of the given statements is correct? 150. fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa ls dkSulk lgh gS?
(1) The chyme is acted on by the pancreatic juice, vXuk'k;h jl] fiÙk vkSj varr% lDdl ,sVsfjdl
(1)
bile and finally by the enzymes in the succus
esa mifLFkr ,atkbeksa }kjk dkbe ij fØ;k gksrh gS
entericus
(2) cM+h vkar esa olk] olh; vEy vkSj fXyljkWy esa
(2) Fats are converted to fatty acids and glycerol
in large intestine
ifjofrZr gks tkrh gS
(3) Dokf'kvksjdj lnSo çksVhu vkSj dSyksjh vYirk
(3) Kwashiorkor is produced by protein deficiency
always accompanied by calorie deficiency }kjk ,d lkFk mRiUu gksrk gS
(4) vf/kdka'k ikfpr vaR; mRikn o`gna= dh midyk
(4) Most of the digested end products are
absorbed into the body through the epithelial vkLrj ds ekè;e ls 'kjhj esa vo'kksf"kr gks tkrs
lining of the colon gS
151. Choose the mismatch w.r.t digestion and 151. varxzZfgr Hkkstu ds ikpu vkSj vo'kks"k.k ds lanHkZ esa
absorption of ingested food. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,
(1) Stomach – Absorption of (1) vkek'k; – ,YdksgkWy dk
alcohol vo'kks"k.k
(2) lfØ; ijfogu – vehuksa vEyksa dk
(2) Active transport – Absorption of amino
acids vo'kks"k.k
(3) lqxe ifjogu – Xywdkst dk vo'kks"k.k
(3) Faciliated – Absorption of
transport glucose (4) –
isfIlu MkbisIVkbM dks
isIVkWu esa :ikrafjr
(4) Pepsin – Converts dipeptides
to peptones djrk gS
152. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;kvksa ij fopkj djsa vkSj A, B
152. Consider the following reactions and choose the
option which correctly identifies A, B and C.
rFkk C dh lgh ls igpku djus okys fodYi dk
p;u dhft,A
A
Di and Monoglycerides → Fatty acids + A
glycerol
MkbZ rFkk eksuksfXyljkWbM~l → olh; vEy +
fXyljkWy
B
Nucleic acids → Nucleotides B
U;qfDyd vEy → U;qfDyvksVkbM~l
C
Starch → Disaccharides LVkpZ C
→MkblSdsjkbM~l
(1) A-Lipase, B-Nuclease, C- Amylase (1) A-ykbist, B-U;qfDy,st, C- ,ekbyst
(2) A-Lipase, B-Nucleotidase, C- Maltase (2) A-ykbist, B-U;wfDyvksVkbMst, C-ekYVst
(3) A-Lipase, B-Nucleosidase, C-Sucrase (3) A-ykbist, B-U;wfDyvkslkbMst, C-lqØst
(4) A-Amylase, B-Nuclease, C-Lactase (4) A-,ekbyst, B-U;qfDy,t, C-ySDVst
153. Which of the following enzyme is present only in 153. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,atkbe dsoy uotkr ds tBj
gastric juice of infants? jl esa mifLFkr gksrk gS?
(1) Lactase (1) ySDVst
(2) Sucrase (2) lqØst
(3) Trypsin (3) fVªfIlu
(4) Rennin (4) jsfUuu
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
154. The undigested and unabsorbed substances from 154. NksVh vkar ls vikfpr vkSj vuvo'kksf"kr inkFkZ cM+h
small intestine are passed to the large intestine vk¡r esa fdlds ekè;e ls tkrs gS?
through
(1) vksgh dh vojksf/kuh
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Ileo – caecal valve
(2) f=dka= dikV
(3) Sphincter of Boyden (4) Pyloric sphincter
(3) ckW;Msu dh vojksf/kuh
155. Select the incorrect match.
(4) tBjfuxZe vojksf/kuh
(1) Ciliated – Increase the 155. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
epithelial cells absorptive surface (1) i{ekHkh midyk – vo'kks"kh lrg
area
dksf'kdk,¡ {ks=Qy dks c<+krh gS
(2) Bile pigments – Bilirubin and (2) fiÙk o.kZd – fcfy:fcu vkSj
biliverdin
fcfyohMZu
(3) Vermiform – Arises from (3) d`fe:i – va/kuky ls fudyrh
appendix caecum ifj'kksf"kdk gS
(4) Ileum – Highly coiled part of (4) {kqnka= – NksVh vk¡r dk
small intestine vfrdqaMfyr Hkkx
156. All of the following are functions of the buccal 156. fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh eq[k xqgk ds dk;Z gS
cavity except (1) Hkkstu dks NksVs d.kksa ds :i esa pckuk
(1) Mastication of food into smaller particles (2) fuxyus dh fØ;k lqxe cukus gsrq pck, gq,
(2) Adhering the masticated food particles into a Hkkstu ds d.kksa dks cksyl esa fpidkuk
bolus to facilitate swallowing (3) dqN MªXl dks vo'kksf"kr djuk
(3) Absorption of certain drugs (4) yxHkx 30% çksVhu ikpu djuk vkSj varxzZfgr
(4) Carry out about 30% of protein digestiion and Hkkstu dks vo'kksf"kr djuk
absorptive function of ingested food 157. ikpd jlksa ds L=ko dk gkWeksZuy fu;a=.k] tBjh;
157. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive vkSj vk¡= E;wdkslk }kjk mRikfnr LFkkuh; gkWeksZuksa
juices is carried out by the local hormones }kjk gksrk gSA
produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.
Select an incorrect match of hormone, its source gkWeksZu] blds L=ksr vkSj dk;Z ds xyr feyku dk
and action. p;u dhft,A
Hormone Source Action
gkWeksZu L=kksr fØ;k
(1) xSfLVªu vkek'k; tBj xzafFk;ksa dks
(1) Gastrin Stomach Stimulates the tBj jl L=for o
gastric glands to
secrete and release
eqDr djus ds fy,
gastric juice çsfjr djrk gS
(2) GIP vkek'k; vXuk'k;h jl esa ckbZ-
(2) GIP Stomach Release
bicarbonates in the
dkcksZusV eqDr djrk
pancreatic juice gS
(3) lsØsfVu xzg.kh tBjh; L=ko ,oa
(3) Secretin Duodenum Decrease gastric
secretion and xfr'khyrk de
motility djrk gS
(4) CCK-PZ NksVh vk¡r fiÙk eqDr djus ds
(4) CCK-PZ Small Stimulate
intestine contraction of gall fy, fiÙkk'k; ds
bladder to release ladqpu dks çsfjr
bile djrk gS
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
158. Select the incorrect statement. 158. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is (1) nek esa 'oluh vkSj 'olfudkvksa dk 'kksFk ns[kk
seen in asthma tkrk gS
(2) One of the major causes of Emphysema is (2) okrLQhfr dk ,d eq[; dkj.k /kqeziku gS
cigarette smoking
(3) /kwy dh vf/kd ek=k ds nh?kZdkyhu çHkkou ds
(3) Long exposure to large amount of dust could
lead to fibrosis of lungs dkj.k Qq¶Qql dh ftlls js'kke;rk gksrh gS
(4) Exchange of gases increases in emphysema (4) Qq¶Qqlksa ds 'kksFk ds dkj.k okrLQhfr esa xSlksa dk
due to inflation of lungs fofue; c<+ tkrk gS
159. Vital capacity does not include 159. tSo {kerk esa lfEefyr ugha gS
(1) RV (2) ERV (1) RV (2) ERV
(3) TV (4) IRV (3) TV (4) IRV
160. Every 1000 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver 160. çR;sd 1000 feyh- vkWDlhtfur jDr lkekU; 'kjhj
around ___ ml of O2 to the tissues under normal fØ;kRed fLFkfr;ksa esa Årdksa dks yxHkx _____ feyh
physiological conditions. Choose the option that O2 çnku djrk gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks
fills the correctly. lgh :i ls iwÆr djrk gS
(1) 10 (2) 100 (1) 10 (2) 100
(3) 5 (4) 50 (3) 5 (4) 50
161. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter opens in which part 161. vkek'k;-xzfldk vojksf/kuh vkek'k; ds fdl Hkkx esa
of stomach? [kqyrh gS?
(1) Fundus (2) Cardiac (1) QaMl (2) tBjkxe
(3) Body (4) Pylorus
(3) dk; (4) tBjfuxZe
'A'
162. H+ + HCO3−
H2CO3 + 'A'
−
162. H + HCO3 H2CO3
Here enzyme ‘A’ is ;gk¡ ,atkbe ‘A’ gS
(1) ATPase (1) ATPase
(2) Carbonic anhydrase dkcksZfud ,ugkbMªst
(2)
(3) Succinic dehydrogenase (3) lfDlfud MhgkbMªksftust
(4) Ribozyme (4) jkbckstkbe
163. Which of the following is not seen during 163. var% 'olu ds nkSjku fuEu esa ls dkSulk ugha fn[kkbZ
inspiration?
nsrk gS?
(1) Decrease in intra-pulmonary pressure
(1) vkarj Qq¶Qqlh nkc esa deh
(2) Increase in the volume of the thoracic
chamber (2) o{k-xqgk ds vk;ru esa o`f)
(3) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (3) ckg~; varjki'kqZd isf'k;ksa dk ladqpu ilfy;ksa
lifting ribs and sternum vkSj mjksfLFk dks Åij mBk nsrk gS
(4) Relaxation of the diaphragm (4) Mk;kÝke dk f'kfFkyu
164. Select a correct match w.r.t. organisms and their 164. tho vkSj mudh 'olu lajpukvksa ds lanHkZ esa lgh
respiratory structures. feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Earthworm – Moist cuticle (1) dsapqvkW – ue D;wfVdy
(2) Cockroach – Gills (2) dkWdjksap – Dykse
(3) Sparrow – Buccal cavity (3) xkSjs;k¡ – eq[kxqgk
(4) Lizards – Moist skin (4) fNidyh – ueRopk
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
170. A person living on plains ascends to stay at an 170. eSnku ij jgus okyk ,d O;fDr leqæ ry ls 8000
altitude above 8000 ft. from sea level would QhV ls vf/kd Å¡pkbZ ij jgus ds fy, p<rk gS rks
develop certain symptoms in 8-24 hours. This is
8-24 ?kaVksa es bl O;fDr es dqN y{k.k fodflr gksus
called mountain sickness and is due to
yxrs gSaA bls ioZr-jksx dgrs gS tks gksrk gS
(1) Low pO2
(1) fuEu pO2 ds dkj.k
(2) Low pCO2
(2) fuEu pCO2 ds dkj.k
(3) Collapse of alveoli
(3) dwfidkvksa ds fldqMus ds dkj.k
(4) Pneumothorax (4) okro{k ds dkj.k
171. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid 171. egk/keuh pki vkSj xzhok dk; ls lacaf/kr xzkfg;ka
body are sensitive to
fdlds çfr laosnu'khy gksrh gS
+ +
(1) O2 and H (2) CO2 and H + +
(1) O2 vkSj H (2) CO2 vkSj H
(3) CO2 and O2 (4) O2 only (3) CO2 vkSj O2 (4) dsoy O2
172. The main centre of brain that regulates the 172. efLr"d dk eq[; dsUæ tks 'olu nj dks fu;fer
respiration rate is located in djrk gS] fLFkr gksrk gS
(1) Midbrain (1) eè; efLr"d esa
(2) Hypothalamus (2) gkbiksFkSysel esa
(3) Medulla oblongata (3) esMqyk vksCyksxsaVk esa
(4) Forebrain (4) vxzefLr"d esa
173. Read statements A and B and choose the correct 173. dFkuksa A vkSj B dks if<+, vkSj lgh fodYi dk p;u
option.
dhft,A
A. Pharynx is called the sound box.
A. xzluh dks èofu isfVdk dgk tkrk gSA
B. Diaphragm is a dome shaped muscular B. Mk;kÝke ,d xqacnkdkj is'kh; lajpuk gS tks
structure which separates thoracic cavity from
abdominal cavity.
o{kxqgk dks mnj xqgk ls i`Fkd djrk gS
(1) dsoy A lgh gS
(1) Only A is correct
(2) A o B nksuksa lgh gS
(2) Both A and B are correct
(3) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Only B is correct
(4) A o B nksuksa xyr gS
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
174. CO2 ds ifjogu ds lanHkZ esa dkWye I rFkk dkWye II dk
174. Match column I and column II w.r.t. transport of
CO2. feyku dhft,A
Column I Column II
dkWye I dkWye II
a. IykTek ds ekè;e ls ?kqfyr (i) 70%
a. Dissolved form through (i) 70% :i esa
plasma
b. ckbZdkcksZusV vk;uksa ds :i (ii) 7%
b. As bicarbonate ions (ii) 7% esa
c. As carbaminohaemoglobin (iii) 20-25% c. dkckZehuksgheksXyksfcu ds :i (iii) 20-25%
esa
Choose the correct option.
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
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Test-3 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020
175. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct 175. lgh fodYi dk p;u dj lkn`'; dks iw.kZ dhft,A
option.
Årdksa esa O2 vkiwfrZ dh vuqifLFkfr : vukWfDlvk : :
Absence of O2 supply to tissues : Anoxia : : Less
Årdksa esa O2 vkiwfrZ dh deh : ____
O2 supply to tissues : ____
(1) fMLuh;k
(1) Dyspnea
(2) ,sfLQfDlvk ('oklkojks/k)
(2) Asphyxia
(3) gkbiksfDl;k (vovkWDlherk)
(3) Hypoxia
(4) Eupnea
(4) ;wfIu;k
A B C
A B C
(1) d'ks:d mjksfLFk ilfy;k¡
(1) Vertebral Sternum Ribs
column
naM
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)
179. Following are the respiratory volumes of a man, 179. fuEufyf[kr ,d euq"; ds 'olu vk;ru gSA bldh
his inspiratory capacity and expiratory capacity (in var% 'olu {kerk ,oa fu%'olu {kerk Øe'k% gksxh
ml) respectively would be
TV 500 ml
TV 500 ml
IRV 2500 ml
IRV 2500 ml
ERV 1000 ml
ERV 1000 ml
RV 1100 ml
RV 1100 ml
(1) 1600 ml, 3600 ml
(1) 1600 ml, 3600 ml
(2) 3000 ml, 2100 ml
(2) 3000 ml, 2100 ml
(3) 3000 ml, 1500 ml
(3) 3000 ml, 1500 ml
(4) 2500 ml, 2100 ml
(4) 2500 ml, 2100 ml
180. fu%'olu ds nkSjku okq; dk iFk gksrk gS
180. Route of air during expiration is
(1) ok;q dwfidk → 'okluyh → 'oluh →
(1) Alveoli → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles
'olfudk,a → uklk xqgka,
→ Nasal cavities
(2) Alveoli → Bronchioles → Pharynx → Larynx
(2) ok;q dwfidk → 'olfudk,a → xzluh → daB →
→ Nasal cavities uklk xqgk,a
(3) Alveoli → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Trachea (3) ok;q dwfidk → 'oluh → 'olfudk,a → 'okluyh
→ Nasal cavities → uklk xqgk,a
(4) Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea (4) ok;q dwfidk → 'olfudk,a → 'oluh →
→ Nasal cavities 'okluyh → uklk xqgk,¡
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27/03/2020 CODE-A
Test - 3
Answer Key
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (4) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146 (4)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (3) 85. (1) 121. (2) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (1) 123. (1) 159. (1)
16. (3) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (4) 53. (1) 89. (3) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (1) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (1)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (1) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (2) 96. (1) 132. (4) 168. (1)
25. (3) 61. (3) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (3) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (4) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (4)
31. (4) 67. (3) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (1)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (1) 180. (4)
(1)
27/03/2020 CODE-A
Test - 3
PHYSICS
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
1 1
h = 20 + × 4 = 20.2 m h = 20 + × 4 = 20.2 m
20 20
7. Answer (3) 7. mÙkj (3)
Moment of inertia also depend on the mass tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ Hkh v{k ls æO;eku forj.k ij fuHkZj
distribution from the axis. djrk gSA
8. Answer (1) 8. mÙkj (1)
1 1 1 1
mv 2 + I ω2 =mgh mv 2 + I ω2 =mgh
2 2 2 2
7 7
mv 2 =mgh =2 × 10 × 7 mv 2 =mgh =2 × 10 × 7
10 10
mv 2 = 200 mv 2 = 200
1 1
=
KR = mv 2 40 J =
KR = mv 2 40 J
5 5
9. Answer (4) 9. mÙkj (4)
1 1 1 1 1 1
mv 2 + I ω2 = KX 2 mv 2 + I ω2 = KX 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 v2 1 1 1 1 v2 1
mv 2 + × mR 2 × 2 =KX 2 mv 2 + × mR 2 × 2 =KX 2
2 2 2 R 2 2 2 2 R 2
3 1 3 1
mv 2 = KX 2 mv 2 = KX 2
4 2 4 2
3m 3×2 5 3m 3×2 5
=
X v = 5 = = 0.5 m =
X v = 5 = = 0.5 m
2K 2 × 300 10 2K 2 × 300 10
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Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
L2 = 30 + 5 = 35 kg m2/s L2 = 30 + 5 = 35 kg m2/s
11. Answer (3) 11. mÙkj (3)
I= I1 + I2 I= I1 + I2
1 3 1 3
=MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2 =MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2
2 2 2 2
12. Answer (1) 12. mÙkj (1)
L =×
r P= −300(kˆ ) kg m2s−1 L =×
r P=−300(kˆ ) kg m2s−1
GMM 1 1 Mv 2 GMM 1 1 Mv 2
+ = 4 + =
r 2 4 2 r r2 2 r
1 GM 1 GM
=v (1 + 2 2) =v (1 + 2 2)
2 r 2 r
1 GMm 1 1 1 GMm 1 1
= mv 2 − = mv 2 −
2 R 2 2 2 R 2 2
GM GM
=v ( 2 − 1) =v ( 2 − 1)
R R
G(M1 + M2 ) G(M1 + M2 )
v =2 v =2
d d
(4)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
(5)
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
(6)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
l l l l
2∫ xdx + 3 ∫ x 3dx 2∫ xdx + 3 ∫ x 3dx
0 0
= l l 2 = 0
l l
0
2∫ dx + 3 ∫ x dx 2∫ dx + 3 ∫ x 2dx
0 0 0 0
3 4 3 4
l2 + l l2 + l
4 l (4 + 3l 2 ) 4 l (4 + 3l 2 )
= 3
= = 3
=
2l + l 4(2 + l 2 ) 2l + l 4(2 + l 2 )
30. Answer (2) 30. mÙkj (2)
Centre of mass lies towards heavier object. æO;eku dsUæ Hkkjh oLrq dh vksj mifLFkr gS
31. Answer (4) 31. mÙkj (4)
In gravity free space Fext is zero. xq:Ro eqDr f=foe esa Fext 'wkU; gSA
32. Answer (1) 32. mÙkj (1)
v0 ∝ R d
v0 ∝ R d
v0 R d 1 v0
= = R d 1
vP d 2 = =
2R vP d 2
2 2R
2
vP = v0 2 vP = v0 2
33. Answer (3) 33. mÙkj (3)
Inside a spherical shell gravitational field is zero xksyh; dks'k ds vUnj çR;sd LFkku ij xq:Roh; {ks=
everywhere.
'kwU; gSA
34. Answer (2)
34. mÙkj (2)
d
g ′ g 1 −
= d
Re g ′ g 1 −
=
Re
g
g′ =
− d +g g
Re g′ =
− d +g
Re
=
y mx + c
=
y mx + c
35. Answer (4)
35. mÙkj (4)
36. Answer (2)
36. mÙkj (2)
2
mghR 1 2gR 2
= m mghR 1 2gR
R + h 2 2 = m
R + h 2 2
mghR 1 m2gR
= mghR 1 m2gR
R+h 2 4 =
R+h 2 4
4h= R + h 4h= R + h
R R
h= h=
3 3
(7)
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
g = 2 m/s2 g = 2 m/s2
aR 2 aR 2
= =
aS 3 aS 3
(8)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
CHEMISTRY
(9)
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
(10)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
= 1890 J = 1890 J
(11)
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
= (2s) (3s)
2 3
= (2s)2 (3s)3
= 4s2 27s3 = 4s2 27s3
= 108s5 = 108s5
75. Answer (1) 75. mÙkj (1)
76. Answer (4) 76. mÙkj (4)
On increasing temperature, dissociation rki esa o`f) gksus ij fo;kstu vf/kd gksrk gSA
increases.
77. mÙkj (3)
77. Answer (3)
KP = KC (RT)∆ng
KP = KC (RT)∆ng
2 × 104
2 × 104 KP = 2 × 104 (RT)–2 =
KP = 2 × 104 (RT)–2 = (RT)2
(RT)2
78. mÙkj (2)
78. Answer (2)
79. mÙkj (3)
79. Answer (3)
80. Answer (2)
80. mÙkj (2)
For the given salts fn, x, yo.kksa ds fy,
s = K sp s = K sp
= 4.74 = 4.74
82. Answer (1) 82. mÙkj (1)
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
4 × 10 −6 4 × 10 −6
= = 10 = = 10
4 × 10 −1 × 1× 10 −6 4 × 10 −1 × 1× 10 −6
85. Answer (1) 85. mÙkj (1)
86. Answer (3) 86. mÙkj (3)
87. Answer (1) 87. mÙkj (1)
88. Answer (2) 88. mÙkj (2)
Latent Heat xqIr Å"ek
∆S = ∆S =
Temperature rki
3000 J / mol 3000 J / mol
= =
300K 300K
= 10 JK–1 mol–1 = 10 JK–1 mol–1
89. Answer (3) 89. mÙkj (3)
90. Answer (1) 90. mÙkj (1)
N2O4 2NO2 N2O4 2NO2
BOTANY
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
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Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
ZOOLOGY
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
The hard chewing surface / covering of the teeth is buSey ls cuh nkarksa dh pckus okyh dBksj lrg
made up of enamel which helps in mastication of Hkkstu dks pckus esa enn djrh gSA ;g buSey ekuo
food. This enamel is the hardest substance in the 'kjhj esa lcls dBksj inkFkZ gS tks buSey dksjd
human body, secreted by ameloblast cell
dksf'kdk (mRifÙk esa ,DVksMeZy) ls L=for gksrk gSA
(ectodermal in origin). Hard enamel is formed
principally of calcium phosphate.
dBksj buSey eq[; :i ls dSfY'k;e QkWLQsV dk cuk
gksrk gS
145. Answer (3)
145. mÙkj (3)
Glisson’s capsule is associated with mammalian
liver. fXylu laiqV Lru/kkjh ds ;d`r ls lacaf/kr gksrk gSA
146 Answer (4) 146 mÙkj (4)
The duct of gall bladder is called cystic duct. fiÙkk'k; dh ufydk fiÙkk'k;h ufydk dgykrh gSA
Duct of parotid gland is called Stenson’s duct. iSjksfVM xzafFk dh ufydk LVsalu ufydk dgykrh gSA
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Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
(18)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
(19)
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020
Cardiac notch is present in left lung to dkfMZ,d [kk¡p ân; dks lek;ksftr djus gsrq ck;sa
accommodate heart. The rate of breathing in a Qq¶Qql esa mifLFkr gksrk gSA fojkekoLFkk esa lkekU;
normal healthy man at rest is 12-16 times/min. LoLFk ekuo esa 'olu dh nj 12-16 ckj/feuV gSA
Trachea divides at the level of 5th thoracic
'okluyh 5 osa o{kh; d'ks:d ds Lrj ij foHkkftr
vertebra.
gksrh gSA
166. Answer (2)
166. mÙkj (2)
A spirometer cannot measure RV.
LikbjksehVj RV dks ugha eki ldrk gSA
167. Answer (4)
167. mÙkj (4)
Pneumonia occurs due to bacterial infection.
U;qeksfu;k thokf.od laØe.k ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
168. Answer (1)
168. mÙkj (1)
The O2- dissociation curve is plotted with partial
O2- fo;kstu oØ O2 ds vkaf'kd nkc vkSj O2 ds lkFk
pressure of O2 and percentage saturation of
haemoglobin with O2. gheksXyksfcu dh çfr'kr lar`fIr lfgr vkysf[kr fd;k
tkrk gSA
169. Answer (3)
169. mÙkj (3)
Diffusion membrane is made up of three
layers : folj.k f>Yyh rhu ijrksa dh cuh gksrh gS :
→ Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli that lines → ok;q dwfidk dh iryh 'kYdh midyk tks bls
it. vkLrfjr djrh gSA
→ Endothelial lining of alveolar capillaries that → ok;q dwfidh; dsf'kdkvksa dh ,aMksFkhfy;y vkLrj
surround it. tks bls vkofjr djrh gSA
→ Basement substance between squamous → ok;qdwfidk dh 'kYdh midyk vkSj ok;q dwfidh;
epithelium of alveoli and endothelium of dsf'kdkvksa dh ,aMksFkhfy;e ds eè; vk/kkj inkFkZA
alveolar capillaries.
170. mÙkj (1)
170. Answer (1)
Å¡pkbZ esa o`f) ds lkFk cSjksehfVªd nkc Øfed :i ls
The barometric pressure falls progressively with de gksrk gS] ok;qeaMyh; ok;q esa pO2 vuqikfrd :i
the rise in altitude, pO2 falls proportionately in the
ls de gksrh gSA ;g dwfidh; pO2 dks de djrk gS
atmospheric air. This lowers the alveolar pO2 and
consequently reduces the diffusion of oxygen from
rFkk ifj.kkeLo:i dwfidh; ok;q ls jDr esa
the alveolar air to the blood. vkWDlhtu ds folj.k dks de djrk gSA
171. Answer (2) 171. mÙkj (2)
The role of O2 in regulation of respiratory rhythm is 'olu y; ds fu;eu esa O2 dh Hkwfedk dkQh
quite insignificant. egRoghu gksrh gSA
172. Answer (3) 172. mÙkj (3)
Respiratory rhythm centre is located in medulla 'olu y; dsUæ i'p efLr"d ds esMwyk vksCyksxsaVk esa
oblongata of hind brain. Pneumotaxic centre is fLFkr gksrk gSA 'oklçHkkoh dsUæ i'p efLr"d ds
situated in pons of hind brain. iksal esa fLFkr gksrk gSA
173. Answer (3) 173. mÙkj (3)
Larynx is called the sound box. daB dks èofu isfVdk dgk tkrk gSA
174. Answer (4) 174. mÙkj (4)
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
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