♍ Usama Sumalani Chemistry Notes ⛎

Chapter No 1

1. The diameter of an atom is in the order of

C. 0.2nm
2. Which of the following are isoelectronic species?
D. F- Ne Na+
3. The mass spectrometer is used to determine the Mass number of isotopes and
B. Relative abundance
4. Molecular ions are formed by passing
All of the above
5. The number of peaks obtained in mass spectrometry shows
C. Number of isotopes
6. The empirical formula of chloroform is
D. CHC13
7. Which one is true about isotope?
D. Same chemical properties
8. The molecular mass of water (18g) means
1-mole molecules of water &. 1-gram molecule of water & 3-gram atoms
9. Which of the following ion formation is always exothermic?
A. Uni-negative
10. Which of the following statements about isotopes is correct?
C. Isotopes with an even atomic number and even mass number are abundant
11. The sample of isotopes of an element which needs not to be vaporized in the vaporization chamber
A. Gas
12. One mole of CO2 contains.
A. 6.022 x 1023 atoms of oxygen & C. 6.022 x 1023 atoms of carbon
Both b & c
13. Avogadro’s number may represent
A. volume of particles
B. number of particles
C. mass of particles
D. All of the above ✔
14. The number of isotopes of elements with even mass number and an even atomic number is.
C. 154
15. Size of a molecule depends upon
A. Atomicity
B. The shape of a molecule
C. Both a and b ✔
16. Which of the following terms is not used for the ionic compound?
C. Molecular formula
17. 0.36 moles of each aluminium and oxygen react with each other to produce aluminium oxide. The
amount of product formed is
A. 0.18 mole
18. Which of the following terms is used for the mass of chlorine 35.5?
A. Relative atomic mass
19. Which one of the following has the maximum number of isotopes?
C. Tin
20. Which one of the following is not the monoisotopic element?
B. Uranium
21. The volume occupied by 2.8 g of N2 at STP
A. 2.24 dm3
22. The mass of decimole of electrons (NA) is
C. 0.054 mg
23. The number of moles of CO2 which contains 16 g of oxygen is
B. 0.5
24. Which of the following statements is wrong about isotopes?
D. they possess different position in the periodic table
25. How many isotopes have an odd atomic number?
C. 86
26. Qualitative analysis is carried out for
A. identification of elements
27. Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is
C. 40%
28. Combustion analysis is performed to determine
A. Empirical formula
29. Most elements have fractional atomic masses because of
C. atomic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their relative abundance D. atomic masses
are average masses of isotopes
30. Isotopes differ in
A. properties which depend upon mass
31. Which of the following is not a macromolecule?
D. Maltose
32. Which of the following methods is used to estimate hydrogen in an organic compound?
A. Combustion method
33. Isotopes of the same elements has
C. Different number of neutrons
34. The nucleus of an atom of every element will always contain
C. Protons
35. When cationic molecular ions are allowed to pass through strong magnetic field in mass spectrometer
which of the following ions is fallen
A. Lighter
36. When 0.5 mole of phosphoric acid is dissolved in aqueous solution how many moles of -ve and +ve
ions are collected altogether?
D. 2
37. For which of the following compounds the term empirical formula cannot be applied?
D. It can be applied to all mentioned above
38. Dempster’s mass spectrometer has a number of zones/parts
A. 5
39. The properties of an element mostly correspond to that isotope which has greater
C. Relative abundance
40. 1 a.m.u =
A. 1.6 x 10-27 kg

Chapter No 2

1. Isotopes differs in
D. chemical properties
2. The mass of one mole of an electron is
B. 0.55
3. The volume occupied by 1.4g CO at S.T.P is
D. 1.12 dm3
4. The number of atoms in a molecule determines
D. atomicity
5. Which of the following set has all species isoelectronic
C. F – Ne – Na+
6. Which element has same isotopes like palladium
B. Calcium
7. Water absorber used in combustion analysis is
D. Mg (CIO4)2
8. A limiting reactant is one which
D. gives the minimum amount of the product under consideration00
9. The type of filtering media used for filtration depending upon
D. Nature of precipitate
10. A safe and more reliable method for drying the crystal is
D. Vacuum desiccator
11. A method of separation of components from its solution using Distribution law is
C. Solvent extraction
12. A real gas obeying Vander Waals equation will resemble the ideal gas if
A. Both a and b are small
13. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 250? (C) The fraction of total
pressure exerted by oxygen is
C. one / three
14. Plasma is used in
D. All of these
15. The molecules of CO2 in dry ice form
C. Molecular crystal
16. Which of the following is pseudo solid
C. Glass
17. Only London dispersion forces are present among the
D. Molecules of solid iodine
18. Bohrs model is contradicted by
C. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
19. Quantum number values for 3p orbitals are
C. n=3 l=1
20. When the fast neutron strikes the nucleus of nitrogen the particles ejected are
A. X – particles
21. Which species has unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals
B. N2-2
22. The atomic radius can be determined by
A. X-ray diffraction
23. For a given process the heat changes at constant pressure (qp) and at constant volume (qv) are related to
each other as
C. qp > qv
24. For which system does the equilibrium constant Kc has a unit of (concentration)-1
C. 2NO2 <=> N2H4
25. The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6. Maximum Concentration of Ag+1 ions in the
solution is
B. 1.414 x 10-5 mol dm-3
26. 18g glucose is dissolved in 90g water the relative lowering in vapour pressure is equal to
D. 1/51
27. Which of the following solution has the highest boiling point?
A. 5.85% NaCl Solution
28. Stronger is the oxidizing agent greater is the
D. standard reduction potential
29. Which of the following can be used in laptops?
C. Nickel-cadmium cell
30. Which is true about Zn-Cu galvanic cell?
D. An anode is negatively charged
31. Which is the unit of (K) rate constant for zero order reaction?
B. mol dm-3 s-1
32. Nitrates of which pair gives different products on thermal decomposition
C. Li Na
33. Which is carnalite
C. KCI MgCl2 6H2O
34. Keeping in view the size of an atom which is in a correct order
B. Ba > Mg
35. Which one does not give borax bead test
B. Barium sulphate
36. Which one is not the use of silicones
D. Medicine
37. The most reactive allotropic form of phosphorus is
A. White
38. The chemical composition of cinnabar is
B. HgS
39. Which molecule has the highest bond energy among the halogens
B. Chlorine
40. When chlorine is passed through a hot solution of caustic soda the reaction is said as
C. Disproportionation reaction
41. The most paramagnetic element is
A. Iron
42. In the complex [Cr(OH)3(H2O)3] the coordination number is
D. 6
43. Which one of the following looks odd
C. H2S
44. A great variety of the organic compounds is due to its property of carbon
B. Exhibit catenation
45. In 1 – pentene -4- yne the carbon exhibit hybridization
D. sp3 – sp2 – sp
46. Vinyl acetylene combines with hydrochloric acid produces
C. Chloroprene
47. When benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450?C yields
B. Maleic anhydride
48. When toluene reacts with chlorine in sunlight the first major product is
A. Benzy1 chloride
49. Which one of the following will be sulphonated readily?
B. Toluene
50. Which one of the following is not a good leaving group?
C. OH-
51. When CO2 is made to react with ethy1 magnesium iodide in dry ether followed by acid hydrolysis
yields
C. Propanoic acid
52. The process of fermentation involves all the enzymes except
D. Sucrase
53. Ethy1 chloride on reduction in the presence of Zn/HCI produces
C. Ethane
54. Which one does not exhibit aldol condensation
C. Benzaldehyde
55. For the industrial preparation of CH3CHO catalytic promoter is
B. Cu2Cl2
56. The common name of propane -1 3-dioic acid is
C. Malonic acid
57. Which of the following is not a fatty acid?
C. Phthalic acid
58. Industrial materials thermal power stations are coated with
B. Epoxy paints
59. Which one of the following fertilizers provides the nitrogen and phosphorus to the plant?
A. Urea
60. Chlorination of water may be harmful if the water contains
C. Carbon dioxide

Chapter No 3
1.
Which of the following technique is used for the separation of insoluble particles from liquids?
A. Filtration
2. Which of the following way in used for classification of chromatography?
D. All
3. The fluted filter paper is used to
C. Increase the rate of filtration
4. Safe and the most reliable method of drying crystals is through
B. Vacuum desiccators
5. A substance having a very high vapour pressure at its melting point on heating will show
B. Sublimation
6. A process controlled by Distributive law is
C. Solvent extraction
7. A technique of partition chromatography in which the solvent is in a pool at the bottom of container
B. Ascending chromatography
8. Different components of a mixture have different Rf values due to
C. Their different distribution coefficients in the solvent
9. Branch of chemistry that deals with the complete qualitative and quantitative analysis of a substance is
C. Analytical chemistry
10. Identification of the components of a sample is
B. Qualitative analysis
11. Estimation of amounts of different components in a sample is
A. Quantitative analysis
12. The technique used to separate components of a mixture in a solid phase.
C. Sublimation
13. The solid which is left over the filter paper as a result of filtration
B. Residue
14. Size of filter paper is selected according to the amount of
B. Amount of insoluble solute
15. Gooch Crucibles are made up of
C. Porcelain
16. The rate of filtration can be increased by applying gentle suction
B. Filter paper
17. Sintered crucible is made up of
B. Glass
18. The tip of funnel should touch the wall of the breaker in order to avoid
B. splashing
19. Separation of a solid from its hot saturated solution by cooling is called
D. Crystallization
20. In crystallization if the solvent is inflammable then direct heating is
B. Avoided
21. Which of the following technique is simple and efficient to purify a substancel
D. Solvent extraction
22. In solvent, extraction ether is used to separate products of organic synthesis from
A. Water
23. 95% ethanol is called
C. Rectified spiritl
24. The use of CaCl2 and PCl5 in the process of crystallization is as a
C. Drying agent
25. The ratio of the amount of solute in an organic and aqueous solvent is
B. Distribution coefficient
26. Without suction pump filtration is
B. Slow processl
27. Animal charcoal adsorbs the coloured
A. Impurities
28. Direct conversion of solids into vapours is called
B. Sublimation
29. Crystallization does not involve
B. Sublimation
30. In CCI4 I2 shows
B. Purple colour
31. Repeated extraction using small portions of solvents is more
B. Efficient
32. Silica gel and alumina are used as
B. Stationary phase
33. Shaking two immiscible liquids increases
C. Area of contact
34. The solvent or mixture of solvents used for separation of compounds is called
B. Mobile phase
35. Which is not a sublime material
D. Potash alum
36. A sintered glass is a porous material used for
D. Sublimation
37. Selection of filter paper depends on size of particles to be
A. Filtered
38. The solution remaining after the formation of crystals is called
A. Mother liquor
39. Which is not related pair of term used in analytical techniques
B. Sublimate sublimation
40. The major steps involved in complete quantitative analysis are
C. 4

Chapter No 4

1. What is the relative rate of effusion of CO and CO2?

A. CO is 1.25 times faster than CO2
2. Which of these gases diffuse more quickly than oxygen?
B. NO
3. Which of the following is not considered as an intermolecular force between molecules?
A. Coordinate covalent bonds
4. The weakest (in strength) of the following intermolecular forces is
B. Vander Waals force
5. Ideal gasses have all the following characteristics except.
C. The molecules occupy no space
6. Which of the following statements is true about plasma
A. It may be the first state of matter
B. It is not a phase transition
C. It is a conductor of electricity
D. All of the above ✔
7. Which statement is correct
A. PVmT
B. PCT
C. PMdT
D. All above ✔
8. Under what conditions the gases deviate from the ideal behaviour?
A. High-temperature
C. High-pressure
D. B and C ✔
9. Which one has the lowest density at room temperature?
C. NH3
10. The introduction of the Kelvin scale in thermometry is according to
B. Charles law
11. 0.5 mole of nitrogen gas and 0.5 mole of carbon monoxide gas at STP have same
B. Mass & Atoms
12. At constant temperature the pressure of an ideal gas is doubled its density becomes
B. Double
13. The diffusion of gases at absolute zero will be
D. Zero
14. Which of the following option is incorrect about gases?
A. All molecules move with the same speed
15. The critical temperature for different gases is different and depends upon
D. All of the above
16. In how many forms do matter exists?
B. Four
17. What is the simplest form of matter?
A. Gas
18. What is the abundant form of matter on earth?
C. Solid
19. Which state of matter has the lowest density?
A. Gas
20. What do we call to the sudden expansion of plasma?
C. Joule Thompson effect
21. The solid particles only posses
B. Vibrational motion
22. For a gas where volume and pressures are 1dm3 and 2 atm respectively what should be its new volume
when pressure is increased to 6 atm at constant temperature?
B. 1/3dm3
23. If 1/V is plotted on X-axis and pressure on Y-axis at constant temperature what should appear
C. Straight line
24. Which one is the right value for R?
A. 0.0821 atm dm3k-1mol-
25. One mole of an ideal gas at 546.5 K under 2 atm pressure has a volume of
C. 22.414 dm3
26. The partial pressure exerted by the water vapours is called
B. Aqueous tension
27. Which one is not the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs?
D. 1 atm
28. The spreading of fragrance or scent in the air is due to
A. Diffusion
29. The kinetic molecular theory of gases was put forward in 1738 by
D. Bernoulli
30. The highest temperature at which a substance can exist as a liquid is called its
A. Critical temperature
31. Hydrogen effuses four times more rapidly than the volume of an unknown gas molar mass of unknown
gas should be
B. 32 gmol-1
32. What will be the pressure of 1 mole of an ideal gas maintained at 300 K and 250cm3 volume?
A. 98.5 atm
33. The processes of effusion and diffusion are best to understand by
C. Grahams law
34. Who made volume and pressure correction to explain the deviation of gases from ideal behaviour?
D. Vander Waal
35. The non-ideal behaviour results chiefly from
C. Intermolecular attractions and finite volume
36. The gases become non-ideal at
D. Low temperature and high pressure
37. Lind’s method is employed for
D. Liquefaction of gases

Chapter No 5

1. Which of the following has strongest intermolecular forces of attraction?

C. iodine (I2)
2. Which has the strongest bonding in the solid state?
D. Sodium Chloride (NaCI)
3. When substance moves from a solid to a liquid state all of the following changes occur except
B. K.E of the molecules decreases
4. When the atoms of the third layer are arranged in such a way that they directly lie above the atoms of the
first layer then this arrangement is called
A. ABAB (hexagonal)
5. In order to mention the boiling point of water at 110?C the external pressure should be
A. Between 760 torr and 1200 torr
6. Which one is false for evaporation?
C. Exothermic
7. Vapour pressure of water at 100 degrees C is
B. 760 mm Hg
8. Which one of the following does not show hydrogen bonding?
D. Diethyl ether
9. Liquid crystal is discovered by
B. Fredrick Reinitzer
10. Which one is a conductor but is not malleable?
B. Graphite
11. Hydrogen bonding is involved in
A. Solubility
B. Cleansing action of detergents
C. Biological molecules
D. All ✔
12. Actually, the vapour pressure on the surface of a liquid in the flask is equal to
C. Pa + -h
13. Forces of attraction which may be present between all kinds of atoms and molecules are
C. van der Waal
14. The density of water may be
B. Greater than that of ice
15. The quantity of heat required to convert one mole of liquid into its vapours at its boiling point is called
molar heat of
A. Vaporization
16. Steam causes more severe burn than the boiling water because it possesses.
B. Latent heat of vaporization
17. Water has a maximum density at
C. 4°C
18. The conversion of vapours back into their liquid state is called
D. Condensation
19. Formation of vapours from the surface of a liquid is called
B. Evaporation
20. When water freezes at 0°C its density decreases due to
C. Empty space present in the structure of ice
21. The attractive forces between the partially positive end of one molecule and partial negative end of
other molecule are called
A. Dipole-dipole forces
22. The boiling point increases down the zero group element due to
B. London forces
23. Vapour pressure is not affected by
A. Surface area
24. Rising of a wetting liquid in a capillary tube is due to
C. Adhesive forces
25. Table salt crystallizes with a
B. body centred cubic lattice
26. The number of formula units in 29.25g of common salt
B. 3.01 x 1023
27. During which process empty spaces between particles become minimum?
B. condensation
28. Liquid gets the shape of the container when it is poured into it. Which one of the following reason
justifies it?
D. Liquid molecules can slide over each other
29. Which one of the following has the highest volatility
A. Diethyl ether
30. Molar heat of vaporization of water is
A. 40.7 KJ/mole
31. If we provide very high amount of heat to a liquid its boiling point will
B. remains constant
32. Crystallites are present in
B. amorphous solids
33. A solid may be made up of
A. Atoms , Ions & Molecules
34. A malleable solid is one which can be
B. Converted into thin sheets
35. Amorphous substances posses
C. No sharp melting points
36. Crystalline solids can be identified easily from their
A. Sharp melting point
37. Boiling points of hydrocarbons increase with the increase in number of carbon atoms. It is mainly due
to
B. More strength of London forces
38. Ice is ___________ crystal
B. Molecular
39. Select a pair of compounds which are isomorphic in nature.
B. MgO and NaF
40. The viscosity of solids is
A. Infinite
41. a=b=c, α=β=γ=90º is a representation of crystal system
B. Triclinic
42. The phenomenon in which a compound exists in two or more crystalline forms is called
B. Polymorphism
43. Which solids are called true solids?
C. Crystalline
44. Buckyballs is an allotropic form of
B. Carbon
45. The number amino acid units for each turn of the helix on average are
D. 27
46. Isomorphic substances have
D. Different physical and chemical properties
47. If a physical and chemical change takes place at a constant pressure then the heat change during the
process is called
C. Enthalpy change
48. The pressure during the molar heat of fusion is kept
B. one atmosphere
49. The amount of heat absorbed when one mole of a liquid is changed into gas at its boiling point is
C. The molar heat of vaporization
50. All the enthalpy changes are
A. Negative & Positive May or may not be

Chapter No 6

1. All of the following were theorized by Bohr in his description of the atom except
D. Electrons radiate energy continuously in a given orbit
2. The letters sp d and f are used to represent which quantum numbers
B. Azimuthal
3. The magnetic quantum number (QN) has its values determined directly by the value of
B. Azimuthal (QN)
4. The atomic number of an element having the maximum number of unpaired electrons in p-subshell is
A. 7
5. The maximum number of electron in a subshell with? = 3fs
C. 14
6. The radius of the third shell of H-atom is
B. 4.761 A?
7. When an atom absorbs energy the lines in the spectrum will appear which are
B. Darker
8. Colour of fluorescence produced by cathode rays depends upon
D. Composition of glass
9. Which one is not true about cathode rays?
D. Cannot ionize
10. Positive rays are produced
C. By the bombardment of cathode rays on gas molecules
11. Which one is not true about cathode rays?
D. Cannot ionize
12. Rutherford’s planet-like structure was defective and unsatisfactory because
D. All Are Correct
13. The relationship between the energy of a photon of light and its frequency is given by
C. Plancks Quantum theory
14. Splitting of spectral lines when an atom is subjected to the magnetic field is called
A. Zeemans effect
15. The velocity of the photon
A. Is independent of wavelength
16. Which one of the following explain the shape of orbitals
B. Azimuthal quantum number
17. Atom cannot be divided into simple unitstheorized by
B. Dalton
18. Pressure in gas discharge tube was kept
D. 0.01 torr
19. The number of fundamental particles in an atom of the lightest isotope carbon are
C. 18
20. Angle of deflection was studied by
D. J.Perrin
21. Increase in atomic number is observed during
B. Beta emission
22. Positive rays give flash on
D. ZnS
23. Free neutron changes into proton with the emission of
A. Neutrino & Electron
24. The value of e/m ratio of electron is
D. 1.7588 x 1011 C/kg
25. The charge of an electron was measured by
B. Millikan
26. Rutherford bombarded ______________ particles in discovery of nucleus
B. Alpha-rays
27. Planks theory says energy is emitted
B. Discontinuous manner
28. Angular momentum of an electron
D. nh/2?
29. 2nd orbit is _______ away from the nucleus of H-atom as compared to 1st orbit is
C. 4-times
30. The maximum number of orbitals present in a subshell that is represented by Azimuthal quantum
number = 3 will be
D. 7
31. The correct electronic configuration of Cu is
C. [Ar]3d104s1
32. Pfund series are produced in the spectrum of the hydrogen atom
D. when electrons jump down to 5th- orbit
33. Atomic orbits having same energy are called
A. Degenerate orbitals
34. Sommerfeld’s modification in Bohr’s model is
B. Orbit is elliptical
35. When electrons collide with heavy metals than ______ are produced.
C. X-rays
36. Plancks equation is
C. E = h?
37. An atom with higher atomic number produces X-rays of
A. Shorter wavelength
38. The wavelength of an electron was verified by
B. Davisson and Germer
39. Space around the nucleus where finding probability of electrons is maximum is called
A. Orbital
40. Quantum number which tells the energy of an electron is
A. n
41. Electronic configuration of K is
B. [Ar]4s1
42. ____________ can expel proteins from paraffins
C. Neutron
43. Millikan used __________ in his atomizer
C. Oil
44. Centrifugal forces are balanced in the atom by
A. Attractive forces
45. Spectrum is produced due to
A. Different wavelength
46. When 6d orbital is complete the entering electron goes into
C. 7p
47. When electron jump into orbit 1 then series obtained is
A. Lyman
48. Neutrons moving with an energy of 1.2 MeV are called
A. Fast Neutrons
49. Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric filed is called
B. Stark effect
50. Three quantum number has been derived from the equation of
C. Schrodinger

Chapter No 7

1. The relative attraction of the nucleus for the electrons in a chemical bond is called
C. Electronegativity
2. The ionization energy
A. Generally increases from left to right in a period
3. Which of the following will have the highest value of electron affinity
B. Cl
4. Which type of bond is formed by an overlap of p orbitals
A. Pi (π) & Sigma(Σ) both are
5. The octet rule does not always hold for which of the following elements
D. P
6. Which of the solid does not contain a covalent bond
A. Copper
7. Which of the following is the best explanation that CO2 is a non-polar molecule
B. The dipole moment is zero
8. Shielding effect across the period
C. Constant
9. Which one is not the absolute term of the element?
C. Electronegativity
10. Which one has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
B. 7Y
11. The molecule having a covalent bond
C. O2
12. When 2 lone pairs and 2 bond pair are around the central atom reduction in the bond angle is up to.
B. 104.5°
13. In O2 each oxygen atom is hybridized
B. sp2
14. Molecular orbitals are filled according to
A. Auf bau principle, Hund’s rule & Paulis Exclusion principle All are these ✔
15. Measurement of the degree of polarity is
D. Dipole moment
16. Which one shows high %age of the ionic character?
B. HF
17. A species with the maximum number of unpaired electrons.
D. NH-2
18. Which of the following have their outer most shell complete in atomic form?
A. Noble gases
19. Force responsible to hold atoms together in a compound is called
A. Bond
20. The energy of an atom in a compound is
B. Lesser than individual
21. In a period the atomic radii
B. Decreases
22. An atom loses or gains electrons to
A. Gain stability
B. Form a bond
C. Complete its outermost shell
D. all are accurate justifications ✔
23. In a group ionic radii
A. Increases
24. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom
A. Ionization potential
25. Ionization energy in a period generally
A. Increases
26. Greater shielding effect corresponds to ionization energy value
B. Lesser
27. Elements having high I.P values are
B. Non-metals
28. Energy released or absorbed when electrons are added in atom is
C. Electron affinity
29. In a period electronegativity from left to right
A. Increases
30. Ionic bond is produced after complete transfer of
C. Electrons
31. Elements of group IA IIA are
B. Electropositive
32. Bond will bionic when the E.N difference of bonded atom is
B. Greater than 1.7
33. Mostly ionic compound are produced in between elements of
B. IA IIA and VIIA
34. Which one of the following has polar covalent bond?
A. HF
35. The Lewis acids are
A. Electron-deficient
36. Sharing of 1 electron pair by one species forms
D. Coordinate covalent bond
37. Angle in a water molecule is
B. 104.5°
38. The geometry of ammonia is
D. Trigonal Pyramidal
39. Orbitals of same energy produced after mixing of orbitals of different energy are called
A. Degenerate orbitals
40. By combining n atomic orbitals no. of hybrid orbitals will be
B. n
41. On sp3 hybridization
B. One S and 3 P-orbitals are involved
42. Geometry of simple molecule having sp3 hybrid orbital is
B. Tetrahedral
43. Geometry of molecule will be pyramidal if the outer post shell of the central atom has
A. 3 bond pair one lone pair
44. Pi bonds are produced by overlapping of
A. Un-hybrid orbitals
45. According to VESPR Model the geometry of molecule having 5 bond pair in outer most shell will be
C. Trigonal bipyramidal
46. Molecular orbital which have higher energy than atomic orbitals is called
B. Antibonding molecular orbital
47. Unpaired electron in a molecule gives _________ character.
B. Paramagnetic
48. Bond order for N2 molecule is
C. 3
49. The product of charge and distance is called
D. Dipole moment
50. Unit of dipole moment is
A. Debye

Chapter No 8

1. Which one is not a state function

D. Work
2. If the ΔH value is less than zero than reaction will be
A. Exothermic
3. If the internal energy of the system is increased
A. Change in state of the system is increased
B. The temperature of the system may rise
C. The chemical reaction may take place
D. All ✔
4. Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?
B. ΔG<0
5. A reaction has values of ΔH and ΔS which are both positive. The reaction
D. Is non-spontaneous
6. ________________ is study about energy of a chemical system
A. Thermochemistry
7. The environment in which a system is studied is
C. Surrounding
8. Unit of heat in the SI system is
A. J
9. Anything which depends upon the initial and final state of a system is
C. State function
10. The total energy of a system is
A. P.E + K.E
11. Mathematical form of first law of thermodynamics is
B. ΔE = q + W
12. Reaction in which heat evolves is called
13. CuSO4 + Zn>>ZnSO4+Cu is
A. Spontaneous reaction
14. Pumping of water uphill is
B. Non-spontaneous process
15. State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon
D. Initial and final state
16. Which one of the following is a state function?
D. All of the above
17. When enthalpy of reactants is higher than the product then the reaction will be
D. Exothermic
18. Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by
A. Glass calorimeter
19. Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by
B. Bomb calorimeter
20. The lattice energy of NaCl is
D. 790 KJ/mole
21. Most of thermodynamic parameters are
D. State functions
22. ΔH of a system can be calculated by which of the following relationship
A. q=m x s x ΔT
23. Change in enthalpy (H) of a system can be calculated by the following relationship
A. ΔH=ΔE+PΔV
24. Which of the following is correct
A. qp>qv
25. Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are
C. Heat and work
26. Which of the following processes has always +H = -ve
B. Combustion
27. Enthalpy change can be
A. Calculated by Hess law & Can be measured by a calorimeter Both of them
28. If there is interconversion of solid and liquid states then
B. ΔH= ΔE
29. In order to determine Δhlatt of an ionic compound which is correct relationship
A. Δhlatt = ΔHf – ΔHx
30. Hess law can be applied to determine
A. ΔHf
B. ΔHlatt
C. ΔHcomb
D. All of the above ✔

Chapter No 9

1. The pH of 10-3 mol dm-3 of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 is

B. 2.7
2. Kc value has
A. No units B. Units Both are
3. If a buffer solution of higher pH than seven is to be made we use
D. Weak acid and its salt with the strong base
4. Sodium benzoate and benzoic acid are mixed in equimolar ration to form buffer if pKa is 2 what will be
the pH?
C. 2
5. AgCl dissolved with concentration (2×10-2) Ksp will be
D. 4 x 10-4
6. In which of the following equilibria will Kc and Kp have the same value?
D. N2 + O2 = 2NO
7. Which of the following will not change the concentration of ammonia at the equilibrium?
C. Addition of catalyst
8. pH of an aqueous solution is 5.5. The hydroxyl ion concentration in the solution would be
C. 10-8.5
9. For a reaction involving only gases at 25°C, the equilibrium constant can be expressed in terms of
molarity Ke or partial pressure Kp. Which is true about the numerical value of Kp?
D. Kc is equal to Kp if the total moles of reactants and products are equal
10. Which of following is not a base
D. BF3
11. Which set of solutes will form a buffer when dissolved in water to make 1 litre of solution?
D. 0.4 mole of NH3 with 0.2 moles of HCI
12. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will be basic?
C. Na2CO3
13. The value of Kw in an acidic aqueous solution at 298°K is
D. 1.8 x 10-9
14. The reaction which proceeds in both directions is called
A. Reversible
15. The chemical equilibrium state is
A. Dynamic state
16. Conversion of reactant into the product in unit time is called
A. The rate of forwarding reaction
17. At the start of the reaction, the concentration of reactants is
A. High
18. Unit of Kc is
D. Kc may or may not have units
19. In the case of gases, Kc is replaced by
C. Kp
20. Rate expression for ammonia synthesis is
D. Kc=4x2v2/(a-x)(b-3x)3
21. When the value of Kc is very small then
B. Product concentration Is maximum
22. The catalyst used to speed up the reaction of ammonia synthesis is
D. Pieces of Fe crystals are embedded infused mixture of MgO Al2O3 and SiO2
23. The temperature for preparation of SO3 is
A. 400-500°C
24. By the addition of base in water, pH will be
A. More than 7
25. The idea of pH and pOH was put forward by
C. Sorenson
26. Negative log of the molar concentration of H+ ions is called
A. pH
27. Ka<10-3 means
B. Very weak acid
28. Any substance which accepts H+ is base favours the concept
A. Lowrys
29. Conjugated base of a weak acid is
B. Strong
30. When sparingly soluble salt is in equilibrium with molar concentration of its oppositely charged ion
when the product is called
B. Solubility product
31. The solution having the property of a very little change in pH on adding a small amount of strong acid
or base is called
A. Buffer solution
32. Addition of CH3COOH and CH3COONa gives in water
A. Standard solution
B. Buffer solution C. Acidic buffer solution Both b & c
33. Which one of the following is a buffer solution?
B. Blood
34. The solubility of any salt can be determined from
D. Ksp
35. The pH of human blood is
B. 7.35
36. By decreasing the pressure the reaction will go to that direction where
B. Volume increased
37. The equilibrium state is achieved quickly by the addition of.
D. Catalyst
 Chapter No 10

1. Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?

A. 1 Molar solution
2. Which of the following unit of concentration is independent of temperature?
B. Molality
3. Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution?
D. Fog
4. The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of the boiling point to
B. Molality
5. Which of the following are the conditions of colligative properties
A. Non-electrolyte solute
B. Non-volatile solute
C. Dilute solution
D. All of the above ✔
6. Which has the minimum freezing point?
C. One molal CaCI2
7. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
B. Freezing point
8. Which of the following substance do not show continuous solubility curve?
B. Na2SO4. 10H2O
9. When common salt is dissolved in water?
B. The boiling point of water increase
10. Every sample of matter with uniform properties and fixed composition is called
D. Phase
11. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called
A. Solution
12. The component of the solution which is in smaller amount is called
B. Solute
13. The solution with the maximum concentration of solute at the given temperature is called
C. Saturated solution
14. 10ml of alcohol dissolve in 90ml of water unit of concentration used is
C. % v/v
15. Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called
C. Molality
16. 58.5g of NaCl per 1 dm3 of the solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be
C. 1 M
17. In partially miscible liquids the two layers are
A. Saturated solutions of each liquid
18. If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution
A. Will be an ideal solution
19. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is
B. Equal to the mole fraction of solute
C. Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
D. Both B & C ✔
20. The solution which distils over with change in composition
B. Zeotropic solution
21. Mixtures which distill over without change in composition called
B. Azeotropic mixture
C. Amphoteric mixture
22. The concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with a solid substance at a particular
temperature is called
B. Solubility
23. The solubility of KCIO3 gives
C. Continuous and rising solubility curve
24. The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoult’s law is applicable to
D. Non-volatile solute in a dilute solution
25. Boiling point elevations can be measured by
B. Landsberger method
26. Beckmann apparatus is used to measure
B. Depression in freezing point
27. Water molecules surround more around
A. +ve ion
28. The compounds in which water molecules are added are called
C. Hydrates
29. Hydration is a process in which
D. Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules
30. Solution of Na2SO4 will be
C. Neutral
C. Parts of solute in one million parts of the solution
32. 1 molar solution of glucose in water contains the weight of glucose
A. 180g/dm3
33. Water of crystallization can be removed by
B. Heating
34. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the solution is
B. Dilute
35. Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed
A. Na2SO4