Reference Guide - Fast Track

QUICK REFERENCE GUIDE FOR PMP® EXAM
PMP® – FAST TRACK
THIYAGARAJAN PERUMAL MBA, PMP, PMI-ACP, CSM, ITIL, PRINCE2 PRACTIONER,

CBAP
PMP® Exam Study Guide

Copyright @ THIYAGARAJAN PERUMAL MBA, PMP, PMI-ACP, CBAP, PRINCE2
PRACTITIONER, CSM, ITIL, 6 SIGMA BLACKBELT
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About the PMP® Exams
The exam is composed of 200 multiple choice questions.

PMP® is a closed book examination.
25 questions in the exam are sample questions used in future exams and they are not used
to calculate the final score in the exam.
4 hours are allowed to take the exam and it is conducted by the parametric exam centers
worldwide.
The exam is computer based and the candidate will know the results immediately.
The passing score for the PMP® exam is around 61 percent, and the candidate needs to
answer 106 questions out of 175 questions.
No negative Marking for the wrong answer.
Be cautious of answers which use the terms “ALWAYS” or “NEVER” or “NOT”
Many questions contain at least one distractor. Use the process of elimination to remove
wrong answer from the list, and then focus on the remaining answers.
Always choose answer based on PMI’s code of ethics
In the scratch paper write down the things you want to remember for the exam e.g.
formula
If the question is tough mark the question for review and move it to the next question.
Answer the easy questions first and don’t mark it for review, because you the know the
answer is 100 % correct.
For the hard/complex question answer it and mark it for review. Don’t spend much time
in this category. Mark it and move it to the next question.
How to Register For PMP® Exam:

You need to create an account for pmi.org. It will give you access to fill the application form. Once you
have filled and submitted the application, PMI will take one week to approve or reject the application.
Some applications are selected for audit. If your application is approved, you can pay the exam fee and
book the date/time for the exam. In case if your application is selected for audit, you need to provide
proof of degree and other experiences that you provided in the application.
About 6 th Edition of PMBOK®
5 process Groups
10 knowledge Areas
49 processes having input/Tools and Technique and Output
10 Knowledge Areas are

Project Integration Management
Project Scope Management
Project Schedule Management
Project Cost Management
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Project Quality Management
Project Resource Management
Project Communications Management
Project Risk Management
Project Procurement Management
Project Stakeholder Management
Process Groups Approximate percentage of Approximate number of

questions questions
Initiating 13 % 26
Planning 24 % 48
Executing 31% 62
Monitor and control 25 % 50
Closing 7% 14
Total number of Questions 100 % 200 Questions
ELIGIBILITY/REQUIREMENTS
Secondary degree (high school diploma, associate’s degree or the global equivalent)
60 months of project management experience
35 hours of project management education OR CAPM certification
OR
Four-year degree
36 months of project management experience within the last 8 years
35 hours of project management education OR CAPM certification
Exam Fee
Member: US$405.00
Non-member: US$555.00
Relevant and Updated to the Current Syllabus

A satisfying, fulfilling career and successful future are hinged on your ability to pass this exam. Take a
step towards assuring your advancement – buy this book.
About the Author:

Thiyagarajan Perumal has depth knowledge in IT Services, traditional/agile project management
practices.
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He holds the credentials MBA, PMP, PMI-ACP, CSM, CABP, PRINCE2 PRACTIONER, ITIL and
around 20 years of experience in software industry as a consultant and project lead in industries like
healthcare, Telecom and logistics.
He managed various teams of software programmers, requirement analysts, Business analysts,
Functional users, Quality control teams etc. He has a passion for teaching and learning. He has
published couple of books in amazon related to PMI-ACP and PMP exam.
(amazon.com/author/thiyagarajanperumal)
He is passionate about project management. He has other interests like music, reading, travelling and
outdoor activities.
Dedication:
This book is dedicated to my family and friends for their unconditional love and support.
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TABLE OF CONTENTS:
Eligibility/Requirement for PMP® Exam
About the PMP® Exam
Practice Exam
Match the Terminologies Practice
Input/Output/Tools and Techniques
Formulas used for Calculations
Free PMI-ACP® Practice Questions with Answers
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Scenario based Practice Questions: (200 Questions)
1. Select the characteristic related to the project from the choices given below.
A. A project can create a service or capability to perform a service.
B. It has a definite beginning and an end.
C. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product.
D. All of the above.
2. Max is working in a matrix organization. Sam has worked for a couple of years in a functional
organization. Now both Max and Sam are working together on a project. During their discussion,
Sam has an argument with Max regarding one of the project constraints that he mentioned. As
per Sam one of the choices given below is not a valid project constraint, which is?
A. Risk.
B. Market demand.
C. Quality.
D. Budget.
3. Chris is the project manager for an agile project, and the project is going to be completed in
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another 3 months. Already the project cost overrun and it is behind the schedule. Since it is one of
the key stakeholder’s interest, the project team is continuing the project. One of the given options
is not valid for project trigger, which is?
A. Project manager’s wish.
B. Customer request.
C. Technological advance.
D. Market demand.
4. Carl is assigned as a project manager by the PMO of the organization. Rick is the operations
manager of the product that Carl’s team is delivering. The team is aware of the fact that both the
operations work and the project work is different. One of the below options is considered as an
operational work, identify it.
A. Has a definite start period and end period.
B. Work is repeatable and ongoing.
C. Creates a unique product.
D. Progressively elaborated.
5. David is working in the supportive PMO structure and responsible for the project as well as
provides support functions to the project. Randy is working as a project manager in his team.
Sam also reports to David, and handles a group of projects in a program. How can they
distinguish between project, program and portfolio management?
A. A project is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Program is a temporary
endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Portfolio is a group of projects or programs which
are linked together by a common objective.
B. A portfolio is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Project is a temporary
endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Program is a group of projects or programs which
C. A program is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Project is a temporary
endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Portfolio is a group of projects or programs which
D. A Portfolio is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Program is a temporary
endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Project is a group of projects or programs which
6. Sam is working in a company’s PMO. One of the below objectives is not related to the PMO
objective. Which one is it?
A. Manage the project.
B. Manage shared resources.
C. Coaching, mentoring and providing guidance.
D. Identify and develop project management methodology, standards and best practices.
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7. Ralph is working as a project manager in a tight schedule project. He is using the crashing/fast-
tracking to compress the schedule to finish the project on time. Ralph is reporting to a PMO
structure in which the level of control is high, moderate and low. Identify the PMO structure that
Ralph is reporting to.
A. Directing, supportive and controlling.
B. Directing, controlling and supportive.
C. Supportive, Directing and controlling.
D. Controlling, Supportive and directive.
8. Smith is the Project manager who deals with the project management strategy and project
team in a critical project for the organization. He is working in a strong matrix organization and
supported by a directive PMO structure. One of the below is not the core competencies of the
project manager, identify it.
A. Performance.
B. Personal.
C. Conflict management.
D. Knowledge.
9. Michael is working as a director, and reports to the PMO who manages all the projects, shares
the resources in between projects, provides methods, tools and techniques, and guidance. PMO
can take key decisions related to the project such as terminate or postpone the project. Robert is
working as a project manager and reports to the PMO structure which provides polices and
guidelines. Such a structure is known as?
A. Controlling.
B. Directing.
C. Supportive.
D. None of the above.
10. Karen is working in a startup organization. He was appointed by the PMO. The PMO
structure which appoints project managers and manages all the projects in his organization is
known as?
A. Controlling.
B. Directing.
C. Supportive.
11. Ken is the project manager in a cloud project, which migrates all the software code to the
cloud. In his organization project manager shares the authority with the functional manager. Lisa
is the functional manager in the same organization, working for a long time. Lisa and Ken are
working on the project which has a tight budget. One of the matrix organization in the below
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options is not a valid matrix organization. Identify the wrong one.
A. Strong matrix organization.
B. Balanced matrix organization.
C. Project matrix organization.
D. Weak matrix organization.
12. Richard is working in an organization as a project manager in which the project manager
does the administrative tasks, doesn’t have much power and reports to the functional manager.
Identify the type of organization that Richard works for.
A. Matrix organization.
B. Projectized organization.
C. Functional organization.
13. Paul is working in an organization in which the project manager has the most authority and
responsible for the project’s success and they can take important decisions regarding budget,
schedule, and resources in the project. Identify the type of organization in which Paul works for.
B. Projectized organization.
C. Functional organization.
14. Sam is working in an organization in which the project manager’s role is part-time and
decisions are taken by the functional manager, their role is similar to that of project expeditor.
Identify the type of organization in which Sam works for.
B. Functional organization.
C. Strong matrix organization.
15. Paul is the project manager in a technology company which innovates smart technology
projects. He used to conduct daily stand up meetings at 9 am. His offshore team members and
onsite team members participate in the daily stand-up meetings. In today’s meeting, they had an
argument related to risks. One of the team members argues that only the initiating stage risks are
higher, and in the later stages, risks will be reduced. During which phase of the project are risks
and uncertainties higher?
A. Planning.
B. Executing.
C. Initiating.
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D. Monitor & control.
16. Will and Ted are working in an organization in which project managers and functional
managers work together to complete the project work. Identify the type of organization in which
Project expeditors and coordinators don’t exist.
A. Functional.
B. Projectized.
C. Strong matrix.
D. Weak matrix.
17. Joy is the tech lead in the organization which manufactures LCD TVs. He reports to Pamela,
and she reports to the directive PMO structure. Their organization is going to start a new project
soon. Pamela asked Joy to identify the stakeholders impacted by the project. Joy is reviewing one
of the below documents used to identify people who are affected by the project. Identify the
document.
A. Project plan.
B. Risk register.
C. Stakeholder register.
D.WBS.
18. A project can be divided into any number of phases. A phase is a collection of logically related
activities in order to complete one or more deliverables. Project phases can be sequential or
overlap, and it depends on the situation. A Project is separated into different logical groups which
are called phases for the purpose of management, planning and control. The number of phases in
the project depends on the size, complexity and impact of the project. Every phase needs to go
through all the 5 process groups. During closing of the phase the product can be handed over to
the customers for review, and based on the feedback, the next phase starts. Most of the projects
have the below types of phase-to-phase relationship. One of the given below is not a valid phase-
to-phase relationship. Which one is it?
A. Overlapping relationship.
B. Sequential relationship.
C. Iterative relationship.
D. Parallel relationship.
19. Taylor and Crystal are working in a strong matrix organization. Crystal is a functional
manager and represents the assembly line. One of the projects they are working together on has a
phase-to-phase relationship, the next phase starts only if the previous phase is complete. Identify
the correct relationship below.
A. Overlapping relationship.
B. Sequential relationship.
C. Iterative relationship.
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20. Wilson is a team member and working in a project which has zero-tolerance related to scope,
schedule and cost. He is reporting directly to David, who is the functional manager. David asked
Wilson to identify the enterprise environmental factors available in the project. One of the below
is not a valid EEF (enterprise environmental factor). Identify the wrong option given below.
A. Market condition.
B. Lessons learned databases.
C. Government and industry standards.
D. Organizational culture, structure and governance.
21. Kevin is recently promoted to a project manager position, and he is reporting to directive
PMO structure. John is managing the PMO, and he follows directive PMO structure. John asked
Kevin to review the corporate knowledge base to identify the project constraints for a similar
project that Kevin is going to start. Kevin found out that one of the below is not a valid OPA
(organizational process asset). Identify it.
A. Lessons learned databases.
B. Project records, files from previous projects.
C. Market condition.
D. Templates, guidelines, and procurement policies.
22. Sara and Tim are working on a project which is done by multiple iterations. They are working
in the last iteration, after which the product will be handed over to the customer in a week after
sign-off. They are not sure what kind of task they are going to be assigned to after this project
from the organization. Identify this type of organization structure, in which when the project is
complete the team members don’t have any place (no home) to back and continue the work.
A. Projectized.
B. Functional.
C. Strong matrix.
D. Weak matrix.
23. William is the project manager and has a team of 7 members, they are working in project
delivery which has short iterations. Sam is working as a functional manager. William and Sam
are working together on the current project. Team members are sometimes confused about whom
to report to when there is an issue or escalation. Identify this type of organization structure in
which conflicts are more, and resource allocation is difficult also the team members have more
than one person to report to.
A. Functional.
B. Projectized.
C. Matrix.
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24. Dorothy is working in an organization in which duties are grouped by specialty. John is the
project manager, but he is not having influence/power in the project. He is working as an
assistant to Dorothy. John is doing mostly administrative tasks in the project. Identify this type of
organization structure in which resources are grouped based on specialty and the project
manager has less authority.
A. Projectized.
B. Strong matrix organization.
C. Weak matrix organization.
D. Functional organization.
25. Requirements from the customer are prioritized in backlog and work is done by taking the
high priority item in the backlog, it is known as a predictive lifecycle. In this lifecycle scope, cost
and schedule are determined in the early stage of the project, before starting the work. Predictive
lifecycle is also known as?
A. Adaptive lifecycle.
B. Plan driven lifecycle.
C. Iterative lifecycle.
D. Change driven lifecycle.
26. Smith is working as a project manager in an organization known as Firstcorp. He follows all
the 5 process group initiating of planning, executing, monitor and control and closing to complete
the project. Currently, he is working on developing project charter as well as identifying the
stakeholders in the project. The process group which identifies the stakeholders as well as develop
project charter is called?
A. Planning.
B. Monitor and control.
C. Initiating.
D. Closing.
27. Peter is working in a plan-driven project work. He is involved in the process of developing a
project document that formally gives him authority over the project to assign resources required
to complete the project. This process is known as?
A. Planning.
C. Project charter.
D. Closing.
28. Maria is working as a developer in a software development project. Since her manager got a
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promotion, they moved her to the manager’s position. And she is new to the role assigned to her.
She is actively involved in executing the project as per defined in the project management plan.
Smith is her director, and he asked her which stage of the project she is working on? What is
Maria’s answer to her director from the given choices?
A. Planning.
C. Initiating.
D. Direct and manage project work.
29. Andrew is the project manager in an iterative project. He is closely working with the change
control board, for changes in the project. Mostly Andrew works in a process which measures and
monitors the progress and performance of the project, and identifies if there are any variances
and take corrective actions if needed. This process is known as?
A. Planning.
B. Monitor and control project work.
C. Initiating.
D. Executing.
30. The knowledge area which includes the processes and activities to identify, define, combine
and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the project
management process groups is called?
A. stakeholder management.
B. Integration management.
C. Quality management.
D. Communications management.
31. Fred is working on the process that the main output is the final product, final report and
project document updates. Identify the process group that Fred is currently involved with.
A. Direct and manage project work.
B. Develop project charter.
C. Monitor and control project work.
D. Closing.
32. Joe is assigned as a project manager for an innovative project, which creates bots. Joe plans
the Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is
planned at a higher level. After the customer reviewed the work, and updates are done in the
product, the next iteration is planned in detail. Planning is an iterative process, and it must be
done throughout the project as more information is available. This act is known as?
A. Continuous iteration.
B. Iteration planning.
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C. Progressive elaboration.
33. Keith is the project manager in a time-sensitive project. The leadership style in the project
allows team members to make their own decisions and establish their own goals. Identify the
leadership style in the organization that Keith is working in.
A. Servant leader.
B. Transactional.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Transformational.
34. Rita is working as a team member in a pharmaceutical company that develops medicines for
rare diseases. And she is working in the EDI division (electronic data interchange) to automate
the transactions. She is reporting to Mary who is the project manager and many in the office like
her characteristics and personality. Some of the effective characteristics that a project manager
should have to be successful are?
A. Courteous, creative.
B. Emotional, intellectual.
C. Political, service-oriented.
35. Dalia is working as a Director of the organization. Michael is reporting to Dalia, and he is
having excellent project management skills. The project got approved, and it is progressing by
iterations. Michael’s duties in this process group are; measure progress and performance, find
out the variance, and recommend preventive and corrective actions through change control and
provide updates to the project management plan. This process is known as?
A. Manage project knowledge.
B. Develop project management plan.
D. Develop project charter.
36. ABC Corporation is the market leader in manufacturing industry. James is working on an
agile project which has multiple iterations. His main duties as defined in the project management
plan is to implement approved changes to achieve the project objectives. What are the main
outputs of the process group James is involved in?
A. Project charter, Assumption log.
B. Final product, Final report.
C. Deliverables, Change requests, issue log.
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37. Ronald is working on a complex project, which he needs to work with the functional
managers. Currently, he is involved in the process group which obtains formal sign-off from
customer for the project or phase, measure customer satisfaction, archive project records and
documents, document lessons learned and release the resources. The process which Ronald is
involved in is called?
B. monitor and control project work.
C. Close project.
D. Perform integrated change control.
38. Pyramid Corporation is involved in manufacturing car spare parts for the past 20 years. They
are the market leaders in the segment. Mathew is working as an IT manager for Pyramid
Corporation. Mathew is recoding the conflicts, gaps, issues in the issue log, which help him
effectively track and manage issues and to ensure it is resolved in a timely manner. He is updating
the issue log in the monitor and control activities process during the project. The data on the issue
log contains?
A. Final solution, priority.
B. Issue type, who is assigned to the issue.
C. Status, who raised the issue.
39. In general project management process, groups are placed into the below categories. Which
process group needs to be included in all the projects?
A. Initiating, planning, executing.
B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control, closing.
C. Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control.
D. Initiating, planning, monitor and control and closing.
40. Edward is the program manager in a sports goods manufacturing company. Ralph and Sam
are reporting to Edward on a regular basis regarding the development of the project. Ralph and
Sam are interacting with many other department project managers, and they are involved in
other project-related meetings also. Ralph’s project is part of the program, and the program has
other critical projects also. The other projects in the program may impact Ralph’s project due to
below reason.
A. Priorities of the funding, Distribution of deliverables.
B. Demand for the same resource, Alignment of project goals and objectives related to the organization.
C. Both A and B.
D. Only B.
41. The project charter formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to apply
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resources to complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done in a project. An approved
project charter initiates the project. One of the below options related to project charter is not
correct. Identify the incorrect option.
A. Authorizes the PM to apply resources to complete the work on the project.
B. Documents the business needs, assumptions, constraints, risks, high-level requirements, etc.
C. It describes, that the project is worth the investment.
D. Formally authorize the project.
42. Joseph is working with PMO in one of the projects. He is an expert in all knowledge areas,
and has a better view of the project. Integration management includes the processes and activities
that coordinate various project management activities. One of the given processes is not related to
project integration management, which is?
A. Develop project charter, develop project management plan.
B. Develop a business case.
C. Direct and manage project work, monitor and control project work.
D. Perform integrated change control, close project/phase.
43. Tech Systems is an innovative technology company using artificial intelligence in their reject
project. They are making robots for some of the automation work. Charles is working as a
project manager in this project and deals with resource allocation, examining alternative project
approaches, and managing the interdependencies in the project. One of the given options is not
valid output in project integration management, identify which.
A. Project charter, Deliverables.
B. Project management plan, approved change requests.
C. Change requests, work performance report.
D. Scope management plan.
44. John is the senior project manager in a project and he spends most of his time with
stakeholders for the funding approval. He is working on the input which describes the product
scope description, the business need and how the project supports the strategic plan. This process
that John is working on is called?
A. Business case.
B. Project charter.
C. Project statement of work.
D. Project management plan.
45. Configuration management is part of PMIS. Steve is the key stakeholder in the project, as well
as he is managing the project. Steve is involved in some of the Configuration management
activities performed in the integrated change control process. In general these activities are
known as?
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A. Configuration identification.
B. Configuration status accounting.
C. Configuration verification and audit.
46. Business case is one of the key inputs to develop the project charter process in project
integration management. Daniel is the project manager and trying to convince the project board
to support it. He is preparing for the town hall meeting to explain the proposal that is worth the
investment. During the process, he is creating the business case. Business case is created as a
result of?
A. Organization need, market demand.
B. Legal requirement, Technological advancement.
C. Social need, customer request.
47. Information management tools and techniques are used to create and connect people to get
information. Randy is working on some of the Information management tools in his project. Some
of the tools and techniques related to information management are?
A. Lessons learned register.
B. PMIS (project management information systems).
C. library services, information gathering.
48. Christopher is the senior analyst in an agile project. He is involved in the process of reviewing
the change requests by the board based on the merits and demerits, approve or reject them and
manage the changes. This process is called?
A. Change control process.
B. Perform integrated change control process.
C. Change control board.
D. Change control meeting.
49. Scheduling tool, configuration management system, work authorization system all are part of
PMIS. The formal documented procedure which describes how to authorize and initiate the work
in the right sequence and the right time is known as?
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work authorization system.
D. Organization chart.
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50. Donald is the project manager in one of the projects, which is part of the program. He is
working in project integration management and taking care of all the process in the integration
management. In this phase of the project, he is mostly involved in directing and managing project
work. One of the options given below is not a valid input to direct and manage the work process,
which one is it?
B. Business Case.
C. Approved change requests.
D. EEF, OPA.
51. Jonathan is working on a project which has more uncertainties. These activities ensure that
future project performance of the project is aligned with the project management plan. Jonathan
is working on the Actions taken to reduce the possibility of risks. The action is commonly known
as?
A. Corrective action.
B. Preventive action.
C. Defect repair.
52. FirstTech corporation is involved in projects that support automation. Jose is the project
manager, and manages the team of 15 members in onsite as well as offshore. The project reached
the closing stage. Jose is involved in the activities that take place during closure of the project or
phase. Which activity is this?
A. Scope is measured against the baseline.
B. Product is handed over to the customer and they issue a formal acceptance.
C. Release the project resources from the project work, archive the lessons learnt and other documents.
53. Martha is the senior project manager. She is working on the project which has multiple
iterations. Currently, she is involved in the process which compares the actual performance
against the planned outcome in the project management plan and if there is any variation from
the plan, the variation is corrected through corrective action by the change control process.
Identify the process.
B. Perform integrated change control.
D. Close project.
54. Natalie is the project manager working in a matrix organization. She reports to PMO, which
has many projects. Her project work is part of a program. She is performing the task, as defined
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in the project management plan. The process is called?
B. Perform integrated change control.
D. Close project.
55. Carol is the senior manager in the plan-driven project. She is involved in the process whereby
she compares the actual performance against the planned one in the project management plan. If
there is any variation from the plan, the variation is corrected through corrective action by the
change control process. One of the options given below is not a valid input to this process. Identify
it.
B. Project charter.
C. Project documents.
D. Work performance information.
56. Scope management involves the process required to ensure the project includes all the work
required, and only the work required to complete the project successfully. Amanda is mostly
working on project resource management and project scope management. Mainly she works with
stakeholders to collect the requirements and validating the scope of the product that is developed
as a result of the project. She was talking to a co-worker regarding the processes available in
project scope management. She identified one of the options given below is not a valid process in
project scope management, which one is it?
A. Plan scope management, collect requirements.
B. Project schedule, schedule management plan.
C. Define scope, create WBS.
D. Validate scope, control scope.
57. Deborah is working for the company XYZ Corporation. And she has dual roles as a business
analyst as well as a project manager in the project. She is working on prioritizing the
requirements. One of the group decision-making techniques that she is working on is not valid.
Identify the group decision making technique which is not valid from the given options.
A. Majority.
B. Unanimity.
C. Minority.
D. Dictatorship.
58. Kathleen is working as a team lead related to a project which has many complex
requirements. Christine is the business analyst and she is reporting to Kathleen. Kathleen and
Christine work together to collect requirements and define the scope of the project. Also
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Christine has the additional task of validating the scope after the product is delivered to the
customer. One of the requirements that Kathleen and Christine are working on is not valid.
Identify the requirement type which is not valid.
A. Business requirement, Stakeholder requirement.
B. Functional requirement, Non-functional requirement.
C. Business validation requirement, Scope validation requirement.
D. Solution requirement, Transition requirement.
59. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of deliverables into more manageable
components. The actual work is defined in the lower level of a component called work package.
Work package contains more details about the work to be done in the project. A control account
is assigned to each work package or multiple work packages. Control account is the tool which is
used to track work packages. Details of all the work packages in the work breakdown structure
are stored in?
A. Requirement traceability matrix.
B. Scope management plan.
C. WBS dictionary.
D. Schedule network diagram.
60. Julie is working as a functional manager, and she works with Sam in a strong matrix
organization. She is involved in product analysis in the define scope process. She is involved in
asking questions about the product and collecting answers to describe the characteristics of the
product to be delivered. Some of the examples of product analysis are?
A. Requirement analysis, Product breakdown.
B. System analysis.
C. Value analysis and value engineering.
61. Janice is the project manager in a project which makes car spare parts. And she is involved in
the creation of work breakdown structure. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of
deliverables into more manageable components. The actual work is defined in the lower level of a
component called work package. The work package can be scheduled, estimated monitored and
controlled. One of the options given below is not a valid option related to the work breakdown
structure, which one is it?
A. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of deliverables into more manageable components.
B. The actual work is defined in the lower level of a component called work package and it contains
more details about the work to be done in the project.
C. Sequence wise, it is the first process defined in the project scope management.
D. WBS dictionary contains details about each work package in the WBS.
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62. Kayla is involved in collecting the requirements process in the project scope management. She
involved some of the decision-making techniques, which is used to collect requirements and
finalize them. The decision-making technique that Kayla used is?
A. Autocratic decision making.
B. Voting.
C. Multicriteria decision making.
63. Megan worked in a company that has a change control board to approve changes. She moved
to a company in which to fix the problem, without any procedure they implement the fix in
production. She created the change control board in the new company and appointed members of
the board. After the board reviewed the changes the number of uncontrolled changes is reduced.
The reason for uncontrolled changes that will affect the project cost, schedule, quality and also
increase the risk for the project is called?
A. Gold plating.
B. Scope creep.
C. Change request.
D. Transition requirement.
64. Roy is the senior project manager in the project. And he is involved in the group creativity
technique related activities with stakeholders. Some of the available group creativity techniques
are?
A. Brainstorming, Nominal group technique.
B. Idea/mind mapping, Affinity diagram.
C. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
65. Samantha created the change control board in the company and appoints members of the
board. After the board review the changes it will approve or reject the change. The uncontrolled
changes will affect the project cost, schedule, quality and also it will increase the risk for the
project. Change requests are made for?
C. Defect repair and updates.
66. Bradley is working on establishing the baselines for the project. He is working on the
combination of project scope statement, WBS and Work package and planning package. The
baseline that Bradley is working on is called?
A. Project baseline.
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B. Scope baseline.
C. Requirement baseline.
D. Product baseline.
67. Ralph is working in the Quality control department and he is reporting to Ray. Ray is the
project manager in the project and he assigned Ralph some tasks related to validating the scope
of the product and Verifying the scope of the product. Once the approval from the Quality
control department is given generally the product is sent to the customer for their review. The
main difference between the validate scope and control scope is?
A. Validate scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer,
whereas control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline.
B. Control scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer,
whereas validate scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline.
C. Control scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer,
whereas validate scope mainly deals with the changes related to the product baseline.
D. Validate scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer,
whereas control scope mainly deals with the change requests from the customer.
68. Requirement traceability matrix links requirements to the origin and to the deliverables.
Some of the attributes used in requirement traceability matrix are?
A. Unique id, description of the requirement.
B. Source of requirement, owner of requirement.
C. Current status, priority.
69. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of deliverables into more manageable
components. Rafael is working on the decomposition process and he defined the work in the lower
level of the component called work package. He assigned the work package to team members and
tracked the work package assigned to the team. Rafael estimated the Project cost and project
duration at the work package level. The work package contains more details about the work to
be done in the project .WBS dictionary contains?
A. Contains details about the work done for each work package in the WBS.
B. Assumptions and constraints, acceptance criteria.
C. Quality requirements, account identifier, schedule, cost estimates.
70. Leslie is working on project scope management. She was working with a diagram, that shows
the input, and shows who provide the input, and output from the business system, and who
receives the output. This diagram visually shows a business system and how people and other
business systems are interacting with it.
A. Affinity diagram.
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B. Idea/mind mapping.
C. Context diagram.
D. Delphi.
71. Project schedule management includes the process required to manage the timely completion
of the project. Adrian is working on the project as a project manager. Schedule management
defines when the project will deliver the product. One of the options given below is not a valid
process in project schedule management, which one is it?
A. Plan schedule management, develop schedule, control schedule.
B. Define activities, sequence activities.
C. Plan activities, Define scope, create WBS.
D. Estimate activity durations.
72. Ashley is the project manager in an agile project which has 2-week iterations. Every iteration
the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to next iterations. Ashley is reporting to
Tanya regarding the project development and constraints in the project. Tanya asked her to
tailor the project schedule according to the project. From the choices given below, what are some
of the considerations might Ashley be considering for tailoring project schedule management?
A. Life Cycle approach.
B. Technology support.
C. Availability of resources.
73. Stacy is the project manager and she is involved in the schedule management process to
develop schedule and control schedule. Her manager asked her to estimate the activity durations.
The main outputs of project schedule management are?
A. Schedule management plan, activity list, and milestone list.
B. Project Schedule network diagram, basis of estimates, schedule data.
C. Duration estimates, project schedule, schedule baseline.
74. Precedence diagramming method is also known as activity on node. In this diagram, activities
are done on node. This diagram displays the logical and sequential activities in the project.
Activities are shown in rectangle and the relationships are shown in arrows. Charlie is working
on this diagramming method. And his manager Victor asked him about the relationships
available in the Precedence diagramming method. Charlie explained to him the valid
relationships available in the diagram. One of the options given below is not a valid relationship
in the precedence diagramming method, which one is it?
A. Start-to-Start.
B. Finish-to-Start.
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C. Start-to-End.
D. Finish-to-Finish.
75. Alan has more experience and knowledge in artificial intelligence methods and recent
technologies. He is a critical resource, and multiple teams are looking for his assistance in their
projects. Since he is busy with other activities on the critical path, then the critical path needs to
add the dependency. It can change the critical path. Alan’s manager Tim is thinking about
resource leveling. Resource leveling is used when?
A. Resources are in limited quantity.
B. Resource usage at constant level.
C. Resources are over-allocated and the necessary resources to do the task are available only on certain
times.
76. Schedule compression is the technique that is used to shorten the project schedule without
reducing the scope or quality to meet the desired dates. Erik is the project manager in a fast-
paced project. The project which Erik is working on is having very strict schedules, which can’t
be missed or altered for any reason. Erik wants to use schedule compression techniques to meet
the schedule. He is to keep working on the 2 techniques in schedule compression named as
crashing and Fast-tracking. The main difference between crashing and fast-tracking is?
A. Fast-tracking is done to meet the project dates additional resources added to the critical path whereas
in crashing activities on the critical path are done in sequence.
B. Crashing is done to meet the project dates additional resources added to the critical path whereas in
fast-tracking activities on the critical path are done in sequence.
C. Crashing is done to meet the project dates additional resources added to the critical path whereas in
fast-tracking activities on the critical path are finished fast by adding the resources.
77. Plan schedule management has 6 processes available. Terrence is the project manager in the
company named as Future Technologies. He has completed the schedule management processes
tasks related to Define activities, Sequence activities and Estimate activity Durations. He is
involved in the process of analyzing activity sequence, dependency, resource requirements,
duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model. The process which Terrence is
working on is called?
A. Control schedule.
B. Develop schedule.
C. Plan schedule management.
D. Sequence activities.
78. PDM diagram displays the logical and sequential activities in the project. Activities are shown
in rectangle and the relationships are shown in arrows. Jeffrey is working on this diagramming
method. His manager asked him to complete the diagram in a week. Also he asked Jeffrey to
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identify the PDM diagram (Precedence diagramming method) most commonly used relationship
as well as rarely used relationship. Choose the correct option from the given options.
A. Finish-to-Start and Start-to-Finish.
B. Finish-to-Start and Finish-to-Finish.
C. Start-to-Finish and Finish-to-Start.
D. Start-to-Start and Finish-to-Start.
79. Lead is the amount of time that the project team gives to a successor task to get started before
the predecessor task is finished. Lag time is the amount of time delay that the project team gives
between the predecessor and successor tasks . Adjusting leads and lags is done in one of the below
processes, which is
A. Schedule compression.
B. Schedule development.
C. Define activities.
D. Sequence activities.
80. It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It is known as
preferred logic or soft logic. This type of dependencies is easy to change when needed. One of the
options below is not a valid dependency used in sequence activities, which one is it?
A. External and Internal.
B. Finish-to-Start.
C. Discretionary.
D. Mandatory.
81. Jennifer is working on an agile project. And she is working on planning the iterations. Work
to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at
a higher level. The work to be done in the future planned at a higher level is called?
A. Progressive elaboration.
B. Rolling wave planning.
C. Options A and B are correct.
D. Only Option B is correct.
82. Vincent is working on some of the dependency attributes. He is working on the mandatory
and discretionary dependencies. Mandatory (They are required by the nature of work) and
discretionary dependencies (It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be
done). Mandatory and discretionary dependencies are also known as?
A. Soft logic, hard logic.
B. Hard logic, Soft logic.
C. Hard logic, internal.
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83. Critical path method helps to find out which activities have float, and can be delayed without
delaying the project schedule. Critical path has zero float, so the activities on the critical path
should not be delayed. Float makes the project work flexible . One of the below options is not a
valid float, identify it.
A. Free float.
B. Product float.
C. Total float.
D. Project float.
84. Martin is working on a fixed price contract. All the terms in the contract must be satisfied to
fulfill the contract. As per the terms in the contract, Coding should be done before the testing
starts. This type of dependency is called?
A. External dependency.
B. Mandatory dependency.
C. Internal dependency.
D. Discretionary dependency.
85. Allan is the project manager and working on project estimates. He is working on a technique
that employs estimation similar to a previous project. This reference estimation will work if the
team and the activities in the previous project are the same. Identify the estimation technique that
Allan is working on.
A. Bottom-up estimation.
B. Three-point estimation.
C. Parametric estimation.
D. Analogous estimation.
86. Project cost management includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting,
financing, funding, managing and controlling costs. Bob is working on the project as a project
manager. Cost management mainly considers the cost of resources needed to complete project
activities. Bob is working on all the 4 processes in project cost management, and he just created
the cost baseline. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project cost
management, identify it.
A. Plan cost management.
B. Estimate activity resources.
C. Estimate costs, control cost.
D. Determine budget.
87. Philip is the project manager in an agile project which has very short iterations. In every
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iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to the next iterations. Philip is
reporting to Dan regarding the project budget and constraints in the project. Dan asked him to
tailor the project cost management processes according to project’s situation. Some of the
considerations that Philip is considering for tailoring for project cost management are?
A. Estimating and budgeting.
B. Earned value management.
C. Governance.
88. It is the reserve allocated within the cost baseline for identified risks. It is used for known risks
identified. The budget is to address the known-unknown. It can be a percentage of estimated cost,
a fixed number . To address the known-unknown and to address the unknown-unknown the
reserves allocated are?
A. Management, unknown.
B. Contingency, schedule.
C. Management, contingency.
D. Contingency, management.
89. Vincent is the project manager and he is involved in the cost management process to
determine the budget. His manager asked him to develop the cost management plan. The main
outputs of project cost management are?
A. Cost management plan, cost estimates.
B. Cost baseline, project funding requirements.
C. Cost forecasts, work performance information.
90. Karen is the project manager in a project which involves many functional managers. He is
working on the reserve which deals with the unknown. Additional reserves are allocated to
manage the unforeseen risks. Karen identified One of the options given below is not part of the
cost baseline but included in the project budget. Which one is it?
A. Contingency reserve.
B. Management reserve.
C. Both A& B.
91. Andrea is the project manager and working on project estimates. She is working in a
technique, in that, estimation of a similar project which was done before was used as a reference.
This estimation will work if the team and the activities in the previous project are the same. This
technique is used to estimate the schedule or budget from the previously done project. It is used
when very less information is available for estimation for the current project. It uses the
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parameters from the previous project such as cost, duration, complexity, size of the project as a
basis of estimate the activity durations. Analogous estimating can also be called?
A. Top-down estimation.
B. Bottom-up estimation.
C. Parametric estimation.
D. 3 point estimation.
92. Julia is working on creating the project budget. She is considering the activity costs, work
package costs and control account costs to create the project budget. To create a budget, activity
costs are rolled up into work package costs. Then work package costs are rolled up into control
account costs, and then final project costs. Julia is rolling up costs from the work package level to
the control account level which is called?
A. Cost estimation.
B. Cost aggregation.
C. Forecasting.
D. Cost performance index.
93. Estimate costs is the process of developing an approximate cost of resources needed to
complete the project. It is done periodically throughout the project, to reflect when additional
details are available. Costs are estimated for labor, materials, equipment, services, facilities etc.
The project in the initiation phase has the ROM (rough order of estimate) of?
A. -25 % to +75%
B. -5 % to + 10%
C. – 25 % to + 50 %
D. None of the above
94. Patricia is the project manager and she is working on the project cost management processes.
She is involved in costs estimate process in project cost management. She is working on the cost
baseline as well as the cost budget. The difference between cost baseline and cost budget is?
A. Contingency reserve.
B. Management reserve.
C. Project reserve.
D. Project budget.
95. Sharon is the senior business analyst and working with Sam. Sam is the project manager in
the project and he is involved in the cost estimate process in project cost management. Sharon
and Sam are discussing about various costs in the project. They are discussing about all type of
costs in the project which includes opportunity cost, direct cost, indirect cost etc. Monthly salary
to employees working in an organization is an example of?
A. Sunk cost.
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B. Opportunity cost.
C. Direct cost.
D. Indirect cost.
96. Susan is the senior Project manager and working with Bill. Bill is the PMO in the project and
he is involved in the cost estimate process in project cost management. Susan and Bill are
discussing about various costs in the project. They are discussing about all type of costs in the
project which includes opportunity cost, direct cost, indirect cost etc. The cost to support the
product from creation of product to day-to-day operations is called as,
A. Direct cost.
B. Indirect cost.
C. Opportunity cost.
D. Life cycle cost.
97. Dorothy is the project manager, and she works on the cost estimation in the project. She came
through many terminologies and values in the process. Dorothy came to know estimated value of
the work actually completed is called?
A. Planned value.
B. Earned value.
C. Actual cost.
D. Sunk cost.
98. The agile project team in the Tech corporation company is working on project estimates. Alex
is the project manager of the project. Alex also working with the project team to determine the
project estimates and budget. During the estimation process, the project team identified
alternatives and considered the options below. Which is the best option?
A. Buy vs lease, Make vs buy.
B. Resource sharing.
C. Cost trade-offs.
99. Steven is the project manager assigned to the tight budget project. The project must be
completed within the budget as per the senior management. Steven is working with an estimating
mathematical model, in which formulas are used for cost and time estimates. The technique uses
the mathematical formulas and statistical relationships that Steven is employing based on the
historical data from other projects to estimate cost. This technique is known as?
A. Analogous.
B. Parametric.
C. Bottom-up.
D. 3-point estimation.
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100. Brandon is the project manager of a software development company based in Los Angeles.
He is working on this technique which examines the project performance over time to find if
performance is improving or deteriorating. Deviation from the baseline indicates the potential
impact of threats or opportunities. Identify the technique that Brandon is working on.
A. Variance analysis.
B. Reserve analysis.
C. Trend analysis.
D. Vendor bid analysis.
101. Project quality management includes the processes of incorporating organization's quality
policies such as planning, managing, controlling project and product quality requirements to
meet the objectives of stakeholders. Cynthia is working on the project as a project manager. She
is working on the continuous improvement activities in the organization. She is working on all the
3 processes in project quality management, and she just created a quality management plan and
quality metrics. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project quality
management. Identify it.
A. Plan Quality management.
B. Plan Quality audit.
C. Manage Quality.
D. Control quality.
102. Tyler is working for a multinational company named Qualtech. And this company involved
in the spare parts manufacturing. He is working on the project quality management process, and
involved in effective quality management activities. Tyler updated his manager on the number of
defects to be reduced once implementation of the strict measures in the Quality control
department is affected. The levels of effective quality management are?
A. Detect and correct the defects before the product is delivered to the customer as part of quality
control process.
B. Use quality assurance to examine the available processes and correct the processes itself.
C. Create a culture throughout the organization of awareness and commitment to quality in the products
and processes available.
103. Quality audits are done by the team external to the organization. Harvey is responsible for
quality control and quality audits. He is reporting to Smith who is the project manager for the
specialized products that the company is manufacturing. The objectives of quality audit are?
A. To identify the best practices implemented in the organization.
B. To identify the gaps.
C. Share the good practices in the industry or in the organization.
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104. Mike is working on the control quality process. He is reporting to Samantha. Samantha is
collecting the benefits of quality control process and report to the management. Some of the
benefits of control quality process in project quality management are?
A. Validate the deliverables against the requirements given, for the purpose of customer acceptance.
B. Identify the methods of quality improvement.
C. Take corrective and preventive action through the change control process.
105. When a data point falls outside the control limits, the data point is out of control, and when it
happens the entire process is out of control. Every process has variation in the end products. The
range is calculated based on +- 3 sigma. Data points within the range are in control, and the data
points not in the range are out of control. A process is considered as out of control when?
A. Seven consecutive points above the mean.
B. Seven consecutive points below the mean.
C. A data point exceeds the control limit.
106. The cost of quality covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate quality
related activities. Cost of quality can be categorized into?
A. Cost of conformance to requirements (Prevention Costs, Appraisal Costs).
B. Cost of non-conformance to requirements (Internal Failure costs, External Failure Costs).
C. Both A& B.
107. Stanley is working on the Project Quality management related processes. Stanley is reporting
to the PMO directly. The process which Stanley is working on is used to find the project activities
which are in compliance with organizational standards, policies, procedures regularly. This
process is called?
A. Quality Audit.
B. Quality control.
C. Quality review.
D. Quality Assurance.
108. This diagram plots 2 variables against each other to find out if they are related, it is called
correlation chart, also known as?
A. Histogram.
B. Pareto diagram.
C. Scatter diagram.
D. Cause and effect diagram.
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109. Dorothy is the project manager of a company that is manufacturing toys. She is working on
software quality improvement processes. She is involved in all the processes in project quality
management. She is currently involved in the process which is used to inspect the deliverables and
find out the defects. The process is known as?
A. Quality audit.
B. Control quality.
C. Quality assurance.
D. Quality metrics.
110. Ashely is working on one of the data representation technique that uses the diagrams. She
explains the concept to her manager that the diagram helps to identify the critical issues which
need the attention immediately. It is based on the concept of a larger number of problems are
caused by a smaller number of causes. One of the below diagram which is related to the 80/20
rule, i.e. 80 percent of the problems come from 20 percent of the causes. The diagram is known
as?
A. Scatter diagram.
B. Histogram.
C. Cause and effect diagram.
D. Pareto diagram.
111. Pauline is the project manager and he involved in the Quality management related activities.
She was involved in all 3 quality management process plans; quality management, manage
quality and control quality. She used tools like Data gathering and Design for X to support the
quality management process. She is mainly using the project management plan and project
charter in all 3 quality management processes. Some of the outputs created as a result of plan
quality management, manage quality and control quality processes are?
A. Quality management plan.
B. Quality reports.
C. Verified deliverables.
112. Sylvia is the quality control department manager. She is reporting to multiple department
managers regarding the quality control activities in the organization. She is spending the money
allocated for the project to avoid failures. The cost of conformance includes prevention costs and
appraisal costs. Examples of cost of conformance are?
A. Quality training, investing in prevention of nonconformance requirements.
B. Document processes, testing.
C. Inspections, equipment.
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113. Sherry is working for a pharmaceutical company. And she is reporting to the PMO. She was
involved in all the 3 processes in project quality management. She was technical lead for the
quality control department. She was involved in calculating the money spent during and after the
project because of the failures. The cost of nonconformance includes internal failure costs and
external failure costs. Examples of cost of non-conformance are?
A. Rework.
B. Scrap.
C. Warranty costs.
114. Erika is the project manager in an agile project which has 2-week iterations. Every iteration
the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to next iterations. Erika is reporting to
Tanya regarding the project development and constraints in the project. Tanya asked her to
tailor the project quality management according to the project. What are some of the
considerations that Ashley could be considering for tailoring for project quality management?
A. Policy compliance and auditing.
B. Continuous improvement.
C. Stakeholder engagement.
115. Edward is working as a project managed and involved in finding solutions for issues. He is
using a systematic approach in problem solving for quality assurance and quality improvements.
He found problems are the result of quality audits. He is using the problem solving methods
which includes one of the below elements. Which one is it?
A. Define the problem.
B. Identifying the root-cause.
C. Generating possible solutions.
116. Project resource management includes the processes to identify, acquire and manage the
resources needed for the successful completion of the project. Processes helps to ensure the right
resources at the right time are available to complete the project. Audrey is working on the
project as a project manager. She is the manager and controller of resources in the organization.
She is working on all the 6 processes in project resource management, and she just created a
resource management plan and team charter. One of the options given below is not a valid
process in project resource management. Identify the invalid process from the given choices.
A. Plan resource management.
B. Plan communications.
C. Acquire resources.
D. Manage team.
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117. Grace is the project manager in an agile project which has multiple iterations. In every
iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to the next iterations. Grace is
reporting to Todd regarding the resources and the tasks assigned to them. Because each project
is unique, Todd wants Grace to tailor the project resource management processes. What are some
of the considerations Grace could be is considering for tailoring project resource management?
A. Physical location, diversity.
B. Life cycle approaches.
C. Acquisition of team members.
118. Jessica is working on the team charter. The team charter provides clear guidelines about the
acceptable behavior of the team members. She wants all the members of the team to contribute
while developing the team charter. And she is updating the charter periodically. Team charter is
a document that establishes the team values, agreements and operating guidelines for the team.
What does it include?
A. Team values, communication guidelines.
B. Decision making criteria and process, conflict resolution process.
C. Meeting guidelines, team agreements.
119. Roy is working as a HR manager in a company manufacturing bath accessories called Bath
necessities Inc. Roy is reporting to Jordan who is the CEO of the company. Jordan asked Roy to
tailor the way that the project resource management works in the organization, because every
project is unique. What are some of the tailoring considerations that Roy is considering for the
project resource management?
A. Diversity, Industry-specific resources.
B. Physical location, Acquisition of team members.
C. Both A & B.
D. Only A
120. A project manager has numerous forms of power. Brandon is working as a project manager
in a company who is manufacturing home goods. He is reporting to Sam, who is the PMO of the
organization. Brandon is having 15 years of experience, and possessing PMP and some other
cloud related certifications. The power which is derived from experience and training is called?
A. Expert.
B. Referent
C. Persuasive.
D. Personal.
121. NNC is the company manufacturing chemicals for household purposes. Vivian is handling
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the agile projects in the organization. Vivian is reporting to Carrie. In this project there is a
conflict between the critical team members. Vivian asked for Carrie’s advice. Carrie advised the
conflict resolution technique the affected parties openly discuss the issues and try to incorporate
multiple perspectives to reach the consensus and this results in win/win situation. Identify the
conflict resolution technique that Carrie advised to Vivian.
A. Compromise.
B. Collaborate.
C. Force.
D. Withdraw.
122. National Broadcasting Corporation is the industry leader in the media industry. Megan is
the project manager and her team consists of 3 project leaders and 15 team members. The
broadcasting company started a key project as part of innovation techniques. At the beginning of
the project Megan found the team members are not collaborative and the environment is not
productive. In this stage, team members began to build understanding and relationship between
them. They adjusted their work habits and behaviors and started working as a team. Team
members begin to trust each other. Which stage of team development is this?
A. Forming.
B. Storming.
C. Norming.
D. Performing.
123. Data representation technique uses various formats to document team member’s roles and
responsibilities. Doris is working for a financial company, and she is helping her project manager
in some of the data representation techniques used in the organization. She is referring to a
couple of data representation techniques which were used before in the organization. One of the
given charts is not a valid chart which describes team member’s roles and responsibilities. Which
one is it?
A. Text oriented format.
B. Hierarchical type chart.
C. Pareto chart.
D. Matrix-based chart.
124. Teamwork is critical for team success. Sylvia is the project manager and working on creating
an environment for her team that continuously motivates the team by providing challenges and
opportunities and provide timely feedback to correct the mistakes. She identified High team
performance can be achieved by?
A. managing conflicts in a constructive manner.
B. Encourage collaborative decision making.
C. Developing trust among team members.
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125. Kristin is working as a project manager in a leading banking company. Kristin is reporting
to the PMO directly regarding the project constraints. Also she is involved in developing project
budget and in the approval process. After many years of working in the industry she identified
some of the personality traits of an effective project manager. Some of the personality
characteristics traits of an effective leader/project manager are?
A. Service-oriented, Creative, Social, Authentic.
B. Intellectual, political, systemic, courteous.
C. Emotional, cultural, managerial.
126. Econo Travel is an innovative technology company using artificial intelligence in its reject
project. They are making AI robots for some of the automatic bookings. Ivan is working as a
project manager in this project and deals with resource allocation, examining alternative project
approaches, managing the constraints in the project. Ivan is working on developing Team charter
and Resource management plan. One of the given options is not a valid output in project resource
management, which one is it?
A. Resource management plan.
B. Resource calendar, Team performance assessments.
C. Communication management plan.
D. Change requests.
127. Match the conflict resolution technique with the corresponding outcome.
A. Withdraw (lose/lose), Forcing (win/lose), Smoothing (win/lose), Compromise (lose/lose),
collaborate (win/win).
B. Withdraw (lose/lose), Forcing (win/win), Smoothing (win/lose), Compromise (lose/lose), collaborate
(win/lose).
C. Withdraw (lose/win), Forcing (win/lose), Smoothing (win/win), Compromise (lose/lose), collaborate
(win/win).
D. Withdraw (win/lose), Forcing (win/lose), Smoothing (win/lose), Compromise (lose/lose), collaborate
(win/lose).
128. Conflict is not avoidable in a project. Josephine is the project manager for a leading Office
Solutions provider company. In her recent agile project, conflicts are frequent. And she is looking
for some advice from her PMO. Esther is assisting Josephine in some of the conflict resolution
methods. Some of the factors that influence the conflict resolution methods are?
A. Motivation to resolve conflict on a short-term or long-term basis.
B. Importance of conflict.
C. Both A and B.
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129. Erika is working as a senior project manager for a company that is related to telecom
industry. She is involved in one of the project resource management that ensures the assigned
resources are available when needed, and released from the project when no longer needed. She
is involved in the process throughout the project work. It includes physical resources as well as
team members. Identify some of the factors that she is involved in.
A. Identify resource surplus/shortage before it happens.
B. To ensure resources are utilized and released according to the project plan.
C. Both A and B.
130. Amy is the project manager of a project that is involved in the chain grocery stores. She is
working in the project resource management. Amy is reporting to Sam. She is using a technique
that members of the project team selected in advance before the project started. These resources
are guaranteed for the project due to their experience, skills and the project is dependent on their
expertise. Identify the technique that Amy is involved in.
A. Negotiation
B. Acquisition
C. Project-staff assignments
D. Pre-assignment
131. Communications management includes the processes necessary to ensure the information
needs of the project and its stakeholders are met. Lorraine is working on project communications
management. Lorraine used to work with stakeholders to collect the requirements, and validating
the scope of the product that is developed as a result of the project. She was talking to a co-
worker regarding the processes available in project communications management. She identified
one of the options given below is not a valid process in project communications management,
which one is it?
A. Plan communications management.
B. Human resource management plan.
C. Monitor communications.
D. Manage communications.
132. Naomi is the project manager in an agile project which has 1-week iterations. In every
iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to the next iterations. Naomi is
reporting to Erin regarding the project development and constraints in the project. Erin asked
her to tailor the project communications management due to the reason that this project is unique
to the organization. What are some of the considerations that Naomi is considering for tailoring
for project communications management?
A. Communications technology.
B. Physical location.
C. Both A and B.
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133. Data representation technique uses various formats to document team member’s roles and
responsibilities. June is working for an Airlines company, and she is helping her project manager
in some of the data representation techniques used in the organization. She is referring to a
couple of data representation techniques which were used before in the organization. One of the
given charts is not a valid hierarchical chart. Identify it.
A. Work breakdown structure.
B. RACI chart.
C. Organizational breakdown structure.
D. Resource breakdown structure.
134. Samantha is the project manager in a company that manufactures soda and energy drinks.
For the current project, she is working with logistics-related companies and Advertisement
Company. She is communicating effectively with all the stakeholders in the project. Samantha is
reporting to Ellie who is the senior director of the organization. Some of the dimensions of
effective communication activities are?
A. Formal, Internal, External.
B. Official, unofficial.
C. Written and oral.
135. South Pacific Electric is the market leader in the energy industry. Allison is working on an
agile project which has multiple iterations. Allison is involved in all the processes in the project
communications management. What are the main outputs of the process group Allison is involved
in?
A. Work performance information, change requests.
B. Project communications.
C. Communication management plan.
136. Josephine is the project manager in a Fortune 100 company which is the leader in cable
television and internet. All cutting edge technologies are used in the project to provide effective
service to customers. Josephine is reporting to Maria, who is the director of the company. Maria
always insists on effective communication results in misunderstanding and miscommunication
and this can be achieved by proper selection of communication methods. She further insists
misunderstanding can be eliminated if we follow the 5 C’s of written communication named as?
A. Controlling flow of words and ideas.
B. Correct grammar and spelling.
C. Both A and B.
D. None of A and B.
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137. Jacob is working for a Trident Corporation. He is involved in project communications
management, and he is involved in all the processes available in project communications
management. He is involved in management of communication process which is used to ensure
efficient and effective information flows between the project team and stakeholders. Jacob is
using some of the techniques that are helpful for effective communications management. One of
the given options is not the correct technique used for effective communications management.
Identify it.
A. Presentation and Facilitation.
B. Active listening.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Choice of media.
138. This method is used to send a large volume of documents to a large number of people. In this
method, the information is placed in the central location for communication purposes to the
audiences. Recipients get the message from the central location by reading the information. Some
of the examples of this method are e-learning, intranet sites, knowledge repositories. The
information that the project team is getting from the website is an example of?
A. Interactive communication.
B. Push communication.
C. Pull communication.
139. Lucy is the HR manager in a company and reports to Sam. Sam reports to the PMO of the
organization. Lucy used a communication model to communicate with all stakeholders in the
project. She used a basic sender/receiver model for communication. A sequence of steps in the
basic sender/receiver communication model is?
A. Decode, Transmit message, Encode.
B. Encode, Transmit message, Decode.
C. Only Option B is correct.
D. Both A and B are correct.
140. In this method, sender sends the information to the corresponding parties. Parker is the
project manager in the project, and his main task is communicating with the stakeholders. Parker
spent most of the time in communication. He used mostly emails for communication purposes.
Email to the project team, memo, and sending fax are the examples of?
A. Interactive communication.
B. Push communication.
C. Pull communication.
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141. Sophie is the project manager and involved in project communications management. When
she faces any issues in the project she gets help from Emma. Emma is the functional manager
representing multiple functional groups. Sophie is involved in all the 3 processes available in
project communications management. She is using some of the tools and techniques available in
project communications management. One of the tools mentioned below is not used in project
communications management. Which one is it?
A. Expert judgment.
B. Work performance information.
C. Communication technology.
D. Project management information system.
142. Some of the Tailoring considerations for project communications management include
stakeholders, physical location, communications technology, and language and knowledge
management. Henry is working on communication technology which is suitable for the current
project, and comfortable to all stakeholders involved in the project. While selecting the
communication technology Henry found some of the factors that can affect the choice of
communication technology. Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology are?
A. Project environment.
B. Availability and reliability of the technology.
C. Both Option A and B are correct.
D. Only Option A is correct.
143. Lydia is the project manager as well as the key stakeholder in the project. She is working
with all the processes available in project communications management. She is involved in
monitoring communications processes. She is using tools and techniques available in monitoring
communications processes. The tools that Lydia is using provides a set of tools for the project
manager to capture, store and distribute information related to the cost of the project, schedule
update and performance to the corresponding stakeholders according to the information defined
in the communication plan. Which tool is Lydia using in monitoring the communication process?
A. Performance report.
B. Project management information system.
C. Work performance report.
D. Work performance data.
144. Some of the projects that Victor is working on are very complex in nature and difficult to
manage. He works for First Line Inc. which is a credit card company. He reports to Miles who is
the senior director in the organization. The complexity arises in the project due to one of the
reasons below, which is?
A. Human behavior.
B. Ambiguity.
C. Only option B is correct.
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D. Both A and B are correct.
145. Linda is the project manager and she is involved in the project integration management
processes. She is involved in all the 7 processes in the project integration management. She
reports to Samuel in a weak matrix organization. She is currently working in the direct and
manage project work in project integration management. The main output direct and manage
project work process is?
A. Work performance data.
B. Issue log.
C. Deliverables.
146. The objectives of project risk management are to increase the probability of positive risks
and decrease the impact of negative risks. Kenneth is the project manager working for multiple
projects in Tech connection Inc. Kenneth is involved in all the risk management processes. One of
the options given below is not a valid process in project risk management. Identify it.
A. Plan risk management, identify risks.
B. Perform qualitative risk analysis.
C. Perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk response and monitor risks.
D. Plan Risk register.
147. Project risk management includes the process of conducting risk management planning,
analysis, response planning, response implementation and monitoring the risks throughout the
project. Alvin is working on the project which is totally unique to the organization. He is the
project manager and involved in project risk management. Since the project is unique to the
organization, he is considering tailoring the project risk management processes according to the
project he is working on. Some of the considerations to tailor the risk management processes are?
A. project size.
B. Project complexity.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. Both A and B are not valid options.
148. Travis is the project manager and he is involved in the risk management process to
determine the risks in the project. Individual project risks can have a positive or negative impact
on the project if they occur. Project risk management identifies and manages the risks which are
not addressed by other project management processes. His manager asked him to develop the risk
management plan. The main outputs of project risk management are?
A. Risk management plan, Risk register.
B. Project document updates, project management plan updates.
C. Work performance information, change requests.
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149. One of the processes available in project risk management is to identify risks. This process
identifies the individual project risks and determines the sources of the overall project risk and
document their characteristics. Amber is working on identifying the risks in the project that she is
working on. Her project manager asked her to identify all the risks and plan the risk response
strategies to deal with them. Risk identification is done during?
A. At the beginning of the project.
B. At regular intervals throughout the project.
C. During execution of the project.
D. During developing project charter.
150. Janet is working on project risk management. She works on Data first. She is involved in risk
management process which helps her to prioritize risks and find its probability and impact.
Identify the project risk management process that Janet is working on.
A. Perform quantitative risk analysis.
B. Perform qualitative risk analysis.
C. Monitor risks.
D. Plan risk response.
151. Lawrence is working on project risk management. Project risk management includes the
processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning,
response implementation and monitoring risk on a project. He is working on the Plan risk
response and implement risk response processes. These risks always need to be considered when
developing response strategies. It is a direct outcome of implementing a risk response. Risks that
are caused by implementing a risk response is known as?
A. Primary risk.
B. Residual risk.
C. Secondary risk.
D. Contingency risk.
152. Sophia is the technical lead in a project for an energy company. She was involved in all the 7
processes in project risk management. She was developing a risk register and risk reports to
submit to the higher authorities in the organization. When a negative risk happens usually it will
increase the cost or delay the schedule when the positive risk happens, it will benefit the project
by reducing the cost or by decreasing the duration of the project. One of the given strategies is not
a valid strategy to deal with negative risks. Which one is it?
A. Avoid.
B. Mitigate.
C. Transfer.
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D. Exploit.
153. Bruce is the project manager, and he is involved in creating the risk management plan and
risk register. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses,
and it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are
project manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk
management experts. Bruce is working with all to identify the risks. Most of the risks are
identified during which risk management process?
A. Performing quantitative risk analysis.
B. Performing qualitative risk analysis.
C. Identifying risks and monitor risks.
D. Monitoring risks.
154. Acceptable level of risk Organization is willing to take risk, in anticipation of the benefit to
them. In general the risk attitudes of organizations is classified into 3 themes which are risk
appetite, risk tolerance and risk threshold. Analytical techniques like strategic risk scoring sheets
and stakeholder risk profile analysis provide information about the stakeholders' risk attitude,
risk appetite, threshold and their risk tolerance level. Based on this assessment project team
develop the approach to allocate resources to execute risk management activities. The level of risk
individual or group is willing to accept is called?
A. Risk threshold.
B. Risk appetite.
C. Risk tolerance.
D. Secondary risk.
155. Plan risk response is the process to find out what will organizations do if the risks happen in
the project. There are many options available to deal with the risks, by the way of allocating
additional funds to deal with the risk, by extending the project schedule or transfer to the 3 rd
party or to avoid the risk completely. The risk responses must be updated in the risk register.
Name the person who implements the response strategies defined in the risk mitigation and risk
contingency plans.
A. Project manager.
B. Risk analyst.
C. Risk owner.
D. Project team.
156. Nicole is the project manager in an agile project which has very short iterations. Every
iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to next iterations. Nicole is
reporting to Brandon regarding the project risks and constraints in the project. Brandon asked
him to tailor the project risk management processes according to the situation in the project.
Some of the considerations that Philip is considering for tailoring the project risk management
are.
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A. Project complexity.
B. Project importance.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. Only Option A is correct
157. Gloria is the lead financial analyst in a Fortune 100 company. She is handling multiple
projects and, spent most of the time in project cost-related techniques and calculations. In one of
the performance meeting project manager came up with the following measurement, AC (Actual
cost) =500, PV (planned value) =600 and EV (earned value) =650. What is going on in this
project?
A. Project is under budget, and ahead of schedule.
B. Project is over budget, and ahead of schedule.
C. Project is under budget, and behind the schedule.
D. Project is over budget, and behind schedule.
158. Jeremy is working for Synergy Inc. He is working as a lead analyst in the projects. He is
reporting to Cheryl, who is the agile project manager in Synergy Inc. Cheryl asked Jeremy to
identify the risks as well as prioritize the risks which may affect the project. Jeremy considers
some other characteristics other than probability and impact of risk. Which is the characteristic
used to prioritize risk?
A. Proximity.
B. Manageability.
C. Detectability.
159. A questionnaire is sent to risk experts and asking about the risks in the project, once the
questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to reach the consensus and generate an
opinion. This process is known as?
A. Interview.
B. Delphi technique.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
160. Brittany is a lead business analyst for a leading pharmaceutical company. She is reporting to
Kayla who is the director of the company. Kayla asked Brittany to calculate the future value
based on the current parameters in the project. The present value of the project is $350000
Brittany was asked to calculate the future value of the project in 4 years’ time from now, and the
interest rate is 8 %. What is the future value?
A. $475,000
B. $476,000
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C. $477,000
D. $478,000
161. Procurement management includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products
or services needed from outside the project team. Megan is mostly working on the process of
obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller and offer the contract. Mainly Megan is involved in
obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list selecting a seller. The selected seller
has been awarded the contract. She will receive proposals from the sellers, and based on the
predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. She identified one of the options given
below is not a valid process in project procurement management, identify it.
A. Plan procurement management.
B. Control procurement risks.
C. Conduct procurement.
D. Control procurement.
162. Carol is the construction manager in a leading design company. Carol reports to Susan. In
the latest project, Susan asked Carol to find out the option to make the product in-house or
contract the job. Carol is thinking whether or not to contract out a job. If she hires an engineer
the cost will be 35,000 and pay a construction team 15,000 per week. A contractor quotes you a
price of 19,000 per week and your expert agrees that you won’t find a lower price than that. Time
is 16 weeks. What is the best way to proceed?
A. To contract the job.
B. Make the product in the company.
C. Outsource the job.
163. Reach communication is the market leader in the telecom industry. Ethan is working on an
agile project which has 2 iterations for every month. Ethan is involved in documenting the
procedures for procurement decisions and obtaining seller response, selecting a seller and award
the contract to them, and monitor the contract performance. What are the main outputs of the
process group Ethan is involved in?
A. Procurement management plan, procurement statement of work.
B. Selected sellers, agreements.
C. Closed procurements.
164. Arthur is working for a leading logistics company in USA. The company is handles new
projects for every year. Arthur is directly reporting to the financial director of the company. In
one of the projects Arthur is handling has the information, SPI (schedule performance index) is
1.2 and the CPI (cost performance index) is 0.9, which statement is true?
A. SPI 1.2 means the project is behind schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
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over budget.
B. SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
under budget.
C. SPI 1.2 means the project is behind schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
under budget.
D. SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
over budget.
165. Your company can accept one of the 3 projects. Project A has NPV of $30,000, it will take 5
years to complete, and the associated cost will be $10,000. Project B has NPV of $60,000 it will
take 3 years to complete, and the cost will be $ 15,000. Project C has NPV of $80,000 it will take 4
years to complete and it will cost $40,000. Which project will you pick?
A. $30,000
B. $80,000
C. $60,000
D. $45,000
166. This contract is suitable when the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well
defined and not likely to change. It has more risk to the seller. Sometimes unexpected costs occur
during the course of the project. Since the price is fixed on the contract, the seller is responsible
for the unexpected additional expenses. The risk to the buyer in the contract is, if the seller won’t’
deliver the work. In one of the below contract type the seller may have impacted due to sudden
change in requirement or project scope, which one?
A. Cost reimbursable contract.
B. Fixed price contract.
C. Time and materials contract.
D. Cost plus incentive fees contract.
167. Ruth is working on procurement management process. She was involved in plan
procurement management. She is working on the cost-reimbursable contract. In this type of
contract, the seller is reimbursed with all the allowable costs to perform the contract work and
receive a fixed-fees payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs. The
fees which is used in cost-plus contracts to encourage the seller to increase the performance of the
work is known as?
A. Fixed fees.
B. Economic price adjustment fees.
C. Incentive fees.
D. Award fees.
168. Tom is the project manager in the project and he is involved in the procurement related
work. He is involved in analyzing the qualified seller list and creating source selection criteria.
Which procurement management process Tom is involved in?
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A. Plan procurement management, conduct procurement.
B. Conduct procurement, control procurement.
C. Conduct procurement.
D. Conduct procurements, Plan procurement management.
169. Alan is the project manager in a project which develops software for drones. He was
involved in all the processes in procurement management. In the current project he is involved in
closing the contract. After closing the contract normally he went through it again to find out what
happened to the project to find out what went wrong and updating the lessons learnt documents.
This act is known as?
A. Organizational process asset updates.
B. Procurement audit.
C. Record management system.
D. Inspection and audit.
170. Procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list
selecting a seller. The selected seller is awarded the contract. During this process, the project team
will receive proposals from the sellers, and based on the predefined criteria the sellers are selected
for the work. Procurement process involves selection of the seller’s proposals, negotiating with the
selected seller, buyer and seller finally comes to an agreement and sign the contract. The process
of evaluating seller responses, selecting the seller and award the contract is called?
B. Conduct procurement.
C. Control procurement.
171. Price redefined Inc. is the leading credit card company. Jennifer works in the procurement
department and she directly reports to the CFO of the company. She is involved in all the
procurement management related processes in the organization. She is currently involved in a
contract, in this type of contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project
plus an agreeable amount on top of it. This type of contract is risky to both the buyer and the
seller. If the cost involved in the project is more than expected, the buyer needs to pay the
additional costs occurred. The fixed fee on top of the costs occurred, sometimes not worth to the
seller. Identify the type of contract the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project
plus an agreeable amount on top of it.
A. Cost plus award fee contract.
B. Cost plus incentive fee contract.
C. Cost plus fixed fees contract.
D. Fixed price plus incentive fees contract.
172. Good Health LLC is a drug manufacturing company and it has many divisions around the
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world. Smith works in the procurement division. They are working on a unique contract with the
vendors. He represents the buyer. For this contract, the buyer won’t have the expertise to
evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In this type of situation, Good Health LLC approaches the
3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd party will come with the estimates of how much the
project costs. This technique is called?
A. Expert judgment.
B. Bidder conference.
C. Procurement audit.
D. Independent cost estimates.
173. This category of contract involves payments to the seller for all actual costs on the completed
work plus a profit. It is used when the scope of work is expected to change significantly during the
execution of the contract. In this type of contract, the seller is reimbursed with all the costs, but
the main fee is earned based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria
that is defined in the contract. This type of contract is called?
A. Cost plus fixed fee contract.
B. Cost plus incentive fees contract.
C. Cost plus award fees contract.
D. Firm fixed fees contract.
174. Bid documents are used to select proposals from the seller. Depending on the service, the bid
documents can include request for quotation, request for proposal or other procurement related
documents. Gloria is the project manager working on bids with the sellers. She is working on the
document to come up with information that will help in determining how vendors will satisfy the
requirements and how much it will cost. Identify the bid document that Gloria is working on.
A. RFQ
B. RFI
C. RFP
175. Madison is working as a lead in the procurement department for the organization involved
in construction. She is involved in the procurement management process which involves the
verification of the product and work for compliance purpose. After which she will finalize the
open claims, update records, archiving all the information for future reference. This type of
procurement is called?
B. Control procurement.
C. Both A and B.
D. Conduct procurement.
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176. Project stakeholder management includes the processes of identifying the people and groups
impacted by the project. Processes help to find the right stakeholders and develop approaches to
involve them based on their needs. Natalie is working on the project as a project manager. She is
working on communicating with stakeholders to meet their needs and tailoring strategies
according to stakeholders and their needs. She is working on all the 4 processes in project
stakeholder management, and she just created stakeholder register and stakeholder engagement
plan. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project stakeholder management.
Identify the invalid process from the given choices.
A. Plan stakeholder engagement.
B. Conduct stakeholder management.
C. Identify stakeholders.
D. Manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement.
177. Helen is the project manager in a company that is manufacturing storage tanks. She is
working on the earned monetary value in the current project that she is working on. She is
reporting to Bruce who is the PMO for the group of projects. Bruce asked Helen to calculate the
project EMV for the project that she is working on. The current project is to reduce the errors in
the accounting system, and has 70 % chance of saving the company $200,000 over the next year.
It has 30 % chance of costing the company $100,000. What’s the project EMV?
A. $ 140,000
B. $30,000
C. $110,000
D. $170,000
178. Discount Inc. is the market leader in coupon industry. Justin is working on a project which
has multiple iterations. He is involved in the processes required to identify people that could be
impacted by the project. He is also involved in developing the strategies for managing those
affected by the project by involving them in project decisions. What are the main outputs of the
process group Justin is involved in?
A. Stakeholder engagement plan.
B. Work performance information, change requests.
179. Lori is the key stakeholder as well as the project manager in the project. She reports to
Lawrence. She is working on one of the data representation technique called stakeholder
engagement assessment matrix. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix compares the current
engagement levels of stakeholders and the desired engagement levels for the success of the
project. Stakeholder’s engagement levels are classified into?
A. Supportive, resistant, aware.
B. Unaware, neutral, resistant, supportive, leading.
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C. Internal, external, neutral, resistant.
D. Supportive, aware, neutral.
180. Daniel is working on the data representation techniques for FirstCorp Inc. Daniel is working
on all the processes in project stakeholder management. Some of the Classification models used
in stakeholder analysis are?
A. Power/interest grid, power/influence grid or influence/impact grid.
B. Stakeholder cube.
C. Salience model.
181. Gilbert is working on a stakeholder management project. He is working on developing a

matrix that denotes the current engagement level and desired engagement level. The current
engagement level by stakeholders is shown as “C” and the desired engagement levels are shown as
“D”. This matrix is used to find the gaps in engagement levels and actions are taken to close the
gap between the current state and desired future state of engagement. The matrix used to find out
the current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for the project is
called?
A. RACI matrix.
B. Responsibility assignment matrix.
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix.
182. Randall is the project manager of Excel Technologies Inc. He is involved in all the project
risk management processes. He is working on developing strategies for threats as well as
opportunities. One of the given options is not a valid strategy to deal with the threats in the
project. Identify the strategy which is not valid for a threat.
A. Accept.
B. Exploit.
C. Avoid.
D. Escalate.
183. Debra is working for a leading insurance company in USA. The company is handles new
projects for every quarter. Debra is directly reporting to the financial director of the company. In
one of the projects Debra is handling has the information EV = $130500, PV = 125500, AC =
129000, which of the following statements is true?
A. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than
EV that indicates project is under budget.
B. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is behind the schedule. AC is smaller
than EV that indicates project is under budget.
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C. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than
EV that indicates project is over budget.
D. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is behind the schedule. AC is smaller
than EV that indicates project is over budget.
184. Eugene is the key stakeholder as well as the project manager in the project. She is working
on some of processes available in project stakeholder management. Currently she is working on a
classification model in stakeholder analysis based on the power, urgency and their involvement in
the project. This model is known as?
A. Power/interest grid.
B. Power/influence grid.
C. Influence/impact grid.
D. Salience model.
185. Stakeholder register is used to identify all the internal and external stakeholders who have
interest and influence on the project. It is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project
who can provide information related to the requirements. It also contains key requirements for
the project, stakeholder information, their communication needs and requirements. One of the
given options is used to identify all the internal and external stakeholders who have interest and
influence on the project. Which one is it?
A. RACI matrix.
B. Responsibility assignment matrix.
D. SWOT.
186. Sam owns a truck company, which delivers machinery. He has 10 employees in the company.
In the current project work, Sam and his team ar e delivering machineries worth 600,000. In the
past during deliveries no issue or accidents have been reported. This time Sam estimates that
there is a 5 percent probability that the equipment could be damaged or lost. While exploring the
possibility of transferring this risk to an insurance company, you found out the insurance
premium 15000. What will be the best course of action?
A. Replace the damaged products.
B. Buy insurance.
C. Take the risk.
D. Do nothing.
187. Madison is the project lead for a major telecom company. Her project currently has 10 more
people assigned to the team beside you. As her project is getting delayed, management wants her
to add 4 additional team members to the project at the end of the month. How many more
communication channels will she have once the additional team members are added?
A. 70
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B. 60
C. 40
D. 50
188. Paul is the project manager of Xylo Corporation. He is involved in all the project risk
management processes. He is working on developing strategies for threats as well as
opportunities. One of the given options is not a valid strategy to deal with the opportunities in the
project. Identify the strategy.
A. Escalate
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Share
189. Joshua is a Stakeholder who has low power or influence and has low interest in the ongoing
project. She is reporting to Samuel who is the functional manager in the organization. Select the
right option to communicate with the stakeholder.
A. Kept informed.
B. Kept satisfied.
C. Monitored.
D. Managed closely.
190. Amana is the project lead for a leading chain store in North America. She handles all the
processes in the project stakeholder management. Amanda reports to Brian who is the senior
manager in the company. Brian wants her to identify all the inputs related to plan stakeholder
management. One of the given options is not a valid input to plan stakeholder management.
Identify it.
B. Stakeholder engagement plan.
C. Project charter.
D. EEF.
191. Christine is the project manager for a project where scope keeps changing. Due to changes in
scope the code also needs to change and updated. At the last iteration, the requested changes are
more. Every time she used to get approval from the change control board since the scope is
baselined. Change requests may include?
C. Defect repair.
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192. Andrea is the project manager in a company that manufactures paper boards. She used to
report to Jerry and consult with him regarding the project constraints. They both used to get
guidance from the PMO in the organization. Some of the Project manager competencies are?
A. Technical project management.
B. Leadership.
C. Strategic and business management.
193. Lawrence is working as a project manager. Most of his work is project cost estimation
related. Lawrence reports to Christina. The project would cost $6, 00,000. The expected inflows
will be $30, 000 per quarter for the first 2 years and then $90,000 per quarter thereafter. What is
the payback period for this project?
A. 48 months.
B. 24 months.
C. 36 months.
D. 60 months.
194. Decomposition of the total project work into work packages involves the following activities.
A. Identifying and analyzing the deliverables and related work, Structuring and organizing the wbs.
B. Decomposing the upper wbs levels into lower level detailed components.
C. Developing and assigning identification codes to the wbs components, verifying that the degree of
decomposition of the deliverables is appropriate.
195. Dylan is the project manager for the company named Synergy Inc. The finance department
allocated a project a budget of 90,000 to develop a program. Dylan is reporting to Scott who is the
director of the company. Dylan found Actual cost AC = 30,000 and Earned value (EV) = 35,000.
What is his EAC (estimate at completion)?
A. $85,000
B. $90,000
C. $70,000
D. $60,000
196. Walter is working on the program which contains a group of projects. Out of 8 projects,
management has selected 2 projects and later on decided to go for Project X, which would yield
$250,000 in benefits instead of project Y, which would yield $200,000. What is the opportunity
cost for selecting project X over Project Y?
A. $50,000
B. $200,000
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C. $250,000
D. $300,000
197. Jacob is the project manager in a multinational company which has many branches
throughout the world. More than 5000 employees are working for his company. Jacob reports to
Amy regarding any issues in the project. Amy asked Jacob to define the problem solving steps.
Which of the following is a problem solving elements?
A. Define the problem, Identify the root-cause.
B. Generating possible solutions, choosing the best solution.
C. Implementing the solution, verifying solution effectiveness.
198. Sylvia is the project manager for a project where requirements keep changing. Due to the
requirement change, the scope baseline also needs to change and updated. In the middle of the
iteration the requested changes are more. Every time she used to get approval from change
control board, since the scope is baselined and approved. Change control tools should support
change management activities such as?
A. Identify changes, Document changes.
B. Decide on changes.
C. Track changes.
199. Debra is the project manager in the quality control department. She is working on the cost of
quality, which covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate the quality-
related activities. The cost of quality work incurred throughout the project consists one or more
of the following costs.
A. Preventive costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Both A and B.
D. only A
200. Kelly is the project manager for a leading company involved in virtual reality. She reports to
Amber. Amber wants Kelly to find out the source selection criteria used in the organization,
which they are working on. Commonly used source selection methods is?
A. least cost, qualifications only.
B. Quality based/highest technical proposal score.
C. Quality and cost based, sole source, fixed budget.
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Answers to Practice Questions:
1. Answer: D. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product. It has a definite
beginning and an end. It can be a part of a program or portfolio. Project drive changes to the
organization.
2. Answer. B. Market demand is not a valid project constraint. Valid project constraints are risk,
quality, resources, budget, scope and schedule.
3. Answer: Option A is not a valid option for project trigger. Valid options are legal requirements,
market demand, customer request, technology and social needs.
4. Answer: Option B is correct. Operations work is ongoing and repeatable. Other options are related to
the characteristics of the project.
5. Answer: Option C is correct. Program is a collection of related projects which are closely linked,
Project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Portfolio is a group of
projects or programs which are linked together by a common objective.
6. Answer: Option A is not an objective of PMO. It is one of the project manager’s tasks. The functions
of PMO are;
Manage shared resources.
Coaching, mentoring, guidance whenever needed.

Identify and develop project management methodology, standards and best practices.
Monitoring compliance with project management processes by audits.
Develop and manage organizational process assets such as procedures, templates,
policies.
Communications between projects.
7. Answer: Option B is correct. The level of control is high in directive PMO Structure. The level of
control is medium in controlling PMO Structure. The level of control is low in supportive PMO
structure.
8. Answer: Option C is not one of the core competencies of a project manager. It is one of the
interpersonal skills of a project manager. Project managers should have the competencies shown below,
Knowledge: How much they know about project management.

Performance: A project manager is able to apply the knowledge to get the results.
Personal: It is the attitude and other personal characteristics, leadership shown when
doing the project.
9. Answer: Option A is correct. Based on the control and influence the PMO structure may be,
Supportive : This type serves as a project repository, and the role in this type is
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consultative. The level of control is low.
Controlling : It has a moderate level of control. Provide supportive roles and requires
compliance.
Directing : Directly involves in projects and programs. The level of control is high.
10. Answer: Option B is correct. Directing PMO structure which appoints project manager and manages
all the projects in the organization.
11. Answer: Option B is not a valid matrix organization. Other options are correct. Matrix organization
is subdivided into 3 categories as weak matrix organization, strong matrix organization and balanced
matrix organization.
12. Answer: Option C is correct. Richard is working in a functional organization. In a Functional

organization:
Project team reports to functional managers.

Organization is grouped by functional areas e.g.: marketing, sales etc.
Project managers have not much influence/power in this type of organization.
Project managers work as an assistant to the functional managers.
Project managers mostly work on administrative tasks in the project.
13. Answer: Option B is correct. Paul is working in a projectized organization.

Projectized organization:
Project teams are grouped based on the projects. Once the project work is done, the
project team is disbanded and the team members continue to work on other projects.
The project manager is responsible for the project's success and has authority.
The project manager can make key decisions related to resources, budget, and schedule.
Project coordinators and expeditors won't exist in projectized organization.
When the work is complete, the team members don't have departments to go back to.
14. Answer: Option D is correct. Sam is working in a weak matrix organization.

Weak matrix organization:
Functional manager has more authority than the project manager.

Major project decisions are taken by the functional manager.
Project manager role in this type of organization is part time.
Power of project manager is similar to expeditor (can't make any decisions in the project)
and project coordinators (can make some decisions).
15. Answer: Option C is correct. During the Initiating phase of the projects project risks and
uncertainties are higher. Risk and uncertainty high at the beginning of the project and decrease during
the course of the project.
16. Answer: Option B is correct. In a projectized organization, Project expeditors and coordinators
don’t exist. In a weak matrix organization the Power of project manager is similar to expeditor (can't
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make any decisions in the project) and project coordinators (can make some decisions).
17. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder register is used to identify the people who are affected by
the project. A stakeholder register is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project who can
provide information related to the requirements. Also it contains the key requirements for the project.
18. Answer: Option D is not a valid phase-to-phase relationship. Valid phase-to-phase relationship is
sequential relationship and overlapping relationship.
19. Answer: Option B is correct. Sequential phase-to-phase relationship, the next phase starts only if
the previous phase is complete. This step-by-step approach reduces risk, but the overall schedule may
be impacted.
20. Answer: Option B is OPA (organizational process asset). It refers to conditions that are not under
the project team’s control, and it influences the project. Some of the EEF factors are:
Market condition.
Organizational culture, structure and governance.
Human resources.
Personal administration.
Political conditions.
Work authorization system.
PMIS (project management information systems).
Government and industry standards.
Commercial databases.
Stakeholder risk tolerance.
Infrastructure.
Communication channels.
21. Answer: Option C is EEF (Enterprise environmental factor). Some of the OPA are,
Historical records.
Templates.
Plans, processes and procedures.
Lessons learned.
22. Answer: Option A is correct. In a Projectized organization;
Project teams are grouped based on the projects. Once the project work is done, the
project team is disbanded and the team members continue to work on other projects.
Project manager is responsible for the project’s success and has authority.
Project manager can make key decisions related to resources, budget, and schedule.
Project coordinators and expeditors won’t exist in projectized organization.
When the work is complete, the team members don’t have departments to go back.
23. Answer: Option C is correct. In a Matrix organization conflicts are more, and resource allocation is
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difficult also the team members have more than one person to report.
24. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the characteristics of a functional organization are:
Project team reports to functional managers.

Organization is grouped by functional areas e.g.: marketing, sales, etc.
Project managers have no much influence/power in this type of organization.
They work as an assistant to the functional managers.
Project managers mostly work on administrative tasks in the project.
25. Answer: Option B is correct. Predictive life cycle is also called plan-driven lifecycle. In this
lifecycle scope, cost and schedule are determined in the early stage of the project, before starting the
work. Projects go through series of sequential or overlapping phases. Project is initiated and the team
define the scope of the project, then creates the plan to develop the product, and execute the work. Any
changes to the scope are managed through the change control process and it requires re-planning and
formal acceptance.
When the scope is well known then the project work is done by the predictive lifecycle.
26. Answer: Option C is correct. Initiating process is to define and authorization to start the project.
Initiate the project and decide what is going to be built for the project. It is using the identify
stakeholder and develop project charter. The main outputs in this process group are project charter,
identified stakeholders and stakeholder register. Project manager is assigned during this process. Once
the project charter is approved, the project starts officially.
27. Answer: Option C is correct. It formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to
apply resources to complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done on a project. An approved
project charter initiates the project.
It is in the Initiating process group. Since project is sponsored by sponsors, charter needs to be approved
by sponsors. PM should be allocated while developing the project charter for the purpose of
understanding the requirements. Charter identifies the business needs and stakeholders' expectations.
28. Answer: Option D is correct. Executing process, executes the defined plan, to complete the work
defined in project management plan. Actual project work is done in the executing process group.
Project costs are usually high in this process group since it is utilizing all the resources to complete the
project. As per the project management plan execution process group perform the activities to complete
the work defined. It involves managing stakeholders and their expectations, manage resources, and
perform the activities as per the project management plan.
During execution of project the plan may change, and the baselines must be updated to reflect the
changes. As a result change requests are created to bring back the project as per the plan. Change
request approvals are done for preventive, corrective actions and defect repairs.
29. Answer: Option B is correct. Monitor and control measures and monitors the progress and
performance of the project, and identify if there are any variances and take corrective actions if needed.
30. Answer: Option B is correct. The knowledge area integrates with all parts of the project is called
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project integration management.
31. Answer: Option D is correct. Project enters into the closing process group when the project phase is
completed or the project is completed. The closing process group formally completes all the activities
across all project management groups in a project phase or a project or contractual obligations.
Premature closure of the project is also formally done in this process group. During project closure, the
following may happen.
Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase.

Conduct post-project review.
Measure customer satisfaction.
Archive project records and documents.
Document lessons learned.
Update organizational project assets.
Transfer products to operations.
Release the team.
Close the contract.
32. Answer: Option C is correct. Planning is an iterative process, and it must be done throughout the
project as more information is available is called progressive elaboration. Work to be done in the near
(next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is called
progressive elaboration.
33. Answer: Option C is correct.
Laissez-faire: Allows the team to make their own decisions and establish their own goals.
Charismatic: The leader has a high energy level and enthusiastic and self-confident. Able to inspire the
team by their activities.
Servant leader: This type of leader committed to serve and put others first. They focus on other people’s
growth, learning, development, autonomy and well-being.
Interactional: This type of leader has the combination of transactional, transformational and charismatic
leadership styles.
Transactional: This type of a leader focuses on goals, feedback and accomplishment to determine
rewards.
Transformational: They empower the followers through encouragement for innovation and creativity
and individual consideration.
34. Answer: Option D is correct. An effective project manager has the following characteristics.
Courteous
Creative
Authentic
Intellectual
Managerial
Political
Social
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Service-oriented
cultural
35. Answer: Option C is correct. The activities in the monitor and control process group are measure
progress and performance, find out the variance, and recommend preventive and corrective actions
through change control, updates to the project management plan.
Monitoring and control process group track, measure and review the progress and performance of the
project, to ensure the project is on track and identify areas in which changes to the plan are required and
initiate the changes. Performance is measured at regular intervals to verify the variance from the project
management plan.
36. Answer: Option C is correct. James is working on the process to direct and manage project work.
The key outputs of the process are:
Deliverables,
change requests,
issue log,
work performance data,
project management plan updates,
project document updates,
OPA updates.
37. Answer: Option C is correct. The process group which Obtains formal sign-off from the customer
for the project or phase, Measure customer satisfaction, Archive project records and documents,
Document lessons learned, Release the team is called closing.
Project enters into the closing process group when the project phase is completed or the project is
completed. The closing process group formally completes all the activities across all project
management groups in a project phase or a project or contractual obligations. Premature closure of the
project is also formally done in this process group. During project closure, the following may happen.
Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase.

Conduct post-project review.
Measure customer satisfaction.
Archive project records and documents.
Update organizational project assets.
Transfer products to operations.
Release the team.
Close the contract.
38. Answer: Option D is correct. This log keeps recording all the issues occurred during execution of
the project, and it needs to be shared with the stakeholders. This log is kept updated throughout the
project, whenever new issues are identified. An issue log is the project document, where all the issues
are recorded and tracked, data on issue log includes;
Issue type, who raised the issue and when, description, priority, who is assigned to the
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issue, target resolution date, status and final solution.
39. Answer: Option B is correct. Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control, closing process
groups must be included in all the projects.
40. Answer: Option C is correct. The projects within a program may impact a project due to.
Priorities of funding.
Demand for the same resource.
Alignment of project goals and objectives with the organization.
Distribution of deliverables.
41. Answer: Option C is not correct. It is related to business case.

Project charter formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to apply resources to
complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done in a project. An approved project charter
initiates the project.
It is in the Initiating process group. Since project is sponsored by sponsors, charter needs to be approved
by sponsors. PM should be allocated while developing the project charter for the purpose of
understanding the requirements. Charter identifies the business needs and stakeholders' expectations.
Key Contents of Project Charter:
Project Title and description.

Stakeholders.
Business case.
Project constraints and assumptions.
Sponsor for the project.
Stakeholder influence/authority level.
Product description.
Budget for the project.
PM & their roles, authority etc.
Project Risks.
Project justification.
42. Answer: Option B is not a process in project integration management. Valid processes in project
integration management are:
Develop project charter.

Develop project management plan.
Direct and manage project work.
Manage project knowledge.
Monitor and control project work.
Perform integrated change control.
Close project or phase.
43. Answer: Option D is not a valid output. Valid outputs from project integration management are:
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Project charter.
Project management plan.
Assumption log, issue log.
Deliverables, work performance data.
Change requests, lessons learned register, work performance reports.
Approved change requests, final product.
Project document updates, OPA updates.
44. Answer: Option C is correct. Project statement of work describes the business need, the product
scope description and how the project supports the strategic plan. It describes the product that is
delivered by the project.
45. Answer: Option D is correct. The activities related to configuration management performed in
perform integration management are configuration identification, configuration status accounting,
configuration verification and audit.
46. Answer: Option D is correct. Business case is created as a result of:
Market demand.
Customer request.
Organizational needs.
Legal requirement.
Technological advance.
Social needs.
Ecological impact.
47. Answer: Option D is correct. Information management tools and techniques are used to create and
connect people to information. Some of the tools and techniques involved in information management
are:
Lessons learned register.

Library services.
PMIS.
Information gathering.
48. Answer: Option B is correct. Perform integrated change control process reviewing the change
requests by the board based on the merits and demerits approve or reject them, manage the changes.
49. Answer: Option C is correct. Work authorization system is used to manage when and what
sequence the project work will be done. Scheduling tool, configuration management system, work
authorization system all are part of PMIS.
50. Answer: Option B is not a valid input. Valid inputs to direct and manage work are:

Project documents.
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Approved change requests.
EEF.
OPA.
51. Answer: Option B is correct. An action taken to reduce the possibility of risks in the project is
called preventive action.
Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project management plan
Preventive action: Actions taken to reduce the risk in the project.
Defect repair: Actions taken to modify the product.
Updates: Changes to the formal project related documents.
52. Answer: Option D is correct. Activities that take place during closure of the project or phase are:
Close the contract.

Release the team.
Update OPA.
Obtain sign-off from customer.
53. Answer: Option C is correct. Monitor and control project work compares the actual performance
against the planned one in the project management plan and if there is any variation from the plan, the
variation is corrected through corrective action by the change control process.
Constant monitoring of performance through taking readings against the cost, schedule and
performance baselines. In general, this process is concerned with:
Comparing actual performances against the baseline.

If the actual performance varies from baseline corrective action is taken to maintain the
baselines specified in the plan.
Provides information for status reports.
Monitor the risks.
Monitor the approved changes.
Forecast on schedule, costs, etc.
Provide reports to the stakeholders involved in the project.
54. Answer: Option A is correct. Performing the task, as defined in the project management plan and
the process is called direct and manage project work.
It is the process, where the project team works together to produce the deliverables.
Some of the tasks are:
-accomplish project objectives.

-produce deliverables.
-manage stakeholder expectations.
-risk management.
-change control management.
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-manages the communication.
-document lessons learnt.
-work performance data is constantly collected and action is taken through change
control, if there is any variation from the planned.
55. Answer: Option B is not a valid option. Valid input to the monitor and control project work process
are:

Project documents.
Work performance information.
EEF.
OPA.
56. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Both project schedule and schedule management plan are
the key outputs in project scope management.
Valid processes available in project scope management are:
Plan scope management.

Collect requirements.
Define scope.
Create WBS.
Validate scope.
Control scope.
57. Answer: Option B is not correct. Valid group decision making techniques are:
Unanimity: This decision is taken by everyone in the group and also accepted by everyone.
Majority: In this decision making more than half of the members of the group support the decision.
Plurality: Decision is based on the largest block in the group, even if the majority of the vote is not
reached.
Dictatorship: In this method one individual decides for the entire group.
58. Answer: Option C is not a valid type of requirement. Requirements can be classified into different
types as follows:
Business requirements: It describes the needs of the organization.
Stakeholder requirements: It describes the needs of the stakeholders.
Solution requirements: It describes the features, characteristics of the project. It is further classified
into functional and non-functional requirements.
Functional requirements: It describes the behavior of the product.
Non-functional requirements : It describes the environmental conditions or qualities required for the
project. E.g.: performance, security, etc.
Transition requirements: It is needed during the transition from current state to future state.
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Quality requirements: It describes condition or capability that needs to be met by the project or
product.
59. Answer: Option C is correct. Details of all the work packages in the work breakdown structure are
stored in WBS Dictionary. It contains:
A unique identifier called code of account identifier.

Assumptions and constraints.
Acceptance criteria.
Schedule, cost estimates.
Description about the work that needs to be done.
The team responsible to do the work.
Quality requirements.
60. Answer: Option D is correct. Examples of product analysis technique are:
Requirement analysis.
Product breakdown.
System analysis.
System engineering.
Value analysis.
Value engineering.
61. Answer: Option C is not a valid option regarding the WBS. WBS shows how the deliverables are
broken down into work packages.
62. Answer: Option D is correct. The techniques used for decision making in collect requirement
process are:
Voting (Unanimity, majority, plurality).

Autocratic decision making -- one individual takes responsibility for deciding for the
group.
Multicriteria decision making - It uses the decision matrix to establish criteria such as
risk level, uncertainty, valuation to evaluate and rank the ideas.
63. Answer: Option B is correct. Uncontrolled changes and will affect the project cost, schedule,
quality and also it will increase the risk for the project is called scope creep. It will increase the risk of
the project.
64. Answer: Option D is correct. Available group creativity techniques are:
Brainstorming, Nominal group technique.

Idea/mind mapping, Affinity diagram.
Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Affinity diagram.
Questionnaire and surveys.
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65. Answer: Option D is correct. Change requests are made for the purpose of :
Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project
management plan.
Defect repair: Actions taken to modify the product.
66. Answer: Option B is correct. Scope baseline contains project scope statement, WBS and Work
package and planning package. Once the scope is finalized and approved scope baseline is created. For
future updates to the scope baseline must be approved by change control board, through the change
control process.
67. Answer: Option A is correct. The main difference between the validate scope and control scope is:
Validate scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer,
whereas control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline.
Validate Scope:
It is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer. Verified product
from the quality control process is reviewed by customer for acceptance. There are some differences
between the quality control process and validate scope process.
The differences are, quality control considers mainly the correctness of the product
generally done by the quality control department and validate scope considers completion
of the project done by the customer.
Both can be done in parallel, perform control quality is done before validate scope.
Control Scope:
Control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline. Through the control scope,
the scope baseline is maintained throughout the project. Change is inevitable in a project. When a
change is requested, it needs to go through the change control process for approval. Whenever a change
is requested, it is compared against the baseline, and planning is done for the new request. It will result
in updated baseline.
68. Answer: Option D is correct. It is a grid which links requirements of the products from their origin
to deliverables. Attributes used in requirement traceability matrix are:
Unique id.
Description of requirement.
Source of requirement.
Owner of requirement.
Current status.
Priority.
69. Answer: Option D is correct.

WBS Dictionary contains the details of work packages listed in the WBS. WBS dictionary contains
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details about the work done for each work package in the WBS. It contains:
A unique identifier called code of account identifier.

Assumptions and constraints.
Acceptance criteria.
Schedule, cost estimates.
Description about the work that needs to be done.
Team responsible to do the work.
Quality requirements.
70. Answer: Option C is correct. Context diagram visually shows a business system and how people
and other business systems are interacting with it. It shows the input, and shows who provide the input,
and output from the business system, and who receives the output.
Affinity diagrams: Ideas generated from any other requirement collection technique grouped together
based on similarities. Each group can be given a title, to find out additional ideas.
Idea/mind mapping: Ideas collected from different individual brainstorming sessions are discussed and
drawn into a graphical format. It helps to visualize the ideas related to each other ideas generated.
Delphi technique: This technique is used to get the opinions of experts. In this technique, instead of
everybody in the same room, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts and asking about the risks in the
project. Once the questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to reach the consensus in opinion.
It will take a few rounds to reach the consensus. In this technique, nobody knows about who else is
involved in this process.
71. Answer: Option C is not a valid option. Valid processes in project schedule management are:
Plan schedule management.

Define activities.
Sequence activities.
Estimate activity durations.
Develop schedule.
Control schedule.
72. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the considerations for tailoring are:
Resource availability – considering the relation between resource availability and

productivity.
Life cycle approach – finding out the correct life cycle approach for a detailed schedule.
Project dimensions - considering different aspects of project like complexity,
technological uncertainty etc. for the impact of the project.
Technology Support - Technology used to develop, record, transmit, receive, store the
project schedule is accessible.
73. Answer: Option D is correct. Main outputs of plan schedule management are:
Schedule management plan.

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Activity list.
Activity attributes.
Milestone list.
Change requests.
Project schedule network diagram.
Duration estimates.
Basis of estimates.
Schedule baseline.
Project schedule.
Schedule data.
Project calendars.
Project management plan updates, project documents updates.
Schedule forecasts.
74. Answer: Option C is not a valid option. Valid relationship is Start-to-Start, Start-to-Finish, Finish-
to-Start, and Finish-to-Finish.
Start-to-Start : Successor activity cannot be started until a predecessor activity has started.
Start-to-Finish : Successor activity cannot be finished until a predecessor activity has started
Finish-to-Start : Predecessor activity must be completed before the successor activity can be initiated.
Finish-to-Finish : Successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity is finished.
75. Answer: Option D is correct. Resource leveling is used to produce the resource limited schedule.
Sometimes key resources to finish a task are limited in the organization. If the resource is busy with
other activities on the critical path, then the critical path needs to add the dependency. It can change the
critical path. Resource leveling is used when:
The necessary resources to do the task are available only at certain times.
Resources are in limited quantity.
Resources are over-allocated.
Resource usage at a constant level.
76. Answer: Option B is correct. Crashing is done to meet the project dates additional resources added
to the critical path whereas in fast-tracking activities on the critical path are done in sequence.
Crashing: To meet the project dates, additional resources added to the critical path. This is called
Crashing. It always costs more due to additional resources. If the budget is fixed for the project, we
can’t use this technique.
Fast Tracking: In this technique 2 activities on the critical path doing in sequence. It is risky and ends
up in redoing again from the beginning. It can be used when activities are overlapped to shorten the
duration.
77. Answer: Option B is correct. Developing schedule is a process of analyzing activity sequence,
dependency, resource requirements, duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model.
Developing schedule is an iterative process. It is a process of analyzing activity sequence, dependency,
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resource requirements, duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model. Schedule tool
is used mostly to develop the schedule. We need to enter the durations, schedule activities, resources,
resource availability, and duration into the scheduling tool, to generate the schedule.
Based on the schedule model used, we can determine the planned start and finish dates for the project
activities. Approved project schedule can be used as a baseline and it is helpful to track the project
progress.
78. Answer: Option A is correct. In the PDM diagram (Precedence diagramming method). This
diagram displays the logical and sequential activities in the project. Activities are shown in rectangle
and the relationships are shown in arrows.
Most commonly used relationship: Finish-to-Start.

Rarely used relationship: and Start-to-Finish.
79. Answer: Option B is correct. Adjusting leads and lags is done in schedule development.
80. Answer: Option B is not a valid dependency. Finish-to-Start is not a valid dependency in
sequencing activities. 4 types of dependencies attributes in the project are:
Internal,
External.
Mandatory.
Discretionary dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies: They are required by the nature of work.eg: contract. All the
terms in the contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. It is called as hard logic.
Discretionary dependencies: It is the preferred way that the organization wants the
work to be done. It is called preferred logic or soft logic. These type of dependencies are
easy to change when needed. E.g. fast tracking. During fast-tracking, these discretionary
dependencies can be modified or removed.
External dependencies: In some situations, the project work depends on the external
factors which are outside of the project work. It is not in the control of the project team.
E.g. project approval by environmental regulations.
Internal dependencies: These are the dependencies within the project team’s control. It
depends on the project's needs. Project management team decides which dependencies
are internal or external.
81. Answer: Option C is the right answer. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in
detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level and it is called rolling wave planning.
Progressive elaboration is also a correct answer.
Rolling wave planning:
It uses iterative planning. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work
in the future is planned at a higher level. It is called progressive elaboration. Agile methodologies using
rolling wave planning. Only plan in detail for the current iteration and complete the work. After user
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reviewed the work, and updates are done in the product, the next iteration is planned in detail.
Progressive elaboration:
Planning is an iterative process, and it must be done throughout the project as more information is
available. It is called progressive elaboration.
82. Answer: Option B is correct. Mandatory and Discretionary dependencies also called, Hard logic and
Soft logic respectively.
Discretionary dependency:
It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It is known as preferred logic or
soft logic. These type of dependencies are easy to change when needed. E.g. fast tracking. During fast-
tracking, these discretionary dependencies can be modified or removed.
Mandatory dependency:
They are required by the nature of work.eg: contract. All the terms in the contract must be satisfied to
fulfill the contract. It is called as hard logic.
83. Answer: Option B is not a valid float. Valid Float Types are;
Total Float: The float for an activity is the amount of time that can be delayed without
impacting the project schedule. The float for the activities on the critical path is zero.
Free Float: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the early
start of its successor.
Project Float : The amount of time a project can be delayed without delaying the
externally imposed project completion date.
84. Answer: Option B is correct. Coding should be done before the testing starts. This is a type of
dependency called mandatory dependency. Dependency has 4 attributes, mandatory dependencies,
discretionary dependencies, external dependencies and internal dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies: They are required by the nature of work.eg contract. All the terms in the
contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. It is known as hard logic.
Discretionary dependencies: It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It
is known as preferred logic or soft logic. This type of dependencies are easy to change when needed.
Eg.fast tracking. During fast-tracking, these discretionary dependencies can be modified or removed.
External dependencies: In some situations, the project work depends on the external factors which are
outside of the project work. It is not in the control of the project team. E.g. project approval by
environmental regulations.
Internal dependencies: These are the dependencies within the project team’s control. It depends on the
project's needs. Project management team decides which dependencies are internal or external.
85. Answer: Option D is correct. Analogous estimation is the correct answer.

This estimate uses the information from similar projects which is done before, with the same size,
complexity, scope and budget, schedule and it uses the estimate for the current project. One drawback
in this estimation is, it is less accurate. This estimation is used during the earlier stages of the project
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when limited information is available. It uses historical information and expert judgment for estimation.
It is also known as a top-down approach.
86. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Valid processes available in project cost management are:
Plan cost management.

Estimate costs.
Determine budget.
Control costs.
87. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the considerations for tailoring project cost management are:
Knowledge management – Organization has formal knowledge management.

Estimating and budgeting.
Earned value management.
Use of agile approach.
Governance.
88. Answer: Option D is correct. To address the known-unknown and to address the unknown-unknown
the reserves allocated are contingency reserve and management reserve.
Contingency reserve:
It is the reserve allocated within the cost baseline for identified risks. It is used for known risks that are
identified. The budget is to address the known-unknown. It can be a percentage of estimated cost, a
fixed number.
Management reserve:
Additional reserves allocated to manage the unforeseen risks. It is not included in the schedule baseline.
It is associated with unknown-unknowns.
Cost baseline: project cost + contingency reserve
Cost budget: cost baseline + management reserve
89. Answer: Option D is correct. Main outputs of project cost management are:
Cost management plan.

Cost estimates.
Basis of estimates.
Cost baseline.
Project funding requirements.
Work performance information, cost forecasts.
Change requests.
Project management plan updates, project document updates.
90. Answer: Option B is correct. Management reserve is not part of cost baseline but it is included in
the project budget.
Additional reserves allocated to manage the unforeseen risks. It is not included in the schedule baseline.
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It is associated with unknown-unknowns.
Cost baseline: project cost + contingency reserve
Cost budget: cost baseline + management reserve
91. Answer: Option A is correct. Analogous estimating can be called as top-down estimation.
Analogous estimating:
It is known as top-down estimation. In this type of estimation a similar project which was done before is
used as a reference. This estimation will work if the team and the activities in the previous project are
the same. This technique is used to estimate the schedule or budget from the previously done project. It
is used when very little information is available for estimation for the current project. It uses the
parameters from previous projects such as cost, duration, complexity, size of the project as a basis of
estimating the activity durations. Since it takes data from previous projects it is less costly and less time
consuming, but also less accurate.
92. Answer: Option B is correct. Rolling up costs from the work package level to the control account
level is known as cost aggregation.
Cost aggregation:
To create budget, activity costs are rolled up into work package costs. Then work package costs are
rolled up into control account costs, and then final project costs. It is known as cost aggregation.
93. Answer: Option A is correct. ROM (rough order of estimate) is done during the initiating process
group. Initial phase the project has ROM (rough order of magnitude) as -25 % to + 75 %. As the project
goes the estimates can range from -5 % to +10 %. Some organizations have specific guidelines for the
estimation process.
94. Answer: Option B is correct. The difference between cost baseline and cost budget is management
reserve. Cost budget = cost baseline + management reserve.
95. Answer: Option C is correct. Monthly salary to employees working in an organization is an

example of direct cost.
Rent, utility bills – fixed cost
Wages, cost of material, supplies – variable cost
Salary for the team, training the team – direct cost
Taxes - indirect cost
96. Answer: Option D is correct. The cost to support the product from creation of product to day-to-day
operations is called lifecycle cost.
97. Answer: Option B is correct. Estimated value of the work actually completed is known as earned
value. Other options are not correct.
98. Answer: Option D is correct. During estimation the project team identifies alternatives and selects
from the available options. The below factors are considered for estimation.
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Buy vs lease.
Make vs buy.
Resource sharing.
Cost trade-offs.
Risks.
99. Answer: Option B is correct. Parametric estimation is the correct answer.

Parametric estimating:
In this estimating mathematical model, formulas are used for cost and time estimates. The level of
accuracy is better in this method. To calculate the estimate duration’s data similar to number of lines of
code per hour, number of defects per cycle may be used. It can be applied to the entire project or
specific parts of the project.
Analogous estimation:
This estimate uses the information from similar projects which is done before, with the same size,
complexity, scope and budget, schedule and it uses the estimate for the current project. One drawback
of this estimation is, it is less accurate. This estimation is used during the earlier stages of the project
when limited information is available. It uses historical information and expert judgment for estimation.
It is known as top-down approach.
Bottom-up estimating:
This method is used to estimate the project schedule, project cost by summing up all the resources from
the bottom of WBS. Breaking the activities into smaller pieces, and then adding the resources from the
bottom.
3 point estimating:
This estimating method considers the project uncertainty and risks while estimating. It uses most likely,
optimistic and pessimistic ranges.
Most likely: This estimate may happen.
Optimistic: This estimate activity duration represents the best-case scenario for the activity.
Pessimistic: This estimate duration represents the worst-case case scenario for the activity.
100. Answer: Option C is correct. Trend analysis is the correct answer.

Trend analysis:
Trend analysis examines the project performance over time, to find if performance is improving or
deteriorating. Trend analysis identifies the trends in the performance. Deviation from the baseline
indicates the potential impact of threats or opportunities.
101. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in project quality management. Valid processes available
in project quality management are:
Plan quality management.

Manage quality.
Control quality.
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102. Answer: Option D is correct. 5 levels of effective quality management are:
Detect and correct the defects before the product is delivered to the customer as part of
quality control process.
Use quality assurance to examine the available processes and correct the processes itself.
Create a culture throughout the organization is aware and committed to quality in the
products and processes available.
Incorporate quality into planning and design of the project and product.
Most expensive quality management approach is to let the customer find the defects,
because it will lead to recalls, rework, increase the costs, loss of reputation, etc.

Quality audits are done by auditors either internal or external, to find whether the project activities
comply with organizational policies and procedures. Objectives of quality audit.
Identify the best practices implemented in the organization.

Identify the gaps, nonconformity.
Share the good practices in similar projects in the industry or in the organization.
Proactively assist to improve the implementation of quality processes to help the
productivity of the team.
Update the lessons learnt in each quality audit in the repositories.
As a result of quality audits, the quality is improved and also customer satisfaction and acceptance of
the product is enhanced.
104. Answer: Option D is correct. The benefits of control quality process are:
Validate the deliverables against the requirements given, for the purpose of customer
acceptance.
Identify the methods of quality improvement.
Take corrective and preventive action through the change control process.
105. Answer: Option D is correct. A process is considered as out of control when:
A data point exceeds the control limit.

Seven consecutive points above the mean.
Seven consecutive points below the mean.
Out of control : When a data point falls outside the control limits, the data point is out of control, and
when it happens the entire process is out of control. Every process has variation in the end products.
The range is calculated based on +- 3 sigma. Data points within the range are in control, and the data
points not in the range are known as out of control.
106. Answer: Option C is correct. Cost of quality can be categorized into:
Cost of conformance to requirements.

Cost of non-conformance to requirements.
Cost of quality: It covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate the
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quality-related activities. E.g.: training employees, follow the standards to ensure quality
and quality control activities.
Cost of conformance: Includes Prevention costs, Appraisal costs.

Cost of nonconformance: Internal failure costs, External failure costs.
Prevention costs (Build a quality product): Training, equipment, documentation, timings
Appraisal costs: Testing, inspection.
Internal Failure cost: Rework, Scrap (Failures found by the project).
External Failure cost: Warranty work, lost business (Failures found by the customer).
107. Answer: Option D is correct. Quality Assurance is used to ensure project activities are in
compliance with organizational standards, policies, procedures on regular basis.
Perform quality assurance is the process to find the project activities comply with organizational
standards, policies and procedures. It is used to perform continuous improvement in the project to
achieve quality, reduce defects and eliminates activities that do not add value. If changes are needed, it
can be done through the change control procedures.
Identify the inefficiencies in the process.

Perform continuous improvement.
Confirm activities follow the policies and standards in the organization.
Recommend changes through corrective action.
108. Answer: Option C is correct. Scatter diagram plots 2 variables against each other to find out if they
are related it is also called correlation chart. The direction of correlation may be positive or negative or
zero correlation. The trend line in the chart is calculated to show the correlation between the variables,
which is used for estimation and forecast.
109. Answer: Option B is correct. Quality control is used to inspect the deliverables and find out the
defects. It is performed to measure compliance and fitness to use the product before delivering the
product to the customer. Quality control must be performed throughout the project and the aim is to
meet the customer acceptance criteria.
110. Answer: Option D is correct. Pareto diagram is related to the 80/20 rule, i.e. 80 percent of the
problems come from 20 percent of the causes.
It helps to identify the critical issues which need the attention immediately. It is based on the concept of
a larger number of problems are caused by a smaller number of causes. It shows the frequency of errors
and the causes in a histogram. It is based on the concept of 80/20 rule. 80 percent of the problems come
from 20 percent of the causes. Similar to histogram, except the variables are arranged in descending
order (high to low).
111. Answer: option D is correct. The main outputs of project quality management are:
Quality management plan.

Quality report, quality metrics.
Change requests, quality control measurements.
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Verified deliverables, work performance information.
Project management plan updates, project document updates.
112. Answer: option D is correct. Some of the examples of cost of conformance are:
Training cost, testing, inspections, document the processes, time to do it right are examples of cost of
conformance .
113. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the examples of cost of non-conformance

Rework, repairs, complaints, scrap, liabilities, warranty work, lost business are examples of cost of non-
conformance .
Cost of quality is as categorized below:
Cost of conformance to requirements (e.g., investing in prevention of nonconformance

requirements).
Cost of non-conformance to requirements (e.g.: rework due to nonconformance of
requirements).
114. Answer: Option D is correct. Tailoring considerations for the project quality management are:
Policy compliance and auditing.

Continuous improvement.
Stakeholder engagement.
Standards and regulatory compliance.
115. Answer: Option D is correct. Problem solving methods include the following elements.
Define the problem.

Identify the problem.
Generating possible solutions.
Choosing the best solution.
Implementing the solution.
Verifying the solution effectiveness.
116. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in project resource management. The valid processes
available in project resource management are:
Plan resource management.

Estimate activity resources.
Acquire resources.
Develop team.
Manage team.
Control resources.
117. Answer: Option D is correct. Considerations for tailoring the project resource management are:
Diversity.
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Physical location.
Acquisition of team members.
Management of team.
Industry specific resources.
Life cycle approaches.
118. Answer: Option D is correct. A team charter is a document that establishes the team values,
agreements and operating guidelines for the team.
It includes:
Team values,
Communication guidelines,
Decision making criteria and process,
Conflict resolution process,
Meeting guidelines,
Team agreements,
119. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations for project resource
management are:
Diversity.
Physical location.
Industry specific resources.
Acquisition of team members.
Management of team.
Life cycle approaches.
120. Answer: Option A is correct. Some of the powers available to the project manager working in a
project are:
Positional: It is derived from the position granted in the organization.

Coercive (Punitive): This power enables the project manager to penalize the team
members, if they didn’t meet the targets.
Reward- oriented : This power allows the project manager to give rewards to motivate
the team members.
Expert : This power is derived from the knowledge of the project manager in the specific
domain. It gives creditability to the project manager.
Referent : This power is based on the respect, charismatic personality of the project
manager.
Informational : Control or gathering distribution of information.
Avoiding: Refuse to participate in key decisions, avoid meetings etc.
Personal or charismatic : It is derived from the charm or attraction.
Situational: This type of power is obtained from a unique situation due to a crisis in the
project or organization.
Persuasive: This power is derived from the ability to provide arguments to move people
to a desired course of action.
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Relational: It is derived due to contacts, networking, connections, etc.
Guilt-based: It is derived from the imposition of obligation.
Pressure-based: This type of power is derived from limit freedom of choice or
movement for the purpose of gaining compliance.
Ingratiating: It is derived from in excessive praise or for the other common causes to
win co-operation.
121. Answer: Option B is correct. Collaborate is the correct option.

Techniques to resolve conflict are:
Withdraw/Avoid: This method postpones the decision on the conflict. The outcome of
this technique results in lose/lose situation to the 2 parties.
Force/Direct: Pushing someone’s viewpoint at the expense of others. It is a win-lose
situation for the 2 parties. It is enforced through power.
Smooth/Accommodate: This technique emphasizing the areas of agreement, rather than
the areas of difference.
Collaborate/problem solving: In this method the affected parties openly discuss the
issues and try to incorporate multiple perspectives to reach the consensus. This results in
a win/win situation. It requires a co-operative attitude and commitment to resolve the
issue.
Compromise/reconcile: In this technique both parties reach some level of satisfaction.
Both parties are requested to give up something they want. This creates a lose/lose
situation since no one gets what they want.
122. Answer: Option C is correct. Norming is the correct option.

Tuckman’s theory of development through the 5 stages,
The duration of every stage depends on the team size, leadership and team dynamics.
Forming: Team members are brought together as a team to do the task. In this stage they meet and learn
more about the project and their roles and responsibilities.
Storming : There are some disagreements between the members of the team, as they work together in
the project. The team goes through conflicts in this stage.
Norming: In this stage, team members begin to build an understanding between and relationship
between them. They adjust their work habits and behaviors and start working as a team. Team begin to
trust each other.
Performing: In this stage the team is working effectively. In this stage, teamwork independently and
works through issues smoothly. The role of PM in this stage is delegating.
Adjourning : As the project ends, the team members are moved to the next assignment. Team members
are released from the project.
123. Answer: Option C is not a valid chart which describes team member’s roles and responsibilities.
Other options are correct. Some of the valid data representation techniques are:
Hierarchical charts – Work breakdown structure, organizational breakdown structure and

resource breakdown structure.
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Assignment matrix – RAM (Responsibility assignment matrix), RACI chart.
Text-oriented formats.
124. Answer: Option D is the correct answer. High team performance can be achieved by:
Creating team-building opportunities.

Managing conflicts in a constructive manner.
Encouraging collaborative problem solving.
Using open and effective communication.
Developing trust among team members.
Encouraging collaborative decision making.
125. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the personality traits of an effective leader are:
Managerial - this trait is related to the measurement of effective management practices.

Authentic - It is related to accepting people the way they are.
Service-oriented – Show interest in assisting others and the team.
Systemic – ability to understand and build systems.
Creative - ability to think and see things creatively and differently.
Intellectual - measurement of human intelligence.
Political - it is the measurement of the skill using influence to make things happen.
Social - able to understand people or resources.
Courteous - apply correct etiquette.
Emotional - it is the ability to perceive the emotions.
Cultural – measurement of diversity.
126. Answer: Option C is not valid. Valid outputs in project resource management are:
Resource management plan.

Team charter, resource requirements.
Basis of estimates.
Resource breakdown structure.
Physical resource assignments, project team assignments.
Resource calendars, change requests.
EEF updates, OPA updates.
Team performance assessments.
127. Answer: Option A is correct. Conflict resolution techniques and their outcomes related to the
concerned parties are:
Withdraw (lose/lose).
Forcing (win/lose).
Smoothing (win/lose).
Compromise (lose/lose).
Collaborate (win/win).
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128. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the factors that influence conflict resolution methods are:
Time pressure to resolve the conflict.

Importance of conflict.
Motivation to resolve conflict on a short-term or long-term basis.
Relative power of people involved in the conflict.
Importance of maintaining the relationship.
129. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the factors related to control resources in project resource
management are:
Identify the resource surplus/shortage before it happens.

Ensure the resources are used and released according to the project plan.
Monitor the expenditure of the resources used in the project.
Inform the related stakeholders when issue arises due to the resources.
Manage the changes as they occur.
130. Answer: Option D is correct. Pre-assignment is the correct answer.

In this technique members of the project team are selected in advance before the project start. Resources
are guaranteed for the project due to their experience and skills. The project is dependent on their
expertise.
131. Answer: Option B is not a valid response. The valid process in project communications
management is:
Plan communications management.

Manage communication.
Monitor communication.
132. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations for project communications
management are:
Communications technology - identify the cost effective technology that can be used to
communicate with stakeholders.
Physical location - considers the team members location, i.e. collocated or distributed, or
multiple time zones they are working in.
Language - consider the possibilities of one language can be used for communication
activities or multiple languages can be used.
Stakeholders - identify the stakeholders internal or external to the organization.
Knowledge management - considers the organization's available repositories used.
133. Answer: Option B is not a hierarchical chart. It is a matrix-based chart. Types of hierarchical chart
are:
RBS - resource breakdown structure.

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OBS - organizational breakdown structure.
WBS - work breakdown structure.
134. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the dimensions of effective communication are:
Internal, External.
Formal, Informal.
Hierarchical focus: upward, downward, horizontal.
Official, unofficial.
Written and oral communication.
135. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of project communication management are:
Communication management plan.

Project communications.
Change requests.
OPA updates.
136. Answer: Option C is correct. 5C’s of written communication are:
Controlling the flow of words and ideas.

Correct grammar and spelling.
Coherent logical flow of ideas.
Clear purpose of communication, and expression directed to the needs of the reader.
Concise expression and elimination of excess words.
137. Answer: Option C is not correct. Some of the techniques and considerations used for effective
communication are:
Presentation and Facilitation.

Choice of media.
Active listening.
Sender-receiver model.
Writing style.
Meeting management.
138. Answer: Option C is correct. Project team getting the information from website is an example of
pull communication.
This is used to send a large volume of documents to a large number of people. In this method the
information is placed in the central location for communication to the audiences. Recipients receive the
message from the central location by pulling the information. E.g.: intranet sites, e-learning, knowledge
repositories, etc. The method of communication is decided by considering the stakeholder's opinion.
Interactive communication:
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2 or more parties are involved in this type of interactive communication. This method is very efficient
to ensure a common understanding of messages by all the participants. E.g. Meetings, phone calls,
video conferencing and messaging.
Push communication :
In this method sender sends the information to the corresponding parties, whoever needed but didn’t
expect feedback or it is understood by them. E.g.: letters, status reports, memos, etc.
139. Answer: Option B is correct. Sequence of steps in a basic communication model are:
Encode - message coded as symbols as text or sound.

Transmit message – message sent through the communication channel.
Decode - data received is translated by the receiver, in a form which is helpful to the
receiver.
Sample interactive communication model steps are:
Encode, transmit message, decode, and acknowledge, feedback/response.
140. Answer: Option B is correct. Email to the project team, memo, sending fax are examples of push
communication.
Push communication :
In this method, sender sends the information to the corresponding parties, whoever needed but didn’t
expect feedback or it is understood by them. E.g.: letters, status reports, memos, etc.
141. Answer: Option B is not correct. It is the output of monitoring communications process. Some of
the tools and techniques used in project communications management are:
Expert judgment.
Communications technology.
Communications methods, communication models.
Project management information systems.
Data representation.
Interpersonal and team skills, meetings.
Data representation, project reporting.
142. Answer: Option C is correct. Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology are:
Urgency of the need for information.
Availability and reliability of technology,

Ease of use.
Project environment.
Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information.
143. Answer: Option B is correct. Project Information management system provides a set of tools to
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capture, store and distribute information related to the cost of the project, schedule update and
performance to the corresponding stakeholders. Other options are not correct.
144. Answer: Option D is correct. Complexity in the project is due to the nature of:
System behavior -due to interdependencies of multiple systems involved in the project.
Human behavior – due to diverse individuals and groups.
Ambiguity - lack of understanding in the project team.
145. Answer: Option D is correct. All the given options are correct.
The main outputs of direct and manage project work in project integration management are:
Deliverables.
Work performance data.
Issue log.
Change requests.
Project management plan updates, project document updates. OPA updates.
146. Answer: Option D is not a valid process. Valid processes in project risk management are:
Plan risk management.

Identify risks.
Perform qualitative risk analysis.
Perform quantitative risk analysis.
Plan risk response.
Implement risk response.
Monitor risks.
147. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations in the processes available in
project risk management are:
Project size.
Project complexity.
Development approach.
Project importance.
148. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of project risk management are:
Risk management plan.

Risk register.
Risk report.
Change requests.
Project document updates, project management plan updates, OPA updates.
149. Answer: Option B is correct. Risk identification is done at regular intervals throughout the project.
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Risk Identification process is used to identify all the risks which affect the project and document their
characteristics. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses, and
it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are project
manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk management experts.
The project team is involved in this process of risk identification for the purpose of ownership of risks
as well as the responsibility of risk response actions. Major risk identification occurs during the
planning process.
150. Answer: Option B is correct. Perform qualitative risk analysis helps to prioritize risks and find its
probability and impact.
To perform qualitative risk analysis, prioritize the risk for further analysis by assessing their probability
and impact to the project. This helps to allocate enough time and proper resources to deal with the risks
if they occur and also the project team's focus of high-priority risks. It assesses the probability of
identified risks and its impact, and also the risk response timeframe and organizations risk tolerance
levels related to scope, cost, quality and schedule.
It involves a shortlist of previously identified risks and it is further analyzed to perform quantitative risk
analysis. Performing qualitative risk analysis is a subjective analysis of risks identified in the risk
register. It is a cost effective method to prioritize plan risk response and foundation for the performance
of quantitative risk analysis. It will be performed throughout the project.
151. Answer: Option C is correct. Risks that are caused by implementing a risk response is known as
secondary risk.
Secondary risk:
Secondary risks always need to be considered when developing response strategies. Secondary risk is
the one, which occurs as a result of implementing a risk response. It is a direct outcome of
implementing a risk response.
Residual risks: These are the risks that remain after implementing the risk responses. It is known as
residual risks.
152. Answer: Option D is not a valid strategy. Valid strategies to deal with negative risks are;
Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, And Accept.
Avoid: This is a suitable strategy for critical risks with high impact. Eliminate the root cause of risk in
this strategy. This can be done by changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat. E.g.:
removing a work package from the project, which is considered risky, reduce the scope or extend the
schedule.
Transfer: This is a suitable strategy for less critical risks with less impact. This strategy makes someone
responsible for the risks and the responses. Transfer does not eliminate the risks completely. Contracts
can be used to transfer liability of risks to the 3 rd party. e.g.: by purchasing insurance, warranty for the
product.
Mitigate: This is a suitable strategy for critical risks with high impact. This strategy reduces the
probability of occurrence or impact of the threat. This strategy helps to maintain the risks within the
threshold levels defined. E.g.: more testing, avoid complex processes, etc.
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Accept: This is a suitable strategy for less critical risks with less impact. Sometimes it is not possible to
eliminate all the risks in the project. Also the cost to avoid or mitigate or transfer the risk to the 3 rd
party is very high. In such scenarios, acceptance is the best option, and the project management plan is
not changed in this strategy. This can be used for both threats as well as opportunities. Acceptance can
be active or passive. Active acceptance is to establish a contingency reserve to deal with the threats.
Passive acceptance requires no action.
153. Answer: Option C is correct. Most of the risks are identified during risk management process. The
main objective is to identify risks and monitor risks.
Identifying risk process is used to identify all the risks which affect the project and document their
characteristics. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses, and
it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are project
manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk management experts.
Project team is involved in this process of risk identification for the purpose of ownership of risks as
well as the responsibility of risk response actions. Major risk identification occurs during the planning
process.
154. Answer: Option B is correct. The level of risk individual or group is willing to accept is known as
risk appetite.
Risk appetite:
Acceptable level of risk an organization is willing to take in anticipation of the benefit arising from
them. In general the risk attitude of organizations is classified into 3 themes which are risk appetite, risk
tolerance and risk threshold.
155. Answer: Option C is correct. A risk owner implements the response strategies defined in the risk
mitigation and risk contingency plans.
156. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations related to project risk
management process are:
Project size – depends on the size of the project in terms of resources, budget, scope need
to customized the processes in risk management.
Project complexity -- new technology, innovation projects needs and detailed risk
approaches.
Project importance -- if it is critical to the organization growth, addresses major issues,
innovation, the processes can be customized.
Development approach - depending on the project approach, waterfall or agile, the
processes can be customized.
157. Answer: Option A is correct.

SV – Schedule Variance.
EV – Earned value.
PV – Planned value.
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AC – Actual cost.
We know SV = EV – PV and CV = EV – AC
So SV = 650 – 600 = 50, and CV = 650 – 500 = 150
Positive CV indicates, the project is under budget, and a positive SV indicates the project is ahead of
schedule.
158. Answer: Option D is correct. The characteristics which are used to prioritize the risks are:
Urgency - when the risk response can be implemented in the project, to be effective.
Proximity - the period before the risk might have the impact on project objectives.
Manageability - where managing the risk is easy to risk owner.
Connectivity - the risk is relevant to other individual project risks.
Detectability - risk occurrence can be detected easily.
Dormancy - the period of time that may elapse after a risk has happened and before its
impact is detected.
Strategic impact - the effect of risk has major impacts on organization's goals.
Controllability - where the outcome of the risk can be easily controlled.
Propinquity - the risk which matters most to one or more stakeholders.
159. Answer: Option B is correct. In Delphi technique, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts and
asking about the risks in the project, once the questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to
reach the consensus in opinion.
Delphi technique: This technique is used to get the opinions of experts. In this technique, instead of
everybody in the same room, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts. Asking about the risks in the
project. Once the questionnaire is collected, it is recirculated again to reach the consensus in opinion. It
will take a few rounds to reach the consensus. In this technique, nobody knows about who else is
involved in this process.
160. Answer: Option B is correct. Future value can be calculated from:

PV = FV/(1+r)n
PV – present value, FV – future value, r – rate of interest n – number of years
FV/(1+r)n = PV, so FV = PV* (1+r)n
=350000 * (1+0.8)4
=350000 * (1.08)4
=$4, 76,000
161. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in procurement management. Processes available in
project procurement management are:
Plan procurement management.

Conduct procurements.
Control procurements.
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162. Answer: Option B is correct. As per the below calculations, it is better to make the product.
19,000 per week for 16 weeks = 19,000 * 16 =304,000
In house pay 35,000 for engineer + 15,000 per week for 16 weeks = 35000 + 15,000*16 = 2,75,000.
Make it rather than buy.
163. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of procurement management process are:
Procurement management plan.

Procurement strategy, bid documents.
Procurement statement of work.
Source selection criteria.
Make or buy analysis.
Independent cost estimates.
Change requests.
Selected sellers, agreements.
Closed procurements.
Project management plan updates, OPA updates, project document updates.

SPI – schedule performance index, CPI – cost performance index.
SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is
over budget.
165. Answer: Option B is correct. Number of years and cost are not relevant as they are accounted for
in the calculation of net present value. Select the project with the highest NPV. In this case project C
has the NPV value of $80,000
166. Answer: Option B is correct. The seller needs to analyze thoroughly the requirements, otherwise
they need to provide more for the same fixed price.
Fixed price contracts are suitable when the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well
defined and not likely to change. It has more risk to the seller. Sometimes unexpected costs occur
during the course of the project. Since the price is fixed on the contract, the seller is responsible for the
unexpected additional expenses. The risk to the buyer in the contract is, if the seller won’t’ deliver the
work.
167. Answer: Option C is correct. Incentive fees is used in cost-plus contracts to encourage the seller to
increase performance of the work.
Cost-plus contracts are suitable when the work is evolving, likely to change or not well defined.
Incentives and awards may be used to align the objectives of the buyer and seller.
168. Answer: Option D is correct. Tom is involved in conduct procurements, Plan procurement
management processes.
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169. Answer: Option B is correct.
Procurement audit:
After closing the contract normally we used to go through it again to find out what happened on the
project for the purpose of finding out what went wrong and updating the lessons learnt documents. It is
a structured review of procurement process from plan procurement until the close procurements.
170. Answer: Option B is correct. The process of evaluating seller responses, selecting the seller and
award the contract is known as conduct procurement.
Conduct procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list
selecting a seller. The selected seller has been awarded the contract.
During conduct procurements, the project team will receive proposals from the sellers, and based on the
predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. The main activities that happen in conduct
procurement process are:
Buyer finds the seller through advertisement, pre-qualified seller list, internet, and bidder
conferences.
Once the sellers are identified, the buyer sends the procurement document to the sellers.
Buyer arranges meetings to clarify the sellers' questions.
Once the clarifications are done at the seller end, they decide to bid for the work.
Seller sends the proposals to the buyer.
Buyer receives the proposals from seller and reviews the proposals using source selection
criteria and scoring system.
Buyer compares the price and other details submitted by the sellers.
Once the buyer likes the seller proposals, they start negotiating with them.
After the negotiation process, buyer and seller agrees and signs the contract.
171. Answer: Option C is correct. In cost plus fixed fees contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller
costs involved in the project plus an agreeable amount on top of it.
CPFF – cost plus fixed fee contract:
In this type of contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project plus an
agreeable amount on top of it. This type of contract is risky to both the buyer and the seller. If the costs
involved in the project are more than expected, the buyer needs to pay the additional costs incurred. The
fixed fee on top of the costs incurred, sometimes not worth it for the seller.
E.g.: costs incurred in the project + fixed amount of $20000.
172. Answer: Option D is correct. Independent estimates is the correct answer.
Independent estimates:
Sometimes the buyer won’t have expertise to evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In this type of
situation, buyer approaches the 3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd party will come with the
estimates of how much the project costs. It is provided by consulting services. The difference between
the 3 rd party estimate and seller estimates, indicates that procurement statement of work is not up to the
standard or the sellers misunderstood the procurement statement of work.
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173. Answer: Option C is correct. In this type of contract seller is reimbursed with all the costs, but the
main fee is earned based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria that is
defined in the contract known as cost plus award fees contract.
174. Answer: Option C is correct. It is a type of procurement document, used to request proposals from
prospective sellers of products or services.
175. Answer: Option B is correct. The procurement management process which involves the
verification of the product and work and confirmation that are acceptable, finalize the open claims,
update records, archiving all the information for future reference is known as conduct procurements.
Conduct procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list
selecting a seller. The selected seller is awarded the contract.
During conduct procurements the project team will receive proposals from sellers, and based on the
predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. Main activities that happen in conduct
procurement process are: Buyer finds the seller through advertisement, pre-qualified seller list, internet,
and bidder conferences.
Once the sellers are found, the buyer sends the procurement document to the sellers.
Buyer arrange meetings to clarify the sellers' questions.
Once the clarifications are done at the seller end, they decide to bid for the work.
Seller sends the proposals to the buyer.
Buyer receives the proposals from the sellers and reviews the proposals using source
selection criteria and scoring system.
Buyer compares the price and other details submitted by the sellers.
Once the buyer like the seller proposals, they start negotiating with them.
After the negotiation process, buyer and seller agrees and signs the contract.
176. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Valid processes in stakeholder management are:
Identify stakeholders.
Plan stakeholder engagement.
Manage stakeholder engagement.
Monitor stakeholder engagement.

Savings = 70 % * 200,000 = 140,000
Cost = 30 % * - 100,000 = -30,000
Emv = 140,000 – 30,000 = 110,000
178. Answer: Option D is correct. Outputs of stakeholder management process are:
Stakeholder register.
Change requests.
Stakeholder engagement plan.
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Project management plan updates.
Project documents updates.
179. Answer: Option B is correct. Stakeholder’s engagement levels are classified into:
Unaware : stakeholders are unaware of the project and the impacts.
Resistant : stakeholders are aware of the project and its potential impacts, and opposed to change.
Neutral : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, they are neither supportive nor resistant.
Supportive : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, and supportive to change.
Leading : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, actively engaged in the project to make
it a success.
180. Answer: Option D is correct. Classification models used in stakeholder analysis are:
1. Power/interest grid : This is based on the level of authority and their level of interest
on the project outcome.
2. power/influence grid: This model is based on the level of authority or power and their
active involvement in the project.
3. Influence/impact grid: This model is based on grouping stakeholders based on their
involvement in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or
execution.
4. Salience model: This is based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the
project.
181. Answer: Option D is correct. Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix is used to find out the
current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for the project.
Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix:
It is used to find out the current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for
the project. Current engagement level by stakeholders is shown as “C” and the desired engagement
levels are shown as “D”. This matrix used to find the gaps in engagement levels and actions and
communications are taken to close the gap between the current state and desired future state of
engagement.
182. Answer: Option B is not correct. Valid strategies to deal with threat are:
Accept.
Avoid.
Escalate.
Transfer.
Mitigate.
183. Answer: Option A is correct. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates the project is
ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than EV that indicates the project is under budget.
184. Answer: Option D is correct. Classification model in stakeholder analysis is based on the power,
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urgency and their involvement in the project known as salience model.
Classification models used in stakeholder analysis are:
1. Power/interest grid : This is based on the level of authority and their level of interest
on the project outcome.
2. power/influence grid: This model is based on the level of authority or power and their
active involvement in the project.
3. Influence/impact grid: This model is based on grouping stakeholders based on their
involvement in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or
execution.
4. Salience model: This is based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the
project.
185. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder register is used to identify all the internal and external
stakeholders who have interest and influence on the project.
It is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project who can provide information related to the
requirements. Also it contains the key requirements for the project. It contains the stakeholder
information and their communication needs and requirements.
186. Answer: Option B is correct. Sam can purchase the insurance, since the cost of damage is more
than the cost of insurance.
Cost of damage is 5 % of 600,000 = 30,000.
Cost of insurance = 15,000. Better purchase the insurance.

Currently has 11 members including her.
Number of channels, n(n-1)/2 = 11(11-1)/2 = 11*10/2 = 55
If you add 4 members then, 11+4 = 15 members
15 (15-1)/2 = 15*14/2 =105
So she will have 105 -55 = 50 more channels after adding new members.
188. Answer: Option C is not correct. Strategies for opportunities are:
Escalate.
Exploit.
Share.
Enhance.
Accept.
189. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder who has low power or influence and has low interest in
the ongoing project should be monitored.
190. Answer: Option B is not a valid option. Valid inputs to plan stakeholder management are:
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Project charter.
Project documents.
Agreements.
EEF.
OPA.

Change requests can be made for the purpose of:
Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project management plan.
Defect repair: actions taken to modify the product.
192. Answer: Option D is correct. Project manager competencies are:
Technical project management.

Leadership.
Strategic and business management.

2 years ➔ total 8 quarters → each quarter inflow $30,000 → for 2 years 8 * 30,000 = 2, 40,000
Remaining investment = 600000 – 240000 = 360,000.
After 2 years the payback is $90,000 per quarter, so for the amount 360,000 will be 4 quarters (12
months).
Total payback time is 36 months or 3 years.

Decomposition:
This technique subdivides the project deliverables into more manageable pieces. The work package is
the lowest level in the WBS. Project cost and project duration is estimated at the work package level.
Dividing the deliverables into work packages depends on the complexity of the project. Decomposition
involves:
Analyze the deliverables.

Organize the WBS.
Decompose the WBS into more manageable components.
Assign the identification codes to the decomposed components.
195. Answer: Option A is correct.

EAC = AC + (BAC- EV)
BAC = 90,000
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EAC = 30,000 + (90000 – 35000) = 85000
196. Answer: Option B is correct.

Opportunity cost for Project X is the value of project Y or 200,000.

Problem solving involves the following elements.
Define the problem.

Identify the root-cause.
Generating possible solutions.
Choosing the best solution.
Implementing the solution.
Verifying solution effectiveness.
198. Answer: Option D is correct. Change control tools should support the following change
management activities.
Identify changes, Document changes.

Decide on changes.
Track changes.
199. Answer: Option C is correct. It covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate
quality related activities. E.g.: training employees, follow the standards to ensure quality and quality
control activities.
Cost of quality consists of one or more of the following costs:
Preventive costs.
Appraisal costs.
Failure costs.
200. Answer: Option D is correct. Commonly used source selection methods are:
Least cost.
Qualifications only.
Quality based/highest technical proposal score.
Quality and cost based.
Sole source.
Fixed budget.
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Match the Following: 130 Questions with answers:
1 PMO’s functionality A Projects has definite start and end,

operations are ongoing, and does the
repeatable job.
2 Characteristics of project charter are B Directive structure
3 Examples of work performance data C manages the methodologies, strategies,
risks and opportunities, interdependencies
for the entire organization
4 Projects and operations the difference is D From support functions to the complete
responsibility for the project.
5 The project manager E Project manager controls the resources in
the project to achieve the goals. In the
PMO optimizes the shared resources
between the projects.
6 The PMO structure in which the level of F Number of defects in the cycle.
control over the projects is high Number of change requests in the iteration
Actual costs, Duration of the cycle
Key performance indicators
7 The role of PMO G Organizational strategy

8 The PMO structure in which the level of H Supportive structure.
control over the projects is low
9 Regarding the resources the difference I Manages the constraints like schedule,
between the project manager and PMO cost, quality, scope, quality and risk in the
project.
10 provides guidance and direction to project J High level requirements, Business needs
management in an organization Assumptions and constraints, Budget
Project justification, Milestones
Stakeholder information, Sponsor
PM assignment & their authority level,
Risks
Answer:
1. D, 2. J, 3.F, 4. A, 5. I, 6.B, 7.C, 8.H, 9.E, 10.G.
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1 Key elements of project governance A Once the project work is done, the project
framework are, team is disbanded,
When the work is complete, the team
members don’t have departments to go
back.
2 Benefits management plan describes key B Weak matrix organization.
elements of the benefits includes
3 The advantages of functional organization C Provides comprehensive, consistent
are method of controlling the project and
helps project success by documenting,
communicating reliable and repeatable
project practices.
4 Expeditor and project coordinators won’t D High at the beginning of the project and
exist in this type of organization decrease during the course of the project.
5 Power of project manager is similar to E Conflict may happens between functional
expeditor and project coordinators in manager and project manager over the
priority,
2 bosses are difficult to report for the
team,
Resource allocation is difficult.
6 disadvantages of projectized organization F Decision making processes,
are Relationship between the stakeholders,
Project lifecycle approach,
Process to identify, resolve and escalate
issues, Acceptance criteria,
7 Project governance G Overlapping relationship
8 Risk and uncertainty H Projectized
9 This relationship increase the risk and need I Career path is well defined,
more resources to do the work done in One manager to report,
parallel. Resources are grouped by specialty
10 Disadvantages of matrix organization J Target benefits, strategic alignment,

metrics, assumptions, risks, timeframe for
realizing benefits, benefits owner
Answer:
1. F, 2. J, 3. I, 4. H, 5.B, 6.A, 7. C, 8.D, 9. G, 10. E.
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1 Business case can present the 3 options A Actual work is done as per the project
regarding the project addressing the management plan,
problem or opportunity Determine performance, implement
change control request for preventive,
corrective action and defect repair, select
the seller,
Determine the needs for training
2 Activities happens during planning process B Obtain formal sign-off from customer for
the project or phase,
Conduct post-project review,
Measure customer satisfaction,
Archive project records and documents,
Document lessons learned,
Update organizational project assets,
Transfer products to operations,
Release the team, close the contract.
3 Activities happens during execution C input
process
4 Activities happens during monitor & D Project management plan, scope
control process management plan, schedule management
plan, cost management plan, quality
management plan, resource management
plan, communication management plan,
risk management plan, procurement
management plan, and stakeholder
management plan.
5 Activities happens during closing process E Executing process group.
6 Item either internal or external that needs to F measure progress and performance,
complete the work required by the process find out the variance, and recommend
preventive and corrective actions through
change control,
project management plan updates
manage schedule and cost,
progress report and status report to
stakeholders,
document and analyze and monitor the
risks
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7 The plans developed during the planning G Do nothing
phase are Do the minimum possible to address the
problem or opportunity
Do more than the minimum to address the
problem or opportunity
8 Implement the changes from change H Closing process group.
control board, which includes preventive
action, corrective action and defective
repair happens during
9 Index and archive the project records I Executing process group.
happens during
10 Team member performance assessment J Create project scope statement
happens during Develop the project management plan
Define the roles and responsibilities for
team,
Develop WBS,WBS dictionary,
Define and sequence activities
Estimate time, cost to complete the
activities
Answer:
1. G, 2.J, 3. A, 4. F, 5. B, 6.C, 7. D, 8. I, 9. H, 10. E
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Project Integration Management:
1 Monitor and control process deals with A Business case

2 Change control board B Perform quality assurance
3 It contains the information regarding C Brainstorming, problem solving, and
whether or not the project is worth for the conflict resolution.
investment
4 It is the subset of PMIS which contains D Used to confirm the project deliverables
different versions and characteristics of the meet the quality standards defined.
product is called as
5 The process that makes sure the project E Expert judgment
team is using the correct processes is called
6 Some of the analytical techniques used F Responsible for approving/rejecting the
during monitor and control project work change,
are Board members include SME, customer,
sponsor, project manager etc.
7 Formal documented procedure to explain G Comparing actual performances against

how to authorize and initiate the work in the baseline,
right sequence and at right time is called as If the actual performance varies from
baseline corrective action is taken to
maintain the baselines specified in the
plan,
Provides information for status reports,
Monitor the risks,
Monitor the approved changes,
Forecast on schedule, costs etc.
Provide reports to the stakeholders
involved in the project.
8 Project help/guidance provided by outside H Work authorization system.
consultants, SME, PMO, stakeholders,
professional associations is called as
9 Commonly used facilitation techniques are I Variance analysis, Trend analysis
Grouping methods, Regression analysis
Earned value measurement
Reserve analysis, Root cause analysis
Failure mode and effect analysis
Fault tree analysis.
10 Control quality J Configuration management system
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Answer:
1. G, 2. F, 3.A, 4.J, 5.B, 6.I, 7.H, 8. E, 9.C, 10.D.
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PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT:
1 In this technique develop as many options A Used to get formal acceptance from
possible and identify the different customers.
approached to do the work.
2 Decomposition technique involves, B The features and functionality of the

product
3 WBS Dictionary contains C At the end of every phase
4 Verify scope D Alternative generation.
5 Requirements documentation contains E Affinity diagram
6 Product scope F Requirements documentation,
requirements traceability matrix.
7 The diagram which is used to handle G Analyze the deliverables
Ideas generated from any other requirement Organize the WBS
collection technique grouped together Decompose the WBS into more
based on similarities is called as manageable components
Assign the identification codes to the
decomposed components
8 Validate scope is done H Nominal group technique.
9 Outputs of collect requirements I Business requirements
Stakeholder requirements
Solution requirements, Transition
requirements, Any assumptions, risks,
constraints, Quality requirements
Business rules, Acceptance criteria
10 The technique which is used to vote and J a unique identifier called code of account
prioritize the ides generated during identifier, assumptions and constraints
brainstorming session is called as acceptance criteria, schedule, cost
estimates,
description about the work needs to be
done,
team responsible to do the work
quality requirements
Answer:
1. D, 2. G, 3.J, 4. A, 5.I, 6.B, 7.E, 8.C, 9.F, 10.H.
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PROJECT SCHEDULE MANAGEMENT
1 This activity occurs before the dependent A Early Start, Early finish
activity & the dependent activity that
comes after another activity is called as
2 The amount time that the project team B Resources are available only at certain
gives to a successor task to get started duration,
before the predecessor task is finished. Resources are available in limited
quantity,
To keep utilization of resource at constant
level.
3 It is the earliest time an activity can start, C Fast tracking adds risk to the project,
It is the earliest time an activity can finish crashing adds cost to the project because
called as adding resources to do the work fast.
4 Control schedule mainly used D Predecessor activity, Successor activity

5 Usage of network diagrams E Analogous estimation
6 Resource leveling is used when F Parametric estimation
7 Except control schedule process all the G Lead time.
process in the time management are done
in, and control schedule is done in
8 Difference between fast tracking and H To define the logical relationship between
crashing the activities,
shows the project progress at any point of
time,
Used to compress the schedule and
calculate the critical path and near critical
path.
9 It uses the parameters from previous I Planning process, monitor and control
project such as cost, duration, complexity, process group.
size of the project as a basis of estimate the
activity durations, this estimation technique
is called as
10 The level of accuracy is better in this J To find out the current status of project
method, and it use mathematical model, schedule,
formulas are used for cost and time Influencing factors that create schedule
estimates changes,
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Manage the changes as they occur.
Answer:
1. D, 2. G, 3. A, 4. J, 5. H, 6. B, 7.I, 8.C, 9.E, 10.F
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PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT
1 Analytical techniques like return on A Cost aggregation.

investment, payback period, and internal
rate of return, net present value, and
discounted cash flow are used to develop
2 Cost management plan includes B Schedule variance: EV – PV, negative
means behind schedule, positive means
ahead of schedule,
Cost variance :EV –AC , negative means
over budget, positive is under budget,
Schedule performance Index: EV/PV,
Greater than one is good, less than one is
not
Cost performance Index: EV/AC, Greater
than one is good, less than one is not
3 Factors considered for estimation are C The cost of work spent to the project to
accommodate the quality efforts
4 To create budget, activity costs are rolled D Rent, utility bills – fixed cost
up into work package costs. Then work Wages, cost of material, supplies –
package costs are rolled up into control variable cost
account costs, and then final project costs. Salary for the team, training the team –
It is called as direct cost
Taxes - indirect cost
5 Cost of quality E Sunk cost – is the money already spent on
the project
Opportunity cost – value of the project
which is not chosen, so that the money can
be spent on the other project.
6 Schedule variance, cost variance, schedule F Lifecycle costing

performance index, cost performance index
can be calculated from,
7 Examples of fixed cost, variable cost, G Funding limit reconciliation
direct cost, and indirect cost are
8 Sunk cost and opportunity cost can be H cost management plan
defined as
9 reconcile the funding limits according to I Levels of accuracy needs for the estimates
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the funds allocated for the project called as Level of precision
Unit of measure
Control thresholds
Units of measure
Reporting format used
Rules for measuring the performance
10 Total cost of the product from development J Buy vs lease ,Make vs buy ,Resource
to support the product after it is in market sharing,
Cost trade-offs, Risks
Answer:
1. H, 2. I, 3.J, 4.A, 5.C, 6.B, 7.D, 8. E, 9.G, 10.F
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PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT
1 The quality theories, A Design of experiments

The product to build need to be fits on
customer needs,
The built product needs to satisfy the stated
and implied requirements,
It is based on the concept of continuous
improvement are
2 Example of Cost of conformance to B failure rate, availability, reliability, failure

requirements and Cost of non-conformance rate, number of defects
to requirements are
3 Examples of quality metrics are C flowcharts
4 The output of manage quality process are, D Fitness for use: The product to build need
to be fits on customer needs,
Conformance to requirements: The built
product needs to satisfy the stated and
implied requirements,
PDCA (plan-do-check-act):It is based on
the concept of continuous improvement
5 The technique which is to identify which E Affinity diagram

factors may have the influence on the
product or process outcome called as
6 This technique weighs the cost of the F Process analysis
quality activities against the gain due to the
efforts called as
7 The chart display the sequence of steps, G Training cost, testing are examples of cost
branching in the process that transforms of conformance,
one or more inputs into one or more output Rework, repairs, complaints are examples
& shows activities, decision points, loops, of cost of non-conformance.
parallel paths, order of processing,
interrelationship between elements in the
process is called as
8 analyze the non-value added activities, H PDPC (Process decision program charts)
identify the underlying cause of the issue,
and develop preventive actions, and it is
called as
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9 The diagram which is used to structure and I Quality reports, change requests, project
group the results of root-cause analysis in management plan updates, project
the quality assurance process, and based on document updates, test and evaluate
that we can decide if there is need to documents.
change the policies, procedures to address
the issue
10 The chart used to create contingency plans J Cost-benefit analysis
in a project and also helps the project team
in anticipating the contingency plan to
mitigate the risk
Answer: 1. D, 2.G, 3.B, 4. I, 5.A, 6.J, 7.C, 8.F, 9.E, 10. H
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PROJECT RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
1 In this technique members of the project A Virtual team to do the work.

team are selected in advance before the
project start and they are guaranteed for the
project due to their experience, skills and
the project is dependent on their expertise.
2 Types of hierarchical charts are B Plan human resource management-

planning
Acquire resources – executing
Develop team – executing
Manage team - executing
3 In this technique considering couple of C Motivation to resolve conflict on a short or
factors and decide who should be on the long-term basis,
project team. Position of those involved in the conflict
This technique is called as resolution,
Time restriction to resolve the conflict,
Important and intensity of conflict
4 When team members are located in D Pre-assignment
different locations, the project manager can
use
5 The number and type of resources needed E Coaching, consensus, delegating,
can be find using the vertical bar chart in influencing, consultative, autocratic and
the staffing management plan is called, facilitating
6 The 6 processes in the plan human resource F Collaborate/problem solving and
management and their corresponding withdraw/avoid
process groups are
7 Some of the management/leadership styles G resource management plan, team
available in organization are performance assessments, change
requests, team charter
8 Win/win and lose/lose situation happens to H Resource histogram
both the parties in this type of conflict
resolution technique
9 Factors influencing conflict resolution I RBS,OBS and WBS
methods are
10 The main outputs of resource management J Multicriteria decision analysis
processes are
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Answer:
1. D, 2.I, 3.J, 4.A, 5.H, 6.B, 7.E, 8.F, 9. C, 10.G
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PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT
1 Examples of A Active listening.

Formal written,
Formal verbal,
Informal written,
Informal verbal,
2 Improper communication results in B Interactive communications

3 Every message communicated has been go C progress reports
through the process
4 Information management systems D Hard copy documents,
Electronic communications,
Electronic tools for project management
5 The listener uses both verbal and nonverbal E Delay in the message reaching the
clues like nodding or repeating the words audience,
to communicate that the message has been Misunderstanding of the message
received by the receiver is called as communicated
6 Plan communication management has 3 F Push communication

process namely plan communication
management, manage communications and
monitor communications, and all the 3
process groups are
7 2 or more parties involved in this type of G complex issues, and technical details,
communication and it is very efficient to contract, updates to the project
ensure common understanding of messages management plan,
by all the participants presentations, conferences and speeches,
email, text messaging, notes,
conversation, discussions
8 The report shows what has been achieved H Encode – Transmit message – Decode –
in the project until now, Acknowledge – Feedback/Response.
9 In this communication method sender I Provides a set of tools to capture, store and
sends the information to the corresponding distribute information related to the cost of
parties, but didn’t expect feedback or it is the project, schedule update and
understood by them performance.
10 Tools used in information management J Planning, executing, monitor and control
system are
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Answer:
1. G, 2.E, 3.H, 4.I, 5.A, 6.J, 7.B, 8.C, 9. F 10.D
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PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT
1 All the risk management process are in the A Workaround

planning process group except
2 Risk register contains B Risk owner
3 Perform qualitative risk analysis and C Analysis helps to find the difference
perform quantitative risk analysis the between what was planned and what is
difference is happening.
Analysis identifies the trends in the
performance. Deviation from the baseline
indicates the potential impact of threat or
opportunities.
4 Unplanned risk responses developed to D Monitor risks process. It is in the monitor

deal with the unexpected risks are called and control process group.
5 Example of diagramming techniques and E Influence diagram
information gathering techniques are
6 The person responsible for implementing F List of risks
the actions defined in mitigation and List of potential response to the risks
contingency plan in risk management Root cause of risks
Risk by category
Risk owner, secondary risk,
7 Warning signs that the project risk is about G Reserve analysis
to happen in the project is called as
8 Variance and trend analysis H Risk triggers
9 This technique used to find the contingency I Perform qualitative risk analysis is the
reserves allocated are sufficient at any process to prioritized the risks for further
point in the project. It compares the risk analysis by assessing their probability and
remaining vs the amount of contingency impact.
reserve fund available to deal the risks. Perform quantitative risk analysis is the
process of numerically analyzing the
effect of identified risks on overall project
objective.
10 It is a graphical representation of J Cause & effect diagram, process flow

influencers that may influence others that charts, influence diagram and
will affect the project. brainstorming, Delphi technique,
interviews, root cause analysis.
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Answer:
1. D, 2.F, 3.I, 4.A, 5.J, 6.B, 7.H, 8.C, 9.G, 10.E
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PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT
1 Activities done during the plan A Control procurements

procurement process
2 The factors to be considered during the B Conduct bidder conference,
make or buy analysis Clear the doubts that sellers have,
Select the seller by using the evaluation
criteria,
Negotiate with the seller,
Award the contract
3 Procurement management plan includes, C Plan procurement management – planning
Conduct procurements – executing
Control procurements – monitor and
control
Close procurements - closing
4 Ensures both the buyer and sellers D Independent estimates
performance meets procurement
requirements and both meets contractual
obligations.
5 Close procurement process involves E Buyer evaluates the potential sellers and
select one,
Finalize the make or buy decision,
Review the contract types and select the
contract type which is appropriate for the
project,
Create the procurement statement of work,
Source selection criteria,
Procurement management plan creation
6 Conduct procurement involves F how much it will cost to build compared
to buy it,
How the decision which we choose will
impact other constraints scope, schedule
etc.,
Contract types available,
Availability of resources,
If a purchase decision is made, then
consider whether to lease or purchase,
Consider both direct and indirect costs
7 The document which informs sellers to G Bidder conference
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submit the proposals,
Document sent to sellers to request
information about their capacity to do the
work
Give the seller an opportunity to examine
the procurement documents and prepare the
proposal
8 The 3 processes in the procurement H the verification of the product and work
management processes are done in the and confirm that are acceptable,
process groups finalize the open claims,
update records,
Archiving all the information for future
reference.
9 In this technique all the bidders can I IFB,RFI,RFP,
compete in unbiased manner, and it
provides all the vendors the information
about requirements, and answers all their
questions
10 Sometimes the buyer won’t have expertise J Different contract types used,
to evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In Metrics to measure the vendor
this type of situation buyer approaches the performance,
3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd How the seller selection will be handled,
party will come with the estimates of how Planned delivery date,
much the project costs and this technique is List of pre-qualified vendors,
called as Any assumptions and constraints related to
the procurements,
Handling leading times,
Handling make/buy decisions
Answer:
1. E, 2.F, 3. J, 4.A, 5.H, 6.B, 7.I, 8.C, 9. G, 10.D
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PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT
1 Stakeholder management plan provides A Stakeholder register, stakeholder

engagement plan, work performance
information, change requests
2 The activities in manage stakeholder B Name, title, classification, expectation,
management process are information needs, roles,
3 Information management system C Based on grouping stakeholders based on
their involvement in the project and their
ability to effect changes to the project’s
planning or execution.
Based on the power, urgency and their

involvement in the project.
4 The 4 stakeholders management processes D Stakeholder communication requirements,

are identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder Required engagement levels of the
management, manage stakeholder stakeholders by different stages of the
engagement, monitor stakeholder project,
engagement are done in the process groups Information needs of stakeholders.
called Time and frequency of distribution of
information to stakeholders.
5 The main outputs of stakeholder E Based on the level of authority and their
management are level of interest on the project outcome.
Based on the level of authority or power
and their active involvement in the project.
6 Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix F Stakeholder engagement assessment

is the technique used in matrix
7 Stakeholder register has the information G Manage stakeholder expectation through
such as negotiation and communication,
Engage stakeholders throughout the
project life cycle to get commitment from
them,
Resolve issues and concerns proactively
8 Used to find the gaps in engagement levels H Plan stakeholder management
and actions and communications are taken
to close the gap between the current state
and desired future state of engagement
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9 Power/interest grid classification model I It provides the tools to capture, store and
based on, and power/influence grid distribute information to stakeholders
classification model is based on, related to project performance, scope,
cost, and schedule and also consolidates
information from various systems and
send reports to stakeholders
10 Influence/impact grid and Salience model J Initiating, planning, executing, monitor
based on and control
Answer:
1. D, 2.G, 3.I, 4.J, 5.A, 6.H, 7.B, 8.F, 9.E, 10.C
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Formulas used in Calculations:
Project X, which would yield $250,000 in benefits instead of project Y, which would yield $200,000.
What is the opportunity cost for selecting project X over Project Y?
The opportunity cost for Project X is the value of project Y or 200,000.
over budget.
Earned value is greater than the PV (Planned value) which indicates the project is ahead of schedule.
AC (Actual cost) is smaller than EV (Earned value) that indicates the project is under budget.
Number of years and cost are not relevant as they are accounted for the in calculation of net present
value. Select the project with the highest NPV (Net Present value).
Rough order of magnitude (-25 percent to 75 percent).
EMV (estimated monitor value) can be calculated by multiplying the probability and impact.
EMV = Probability * Impact
Schedule Variance SV = EV - PV
Cost Variance CV = EV - AC
Positive CV indicates, the project is under budget, and a positive SV indicates the project is ahead of
schedule.
Cost Performance Index CPI = EV / AC (EV – earned value, AC – Actual cost)
Payback Period = Initial Investment / Periodic Cash flow
PV = FV/ (1+r) n
PV - present value, FV - future value, r - rate of interest n - number of years
FV/ (1+r) n = PV, so FV = PV* (1+r) n
Estimate To Complete (ETC) = EAC - AC
Earned value (EV) = % complete * Budget at Completion (BAC)
over budget.
Select the project with the highest NPV (Net Present Value)
PERT Formula: (P + 4M + O) / 6
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P – Pessimistic estimate, O – optimistic estimate, M – Most Likely estimate
Standard Deviation = (Pessimistic estimation – Optimistic estimation) / 6
Number of channels in communication: n (n-1)/2
EAC = AC + (BAC- EV)
EAC = BAC/ CPI
Variance at Completion (VAC) = BAC - EAC
TCPI (To Complete Performance Index) = (BAC – EV)/ (EAC – AC)
Return of Investment ROI = (Net profit/ cost of investment)/ 100
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PMI-ACP® (AGILE CERTIFIED PRACTITIONER) PRACTICE EXAMS:
1. Which of the below choice is correct about continuous integration?

A. The code changes are checked into version control after every iteration.
B. The code changes are checked in for every release.
C. The code changes are checked in and tested every day.
D. The code changes are checked in once the project is complete.
1. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. One risk mitigation technique used in an
agile environment that developers need to continuously integrate their code to verify recent changes
haven't broken the base code, which is already developed. Continuous Integration helps to find code
issues as soon as possible.
2. Wireframe models used to help the agile teams with

A. It helps to elicit requirements that regular personas might miss.
B. A fictional user of the system under development
C. Confirm the created design.
2. Answer: C Explanation: Wireframes are simplified block diagrams that show the placement of
elements in a user interface and demonstrate the intended layout and functionality of a solution. Option
C is the correct answer. Option A is for Extreme persona. Option B is defined for Persona.
3. One of the below is the valid list of emotional intelligence quadrants,

A. None of the below.
B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.
C. Self, Others, Recognize, Regulate.
D. Self, Others, Regulate, Recognize.
3. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. Option B is for the team formation stages.
Option C is not correct.
4. One of the choices given below denotes dysfunctions of a team

A. Absence of trust.
B. Inattention to results.
C. Lack of commitment.
4. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The main dysfunctions of the agile team are
the absence of trust, inattention to results, lack of commitment, fear of conflict, and avoidance of
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accountability.
5. List the steps used in the estimating process,

A. Determine the size of the project. `
B. Calculate the work effort to do the work.
C. Convert the work effort into the schedule.
5. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The typical steps used in estimating process
are determining the size of the project, calculate the work effort to do the work in hours, convert the
work effort into the schedule, and calculate the cost.
6. In the current iteration, the agile team committed for 20 story points. But during the last day of
the iteration looks like they have completed only 15 story points. As an agile manager, what is
your reaction?
A. Ignore the situation.
B. Complete the 15 story points and keep the remaining five story points in the backlog.
C. Cancel the current iteration.
D. Extend the iteration duration.
6. Answer: B Explanation: Option B is the correct answer. Iteration is always time-boxed, and duration
should not be extended. In this situation, the team should complete the 15 story points and keep the
remaining 5 points in the backlog.
7. One of the following is correct about progressive elaboration,

A. Detailed planning occurs at the beginning.
B. No planning in progressive elaboration.
C. Detailed plan occurs as more details emerge in the project.
7. Answer: C Explanation: progressive elaboration is a process of refining the product vision so that the
highest priority features are developed. In this planning occurs in phases rather than all at the beginning.
Plan at high level in the beginning and detailed planning occurs close to the project.
8. One of the options given below is the common failure modes,

A. Prefer to fail conservatively.
B. Making mistakes.
C. Being inconsistent.
8. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The common failure modes are making
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mistakes, being inconsistent, being creatures of habit, prefer to fail conservatively.
9. A short period of proof-of-concept work is called as,

A. Risk-based-spike.
B. User story.
C. TDD (Test-driven development).
9. Answer: A Explanation: Option A is the correct answer. A short period of a proof-of-concept of work
is called risk-based-spike. Option B and Option D are not right.
10. One of the benefits of retrospectives for the agile team,

A. Improved productivity
B. Improved quality.
C. Improved capacity.
10. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The benefits of retrospectives of the agile
team are improved productivity, improved quality, improved capacity, and improved capability.
11. One of the activities to help to set the stage in the retrospective process is,
A. Focus on/Focus off
B. ESVP
C. Check-in
11. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. In the Retrospective process the activities,
help to set the stage is Focus on / Focus off, ESVP, working agreements, and check-in.
12. In ESVP (Explorers, Shoppers, Vacationers, Prisoners), the definition of Vacationers is

defined as,
A. They are eager to discover new ideas and insights.
B. They find all the available information & have a new idea based on that.
C. Vacationers are not interested in the retrospective work, to get away from the regular job they
participate in the retrospective session.
D. They feel like they are forced to attend the retrospective session.
12. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer for vacationers. Option A is for Explorers.
Option B is for shoppers. Option D is for Prisoners.
13. Lessons learnt happens during,

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A. During only the first few iterations.
B. During the product demo.
C. Throughout the project duration.
D. Only after the project failure during the post review session.
13. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. Lessons learnt should be captured
throughout the project from the team. If something good or bad happens during the project, the team
remembers when it is fresh, and forget critical details after some time.
14. Agile project teams do the planning at three levels named as,
A. Schedule, cost, quality
B. Release, iteration, retrospective.
C. Release, Iteration, Daily.
14. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. Three levels of planning are release,
iteration, and daily. Other options A, B, and D are not correct.
15. One of the following is a central repository that helps to track changes and save changes and
provides the history of changes.
A. Release plan.
B. Product vision box.
C. Version control system.
15. Answer: C Explanation: The Version control system is a central repository that helps to track
changes and save changes and provides the history of changes. Other options are not correct.
16. The total number of story points planned for a release is called,
B. Release baseline.
C. Schedule baseline.
D. Performance measurement baseline
16. Answer: D Explanation: Performance measurement baseline is defined as the total number of story
points planned for a release. Other options are not correct.
17. The main reason for most of the product failures are,
A. Technical risk.
B. Inefficient quality control.
C. Market risk.
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17. Answer: C. Explanation: The reason for product failure is market risk. None of the reasons given
insignificant compared to market risk.
18. The Waterfall approach is called as, and agile approach is called as,
A. Active, Reactive.
B. Not flexible, Flexible.
C. Plan driven, Value-driven.
18. Answer: C. Explanation: In the waterfall (traditional) approach, everything is planned. It is called a
Plan driven approach. An agile approach to the most valuable requirements to the customer are
delivered; first, it is called value-driven approach. Other given options are not correct.
19. When it is necessary to split a user story

A. Whenever the project manager thinks to split the story.
B. Not necessary to split the user story.
C. The user story is large to fit within a single iteration.
19. Answer: C Explanation: Sometimes, the user story is too large to fit into a single iteration. At those
times, we need to split the user story.
20. The agile triangle constraints are,

A. Time, Cost, Scope
B. Value, Quality, Constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Both A and B are wrong
20. Answer: B Explanation: Agile triangle relates to value, quality, and constraint. Time, Cost, Scope is
related to traditional management.
21. The process to minimize the work-in-process and maximize the business value is called,
A. XP
B. ITIL
C. None of the above.
D. Lean
21. Answer: D. Explanation: Value stream mapping is a lean tool used to analyze the value stream by
means of eliminating waste, and minimize the work-in-process and maximize the value.
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22. The list of capabilities, stories, features that the product team identified is called,
A. Backlog.
B. User stories.
C. Capacity.
22. Answer: A. Explanation: The list of capabilities, stories, features that the product team identified is
called a backlog. It used to be maintained by the team, led/prioritized by the product owner.
23. The usage of story cards in agile,

A. provides info about who is working in the team.
B. Both C and D.
C. It provides estimates about the stories.
D. It provides basic information about stories.
23. Answer: D. Explanation: Story cards are used to provide necessary information about user stories
like requirements, acceptance criteria, etc. Acceptance criteria are written on the back of the story card.
24. The least preferred contract type of agile project is,
A. Time & Materials Contract
B. Phased contract.
C. Agile iteration contract.
D. Firm Fixed Price Contract.
24. Answer: D. Explanation: Firm fixed-price contract is the least preferred contract type of agile
projects. In this contract, the price is fixed, but agile welcome changes even at the last minute also. So it
is difficult to accommodate changes in this type of contract.
25. Remove obstacles for the team is the responsibility of scrum master. By removing obstacles,
we are eliminating
A. Roadblocks.
B. Impediments.
C. Project Risk.
25. Answer: C Explanation: By the way, removing obstacles/impediments, we are eliminating the risk
of the agile project.
26. Risk mitigation technique that happens due to continuously integrate the code changes and
confirm the changes to the code has not broken the base code is called,
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B. Pair programming.
C. Continuous migration.
D. Continuous integration.
26. Answer: D Explanation: Continuous integration is one of the risk mitigation techniques used in an
agile environment that developers need to continuously integrate their code to verify recent changes
haven't broken the base code, which is already developed.
27. The diagram which reduces risk due to workload imbalance by spreading it more evenly is
called as,
A. Pareto chart.
B. Burn up chart.
C. Cumulative Flow diagram.
D. Burn down chart.
27. Answer: C Explanation: CFD, reduces risk due to workload imbalance by spreading it more evenly.
This chart gives a quick overview of what is going in the project. We can find how much work is done,
ongoing work, unfinished work, etc. It is used where the bottlenecks are there in the workflow. Through
CFD, we can track how long it will take to deliver the desired results, the total size of the backlog is
reduced or constant or increasing.
28. A meeting which is for the team and by the team, in which the team choose the topic to discuss
is called as,
A. Iteration planning meeting.
B. Open space meeting.
C. Retrospective meeting.
D. Daily standup meeting.
28. Answer: B Explanation: The meeting, which is for the team and by the team, in which the team
chooses the topic to discuss, is called an open space meeting.
29. A typical, regular workday is called,

A. All of the below.
B. Ideal Day.
C. Normal Day.
D. Actual Day.
29. Answer: D Explanation: A regular workday is called actual day, which starts at either 9 am or 8 am,
and contains eight work hours and 1-hour break.
30. The day which is defined as the time required to complete an activity, assuming there are no
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interruptions so that work can be completed 100% efficiently,
A. Ideal days.
B. A & D
C. Actual Days.
D. Normal working day.
30. Answer: A. Explanation: Time required to complete an activity, assuming there are no interruptions
so that work can be completed 100% efficiently is called ideal days.
31. The time-boxed plan is what?

A. The product scope is committed, but the release date is not confirmed.
B. Both the product scope and release date approved in advance.
C. The release date is committed, but the features to be developed for the release is not defined.
31. Answer: C Explanation: In a time boxed plan, the release date is committed, but the features to be
developed for the release are not defined.
32. When the agile team considers the factors that will support or oppose a change in the
organization process is called,
A. Force field analysis.
B. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
C. Deming PDCA cycle.
D. SWOT analysis.
32. Answer: A Explanation: Force field analysis is a tool used to examine organizational factors that
are supporting or opposing the change. It considers the organization’s driving and restraining forces.
33. The terminology in agile, which look forward in the future and learn the unknown and reduce
the uncertainty is called,
A. Estimating.
B. Predicting.
C. Planning
D. Scanning.
33. Answer: D. Explanation: The terminology, which looks forward in the future and learns the
unknown and reduce the uncertainty, is called scanning. Other options are not correct.
34. Decisions are made at the time of last responsible moment is called
A. Project Commitment.
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B. Deferring commitment.
C. Soft commitment.
D. Hard commitment.
34. Answer: B Explanation: Decisions are made at the time of the last responsible moment is called
Deferring commitment. Other options are not correct.
35. To deliver the most valuable requirements to the customer first, makes the customer happy
because they start realizing the benefits. This kind of product delivery is called
A. Rapid delivery.
B. Fast delivery.
C. None of the options A, B, D.
D. Incremental delivery.
35. Answer: D. Explanation: Build the smallest thing possible to get value as soon as possible to the
customer. E.g.: Release the software in incremental by releasing the key features in the first iteration.
36. If the defects are found very late in the agile software project, it causes
A. Less expensive.
B. More expensive.
C. It is not making any difference in cost.
D. cost savings.
36. Answer: B. Explanation: If we find the defects very late in the project, it is more expensive to fix it.
If we find the errors very early in the project phase, it is less costly to fix.
37. Sam is working on the agile project and involved in developing software. The team is behind
schedule. The software developed is not done thoroughly,
A. If it has bugs.
B. the software can’t ship.
C. If the testing is not done.
D. the software can ship to the vendor.
37. Answer: B. Explanation: The developed software is not done completely, if the developed software
cannot be shipped.
38. In Agile EVM (Earned Value Measurement) the progress is usually measured at the end of
A. All of the below.
B. Project level.
C. Release level.
D. Iteration level.
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38. Answer: D Explanation: In Agile EVM, the progress is usually measured at the end of every
iteration.
39. Restructuring the code, without changing the external behavior of the code is called,
A. Working in pairs.
B. Validating the code.
C. Refactoring
D. bug fixing
39. Answer: C Explanation: Restructuring the code, without changing the external behavior is called
refactoring.
40. Work in progress limit is defined as 10. The maximum number of things that can be allowed
in the stream is,
A.11
B. 15
C. 10
D. 20
40. Answer: C Explanation: If the WIP limit is defined means, we can’t add more than the limit to the
value stream.
41. In Burn down charts, X and Y axis we track,

A. X-axis track time, and Y-axis track the work remaining
B. X-axis track the work remaining, and Y-axis track the time.
C. Both A & B.
41. Answer: A Explanation: In burn down chart plotted against the time vs work remaining. In x axis,
we plot the time and the Y-axis; we plot the work remaining in the project.
42. The different levels of agile project planning are,

A. Project Vision.
B. Product Roadmap.
C. Release Planning.
42. Answer: D. Explanation: The different levels of agile project planning are product vision, product
roadmap, release planning, and iteration planning, daily stand-up.
43. The values used in agile modeling are,

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A. Communication.
B. Simplicity.
C. Courage.
43. Answer: D. Explanation: The four values used in agile modeling are communication, simplicity,
courage, and feedback.
44. Prototyping is one of the agile,

A. Version control technique.
B. Feedback technique.
C. Code review.
D.code refactor method
44. Answer: B Explanation: Prototype is used to get valuable feedback from the users early in the
project.
45. The process which is performed frequently for the quality of the product is called,
A. Validation.
B. Frequent verification and validation.
C. Verification.
D.Inspection
45. Answer: B. Explanation: The process which is performed frequently for the quality of the product is
called frequent verification and validation.
46. Critical soft skills needed for any type of project,

A. Listening.
B. Negotiation.
C. Facilitation.
46. Answer: D Explanation: Critical soft skills are listening, negotiation, conflict resolution,
facilitation.
47. The agile manifesto, which is considered as team empowerment

A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools.
B. Working software over comprehensive documentation.
C. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
D. Responding to Change over following a plan.
131
47. Answer: A. Explanation: Individuals and interactions over process and tools, this manifesto is
related to team empowerment.
48. An initial node in a large user story is called as

A. Epic
B.iteration log
C. User stories.
D. Task.
48. Answer: A. Explanation: Epic span around many iterations called a capacity. It is the largest part of
the user story. Epic is a larger user story, can be decomposed into smaller user stories.
49. Self-organizing teams can make their own

A. The Product owner decides on a self-organizing team.
B. Scrum master decides on the self-organizing team.
C. Can’t make their own decisions.
D. Decisions.
49. Answer: D Explanation: Self-organizing team can make their own decisions. The best architectures,
requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing teams.
50. Project charter includes,

A. Milestones.
B. Critical success factors.
C. Vision.
50. Answer: D. Explanation: Project charter includes project vision, milestones, and critical success
factors.
51. The undue influence of a single strong-willed member often because of undisclosed agenda
A. Influencing.
B. Anchoring
C. Refactoring.
D. Pair programming.
51. Answer: B. Explanation: Undue influence by a single strong-willed member often because of
undisclosed agenda called anchoring.
52. Artifacts in the agile projects,

A. Product backlog.
132
B. Product vision statement.
C. Product roadmap.
52. Answer: D. Explanation: Records of project inputs, outputs are called artifacts. E.g. of artifacts in
the agile product backlog, product vision statement, product roadmap.
53. Provides authority to the project manager to apply resources for the project.
A. Elevator Statement.
C. Business case.
D. Product backlog.
53. Answer: C Explanation: The Business case is a written document that explains how the use of
resources aligned with the accomplishment of a goal. It provides authority to the project manager to
apply resources for the project.
54. Advantages of a collocated team in agile,

A. Closer working relationships.
B. Collaboration.
C. Enables the face-to-face communication.
54. Answer: D. Explanation: Having co-located teams improve communication, closer working
relationships, collaboration, and enables face-to-face communication.
55. Meaning of done-done means product is,

A. Coded.
B. Tested.
C. Defect-free.
55. Answer: D. Explanation: Done-done means the product is coded, tested, defect-free, and accepted
by the product owner.
56. The last step in FDD (Feature-driven development) is

A. Develop the overall model.
B. Build by feature.
C. Plan by feature.
D. Design by feature.
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56. Answer: B. Explanation: Feature Driven Development is an iterative software development
methodology intended for use by large teams working on a project using object-oriented technology.
The steps are, - Develop an overall model - Build a feature list - Plan by feature - Design by feature -
Build by feature
57. The team stops focusing on delivering new features, and instead spends their time on
stabilizing the system and getting it ready to be released is called,
A. Iteration 0.
B. Handoff iteration.
C. Hardening iteration.
D. Buffer iteration
57. Answer: C Explanation: In a hardening iteration, the team stops focusing on delivering new
features, and instead spends their time on stabilizing the system and getting it ready to be released.
58. Name one of the innovation games used in agile,

A. Bang for the buck
B. Speed boat
C. Prune the product tree
58. Answer: D Explanation: Bang for the buck, Speed boat, Prune the product tree is some sample
innovation games. Generally, it used to identify customer requirements, improve retrospectives, and
prioritize backlogs.
59. Not one of the Kanban principles,

A. Visualize the flow.
B. Limit the amount of work in progress.
C. Refactoring.
D. Enhance the workflow.
59. Answer: C Explanation: Kanban based on three fundamental principles ➢ Visualize the workflow
➢ Limit the amount of work in progress ➢ Enhance the workflow
60. Not one of the Lean process,

A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools.
B. Empower the team.
C. Optimize the whole.
D. Eliminate waste.
60. Answer: A. Explanation: Lean focus on value stream mapping. Eliminate waste is the core
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principle of lean. Lean Principles ➢ Eliminate waste ➢ Empower the team ➢ Delivers fast ➢ Optimize
the whole ➢ Build quality in ➢ Defer decisions ➢ Amplify learning.
61. The smallest set of functionality, which gives value to the customer called,
A. Marketable feature.
B. Minimum marketable feature.
C. Product features.
D. Desired feature.
61. Answer: B. Explanation: Smallest set of functionality, which gives value to the customer. Build the
smallest thing possible to get value as soon as possible. It has 3 attributes minimum, marketable, and
feature. Other options are not correct.
62. MoSCoW technique used for the prioritization of user stories. W stands for,
A. Would have.
B. Will have.
C. Won’t have.
62. Answer: C. Explanation: One of the Prioritization techniques used. (Must have, should have, could
have, and won’t have). Other options are not correct.
63. INVEST acronym used in user story development? The letter “T” stands for
A. Traceable.
B. Testable.
C. Team effort.
D. Taxable.
63. Answer: B. Explanation: Attributes of a user story INVEST (independent, negotiable, valuable,
estimable, small, and testable).
64. In Agile iteration contract,

A. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog
priorities.
B. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner can change the iteration backlog
priorities.
C. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends.
D. When the customer sees value, they stop paying, and the project continues.
64. Answer: A. Explanation: In an agile iteration contract, mutually agreed on deliverables by the team
and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog priorities during the iteration. Other options are
not correct.
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65. In Time and materials contract,
A. When the customer sees value, they stop paying, and the project ends.
B. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends.
C. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner can change the iteration backlog
priorities.
D. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog
priorities.
65. Answer: B Explanation: In Time and materials contract, when the customer doesn't see the value,
they stop paying, and the project ends. Other options are not correct.
66. In Phased development contract,

A. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends.
B. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog
priorities during the iteration.
C. Funded based quarterly, and additional funding approved following each successful release.
66. Answer: C Explanation: In Phased development contract funded based every quarter, and
additional funding approved following each successful release. Other options are not correct.
67. Objectives of the kickoff meeting,

A. Communicate project vision to the team.
B. Establish the ground rules for the team and the project.
C. Review the business case.
67. Answer: D. Explanation: Objectives of the kickoff meeting are to communicate the project vision to
the team, establish the ground rules for the team and project, review the business case.
68.______________ is used to quantify the work effort and complexity required to develop a user
story related to other stories.
A. A story card.
B. User stories.
C. Story points.
D. Relative sizing
68. Answer: C Explanation: Story points used to quantify the work effort and complexity required to
develop a user story related to other stories. Other options are not correct.
69. A task of a short experiment carried out to gain the knowledge about a specific question
called,
A. Refactoring.
136
B. Flexibility matrix.
C. Spike.
D. Pair programming.
69. Answer: C Explanation: Spike is a task of a short experiment carried out to gain knowledge about a
specific question. Knowledge gained by an exploratory spike, do understand the issue is called process-
centric knowledge. Other options are not correct.
70. A process of collecting time-series data points about one or more variables and examines the
data to detect the patterns to predict the future called
A. Variance analysis.
B. Trend analysis.
C. Process analysis.
D. Force field analysis.
70. Answer: B. Explanation: A process of collecting time-series data points about one or more variables
and examines the data to detect the patterns to predict the future is called trend analysis. Other options,
A, C, D, are wrong.
71. Placing stories on the wall greatest to the least called

A. Absolute sizing.
B. Sizing.
C. Relative sizing
D.None of the above
71. Answer: C. Explanation: Placing stories on the wall most significant to the least called relative
sizing. It is one of the estimation technique. Other options are not correct.
72. The coach sees an increase in the number of escaped defects, which traced back to a
developer. What action he needs to do,
A. Address this issue with the developer.
B. Address this issue with the team.
C. Bring this issue in the daily standup meeting.
D. Ignore this issue.
72. Answer: B. Explanation: Since agile is an empowered, self-organizing team, the coach should
address this issue with the team. Other options A, C, D, are not correct.
73. Management asked the agile team for a detailed project plan. The response of the agile coach
should be,
A. Tell the management that plans not needed for an agile project.
B. Request the team to stop the work and prepare the detailed project plan.
C. Prepare the comprehensive project plan.
137
D. Take the opportunity to educate the senior management on agile principles
73. Answer: D. Explanation: Management asked the agile team for a detailed project plan. The agile
coach uses this opportunity to educate senior management on agile principles. Other options are not
correct.
74. During iteration H

A. No new functionality has developed during this iteration.
B. New functionality has developed during this iteration.
C. Work to prepare formal documentation and other deliverables that need for the project.
D. Adding an iteration to deal with unexpected changes or risks to avoid project delays and increase the
reliability of the project schedule.
74. Answer: A. Explanation: During iteration H, no new functionality has developed during this
iteration. Other options are not correct.
75. The number of story points completed by the agile team during an iteration called,
A. Burn ratio.
B. Burn rate.
C. Velocity.
D. Team’s burn rate.
75. Answer: C. Explanation: The number of stories that a team can deliver within the iteration is called
velocity. Other options are not correct.
76. Information radiator that shows story points planned and completed during an iteration
called
A. Burn up chart.
B. Burndown chart.
C. Cumulative flow diagram.
D. Product vision box.
76. Answer: A. Explanation: Information radiator that shows story points planned and completed
during an iteration called burn up chart. Other options are not correct.
77. Type of information radiator that uses green, yellow, and red color indicators to show the
status of specific aspects of the project called,
A. Burndown chart.
B. Burn up chart.
C. Dashboard.
77. Answer: C. Explanation: Type of information radiator that uses green, yellow, and red color
indicators to show the status of specific aspects of the project called Dashboard. Other options are not
138
correct.
78. One of the reasons to implement agile in the organization,

A. Minimize cycle time.
B. Increase market opportunities for the organization.
C. Reduce threats.
78. Answer: D. Explanation: One of the reasons to implement agile in the organization, should
minimize cycle time, and increase the market opportunities for the organization and reduce threats.
79. This chart shows the work remaining in story points or ideal days in the project.
A. Burn up chart.
B. Dashboard.
C. Burndown chart.
79. Answer: C Explanation: Burndown chart shows the work remaining in story points or ideal days in
the project. Other options are not correct.
80. The chart shows the work completed, in story points or ideal days in the project,
A. Burndown chart.
B. Burn up chart
C. Cumulative flow diagram.
D. Dashboard.
80. Answer: B Explanation: The chart shows the work completed, in story points or ideal days in the
project called Burn up chart. Other options are not correct.
81. A tool which used mainly to balance workload imbalances by spreading it more evenly called,
A. Burn up chart.
B. Kanban board.
C. Cumulative flow diagram
D. Burndown chart.
81. Answer: C. Explanation: A tool that used mainly to balance workload imbalances by spreading it
more evenly called a cumulative flow diagram. Other options are not correct.
82.____________can be defined as organizations pay, even though no deliverables are produced,

but based on the level of effort.
A. Level of effort.
B. Law of large numbers.
139
C. Level of risk.
D. Level of work
82. Answer: A. Explanation: Level of effort can be defined as organizations pay, even though no
deliverables are produced, but based on the level of effort. Other options are not correct.
83. User stories at the top of the backlog are,

A. Not well defined.
B. Well defined.
C. Prioritized.
D. Not-prioritized.
83. Answer: B. Explanation: User stories at the top of the backlog are well defined. Other options are
not correct.
84. A tool used for continuous improvement called,

A. Kanban board.
C. Elevator statement.
D. Information Radiator.
84. Answer: A. Explanation: A tool used for continuous improvement is called Kanban board. Kanban
is a process designed to help teams work together more effectively. Kanban board used for constant
improvement. Other options are not correct.
85. Time taken to shift between activities during meetings called

A. Actual Time.
B. Ideal Time.
C. Shuffle time.
D. Calendar Time.
85. Answer: C. Explanation: Time taken to shift between activities during meetings called Shuffle time.
Other options are not correct.
86. The agile manager collects lessons learned during

A. End of every iteration.
B. End of every release.
C. Throughout the project.
D. End of every retrospective.
86. Answer: C. Explanation: The agile manager collects lessons learned throughout the project. Other
options are not correct.
140
87. A chart which used in collecting requirements, when some distractions happen during the
discussion called as
A. Burndown chart.
B. Parking lot chart.
C. Burn up chart.
D. Kanban board.
87. Answer: B. Explanation: A chart which used in collecting requirements, when some distractions
happen during the discussion called a Parking lot chart.
88. Definition of done can be created by,

A. Team.
B. Product owner.
C. Scrum master.
88. Answer: D Explanation: Definition of done can jointly be created by the team, product owner, and
the scrum master.
89. Continuous improvement can follow on the below agile practices,

A. Daily stand up meeting.
B. Retrospectives.
C. Demo.
89. Answer: D. Explanation: Continuous improvement can be followed on the agile practices Daily
stand up meeting, Pair programming, Demo, Review, Retrospectives.
90. Work in progress, the agile team, prefers to

A. Increase.
B. Reduce.
C. Stop.
D.Pause
90. Answer: B. Explanation: Work in progress, the agile team prefers to reduce because Work in
progress has a cost (investment), but no value (output).
91. One of the below is not an emotional intelligence quadrant

A. Self-awareness
B. Project-awareness.
C. Self-management
D. Social awareness
141
91. Answer: B. Explanation: Emotional intelligence quadrants are Self-awareness, Self-management,
Social Awareness, and Social skills.
92. Escaped defects are identified by the,

A. Customer.
B. Agile team.
C. Quality control team.
D. Operations.
92. Answer: A Explanation: The customer identifies escaped defects.
93. Persona has one of the following,

A. Name.
B. Picture.
C. Behavioral traits.
93. Answer: D. Explanation: Persona is a fictional user of the system under development. A persona is
a fictional character that represents a subset of the market we want to capture. Persona typically has a
name, a picture, and relevant characteristics such as age or income group, behavioral traits. They
encourage us to follow a user-centric approach.
94. The product backlog should be,

A. Detailed
B. Estimable
C. Prioritized
94. Answer: D. Explanation: Product backlog should be detailed, estimable, emergent, prioritized.
95. Sprint 0 focuses on,

A. Developing an initial requirement
B. Initial architecture
C. Setting up the environment
95. Answer: D. Explanation: Spring 0 focuses on developing an initial requirement, initial architecture,
and setting up the environment.
96. Standard that an agile team to follow in the work environment called
A. Agile contract.
B. Team agreement.
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C. Working agreement.
D. Agile agreement.
96. Answer: C Explanation: Standard that an agile team to follow in the work environment. It posted in
a familiar place.
97. One of the below is not a core principle of XP,

A. Planning game.
B. Working software is the primary measure of progress.
C. Collective code ownership.
D. Refactoring.
97. Answer: B. Explanation: Working software is the primary measure of progress is the agile principle.
98. One of the below is not an information radiator,

A. Burn up chart.
B. Excel sheet stored on the computer.
C. Burndown chart.
D. Dashboard.
98. Answer: B. Explanation: Excel sheet stored in the computer is not an information radiator.
99. Team space encourages the following,

A. Collaboration
B. Communication.
C. Transparency.
99. Answer: D Explanation: Team space should encourage collocation, collaboration, communication,
transparency, and visibility. It should enhance productivity. Agile team space should promote maximum
interaction and communication from the team members.
100. The meetings usually held at the end of the iteration

A. Review meeting (product-based).
B. Retrospective meeting (process-based).
C. A and B.
D. Team happy hour.
100. Answer: C Explanation: 2 meetings usually held at the end of the iteration. Review meeting
(product based) and Retrospective meeting (process-based).
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What are the components of the PMP exam?

What are the components of the PMP exam?

What are the eligibility requirements to take the PMP exam?

What are the eligibility requirements to take the PMP exam?

QUICK REFERENCE GUIDE FOR PMP® EXAM

PMP® – FAST TRACK

THIYAGARAJAN PERUMAL MBA, PMP, PMI-ACP, CSM, ITIL, PRINCE2 PRACTIONER,

PMP® Exam Study Guide

About the PMP® Exams

The exam is composed of 200 multiple choice questions.

How to Register For PMP® Exam:

10 Knowledge Areas are

Process Groups Approximate percentage of Approximate number of

Relevant and Updated to the Current Syllabus

About the Author:

181. Gilbert is working on a stakeholder management project. He is working on developing a

Manage shared resources.

Coaching, mentoring, guidance whenever needed.

Knowledge: How much they know about project management.

12. Answer: Option C is correct. Richard is working in a functional organization. In a Functional

Project team reports to functional managers.

13. Answer: Option B is correct. Paul is working in a projectized organization.

14. Answer: Option D is correct. Sam is working in a weak matrix organization.

Functional manager has more authority than the project manager.

22. Answer: Option A is correct. In a Projectized organization;

Project team reports to functional managers.

Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase.

Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase.

41. Answer: Option C is not correct. It is related to business case.

Project Title and description.

Develop project charter.

46. Answer: Option D is correct. Business case is created as a result of:

Lessons learned register.

Project management plan.

Close the contract.

Comparing actual performances against the baseline.

-accomplish project objectives.

Project management plan.

Plan scope management.

A unique identifier called code of account identifier.

60. Answer: Option D is correct. Examples of product analysis technique are:

Voting (Unanimity, majority, plurality).

64. Answer: Option D is correct. Available group creativity techniques are:

Brainstorming, Nominal group technique.

69. Answer: Option D is correct.

A unique identifier called code of account identifier.

Plan schedule management.

Resource availability – considering the relation between resource availability and

Schedule management plan.

Most commonly used relationship: Finish-to-Start.

85. Answer: Option D is correct. Analogous estimation is the correct answer.

Plan cost management.

Knowledge management – Organization has formal knowledge management.

Cost management plan.

95. Answer: Option C is correct. Monthly salary to employees working in an organization is an

99. Answer: Option B is correct. Parametric estimation is the correct answer.

100. Answer: Option C is correct. Trend analysis is the correct answer.

Plan quality management.

103. Answer: Option D is correct.