MODEL PAPER - 9

97. Number of (+) for tubercle bacilli if count in AFB 107. Sputum positive TB patients on chemotherapy should
sample is > 10 per oil immersion fields? be isolated at least for
(a) 2 weeks
(a) + (b) ++ (b) 3 weeks
(c) +++ (d) Scanty (c) 4 weeks
(d) 6 weeks
98. One TB infected person can infect how many people in
1 year? (a) 20 (b) 30 108. Contacts of Sputum positive tuberculosis patient who
(c) 10 (d) 5 should be given preventive chemotherapy
(a) Pregnant women
99. Incidence of TB in a community measured by:
(b) Old people
(c) Children above 6 years
(a) Sputum smear +
(d) Children below 6 years
(b) Tuberculin test +
(c) Sputum culture Review Questions
(d) Mantoux test +
109. In T.B/ a ‘case’ is”:
100. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(a) Cough (b) Sputum positive

tu- berculosis infection in a community is:
(c) Mantoux positive (d) X-ray positive
(a) Mass miniature radiography
(b) Sputum examination 110. National tuberculosis institute is situated at:
(c) Tuberculin test (a) Bombay
(d) Clinical examination (b) Calcutta
(c) Bangalore
101. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in humans is
(d) Delhi
most common because of:
(a) Contact (b) Inhalation 111. Tuberculin unit is:
(c) Infiltration (d) Inoculation (a) 0.0001 mg
(b) 1 unit of PPD RT3
102. One of the following is known as Tuberculin Conver-
(c) 0.1 mg BCG
sion Index:
(d) None of the above
(a) Incidence of infection
(b) Prevalence of infection 112. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of
(c) Incidence of disease tuberculosis infection in a community is?
(d) Prevalence of disease (a) Mass miniature radiography
(b) Sputum examination
103. Xpert MTB/RIF test is used to detect:
(c) Tuberculin test
(a) For assessing resistance to isoniazid
(d) Clinical examination
(b) For assessing multi drug resistant TB
(c) For assessing rifampicin resistance 113. By WHO best criteria for TB diagnosis is:
(d) Monitoring drug response in MDR TB (a) Sputum + ve
(e) Diagnosis of TB (b) Chest pain
(c) Cough – 3 weeks
104. TB multidrug regimen is given to:
(d) X-ray finding
(a) Prevent resistance 114. A case of TB a/c to WHO is detected by:
(b) Broad spectrum (a) Sputum exam
(c) Prevent side effects (b) Mass Miniature radiography
(d) None (c) Montoux test
105. Sputum positive TB is: (d) Elisa
(a) 1 out of 2 sputum sample +ve 115. True about tuberculosis-:
(b) 2 out of 3 sputum sample +ve (a) >104 bacilli are required in sputum for detection
(c) BACTEC +ve (b) Mantoux test can differentiate between BCG and in-
(d) Mantoux test positive fection
106. Tuberculin positive means: (c) Can be grown on ordinary culture media
(a) Immunodeficient patient (d) Drug sensitivity is tested by schick test
(b) Resistance to tuberculin protein 116. In tuberculosis combination of Antimicrobials is used:
(c) Patient is infected with mycobacterium (a) To delay the development of resistance To
(d) Patient is suffering from disease reduce toxicity
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 (b) To Broaden anti-bacterial spectrum
(c) 250 in children and 25 in adults
(d) To prevent Liberation of toxins from organisms (d) 1000 in children and 75 in adults
117. Number of sputum positive cases of tuberculosis per 126. Which of the following is not a type of Vaccine
lakh in India is: derived polio virus?
(a) 75 (b) 50 (a) cVDPV
(c) 40 (d) 10 (b) iVDPV
(c) aVDPV
118. BCG is:
(d) mVDPV
(a) Live attenuated vaccine
(b) Killed vaccine 127. Polio virus is shed maximum in stool up to
(c) Toxoid (a) 6 weeks
(d) Immunosuppressant agent (b) 8 weeks
(c) 10 weeks
119. 1 mL of expectoration contains what number of TB (d) 12 weeks
bacilli in an active case of TB? (a) 100
(b) 1,000 128. Wild poliomyelitis is still endemic in
(c) 10,000 (d) 1,00,000 (a) Sri Lanka
(b) Pakistan Com
120. In India, a tubercular mother is advised for all except: (c) India
(a) Give baby BCG m
(d) Afghanistan
(b) ATT to mother un
(e) Nigeria
(c) With hold Breastfeeding ic
(d) None of these ab
Review Questions le
POLIOMYELITIS
an
129. Zero dose of Polio vaccine is which is given: d
(a) Before giving DPT
121. Which type of sample can be used to isolate poliovirus
N
(b) At birth
earliest? on
(c) When child is having Diarrhea
(a) Stool (B) Blood (d) When child is having Polio
-
(C) Throat (d) CSF co
130. Polio is due to: m
122. True about oral polio vaccine: (a) Virus (b) Bacteria m
(a) Poliomyelitis in recipients (c) Protozoa (d) Fungus un
(b) Poliomyelitis in contact of recipient
(c) Guillein Barre syndrome
131. For every case of poliomyelitis the subclinical cases of ic
(d) Vomiting and fever
poliomyelitis to be estimated: ab
(a) 500 children and 50 adults le
123. True about complete eradication of poliomyelitis from (b) 750 children and 75 adults Di
India is: (c) 1000 children and 75 adults se
(a) From 2012 onwards, no vaccine associated polio (d) 1000 children and 50 adult as
case has been detected
(b) Last polio case in India was reported in 13 January 132. Mg++ is used in vaccine as:
2011 (a) Stabilizer (b) Adjuvant
(c) Mostly IPV is used currently (c) Preservative (d) Vehicle
(d) India is the only country which is not able to 133. True about polio is:
eliminate it completely (a) Eliminated from India
124. Regarding poliovirus responsible for poliomyelitis all (b) Less than 300 confirmed cases remaining
are true except: (c) Only Known in UP, MP and Bihar
(a) Type 3 is most common is India (d) Clinical cases are more than subclinical cases
(b) Type 1 is most common in India 134. Killed Vaccine of polio is:
(c) Type 1 is responsible for most epidemics (a) Salk (b) Sabin
(d) Type 2 is eradicated worldwide (c) Both (d) None
125. For every clinical case of poliomyelitis subclinical cases 135. Wrong about polio patient who had paralysis:
are: (a) Most predominant polio virus during epidemic is
(a) 500 in children and 75 in adults type I
(b) 500 in children and 25 in adults (b) Sub clinical infection common

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 (c)
Can transmit It by nasal (a) A (b) B
discharge
(d) Can be given vaccine (c) C (d) E
136. All are true about SALK vaccine except: 145. Isolation period of Hepatitis A:
(a) It prevents paralysis (a) 1 weeks (b) 2 weeks
(b) Oral polio can be given as booster (c) 3 weeks (d) 4 weeks
(c) It is contraindicated in immunocompromised
146. Acute Hepatitis B marker(s) is/ are:
patients
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti HBs
(d) Easily transported
(c) Anti HBc (d) HBeAg
HEPATITIS (e) Anti HBe
147. A mother is HBsAg positive at 32 weeks of pregnancy.
137. Which of the following is not transmitted through What should be given to the newborn to prevent
sexual route? neonatal infection?
(a) Hepatitis A (a) Hepatitis B vaccine + Immunoglobulin
(b) Hepatitis E (b) Immunoglobulin only
(c) Both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E (c) Hepatitis B vaccine only
(d) Hepatitis D (d) Immunoglobulin followed by vaccine 1 month later
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

138. Marker for infectivity of serum in Hepatitis B is: 148. Most important in diagnosing Acute Hepatitis B is
(a) IgG Anti-HBc
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti HBc (b) IgM Anti-HBc
(c) HBe Ag (d) Anti HBc (c) Anti HBs
(d) HBsAg
139. Which of the Hepatitis B Virus serological marker
indi- 149. A nurse was diagnosed to have HBeAg and HBsAg in
cates the first evidence of Hepatitis B infection? serum. Most likely she is having
(a) Chronic hepatitis B
(a) Anti-HBs (b) Anti-HBc (b) HBV + HBE coinfection
(c) HBeAg (d) HBsAg (c) Active and infectious Hepatitis B disease
(d) Recovery from Hepatitis B
140. Which of the following is true about HCV screening?
(a) Medical students are screened before their joining
(b) IV drug abuser are prone to infection Review Questions
(c) Blood products taken before 1997 should be
screened 150. Hepatitis A virus shedding in faeces is:
(d) Long term hemodialysis (a) One week before the symptoms appear
(e) Interferon is treatment (b) Two weeks after the symptoms appear
(c) Two weeks before the symptoms and two week
141. Heaptitis A true is:
thereafter
(a) Causes mild illness in children (d) One week before the symptoms and one week
(b) 3% incidence of carrier state thereafter
(c) Sexual route common
151. Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis – B is:
(d) 10% transform into HCC
(a) HBs Ag
(e) Vertical Transmission never seen (b) Anti - HBs
142. Which of the following is/are seen in Acute Hepatitis- (c) Anti HBc
B? (d) HBe Ag
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti-HBs
152. Chances of Viral Hepatitis Type C becoming a chronic
(c) Anti-HBc (d) HBeAg
infection are:
(e) Anti-HBe
(a) 10% (b) 20%
143. Both HBsAg and HBeAg are positive in: (c) 30% (d) 50% or more
(a) Acute infectious hepatitis B
(b) Chronic Hepatitis B DIARRHEAL DISEASES (CHOLERA AND TYPHOID)
(c) Recovery phase of Hepatitis B
(d) Individuals vaccinated with Hepatitis B
153. The freshly prepared ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution)
should not be used after: ]
144. 1955 Hepatitis outbreak is Delhi was:

314
 (a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours (c) Persistence of Vi antibodies
(c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours (d) Demonstration of Typhoid bacilli in stools
154. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours 164. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the
and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is irritable but follow- ing measures are recommended except:
drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is: (a) Mass chemoprophylaxis
(a) Intravenous fluids (b) Proper disposal of excreta
(b) Oral rehydration therapy (c) Chlorination of water
(c) Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by (d) Early detection and management of cases
oral fluids
(d) Plain water add libitum 165. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an
adult is a single dose of:
155. The best approach to prevent cholera epidemic in a (a) Tetracycline (b) Co-trimoxazole
community is:
(c) Doxycycline (d) Furazolidone
(a) Mass chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline
(b) Vaccination of all individuals 166. A convalescent case of cholera remains infective for:
(c) Health education (a) < 7 days
(d) safe water and sanitation (b) 7-14 days
156. Which of the following is the drug of choice for (c) 14-21 days Com
chemo- prophylaxis of cholera? (d) 21-28 days m
(a) Tetracycline 167. In WHO-ORS, concentration of sodium is: un
(b) Doxycycline (a) 60 mEq/L (b) 50 mEq/L ic
(c) Furazolidone (c) 40 mEq/L (d) 90 mEq/L ab
(d) Co-trimoxazole le
168. True about ORS:
157. The usual incubation period for typhoid fever is: an
(a) Na+ = 90 meq/L
(a) 10-14 days
(b) K+ = 30 meq/L d
(b) 3-5 days N
(c) Cl- = 20 meq/L
(c) 21-25 days on
(d) Hco3– = 40 meq/L
(d) less then 3 days -
(e) Glucose = 110 meq/L
158. The drug of choice for treating cholera in pregnan co
women is: 169. The composition of ORS recommended by WHO is: m
(a) Tetracycline (b) Doxycycline (a) 3.5 g NaCl m
(c) Furazolidone (d) Cotrimoxazole (b) 4.5 g NaCl
un
(c) 2.9 g sodium-potassium citrate
159. The drug of choice for treating cholera in children is: ic
(d) 2.8 g sodium bicarbonate
(a) Tetracycline ab
(e) 1.5 g potassium chloride
(b) Doxycycline le
(c) Furazolidone 170. WHO ORS contains: Di
(d) Cotrimoxazole (a) Sodium chloride 2.5 g se
(b) Potassium chloride 1.5 g as
160. True about citrate in ORS:
(a) Increases shelf life (b) Nutritious (c) Glucose 20 g
(c) Cheaper (d) Tastier (d) Sucrose 10 g
(e) Potassium bicarbonate 2.5 g
161. The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution
for malnourished children) is: 171. Composition of ORS which of the following is correct:
(a) 90 mmol/L (b) 60 mmol/L (a) Na+ 90 meq/L
(c) 45 mmol/L (d) 30 mmol/L (b) HCO3- 10 meq/L
(c) K+ 20 meq/L
162. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the (d) Cl- 5 meq/L
follow- ing measures are recommended except:
172. WHO ORS, composition are (mmol):
(a) Mass chemoprophylaxis (a) Glucose – 111
(b) Proper disposal of excreta (b) K+- 80
(c) Chlorination of water (c) Na+ - 20
(d) Early detection and management of cases (d) Cl- - 30
(e) Total millimoles-311
163. Which one of the following gives strong evidence of
Typhoid Fever carrier status: 173. Ringer lactate true is:
(a) Isolation of Core antigen (a) Cl- - 111
(b) Isolation of Vi antigen (b) Na+ - 45
(c) K+ - 5
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 (d) Lactate – 29 186. True of 8th Pandemic of Cholera
(e) Ca+2 - 5 (a) Started in Bangladesh
(b) Originated in 2012
174. WHO ORS has:
(c) Due to O139 El Tor
(a) K+  20 mmol/lt
(d) Low attack rate
(b) Na+  90 mmol/lt
(e) Low proportion of adults in endemic regions
(c) HCO3–  10 mmol/lt
(d) Osmolality  150 mmol/lt 187. A village affected with epidemic of cholera, what is the
1st step which should to be taken in village to decrease
175. A 12 kg child with diarrhoea, fluid to be replaced in
the death from cholera
first 4 hours: (a) 0-400 ml (b)
(a) Safe water supply and sanitation
400-800 ml
(b) Cholera vaccination to all individuals
(c) 800-1200 ml (d) 1200-1600 ml
(c) Primary Chemoprophylaxis
176. Incubation period of typhoid is: (d) Treat everyone in the village’ with tetracycline
(a) 1-2 days (b) 10-14 days
188. Ratio of Sodium : Glucose in WHO Reduced Osmolar-
(c) 1 month (d) 4-6 hours
ity ORS is
177. Which is true of typhoid? (a) 1:4
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(a) Female carriers are less common (b) 1:3

(b) Male carriers though less are more dangerous (c) 1:2
(c) Gall bladder usually not involved in carrier state (d) 1:1
(d) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers (e) 4:1
178. Persistent diarrhoea in infants:
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days Review Questions
(c) 21 days (d) 1 month
179. ORS should be discarded after: 189. Drug of choice for carriers of typhoid is:
(a) 54 hours (b) 6 hours (a) Ampicillin
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours (b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Co-trimoxazole
180. ORS contains 75 mmol/litre of: (d) Clindamycin
(a) Sodium (b) Potassium
(c) Glucose (d) Chloride 190. Which is true of typhoid?
(a) Female carriers are less common
181. Dehydration in a child with diarrhoea, thirst present, (b) Male carriers though less are more dangerous
tears absent is: (c) Gall bladder usually not involved in carrier state
(a) Mild (d) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers
(b) Moderate
(c) Severe 191. In salmonolosis disease, isolation is done till:
(d) None (a) Fever subsides
(b) Blood culture negative
182. Concentration of sodium in mMol/L in low osmolar (c) Spleen subsides
ORS is? (a) 45 (b) 75 (d) Stool culture negative for three times
(c) 90 (d) 60
192. In ORS, the concentration of sodium chloride is:
183. New WHO ORS osmolarity is: (a) 3.5 gm
(a) 270 (b) 245 (b) 2.5 gm
(c) 290 (d) 310 (c) 2.9 gm
184. ORS amount required in first 4 hours in a 1 year old (d) 1.5 gm
case of dehydration is: (a) 200-400 ml (b) 193. Drug of choice for cholera chemoprophylaxis is:
400-600 ml (a) Erythromycin
(c) 600-800 ml (d) 800-1200 ml (b) Ampicilline
185. Which of the following about the composition of new (c) Ciprofloxacin
ORS is wrong: (d) Tetracyclines
(a) NaCl– 2.6 grams/litre 194. Typhoid oral vaccine is given:
(a) 1, 3, 5 days (b) 1, 2, 3 days
(b) KC1– 1.5 grams/litre (c) 1, 2, 4 days (d) 1, 7, 14 days
(c) Glucose – 13.5 grams/litre
(d) Total osmolarity – 300mmol/l 195. Isolation in patient with Salmonellosis is done:
(a) Till fever subsides
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 (b) Till Widal becomes negative Review Questions
(c) Till 3 stool test are negative
(d) For 48 hrs of Chloramphenicol treatment 205. Guinea worm infestation is common in workers of:
(a) Step wells
196. Best disinfectant for cholera stools is:
(b) Ponds
(a) Bleaching powder (b) Cresol
(c) Fields
(c) Coal-tar (d) Formalin
(d) Cotton mills
197. In oral rehydration solution least amount in of:
206. Chandler’s index is used for:
(a) Sodium citrate
(a) Ankyclostoma duodenale
(b) Potassium chloride
(b) Ascaris lumbricoides
(c) Sodium chloride
(c) Stongyloides
(d) Glucose
(d) Trichuris trichura
WORM INFESTATIONS 207. According to Chandler’s index water containing 200-
250 eggs should be considered as:
198. All of the following statements regarding dracunculia- (a) Safe
sis are true except (b) Mild pollution
(a) India has eliminated this disease (c) Dangerous Com
(b) Niridazole prevents transmission of the disease (d) Public health problem m
(c) The disease is limited to tropical and subtropical re-
208. Chandler’s index: un
gions
(d) No animal reservoir has been proved (a) No of hookworm eggs per gram of stool ic
(b) No of hookworm larva per gram of stool ab
199. Chandlers Index is used in epidemiological studies of (c) No of failures of contraception for 100 woman years le
(a) Round worms of exposure an
(b) Hook worms (d) No of E-coli in a water sample d
(c) Guinea worms
209. Dracunculiasis was more common in which of the fol- N
(d) Sand fly
lowing state? on
200. Intermediate host for Hydatid disease is: (a) Orissa (b) Rajasthan -
(a) Man (c) Tamil Nadu (d) U.P. co
(b) Dog m
(c) Cat 210. Cysticercosis cellulosae causes infection with:
(a) Taenia saginata m
(d) Fox un
(b) Taenia solium
201. Chandlers index for Hookworm. When it is health (c) Echinococcus granulosus ic
problem? (d) Diphyllobothrium latum ab
(a) >300 (b) >200 le
(c) >100 (d) >50 211. Chandler’s index is:
Di
(a) No. of eggs of hook work in 100 gram soil
202. Chandler’s index is used for: se
(b) No. of eggs of hookworm in per gram soil
(a) Ankylostoma duodenale (c) No. of eggs of hookworm in per gram stool as
(b) Ascaris lumbricoides (d) Percentage of stool specimens positive for hook-
(c) Strongyloides worms
(d) Trichuris trichiura
212. Highest level of health care is:
203. Uses of Chandler’s index for hookworm include all (a) Primary health care
except (b) Tertiary care
(a) Assessment of endemicity (c) Child care
(b) Monitoring individual treatment (d) Secondary level care
(c) Monitoring mass treatment of coomunity
(d) Comparison of worm load in different populations DENGUE
204. WHO considerations regarding Dracunculosis
eradication, all are true except: 213. Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the
(a) Drinking piped water and installation of hand following except:
pumps (a) Hepatomegaly
(b) DDT
(b) Pleural effusion
(c) Health education and awareness of public
(d) Control of Cyclops (c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) Decreased hemoglobin

317