LORMA COLLEGES

COLLEGE OF PHYSICAL & RESPIRATORY THERAPY

1st SEMESTER SY 2019-2020

FINAL EXAMINATION
on
THERAPEUTIC EXERCISE II – LECTURE

General Instruction: Write your FINAL answer in your bluebook. STRICTLY NO ERASURES.

I. Multiple Choice. Write the letter of choice in your bluebook.

1. Nerve commonly injured at the site of fibular head.

a. femoral nerve b. sciatic nerve c. saphenous nerve d. tibial nerve
2. One of the nerves subjected to injury at the knee region which supplies the sensation of skin along medial side of knee
and leg
a. femoral nerve b. sciatic nerve c. saphenous nerve d. tibial nerve
3. The following statements are true regarding the application of lateral/medial glides at the knee, except
a. the position of patient to improve knee extension and flexion is in supine
b. the direction of patellar glide is often opposite to the direction of pain
c. apply a pain free medial/lateral glide to the tibial plateau either by hand/mobilization belt
d. none of the above
4. True on MWM application to improve knee flexion
a. done in supine position Internal tibial rotation for flexion c. sustain the IR while pt flexes
the knee
b. internally rotate the knee while performing distal glide to patella d. all of the above
5. Genu valgum deformity is associated with
a. in toing b. out toing c. retroversion d. external rotation of femur
6. Deformity which is common in patients with knee osteoarthritis.
a. genu varum b. genu valgum c. genu recurvatum d. genu decurvatum
7. Extensor lag in the knee means _____.
a. weakness in the biceps femoris
b. passive range of knee extension is less than the active range available
c. active range of knee extension is less than the passive range available
d. both active and passive range in knee extension are limited
8. True on knee osteoarthritis
a. more loss of extension than flexion c. muscle strength is normal
b. pt assumes knee extension in the presence of jt effusion d. pt may have an impaired balance
9. A type of graft which is taken from one individual and placed on another individual of the same genetic constitution,
example is in the case of twins.
a. autograft b. isograft c. allograft d. xenograft
10. The mechanism of injury for patient with ACL tear
a. abrupt rotation while knee is bended c. abrupt paused from an accelerated running
b. high impact knee compression d. varus stress
11. The peak torque of the quadriceps muscles is ______ degrees towards knee extension.
a. 20-10 b. 40- 20 c. 70-50 d. 100- 70
12. The muscle that primarily control the amount of knee flexion during pre-swing by controlling the forward movement of
the tibia.
a. soleus b. plantaris c. quadriceps d. ITB
13. The following are criteria for arthroplasty except for
a. severe pain c. pre-existing OA
b. sepsis d. marked LOM resulting from joint degeneration
14. Which statement best describes the screw home mechanism?
a. during sitting to standing, femur internally rotates as the knee approaches 20 degrees of extension
b. in an open kinematic chain, femur externally rotates as the knee approaches 20 degrees of extension
c. in an open kinematic chain, tibia internally rotates as the knee approaches 20 degrees of extension
d. AOTA
15. In kicking a ball, terminal rotation is seen as _______ of the tibia on the fixed femur.
a. external rotation b. internal rotation c. distraction d. approximation
16. This muscle is responsible for unlocking the knee.
a. soleus b. gastrocnemius c. articularis genu d. popliteus
17. A condition manifested with patellofemoral pain caused by traction injury to the apophysis of tibial tuberosity.
a. sinding-larsen syndrome b. Osgood-schlatter c. plica syndrome d. osteochondritis dessicans
18. Your patient has OA on the 1st MTP with associated hallux valgus deformity. Halux valgus is described as ___.
a. 1st metatarsal shifts medially to the second toec. proximal phalanx shifts medially toward the 2nd toe
b. 1st metatarsal shifts laterally to the second toe d. proximal phalanx shifts laterally toward the 2nd toe
19. Your patient was diagnosed to have anterior shin splint, which is caused by overuse of the ________ muscle.
a. tibialis anterior b. peroneus longus c. tibialis posterior d. gastrocnemius
20. Which of the following parts of the respiratory system belongs to the upper respiratory unit?
a. trachea b. bronchioles c. alveoli ducts d. larynx
21. All of the following comprises total lung capacity except:
a. tidal volume b. residual volume c. vital capacity d. none of these
22. Normal breathe sound is called _________.
a. crackles b. vesicular c. wheezes d. adventitious
23. It is the most common and easiest means of airway clearance.
a. postural drainage b. coughing c. huffing d. all of these
24. Defined as chronic cough and expectoration which persist for 3 months for at least 2 consecutive years.
a. Chronic Bronchitis b. Asthma c. Emphysema d. Cystic Fibrosis
25. The primary muscle for inspiration is innervated by what nerve?
a. C3-C5 b. C4-C6 c. C5-C6 d. C6-C7
26. All of the following are accessory muscles for inspiration except:
a. scalenes b. internal intercostal c. external intercostal d. NOTA
27. External intercostal is an accessory muscle for ________.
a. inspiration b. expiration c. forced expiration d. AOTA
28. This muscle acts to elevate the ribcage and contribute to inspiration when the arms are overhead.
a. upper trapezius b. SCM c. pectoralis major d. AOT
29. The circumference of the upper chest is larger than the lower chest and the sternum appears to be prominent, this is
an example of a __________ chest.
a. barrel chest b. pigeon chest c. funnel chest d. AOTA
30. The lower part of the sternum is depressed and the lower ribs flare out, this is an example of a ______ chest.
a. barrel chest b. pigeon chest c. funnel chest d. AOTA
31. If the sternum is prominent and protrudes anteriorly this is an example of a __________ chest.
a. barrel chest b. pigeon chest c. funnel chest d. AOTA
32. Which is not an example of adventitious breath sounds?
a. rhonchi b. crackles c. wheezes d. NOTA
33. Which of the following are tests for peripheral arterial involvement in a patient with complaints of calf musculature
pain?
a. Claudication time b. Homan’s sign c. Percussion test d. None of the above
34. It is a chronic disease seen predominantly in young male patient who smoke.
a. Thromboangitis Obliterance b. Arteriosclerosis obliterance c. Raynaud’s Disease d. AOTA
35. A chronic functional arterial disorder that occurs more in women caused by abnormalities in the sympathetic nervous
system characterized by digital vasospasm.
a. Thromboangitis Obliterance b. Arteriosclerosis obliterans c. Raynaud’s Disease d. Raynaud’s phenomenon
36. AKA Chronic Occlusive Arterial diseases.
a. Thromboangitis Obluiterance b. Arteriosclerosis obliterancs c. Raynaud’s Disease d. NOTA
37. All of the following are signs and symptoms of arterial diseases except:
a. cold extremities b. ulceration c. hyperthermia d. NOTA
38. What is the correct sequence of response in Raynaud’s phenomenon?
a. numbness, cyanosis, pallor, pain c. cyanosis, pain, pallor, numbness
b. pallor, cyanosis, pain, numbness d. AOTA
39. Which of the following are possible complications of venous disorders?
a. deep vein thrombosis b. pulmonary embolism c. venous hypertension
d. AOTA e. NOTA
40. Inflammation of the of lymph nodes is called________.
a. Lymphangitis b. Lymphadenopathy c. lymphadenitis d. AOTA
41. The highest chance of acquiring Diastasis Recti.
a. after delivery b. 1st trimester c. 2nd trimester d. third trimester
42. Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in pregnancy is caused by the following, EXCEPT
a. Postural changes in the neck c. fluid retention
b. hormonal changes d. circulatory compromise
43. A PT observes a patient’s breathing as part of a respiratory assessment. Which muscle of respiration is most active
during forced expiration?
a. diaphragm c. internal intercostals
b. external intercostals d. upper trapezius
44. Secretion removal techniques are an integral part of a pulmonary rehab program. What is the simplest method to
clear secretions from the upper airways?
a. cough b. shaking c. percussion d. vibration
45. A PT instructs a patient to expire maximally after taking a maximal inspiration. The PT can use these instructions to
measure the patients.
a. expiratory reserve volume c. total lung capacity
b. inspiratory reserve volume d. vital capacity
46. A PT instructs a patient in diaphragmatic breathing exercises. Which of the following instructions would not be helpful
in teaching diaphragmatic breathing.
a. place your dominant hand over the midrectus area
b. expire through your mouth
c. inspire slowly through your nose
d. as you expire watch your lower hand rise
47. A chest deformity characterized by prominent and anteriorly protruding sternum.
a. pectus excavatum b .pectus carinatum c. barrel chest d. funnel chest
48. A means of mobilizing secretions in one or more lung segments by placing the patient into various positions.
a. shaking b. vibration c. postural drainage d. percussion
49. The vibrations felt as the PT palpates over the chest wall as the patient speaks
a. vocal fremitus b. tactile fremitus c. both d. none
50. A normal breath sound heard softer than bronchial and is heard equally without a pause
a. Bronchial b. Vesicular c. Bronchovesicular d. Ronchi
51. A yellow or green and purulent sputum with strong odor signify:
a. infection b. chronic bronchitis c. emphysema d. normal
52. Breathing exercise taught to help COPD patients deal with episodes of dyspnea
a. pursed lip breathing c. glossopharyngeal breathing
b. diaphragmatic breathing d. abdominal breathing
53. Breathing exercise taught high level SCI patients
a. pursed lip breathing c. glossopharyngeal breathing
b. diaphragmatic breathing d. abdominal breathing
54. This breathing exercise increases inspiratory capacity when there is severe weakness of the muscles for inspiration
a. pursed lip breathing c. glossopharyngeal breathing
b. diaphragmatic breathing d. abdominal breathing
55. Characterized by a feeling of fatigue or weakness in the early stages of arterial disease; a feeling of cramping or
aching during or after walking.
a. intermittent claudication b. rest pain c. claudication time d. all of the above
56. A special test for the presence of thrombus in the lower extremity, except
a. claudication time c. rubor of dependency
b. homan’s test d. thompson’s test
57. A special test confirming an acute venous thrombosis where there is pain or tenderness felt with passive dorsiflexion
of the affected foot.
a. Thomas test b. Thompson test c. gordon’s test d. homan’s test
58. True on Arteriosclerosis Obliterans (ASO), except
a. onset is < 30 y/o c. male affected more than female
b. has elevated serum cholesterol of >200 mg/dL d. patient is a smoker
59. A component in the Virchow’s triad described as slow blood flow in the blood vessel which may lead to thrombosis.
a. hypercoagulability c. intimal wall damage
b. arteriosclerosis d. venous stasis
60. An absolute contraindication for obstetric exercises, except
a. placenta previa c. preeclampsia
b. gestational diabetes d. vaginal bleeding

II. Enumeration
1-4 Contraindicated exercise position in Obstetric exercise
5-10 Management for Lymphedema

The pessimist sees difficulty in every opportunity. The optimist sees opportunity in every difficulty” ~ Winston Churchill

Prepared by: Christy E. Javarro, PTRP Approved by: Bernard B. Tayaban Jr., MDA
Instructor College Dean
 LORMA COLLEGES
COLLEGE OF PHYSICAL & RESPIRATORY THERAPY
1st SEMESTER SY 2019-2020

FINAL EXAMINATION
on
THERAPEUTIC EXERCISE II – LABORATORY

General Instruction: Write your FINAL answer in your bluebook. STRICTLY NO ERASURES.

I. Modified True or False: Write the word True if the statement is correct and if false write the word that made the
statement incorrect and beside it put the right term to make it a correct statement. (2 points per item)

1. Supine heel prop as a self-stretching exercise to increase knee extension is not effective for severe knee flexion
contractures.
2. The lateral side of the knee is more commonly affected in OA.
3. Knee flexion is more limited than knee extension in knee OA.
4. The mechanism of injury for meniscal tear is valgus stress.
5. Pes cavus is when the subject walks on ball of foot with the heel off the ground.
6. Immobilization for total ankle arthroplasty is 2-3 weeks.
7. Ruptured Achilles tendon can be confirmed through Thompson test.
8. Diastasis recti is described as separation of the rectus abdominis muscles in the midline at the linea alba.
9. Brawny edema as a symptom of lymphedema is described as swelling where fluid leaks out from the skin.
10. The position of patient for postural drainage if the secretions are located in the upper lobe is sitting over folded pillow
at 30 degrees angle.

II. Modified Multiple Choices:

On PT management for knee non-surgical cases

Categorize the following management according to the goal it could achieve; (10 pts)
a. Mobilization with Movement
b. HEP: maintaining strength in the supporting muscles helps protect and stabilize the joint
c. PREs using 4 lbs ankle weight by 10 reps in all planes
d. Use of assistive device
e. Functional exercises (climbing stairs, rising or sitting from-to chair)
f. Stretching
g. PJM III, IV
h. Multiple angle isometrics
i. Bicycling, swimming
j. HEP: balance exercises help reduce the incidence of falls

1. Educate the patient

2. Decrease Pain from Mechanical Stress
3. Increase Joint Play and Range of Motion
4. Improve Muscle Performance in Supporting Muscles
5. Improve Cardiopulmonary Endurance

On exercises to improve knee joint range

a. Improves knee flexion b. improves knee extension

11. Prone hang 14. Gravity-Assisted Supine Wall Slides

12. Rocking Forward on a Step 15. Sitting on chair then move forward on chair
13. Supine heel prop

On breathing patterns
a.dyspnea c. bradypnea e. orthopnea
b. tachypnea d. trepopnea f. cheyne stokes

16. Difficulty of breathing in supine. 19. Fast breathing pattern followed by slow breathing then apnea
17. Difficulty of breathing in sidelying . 20. Fast rate of breathing.
18. Slow respiratory rate

On movement of the thorax

a. pump handle c. piston action
b. bucket handle d. caliper motion

21. Increase in vertical dimension of the thorax during ventilation.

22. Elevation and outward turning of the lateral portions of the ribs.
23. Increase in the AP dimension of the thorax during ventilation.
24. Flaring of the lower ribs to open outward to increase subcostal angle during ventilation.
25. Movement of the central tendon of the diaphragm descends as the muscle contracts.
On PVD
a. Thromboangitis Obliternas c. Raynaud’s Phenomenon e. c and d
b. Arteriosclerosis Obliterans d. Raynaud’s Disease

26. AKA Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease 31. AKA primary Raynaud’s syndrome.
27. Most often affects large and medium arteries of LE. 32. Caused is unknown
28. Most often affects small arteries of LE. 33. It is associated with other diseases.
29. Inflammatory reaction of arteries to nicotine. 34 More common in women.
30. Caused by Atherosclerotic formation. 35. Caused by abnormality of the SNS.

a. Lymphedema b. Lymphangitis c. Lymhyadenitis d. Lymphadenopathy

36. Inflammation of the lymph vessels

37. Inflammation of the lymph nodes .
38. Excessive and persistent accumulation of fluids and proteins in tissue spaces.
39. Enlargement of the lymph nodes.
40. Can occur as result of systemic infection or trauma.

III. Essay

1-15 Design and discuss an exercise program for a 4 months pregnant woman to
a. prevent the occurrence of diastasis recti
b. prevent of episiotomy
c. promote overall strength of the muscle

16-20 Discuss the procedure in performing contract relax technique to increase knee extension.

21-35 Discuss the procedure in performing the following breathing exercises

b. Segmental breathing
c. Diaphragmatic breathing
d. Improving the mobility of a tight chest (lateral / anterior)

The pessimist sees difficulty in every opportunity. The optimist sees opportunity in every difficulty” ~ Winston Churchill

Prepared by: Christy E. Javarro, PTRP Approved by: Bernard B. Tayaban Jr., MDA
Instructor College Dean