PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND KINESIOLOGY

AUGUST 1997

1.

A synovial joint possess which distinguishing feature/s:

a. A potential cavity
b. A capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane
c. A lubricated articular cartilage
d. All of these
2. On of the following true of coronary circulation:
a. A rapidly boating heart prolongs diastole and promotes filing of the coronary arteries
b. Studies show that smoking has nothing to do with the coronary arteries
c. A low cardiac output may give rise to angina pectoris as when the aortic valve does not close properly
d. It physiologic importance lies in the fact that the total anaerobic conditions are adequate in sustaining ventricular
contraction
3. Which of the following statements is true:
a. The ulnar n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the adjoining half of the flexor Digitorum Profundus, the
median half of Profundus is supplied by the median n.
b. The median n. supplies al of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the adjoining half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus; the
median half of Profundus is supplied by the ulnar nerve
c. The median n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and the Flexor Digitorum Sublimis
d. The median n. supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus and Flexor Digitorum Profundus
4. When the scapula is stabilized, the following ranges of motion is attributed to the glenohumeral joint, EXCEPT:
a. When the glenohumeral joint is externally rotated to 90 degrees by active insufficiency of the brachialis muscles
b. Approximately 90 degrees of flexion take place
c. 40 to 60 degree of hyperextension is available, limited by the superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments
d. Flexing the elbow to 90 degrees isolates rotation of the glenohumeral joint from forearm supination and pronation
5. Functional of ligaments include:
a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure usually a nerve
b. Prohibits movements in undesired plane
c. All of these
d. Limit the range or extent of normal movement
6. The security of the ankle joint is a result of an immobile act not rigid union of the following joint:
a. Inferior tibiofibular joint
c. Calcaneocuboid joint
b. Superior tibiofibular joint
d. Subtalar joint
7. A patient is paralyzed from the waist down and has been using the wheelchair. The following procedures will allows the
patient to go up and down the stairs, EXCEPT:
a. In climbing down, sitting at the edge of the landing, facing forward with her legs extended in front of her
b. In climbing up, place a footstool in front of the wheelchair where she can slowly lower herself onto
c. In climbing up, when her back is toward the stairs, she reaches back and place her hands on the first step, pushing
down and lifting herself onto the step
d. In climbing down, after positioning herself at the edge of the landing, shell slide her buttocks and her hands onto
each step using her hands to position her legs onto the next lower step
e. In climbing up, after she lowers herself onto the floor, she then pushes down and inch herself backward, so her back
is toward stairs
8. This nerve innervates the superior oblique and exits the brain stem posteriorly:
a. Abducens nerve
c. Facial nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
d. Trochlear nerve
9. Functions of veins include:
a. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required
b. Propels blood through venous pump
c. All of these
d. Regulate cardiac output
10. In the central part of the mediastinal part of the medial surface is large area where bronchi and pulmonary vessels plunge
into the lung. Name this part:
a. Hilus
c. Mediastinum
b. Apex
d. Root
11. Functions of the pretibial group, EXCEPT:
a. Anterior tibialis is the primary dorsiflexor of the ankle
b. Paralysis of the muscles result in drop-foot during the swing phase
c. Important in many open-chain motion, i.e. in placing the foot for driving
d. Open-chain motions of the foot requires a lot of muscle force due to poor leverage
12. The following statements apply to crutch-walking up the stairs, non-weight-hearing right, EXCEPT:
a. To move up onto the next step, patient pushes down on his crutches and hop onto the first step with left foot, the
other leg moving up onto the step at the same time.
b. Instruct patient to grasp the banister with his left hand and had crutches to physical therapist, supporting his weight
on his left leg
c. After moving left foot on the next step, the patient swings up the crutches onto the next step alongside his feet
d. Instruct to grasp the banister with his left hand and shift left crutches to right hand supporting his weight on both
crutches and his left leg.
e. Stand at the bottom of the stairs behind the patient, slightly to his right
13. In polyneuropathy, lesions of the occur bilaterally and the effects are usually more prominent in the proximal than in
distal parts of the extremities:
a. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are true
14. The following statements describe the factors affecting a cells net rate of diffusion in one direction, EXCEPT:
a. Difference in pressure across the membrane
b. In ions, the difference in chemical potential between the two sides of the membrane
c. Permeability and area of membrane

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AUGUST 1997

d. Difference in concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane
15. Decrease in resting membrane potential, making it more positive:
a. Variable conductance
c. Hyperpolarization
b. Depolarization
d. None of these
16. Which of the following is true of the patella:
a. It maintains a constant relationship with the fibula is flexed
b. Al of these
c. It is easily dislocated medially due to the powerful extensors of the knee that pull oblique and chiefly from the lateral
side of the thigh
d. It is a sesamoid bone in a tendon and is said to enhance the power of knee extensors by increasing the leverage of
that muscle
17. The following statements describe a lower motor neuron paralysis, EXCEPT:
a. Babinski sign is not present
b. Weakness of movement is due to a lesion of the motor cell or its axon
c. Muscle fasciculations may be present
d. Characterized by diminished tonus
e. Reflex arc is interrupted resulting in exaggerated stretch reflex
18. Procedures performed together to relieve pain by exercising the synovial membrane and removing diseased cartilage,
soft tissue and the bony enlargement from joints:
a. Menisectomy
c. None of these
e. Osteotomy
b. Arthrodesis
d. Debridement and synovectomy
19. This muscle inserts into the iliotibial tract and into the gluteal tuberosity of the shaft of the femur, posterior aspect:
a. Biceps Femoris
c. Semitendionosus
b. Semimebranosus
d. Gluteus Maximus
20. Which of the following events are required for the mechanical linkages between the actin and myosin to produce muscle
contraction?
a. None of these
b. Chemical reaction to provide energy of active tension
c. Both of these
d. A specific stimulus to trigger the coupling of the two filaments
21. The hindfoot is composed of the following bones:
a. Navicular, Cuboid and Three Cuneiform
c. None of these
b. Metatarsals and Phalanges
d. Talus and Calcaneus
22. Mobility of the shoulder joint is made possible by these bony articulations:
a. All of these
c. Sternoclavicular
b. Acromioclavicular
d. Glenohumeral
23. Muscle for inward rotation of the glenohumeral joint:
a. Teres Minor
c. Subscapularis
b. Infraspinatus
d. Supraspinatus
24. Invasion and eversion of the foot occurs at which joint:
a. Subtalar and Transverse Tarsal Joint
c. Cubonavicular joint
b. Cuneonavicular joint
d. Intercuneiform and Cuneocuboid joints
25. Unilateral contraction of this muscle combines rotation of the head to the opposite side, lateral flexion to the same side,
and head and cervical vertebrae extension:
a. Scalenes
c. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Erector Spinae
d. Longus Capitis and Longus Colli
26. The following statements apply to the bicipital groove, EXCEPT:
a. Located anterior and medial to the greater tuberosity
b. More easily palpable if the arm is externally rotated
c. Lesser tuberosity is at the same level as the coracoids
d. Too much pressure on palpation can be very tender
e. Bordered medially by the greater tuberosity and laterally by the lesser tuberosity
27. In Erb-Duchenne palsy, the following conditions apply, EXCEPT:
a. Limb will medically rotated by the unopposed sternocostal part of the pectoralis major
b. Causes excessive traction or tearing of C3 and C4 roots of the brachial plexus
c. The forearm will be pronated due to the loss of the biceps and there will be less of sensation down the lateral side of
arm
d. Injuries result from excessive displacement of the head to the opposite side and depression of the shoulder or the
same side
e. The musculocutaneous, nerve to the subclavian, musculocutaneous and axillary nerves will be denervated
28. This injury causes paralysis of the Pronator Teres and Quadratus
a. Ulnar nerve injury above the elbow
c. Median nerve injury above the elbow
b. Radial nerve injury above the elbow
d. None of these
29. Relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of the trunk, face of
extremities:
a. Myoclonus
c. Hyperkinesia
e. Athetosis
b. Tremor
d. Chorea
30. The following statements apply to genu valgum, EXCEPT:
a. Abnormalities of calcium metabolism may stimulate this problem
b. Although usually bilateral, it may occur unilaterally
c. Has strong familial tendency but may also be exaggerated by individual traits
d. An angular deformity of the leg in which the ankles are separated when the knees are in contact
e. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella
31. The human torsos nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal nerves is evidenced by its segmental development. One
pair of spinal nerve supplies this strip-like area of skin. This is known as a:
a. Dermatome
c. Terminal Branches
b. Spinal Nerves
d. Myotome

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PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

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AUGUST 1997

32. In flexing the knees and hips and dorsiflexing the ankles, objects may be lifted from the floor. The following positions of
the pelvis and vertebrae are used:
a. Posterior tilt of the pelvis with kyphotic position of the vertebrae
b. Anterior tilt of the pelvis with lordotic position of the lumbar spine
c. None of these
d. All of these
33. The following statements are true of the clavicle, EXCEPT:
a. When clavicular rotation is prevented, arm elevation is limited to 90 degrees
b. Tightening of the trapezoid and conoid ligaments causes the upward rotation of the clavicle
c. The clavicle rotates at the sternoclavicular joint approximately 40 degrees around its long axis
d. After the shoulder has been abducted to complete scapular upward transverse rotation occurs to complete scapular
upward rotation and shoulder flexion
34. The pained spinal nerves are as follows:
a. 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
b. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
c. 8 cervical 10, thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
d. 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pair of spinal nerve
35. If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch-walking
gait would you choose?
a. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
b. Four-point-gait
d. Swing-through three-point gait
e. Two-point gait
36. This channel communicated with the periosteum at the bones surface and receives fluid from the haversian canal.
a. Volkmanns canal
c. Canaliculus
e. Lacuna
b. Lamellae
d. None of these
37. The spinal accord tapers at the level of the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra called:
a. Cauda equina
c. Coccyx
b. Filum terminale
d. Corpus medullaris
38. Using the athroscope and supplementary instruments, which of the following procedures can be performed?
a. Draining of a septic tank
d. All of these
b. Biopsy of synovial disorders
e. Smoothing knee cartilage irregularities from chondromalacia
patellae
c. Removing loose foreign bodies and adhesions
39. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called:
a. Parameter
c. Choroid plexus
b. Dura mater
d. Meninges
40. The whole process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates muscle contraction is called excitationcontraction, coupling. During this process, the following events occur, EXCEPT:
a. Calcium initiates muscle contraction
b. The action potential is transmitted to all the muscle fibrils via the tubular system
c. The actions potential in the muscle triggers the release of calciu7m ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Norepinephrine is released into the myoneural junction
41. Acetylcholine is released at the vagal nerve endings through the simulation of the parasympathetic nerves to the heart.
Effects of this hormone include:
a. Slow transmission of cardiac impulse to the ventricles
c. None of these
b. Both of these
d. Decreases the rate of rhythm of the sinus node
42. Muscle contraction strength is increased in the following manner:
a. Increasing the frequency of stimulation of individual motor units
b. Motor neurons with the smallest innervations ratio are activated initially
c. All of these
d. Simultaneously increasing the number of activated motor units
43. This structure separates the left and right cerebral hemisphere:
a. Lateral Fissure
c. Parieto-occipital fissure
b. Medial longitudinal fissure
d. Central Sulcus
44. Synovial joints have the most complex structure and permit maximus mobility, and include:
a. All of these
c. Joint capsule
e. Synovial membrane and cavity
b. None of these
d. Articular cartilage
45. A fracture line that forms a right angle with the bones axis:
a. Oblique
c. Spiral
e. Linear
b. Transverse
d. Spiral
46. Increase in resting membrane potential, making it more negative:
a. Depolarization
c. Variable conductance
b. None of these
d. Hyperpolarization
47. The following statements are true of arthroscopy, EXCEPT:
a. Particularly useful in diagnosing conditions, i.e., meniscal disorder and cruciate ligament injuries
b. Most useful in diagnosing conditions of the posterior and middle third of the medial meniscus
c. It is contraindicated for patients with a bleeding disorder
d. It is both a diagnostic procedure and treatment and involves very little knee trauma
e. The visual examination of the joint interior, using a fiberoptic lens instrument attached to a light source
48. In actions such as jumping with knees bent, the femur has a marked tendency to slide forwards off the plateau-like tibial
surface. This ligament resists this tendency:
a. Posterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial ligament
b. Lateral ligament
d. Anterior cruciate ligament
49. If your patient cannot support his weight on one leg but has normal use of his arms, upper body and other leg, which
crutch-walking gait would you choose?
a. Two-point gait
c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
b. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
d. Four-point gait
50. Which of the following statements is true of lesions of the basal ganglia:

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ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND KINESIOLOGY

51.
52.
53.
54.

55.
56.
57.
58.
59.

60.

AUGUST 1997

a. Muscle tone abnormalities and involuntary movements

b. Disorders involving initiation of movement
c. Difficulty in continuing and stopping movement
d. All of these
A fibrous type of joint that tightly connects the articular surfaces of two bones but permits minimal movement:
a. Syndesmosis
c. None of these
e. Sutures
b. Cartilaginous
d. Synovial
These effects result in aerobic energy depletion in the early stages of heavy exercise:
a. Both of these
c. Depletion of glycogen stores
b. Oxygen debt
d. None of these
This type of contraction stabilizes joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:
a. Eccentric
c. Isometric
b. Concentric
d. Isokinetic
Functions of the Cerebellum include:
a. None of these
b. It receives proprioceptive impulses via the spinal cord (spinocerebellar tracts) from tendons, joints and muscle
c. All of these
d. It receives proprioceptive impulses from the semicircular canal
When muscle contracts to operate and so regulate the speed and power of another prime mover its is said to be a:
a. Prime mover
c. Synergist
b. Antagonist
d. Fixators
The final stage of mitosis where the two sets of daughter chromosomes are pulled completely apart:
a. Metaphase
c. Telophase
b. Prometaphase
d. Prophase
The human peripheral nervous system is composed of:
a. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 32 pairs of spinal nerves
c. 12 pairs of cranial nerve and 31 pairs of spinal nerves
b. 10 pairs of cranial nerve and 31 pairs of spinal nerves
d. 13 pairs of cranial nerve and 33 pairs of spinal nerves
Myelin sheath is possessed by peripheral and central nerve fibers, but only peripheral nerve fibers additionally have:
a. Node of Ranvier
c. None of these
b. Neurolemma
d. Schwann cell
In the O-A-B blood group system, the agglutinins responsible for causing transfusion reactions develop spontaneously:
whereas in the Rh system, spontaneous agglutinins almost never occur:
a. Both statements are false
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
d. Both statements are true
This muscle is innervated by two branches of the femoral nerve, and performs hip flexion and extension. The tendon of
origin may be palpated in the V-shaped area between the Sartorius and the tensor fascia latae when the hip is flexed:
a. Vastus Intermedius
c. Vastus Medialis
b. Rectus Femoris
d. Vastus Lateralis

61. The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. The
following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength, EXCEPT:
a. When the serratus anterior is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medial ward and up
b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall
with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other
c. When the trapezius is weak, the scapula is displaced down and out
d. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anterior or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may
compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 90 degrees against the examiners downward
pressure
e. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurogenic lesion
62. The following precautions must be observed when turning patients after internal fixation, EXCEPT:
a. When turning on the unaffected side, the assistant should grasp the patients hip above the incision site
b. When turning on the affected side, the assistants hand should be positioned on the patients shoulder and hip
c. Pain medication must be taken 15-20 minutes before turning
d. Alternating from side to side helps promote good circulation
e. As the patient turns, support affected leg in adduction and once repositioned, keep hip and knee elevated on pillows
in a higher plane as the unaffected leg
63. The following statements apply to the scalene muscles, EXCEPT:
a. Extends the cervical spine with bilateral contraction
b. Produce lateral flexion and rotation to the same side with unilateral contraction
c. Increases cervical lordotic curve with bilateral contraction in the absence of longus colli
d. Elevate the first and second ribs when the cervical spine is stabilized
64. This is the largest blood vessel in the body and runs up the right sides of the lumbar vertebral bodies and behind the
peritoneum of the posterior abdominal wall. It enters the right atrium at the lower right corner of the heart:
a. Great Saphenous Vein
c. Superior Vena Cava
b. Inferior Vena Cava
d. Femoral Vein
65. In pedal meniscus injury, the following conditions apply, EXCEPT:
a. Responsible for the condition referred to as locked knee
b. Complete extension of the knee joint may be prevented if the torn portion of cartilage ledge between the joint
surfaces
c. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment
d. Lesion may consist of transverse tear through the cartilage
e. Usually caused by sudden internal rotation of the femur upon the fixed tibia, often accompanied by abduction and
flexion of the knee
66. Two or three muscle contractions that do not require expenditure of oxygen made possible by chemical energy provided
by ATP, stored in the skeletal muscles is referred to as:
a. Anaerobic Metabolism
c. Krebs Cycle

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b. Glycolysis
d. Aerobic Metabolism
67. This ligament of the vertebral bodies limits backward bending, and supports the anterior convexity in the lumbosacral
area.
a. Lateral longitudinal ligament
b. Medial longitudinal ligament
c. Anterior longitudinal ligament
d. Posterior longitudinal ligament
68. Indications for skin traction are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. To relieve muscle spasms
b. Patient with a fracture requiring prolonged traction or traction force beyond 10 pounds (4.5 kg)
c. To treat stable fracture, particularly in the hips subtrochanteric region
d. Preoperative fracture treatment i.e., before internal fixation of a fractured hip
e. None of these
69. Traction is an important form of orthopedic immobilization. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Traction aligns a fracture and corrects deformities, pre- and postoperatively
b. Traction allows the patient limited motion of his affected extremity
c. The limb is immobilized by applying opposing pull at both ends of the injured area
d. Unlike the traction pull is not an effective counter-traction
e. It is an alternative to surgery and used to ensure proper positioning of the affected limb
70. This muscles sole concern is flexion of the elbow joint. It was an extensive origin from the whole lower half of the shaft
of the humerus and inserted by a tendon into the tuberosity of the ulna below the coronoid process:
a. Biceps
c. Brachialis
b. Brachioradialis
d. Triceps
71. The following statements are true of the anatomical snuffbox, EXCEPT:
a. It is bounded laterally by the tendon of the abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus
b. It is bounded medially by the tendon of extensor pollicis longus
c. It is easy to palpate the scaphoid bone here
d. The radial artery pulsations are felt here
72. Example of syndesmosis:
a. Tarsals articulating with each other
c. Talus articulating with calcaneus bone
b. Tibia articulating with fibula in the ankle
d. Fibula articulating with tibia in the knee
73. Cervical traction is applied following fractures or dislocations of the cervical or high thoracic vertebrae. The following
statements apply to tongs used in cervical spine traction, EXCEPT:
a. Tongs attached to the patients skull are used with a weight-and-pulley system to exert pull along the axis of the
spine
b. Patient is not encouraged to feed himself since he cannot turn on his side for feeding
c. Gardner-Wells tongs are considered the least likely to slip and tear the skin from prolonged use in comparison to
Crutchfield and Vinke
d. Carries the risk of spinal cord injury from excessive manipulation of the patients head and cervical vertebrae during
traction application.
e. Promotes vertebral alignment and decreases the possibility of inadvertent movement and further injury.
74. The following statements apply to the auscultatory method for measuring systolic and diastolic pressure, EXCEPT:
a. The auscultatory method is very accurate, values are within 11 percent compared to direct arterial measurements
b. When the Korotkoff sounds become muffled, the pressure on the manometer is approximately equal to the diastolic
pressure.
c. Tapping sounds are heard after cuff pressure falls below systolic pressure in the antecubital artery synchronizing
with the heartbeat.
d. Korotkoff sound is heard with each pulsation cycle as the cuff pressure closes the artery during the arterial pressure
cycle.
75. Muscles of the digits that have both proximal and distal attachment in the forearm or humerus is classified as:
a. Thenar Muscles
c. Intrinsic Muscles
b. Extrinsic Muscles
d. None of these
76. The proximal IP joint of the hand is stabilized in order to test this muscle:
a. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
c. Interossei
b. Flexor Digitorum Profundus
d. Lumbricals
77. Two forces whose points of application occur on opposite sides of an axis and in opposite direction to produce rotation
of the body:
a. Isometric Torque
c. Force couple
b. Antagonists
d. Isokinetic Torque
78. Nerve cells at nest are positively charged on the outside and negatively charged on the inside:
a. None of these
c. Hyperpolarization
b. Resting membrane potential
d. Depolarization
79. The following statements are true of the cruciate ligaments, EXCEPT:
a. They cross and then attach to the internal surface of the femoral condyles
b. Prevent anteroposterior displacement of the tibia and the femur
c. Usually damaged by violent force that drives the femur backward while the knee is extended with the tibia fixed in
position
d. Arise from the tibial plateau
e. Help prevent side-to-side movement
80. Afferent component of muscle stretch reflex that provide CNS information about the length and rate of change in length
of striated muscles:
a. Extrafusal fiber
c. Intrafusal fiber
b. Muscle spindle
d. None of these
81. This mixed nerve supplies the muscles of mastication and divides into three major peripheral nerve, namely ophthalmic,
maxillary and the mandibular:
a. Trigeminal
c. Trochlear nerve
b. Abducens nerve
d. Oculomotor nerve
82. An individual who is exposed to high heat stress (40 degrees Celsius) will show increased:

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83.

84.
85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.
98.
99.

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a. Skin temperature
c. all of these
b. Heart rate
d. Sweat rate
With the subject sitting and the knee relaxed in 90 degrees of flexion, these distal enlargements of the femur can be felt
anteriorly on both sides of the patella:
a. None of these
c. Epicondyles
b. Condyles
d. Medial collateral ligaments
Two major grooves on the lateral surface of the brain:
a. None of these
c. Central sulcus of Rolando
b. Both of these
d. Lateral fissure of Sylvius
If conditions are right, once an action potential has been elicited on the membrane of a normal fiber, the depolarization
process will travel over the entire membrane or not at all. This called:
a. Repetitive discharge
c. Direction of propagation
b. Reexcitation process
d. All-or-Nothing principle
This instability occurs with a tear of the arcuate complex. The result of adduction stress test is positive at 30 degrees of
flexion. As is the result of the external rotation-recurvatum test. Lateral tibial condyle has posterior subluxation in this
instability:
a. Posterolateral instability
b. Combined anterolateral and anteromedial rotator instability
c. None of these
d. Anterolateral Instability
e. Anteromedial Instability
Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for severe hip pain from degenerative joint disease in elderly patients
who are poor surgical risks and have little prospect of walking?
a. Muscle Release
d. Double-cut arthroplasty
b. Femoral Prosthesis
e. Displacement Osteotomy
An intramedullary rod or screw plate is an internal fixation device used in this fracture type:
a. Tibia fracture
d. Subtrochanteric (femoral) fracture
b. Femoral shaft fracture
e. Trochanteric (femoral) fracture
c. Upper extremity fracture
The following statements apply to the principle of one-way condition, EXCEPT:
a. Conduction is through chemical synapses
b. Signal may be transmitted both direction but only one way at one time
c. Allows signals to be directed towards specific goals allowing various functions of the nervous system
d. Signals are transmitted in one way conduction
If the angle is greater than 180 degrees on the medial side of the knee on weight bearing on one leg, the condition is
referred to as:
a. Genu Valgum
c. None of these
b. Genu Varum
d. Q Angle
Intense discomfort that usually accompanies an injury or inflammation, may immobilize the patient:
a. Phantom pain
d. Acute pain
b. Chronic pain
e. Superficial pain
c. Referred pain
Which of the following is true of the Atlanto-Occipital joints:
a. All of these
b. The interior and posterior aches of the atlas are united to the margins of the foreman magnum
c. These are uni axial, synovial paired joints
d. Nodding or Yes movement occur in this joint
The following consideration apply to broad based quad cane, EXCEPT:
a. Remind patient to walk as close to the walk as possible to prevent others from kicking or tripping over the cane
b. A metal cane with three or four prongs or legs to provide a wide base of support.
c. Cane must be turned sideways when negotiating a standard stair
d. When using cane, body must be erect as he walks and may lean over the cane
e. Recommended for patients with poor balance
The muscle mastication:
a. Temporalis, Masseter, Medial Pterygoid and Lateral Pterygoid
b. Lateral Pterygoid, Medial Pterygoid, Stylohyoid and Mylohyoids
c. None of these
d. Temporalis, Masseter, Mylohyoid and Digastrics
Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the
normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Inadequate fracture manipulation
b. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism
c. Infection of the fractured bone
d. Vitamin E deficiency
e. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture
The most serious cardiac arrhythmia resulting from cardiac impulses re-exciting the same ventricular muscles over and
over:
a. Premature ventricular contractions
c. Stokes-Adams syndrome
b. Ventricular Paroxysmal tachycardia
d. Ventricular fibrillation
Decreased resistance to passive manipulation of the limb:
a. Hypertonia
c. Spasticity
b. Hypotonia
d. Rigidity
This thick plate of commissural fibers unite the two cerebral hemispheres:
a. Corpus Callosum
c. Gyrus cinguli
b. Uncus
d. Parahippocampal gyrus
If your patient cannot support full weight on either of his legs, which crutch-walking gait would you choose?
a. Four-point gait
c. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
b. Two-point gait
d. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)

GOLD RANK PROPERTY DO NOT REPRODUCE

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PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE EXAMINATION

ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND KINESIOLOGY

AUGUST 1997

c. Swing-through three-point gait

100.Involuntary, but slower, twisting movements causing transient, odd and unnatural posturing, most evident in distal parts:
a. Tremor
d. Hyperkinesia
b. Chorea
e. Hypoclonus
c. Athetosis

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To God Be the Glory 29