1) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a

controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a

clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under
certain conditions
A The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
B The air traffic controller will provide separation to other
controlled traffic
C Continued approach will be according to VFR
D The approach must be passing the FAF
2) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives
a series of red flashes from the control tower. This
signifies that the aircraft must :
A not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
B not land because the airport is not available for landing.
C give way to another aircraft.
D return to land and that clearance to land will be
communicated in due
course.
3) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is :
A Not applicable
B 250 KT IAS
C 250 KT TAS
D 240 KT IAS
4) The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or
more) and the short-term extensive or graphical
information are published as follows:
A NOTAM
B Trigger NOTAM
C AIP Supplements
D AIP Amendments
5) In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2
shall identify:
A The width of the aircraft wing.
B The lenght of the aircraft fuselage.
C The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
D Only the aircraft wing span.
6) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for
the provision of approach control service is:
A To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
B To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
C To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between
IFR and VFR flights.
D To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
7) Alert phase is defined as follows:
A A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel
on board is exhausted.
B A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of

1
an aircraft and its occupants.
C An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants
are considered to be threatened by a danger.
D A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are
considered to be in a state of emergency.
8) The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence
shall not be less than :
A 17 years of age
B 16 years of age
C 18 years of age
D 21 years of age
9) Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide
recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful
interference?
A Code 7600.
B Code 2000.
C Code 7500.
D Code 7700.
10) The closure of a runway for a year, because of
maintenance, will be published :
A only in NOTAM
B only in AIP
C NOTAM, AIP and MAL
D in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.

11) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of

the intermediate approach segment in an instrument
approach procedure?
A 450m (1476 ft).
B 600m (1968 ft).
C 150m (492 ft).
D 300m (984 ft).
12) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a
specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except
that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):
A +/- 150 ft.
B +/- 250 ft.
C +/- 300 ft.
D +/- 200 ft.
13) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace
classified as B, is :
A 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL
and clear of clouds
B 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL,
and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
C 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of
clouds
D 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500
m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud

2
14) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the
outbound track is performed from the start of turn for
categories A and B aircraft for:
A 1minute 30 seconds.
B 2 minutes.
C 1 minute.
D 1 minute 15 seconds.
15) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be
turned off, provided that they can be again brought into
operation :
A At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
B At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
C At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
16) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
Tokyo by notification addressed
A the other Contracting States
B United Nations
C to all States Members of United Nations
D International Civile Aviation Organisation
17) At what moment during the approach should the
reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
A When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
B When passing the transition level
C When passing the transition altitude
D Within the transition layer
18) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C.
Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance
to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area.
When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL
140 or below can be expected ?
A When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
B When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL
70
C When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
D When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended
through FL 130
19) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its
current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :
A it is a deviation from the track.
B the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in
the flightplan.
C of an emergency.
D the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
20) "Cabotage" refers to:
A domestic air services ;
B a national air carrier;
C a flight above territorial waters;
D crop spraying

3
21) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be
A 10 minutes
B 2 minutes
C 5 minutes
D 3 minutes
22) When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as
a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when
the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an
automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying,
but as far in advance as possible and:
A At least immediately before landing.
B At least 30 minute prior to land.
C At least one hour prior to land.
D At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.
23) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
A the first part of the segment ;
B the outside part of the segment where the obstacle
clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum
C A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal
flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
D the most critical part of the segment where the minimum
altitude should be kept very carefully;
24) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers
some supplementary safeguards are to be observed
such as :
A the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
B the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
C boarding prior to all passengers
D boarding after to all other passengers
25) The convention signed by the states and moved by a
desire to endure adequate compensation for persons
who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
aircraft is :
A the Tokyo Convention
B the Rome Convention
C the Warsaw Convention
D the Paris Convention
26) A contracting state which continues to require the
presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the
information indicated in the heading of the format of the
cargo manifest, not require more than the following
item(s) :
A The air waybill number; the number of packages related to
each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
B The air waybill number and the nature of the goods

4
C The air waybill number and the number of packages related
to the air way bill number
D The air waybill number
27) A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
A Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and
transponder codes.
B Read back should be unsolicited.
C Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
D Read back those parts containing level assignments,
vectors or any part requiring verification.
28) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
A Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
B Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for
the time being.
C Come back and land.
D Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
29) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it
approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line
forming an angle of less than :
A 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
B 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
C 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
D 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

30) When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the

radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar
approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS
authority, at a distance of:
A 1 NM from touchdown.
B 2 NM from touchdown.
C 3 NM from touchdown.
D 2.5 NM from touchdown.
31) The transition level:
A Is published on the approach and landing chart for each
aerodrome
B Is calculated by the commander
C Will be distributed via NOTAM
D Is calculated by ATS
32) The convention on offences and certain acts committed
on board aircraft, is :
A the convention of Tokyo
B the convention of Paris
C the convention of Rome
D the convention of Chicago
33) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot
licence-aeroplane shall be :
A to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in
operations other than commercial air transportation
B to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in
commercial air transportation

5
C to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for
single pilot operation other than in commercial air
transportation
D none of the answers are correct
34) Aerodromes signs should be in the following
configuration :
A mandatory instruction signs; black background with red
inscriptions.
B information signs; yellow or black background with black or
yellow inscriptions.
C mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black
inscriptions.
D information signs; orange background with black
inscriptions.
35) Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared
under the procedure applicable to :
A accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs
procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other
cargo
B cargo and is covered by a traffic document
C cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
D cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be
completed by the passenger prior to shipment
36) In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers
given to each prohibited area, restricted area and
danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
A At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
B At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
C At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
D At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
37) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established
for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating,
including :
A All self.-sustaining gliders.
B All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with
a turbojet engine.
C Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic
control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
D Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
38) Which of the following is obligating for members of
ICAO ?
A ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and
any suspended validity of such licenses
B ICAO must be informed about differences from the
standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
C ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international

6
airline connections
D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national
Regulations

39) When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering

of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
A air traffic coordination centres.
B control centres only.
C air traffic control and flight information centers.
D search and rescue coordination centres.
40) When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions,
pilots shall:
A Read back only the code to be set.
B Read back the mode and code to be set.
C Use only the word ROGER.
D Use only the word WILCO.
41) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft
established on the localizer course shall be:
A 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
B 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
C 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
D 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
42) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago
convention contains minimum specifications for the
design of aerodromes?
A Annex 6
B Annex 11
C Annex 10
D Annex 14
43) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex
containing standards and recommended practices for
Personnel Licensing is :
A Annex 1
B Annex 2
C Annex 11
D Annex 12
44) A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
A 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
B 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
C 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
D 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
approaches may be made.
45) We can distinguish two types of departure routes.

7
During a straight departure the initial departure track is
within :
A 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
B 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
C 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
D 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
46) The longitudinal separation minima based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed, is:
A 15 minutes.
B 3 minutes.
C 10 minutes.
D 5 minutes.
47) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace
classified as C has to maintain the following minima of
flight visibility and distance from clouds
A 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
B 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
C 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of
clouds
D 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

48) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate

ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at
cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that
given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
A 5%
B 3%
C 2%
D 10 %
49) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft
departed from the same aerodrome and following the
same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
A 3 minutes.
B 10 minutes.
C 2 minutes.
D 5 minutes.
50) The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the
transition level will be reported :
A as flight level.
B as height.
C as altitude.
D According to pilot's choice.
51) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-

8
VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
A When seems possible to land
B When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and
with the runway lights in sight
C When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
D When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with
the runway in sight yet
52) Except in some special cases the establishment of
change-over points should be limited to route segments
of
A 60 NM or more
B 75 NM or more
C 50 NM or more
D 100 NM or more
53) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
A the pilot is following the published approach procedure
B all mentioned answers are correct
C the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and
will keep it in sight;
D the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
54) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an
area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear
(free of clouds), when it totally loses
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
A adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
B continue flight onto destination, complying with last received
clearances then with filed flight plan.
C descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest
airfield open to IFR operations
D land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air
Traffic Services of landing
55) How far beyond the boundary of the holding area
extends the buffer area?
A 3 km.
B 5 NM.
C 3 NM.
D 5 km.
56) In an instrument departure procedure the minimum
obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway
equals:
A 0 ft.
B 3.3 % gradient.
C 35 ft.
D 0.8 % gradient.
57) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be
prescribed
A by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
B by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
C by regional air navigation agreements
D by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

9
58) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a
departing aircraft may take off in any direction
A until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to
be over the instrument runway
B until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to
be over the instrument runway
C until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to
be over the instrument runway
D until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to
be over the instrument runway
59) When a member state allows police officers, security
staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to
carry weapons in their territory for the protection of
aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons
should be conditional upon :
A Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign
state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of
arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision
to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
B Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a
weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
C Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state
of destination
D Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport
of arrival
60) The runway edge lights shall be :
A white
B blue
C green
D red
61) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall
be:
A 3.5 NM.
B 5.0 NM.
C 3.0 NM.
D 10.0 NM.
62) Two minutes separation may be used between departing
aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
A The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the
following aircraft.
B The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the
following aircraft.
C The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the
following aircraft.
D The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the
following aircraft.
63) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the

10
privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
A 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5
landings as pilot in command
B 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
landings as pilot in command
C 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
D 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3
landings as pilot in command
64) When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this
marking shall commence at :
A 450 m from threshold
B 600 m from threshold
C 300 m from threshold
D 150 m from threshold
65) In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
A to the left
B in a direction depending on the entry ;
C in a direction depending on the wind direction
D to the right

66) The pilot in command of an aircraft:

1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received
from ATC.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to
comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory
clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
A2-3-5
B3-5
C3-4-5
D1-4
67) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving
aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall
be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ?
A medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
B medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
C light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
D medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
68) If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR
flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:
A Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or
aircraft stations.
B Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
C Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or

11
aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details
required 2 times.
D Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the
termination of the flight to ATC.
69) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications
shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
A 7700.
B 7600.
C 2000.
D 7500.
70) What will be your action if you can not comply with a
standard holding pattern?
A Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
B inform the ATC immediately and request a revised
clearance.
C a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
D it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern
at pilots discretion.
71) Given:
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level
within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR
must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two
levels:
A 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
B FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
C FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
D 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
72) The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent
collisions with terrain.
A Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
B Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
C Prevent collisions with terrain
D Do not prevent collisions with terrain
73) The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and
buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is
called:
A Security program.
B Manoeuvring area.
C Terminal.
D Aeronautical part

74) According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the

"Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field
length of:
A 1 500 m.
B 1 200 m.
C 1 800 m and over.
D 1 600 m.

12
75) Flight information service shall be provided to all
aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information
and which are:
A Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise
known to the relevant air traffic service units.
B Provided with air traffic control services, only.
C Known to the relevant air traffic services units.
D Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed
flight plan.
76) During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight
tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection
envelope, is:
A 120 kt
B 125 kt
C 150 kt
D 135 kt
77) Runway threshold lights shall be:
A Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
B Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of
approach to the runway.
C Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of
approach to the runway.
D Fixed lights green colours.
78) In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States,
which are not engaged in schedule international
services, and which are making flights across the
territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non
traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the
information contained in a flight plan as adequate
advance notification. This information is to be received :
A at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
B at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
C at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
D at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
79) According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
A one year
B two years
C The period of validity of the licence.
D Indefinitely
80) "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
stopway (if stopway provided) .
B The length of the runway plus the length of stopway
available (if stopway provided).
C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
stopway and clearway (if provided) .
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway.
81) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot

13
performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in
command shall be entitled to be credit :
A the flight time towards the total time required for higher
grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of
the licensing authority
B 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
C in full with his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
D in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the
total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

82) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference,

the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by
setting the transponder to:
A 7500.
B 7700.
C 7600.
D 7000.
83) For a category I precision approach, the decision height
cannot be lower than :
A 150 ft
B 100 ft
C 200 ft
D 250 ft
84) Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
A ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors
and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has
been lost.
B Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and
radar flight instructions will be provided until radar
identification is terminated.
C Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive
separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar
facility.
D You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the
service has been terminated or that radar contact has been
lost.
85) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable
grounds to believe that a person has commited or is
about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense
against penal law
A may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew
members
B may deliver such person to the competent authorities
C may request such person to disembark
D may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such
person
86) When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be

14
identified by one of the following procedures:
A Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate
transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".
B To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
C To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".
D To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".
87) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
communicate with ATS shall try to:
A Declare an emergency
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in
order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule
with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle
88) Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
A At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the FIX.
B At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the FIX.
C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the FIX.
D At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the fix.
89) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in
VMC you have two way communication failure?
A Return to the aerodrome of departure.
B Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as
practicable.
C Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start
approach at your ETA.
D Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the
nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.

90) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway

shall be:
A Fixed lights showing blue.
B Fixed lights showing yellow.
C Fixed lights showing white.
D Fixed lights showing green.

15