AIR LAW

: One of the main objectives of ICAO is to -1

.develop principles and techniques for international aviationa .
b. approve the ticket prices set by international airlines.b
approve new airlines operating turbine engine powered aircraft.c .
approve new international airlines.d .
?Which international convention established ICAO -2
Chicago.a .
The Hague.b .
Warsaw.c .
Montreal.d
:ICAO annex Containing the standards and recommended practices for Personal licensing is -3
.a. Annex 1
.b. Annex 2
.c. Annex 11
d. Annex 12
Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which wishes to land in a foreign state for technical -4
?reasons
.a. 1st freedom
.b. 3rd freedom
.c. 4th freedom
.d. 2nd freedom
When you are over 60 and the holder of an ATPL (A), how often are required to have a medical -5
?Examination
.a. The 12 month period reduces to 6 months
.b. The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
.c. The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
.d. The 9 month period reduces to 3 months
?For an ATPL(A) , how many night hours are required -6
a. 30
.b. 75
.c. 100
.d. 150
An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the -7
?control tower . What does this mean
.a. Do not land
.b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable
.c. Give way to other aircraft
.d. Return for landing and await Clearance to land
.You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and see a flashing green light from the tower -8
?What does it mean
.a. Return to start point
.b. clear to taxi
.c. clear to take-off
.d. stop
:The estimated elapsed time in field 16 of a flight plan for a VFR flight is the estimated time -9
.a. From which the aircraft first moves under its own power until it finally comes to rest after landing
.b. From brakes release at take-off until landing
.c. At cruising level taking into account temperature and pressure for the day
.d. From take-off until overhead the destination aerodrome
:For a controlled flight, a flight plan must be filed before departure at least -10
.a. 60 minutes before off-block time
.b. 60 minutes before departure
.c. 30 minutes before departure
.d. 30 minutes before off-block time
?If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti collision light -11
.a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed
.b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed
.c. Only at night with engines running
.d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running
:The transition of altitude to flight level and visa versa is made -12
.a. on the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
.b. at the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
.c. at the transition level only
.d. at the transition altitude only
:During a straight departure, the initial track is to be -13
.a. within 5° of runway centre-line
. b. within 10° of runway centre-line
.c. within 15° of runway centre-line
.d. within 25° of runway centre-line
:When following a SID, the pilot must -14
.a. calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it
.b. fly the heading without wind correction
.c. adjust the track specified to allow for the wind
.d. fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind
?What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided -15
.a. 25nm
.b. 10nm
.c. 15nm
.d. 15km
:A precision Approach Procedure is defined as -16
.a. an approach using bearing, elevation and distance information
.b. an approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
c. an instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information
.d. provided by an ILS or a PAR
?On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start -17
a. DH
b. FAF
c. FAP
d. MAPT
On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from -18
:outbound with tracks flown being reciprocal. This is called
.a. base turn
.b. procedure turn
.c. reverse procedure
.d. racetrack
?What are the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways -19
.a. RVR=> 350m DH not below 100 ft
.b. RVR =>200 DH not below 100 ft
.c. RVR =>200 DH not below 200 ft
.d. RVR =>300 DH not below 200 ft
?What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach -20
.a. Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing
.b. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach
.c. Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach
.d. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing
?When is ATIS updated -21
a.Only when the weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument
.approach in use
.b. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
.c. Upon the receipt of any significant change
.d. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR, otherwise hourly
?Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect of terrain avoidance -22
.a. ATC
.b. The ATSU when accepting the FP
.c. The PIC
.d. The Operator
:The ATIS broadcast should not exceed -23
.a. 3 minutes
.b. 30 seconds
.c. 1 minute
.d. 2 minutes
?What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR aircraft flying below FL290 -24
.a. 500 ft
.b. 1,500 ft
.c. 2,000 ft
.d. 1,000 ft
In order to meet the wake turbulence separation criteria, what separation should be applied -25
?when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy and both are using the same runway
.a. 2 minutes
.b. 3 minutes
.c. 4 minutes
.d. 1 minute
?An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to “resume own navigation”. What does this mean -26
.a. The pilot is responsible for own navigation
.b. Radar vectoring is terminated
.c. The pilot should contact next ATC unit
.d. The pilot should contact the current ATC unit
?What is the acceptable tolerance for Mode ‘C’ altitude indication (not in RVSM airspace) -27
.a. ± 100 ft
.b. ± 150 ft
.c. ± 300 ft
.d. ± 200 ft
:AIRAC is -28
.a. a breakdown service
.b. operationally significant changes to the AIP
.c. a medical evacuation flight
.d. an Army Air Corps publication
?What color are runway end lights -29
.a. Unidirectional red
.b. Unidirectional white
.c. Omni directional red
.d. Omni directional white
?What is the color of threshold lighting -30
.a. Omni directional green
.b. Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach
.c. Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach
.d. Red uni-directional
:Taxiway edge lights are -31
.a. fixed showing blue
.b. fixed showing green
.c. fixed showing yellow
d. flashing showing blue
On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the -32
:runway and two red lights closest to the runway. The aircraft is
.a. under the approach glide path
.b. sbove the approach glide path
.c. precisely on the glide path
.d. on or close to the approach glide path
:The abbreviation “PAPI” stands for -33
.a. Precision Approach Path Index
.b. Precision Approach Power Indicator
.c. Precision Approach Path Indicator
.d. Precision Approach Power Index
The ICAO Annex which deals with the entry and departure of persons and their baggage for -34
:International flights is
.a. Annex 6
.b. Annex 15
.c. Annex 9
.d. Annex 8
:The General Declaration is signed by the -35
.a. the Pilot in Command only
.b. the Pilot in Command or the Agent
.c. any flight crew member
.d. the Operator
 RADIO NAVIGATION
:A radio wave is .1
a. an energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic field
b. an electrical field alternating with a magnetic field
c. an energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic field
d. an energy field with an electrical component
?Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200 m .2
a. UHF
b. LF
c. HF
d. MF
The process which causes the reduction in signal strength as range from a transmitter increases .3
: is known as
a. absorption
b. diffraction
c. attenuation
d. ionization
?Concerning HF communications, which of the following is correct .4
.a. The frequency required in low latitudes is less than the frequency required in high latitudes
.b. At night a higher frequency is required than by day
.c. The frequency required is dependent on time of day but not the season
d. The frequency required for short ranges will be less than the frequency required for long
.ranges
What is the minimum height for an aircraft at a range of 200 nm to be detected by a radar at .5
?ft amsl 1600
a. 25,500 ft
b. 15,000 ft
c. 40,000 ft
d. 57,500 ft
?Which of the following statements concerning AM is correct .6
a. the amplitude of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF
b. the amplitude of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF
c. the frequency of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF
d. the frequency of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF
:A disadvantage of directivity is .7
a. reduced range
b. sidelobes
c. phase distortion
d. ambiguity
?When would VDF be used for a position fix .8
.a. When an aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency
.b. When first talking to a FIR on crossing an international boundary
.c. When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace
.d. When declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz
?Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let down .9
a. no equipment required in the aircraft
b. no special equipment required in the aircraft or on the ground
c. only a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft
d. it is pilot interpreted, so ATC is not required
?What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 kHz .10
a. 8 m
b. 80 m
c. 800 m
d. 8000 m
:A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is .11
a. a 30 Hz polar diagram
b. omni-directional
c. a bi-lobal pattern
d. a beam rotating at 30 Hz
?Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF .12
a. selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect
b. night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
c. mountain effect, station interference, static interference
d. selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error
?Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings .13
a. static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning
b. station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
c. coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
d. lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference
:The allocated frequency coverage of NDB’s is .14
a. 250 – 450 kHz
b. 190 – 1750 kHz
c. 108 – 117.95 MHz
d. 200 – 500 kHz
When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the …… should be used for .15
.VOR and at the …… for ADF
a. aircraft, aircraft
b. aircraft, station
c. station, aircraft
d. station, station
What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same .16
?identification
a. 2000 m
b. 60 m
c. 600 m
d. 6 m
The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft .17
:is
a. 275 nm
b. 200 nm
c. 243 nm
d. 220 nm
:When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly .18
a. a constant track
b. a great circle track
c. a rhumb line track
d. a constant heading
?Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR .19
a. 107.75
b. 109.90
c. 118.35
d. 112.20
When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code .20
:every 30 seconds
a. 4 identifications in the same tone
b. 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
c. 4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone
d. no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated
then this shows that both are serviceable
What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by .21
:an aircraft at FL012
a. 60 nm
b. 80 nm
c. 120 nm
d. 220 nm
:The frequency band of VOR is .22
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. LF & MF
:The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid .23
a. at all times
b. by day only
c. at all times except night
d. at all times except dawn and dusk
?Which of the following provides distance information .24
a. DME
b. VOR
c. ADF
d. VDF
:A typical DME frequency is .25
a. 1000 MHz
b. 1300 MHz
c. 1000 kHz
d. 1575 MHz
:An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be .26
a. 8 nm
b. 11.7 nm
c. 10 nm
d. 13.6 nm
?What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users .27
a. magnetic bearing
b. DME
c. Nothing
d. DME and magnetic bearing
.On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation .28
:The action you should take is
a. fly left and up
b. fly left and down
c. fly right and up
d. fly right and down
:The errors of an ILS localizer (LLZ) beam are due to .29
a. emission side lobes
b. ground reflections
c. spurious signals from objects near the runway
d. interference from other systems operating on the same frequency
The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is ……. and it illuminates the …… light in .30
.the cockpit
a. 400 Hz, blue
b. 1300 Hz, amber
c. 400 Hz, amber
d. 1300 Hz, blue
:The ILS glide slope transmitter generates false glidepaths because of .31
a. ground returns from the vicinity of the transmitter
b. back scattering of the signals
c. multiple lobes in the radiation pattern
d. reflections from obstacles in the vicinity of the transmitter
:A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to .32
a. the surface of the runway
b. less than 50 ft
c. less than 100 ft
d. less than 200 ft
:The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is .45
a. in the fin
b. on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
c. on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
d. under the fuselage
?What is the purpose of the GPS control segment .46
a. to control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users
b. to monitor the satellites in orbit
c. to maintain the satellites in orbit
d. degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorized users
:The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is .47
a. 0.25 nm standard deviation or better
b. 0.5 nm standard deviation or better
c. 1 nm standard deviation or better
d. 1.5 nm standard deviation or better
:The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate .48
a. when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals the
.actual Mach No
.b. If the groundspeed and position are accurate
.c. If the forecast W/V at take-off is entered
.d. If the groundspeed is correct and the take-off time has been entered
:The FMC position is .49
a. the average of the IRS positions
b. the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
c. computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
d. computer generated from the radio navigation positions
?When is the IRS position updated .50
a. continuously by the FMC
b. at VOR beacons on route by the pilots
c. at significant waypoints only
d. on the ground only
:The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by .51
a. pulse width
b. peak power
c. average power
d. pulse recurrence rate
:The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is .52
a. more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy
b. removes the minimum range restriction
c. smaller more compact equipment
d. permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing
:The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is .53
a. white, blue, amber
b. blue, white, amber
c. blue, amber, white
d. amber, blue, white
:The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is .54
a. in the fin
b. on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
c. on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
d. under the fuselage
:Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is .55
a. barometric
b. GNSS
c. radio
d. radio or GNSS
?What information can a GPS fix using four satellites give you .56
a. latitude and longitude
b. latitude, longitude, altitude and time
c. latitude, longitude and altitude
d. latitude, longitude and time
In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from .57
:track would represent
a. 5 nm
b. 0.5 nm
c. 5°
d. 0.5°
:The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is .58
a. 0.25 nm standard deviation or better
b. 0.5 nm standard deviation or better
c. 1 nm standard deviation or better
d. 1.5 nm standard deviation or better
:The FMC position is .59
a. the average of the IRS positions
b. the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
c. computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
d. computer generated from the radio navigation positions
:The FMS database can be .60
a. altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates
b. read and altered by the pilots
c. only read by the pilots
d. altered by the pilots every 28 days
?When is the IRS position updated .61
a. continuously by the FMC
b. at VOR beacons on route by the pilots
c. at significant waypoints only
d. on the ground only
:The navigation database in the FMS .62
a. may be modified by the pilot to meet routing requirements
b. is read only
c. may be modified by the operations staff to meet routing requirements
d. may be modified by national aviation authorities to meet national requirements
:The normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is .63
a. 50 nm
b. 150 nm
c. 250 nm
d. 350 nm
:A typical frequency for DME would be .64
a. 300 MHz
b. 600 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 1200 MHz
:Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by .65
a. the metallic structure of the aircraft
b. generative voltages caused by the rotation of the engines
c. the electrical wiring running through the aircraft
d. multipath reception
?Which of the following external inputs is required by the FMC to determine W/V .66
a. magnetic heading
.b. Mach no
c. TAS
d. Track and groundspeed
 A/C GEN 1&3 021
?What is the purpose of the wing main spar .1
.a. To withstand bending and torsional loads
.b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads
.c. To withstand compressive and shear loads
.d. To withstand bending and shear loads
?What is the purpose of wing ribs .2
.a. To withstand the fatigue stresses
.b. To shape the wing and support the skin
.c. To house the fuel and the landing gear
.d. To provide local support for the skin
:The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft .3
.a. is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle
.b. houses the crew and the payload
.c. provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather
.d. is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads
:The primary purpose of the fuselage is to .4
.a. support the wings
.b. house the crew and payload
.c. keep out adverse weather
.d. provide access to the cockpit
:Control surface flutter is minimised by .5
.a. reducing the moment of the critical engine
.b. aerodynamic balance of the control cables
.c. changing the wings before they reach their critical life
.d. mass balance of the control surface
:The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of .6
.a. the air in the accumulator
.b. the air and hydraulic fluid in the system
.c. the proportional pressure in the system
.d. the hydraulic fluid in the system
:The purpose of a reservoir is .7
.a. to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters
.b. to enable the contents to be checked
.c. to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring
.d. to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for backing pumps
:Low gas pressure in accumulator causes .8
.a. rapid jack movements
.b. no effect on system
.c. rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating
.d. rapid and smooth operation of system
:The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is .9
.a. CO2
.b. dry powder
.c. freon
.d. water
:At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph the antiskid braking system is .10
.a. inoperative
.b. operative
.c. operative only on the nosewheel brakes
.d. operative only on the main wheel brakes

:A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and .11
.a. an anti-skid braking system
.b. downlocks
.c. torque links
.d. a shock absorber
:To roll the aircraft to the right .12
.a. the rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down
.b. the aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down
.c. the aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down
.d. the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down
:Main and nose wheel bays are .13
.a. pressurised
.b. unpressurised
.c. conditioned
.d. different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised
:What is the purpose of the duct relief valve .14
.a. to protect the undercarriage bay
.b. to ensure the compressor pressure is regulated
.c. to prevent damage to the ducts
d. to relieve excess pressure to compressor return line
:Air for conditioning and pressurisation is taken from .15
.a. the engine compressor or cabin compressor
.b. the engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct
.c. the engine compressor or ram turbine
..d. the engine turbine or cabin compressor
:Cabin compressors .16
.a. increase their flow in cruise conditions
.b. decrease their flow in cruise conditions
c. increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude differential pressure and reduction in engine RPM in
.order to maintain the mass flow
.d. deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit
:With the QFE set on the cabin controller, against an altitude of zero .17
.a. the fuselage will be pressurised on landing
.b. a ground pressurisation will automatically take place
.c. the cabin will be unpressurised on landing
.d. the flight deck will be depressurised
:Ditching Cocks are operated .18
.a. automatically when the soluble plugs disolve
.b. to shut all outflow valves
.c. to direct pressure into flotation bags
.d. for rapid depressurization
:When air is pressurized the % of oxygen .19
.a. increases
.b. decreases
.c. remains the same
.d. nil
:Cabin altitude in pressured flight is .20
.a. the altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
.b. is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
.c. altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure
.d. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

:The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes .21
.a. is controlled to give an intermittent supply
.b. must be taken directly from the APU generator
.c. must only be selected on for short periods
.d. is continuous to all blades
:Pilots cockpit windows are heated .22
.a. only to prevent condensation occurring
.b. by agitating the window molecules with an AC current
.c. with a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging
.d. by passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating
:In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied .23
.a. only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection
.b. only on passenger inhalation through the mask
.c. only when the cabin altitude is above 18,000 ft
.d. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot
:If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks .24
.a. are released by the passengers
.b. automatically drop to a half hung (ready position)
.c. are handed out by the cabin staff
.d. must be removed from the life jacket storage
:Rate of flow of oxygen is given in .25
.a. litres / minute
.b. pounds / minute
.c. litres / second
.d. kilos / hour
:Fire detection systems .26
.a. automatically fire the engine extinguishers
.b. can only use AC electricity
.c. are connected to the Vital bus bar
.d. can be tested from the flight deck
:An automatic escape slide .27
.a. can be armed from the inside of the aircraft only
.b. can only be activated from the flight deck
.c. automatically inflates when the crash switches are activated
.d. inflates when the recovery team open the door from the outside of the aircraft
:Lifejackets are inflated with compressed .28
.a. helium
.b. nitrogen
.c. freon
.d. carbon dioxide
An ion detector detects .29
a. Smoke and fire
b. Smoke
c. Overheat
d. Light
In a twin jet fuel system what is the function of a feeder box .30
a. Equally distribute the fuel to each tank during refuelling
b. Prevent pump cavitation
c. Feed fuel to the volumetric top-off unit
d. Control the amount of fuel remaining during fuel dumping
The fuel tanks of a modern passenger airliner are filled by .31
a. Gravity
b. Fuel is sucked in by the aircraft pumps
c. Fuel is pumped in by the fuel truck
d. The VTO system
A magneto is switched off by .32
a. Open circuiting the primary circuit
b. Grounding the secondary circuit
c. Open circuiting the secondary circuit
d. Grounding the primary circuit
EPR is measured by the ratio of .33
a. Turbine pressure to combustion chamber inlet pressure
b. High pressure compressor inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
c. Low pressure compressor inlet pressure to high pressure compressor outlet pressure
d. Exhaust pressure to low pressure compressor inlet pressure
Where is EGT measured .34
a. In the jet pipe
b. HP turbine outlet
c. HP compressor outlet
d. Combustion chamber
In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used .35
a. Synthetic
b. Mineral
c. Mineral/alchohol
d. Vegetable
The minimum height for door sills before a means of assisting escape is required is .36
a. 1.83 m
b. 1.82m
c. 1.28m
d. 1.38m
What happens to pressure, temperature and velocity of the air in the diffuser of a centrifugal .37
Compressor
.a. Velocity increase, pressure and temperature decrease
.b. Velocity decrease, pressure and temperature increase
.c. Velocity, pressure and temperature increase
.d. Velocity, pressure and temperature decrease
In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is .38
a. Internal mass airflow divided by external mass airflow
b. External mass airflow divided by internal mass airflow
c. Internal mass airflow divided by mass fuel flow
d. Mass fuel flow divided by mass fuel flow
?What is the effect on EGT and EPR if a bleed valve is opened .39
a. Increase, increase
b. Decrease, decrease
c. Decrease, increase
d. Increase, decrease
Propeller blade angle is .40
a. The angle between the blade chord and the plane of rotation
b. The angle between the relative airflow and the chord
c. Dependent upon RPM and TAS
d. The difference between effective pitch and geometric pitch
When a battery is nearly discharged, does the .41
a. Voltage decrease
b. Voltage and current decrease
c. Current increases because voltage has dropped
d. Electrolyte boil

What is a transistorised static inverter in a DC circuit used for .42

a. Convert AC to DC
b. Provide field excitation current
c. Provide AC for instruments
d. To supply power to the emergency lights
Incorrect bonding of the aircraft structure could cause .43
a. Corrosion at skin joints
b. CB trips
c. Static on the radio
d. VOR interference
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon .44
a. The RPM of the rotor
b. The number of poles in the rotor
c. The RPM and number of poles in the rotor
.d. The number of poles in the rotor and the number of phase windings in the stator
When is an engine overheat firewire system activated .45
a. When an overheat is detected all along the length of both firewire loops
b. When an overheat affects one detector loop at a point anywhere along its length
c. When an overheat is detected all along the length of one firewire loop
.d. When an overheat affects both detector loops at a point anywhere along their length
What is the purpose of the torque links in a landing gear leg .46
a. To prevent the wheel rotating around the leg
b. To prevent shimmy
c. To transfer the brake torque to the wheel
d. To position the wheels in the correct attitude prior to landing
:Auto brakes are disengaged .47
a. When the ground spoilers are retracted
b. When the speed falls below 20 kts
c. On the landing roll when the autopilot is disengaged
d. By the pilot
In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system it will allow fuel to be dumped .48
a. Down to a predetermined safe value
b. Down to unuseable value
c. To leave 15 gallons in each tank
d. Down to maximum landing weight
How are modern passenger jet aircraft fuel tanks pressurised .49
a. By nitrogen from a storage cylinder
b. By ram air through the vent system
c. By bleed air from the pneumatic system
d. By a volumetric top off unit
The EGT indication on a piston engine is used .50
a. To control the cooling air shutters
b. To monitor the oil temperature
c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
d. To indicate cylinder head temperature
What voltage is supplied to booster pumps on a modern jet airliner .51
a. 115v AC single phase
b. 200v AC three phase
c. 28v DC from an inverter
d. 12v DC from the battery

If the pressure controller malfunctions during the cruise and the outflow valve opens what .52
:happens to
i) Cabin ROC ii) Cabin Alt iii) Differential pressure
a. i) Increase ii) Decrease iii) Decrease
b. i) Decrease ii) Increase iii) Decrease
c. i) Increase ii) Increase iii) Decrease
d. i) Increase ii) Increase iii) Increase
A cylinder head temperature gauge measures .53
a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder
b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading
c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder
d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two
A shuttle valve will .54
a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down
b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached
c. Automatically switch to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve
:Safety valves operate .55
.a. at higher diff than discharge valve
.b. as soon as initiation takes place
.c. at a lower diff than a discharge valve
.d. at a set value, which is selected
:A dump valve .56
.a. automatically opens when fuel is dumped
.b. is controlled manually
.c. is opened automatically when the safety valve opens
.d. is controlled by the safety valve integrating line
:In flight airframe icing does not occur .57
.a. above 25,000 ft
.b. above 40,000 ft
.c. above 35,000 ft
.d. above 30,000 ft
:Fuel is heated .58
.a. to stop cavitation in the High Pressure Fuel Pump
.b. to maintain a constant viscosity
.c. to prevent water contamination
.d. to stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter
:If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure .59
.a. the aircraft can be de-iced with the engines running
.b. the aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running
.c. the aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running and the bleed air off
.d. neither the APU or main engines can be running during the procedure
:The term “pressurisation cycle” means .60
.a. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only
.b. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released
.c. air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi
.d. the frequency in Hz the pressure cycles from the rootes blowers enter the fuselage
:Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the .61
.a. number of pressurisation cycles
.b. number of explosive decompressions
.c. number of landings only
.d. number of cycles at maximum differential

A ram air turbine may be used to provide emergency hydraulic power for .62
a. Landing gear extension
b. Flight controls
c. Nose wheel steering
d. Leading edge flap extension only
The effect of climbing at rated rpm but less than rated boost is to .63
a. Increase full throttle height
b. Reduce full throttle height
c. Produce no change to the full throttle height
.d. Reduce the time to full throttle height
At what speed does the LP compressor run .64
a. The speed of the LP turbine
b. The speed of the IP turbine
c. The speed of the HP turbine
d. Constant speed
A fixed pitch propeller blade has wash-out from root to tip in order to .65
a. Keep the local angle of attack constant along the blade length
b. Keep the pitch angle constant along the blade length
c. Keep the local angle of attack at its optimum value along the blade length
d. Decrease the blade tangential speed from root to tip
 A/C GEN. 2&4 022
:A pitot head is used to measure .1
.a. dynamic minus static pressure
.b. static plus dynamic pressure
.c. static pressure
.d. dynamic pressure
:A static vent is used to measure .2
.a. dynamic pressure minus pitot excess
.b. dynamic pressure plus pitot excess
.c. atmospheric pressure
.d. pitot excess pressure
:Manoeuvre induced error .3
.a. is caused by transient pressure changes at static vents
.b. is likely to be greatest when yawing after engine failure
.c. is combined with instrument and position error on a correction card
.d. lasts for only a short time at high altitude
:Position error .4
.a. may be reduced by the fitting of static vents
.b. will usually decrease with an increase in altitude
.c. will depend solely on the attitude of the aircraft
.d. will usually decrease as the aircraft approaches the speed of sound
:A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome .5
a friction
b hysterysis
c lag
d pressure error
:The Machmeter consists of .6
a an airspeed indicator with mach scale
b an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule
c an altimeter corrected for density
d a VSI and altimeter combined
:CAS is IAS corrected for .7
a position and instrument error
b instrument, pressure and density error
c relative density only
d compressibility
:The torque motor of a gyro stabilised magnetic compass .8
a precesses the directional gyro
b takes its input from the flux valve
c moves the heading pointer
d moves the Selsyn stator
:An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from .9
a. outside air temperature
b. barometric data from static source
c. time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth
d. difference between absolute and dynamic pressure
:What is VMO calculated from .10
a. CAS
b. TAS
c. COAS
d. EAS
:VFE is the maximum speed that .11
a. the flaps can be operated
b. the flaps may be extended in the take-off configuration
c. the flaps may be extended in the landing configuration
d. the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration
:An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors. The Pitot Probe measures .12
a total pressure & static pressure
b dynamic pressure
c static pressure
d total pressure

If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is .13
?open, what will happen
a ASI reading goes to zero
b ASI under reads
c ASI over reads
d ASI behaves like an altimeter
.If while level at FL 270, at a constant CAS, temperature falls, what happens to the Mach No .14
.a decreases
.b increases
.c remains constant
.d increases depending on whether temp >ISA or < ISA
:A radio altimeter is .15
.a ground based and measures true altitude
.b ground based and measures true height
.c a/c based and measures true altitude
.d a/c based and measures true height
:An a/c is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn .16
a. 300
b. 120
c. 180
d. 350
:?An a/c is travelling at 100 kts forward speed on a 30 glideslope. What is its rate of descent .17
.a 500 ft/min
.b 300 ft/min
.c 250 ft/min
.d 600 ft/min
:If the pitot tube is leaking (and the pitot drain is blocked) in a non-pressurised a/c, the ASI will .18
.a under-read
.b over-read
.c over-read in the climb, under-read in the descent
.d under-read in the climb, over-read in the descent
What is the speed of sound at sea level ISA .19
.a 644kts
.b 661kts
c 1059 kts
.d 583kts
:An IRS is aligned when turned on so as to .20
.a calculate the computed trihedron
.b establish true and magnetic north
.c establish position relative to true north and magnetic north
.d establish magnetic north
:The frequency band used for a Radio Altimeter is .21
a. SHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. LF
. ______ Total Air Temp is always ________ than Static Air Temp and the difference varies with .22
.a warmer, altitude
.b colder, altitude
.c warmer, CAS
.d colder, CAS
?What are the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI .23
a. lower limit VLO and upper limit VNE
b. lower limit VLE and upper limit VNE
c. lower limit VNO and upper limit VNE
d. lower limit VLO and upper limit VLE
:In a VSI lag error is improved by .24
a. bi-metalic strip
b. two
c. use of an accelerometer system
d. return spring
:Mach number is defined as .25
a. The ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressure
b. The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure
c. The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure
d. The ratio of static pressure to pitot pressure

?Which of the following gyro instruments has one degree of freedom .26
a. artificial horizon
b. turn indicator
c. directional gyro
d. slaved gyro compass
:If the radio altimeter fails .27
a. height information disappears
b. aural warning given
c. radio alt flag, red lamp, and aural warning given
.d. radio alt flag and red lamp activates
?Where are the flight director modes displayed .28
a PFD
b ND
c EICAM
d FD control panel
?At 50 feet agl during an autoland, what happens to the glideslope signal .29
a continues to be actioned
b is disconnected
c is factored for range
d is used to flare the aircraft
:A Yaw damper indicator will indicate to the pilot .30
a yaw damper movement of rudder position
b rudder position
c rudder position due to pedal displacement
d yaw damper movement on ground only
When is an Autoland procedure complete .31
a. At the markers
b. At the beginning of the ground roll
c. At decision height
d. At the flare
Autoland Flare is initiated at .32
a. 1500 ft
b. 330 ft
c. 50 ft
d. 5 ft
:LOC ARMED” lights up on the annunciator, this means “ .33
.a. localizer beam captured
.b. localizer armed and awaiting capture
.c. localizer alarm is on
d. ILS is captured
:Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot .34
.a. To provide control about lateral axis
.b. To prevent snatching on disengaging A/P
c. To prevent snatching on engaging A/P
d. To correct for Mach tuck
TO/GA is engaged .35
a. automatically at GS capture
b. automatically when an autopilot fails
c. by the pilot pressing a button on or near the throttles
d. by the pilot selecting flare
?What does FADEC do .36
engine limitation protection .1
automatic engine starting sequence .2
manual engine starting sequence .3
power management .4
a 1 & 2
b 4 only
c 1 & 4
d 1, 2, 3 & 4
:The input to a basic stall warning system are .37
a Angle of attack
b IAS
c Slat/flap position
d Mno

?What does a CVR record .38

a. Cabin crew conversations
b. Cabin crew conversation on intercom
c. PA announcements even when not selected on flight deck
d. Radio conversations
:The Flight Data Recorder actually starts running .39
.a At the beginning of the T/O run
b Before the a/c starts moving under its own power
.c When the gear is retracted
.d When a/c lines up on runway
Cylinder head temperature measurement works on the principle of .40
a. differential expansion
b. wheatstone bridge
c. ratiometer
d. thermocouple
:Two main indications used to evaluate a turbojet thrust are .41
a. rotational speed of the fan (N1) or the total pressure at the outlet of the low-pressure turbine
b. fan rotational speed (N1) or total pressure at the high-pressure compressor outlet
c. fan rotational speed (N1) or EPR
d. high pressure turbine rotational speed or EPR
?What does the yellow band on an EICAS generated engine gauge indicate .42
a. Precautionary operating range
b. Maximum operating range
c. Warning limit
d. Normal range
:Torque can be calculated in a torquemeter system by the measurement .43
a. Of the oil pressure resisting lateral movement of the gearing in an epicyclic reduction gearbox
b. Of the amount of light through a gear wheel connected to the transmission
c. Of the frequency of a phonic wheel connected to the planet gears of an epicyclic gearbox
d. Of the difference between 2 phonic wheels connected to the transmission
:Fuses .44
.a. protect the load
.b. protect the cable
.c. protect the generator
d. protect both the circuit cable and load
:A device for changing AC to DC is .45
.a. an inverter
.b. a rotary transformer
.c. a rectifier
.d. an alternator
:The output of an alternator is rated in .46
.a. KVA
.b. KVAR
.c. KW
.d. KW/KVAR
:The output of a basic generator before commutation is .47
a. AC
.b. DC and after commutation is AC
c. DC
.d. synchronised AC and DC
performance & Mass and balance 032
?What happens to the speed for Vx and Vy with increasing altitude .1
.a. Both remain constant
.b. Vx remains constant and Vy increases
.c. Vx increases and Vy remains constant
.d. Vx remains constant and Vy decreases
:When comparing Vx to Vy .2
.a. Vx will always be greater than Vy
.b. Vy will always be greater than or equal to Vx
.c. Vy will always be greater than Vx
.d. Vx will sometimes be greater than Vy, but sometimes be less than Vy
:Give the correct order for the following .3
a. Vmcg, VR, V1, V2
b. Vmcg, V1, VR, V2
c. V1, Vmcg, VR, V2
d. Vmcg, V1, Vmca, VR, V2
:If the C of G moves aft from the most forward position .4
.a. The range and the fuel consumption will increase
.b. The range and the fuel consumption will decrease
.c. The range will increase and the fuel consumption will decrease
.d. The range will decrease and the fuel consumption will increase
:The main reason for using the stepped climb technique is to .5
.a. Decrease sector times
.b. Increase endurance
.c. Adhere to ATC procedures
.d. Increase range
:The coefficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or .6
.a. Increase CAS
.b. Reduce nose up elevator trim
.c. Increase angle of attack
.d. Increase TAS
:If the flap setting is changed from 10 degrees to 20 degrees V2 will .7
.a. Not change
.b. Decrease if not limited to Vmca
.c. Increase
.d. Increase or decrease depending on weight
Two identical turbojets are at the same altitude and same speed and have the same specific fuel .8
consumption.Plane 1 weighs 130,000kg and fuel flow is 4,300kg/hr. If plane2 weighs 115,000kg what is
:the fuel flow
a. 3804kg/hr
b. 4044kg/hr
c. 3364kg/hr
d. 3530kg/hr
:VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than, the greater of .9
a. 1.05 Vmca and V1
b. Vmca and 1.1V1
c. VMBE and V1
d. V1 and 1.1 Vmca
:Landing on a runway with 5mm wet snow will .10
.a. Increase landing distance
.b. Decrease landing distance
.c. Not affect the landing distance
.d. Give a slightly reduced landing distance, due to increased impingement drag
:Pitch angle during decent at a constant mach number will .11
.a. Increase
.b. Decrease
.c. Increase at first then decrease
.d. Stay constant
:Climbing to cruise altitude with a headwind will .12
.a. Increase time to climb
.b. Decrease ground distance covered to climb
.c. Decreased time to climb
.d. Increased ground distance covered to climb
: VLO is defined as .13
.a. Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground
.b. Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground
.c. The maximum speed for landing gear operation
.d. The long range cruise speed
: When flying at the optimum range altitude, over time the .14
.a. Fuel consumption gradually decreases
.b. Fuel consumption gradually increases
.c. Fuel consumption initially decreases then gradually increases
.d. Fuel consumption remains constant
? What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope .15
.a. It increases with a downhill slope
.b. It is unaffected by runway slope
.c. It decreases with a downhill slope
.d. It increases with an uphill slope
Cruising with 1 or 2 engines inoperative at high altitude, compared to all engines operative cruise, .16
: range will
.a. increase
.b. decrease
.c. not change
.d. decrease with 1 engine inoperative, and increase with 2 engines inoperative
Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m³, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on the load .17
: sheet will result in
.a. TOD increasing and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast
.b. TOD and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast
.c. TOD and ASD remaining constant, if the calculated speeds are used
.d. TOD and ASD increasing, if the calculated speeds are used
? Which denotes the stall speed in the landing configuration .18
.a. VSO
.b. VS1
.c. VS
.d. VS1G
? What does density altitude signify .19
.a. Pressure altitude
.b. Flight levels
.c. ISA altitude
.d. An accurate indication of aircraft and engine performance
? Which is true regarding a balanced field .20
.a. Provides largest gap between net and gross margins
.b. Provides minimum field length required in the case of an engine failure
.c. Take off distance will always be more than stopping distance
.d. Distances will remain equal, even if engine failure speed is changed

?How is fuel consumption affected by the C of G position, in terms of ANM / kg .21

.a. Increases with a forward C of G
.b. Decreases with a aft C of G
.c. Decreases with a forward C of G
.d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position
? Rate of Climb 1000 ft/min TAS 198 kts ,What is the aircraft’s gradient .22
% a. 5.08
% b. 3
% c. 4
% d. 4.98
: The reduced thrust take off procedure may not be used when .23
.a. Runway wet
.b. After dark
.c. Temperature varies by more than 10°C from ISA
.d. Anti-skid unserviceable
?If an aircraft has a stall speed of 100 Kts , what would the speed on short finals have to be .24
a. 100 Kts
b. 115 Kts
c. 130 Kts
d. 120 Kts
? What is meant by balanced field available .25
a. TORA = TODA
b. ASDA = ASDR and TODA =TODR
c. TODA = ASDA
d. TORA = ASDA
: Profile drag is .26
.a. inversely proportional to the square root of the EAS
.b. directly proportional to the square of the EAS
.c. inversely proportional to the square of the EAS
.d. directly proportional to the square root of the EAS
,What percentages of the head wind and tail wind components are taken into account .27
? when calculating the take off field length required
.a. 100% head wind and 100% tail wind
.b. 150% head wind and 50% tail wind
.c. 50% head wind and 100% tail wind
.d. 50% head wind and 150% tail wind
An aircraft is climbing at a constant power setting and a speed of VX. If the speed is reduced and .28
: the power setting maintained the
.a. Climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb will increase
.b. Climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb will decrease
.c. Climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb will increase
.d. Climb gradient will increase and the rate of climb will decrease
:When an aircraft takes-off at the mass it was limited to by the TODA .29
.a. the end of the runway will be cleared by 35ft following an engine failure just before V1
.b. the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass
.c. the distance from BRP to V1 is equal to the distance from V1 to the 35ft screen
.d. the balanced take-off distance equals 115% of the all engine take-off distance
:For an aircraft gliding at it’s best glide range speed, if AoA is reduced .30
.a. glide distance will increase
.b. glide distance will remain unaffected
.c. glide distance will decrease
.d. glide distance will remain constant, if speed is increased

?By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA .31

a. 30%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 15%
?Induced drag .32
.a. Increases with increased airspeed
.b. Decreases with increased airspeed
.c. Independent of airspeed
.d. Initially increases and the decreases with speed
:A headwind component .33
.a. increases climb angle
.b. decreases climb angle
.c. increases best rate of climb
.d. decreases rate of climb
:VR is .34
.a. less than V1
.b. more than V2
.c. less than VMCG
.d. equal to or more than V1
?What degrades aircraft performance .35
.a. low altitude, low temperature, low humidity
.b. high altitude, high temperature, high humidity
.c. low altitude, high temperature, low humidity
.d. high temperature, high altitude, low humidity
? What is VRef .36
a. 1.3 VS
b. 1.13VSR0
c. 1.23VSR0
d. 1.05Vmcl
:What is the Take Off Run defined as for a Class A aircraft .37
.a. The distance from Brakes Release to VLof
b. The distance from Brakes Release to a point on the ground below which the aircraft has
.’cleared a screen height of 35
c. The distance from Brakes Release to a point on the ground below which the aircraft has
.’cleared a screen height of 50
d. The distance from Brakes Release to a point half way between where the aircraft leaves
.’the ground and the point on the ground above which it clears a height of 35
An aircraft may use either 5° or 15° flap setting for take off. The effect of selecting the 5° .38
:setting as compared to the 15° setting is
a. take-off distance and take-off climb gradient will both increase
b. take-off distance and take-off climb gradient will both decrease
c. take-off distance will increase and take-off climb gradient will decrease
d. take-off distance will decrease and take-off climb gradient will increase
?Which of the following will increase the accelerate-stop distance on a dry runway .39
a. a headwind component
b. an uphill slope
c. temperatures below ISA
d. low take-off mass, because of the increased acceleration
:Thrust equals drag .40
a. in unaccelerated level flight
b. in an unaccelerated descent
c. in an unaccelerated climb
d. in a climb, descent or level flight if unaccelerated

:The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established by actual weighing .41
a. by the pilot on entry of aircraft into service
b. by the engineers before commencing service
c. by the operator prior to initial entry of aircraft into service
d. by the owner operator before the first flight of the day
The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation .42
:and includes
a. Crew and passenger baggage, special equipment, water and chemicals
b Crew and their hold baggage, special equipment, water and contingency fuel
c. Crew baggage, catering and other special equipment, potage water and lavatory chemicals
.d. Crew and baggage, catering and passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals
:The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the maximum permissible mass of the aeroplane .43
a. with no useable fuel
.b. with no useable fuel unless the Aeroplane Flight Manual Limitations explicitly include it
c. including the fuel taken up for take-off
.d. including all useable fuel unless the Aeroplane Flight Operations Manual explicitly excludes it
:The Maximum Structural Take-off Mass is .44
.a. the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass on completion of the refueling operation
b. the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass for take-off subject to the limiting conditions at the
.departure airfield
.c. the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass for take-off but excluding fuel
.d. the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass at the start of the take-off run
:The Basic Empty Mass is the mass of the aeroplane .45
.a. plus non-standard items such as lubricating oil, fire extinguishers, emergency oxygen equipment etc
.b. minus non-standard items such as lubricating oil, fire extinguishers, emergency oxygen equipment etc
,c. plus standard items such as unusable fluids, fire extinguishers, emergency oxygen equipment
.supplementary electronics etc
d. minus non-standard items such as unusable fluids, fire extinguishers, emergency oxygen and
.supplementary electronic equipment etc
:The Traffic Load .46
.a. includes passenger masses and baggage masses but excludes any non-revenue load
.b. includes passenger masses, baggage masses and cargo masses but excludes any non- revenue load
.c. includes passenger masses, baggage masses, cargo masses and any non-revenue load
.d. includes passenger masses, baggage masses and any non-revenue load but excludes cargo
:The Basic Empty Mass is the .47
a. MZFM minus both traffic load and the fuel load
b. Take-off mass minus the traffic load and the fuel load
c. Operating mass minus the crew and fuel load
d. Landing mass less traffic load
:The term ‘baggage’ means .48
a. Excess frieght
b. Any non-human, non-animal cargo
c. any frieght or cargo not carried on the person
d. personal belongings
 Performance& planning 2 (Flight Planning) 033
.A turbine - engined aircraft burns fuel at 200 gals per hour (gph) with a Fuel Density of 0.8 .1
?What is the fuel flow if Fuel Density is 0.75
a. 213 gph
b. 208 gph
c. 200 gph
d. 188 gph
ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL160 to be level 6 nm before a VOR.If rate of descent is .2
800 feet per minute, mean groundspeed is 256 kt, how far out from the VOR must descent be
?started
a 59 nm
b. 65 nm
c. 144 nm
d. 150 nm
The fuel burn - off is 200 kg/hr with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative fuel density .3
:is 0.75, the fuel burn will be
a 267 kg/hr
b. 213 kg/hr
c. 200 kg/hr
d. 188 kg/hr
.An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500 ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75 .4
What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb = 30ft.)
a 6600 ft
b. 7800 ft
c. 6300 ft
d. 6000 ft
?What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure .5
.a. Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load
.b. Increase safety of the flight
.c. Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft
d. To assist in decision making at refuelling
A METAR reads :SA 1430 35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024. Which of the following information is .8
?contained in this report
a Day, month
b. Runway in use
c. Temperature, dew point
d. period of validity
For an IFR flight using ICAO semi-circular cruising levels on a magnetic track of 200, which is .6
?a suitable level
a FL290
b. FL300
c. FL310
d. FL320
Unless otherwise stated on charts for standard instrument departures the routes shown are .7
:given with
a magnetic headings
b. True course
c. magnetic course
d. true headings
:A “current flight plan” is .8
a. flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC
b filed flight plan
c. flight plan with the correct time of departure
.d. filed flight plan with amendments and clearances included
An aircraft in the cruise has a calibrated airspeed of 150 kt, a true airspeed of 180 kt and .9
:an average ground speed of 210 kt. The speed box of the flight plan must be filled as follows
a K0210
b. N0150
c. N0180
d. K0180

:For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is .10
a. the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off
.b. the time at which the flight plan is filed
.c. The estimated off-block time
.d. The time of take-off
:If equipment listed in item 19 is not carried .11
a. Circle boxes of equipment not carried
b. Tick the boxes of equipment carried
c. Cross out the boxes for equipment not carried
d. List equipment carried in box 18 (other information)
,Given the following flight plan information .12
Trip fuel 136 kg Flight time 2.75 hrs Reserve fuel 30% of trip
,Fuel in tanks Minimum Taxi fuel 3 kg
:state how “endurance” should be completed on the ICAO flight plan
a 0338
b. 0334
c. 0245
d. 0249
If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO .13
flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified
.time of her planned ETA at destination
:The time is
a 45 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 15 mins
d. 10 mins
?For which flights are Flight Plans required .14
.i). IFR flights
.ii). IFR and VFR flights
.iii). Flights crossing national boundaries. iv). Flights over water
.v). Public transport flights
a. ii, iii and iv
b. i, iii and v
c. i and iii
d. ii, iii, i and v
:If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in box 16 of your ATS flight plan, you write .15
//// a
b. AAAA
c. XXXX
d. ZZZZ
?In an ATS flight plan an aircraft will be classified as “L” if its MTOM is .16
a. 27 000 kg
b. 10 000 kg
c. 57 000 kg
d. 7 000 kg
arrival (STAR) are provided .17
a. SID should be entered but not STAR
b. Both should be entered
c. STAR should be entered but not SID
d. SID nor STAR should be entered
In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure .18
:aerodrome is not on or connected to that route
.a. It is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit
b. It is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route
.c. The letters “DCT” should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route
.d. The words “as cleared” should be entered
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should .19
be entered in box 16 “total elapsed time” is the time elapsed from
a. take-off until reaching the IAF (initial approach fix) of the destination aerodrome
b. taxi out prior to take-off until the IAF
c. take-off until landing
.d. taxi-out prior to take-off until completion off taxi-ing after landing

: Reference the ICAO flight plan, in item 15 (speed) this speed refers to .20
a Indicated airspeed
b. Equivalent airspeed
c. Initial cruising true airspeed
d. Calculated groundspeed
:Standard equipment in item 10 is considered to be .21
a. VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, ILS
b. HF, RTF, VOR, DME
c. VHF, VOR, ADF
d. VHF, RTF, ILS, VOR
?When filling in a flight plan, wake turbulence category is a function of .22
.a. Max certificated landing mass
b. Max certificated take-off mass
c. Estimated landing mass
d. Estimated take-off mass
?When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is .23
a. Overhead the first reporting point
b. At which the aircraft leaves the parking area
c. Of take-off
d. At which flight plan is filed
?What are the types of NOTAM .24
a. Temporary, short-notice, permanent
b. A, B, C
c. NOTAMN, NOTAMR, NOTAMC
d. A, E, L
:Details of temporary danger areas are published .25
a. In AICs
b. On the appropriate chart
c. By VOLMET
d. In NOTAMs
Flights certified as complying with MNPS and RVSM should insert , after“S” in item 10 of .26
:their ICAO Flight Plan, the letter(s)
.a. W
.b. X
.c. XR
.d. XW
In the event of a delay in excess of........ of ....... for a controlled flight, or a delay of ......... for .27
an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be
.amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old plan cancelled, whichever is appropriate
a. 30 minutes, Estimated Off Blocks Time, 3 hours
.b. 30 minutes, planned take off time, 1 hour
.c. 60 minutes, planned take off time, 3 hours
.d. 30 minutes, EOBT, 1 hour
?Who is responsible for processing a flight plan .28
.a. The ATS unit first receiving a flight plan
.b. The ATS unit in whose FIR the aircraft will fly first
.c. The ATS unit responsible for the aerodrome of departure
.d. The ATS unit responsible for takeoff clearance at the departure aerodrome
A flight has filed a flight plan for a route starting on ATS routes and later leaving controlled .29
:airspace. It is “cleared via flight plan route”. This means the flight is cleared to follow
.a. The flight planned route until leaving ATS routes and must then obtain further clearance
.b. The complete route without further ATC clearance
.c. The flight planned route only until the next FIR boundary
.d. The flight planned route only as far as the limit of control of the current ATS unit
Reference computer flight plans. Are they able to account for bad weather in calculating fuel .30
?required
a. can automatically allow extra consumption for anti-icing use
b. can automatically divert route around forecast thunderstorms
c. no
d. can automatically allow for poorly maintained engines
?A filed flight plan is .31
a. flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a designated representative, without any subsequent
.changes
.b. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances
.c. The flight plan, including changes, if any, cleared prior to take off
.d. The flight plan, including changes, if any, cleared prior to the aircraft’s present position
?Where would you find information regarding Search and Rescue procedures .32
a ATCC broadcasts
b. NOTAMs
c. SIGMETs
d. AIPs
.The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles and time 30 minutes .33
?What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt headwind
a 189 nm
b. 203 nm
c. 174 nm
d. 193 nm
The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815UTC. The estimated take-off time .34
:is 1825UTC, The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at
a 1725 UTC
b. 1715 UTC
c. 1745 UTC
d. 1755 UTC
 HUMAN PERFORMANCE 040
:Accidents are caused by lack of .1
a. good judgment
b. safe maintenance of aircraft
c. interpersonal relations
d. physical and mental skills
?Who is responsible for Air Safety .2
a. Aircrew and Ground Crew
b. Aircrew, Ground crew and Management
c. Everyone involved
d. Aircrew only
:Human factors have been statistically proved to contribute approximately .3
a. 50% of aircraft accidents
b. 70% of aircraft accidents
c. 90% of aircraft accidents
d. Have not played a significant role in aircraft accidents
:Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to .4
a. Hypoxia
b. Low blood pressure
c. Hyperventilation
d. DCS
:Haemoglobin is .5
a. Dissolved in the blood
b. In red blood cells
c. In white cells of the blood
d. In the platelets
:Having donated blood aircrew should .6
a. rest supine for at least 1 hour, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 48 hours
b. rest supine for about 15 - 20 minutes, drink plenty of fluids and not fly for 24 hours
c. Aircrew are prohibited from donating blood
d. Aircrew are not encouraged to give blood
:A person is suffering from anaemia when .7
a. Lacking haemoglobin
b Lacking platelets
c. Lacking blood plasma
d. Lacking white blood cells
:The average heart beat is .8
a. 30 - 50 beats a minute
b. 70 - 80 beats a minute
c 90 - 95 beats a minute
d. 100 - 110 beats a minute
:Blood pressure depends on the .9
a. The resistance and the efficiency of the cells
b. Cardiac input and the resistance of the capillaries
c. Cell output and the thinness of the blood
d. Cardiac output and the resistance of the capillaries
?Which of the following symptoms marks the beginning of hyperventilation .10
a. Slow heart beat
b. Cyanosis
c. Dizzy feeling
d. Slow rate of breath
:Carbon Monoxide .11
a. Can have a severe affect on a pilot’s abilities when receiving exposure for a relatively short period of time
b. Does not have an effect when the body becomes used to the gas over a long period of time
c. Has no effect on the human body
d. Is not toxic
:The composition of the atmosphere at 21,000 ft is approximately .12
a. 78% He, 21% 02 and 1% CO
b. 78% He, 21% 02 and 0.003% CO2 + traces
c. 78% N, 21% 02 and 1% CO2 + traces
d. 78% N, 21% 02 and 1% CO + traces
?Concerning hypoxia, why is it more hazardous if flying solo .13
a. The effects are increased
b. It is difficult to recognise the first symptoms of hypoxia for a pilot in initial training
c. It is more difficult to manage the oxygen systems on your own
d. There is no one to take control once the symptoms of hypoxia appear
:You have been scuba diving below 10m. When can you next fly .14
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 48 hours
d. Whenever you wish
:Hyperventilation can cause .15
a. too much oxygen to the brain
b. spasms in the muscles and possible unconsciousness
c. bluish tinge under the nails of the fingers and the lobes of the ears
d. a feeling of euphoria
?If you are suffering from hyperventilation, what should you do .16
a. close your eyes and relax
b. breathe 100% oxygen
c. talk through the procedure out loud and simultaneously control rate and depth of breathing
d. make an immediate landing
What can cause hypoxia .17
a. Anaemia
b. high intake of nitrogen
c. high solar radiation
d. because of the lower percentage of oxygen at height
:Bubbles in the lungs cause .18
a. Leans
b. Bends
c. Pain in the joints
d. Chokes
:Hypoxic Hypoxia .19
.a. can occur at any altitude
b. only occurs at altitudes over approximately 10,000 ft. in the case of a healthy individual
c. is caused by the inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen
d. is not affected by smoking
:One of the outcomes of rapid decompression is .20
a. Regression
b. A collapse of the of the middle ear
c. Cyanosis
d. Fogging/Misting
?Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration .21
a. Nitrogen
b. Air
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrogen
:The ossicles (the malleus, incus and stapes) are situated in .22
a. The inner ear
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. Semi-circular canals
:On initiating recovery from a spin, the pilot may have a strong sensation of turning .23
a. In a direction opposite to that of the spin
b. In a direction the same as the spin
c. Slowly upwards
d. Quickly upwards
:Presbycusis causes loss of .24
a. High tones
b. Low tones
c. Both equally
d. Can be prevented by ear plugs

?What detects hearing .25

a. Cochlea
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Saccules
d. Pinna
?How many semi-circular canals are contained in the ear .26
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Sunglasses .27
a. Supply protection for UV and IR
b. Should possess reasonable luminance
c. Absorb colour
d. Straighten the light beams
:A person suffering from Glaucoma will have .28
a. cloudiness of the lens
b. cloudiness of the cornea
c. increased pressure of the eye
d. colour blindness
:Attitude is .29
a. a synonym of behaviour
b. a genetic predisposition to be biased either positively or negatively
c. acting and thinking subjectively
d. How a person responds to another person, situation or organisation either positively or negatively
?What part or parts of the eye is/are responsible for night vision .30
a. The cones
b. The rods
c. The rods and cones
d. The cornea
:The most dangerous type of incapacitation is .31
a. Acute
b. Rapid
c. Insidious
d. None of the above
:If a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft suffers from severe flatulence in flight. He/she should .32
a. Climb
b. Descend
c. Pressure breathe oxygen
d. Descend rapidly and seek medical advice
:With regard to alcohol .33
a. Does not effect performance
b. Even a small amount will effect performance
c. Drinking coffee with alcohol reduces the effects
d. It effects Orthodox sleep
:Most ozone is found in the .34
a. Thermosphere
b. Ionosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere
:To avoid hypoglycemia .35
a. A pilot should not eat a meal
b. A pilot should not eat sugar or sweets
c. A pilot should eat regularly and ensure a balanced diet
d. A pilot should eat peanuts because they produce high energy levels
:The Flicker Effect .36
a. rarely causes spatial disorientation in pilots
b. is one of the main causes of spatial disorientation in pilots
c. can result in severe degradation of visual adaption
d. can result in severe degradation of sensory adaption

:Hypothermia causes a .37

a. Decrease in the demand for oxygen
b. Increase in the demand for oxygen and eventually lends to unconsciousness
c. Increase in the demand for oxygen
d. None of the above
:Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog, snow or mist are that .38
a. Objects appear further away than they really are
b. Objects appear closer than they really are
c. Objects appear to move slower than they really do
d. Objects appear to move faster than they really do
 METEOROLOGY 050
?What cloud does hail fall from .1
a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cu
d. Ci
?What is Relative Humidity dependent upon .2
a. Moisture content and temperature of the air
b. Temperature of the air
c. Temperature and pressure
d. Moisture content of the air
If the ELR is 0.65°C/100m .3
a. Atmosphere is conditionally stable
b. Atmosphere is stable
c. Atmosphere is unstable
d. Atmosphere is stable when dry
?Where are you most likely to find moderate to severe icing .4
a. In upper levels of Cumulonimbus Capillatus
b. Nimbostratus
c. Stratus
d. Cirrus
A characteristic of a stable air mass .5
a. Lapse rate of 1°C/100m
b. Rising air slows down and dissipates
c. Lapse rate of 0.3°C/100m
d. Good visibility and showers
?Which conditions lead to mountain waves .6
a. Unstable moist air, speeds <5 kts across the ridge
b. Stable air, speed, >20 kts across the ridge
c. Unstable air, speed >20 kts across the ridge
d. Stable air, speed >30kts, parallel to the ridge
?What causes low level cloud in front of the warm front .7
a. Rain falling into the cold air
b. Rain falling into warm air
c. Warm air passing over cold surface
d. Cold air passing over warm surface
ELR is 1°C/100m .8
a. Neutral when dry
b. Absolute stability
c. Absolute instability
d. Conditional stability
Description of radiation fog .9
a. Marked increase in ground wind speed
b. Marked increase in wind speed close to the ground
c. Ground cooling due to radiation
d. Warm air over warm surface
?What cloud types are classified as medium cloud .10
a. Ns + Sc
b. Ac + As
c. Cb + St
d. Ci + Cs
?What is the composition of Ci cloud .11
a. Super cooled water droplets
b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles
?What type of cloud is associated with drizzle .12
a. St
b. Cb
c. Ci
d. Ac
?What cloud type are you least likely to get icing from .13
a. Ci
b. Cu
c. St
d. Ns
?Why is clear ice such a problem .14
a. Translucent and forms along leading edges
b. Not translucent and forms along leading edges
c. Very heavy and can affect aircraft controls and surfaces
d. Forms in clear air
?What type of icing requires immediate diversion .15
a. Light
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. extreme
?What best shows Altocumulus Lenticularis .16
a. Solid to vapour
b. Vapour to liquid
c. Liquid to vapour
d. Liquid to solid
?What is the coldest time of the day .17
a. 1hr before sunrise
b. 30 min before sunrise
c. at exact moment of sunrise
d. 30 min after sunrise
QNH at Timbuktu (200m AMSL) is 1015 hPa. What is the QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8m) .18
a. 1000
b. 990
c. 1020
d. 995
:If flying cross country at FL50 you first see NS, AS, CC then CI, you can expect .19
a. Increasing temperature
b. Decreasing temperature
c. A veer in the wind
d. Increase in pressure
?Which is likely to cause aquaplaning .20
a. +RA
b. SA
c. FG
d. DS
:ATC will only report wind as gusting if .21
a. Gust speeds exceeds mean by >15kts
b. Gusts to over 25kts
c. Gusts exceed mean by 10kts
d. Gusts to over 25kts
:Above a stable layer in the lower troposphere in an old high pressure system is called .22
a. radiation inversion
b. subsidence inversion
c. frontal inversion
d. terrestrial inversion
?How do you define convection .23
a. Horizontal movement of air
b. Vertical movement of air
c. Same as advection
d. Same as conduction
:In a class A aircraft if you encounter freezing rain, do you .24
a. Climb to the cooler air above
b. Climb to the warmer air above
c. Accelerate
d. Descend

?What is the tropopause .25

a. The layer between the troposphere and stratosphere
b. The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere
c. Where temperature increases with height
.d. Upper boundary to C.A.T
?Where do you find the majority of the air within atmosphere .26
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Mesosphere
:Rime ice is caused by .27
a. Large Super cooled water droplets
b. Small Super cooled water droplets
c. Slow freezing of water droplets onto the wing
d. Rapid re-freezing of large water droplets
?What is the most severe form of icing .28
a. Dry Ice
b. Hoar frost
c. Clear ice
d. Rime ice
:Duration of a microburst .29
a. 5 mins, 5 km
b. 20 mins, 5 km
c. 15 mins, 25 km
d. 45 mins, 25 km
.The QNH at an airfield 200m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than standard .30
?What is the QFF
a. Not possible to give a definite answer
b. Less than 1009
c. 1009
d. More than 1009
?Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant indicated altitude .31
a. Cold/Low
b. Hot/Low
c. Cold/High
d. Hot/High
:Microbursts .32
a. Only affect tropical areas
b. Average lifespan 30mins
c. Typical horizontal dimensions 1 - 3km
d. Always associated with CB clouds
:Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of .33
a. 500 - 1000ft
b. 1000 - 2000ft
c. the surface - 6500ft
d. 100 - 200ft
?What is the temperature decrease with height below 11km .34
a. 1°C - 100m
b. 0.5°C - 100m
c. 0.65°C - 100m
d. 0.6°C - 100m
:QNH is defined as .35
a. The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere
b. The pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions
c. QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
d. QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
?What type of cloud is usually found at high level .36
a. St
b. Ac
c. Cc
d. Ns

?In a METAR you see the coding R16/P1300. What does this imply .37
a. RVR assessed to be more than 1300 meters
b. RVR equipment is problematic
c. RVR is improving
d. RVR is varying
TEMPO TS indicates .38
a. TS that will last for the entire period indicated
b. TS that will last for a max of 1hr in each instance
c. TS that will last for at least 30 mins
d. TS that will last for less than 30 mins
?In a METAR/TAF what is VV .39
a. RVR in metres
b. Vertical visibility
c. Horizontal visibility in metres
d. Vertical visibility in feet
?What units are used to measure vertical wind shear .40
a. m/sec
b. kts
c. kts/100ft
d. kms/100ft
With the approach of a warm front .41
a. QNH/QFE decreases
b. QNH/QFE increases
c. QNH decreases and QFE increases
d. QNH increases and QFE decreases
?How often are METAR’s issued at Main European Airfields .42
a. 1 hr
b. 30 mins
c. 3 hrs
d. 1 hr 30 mins
:Main TAF’s at large aerodromes are valid for approximately .43
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 24 hours
In a METAR, the pressure group represents .44
a. QFE rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
b. QFE rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
c. QNH rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
d. QNH rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
:ATIS reports .45
a. Aerodrome operational and meteorological information
b. Met only
c. Operational only
d. None of the above
:A temperature group of 28/24 in a METAR means that .46
a. The temperature is 28° C at the time of reporting, but it is expected to become 24° C by
the end of the TREND report
b. The dry bulb is 28° C and the wet bulb temperature is 24° C
c. The dew point is 28° C and the temperature is 24° C
d. The temperature is 28° C and the dew point is 24° C
:The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means .47
a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers
b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers
d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers
:Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a factor, CAVOK in a TAF or METAR .48
a. Means visibility 10 km or more, and no cloud below 5,000 ft
b. Means visibility 10 km or more, and few cloud below 5,000 ft
c. Means visibility 10 nm or more, and no cloud below 5,000 ft
.d. Means visibility 10 nm or more, and no scattered cloud below 5,000 ft

:When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for .49
a. 1 hour after the time of observation
b. 2 hours after the time of observation
c. 2 hours after it was issued
d. 1 hour after it was issued
:BECMG 1618/1620 BKN030 in a TAF means .50
a. Becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft agl
b. Becoming from 1820 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3,000 ft agl
c. Becoming from 1820 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 3,000 ft agl
d. Becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3,000 ft agl
:A TAF time group 0202/0220 means that the TAF .51
a. Is a short range forecast only, at 0220 UTC
b. Was observed at 0220 UTC
c. Was issued at 0220 UTC
d. Is a long range forecast for the 18 hour period from the 2nd at 0200 UTC to the 2nd at 2000 UTC
?What does the abbreviation “nosig” mean .52
a. Not signed by the meteorologist
b. No significant changes
c. No report received
d. No weather related problems
? In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued .53
.a. Marked mountain waves
.b. Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome
.c. Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome
.d. A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR
A SPECI is .54
a. an aviation routine weather report
b. a warning for special weather phenomena
c. a forecast for special weather phenomena
d. an aviation selected special weather report
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to .55
a. VFR operations only
b. heavy aircraft only
c. all aircraft
d. light aircraft only
The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to .56
a. magnetic north
b. the 0-meridian
c. grid north
d. true north
?How is QFE determined from QNH .57
a. Using the temperature of the airfield and the elevation of the airfield
b. Using the temperature
c. Using the elevation
d. Using the temperature at MSL and the elevation of the airfield
With the approach of a warm front .58
a. QNH/QFE decreases
b. QNH/QFE increases
c. QNH decreases and QFE increases
d. QNH increases and QFE decreases
On a surface weather chart, isobars are lines of .59
a. QNH
b. QFE
c. QFF
d. QNE
?Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on the weather .60
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Water Vapour

Ceilometers measure .61

a. RVR
b. Cloud height
c. Met Vis
d. Turbulence
In a METAR, the pressure group represents .62
a. QFE rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
b. QFE rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
c. QNH rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
d. QNH rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
On a Station circle decode, the cloud cover is divided into .63
a. 8 parts
b. 6 parts
c. 4 parts
d. 10 parts
?What is reported as precipitation .64
a. FZFG
b. FG
c. TS
d. SN
The Gust Front is .65
a. Characterised by frequent lightning
b. Formed by the cold outflow from beneath TS
c. another name for a cold front
d. Directly below a TS
?Which of these statements is true about Hurricanes .66
a. They are 400-500m wide
b. They pick up in force when they hit land
c. The air inside is warmer than outside and can reach up to tropopause
d. They are never found more than 25° latitude
?How would an unstable atmosphere likely reduce the visibility .67
a. By mist
b. By haze
c. By rain and or snow
d. Low stratus
 GENERAL NAVIGATION 061
-:A Graticule is the name given to .1
a. A series of lines drawn on a chart
b. A series of Latitude and Longitude lines drawn on a chart or map
c. A selection of small circles as you get nearer to either pole
:Any Meridian Line is a .2
a. Rhumb Line
b. Semi Great Circle
c. Rhumb Line and a semi Great Circle
:A Rhumb Line cuts all meridians at the same angle. This gives .3
.a. The shortest distance between two points
b. A line which could never be a great circle track
c. A line of constant direction
:The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is .4
.a. Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field
.b. Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field
.c. Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field
.d. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the earth’s magnetic field
?What is the definition of magnetic variation .5
.a. The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North
.b. The angle between True North and Compass North
.c. The angle between Magnetic North and True North
.d. The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North
:At the magnetic equator .6
a. Dip is zero
b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is ero
d. The isogonal is an agonic line
?At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occur .7
a 0°
b 45°
c 60°
d 90°
:The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to .8
a. Movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b. Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c. Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d. Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease
.You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position .9
?Which is the best course of action
a. set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river or motorway
b. turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised before
c. fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d. Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base
:A direct Mercator graticule is .10
a. Rectangular
b. Square
c. Circular
d. Convergent
.Convert 70 metres /sec into knots .11
a. 136 knots
b. 36 knots
c. 146 knots
d. 54 knots
.An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions .12
? What will be the effect on TAS and Mach no
a. TAS increases and Mach No decreases
b. Both increase
c. Both decrease
d. TAS decreases and Mach No increases
.Airfield elevation is 1000 feet. The QNH is 988. Use 27 feet per hectopascal .13
?What is pressure altitude
a. 675 feet
b. 325 feet
c. 1675 feet
d. 825 feet
?What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle .14
a. 66°
b. 180°
c. 90°
d. 45°
?What is the main use of an Oblique Mercator chart .15
a. flying a specified Great Circle route
b. flying an equatorial route
c. mapping countries with a large N/S extent but a lesser E/W extent
d. mapping countries with a large E/W extent but a lesser N/S extent
?A sidereal day is .16
a. longer than an apparent solar day
b. longer than a real solar day
c. shorter than an apparent solar day
d. equal to a real solar day
?What is the length of a Sidereal Year .17
a. 365 days
b. 366 days
c. 365 days 6 hrs
d. 365 days 5 hrs 48.75 minutes
:The maximum difference between Mean Time and Apparent Time is .18
a. 21 minutes
b. 16 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. there is no difference
:The definition of Local Mean Time (LMT) is .19
.a. time based upon the average movement of the Earth around the Sun
.b. when the Mean Sun is transitting (crossing) your meridian, it is 1200hrs LMT
c. when the Mean Sun is transitting (crossing) your anti-meridian, it is 0000hrs LMT (2400
.)hrs LMT, previous day
d. all of the above
For a position in the southern hemisphere, the effect of acceleration errors are greatest on .20
:headings
° a. 180 ° and 360
° b. 045 ° and 225
° c. 135 ° and 315
° d. 090 ° and 270
:When carrying out a turn at the magnetic equator there will be .21
.a. no turning error
.b. a tendency to underread turns through south and overread turns through north
.c. a tendency to underread turns due to liquid swirl
d. no turning error when turning through east or west
:A slaved directional gyro derives its directional signal from .22
a a direct reading magnetic compass
b the flight director
c the flux valve
d the air data computer
:The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor .23
a causes the directional gyro unit to precess
b causes the heading indicator to precess
c feeds the error detector system
d is fed by the flux valve
:Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical Soft Iron .24
.a. varies with magnetic heading but not with magnetic latitude
.b. varies with magnetic latitude but not with heading
.c. it is not affected magnetic latitude or heading
.d. varies as the cosine of the compass heading
:Compass swings should be carried out .25
.a. on the apron
.b. only on the compass swinging base or site
.c. at the holding point
.d. on the active runway

:During initialisation of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until .26
.a. The ramp position has been inserted and checked
.b. The platform is levelled
.c. The gyros and accelerometers are in the “null” position
d. The green “ready NAV” light has been illuminated and the mode selector switch has been set to the
“NAV” position
?The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in .27
a any plane
b the horizontal plane
c the vertical plane
d the vertical and horizontal plane
?G/S = 240 knots, Distance to go = 500 nm. What is time to go .28
a 20 minutes
b 29 minutes
c 2 h 05 m
d 2 h 12 m
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to cross the .29
:facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is
a 920 ft/min
b 890 ft/min
c 860 ft/min
d 960 ft/min
?Groundspeed is 540 knots. 72 nm to go. What is time to go .30
a 8 mins
b 9 mins
c 18 mins
d 12 mins
?What rate of descent is required to maintain a 3.5° glideslope at a groundspeed of 150 knots .31
a) 850 fpm
b) 800 fpm
c) 600 fpm
d) 875 fpm
:Lines of latitude on a chart are always .32
a) Great Circles
b) Small Circles except for the Equator
c) Vertices
d) Meridians
? What does the sensor of an INS/IRS measure .33
a velocity
b displacement
c pressure
d acceleration
:ATT mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing .34
a altitude, heading and position information
b navigation information
c only attitude information
d only attitude and heading information
:If acceleration is zero .35
a) Velocity decreases
b) Velocity increases
c) Velocity is constant
d) Velocity is zero
:Isogonals are lines of equal .36
a) compass deviation
b) magnetic variation
c) wind velocity
d) pressure
?An aircraft flies 100 st mile in 20 minutes. How long does it take to fly 215 nm .37
a) 50 mins
b) 37 mins
c) 57 mins
d) 42 mins
?What is a line of equal magnetic variation .38
a. An isocline
b. An isogonal
c. An isogriv
d. An isovar
:The angle between True North and Magnetic north is known as .39
a. deviation
b. variation
c. alignment error
d. dip
?Where is a compass most effective .40
a. About midway between the earth’s magnetic poles
b. In the region of the magnetic South pole
c. In the region of the magnetic North pole
d. On the geographic equator
?What is the definition of EAT .41
a) Estimated on-blocks arrival time
b) Estimated time overhead the destination airfield
c) Estimated initial approach fix time
d) Estimated final approach fix time
:The purpose of the FMS is to .42
.a) provide continuous automatic navigation, guidance, and performance management
b) provide continuous manual navigation, guidance, and performance management
c) provide continuous manual navigation, guidance and automatic performance management
d) provide continuous automatic navigation, guidance and manual performance management
:On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a .43
a) small circle concave to the nearer pole
b) straight line
c) curve convex to the nearer pole
d) spiral curve
:If variation is West; then .44
a True North is West of Magnetic North
b Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c True North is East of Magnetic North
d Magnetic North is West of Compass North
:Civil Twilight occurs between .45
a Sunset and 6° below the horizon
b 6° and 12° below the horizon
c 12° and 18° below the horizon
d Sunrise and sunset
?What method of entering waypoints can be used on all INS equipments .46
a Distance and bearing
b Waypoint name
c Navaid identifier
d Latitude and longitude
:The period of validity of an FMS database is .47
a 56 days
b One week
c 28 days
.d Varies depending on the area of operational cover
Isogrivs are lines that connect positions that have .48
a the same grivation
b the same variation
c 0° magnetic dip
d the same horizontal magnetic field strength
 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURE 070
,Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made .1
?and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured
.a. The company’s cargo technicians
.b. The captain
.c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot
.d. The operator
:When refueling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking .2
.a. Refueling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking/ disembarking
.b. All flight crew must be on board
.c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board
.d. The stairs shall be fully extended
:To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have .3
.a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days
.b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days
.c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days
.d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
?When are life jackets required .4
.a. 50nm from land
.b. 100nm from land
.c. 300nm from land
.d. 400nm from land
:Supplemental oxygen is used to .5
.a. Provide oxygen to passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
.b. Assist a passenger with breathing difficulties
.c. Protect a crew member who fights a fire
.d. Provide passengers on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
:Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the .6
.a. Operation manual
.b. Flight manual
.c. Journey logbook
.d. Operational flight plan
?Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found .7
.a. Operations Manual
.b. AIC
.c. Aircraft flight notes
.d. Journey Log Book
:The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the .8
.a. Airline operator
.b. Manufacturer
.c. Aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on
.d. Civil Aviation Authority of the European states
?When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations .9
.a. Take-off and landing
.b. Throughout the flight
.c. At all times other than take-off and landing
.d. As specified in the operations manual
?When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations .10
.a. In the performance of their duties
.b. At any time specified by the operations manual
.c. When having lunch
.d. Only when the captain allows it
?Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for .11
.a. Operations staff
.b. All company personnel
c. Only for flight crew
.d. For the Authority
?How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed .12
.a. No less than 6 months between checks
.b. 2 checks every 13 months
.c. 3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks
.d. 2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks
?Who is to ensure safe handling of flights .13
.a. The Operator
.b. The Authority
.c. The State of Registration
.d. The operations officer
?Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight .14
.a. Operator
.b. State of Registration
.c. Captain
.d. State of the operator
?What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an unpressurised aircraft .15
.a. 10,000ft
.b. 11,000ft
.c. 12,000ft
.d. 13,000ft
:Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened .16
.a. Only during take-off and landing
.b. While at their station
.c. From take-off to landing
.d. Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to keep it up to .17
?date
.a. Aircraft manufacturer
.b. ATS authority of the state of registry
.c. Aircraft operator
.d. Owner of aircraft
Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given .18
.a. Certificate of Airworthiness
.b. Aircraft registration
.c. Air Operator’s Certificate
.d. Insurance certificate
?How far away can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane .19
.a. 60mins at one engine cruise speed
.b. 60mins at normal cruise speed
.c. 120mins at one engine cruise speed
.d. 120mins at normal cruise speed
?Who accepts the MEL .20
.a. The country where the flight takes place
.b. The country of the operator
.c. The country of the designers
.d. The country of the manufacturers

:If there is unauthorized use of equipment that affects the aeroplane’s system, the commander .21
.a. May authorize its use for take-off and landing
.b. Must not authorize its use
.c. May authorize its use for the whole flight
.d. May authorize its use at his discretion
From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. .22
:What Nav light will be observed
.a. Green
.b. Red
.c. White
.d. All of the above
?The MMEL is .23
.a. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the operator
.b. Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the state of design or state of the manufacturer
.c. Compiled by the operator and approved by the state of design
.d. Compiled by the manufacturer and not approved by the operator
?When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL .24
.a. At parking before commencement of taxi
.b. Prior to take-off
.c. At any time in flight
.d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake
A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator for .25
?the duration of each flight
.a. The journey log
.b. The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan
.c. The operational flight plan
.d. The meteorological forecast
:Coverage of permanently illuminated white light’s at the rear of the aircraft is .26
.a. 140°
.b. 70°
.c. 110°
.d. 220°
:The “NO SMOKING” sign must be illuminated .27
.a. When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin
.b. In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried
.c. During climb and descent
.d. During take-off and landing
?What is the system minimum for an NDB approach .28
.a. 200ft
.b. 250ft
.c. 300ft
.d. 350ft
?What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach .29
.a. No minimum
.b. 50m
.c. 75m
.d. 100m
:The considerations for a non-precision approach are .30
.MDA (H) .1
.DH .2
.Ceiling .3
.Horizontal visibility .4
.a. 2, 3 & 4
.b. 1, 3 & 4
.c. 1 & 3
.d. 2 & 4
:The aim of a ditching procedure is .31
a. To enable the pilot to land the aeroplane on water rather than a crash landing on land
.b. To land on water if the undercarriage is not able to be lowered correctly
.c. To land the aeroplane on water if it is not possible to reach land
.d. To land the aeroplane on water if it is on fire
?What are the threshold speeds for a Cat D aeroplane . 32
.a. 121 – 140kts
.b. 131 – 155kts
.c. 141 – 165kts
.d. 145 – 160kts
?What is DH used for .33
.a. Visual manoeuvring
.b. Circling to land
.c. Precision approaches
.d. Non-precision approaches
:Dangerous goods are defined as .34
a. Articles or substances which are capable of significant risk to health, safety or property
.b. Any item which contains toxic liquids or solids
.c. Any item which has the capability to be used for purposes other than that intended
.d. Guns, ammunition, explosives, toxic waste, or chemical, biological or nuclear agents or reagents
:Fuel jettison .35
.a. Is a procedure to reduce mass in an emergency only
b. Is a procedure that may be employed to reduce aeroplane mass where an overweight landing may result in
damage
.to the aeroplane
.c. May be authorised by ATC to reduce delays by protracted holding procedures
.d. May be ordered by ATC to reduce aeroplane mass in an emergency situation
A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility .36
:is higher than or equal to
.a. 1,500m
.b. 1,600m
.c. 2,400m
.d. 3,600m
If 30% of the surface area of a runway is covered by surface water more than 3mm deep, by .37
slush, by loose snow or compacted snow which resists further compression, or ice (including wet ice), the
:runway is classified as
.a. Wet
.b. Contaminated
.c. Unusable
.d. Useable with care

PRINCIPLE OF FLIGHT 081

:About which point does an aircraft rotate )1
a. The wings
b. The main undercarriage
c. The centre of gravity
d. The rudder
:The unit of kinetic energy is the )2
a. Joule
b. Metre per second
c. Watt
d. Newton-metre per second
:The definition of velocity is the )3
a. Rate of change of acceleration
b. Rate of change of displacement
c. The quantity of motion possessed by a body
d. The acceleration of a body in direct proportion to its mass
:Dynamic pressure is )4
a. The total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
b. The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
c. The pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
d. The pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
:The inputs to an Air Speed Indicator are from )5
a. A static source
b. Pitot pressure
c. A pitot and a static source
d. Pitot, static and density
:If the velocity of an air mass is increased )6
a. The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase
b. The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase
c. The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure will decrease
d. The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase
:The definition of lift is )7
a. the aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil
b. the aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differentials about an aerofoil
c. the aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil
d. the aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow
:When the angle of attack of a symmetrical aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will )8
.a. have very limited movement
.b. move aft along the aerofoil surface
.c. remain unaffected
.d. move forward to the leading edge
:The term & quot ; angle of attack'' is defined as the angle )9
.a. formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the section
.b. between the section chord line and the relative wind
.c. between the aeroplane's climb angle and the horizon
.d. formed by the leading edge of the section and the relative airflow
:To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced )10
.a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag
.b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
.c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag
.d. Reduce thrust

:What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect )11
.a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack
.b. An increase in induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack
.c. An increase in dynamic stability
.d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack
:To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet aeroplane during takeoff, the pilot should )12
.a. Remain below the flight path of the jet aeroplane
.b. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet aeroplane’s flight path
.c. Lift off at a point well past the jet aeroplane’s flight path
d. Remain below and downwind of the jet aeroplane’s flight path
:How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip, when viewed from the rear )13
.a. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip
.b. Counterclockwise
.c. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip
.d. Outward, downward and around the wingtip
:Take-off from an airfield with a low density altitude will result in )14
.a. a longer take-off run
.b. a higher than standard IAS before lift off
.c. a higher TAS for the same lift off IAS
.d. a shorter take off run because of the lower TAS required for the same IAS
?What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased )15
.a. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag
.b. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag
.c. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased
.d. Both parasite and induced drag are equally decreased
:The best L/D ratio of an aircraft occurs when parasite drag is )16
.a. a minimum
.b. less than induced drag
.c. greater than induced drag
.d. equal to induced drag
At a given True Air Speed, what effect will increased air density have on the lift and drag of an )17
?aircraft
.a. Lift will increase but drag will decrease
.b. Lift and drag will increase
.c. Lift and drag will decrease
.d. Lift and drag will remain the same
:If the aircraft weight is increased without change of C of G position, the stalling angle of attack will )18
.a. remain the same
.b. decrease
.c. increase
.d. the position of the CG does not affect the stall speed
:Dividing lift by weight gives )19
a. wing loading
b. lift/drag ratio
c. aspect ratio
d. load factor
:A stall inducer strip will )20
a. cause the wing to stall first at the root
b. cause the wing to stall at the tip first
c. delay wing root stall
d. re-energise the boundary layer at the wing root

:Stalling may be delayed to a higher angle of attack by )21

a. increasing the adverse pressure gradient
b. increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface
c. distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up
d. increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer
:High speed buffet (shock stall) is caused by )22
a. the boundary layer separating in front of a shockwave at high angles of attack
b. the boundary layer separating immediately behind the shock wave
c. the shock wave striking the tail of the aircraft
d. the shock wave striking the fuselage
:Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by )23
.a. Increasing leading edge camber
.b. delaying separation
.c. Reducing the effective angle of attack
.d. Reducing span-wise flow
:Vortex generators are used )24
a. to reduce induced drag
b. to reduce boundary layer separation
c. to induce a root stall
.d. to counteract the effect of the wing-tip vortices
:With full flap, the maximum Lift/drag ratio )25
a) increases and the stalling angle increases
b) decreases and the stalling speed decreases
c) remains the same and the stalling angle remains the same
d) remains the same and the stalling angle decreases
:Lowering flaps sometimes produces a pitch moment change due to )26
.a) decrease of the angle of incidence
.b) movement of the centre of pressure
.c) movement of the centre of gravity
.d) increased angle of attack of the tailplane
:When an aircraft enters ground effect )27
a. the induced angle of attack increases
b. lift decreases and drag increases
c. lift increases and drag decreases
d. the aircraft will be partially supported on a cushion of air
?Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an aeroplane )28
.a. Increased angle of attack for stalls
.b. Increased stall speed
.c. Increased pitch down tendencies
d. Decreased speed for stalling
?When does asymmetric blade effect cause the aeroplane to yaw to the left )29
.a. When at high angles of attack
.b. When at high airspeeds
.c. When at low angles of attack
.d. In the cruise at low altitude
:Longitudinal stability is given by )30
.a. the fin
.b. the wing dihedral
.c. the horizontal tailplane
.d. the ailerons

:Lateral stability is reduced by increasing )31

.a. Anhedral
.b. Dihedral
.c. Sweepback
.d. Fuselage and fin area
:The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which )31
.a. passes through the wing tips
.b. passes through the centre of pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow
.c. passes through the quarter chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the longitudinal axis
.d. passes through the centre of gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips
:A yaw damper )32
.a. increases rudder effectiveness
.b. must be disengaged before making a turn
.c. augments stability
.d. increases the rate of yaw
:The control surface which gives longitudinal control is )33
.a. the rudder
.b. the ailerons
.c. the elevators
.d. the flaps
:If the control column is moved forward and to the left )34
.a. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up
.b. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down
.c. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator down
.d. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up
:The Geometric Pitch of a propeller is )44
.a. the distance it would move forward in one revolution if there were no slip
.b. the angle the propeller shaft makes to the plane of rotation
.c. the distance the propeller actually moves forward in one revolution
.d. the angle the propeller chord makes to the relative airflow
 IFR 092
:The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that .1
a. all aircraft are to end their transmissions
b. all aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency
c. normal ATC is resumed after an emergency
d. ATC is shutting shop
:Following a communications failure the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is .2
a. within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA
b. within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA
c. EAT or ETA
d. before it runs out of fuel
:The term “RECLEARED” means that .3
a. your last clearance is confirmed
b. your last clearance has been cancelled
c. you may proceed as you please
d. a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes
your previous clearance
:The term “DISREGARD” means .4
a. Ignore
b. Cancel the last clearance
c. You have not been cleared
d. Pay no attention to what I say
:Clearance limit is defined as .5
a. the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance
b. the time at which the ATC clearance expires
c. the point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
d. the height below which you will hit the first obstacle
:If you make a mistake in transmission you should use the phrase .6
a. CORRECTION
b. CORRECT
c. I SAY AGAIN
d. SORRY
?What cannot be left out from a position report .7
a. Callsign Flight level and Time
b. Callsign, Position and Time
c. Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA
d. Your signature
:The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be .8
a. APPROACH
b. CENTRE
c. INFORMATION
d. RADIO
:The frequency 121.5 MHz is the .9
a. international flight safety frequency
b. one way air to ground emergency frequency
c. international emergency frequency
d. air to air chat frequency
:A waypoint is .10
a. a designated reporting point
b. a geographical point at which a change of level takes place
c. a geographical location relating to area navigation (RNAV)
d. a visual sign pointing the way
:The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should .11
a. confirm the you received and understood the last message
b. pass the required information to ATC
c. stay where you are
d. examine a system or procedure

:The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to .12
a. respond in alphabetic order
b. respond in numerical order
c. give no response
d. request a repeat of the message
:The term “CORRECTION” is used when .13
a. the read back of a message is incorrect
b. the read back of a message is correct
c. the message has to be deleted
... d. an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is
:The state of urgency is defined as a condition .14
a. of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
b. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board but does not require
immediate assistance
c. where an aircraft requires an immediate take-off
d. where the aircraft needs to land immediately because the crew are running out of duty time
:The phrase used to separate portions of a message is .15
a. BREAK BREAK
b. I SAY AGAIN
c. BREAK
d. UMM
:The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is .16
a. poor
b. medium to poor
c. medium
d. slippery
:The definition of the instruction “MONITOR …” is .17
a. listen out on frequency
b. establish communications on frequency
c. watch out for visual signals on frequency
d. you are being watched
The condition that describes the state of an aircraft in serious and/or imminent danger .18
:and requiring immediate assistance is
a. Urgency
b. Flight safety
c. Hopeless
d. Distress
:The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase .19
a. CANCEL TAKE-OFF
b. STOP IMMEDIATELY
c. ABORT ABORT
d. YOU WONT LIKE THIS
 VFR 91
:The time given in aeronautical communications is 1
a. Local mean time
b. in minutes only
c. UTC
d. daylight saving time
:The abbreviation for a control zone is 2
a. CTR
b. CTZ
c. ATZ
d. CTA
:The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should 3
a. carry out a go around
b. continue with 360 degree turns
c. carry out one 360 degree turn only
d. reverse the direction of the turn
:The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is 4
a. Mayday
b. Distress
c. Pan Pan
d. Urgency
:When making a blind transmission you should 5
a. transmit the message twice
b. transmit each word twice
c. repeat the message on 121.5 MHz
d. wait for visual signals
:The abbreviation AFIS stands for 6
a. Aerodrome flight information service
b. Automatic flight information service
c. Aircraft fire indication system
d. Automatic flight instrument system
:In order to make message effective you should 7
a. use words twice
b. speak slower
c. repeat the message
d. speak at a constant volume
:The message “READABILITY 3” means 8
a. Readable now and then
b. Unreadable
c. Readable
d. Readable but with difficulty
:The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is 9
a. consider the transmission as not sent
b. proceed with your message
c. wait and I will call you
d. hold your present position
:The correct read back of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is 10
a. 123.725
b. 123.7
c. 12372
d. 123.72
:The phrase to use when you want to say “yes” is 11
a. AFFIRMATIVE
b. ROGER
c. WILCO
d. AFFIRM

:The priority of the message “LINE UP” is 12

”a. greater than “REQUEST QDM
”b. less than “CLEAR TO LAND
”c. same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20
”d. same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY
:The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is 13
a. WILCO
b. ROGER
c. HOLDING SHORT
d. UNDERSTOOD
:The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is 14
a. QDR
b. QFE
c. QUJ
d. QTE
:The words preceding an URGENCY message should be 15
a. Urgency Urgency Urgency
b. Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan
c. Pan Pan Pan
d. Mayday Mayday Mayday
:The Q code on which height is based on 16
a. QNH
b. QFF
c. QFE
d. QUJ
:The abbreviation for the callsign CHEROKEE XY-ABC would be 17
a. XY- BC
b. CHEROKEE XY-BC
c. CHEROKEE BC
d. ABC
:When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say 18
a. WORDS TWICE
b. REPEAT MESSAGE
c. SPEAK SLOWER
d. SAY AGAIN
The frequency on which ATIS can be found is 19
a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
b. Discrete VHF only
c. VOR frequency only
d. any ATC frequency
:The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates 20
a. loss of comms
b. distress
c. urgency
d. hi-jacking