Professione Volare: Domande Air Law and ATC

Professione Volare Domande Air Law and ATC
Data:
Nome Allievo:
Pagina domande 1 di 58
168) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a 171) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for
controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a the provision of approach control service is:
clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under
certain conditions A To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
A The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km B To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
B The air traffic controller will provide separation to other C To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between
controlled traffic IFR and VFR flights.
C Continued approach will be according to VFR D To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
D The approach must be passing the FAF

176) Alert phase is defined as follows:
161) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives

a series of red flashes from the control tower. This A A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel
signifies that the aircraft must : on board is exhausted.
A not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. B A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of
an aircraft and its occupants.
B not land because the airport is not available for landing.
C An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants
are considered to be threatened by a danger.
C give way to another aircraft.
D A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are
D return to land and that clearance to land will be considered to be in a state of emergency.
communicated in due
course.
169) The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence
shall not be less than :
174) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) A 17 years of age
AMSL, is :
B 16 years of age
A Not applicable
C 18 years of age
B 250 KT IAS
D 21 years of age
C 250 KT TAS
D 240 KT IAS
177) Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide
recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful
interference?
173) The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or
more) and the short-term extensive or graphical A Code 7600.
information are published as follows:
B Code 2000.
A NOTAM
C Code 7500.
B Trigger NOTAM
D Code 7700.
C AIP Supplements
D AIP Amendments
167) The closure of a runway for a year, because of
maintenance, will be published :
172) In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 A only in NOTAM
shall identify:
B only in AIP
A The width of the aircraft wing.
C NOTAM, AIP and MAL
B The lenght of the aircraft fuselage.
D in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
C The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
D Only the aircraft wing span.
166) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of 170) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
the intermediate approach segment in an instrument Tokyo by notification addressed
approach procedure?
A the other Contracting States
A 450m (1476 ft).
B United Nations
B 600m (1968 ft).
C to all States Members of United Nations
C 150m (492 ft).
D International Civile Aviation Organisation
D 300m (984 ft).
184) At what moment during the approach should the

165) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except
that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller A When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
criterion):
B When passing the transition level
A +/- 150 ft.
C When passing the transition altitude
B +/- 250 ft.
D Within the transition layer
C +/- 300 ft.
D +/- 200 ft.

129) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C.
Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance
to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area.
164) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL
classified as B, is : 140 or below can be expected ?
A 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL A When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
and clear of clouds
B When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL
B 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 70
and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
C When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
C 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of
clouds
D When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended
through FL 130
D 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500
m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
190) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its

current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :
163) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the
outbound track is performed from the start of turn for
categories A and B aircraft for: A it is a deviation from the track.
A 1minute 30 seconds. B the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in
the flightplan.
B 2 minutes.
C of an emergency.
C 1 minute.
D the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
D 1 minute 15 seconds.
189) "Cabotage" refers to:
192) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be

turned off, provided that they can be again brought into A domestic air services ;
operation :
B a national air carrier;
A At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
C a flight above territorial waters;
B At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D crop spraying
C At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
188) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for 160) The convention signed by the states and moved by a
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids desire to endure adequate compensation for persons
permit frequent determination of position and speed who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true aircraft is :
air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be A the Tokyo Convention
A 10 minutes B the Rome Convention
B 2 minutes C the Warsaw Convention
C 5 minutes D the Paris Convention
D 3 minutes
183) A contracting state which continues to require the
presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the
187) When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as information indicated in the heading of the format of the
a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when cargo manifest, not require more than the following
the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an item(s) :
automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying,
but as far in advance as possible and: A The air waybill number; the number of packages related to
each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
A At least immediately before landing.
B The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
B At least 30 minute prior to land.
C The air waybill number and the number of packages related
C At least one hour prior to land. to the air way bill number
D At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.

D The air waybill number
182) A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

175) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
A the first part of the segment ;

A Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and
transponder codes.
B the outside part of the segment where the obstacle B Read back should be unsolicited.
clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum
C A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal

C Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
D Read back those parts containing level assignments,
D the most critical part of the segment where the minimum vectors or any part requiring verification.
altitude should be kept very carefully;
181) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

185) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers
some supplementary safeguards are to be observed
such as :
A Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
A the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion B Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for
the time being.
B the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
C Come back and land.
C boarding prior to all passengers D Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
D boarding after to all other passengers
180) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it

approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line
forming an angle of less than :
A 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
B 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
C 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
D 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
179) When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the 142) Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared
radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar under the procedure applicable to :
approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS
authority, at a distance of: A accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs
procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other
A 1 NM from touchdown. cargo
B 2 NM from touchdown. B cargo and is covered by a traffic document
C 3 NM from touchdown. C cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
D 2.5 NM from touchdown. D cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be
completed by the passenger prior to shipment
178) The transition level:

141) In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers
given to each prohibited area, restricted area and
A Is published on the approach and landing chart for each danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
aerodrome
A At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they
B Is calculated by the commander refer
C Will be distributed via NOTAM B At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
D Is calculated by ATS
C At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
186) The convention on offences and certain acts committed D At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they
on board aircraft, is : refer
A the convention of Tokyo

140) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established
B the convention of Paris for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating,
including :
C the convention of Rome
A All self.-sustaining gliders.
D the convention of Chicago
B All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with
a turbojet engine.
136) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot C Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic
licence-aeroplane shall be : control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
A to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in D Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
operations other than commercial air transportation
B to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in

139) Which of the following is obligating for members of
commercial air transportation
ICAO ?
C to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for
A ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and
single pilot operation other than in commercial air
transportation any suspended validity of such licenses
D none of the answers are correct B ICAO must be informed about differences from the
standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
C ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international

162) Aerodromes signs should be in the following airline connections
configuration :
D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national
A mandatory instruction signs; black background with red regulations
inscriptions.
B information signs; yellow or black background with black or

yellow inscriptions.
C mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black

inscriptions.
D information signs; orange background with black

inscriptions.
144) When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering 133) A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
A air traffic coordination centres. A 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
B control centres only.
B 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
C air traffic control and flight information centers. concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
D search and rescue coordination centres.
C 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
137) When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions,
pilots shall: D 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
A Read back only the code to be set. approaches may be made.
B Read back the mode and code to be set.

132) We can distinguish two types of departure routes.
C Use only the word ROGER. During a straight departure the initial departure track is
within :
D Use only the word WILCO.
A 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
145) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft

B 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
established on the localizer course shall be:
C 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
A 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
D 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
B 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
C 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 131) The longitudinal separation minima based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
D 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed, is:
A 15 minutes.
135) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago
convention contains minimum specifications for the
design of aerodromes?
B 3 minutes.
A Annex 6 C 10 minutes.
B Annex 11 D 5 minutes.
C Annex 10
1) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace
D Annex 14 classified as C has to maintain the following minima of
flight visibility and distance from clouds
A 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

134) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
containing standards and recommended practices for
Personnel Licensing is : B 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
A Annex 1
C 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of
B Annex 2 clouds
C Annex 11 D 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
D Annex 12
138) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate 156) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at
cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that
given in the flight plan by plus or minus: A the pilot is following the published approach procedure
A 5% B all mentioned answers are correct
B 3% C the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and
will keep it in sight;
C 2%
D the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
D 10 %
155) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an

area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear
152) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft (free of clouds), when it totally loses
departed from the same aerodrome and following the radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
A adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
A 3 minutes. B continue flight onto destination, complying with last received

clearances then with filed flight plan.
B 10 minutes.
C descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest
airfield open to IFR operations
C 2 minutes.
D land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air
D 5 minutes. Traffic Services of landing
159) The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the 143) How far beyond the boundary of the holding area
transition level will be reported : extends the buffer area?
A as flight level. A 3 km.
B as height. B 5 NM.
C as altitude. C 3 NM.
D According to pilot's choice. D 5 km.
158) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in- 153) In an instrument departure procedure the minimum
VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway
equals:
A When seems possible to land
A 0 ft.
B When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and
with the runway lights in sight B 3.3 % gradient.
C When the aircraft has the control tower in sight C 35 ft.
D When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with D 0.8 % gradient.
the runway in sight yet
193) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be

157) Except in some special cases the establishment of prescribed
change-over points should be limited to route segments
of A by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
A 60 NM or more B by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
B 75 NM or more
C by regional air navigation agreements
C 50 NM or more D by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
D 100 NM or more
151) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a 147) Two minutes separation may be used between departing
departing aircraft may take off in any direction aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
A until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to A The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the
be over the instrument runway following aircraft.
B until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to B The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the
C until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to C The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the
D until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to D The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the
150) When a member state allows police officers, security 146) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant
staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the
carry weapons in their territory for the protection of privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons
should be conditional upon : A 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5
landings as pilot in command
A Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign
state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of B 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision landings as pilot in command
to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
C 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
B Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
D 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3
C Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state landings as pilot in command
of destination
D Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport 154) When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this
of arrival marking shall commence at :
A 450 m from threshold

149) The runway edge lights shall be :
B 600 m from threshold
A white
C 300 m from threshold
B blue
D 150 m from threshold
C green
D red 232) In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
A to the left
148) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall B in a direction depending on the entry ;
be:
A 3.5 NM.
C in a direction depending on the wind direction
B 5.0 NM.
D to the right
C 3.0 NM.
D 10.0 NM.
225) The pilot in command of an aircraft: 235) What will be your action if you can not comply with a
standard holding pattern?
1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received
from ATC. A Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. B inform the ATC immediately and request a revised
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to clearance.
comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory C a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the

D it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern
at pilots discretion.
correct statements?
A 2-3-5
240) Given:
B 3-5
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
C 3-4-5 FL = flight level
D 1-4 within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR

must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two
levels:
238) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving
aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall
A 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ? B FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
A medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes C FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
B medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes D 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
C light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

233) The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent
D medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes collisions with terrain.
A Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

237) If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR
flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: B Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
A Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or C Prevent collisions with terrain
aircraft stations.
D Do not prevent collisions with terrain
B Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
C Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or

241) The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and
aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details
required 2 times. buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is
called:
D Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the
termination of the flight to ATC. A Security program.
B Manoeuvring area.
236) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications
shall set the transponder to Mode A Code: C Terminal.
A 7700. D Aeronautical part
B 7600.
C 2000.
D 7500.
231) According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the 227) In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States,
"Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field which are not engaged in schedule international
length of: services, and which are making flights across the
territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non
A 1 500 m. traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the
information contained in a flight plan as adequate
B 1 200 m. advance notification. This information is to be received :
C 1 800 m and over.

A at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
D 1 600 m.
B at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
C at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
230) Flight information service shall be provided to all D at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information
and which are:
A Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise 191) According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
known to the relevant air traffic service units.
B Provided with air traffic control services, only. A one year
C Known to the relevant air traffic services units. B two years
D Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed C The period of validity of the licence.
flight plan.
D Indefinitely
229) During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight

tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B 234) "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection
envelope, is:
A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
A 120 kt stopway (if stopway provided) .
B 125 kt
B The length of the runway plus the length of stopway
available (if stopway provided).
C 150 kt C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
stopway and clearway (if provided) .
D 135 kt
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway.
228) Runway threshold lights shall be:
248) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot

A Fixed lights showing green or white colours. performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in
B Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of command shall be entitled to be credit :
approach to the runway.
A the flight time towards the total time required for higher
C Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of
approach to the runway. the licensing authority
D Fixed lights green colours. B 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
C in full with his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
D in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the
total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
255) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, 251) When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be
the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by identified by one of the following procedures:
setting the transponder to:
A Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate
A 7500. transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".
B 7700. B To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
C 7600. C To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".
D 7000. D To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".
254) For a category I precision approach, the decision height 239) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
cannot be lower than : interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
A 150 ft communicate with ATS shall try to:
B 100 ft
A Declare an emergency
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in

C 200 ft
order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
D 250 ft
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule
with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
253) Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle

A ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors
and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has
been lost.
249) Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
B Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and
radar flight instructions will be provided until radar
identification is terminated. A At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the FIX.
C Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive
B At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar
facility. the FIX.
D You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
service has been terminated or that radar contact has been from the FIX.
lost.
D At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the fix.
252) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable

grounds to believe that a person has commited or is
about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense 224) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in
VMC you have two way communication failure?
against penal law
A may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew

A Return to the aerodrome of departure.
members
B Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as
B may deliver such person to the competent authorities practicable.
C may request such person to disembark C Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start
approach at your ETA.
D may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such D Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the
person nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
247) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway 242) When a RADAR operator says the following to an
shall be: aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
A Fixed lights showing blue. A 030° true
B Fixed lights showing yellow. B 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
C Fixed lights showing white. C 030° magnetic
D Fixed lights showing green. D 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the
magnetic track)
246) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are

permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control 250) The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder
service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights operating in an area distant from designated medical
and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion
VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all of the licence authority, provided that such deferment
other flights, is classified as : shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A Airspace A A A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew

member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
B Airspace D
B Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a
flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
C Airspace B commercial operations.
D Airspace E C A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew

member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
operations.
245) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the D Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a
outbound track is performed from the start of the turn flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
for categories C, D, E aircraft for: commercial operations.
A 1 minute 15 seconds.
200) The transition level:
B 1 minute.
C 1 minute 30 seconds. A shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition
altitude that has been established
D 2 minutes.
B shall be the highest available flight level below the transition
altitude that has been established
244) A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a C for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
controlled flight at least:
D is calculated and decided by the commander
A 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
B 60 minutes prior to departure.

226) Turning departures provide track guidance within :
C 10 minutes prior to departure.

A 15 Km
D 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
B 20 Km
243) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of C 10 Km

an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall
be entitled to be credit with not more than : D 5 Km
A 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time

required for a higher grade of pilot licence
B 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time

required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
C 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot

licence
D 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time

required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
206) The color identification of the contents of droppable 201) Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for
containers and packages containing survival equipment flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
should take the form of coloured streamers according to consecutive weeks and :
the following code:
A On at least 20 days consecutively
A Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
B On at least 20 occasions
B Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
C On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at
C Blue for blankets and protective clothing. least ten consecutive days
D Black for food and water. D On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at
least 20 consecutive days
205) The color identification of the contents of droppable

209) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace
containers and packages containing survival equipment
classified as B has to maintain the following minima of
should take the form of coloured streamers according to
flight visibility and distance from clouds
the following code:
A Black for miscellaneous equipment.

A 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from clouds
B Blue for blankets and protective clothing. B 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal
and 300 m vertical from clouds
C Red for food and water.
C 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. clouds
D 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
204) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences

aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th
birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : 199) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 12 months to 6 months
A 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
B 12 months to 3 months
B 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
C 24 months to 12 months
C 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a
course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
D none of the answers are correct
D 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
203) An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision

light:
permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
A outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR
when it is being towed; flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated
from IFR flights and receive traffic information in
B while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
C outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the A Airspace E

daylight-period this is not applicable;
D on the ground when the engines are running

B Airspace B
C Airspace C
208) While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which D Airspace D

causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action
must be taken?
A Squawk 7700
B The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action

taken as soon as circumstances permit
C Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
D Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
197) The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight 216) Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose
plan is the estimated time : of:
A required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own A Providing advisory service
power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
B Achieving separation between controlled flights
B required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until
landing.
C Achieving separation between IFR flights
C of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure
and temperature on that day. D Providing flight Information Service
D required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the

destination airport. 223) Contracting states shall carry out the handling,
forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as prescribed :
196) The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is :
A by the Regional Postal Office
A 18 years
B in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
B 21 years
C by IATA and accepted by the contracting states
C 17 years
D by IATA and accepted by ICAO
D 16 years
222) Longitudinal separation minima based on distance

using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and
195) The informations on holding, approach and departure track, provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track"
procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining
simultaneous DME readings, is :
A AD
A 40 NM
B MAP
B 20 NM
C ENR
C 10 NM
D GEN
D 25 NM
194) In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with
"location indicators"? 221) When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C
equipment, the pilot:
A GEN
A Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise
B AGA directed by ATC.
C ENR B Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by

ATC.
D AD
C Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC
instructions.
202) Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC D Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft
conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no is within controlled airspace.
ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the
same altitude and on a converging course. Which has
the right of way? 220) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and
receive flight information service if requested, is
A Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right classified as
B Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is A Airspace C

approaching
B Airspace E
C Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
D Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

C Airspace G
D Airspace F
219) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued 214) The units responsable for promoting efficient
by another contracting state, the validity of the organization of search and rescue service are:
authorization:
A Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
A Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
B Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
B Is only considered for PPL.
C Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue
C Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. coordination centre.
D Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which D Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
renders valid the licence.
213) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft

207) In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The
cannot be below: aircraft :
A the OCH A must give way to another aircraft.
B 200 ft B must come back to land and the landing clearance will be
sent in due time.
C 350 ft
C is cleared to land.
D 400 ft
D must land immediately and clear the landing area.
217) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light

or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a 212) According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier private pilots will be valid for
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the
lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the A 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6
opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction months thereafter
runway separated by :
B 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12
A 730 m months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
B Less than 760 m

C 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12
months thereafter
C 760 m D 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
D Less than 730 m

211) In a precision approach category I lighting system, the
centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
128) Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording
devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure A Flashing lights showing variable green.
correct time to within plus or minus
B Fixed lights showing variable white.
A 10 seconds of UTC at all times
C Flashing lights showing variable white.
B 1 minute of UTC at all times
D Fixed lights showing variable green.
C 30 seconds of UTC at all times
D 15 seconds of UTC at all times
215) A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall

be issued at intervals of :
A Not more than 28 days
B Not more than 2 months
C Not more than one month
D Not more than three months
210) "ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which 45) A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a
the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but designated track followed by a turn in the opposite
which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed
separated therefore by the appropriate separation along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied.
The following flights are considered essential traffic one A Procedure turn.
to each other.
B Base turn.
A Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
C Race track.
B All IFR flights.
D Reversal track.
C Only controlled IFR flights.
D All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.

44) Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical
Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in
which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic
218) During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in Services outside its territory, and this shall include the
VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility preparation and origination of:
of:
A Only NOTAM's and Circulars.
A the pilot in command.
B Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
B the approach controller.
C Only AIP and NOTAM's.
C the radar controller.
D AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC.
D the airport controller.
43) Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway

40) What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
A Code letter "D".
A 6 NM
B Code letter "E".
B 3 NM
C Code letter "C".
C 2 km
D Code letter "B".
D 10 km
48) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by

33) "TODA" take-off distance available is: ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
A 2000 feet (600 m).

A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided).
B 500 feet (150 m).
B The length of the runway available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided). C 2500 feet (750 m).
C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the D 1000 feet (300 m).
stopway and clearway (if provided).
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
stopway. 41) An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled
international air services and which is making a flight to
or through any designated airport of a Contracting State
and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed
46) What is the minimum vertical separation between to remain within that State without security for customs
aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? duty.
A 500 feet A for a period of 48 hours
B 1500 feet B for a period of 12 hours
C 2000 feet
C For a period to be established by that State
D 1000 feet D for a period of 24 hours
49) The international convention defining rules relative to 36) The national civil aviation security programme shall be
the responsibilities of international air carriers for the established by :
carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :
A ECAC
A Tokyo Convention.
B ICAO and other organisations including the contracting
B Hague Convention. state concerned
C Montreal Convention. C Each contracting state
D Warsaw Convention. D ICAO
39) A minimum radar separation shall be provided until 35) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted : A 30 m (98 ft)
A 1.0 NM B 50 m (164 ft)
B 2.0 NM C 90 m (295 ft)
C 3.0 NM D 120 m (384 ft)
D 5.0 NM
64) During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary
38) "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway area is equal to :
used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span
of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: A 300 m (984 ft)
A 25 m. B 210 m (690 ft)
B 18 m. C 120 m (394 ft)
C 15 m. D 150 m (492 ft)
D 23 m.
42) Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
37) Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS instructions
procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from You should :
a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
A request ATC for other instructions.
A Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in
length. B select code A7500 on your transponder.
B Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in C follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
length.
D follow ATC instructions.
C Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in
length.
D Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in 56) Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern,
length. there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors
boundaries of:
A 10°.
B 15°.
C 20°.
D 5°.
130) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior 59) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another
to departure and restorage is impossible, than : aircraft on the same track, the following minimum
longitudinal separation shall be provided:
A departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be
effected is allowed A 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
B you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the B 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;
C the flight can only continue in the most direct manner; C 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
D you are not allowed to commence the flight

D 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
47) Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful

62) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance)
seizure acts, it can be said:
types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation
accuracy of
A The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids,
air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful
A plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
seizure act.
B plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis B The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of
consusltations between the State where an aircraft affected
C plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft
operator's State.
D plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
C The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that
an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has
landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its
61) When independent parallel approaches are being departure is justified to protect lives.
conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall D The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that
be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has
localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
not greater than :
A 20 degrees 57) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller

possesses wind information in the form of components,
B 15 degrees significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean
C 30 degrees cross-wind component significant change is :
D 25 degrees A 5 KT
B 3 KT
60) Which statement regarding approach control service is
correct ? C 10 KT
A During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own D 8 KT

separation ;
B If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes

32) (For this question use annex 010-9802A)
or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by
Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning
the most expeditious means to the aircraft
"we have found all personnel" is :
C Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about
A 2
substantial delays in departure in any event when they are
expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
B 3
D An approach sequence shall be established according to
the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and C 4
approach control ;
D 1
55) A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : 51) Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation
between aircraft on the same direction is:
A during IFR and VFR flights in VMC; A 3 000 feet.
B during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the B 1 500 feet.
appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
C as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 C 4 000 feet.

km or more
D 2 000 feet.
D during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the
movement area and the underlying ground;
50) Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS
authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be
54) The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
is done :
A 4 NM.
A through a central control unit.
B 5 NM.
B by agreement with the receiving unit.
C 3 NM.
C automatically at the control zone boundary.
D 2 NM.
D with the pilot's consent.
58) The informations concerning charges for

53) Which of the following is information that is not given in aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are
AIP approach and landing charts on the following part of the AIP
A Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final A GEN

approach sector
B FAL
B OCH or OCA
C RAC
C DME-frequencies
D AD
D Visibility minima
8) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been

52) An AIRAC is : established the obstacle clearance altitude/height
(OCA/H) is determined:
A A notice distributed by means of telecommunication
containing information A For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of
concerning the establishment, condition or change in any them.
aeronautical
facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge B For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for
of which each one of them.
is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
C Only for categories A and B aircraft.
B A package which consists of the following elements : AIP,
supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and D Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
summaries.
C An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification

34) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate
based on common effective dates, of circumstances
necessitating significant changes in operating procedures. airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
D A publication issued by or with the authority of a state A write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional
containing aeronautical information of a lasting character information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
essential to air navigation.
B write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional
information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
C write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional

information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
D write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional

information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
14) A flashing red light from control tower during an 16) It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a
approach to land means: particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in
the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final
A The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling approach and missed approach area. When this option
is exercised, the published procedure:
B Give way to other aircraft in emergency
A Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
C Continue circling and wait for further instructions
B Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle
exists.
D The airport is unsafe, do not land
C Permits circling only in VMC.
13) The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the D Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector
Authority of any illness which they are suffering which in which the obstacle exists.
involves incapacity to undertake those functions to
which the licence relates throughout a period of a
certain number of days or more. The number of days is :
9) Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.
In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you
A 30 will squawk code :
B 60 A A 0020 Mode C
C 90 B A 7600 Mode C
D 21 C A 5300 Mode C
D A 7620 Mode C
12) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is :
17) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the
minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
A 260 KT IAS
A 18 and 60 years
B 250 KT IAS
B 21 and 59 years
C 250 KT TAS
C 16 and 60 years
D Not applicable
D 17 and 59 years
11) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for

aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
permit frequent determination of position and speed will
containers and packages containing survival equipment
be
should take the form of coloured streamers according to
the following code:
A 5 minutes
A Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
B 3 minutes
B Red for food and water.
C 10 minutes
C Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
D 15 minutes
D Black for food and water.
6) The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the

transition altitude will be reported:
A as hlight level.
B according pilot's choice.
C as altitude.
D as height.
5) Which information is not included in Instrument 24) The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification
Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
A Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final A White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
approach sector
B White colour identification given by Morse Code.
B OCA or OCH
C Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
C DME-frequencies
D Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
D Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as
alternate
31) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have

crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level
4) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
information indicates that it has passed this level in the
have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
required direction by:
A 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
A +/- 300 ft.
B 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
B More than 200 ft.
C 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

C More than 300 ft.
D 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
D 300 ft.
3) The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

30) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the
single, two and three light sources on the centre line
A Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach have a length of:
Control Office and Tower.
A 200 m.
B Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach
Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic B 250 m.
Services reporting office.
C 300 m.
C Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and
Aerodrome Control Tower.
D 150 m.
D Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information
Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
29) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who
has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated
2) The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued
or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
A offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
A 150 hours of flight time
B Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the
surface B 200 hours of flight time
C Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

C 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground
time
D Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the
surface D 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground
time
10) A circling approach is:

28) A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument
runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for
A A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar
operations down to:
vectoring.
B A contact flight manoeuvre. A a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
C A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. B a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
D A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. C a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
D a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
27) The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used 23) Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten
for a controlled flight to cross the level of another minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft
controlled flight when: accident.
A Requested by the pilot and during the day light. -aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the
Search and Rescue Centre
B Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown. -aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue
Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter
C This procedure is not allowed.
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;
D Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized
by the state overflown. A (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of
operations.
15) An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised B (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
to consider executing a missed approach, if the position
or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any C (1) until the completion of operations.
portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not
visible on the radar display for significant interval D (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
during the last:
A 3 NM.
22) In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack
B 1 NM. procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
C 4 NM.
A 2 minutes.
D 2 NM.
B 3 minutes.
C 1 minute 30 seconds.
25) Alerting service shall be provided: D 1 minute.
A In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan

or otherwise known by the ATS. 21) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach
procedure end?
B For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to
be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as A At the missed approach point.
practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or
otherwise known to the ATS.
B At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is
obtained and can be maintained.
C For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
D To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful

C At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-
route flight is initiated.
interference, only.
D At the point where the climb is established.
65) What is a "barrette"?

20) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
A a CAT II or III holding position. parallel runways provided that :
B a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed. A the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
C three or more groundlights closely spaced together to
appear as a bar of lights.
B the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
D a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
adjacent approach
C the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at

adjacent approach
D the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at

adjacent approach
19) During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a 110) In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what
missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower- minimum separation should be applied when a medium
controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
moment the aircraft is : using the same runway ?
A 3 NM from touch-down; A 2 minutes
B 4 NM from touch-down; B 3 minutes
C 2 NM from touch-down; C 4 minutes
D 1NM from touch-down; D 1 minute
18) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, 109) What action should be taken if contact is los with the
ATC unit shall: aerodrome on the down wind leg ?
A Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice A Request an amended clearance
based on the use of radar.
B Initiate a missed approach
B Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
C Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is
C not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions. better at a lower altitude
D Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been D Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the
achieved without availability of SSR. aerodrome
26) The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is 108) On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-
based on: approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle
between the final approach track and the runway
A The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. centreline is :
B The longuest aeroplane maximum width only A 30 degrees or less
C The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using B 40 degrees or less
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
C 20 degrees or less
D The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. D 10 degrees or less
104) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the

107) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust
inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are
the speed where the aircraft has passed:
established for a distance from the IAF of:
A 20 NM
A 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
B 10 NM
B 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
C 5 NM C 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
D 25 NM
D 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
112) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the
97) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in
holding pattern shall be according to:
order to avoid collision hazards when operating in
airspace classes :
A Heading.
A C, D, E, F, and G
B Course.
B F and G only
C Bearing.
C A, B, C, D, E, F and G
D Track.
D F only
105) "Instrument runways" are the following runways 101) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of
intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument a controlled flight deviates from the track?
approach procedures.
A Inform the ATC unit immediately
A Precision approach runways in general.
B If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC
B Non precision approach runways, precision approach instructions
runways category I, II and III.
C Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with
C Precision approach runways category I, II and III. instructions
D Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways D Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as
category I, II and III. practicable
113) The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres 100) Which statement is correct?
obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from
the navigation facility upon which the instrument
approach procedure is predicated:
A The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of
at least 700ft AGL;
A 20 NM (37 km). B The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of
at least 1500ft AGL;
B 30 NM (55 km).
C The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of
C 25 NM (46 km). at least 3000ft AMSL;
D 15 NM (28 km). D The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising
level
103) (For this question use annex 010-9803A) 99) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes,
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest
ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ? obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :
A Drop emergency supplies at this point
A at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
B Require medical assistance
B at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
C Require assistance
C at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
D Landing here impossible
D at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
102) According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise

the privileges of their licences, related ratings or 63) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above
authorisations at any time when they are aware of any FL 140?
decrease in their medical fitness which might render
them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They
shall without undue delay seek the advice of the
A 2 minutes 30 seconds.
authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or
clinic admissions for: B 1 minute 30 seconds.
A More than 12 days C 1 minute.
B More than one week D 2 minutes.
C Any period
106) The following minimum radar separation shall be
D More than 12 hours provided between aircraft on the same localizer with
additional longitudinal separation as required for wake
turbulence:
A 5 NM.
B 2.5 NM.
C 3 NM.
D 2 NM.
120) The protection areas associated with instrument 124) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight
approach procedures are determined with the instruction for the issue of a PPL
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
A With an ATPL
A The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with
airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories. B With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
B 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is

lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, C With a CPL
25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15°
for missed approach procedures. D With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
C 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is

lower, for departure, approach or missed approach 123) What does the abbreviation DER mean?
instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or
without prescribed flight tracks).
A Distance end of route.
D 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is
lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, B Departure end of route.
as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach
procedures.
C Distance end of runway.
D Depature end of runway.

127) The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control
service
A An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and 111) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew
departing controlled flights. functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the
authority must be informed :
B An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and
departing. A if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate
expires
C An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR
flights within a Control Zone. B After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
D An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a

C as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more
Control Zone. than 21days
D after one calendar month of consecutive illness

126) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within
which the following services are provided:
121) Taxiway edge lights shall be:
A Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory
Service.
A Fixed showing blue.
B Flight Information Service only.
B Fixed showing green.
C Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
C Fixed showing yellow.
D Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
D Flashing showing blue.
125) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued

by another contracting state the validity of the
96) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position
authorization
indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
A the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend
A They operate within non controlled airspace.
the date of the validity at its own discretion
B shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence B Requested by ATC.
other than for use in private flights
C They operate within controlled airspace.
C shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
D They operate a transponder with Mode C.
D shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the
licence
119) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 114) If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach
track, a descend shall be made so as to :
A 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 A leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until
reaching the MAPt.
B 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
B pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
C 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
C follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
D 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
D pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is
obligatory.
118) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport
controller the following light signal : a series of green
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : 122) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of
A must return to its point of departure. cross-country flight time, of which not less than ......
hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot in
B is cleared for take-off.
command, the duties and functions of a pilot in
command, provided that the method of supervision
C may continue to taxy towards the take-off area. employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The
state above hours are respectively :
D must stop.
A 150 hours and 75 hours
117) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall B 200 hours and 75 hours
have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
C 200 hours and 100 hours
A 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30
hours of instrument ground time D 250 hours and 10 hours
B 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75

hours of instrument ground time.
72) When letters are used for registration mark
C 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 combinations shall not be used which might be
hours of instrument ground time. confused with urgent signals for example
D 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 A LLL

hours may be instrument ground time.
B DDD
116) (For this question use annex 010-9806A) C PAN

What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the
ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ? D RCC
A we have found all personnel
B we have found only some personnel 98) The common mark shall be selected from the series of
symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :
C we are returning to base

A to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the
International Telecommunication Union
D operation completed
B to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation
Organisation
115) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that
all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP C to the State of registry by the International
Telecommunication Union
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments defined with a radius of :
D to state of the operator
A 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
B 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above

FL200
C 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
D 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL

250
78) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals 80) Each contracting state shall establish measures to
with: ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when
passengers are obliged to travel because they have
A the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods been the subject of judicial or administrative
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures
B operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation can be taken
C the security system at airports

A These measures are of the discretion of the contracting
state.
D limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis B The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in
passenger and goods transported command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
C Correct.
77) Which of the following alternatives describes the
complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light D The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be
system? informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial
proceedings.
A 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
B 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit 73) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance
Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?
C 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
A the operator
D 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
B the pilot-in-command ;
76) Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be C the "flight-operations" of the company
achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain
distance from the end of the runway. D the state
Identification has to be achieved within :
A 5NM
81) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the
cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the
B 1NM speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
C 2NM A true air speed (TAS).
D 3NM B estimated ground speed (G/S).
C indicated air speed (IAS).

75) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away
from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate D true air speed at 65% power.
from the moment such person has been definitely
admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
71) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
A The operator has no obligation. interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
B The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator. communicate with ATS shall try to:
C The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the A Declare an emergency

person leaves the aeroplane.
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in
D The stated above is correct. order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule

with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle
70) What does the abbreviation OIS mean? 66) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the
ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area where:
A Obstacle identification surface.
A An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
B Obstacle in surface.
B An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-
C Obstacle identification slope. off.
D Obstruction in surface. C A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of

runway.
D A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

69) The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :
A only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an 74) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance
aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally
deviate from the centreline, after being established on
B caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft track, more than:
regardless the registration
A Half a scale deflection.
C the above convention does not deal with this item
B One scale deflection.
D caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or
aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the
territory of another contraction state
C A quarter of scale deflection.
D One and a half of scale deflection.

68) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all
turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be
made into which direction? 88) A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.
In section I the pilot fills in :
A To the right.
A weather noted ;
B To the left.
B flight identification and weather noted ;
C First right and then to the left.
C urgent messages
D Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
D a position report, including aircraft identification, height,
position and time ;
67) According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew
licence license issued by a non JAA State may be
rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA 95) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane
Member State shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross
country flight time as pilot in command including a
A At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-
concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two
basic licence different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and
distance referred are :
B At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State
concerned for a period not exceeding one year A 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
C At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State B 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided
that the basic licence remains valid. C 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
D At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State

D 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that
the basic licence remains valid.
94) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for 89) (For this question use annex 010-9805A)
the provision of approach control service is: Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter
similar to the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL
A To conduct surveillance radar approaches. ASSISTANCE" is :
B To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between A 3

IFR flights and VFR flights.
B 4
C To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
C 1
D To provide instructions in order to reduce separations
minima, if accepted by the pilots. D 2
93) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a

258) A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air
specified limit above the earth is:
Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and
distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A Advisory airspace.
A A NOTAM RAC.
B Flight Information Region.
B An ATS NOTAM.
C Control area.
C An Advisory NOTAM.
D Control zone.
D An AIRAC.
92) Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is

established, the procedures applicable there in :
87) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic
pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to
A have to be as indicated by ICAO council
indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
B have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
A The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
C need not to be identical with those applicable in the
underlying flight information region B Switching on and off three times the landing lights
D has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
C Switching on and off four times the landing lights
D Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

91) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
Montreal by written notification to the depositary
governments. The denounciation shall take effect :
86) A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a
A 2 months following the date ICAO is informed height above the ground level or water of not less than:
B 4 months following the date on which notification is received

A 150 metres.
by the Depositary Governements
B 500 metres.
C 6 months following the date on which notification is received
by the Depositary Governments C 200 metres.
D 3 months following the date on which notification is received D 300 metres.

by the Depositary Governments
85) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for

79) Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
controller have to be executed as:
permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
A the weather permits.
air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be
B Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
A 5 minutes
C Decided on pilot's discretion.
B 10 minutes
D Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
C 2 minutes
D 3 minutes
84) Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : 418) Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you
receive and acknowledge the following instruction from
the radar controller:
A always of a straight row of lights towards the runway "Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised".
B of flashing lights only; Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that
radio communication cannot be stablished again and
C of an arbitrary amount of green lights; you have to return to your current flight plan route:
D of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence A With an intercept of at least 45°.
towards the runway ;
B With an intercept of at least 30°.
83) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR C On the nearest way.
flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are
separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive D With an intercept of 20° or more.
traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
A Airspace D
431) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to
parallel runways provided that : the missed approach
B Airspace B track for one approach diverges by :
C Airspace A A at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
D Airspace E
B at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
82) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed C at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the adjacent approach
final phase of this missed approach is :
D at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
A 90 m (295 ft) adjacent approach
B 120 m (384 ft)

430) A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an
C 50 m (164 ft) airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing.
The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours
D 30 m (98 ft) away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield
are:
90) The rule governing flight over water for a single engined A VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
aeroplane engaged in the public transport of landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for
passengers: landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
A limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the B ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal
engine fails. visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure
B does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
C VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
C limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest landing on the runway to be used
shore.
D ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal
D limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore. visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged
with one engine out
425) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold

429) In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used
A a current class III medical assessment by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall
be expressed in:
B a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the
state issuing the licence A flight level on or below the transition level
C a current class I medical assessment B flight level on or below the transition altitude
D a current class II medical assessment C altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
D altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
428) In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will 424) Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the
see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the
units farthest from the runway as white when: centre line more than :
A Only on the approach slope. A full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
B On or close to the approach slope. B half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal
35 ° off the centerline.
C Above the approach slope.
C full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale
deflection of the glidepath indicator.
D Below the approach slope.
D half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
433) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that

all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
423) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
segments with a radius of :
A 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL

A Advisory airspace.
200
B Control zone.
B 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL
250 C Control area.
C 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190 D Air traffic zone.
D 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL

190
422) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies
dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different
runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with
426) Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not runway code 4?
available, radar identification may be achieved by one of
the following procedures: A 45 metres
A To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30°

B 35 metres
or more.
B To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° C 40 metres

or more.
D 50 metres
C To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
D To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°. 421) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the
purpose of:
434) The position reports shall contain the following A Providing alerting services
elements of information in the order listed:
B Achieving separation between controlled flights
A Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight
level or altitude, next position and time over. C Providing flight Information Service
B Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,

D Providing advisory services
next position and time over.
C Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,

next position and time over and ensuing significant point. 420) Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide
recognition of an emergency aircraft?
D Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time,
next position and time over and ensuing significant point. A Code 7500.
B Code 7600.
C Code 7000.
D Code 7700.
449) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a 447) When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty,
nominal missed approach climb gradient of: the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the:
A 0.8%.
A operational air traffic control centres
B 3.3%.
B flight information or control organisations
C 5%.
C air traffic co-ordination services
D 2.5%.
D search and rescue co-ordination centres
427) Except in special circumstances determined by the

public authorities concerned, when a passenger is 446) In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted
passing through the territory of a contracting state and in a holding pattern is called:
has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight
for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the A Racetrack pattern.
contracting state where the international airport is
located shall permit such a passenger to remain within B Procedure turn.
its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival
when
C Shuttle.
A the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks
from the day of his (her) arrival D Based turn.
B the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from
the day of his (her) arrival 445) The width of the corridor around a specified arrival
route is :
C the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two)
hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
A ± 10 NM
D the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from
the day of his (her) arrival B ± 12.5 NM
C ± 2.5 NM
441) Air Traffic Service unit means:
D ± 5 NM
A Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
444) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the

B Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.
estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which
the aircraft:
C Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air
Services reporting offices. A will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
D Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers.
B will land.
C will stop on the parking area.

256) A radio communications, "Distress" differs from
"Urgency" because in the first case: D will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
A There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate
assistance.
432) Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
B The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its
fitness to fly.
A Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
C The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
B Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
D The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight
immediately interrupted. C Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
D Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
442) Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: 437) What is the length of an approach lighting system of a
precision-approach runway CAT II :
A Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and A 900m

obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
B 150m
B Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic C 300m
C Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and D 600m

expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
D Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an

orderly flow of air traffic 436) The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication
(AIP) are :
417) In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the

A GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled
and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: B GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP.
A 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. C GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
B 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. D GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
C 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

435) Which of the following correctly lists special purpose
D 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
440) The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

A Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
B Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

A Geneva convention 1936
C Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
B Chicago convention 1944
D Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
C Warzaw convention 1929
D Geneva convention 1948 443) What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied
by ATC?
439) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies A Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.
dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given
for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What B Time separation and track separation.
should be the length of this approach light system?
C Composite separation.
A 420 metres
D Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
B 1000 metres
C 1200 metres
393) The Alerting Service is provided by:
D 900 metres
A The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
438) How many separate segments has an instrument B The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment,
approach procedure. when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
A Up to 4. C Only by ATC units.
B Up to 5.
D The Area Control Centres.
C 3.
D 4.
419) If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is 401) When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?
established but communication on a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable A Only when weather conditions change enough to require a
to comply with the instructions received ? change in the active runway or instrument approach in use
A CAN NOT COMPLY B Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a
reportable value
B UNABLE TO COMPLY
C Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content
change or reported values
C NOT POSSIBLE
D Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for
D CAN NOT VFR ; otherwise hourly
399) The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights 394) The licensing authority shall determine whether
inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight
3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is : trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of
the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such
experience shall be limited to a maximum of :
A Not applicable
A 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been
B 250 KT IAS acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
C 250 KT TAS
B 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been
D 260 KT IAS acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
C 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been
398) The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
A MET
D 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been
acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
B GEN
C ENR
402) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact',
what does that mean to the pilot?
D AGA
A The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
397) For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the B The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the
vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: aircraft
A At the discretion of the air traffic controller C The aircraft is subject to positive control
B If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests D Position reports may be omitted
C Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in

sight 392) Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to
land ?
D When the commander in the following aircraft has the
preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own A VIP (Head of state) aircraft
separation
B Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing
immediate medical attention
396) A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be
used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each C Emergency aircraft
aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on
track" way-point. This minimum is: D Military aircraft
A 60 NM.
B 50 NM.
C 20 NM.
D 80 NM.
391) A notice containing information concerning flight safety, 395) When letters are used for the registration mark
air navigation, technical, administration or legislative combinations shall not be used which might be
matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: confused with urgent or distress signals for example
A Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). A RCC
B NOTAM. B LLL
C AIRAC. C XXX
D Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). D DDD
390) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the 409) Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible
flight commences in accordance with IFR and by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be
subsequently changes to VFR? vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace
than :
A Y
A 5 NM
B I
B 2,5 NM
C V
C 1,5 NM
D Z
D 3 NM
389) The longitudinal separation minima based on time

between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation 416) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not
aids permit frequent determination of position and below:
speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding A 3.0 NM.
aircraft, is:
B 5.0 NM.
A 10 minutes.
C 2.0 NM.
B 3 minutes.
D 1.5 NM.
C 5 minutes.
D 6 minutes.
415) The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed
of two elements which are related to the aeroplane
performance characteristics and dimensions. These
388) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light elements are a combination of a number and a letter as
signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This in the example under listed:
signal means that the aircraft :
A 2B.
A must vacate the landing area in use.
B 6D.
B must stop.
C 5E.
C must return to its point of departure.
D 4F.
D may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
414) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation

387) In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a
approach segment provides at least : medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
A 984 ft A 3 minutes
B 1476 ft B 1 minute
C 492 ft C 5 minutes
D decreasing from 984 to 492 ft D 2 minutes
413) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall 450) When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not
hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at
and shall have completed at least 50 hours : another international airport, the contracting state where
the unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been
A Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of no gross negligence or careless by the operator
aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
in aeroplanes. A shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes
on the operator
B Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes
or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in B shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and
aeroplanes. taes on thexes on the operator
C Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters C shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but
of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. taxes on the operator
D Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of D shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom
aeroplanes. duties on the operator
412) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, 408) Each member state should designate an appropriate
which will be the maximum speed ? authority with its administration to be responsible for
the development implementation and maintenance of a
A 230 kt IAS. national aviation security programme. This programme
should apply :
B 230 kt TAS.
A to all international civil air transport including aircraft
engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic
C 240 kt IAS.
flights at the discretion of each member state
D 240 kt TAS. B only to all international civil transport including aircraft
engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
400) The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : C only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport
flights
A 6 months D only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport

flights and domestic flights
B 5 years
C 2 years 407) An information issued by a meteorological watch office

concerning the occurence or expected occurence of
specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect
D 1 year
the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was
not already included in the forecast issued for low level
flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-
410) Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: area thereof is
A An AIRMET information
A Flashing red or preferably yellow.
B A SIGMET information
B Fixed red or preferably orange.
C A NOTAM
C Fixed red or preferably blue.
D An En-Route Meteo Report
D Flashing blue.
406) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller

significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean
head-wind component significant change is :
A 10 KT
B 5 KT
C 8 KT
D 4 KT
405) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft 489) Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information
departed from the same aerodrome and following the shall be updated
same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding A as prescribed by the meteorological office
aircraft, is:
B as prescribed by the state
A 5 minutes.
C immediately a significant change occurs
B 10 minutes.
D at least every half an hour independently of any significant
C 8 minutes. change
D 3 minutes.
482) Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled
airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
404) A strayed aircraft is :
A When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
A an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been B only in airspace class A
established
B An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended C if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
track or which reports that it is lost
D Above the transition altitude when applicable
C only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended
track
495) The identification of each prohibited, restricted and
D only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
danger area shall be composed by :
A The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous)

403) When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, followed by figures
and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number
equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV B The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the
distance based separation minimum may be used on state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures
the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes
longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is : C The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous)
for the area concerned and figures
A 80 NM
D The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to
the state, followed by P, R and D
B 100 NM
C 70 NM
494) Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in
respect to terrain clearance?
D 60 NM
A The ATC.
411) You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. B The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the
The published holding procedure is: all turns to the flight plan.
right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. C The pilot in command.
Select the available entry procedure.
D The aircraft operator.
A Either "off set" or "parallel".
B Off set.
493) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above
10 000 feet MSL are :
C Parallel.
A 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from
D Direct. clouds; 8 km visibility
B clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
C 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 km

visibility
D 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 8

km visibility
492) One minute separation may be used between departing 488) If radio communication is established during an
aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: interception but communications in a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
A 25° immediately after take-off. the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing ?
B 45° immediately after take-off.
A Descend for landing
C 30° immediately after take-off.
B Descend
D 15° immediately after take-off.
C Let down
D You land
497) The longitudinal separation minima based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true 487) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall
airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding immediately attempt to establish radio communication
aircraft, is: with the intercepting aircraft on the following
frequencies:
A 15 minutes.
A 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
B 5 minutes.
B 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
C 3 minutes.
C 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
D 10 minutes.
D 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
490) Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in

the final approach segment to ensure the required 486) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped
minimum obstacle clearance, is : with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed
by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following
A 8%. code on mode "A"
B 6,5%. A 7 500
C 5%. B 7 600
D 7%. C 7 000
D 7 700
498) When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in
command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination 485) Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance. A A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a 1000 feet above the earth.
VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight B A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified
plan. limit above the earth.
The correct combination of statements is:
C A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of
A 1 and 3 900 feet above the earth.
D A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of

B 1 and 4 the earth to a specified limit.
C 2 and 4
D 2 and 3
484) When mixing or contact does take place between 512) Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
passengers subjected to security control and other
persons not subjected to such control after the security
screening points at airports serving international civil A Fixed red.
aviation have been passed
B Flashing red.
A the persons not subjected to security control shall be
identified C Flashing yellow.
B the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be D Fixed orange.
re screened before boarding an aircraft
C only the passengers are to be re screened

511) When independent parallel approaches are being
D only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept
the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the
vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be
established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final
448) The ASHTAM provides information on the status of approach track in level flight for :
activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or
is expected to be of operational significance. This A at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
information is provided using the volcano level of specified MLS elevation angle
colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or
volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash B at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to specified MLS elevation angle
rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
C at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
A ORANGE specified MLS elevation angle
B RED D at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or

specified MLS elevation angle
C YELLOW
D GREEN 510) An airline is planning a flight that will require a

Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom
of the Air will be exercised ?
491) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of A 1st freedom
cargo and other articles on international flights is :
B 3rd freedom
A annex 15
B annex 16
C 4th freedom
D 2nd freedom
C annex 9
D annex 8
509) Type ratings shall be established
505) The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a A only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew
flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off of at least two pilots
weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
B only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum
A 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters. crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
B 7 000 kg. C all the answers are correct
D for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by

C 14 000 kg.
the authority
D 20 000 kg.
508) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar 503) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)
indicates that : establishes;
A gliderflying is performed outside the landing area; A aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
B landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or B proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18
taxiway only; annexes.
C this aerodrome is using parallel runways C standards and recommended practices applied without
exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
D taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
D standards and recommended international practices for
contracting member states.
496) In which section of AIP are contained information

elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations
on refuelling services?
The ground - air visual code illustrated means :
A AD.
A Require assistance
B FAL.
B Please indicate direction
C GEN.
C Proceding in the direction shown
D SAR.
D Require medical assistance
506) A "precision approach" is a direct instrument

501) The duration of the period of currency of a medical
approach...
assessment shall begin on the date :
A using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing
A the licence is delivered to the pilot
the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a
height below 200 ft.
B the medical assessment is issued
B carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a
specific working method. C the licence is issued or validated
C using bearing, elevation and distance information. D the licence is issued or renewed
D using at least one source of bearing information and one

source of elevation or distance information.
500) The separation method whereby the vertical and
horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of
half the standard criteria is called :
481) Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting
aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the A Composite separation
intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ?
A Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

B Combined separation
B Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. C Reduced separation
D Essential separation
C Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without
crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
D Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. 499) "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:
A Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

504) On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring
area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
B Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
A all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me"
vehicle C Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
B aircraft taking off or about to take off D Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a
specific height.
C other vehicles and pedestrians
D other converging aircraft
507) Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, 461) In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in
should be: which alignment and descent for landing are made is
called:
A Flashing white.
A Initial approach segment.
B Fixed green.
B Intermediate approach segment.
C Flashing green.
C Arrival segment.
D Fixed white.
D Final approach segment.
457) The applicant to exercise the functions of an

Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall 460) The "PAPI" shall consist of:
prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING,
his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by
instrumental rules and an engine _________. A A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
A Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. B A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units
equally spaced.
B Single-engine/inactive.
C Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired
units equally spaced.
C Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
D Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired
D Land/inactive. units equally spaced.
483) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of 465) In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
persons and their baggage in international flights is :
A annex 6
A maximum bank angle of 25°.
B annex 15
B rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever
requires the lesser bank.
C annex 9 C rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever

requires the lesser bank.
D annex 8
D rate of 3°per second.
463) A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued

at the AFTN at intervals of : 458) Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be
published in accordance with :
A Not more than 28 days
A AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed
B Not more than 10 days by a number
C Not more than one month

B AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
D No more than 15 days C NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM

followed by a number
D AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifical

462) Which of the following statements regarding Alerting
service is correct?
A The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known

or believed th be the subject of unlawful interference
B Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be

the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about
this;
C Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often

provided by the same ATS unit
D The Alert phase is established when no communication has

been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty
minutes after the time a communication should have been
received;
466) Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent 453) Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall,
or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft
concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will
some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and be entitled to compensation as provided by :
stores list. The numbers of the copies are :
A the Montreal Convention
A 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and
one copie of a simple stores list. B the Rome Convention
B 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and

of a stores list C the Chicago Convention
C 2 of each D the Warsaw Convention
D 3 of each
452) When letters are used for registration mark
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example
456) According to international agreements wind direction
shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in
degrees magnetic : A TTT
A When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West. B FFF
B In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° C RCC
south.
D LLL
C When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch
office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
D Before landing and take-off 451) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a
continuing structural integrity program to ensure the
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
information concerning corrosion prevention and
455) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in control, in respect of aeroplanes :
final approach, is following a normal glide path defined
by a PAPI? A over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
A 1. B over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
B 2. C up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
C 3. D up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing

mass
D None.
459) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding

454) A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside
flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified controlled airspace?
as:
A 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
A B and C. course
B B, C and D.
B 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
C B, C, D and E. C 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
D B.
D 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
the estimated position of the aircraft
473) High intensity obstacle lights should be: 477) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
A Flashing white. and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-
wind component significant change is :
B Flashing red.
A 3 KT
C Fixed red.
B 2 KT
D Fixed orange.
C 4 KT
480) In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values D 5 KT

are based among other standard conditions, on a
vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels
and glide path antenna, not greater than: 476) In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a
flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be
A 9m. amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one
cancelled, when:
B 12m.
A The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-
C 6m. blocks.
D 3m. B The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-
blocks.
C The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of

479) The first freedom of the air is: departure.
D The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off

A The right to board passengers from the state where the departure.
aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
B The right to overfly without landing.

464) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
C The right to land for a technical stop.
A Arrival, intermediate and final.
D The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with
passengers on board B Initial and final.
between two states.
C Initial, intermediate and final.
478) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in D Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
command of an aircraft:
A The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC

concerned. 474) The longitudinal separation minima based on distance
using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME
B He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended stations, is:
clearance.
A 10 NM.
C He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned
has to accept the pilot request. B 5 NM.
D The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has

C 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of
been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
D 20 NM.
384) In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid 469) The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a
passport and no visa is required of him, contracting distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as
states determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the
accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be
A none of the answers are applicable continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the
touchdown. In this case distance and level information
B shall not require him to obtain any other identity document shall be given at each
from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
A half NM
C may require him to obtain any other identity document prior
to the commencement of his flight B 1 NM
D in certain cases any other identity may be required C 1.5 NM
D half mile
472) If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be
followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is
expected:
468) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
A To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
A Good
B To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the
track. B Medium/poor
C To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind

C Medium
correction.
D To correct for known wind to remain within the protected D Poor

airspace.
467) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned

471) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) information indicated that it is within:
AMSL, is :
A +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
A 250 KT TAS
B +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
B Not applicable
C +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
C 240 KT IAS
D +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
D 250 KT IAS
475) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and

470) The convention which deals with offences againts penal arrival information should include cloud cover, when the
law, is clouds are :
A the convention of Rome A below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
B the convention of Madrid
B below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
C the convention of Tokyo
C cumulonimbus
D the convention of Warsaw
D below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum
sector altitude, whichever is the greater
296) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type 299) In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing
rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of bar?
three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
aeroplane has : A 4.
A Handling characteristics that require the use of more than B 5.

one crew member
B A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. C 3.
D 2.
C A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
D Handling characteristics that require additional flying or

simulator training 304) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced
threshold shall be:
289) The assigment of the common mark to a common mark

A Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
registering authority will be made by :
B Flashing white.
A the International Civil Aviation Organisation
C Fixed lights showing variable white.
B the state of registry and accepted by the International
Telecommunication Union D Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
C the International Telecommunication Union

297) Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS
D the state of registry authority, a radar controller may request radar-
controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when
established on intermediate and final approach. This
302) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after speed adjustment should not be more than:
completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft
into position for landing on runway which is not suitably A +/- 8 kt.
located for straight-in approach, is:
B +/- 20 kt.
A Contact approach.
C +/- 10 kt.
B Aerodrome traffic pattern.
D +/- 15 kt.
C Visual manoeuvring (circling).
D Visual approach. 305) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach

segment begins at the:
301) The MSA, which must be established around a A IF.

navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
B FAP.
A 15 NM
C FAF.
B 30 NM
D MAP.
C 25 NM
D 10 NM 295) Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate

locally within a control zone when the ground visibility
is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is
300) In which section of AIP are contained information not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within
elements relating to prohibited, restricted and class :
dangerous areas?
A D and E airspaces
A AGA.
B D airspace
B ENR.
C C, D and E airspaces
C MAP.
D E airspace
D GEN.
294) When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the 298) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you
pilot shall operate the transponder: experience a two-way radio communication failure. You
will :
A Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes. A Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC
and inform ATC ;
B Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
B Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to
C Only when directed by ATC. destination ;
D At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is C Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS
purposes. D Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
293) Temporary changes on specifications for AIP 312) The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be
supplements of long duration and information of short below:
duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics
shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered A 2500 ft.
a long duration.
B 1500 ft.
A Three months or longer
C 1000 ft.
B Six months or longer
D 3000 ft.
C One year or longer
D Two months or longer

319) Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the
state of occurrence for participation, the state of design
and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an
292) In which section of AIP are contained information accident or serious incident inform the state of
elements relating to areas and/or routes for which occurence of the name of its representative to be
meteorological service is provided? present at the investigation when the aircraft :
A RAC. A Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
B COM. B Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
C MET. C Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
D GEN. D Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
291) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by 318) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
the following signals:
A Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from A develop principles and techniqe for international aviation
extended position inwards.
B approve the ticket prices set by international airline
B Crossing arms extended above his head companies
C Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms C approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft
toward ground
D approve new international airlines
D Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in
front of body , then clench fist
386) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of

the aligment of the runway centre line within:
A 45°.
B 12.5°.
C 15°.
D 30°.
317) "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to 288) The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a
expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. combination of letters and numbers and shall be that
This will be obtained requesting aircraft: assigned by :
A To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified A the state of registry or common mark registering authority
time.
B the state of registry only
B To pass a specified point.
C the International Civil Aviation Organisation
C To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the
approach sequence.
D the Internationnal Telecommunication Union
D To maintain a specified speed during the approach
procedure.
311) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by
the following signals:
316) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal
area means: A Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers
extended then clenching fist.
A Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
B Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from
extended position inwards.
B The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider
flights are being performed.
C Crossing arms extended above his head.
C An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
D Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward
ground.
D Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of
the taxiways.
310) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until

aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer
315) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum
number shall be supplemented:
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted :
A By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and
the central has no letter.
A 100 m (330 ft)
B By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for
3 "L", "C" and "R". B 300 m (1000 ft)
C By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways. C 200 m (660 ft)
D By a letter for 2 parallel runways. D 150 m (500 ft)
303) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to 309) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
FL 140? to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land
has been received from the non-radar controller by the
A 2 minutes time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
B 1,5 minutes A 4 NM from the touchdown
C 30 secondes B 5 NM from the touchdown
D 1 minute C 1.5 NM from the touchdown
D 2 NM from the touchdown

313) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final
approach may be requested to make minor speed
adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be 308) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class
more than : ratings are valid for :
A 15 knots at any stage A One year
B 25 knots at any stage B Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
C 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold C Five years after licence issuie.
D 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold D Two years
307) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) 270) Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate
was established by the international convention of : authority within its administration to be responsible for
the development, implementation and maintenance of
A Chicago the national civil aviation security programme. The said
appropriate authority :
B The Hague
A Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
C Warsaw
B Shall be specified to ICAO
D Montreal
C Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
D Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting

306) Where does the initial approach segment in an states
instrument approach procedure commence?
A At the FAF.
269) The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and
each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
B At the final en-route fix.
A 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
C At the IAF. airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
D At the IF. B 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true

airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
314) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as

C 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
possible, in case the expected delay is :
D 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
A 20 minutes airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
B 5 minutes or more.
268) The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
C 15 minutes or more
D 10 minutes A Precision Approach Power Indicator.
B Precision Approach Power Index.
264) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot

licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, C Precision Approach Path Indicator.
shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight
time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories D Precision Approach Path Index.
acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours,
are respectively 267) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the
flight commences in accordance with VFR and
A 50 hours and 10 hours subsequently changes to IFR?
B 40 hours and 10 hours A I
C 40 hours and 15 hours B V
D 50 hours and 15 hours C Y
D Z
290) An integrated aeronautical information package consists
of the following elements
A AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP;

NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC;
checklists and summuries
B AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP,

NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
C AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and

checklist summaries
D AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP;

NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
272) Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR 262) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: the initial approach segment in an instrument approach
procedure?
A At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the facility. A At least 300m (984 ft).
B At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from B 150m (492 ft).

the facility.
C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from C 300m (984 ft).

the facility.
D At least 150m (492 ft).
the facility.
261) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
265) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the A 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
intermediate phase of this missed approach is : including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
A 120 m (384 ft)
B 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
B 30 m (98 ft) including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
C 50 m (164 ft)
C 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
D 90 m (295 ft) (300NM)
D 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command

273) What is meant when departure control instruct you to including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
"resume own navigation" after you have been vectored (300NM)
to an airway?
A Radar Service is terminated. 260) ATIS broadcast
B Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

A Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
B Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
D You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation

C shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
equipment.
D Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a
discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR
263) Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently
on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously
damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the
departure. 259) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft
is not visible on the radar display for any significant
A This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform
interval during the :
the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
B This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it A Last 3 NM of the approach
to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
B Last 5 NM of the approach
C This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure
relevant to this case. C Last 2 NM of the approach
D Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is D Last 4 NM of the approach
over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to
the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of
the runway and taxiways.
513) The person who has final authority as to the disposition 286) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
of an aircraft during flight time is: parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone
(NTZ) of at least :
A The aircraft owner
A 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines
B The airliner operator and as is depicted on the radar display
B 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines

C The commander
and as is depicted on the radar display
D The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled C 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines
airspace and as is depicted on the radar display
D 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines

266) Select the acronym corresponding to the following and as is depicted on the radar display
definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means
of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft
operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption 285) The system notifying in advance the circumstances
or a volcanic ash cloud. requiring important changes in the methods of
operation, based on common effective dates, is
A NAVTAM identified by the acronym:
B VULTAM A NOTAM
C ASHTAM B EATCHIP
D GVATAM C AIRAC
D IFPS
280) To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /
284) When letters are used for the registration mark

A two way radiocommunication is not required.
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the
B a clearance is required.
A three letters combinations used in the international code of
C a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required. signals
D a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required. B letters used for ICAO identification documents
C five letter combinations used in the international code of

signals
287) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome
control service is correct?
D four letter combinations beginning with Q
A ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a
vehicule
283) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and
B An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the
ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ; responsability of
C The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the A the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the
movement area; B both air traffic services and the meteorological office
D Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the
aerodrome controller; C the unit as prescribed the states
D the air traffic services
271) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than 277) You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence
air aircraft shall be expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
A at least 60 centimetres A After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
B at least 75 centimetres B If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
C at least 50 centimetres C Do not take off before 0920
D at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres D The take off clearence is expected at 0920
281) The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : 276) Which of the following is NOT an international distress
frequency ?
A are accepted at the contracting state discretion A 2.182 KHz
B are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink B 2430 KHz
C has to be typewritten
C 121.5 MHz
D has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data D 243.0 MHz

processing techniques
322) A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial 275) According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the
approach between the end of the outbound track and "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track
is a: A 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
A Procedure turn B 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
B Reversal procedure C 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
C Race track D 36 m up to but not including 52 m.
D Base turn
274) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above
3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :
containers and packages containing survival equipment A 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
should take the form of coloured streamers according to distance from clouds ;
the following code:
B 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
distance from clouds ;
A Black for food and water.
B Red for miscellaneous equipment.

C No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
D 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;

C Blue for food and water.
D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

282) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer
course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to
enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an
278) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have angle not greater than:
completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 20 degrees.
A 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time B 30 degrees.
B 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. C 25 degrees.
C 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more D 15 degrees.

than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
D 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours

as pilot in command
361) At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal 365) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by
requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
ground signals, the pilot must :
A 500 feet (150 m).
A make at least one complete turn over the group of people in
difficulty. B 4000 feet (1200 m).
B transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R"

using his C 2000 feet (600 m).
navigational lights.
D 1000 feet (300 m).
C fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
D switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so 364) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the
equipped, his navigation lights twice. Chicago convention are to be considered:
A binding for all air line companies with international traffic

320) In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path
intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation B binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO
from: about a national difference
A 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). C advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the
member states
B 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D binding for all member states
C 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). 369) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
A If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the

367) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence next 60 minutes
aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up B Only when leaving controlled airspace
by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the
additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the C If the commander so requests
supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and
functions of a pilot in command provided that the D If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during
method of supervision employed is acceptable to the the next 30 minutes
licensing authority. The stated above hours are
respectively :
A 200 hours and 100 hours 362) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio
communication failure?
B 150 hours and 75 hours
A Mode A code 7500.
C 250 hours and 100 hours

B Mode B code 7600.
D 200 hours and 75 hours
C Mode A code 7700.
D Mode A code 7600.

366) When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft
shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
A the state of registry, the state of design and the state of 370) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are
manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air
traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight
B the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that information service if requested, is classified
the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is
still airworthy A Airspace G
C the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the B Airspace E
state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
D C Airspace D
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is
of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
D Airspace F
360) Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received 356) Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is
from the non-radar controller should normally be suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR
passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of : Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the
radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
A 4 NM from touchdown
A Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and
B 5 NM from touchdown thereafter to code 7500
B Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby

C 2 NM from touchdown
and thereafter to code 7700
D 3 NM from touchdown C Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby
and thereafter to code 7500
359) The loading limitations shall include :

D Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and
thereafter to code 7700
A all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass

distributions and floor loadings 355) In general, which is the main factor that dictates the
design of an instrument departure procedure?
B all limiting mass and centres of gravity
A Navigation aids.
C all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
B Airspace restrictions.
D all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor
loadings
C The terrain surrounding the airport.
D ATC requirements.
358) Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by
DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed
that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the
shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible 363) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an
for one aircraft to climb or descend instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will
make an initial climbing turn towards the:
A 20 NM
A Landing runway.
B 10 NM
B MAP.
C 12 NM
C FAF.
D 15 NM
D Final missed approach track.
357) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued

to the threshold of the runway transmission should not 377) Flight information service provided to flights shall
be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds include the provision of information concerning
while the aircraft is within a distance of : collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace
classes:
A 1.5 NM from the touchdown
A F and G
B 4 NM from the touchdown
B C to G (inclusive)
C 2 NM from the touchdown
C A to G (inclusive)
D 3 NM from the touchdown
D A to E (inclusive)

convention contains minimum specifications for a crew
licence to have international validity?
A Annex 3
B Annex 4
C Annex 1
D Annex 2
383) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and 378) Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB
Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
adoption ?
A At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
A the Council from the facility.
B the Regional Air Navigation meeting B At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
C the Air Navigation Commission
C At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
D the Assembly
the facility.
382) Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
352) Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a

A Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when
ceiling is less than :
B Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
A 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
C Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
B 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
D Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
C 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
381) The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall D 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard
setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
376) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent
A Transition level. structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier
than air aircraft shall be
B The level specified by ATC.
A at least 20 centimetres
C Transition altitude.
B at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
D Transition layer.
C at least 30 centimetres
380) An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL D at least 40 centimetres
and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under
VFR, must remain on principle at least:
375) An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which
A 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an
visibility. aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the
form of an "X".
B 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km This indicates :
visibility.
A "Need mechanical assistance".
C 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km
visibility.
B "Need medical assistance".
D Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
C "Landing impossible".
368) Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may

D "All occupants alive".
be considered controlled?
A The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone. 374) Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago
convention for the initation of an accident investigation?
B The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
A Operators of the same aircraft type
C The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR)
and provided with a Control Tower. B The aircraft manufacturer
D The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower. C The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the
aircraft is registered
D The government of the state in which the accident took place
373) Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is 335) The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever
done: practicable, not exceed
A at transition level during climb and transition altitude during A 3 minutes

descent.
B 30 seconds
B only at transition altitude.
C 1 minute
C only at transition level.
D 2 minutes
D at transition altitude during climb and transition level during
descent.
334) What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot

should be requested to make when under radar control
and established on intermediate and final approach ?
convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
A ± 15 KT
A Annex 14
B ± 10KT
B Annex 6
C ± 25 KT
C Annex 17
D ± 20KT
D Annex 11
333) According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and

multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date :
371) When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi
holding positions have not been established, aircraft
shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than: A Of the last medical certificate
A 50 metres. B Of issue
B 30 metres. C Of the skill test
C 45 metres. D The application is received by the Authority.
D 60 metres.
332) The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
379) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or A To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
believed in emergency are:
B To assist aircraft on the location storms.
A uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
B uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

C To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
D To provide radar separation.

C uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency
phase.
D uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. 331) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority, the radar controller should notify the non-
radar controller when an aircraft making a radar
approach is approximately:
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to
the symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
A 5 NM.
A 4 B 6 NM.
B 1 C 8 NM.
C 2 D 10 NM.
D 3
354) The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU 325) Runway end lights shall be:
(flow control centre):
A depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international A Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the
flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights). runway.
B is 10 minutes. B Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of

the runway.
C is 5 minutes.
C Fixed lights showing variable red.
D is 15 minutes. D Fixed lights showing variable white.
329) When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to 324) The second freedom of the air is the :
the operator for transport away from the territory of the
state, the operator :
A right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
A and the state of the operator are both responsible for the
person inadmissible B right to operate a commercial passenger flight with
passengers on board between two states.
B shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any
transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility C right to land for a technical stop
C shall not recover from such person any transportation costs

D right to overfly without landing
arising from his (her) inadmissibility
D is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the

receiving state 323) Member states should introduce specific security
measures for the air transport of the following groups of
potentially disruptive passengers defined below :
338) During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the
pilot should contact departure control: A Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
A Before penetrating the clouds. B Deportees and inadmissible persons only
B When clear of the airport and established on the first C None of the answers is correct
heading given in the clearance.
D Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful
C After take-off. custody
D When advised by Tower.

385) Which one of the statements is correct :
327) ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted,
all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
A contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of
baggage only from passengers
separated from each other is classified as:
A Class D.
B contracting states may not accept oral declaration of
baggages
B Class E. C contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of

baggage from passengers and crew
C Class B.
D contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of
D Class A. baggage only from crew
330) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach

326) In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a
minimum climb gradient of:
A Aeredrome reference point.
A 5%
B Relevant runway threshold.
B 3.3%
C Aerodrome elevation.
C 2.5%
D Mean sea level.
D 2%
344) Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) 349) Aerodrome traffic is:
:
A its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in A All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
flight or on the ground.
B All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of
B it can only supply limited services to the users and under no an aerodrome.
circumstances may it supply ATC services.
C All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
C its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state
organisation. D All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
of an aerodrome.
D it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC
organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
348) The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of
April. The validity of the previous profeciency check
321) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency
CORRECT? check can be and can't exceed:
A Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; A 31th of December the same year
ATC Clearance : required ;
B 15th of October the same year
B Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC
Clearance : not required
C 30th of October the same year
C Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical;
ATC Clearance : not required ; D 30th of April the following year
D Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC

Clearance : required ;
347) The tolerance value used to determine that mode C
derived level information displayed to the controller is
accurate shall be:
351) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above
10 000 feet MSL are : A +/- 500 ft.
A 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 B +/- 300 ft.
km visibility
B 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from C +/- 200 ft.
clouds; 5 km visibility
D +/- 250 ft.
C 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from
clouds; 8 km visibility
D 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 336) In certain circumstances a medical examination may be
deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority,
km visibility.
provided that such deferment shall only be made as an
exception and shall not exceed :
350) Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : A A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew
member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial
A on the initiative of the aircraft commander operations.
B Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case

B at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non
commercial operations
C as instructed by an air traffic control unit
C A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew
D when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
D in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
345) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A 341) If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg
descend below the MDA should not be made until : of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight A Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use,
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintaining circling alitude
maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained B Initiate a missed approach
and a landing can be made
C Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is : conctact
A 1, 3. D If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact
B 1, 2, 3.
340) During flight through the transition layer the vertical
C 1, 2. position of the aircraft should be expressed as
D 2, 3. A altitude above mean sea level during climb
B flight level during descent

337) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light
or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a C either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier climb
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the
lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway D altitude above mean sea level during descent
for take off, this minimum is :
A 2 minutes
permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
B 5 minutes service and are separated from each other is classified
as
C 3 minutes
A Airspace B
D 1 minute
B Airspace C
343) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller C Airspace D

advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume
own navigation". This phrase means that: D Airspace E
A You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

353) Which statement is correct ?
B You are to assume responsability for your own navigation. During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace
(Classe C):
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
A ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
D Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable
for position reports. B ATC will apply separation with other traffic
C the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;

342) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory
airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory D ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic
service:
A need to file a flight plan

346) An air traffic control unit :
B may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
A may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when
C Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call
made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service. signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
D Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made B must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
thereto are not necessary to be notified.
C may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after
accepting the flight plan.
D may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for

safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between
two or more similar call signs.

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Professione Volare Domande Air Law and ATC

D The approach must be passing the FAF

161) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives

D Only the aircraft wing span.

184) At what moment during the approach should the

D +/- 200 ft.

190) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its

189) "Cabotage" refers to:

192) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be

D At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

A 10 minutes B the Rome Convention

B 2 minutes C the Warsaw Convention

C 5 minutes D the Paris Convention

D At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.

182) A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

A the first part of the segment ;

C A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal

181) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

D boarding after to all other passengers

180) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it

A 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

B 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

C 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

D 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

B 2 NM from touchdown. B cargo and is covered by a traffic document

178) The transition level:

A the convention of Tokyo

B to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in

C ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international

B information signs; yellow or black background with black or

C mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black

D information signs; orange background with black

B Read back the mode and code to be set.

145) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft

A 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

C Annex 11 D 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

A 5% B all mentioned answers are correct

155) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an

A 3 minutes. B continue flight onto destination, complying with last received

A as flight level. A 3 km.

D According to pilot's choice. D 5 km.

C When the aircraft has the control tower in sight C 35 ft.

193) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be

A 60 NM or more B by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

C 50 NM or more D by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

A 450 m from threshold

D red 232) In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

Which of the following combinations contains all of the

D 1-4 within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR

A medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes C FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.

C light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

A Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

C Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or

A 7700. D Aeronautical part

C 1 800 m and over.

C at least 1 hour in advance of arrival

B Provided with air traffic control services, only. A one year

C Known to the relevant air traffic services units. B two years

229) During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight