TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019

(Held On Saturday 12th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 09 : 30 AM To 12 : 30 PM

PHYSICS
1. Two light identical springs of spring constant 2. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a
k are attached horizontally at the two ends of cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer
a uniform horizontal rod AB of length l and radius 2R. The thermal conductivity of the
mass m. The rod is pivoted at its centre 'O' and material of the inner cylinder is K1 and that of
can rotate freely in horizontal plane. The other the outer cylinder is K2. Assuming no loss of
ends of the two springs are fixed to rigid heat, the effective thermal conductivity of the
supports as shown in figure. The rod is gently system for heat flowing along the length of the
pushed through a small angle and released. The cylinder is:
frequency of resulting oscillation is: K1 + K 2
(1) K1 + K2 (2)
1 6k A 2
(1) 2K1 + 3K 2 K1 + 3K 2
2p m y
(3) (4)
1 2k 5 4
O
(2) x Ans. (4)
2p m
1 k B
(3)
2p m
1 3k
(4)
2p m
Ans. (1) Sol.

l
x=
2

K1A1 + K 2 A 2
q K eq =
A1 + A 2

=
( )
K1 pR 2 + K 2 3pR 2 ( )
4pR 2
q
K1 + 3K 2
=
Sol. Kx 4
3. A travelling harmonic wave is represented by
l the equation y (x, t) = 10–3 sin (50 t + 2x), where
t = -2Kx cos q x and y are in meter and t is in seconds. Which
2
of the following is a correct statement about the
æ Kl 2 ö wave?
Þ t = ç 2 ÷ q = -Cq The wave is propagating along the
è ø
(1) negative x-axis with speed 25ms–1
Kl 2 (2) The wave is propagating along the positive
1 C 1 2
f= = x-axis with speed 25 ms–1
Þ 2p I 2p Ml 2 (3) The wave is propagating along the positive
12 x-axis with speed 100 ms–1
(4) The wave is propagating along the negative
1 6K
Þ f= x-axis with speed 100 ms–1
2p M Ans. (1)

1
Sol. y= a sin(wt + kx) (1) 10 V/m (2) 24 V/m
Þ wave is moving along –ve x-axis with speed (3) 30 V/m (4) 6 V/m
Ans. (2)
w 50
n= Þn= = 25m / sec.
K 2 96
Sol. Prefracted = PI
4. A straight rod of length L extends from x = a 100
to x=L + a. The gravitational force is exerted
96
Þ K 2A t =
2
on a point mass 'm' at x = 0, if the mass per K1A 2i
100
unit length of the rod is A + Bx2, is given
by: 96
Þ r2 A t =
2
r1A i2
(1) Gm éê A æç 1 - 1 ö÷ - BL ùú 100
ë èa+L aø û
96 1
´ ´ ( 30 )
2
é 1 ù Þ A 2t =
(2) Gm ê A æç -
1 ö 100 3
÷ + BL ú
ë èa a+Lø û 2

é æ 1 1ö ù 64
- ÷ + BL ú ´ ( 30 ) = 24
2
(3) Gm ê A ç At
ë è a + L a ø û 100
6. The output of the given logic circuit is :
é æ1 1 ö ù
(4) Gm ê A ç - ÷ - BL ú
ë èa a+Lø û A

Ans. (2)
Y

Sol.
(1) AB
(2) AB
dm= (A + Bx )dx2
(3) AB + AB
GMdm
dF = (4) AB + AB
x2
Ans. (2)
a + L GM
= F = òa
x
(2 )
A + Bx 2 dx
A
A

a+ L A+ B A + B =A + B
é A ù
= GM ê- + Bx ú Sol.
Y = (A + B)A
ë x ûa A+B A+ B A
B
é æ1 1 ö ù B
= GM ê A ç - ÷ + BL ú
ë èa a+Lø û Y = (A + B) A
5. A light wave is incident normally on a glass slab
of refractive index 1.5. If 4% of light gets = A + AB
reflected and the amplitude of the electric field
of the incident light is 30V/m, then the ( )
= A AB
amplitude of the electric field for the wave
propogating in the glass medium will be: = A ( A + B)

= A + AB = AB

2
7. In the figure shown, after the switch 'S' is turned
r2 µ n
from position 'A' to position 'B', the energy
dissipated in the circuit in terms of capacitance 1 2 1
E= kr + mv 2 µ r 2
'C' and total charge 'Q' is: 2 2
A B µn
9. Two electric bulbs, rated at (25 W, 220 V) and
S
(100 W, 220 V), are connected in series across
C 3C a 220 V voltage source. If the 25 W and
100 W bulbs draw powers P 1 and P 2
respectively, then:
3 Q2 3 Q2 1 Q2 5 Q2 (1) P1 = 9 W, P2 = 16 W
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 C 4 C 8 C 8 C (2) P1 = 4 W, P2 = 16W
Ans. (1) (3) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 4W
(4) P1 16 W, P2 = 9W
1 Ans. (3)
Sol. Vi = CE2
2 220 2
Sol. R1 =
25
( CE )
2
1 CE 2
Vf = =
2 ´ 4c 2 4 220 2
R2 =
100
1 3 3
DE = CE 2 ´ = CE 2 220
2 4 8 L=
R1 + R 2
8. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit
P 1 = i2 R 1
1 2 P2 = i2 (R2 = 4W)
in a central potential field U(r) = kr . If Bohr's
2
quantization conditions are applied, radii of 220 2 220 2
= ´
possible orbitals and energy levels vary with æ 220 2 220 2 ö 25
ç + ÷
quantum number n as: è 25 100 ø
1 1
(1) rn µ n2 , En µ (2) rn µ n,E n µ 400
n2 n = = 16W
25
(3) rn µ n, En µ n (4) rn µ n , En µ n
10. A satellite of mass M is in a circular orbit of
Ans. (4)
radius R about the centre of the earth. A
dV mv 2 meteorite of the same mass, falling towards the
Sol. F= = kr =
dr r earth, collides with the satellite completely
inelastically. The speeds of the satellite and the
nh meteorite are the same, just before the collision.
mvr =
2p The subsequent motion of the combined body
will be :
r2 µ n

3
 (1) in a circular orbit of a different radius
13. An ideal gas occupies a volume of 2m 3 at a
(2) in the same circular orbit of radius R
pressure of 3 × 106 Pa. The energy of the gas
(3) in an elliptical orbit
is:
(4) such that it escapes to infinity
(1) 3 × 102 (2) 108 J
Ans. (3)
(3) 6 × 104 J (4) 9 × 106 J
Sol. mnˆi + mnˆj Ans. (4)
r
= 2mn1
1 f
Sol. Energy = nRT = PV
r 1 GM 2 2
n= ´
2 R
f
11. Let the moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder =
2
( )
3 ´ 10 6 ( 2 )
of length 30 cm (inner radius 10 cm and outer
= f × 3 × 106
radius 20 cm), about its axis be I. The radius
of a thin cylinder of the same mass such that Considering gas is monoatomic i.e. f = 3
its moment of inertia about its axis is also I, is: E. = 9 × 106 J
(1) 12 cm (2) 18 cm (3) 16 cm (4) 14 cm Option-(4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.

m
( 20 2
+102 )
= mk 2
14. A 100 V carrier wave is made to vary between
160 V and 40 V by a modulating signal. What
2
is the modulation index?
400 +100 (1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.4
K=
2 Ans. (1)
Sol. Em + Ec = 160 E 60
K = 250 m= m =
Em + 100 = 160 E C 100
m = 0.6
Em = 60
 K = 5 10 cm
15. The galvanometer deflection, when key K1 is
closed but K2 is open, equals q0 (see figure).
12. A passenger train of length 60m travels at a On closing K2 also and adjusting R2 to 5W, the
speed of 80 km/hr. Another freight train of q0
length 120 m travels at a speed of 30 km/hr. deflection in galvanometer becomes . The
5
The ratio of times taken by the passenger train
resistance of the galvanometer is, then, given
to completely cross the freight train when : (i)
by [Neglect the internal resistance of battery]:
they are moving in the same direction, and (ii)
in the opposite directions is :
K2 R2
5 25 3 11 R1=220W
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 11 2 5
Ans. (4) x x G
t1 = = ___ (here total length
Sol. v − u 50 of two trains is x)
x x
t2 = = K1
v + u 110
t1 11 (1) 12W (2) 25W (3) 5W (4) 22W
= __ Ans. (4)
t2 5
4
 AB = Vp × t
E
Sol. case I ig = = C q0 ..(i) BC = Vt
220 + R g

Case II AB
cos60° =
BC
æ ö
ç ÷ 1 Vp ´ t
E 5 Cq0 =
ig = ç ÷´ = 2 Vt
ç 5R g ÷ ( R g + 5) 5 ..(ii)
çç 220 + ÷÷
è 5 + Rg ø V
VP =
2

5E C q0 17. A proton and an a-particle (with their masses

Þ 225R + 1100 = 5 ..(ii) in the ratio of 1:4 and charges in the ratio of
g
1:2) are accelerated from rest through a
E potential difference V. If a uniform magnetic
= Cq ...(i) field (B) is set up perpendicular to their
220 + R g
velocities, the ratio of the radii rp : ra of the
circular paths described by them will be :
225R g + 1100
Þ =5 (1) 1: 2 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1: 3
1100 + 5R g
Ans. (1)
Þ 5500 + 25R g = 225Rg + 1100
Sol. KE = qDV
200Rg = 4400
Rg = 22W 2mqDV
r=
Ans. – 4 qB
16. A person standing on an open ground hears the
sound of a jet aeroplane, coming from north at m
rµ
an angle 60° with ground level. But he finds q
the aeroplane right vertically above his position.
If u is the speed of sound, speed of the plane rp 1
=
is : rµ 2

2u 18. A point source of light, S is placed at a

(1) (2) u distance L in front of the centre of plane mirror
3
of width d which is hanging vertically on a wall.
u 3 A man walks in front of the mirror along a line
(3) (4) u
2 2 parallel to the mirror, at a distance 2L as shown
Ans. (3) below. The distance over which the man can
see the image of the light source in the mirror
Sol. is :
B VP A
60°

V
d ·S

L
2L
C

5
 d
(1) 3d (2)
2
(3) d (4) 2d
Ans. (1)
Sol.

Sol. 3d
I S 2 Before colision After collision
L vm
L L 3d v1 M
m
2
v = 2gl (1 - cos q0 ) v1 = 2gl (1 - cos q1 )

By momentum conservation

3d m 2gl (1 - cos q0 ) = MVm - m 2gl (1 - cos q

19. The least count of the main scale of a screw
gauge is 1 mm. The minimum number of Þ m 2gl { }
1 - cos q0 + 1 - cos q1 = MVm
divisions on its circular scale required to
measure 5mm diameter of wire is : Vm + 2gl (1 - cos q1 )
and e = 1 =
(1) 50 (2) 100 2gl (1 - cos q0 )
(3) 200 (4) 500
Ans. (3)
2gl ( )
1 - cos q0 - 1 - cos q1 = Vm ..(I)
Pitch
Sol. Least count =
Number of division on circular scale m 2gl ( )
1 - cos q0 + 1 - cos q1 = MVM ..(II)
10 -3 Dividing
5 ´ 10 –6 =
N
N = 200 ( 1 - cos q0 + 1 - cos q1 )= M
20. A simple pendulum, made of a string of length ( 1 - cos q0 - 1 - cos q ) m
1
l and a bob of mass m, is released from a small
angle q0. It strikes a block of mass M, kept on By componendo divided
a horizontal surface at its lowest point of
oscillations, elastically. It bounces back and æq ö
sin ç 1 ÷
m -M 1 - cos q1 è2ø
goes up to an angle q1. Then M is given by : = =
m+M 1 - cos q0 sin æ q0 ö
ç ÷
m æ q0 - q1 ö m æ q0 + q1 ö è 2ø
(1) 2 ç q + q ÷ (2) 2 ç q - q ÷
è 0 1ø è 0 1ø
M q0 - q1 æ q0 - q1 ö
Þ m = q + q Þ M =ç q + q ÷m
æ q0 + q1 ö æ q0 - q1 ö 0 1 è 0 1ø
(3) m ç q - q ÷ (4) m ç q + q ÷
è 0 1ø è 0 1ø
Ans. (4)

6
 (1) 6A (2) 7.5A
21. What is the position and nature of image
(3) 5.5A (4) 3A
formed by lens combination shown in figure?
Ans. (1)
(f1, f2 are focal lengths)
Sol. Ideal inductor will behave like zero
resistance long time after switch is closed
2 cm

A B
R
O e R

20cm f1 = +5cm f2 = –5cm

2e 2 ´ 15
I= = = 6A
R 5
(1) 70 cm from point B at left; virtual
23. Determine the electric dipole moment of the
(2) 40 cm from point B at right; real
system of three charges, placed on the vertices
20 of an equilateral triangle, as shown in the
(3) cm from point B at right , real
3 figure:
(4) 70 cm from point B at right, real
Ans. (4)
–2q
Sol. For first lens y
l l
+q
1 1 1 +q
- = l x
V -20 5
ˆi + ˆj ˆj - ˆi
20 (1) (ql) (2) 3ql
V= 2 2
3
For second lens (3) - 3q l ˆj (4) 2ql ˆj

20 14 Ans. (3)
V= -2 =
3 3
y
1 1 1
- =
V 14 -5
3 –2q

V = 70cm Sol. P1 P2
22. In the figure shown, a circuit contains two
x
identical resistors with resistance R = 5W and +q +q
an inductance with L = 2mH. An ideal battery
of 15 V is connected in the circuit. What will |P1| = q(d)
be the current through the battery long after the |P2| = qd
switch is closed? |Resultant| = 2 P cos30º

S æ 3ö
L
2 qd çç 2 ÷÷ = 3 qd
è ø
R
15 V
R

7
 y
24. The position vector of the centre of mass ®r cm
S
of a symmetric uniform bar of negligible area
O
of cross-section as shown in figure is : L P Q
M x

N
(1) 40 A, perpendicular into the page
L
(2) 40 A, perpendicular out of the page
L 2L 3L
(3) 20 A, perpendicular out of the page
® 13 5
(1) r cm = Lxˆ + Lyˆ (4) 20 A, perpendicular into the page
8 8
Ans. (4)
® 11 3
(2) r cm = L xˆ + Lyˆ Sol. Magnetic field at ‘O’ will be done to ‘PS’ and
8 8 ‘QN’ only
® 3 11 i.e. B0 = BPS + BQN ® Both inwards
(3) r cm = L xˆ + Lyˆ
8 8 Let current in each wire = i
® 5 13 µ 0i µ 0i
(4) r cm = L xˆ + Lyˆ \ B0 = +
8 8 4pd 4pd
Ans. (1)
µ 0i 2 ´10-7 ´ i
or 10–4 = =
2pd 4 ´10-2
2m (L,L) \ i = 20 A
26. In a meter bridge, the wire of length 1 m has
m 2L, L a non-uniform cross-section such that, the
Sol. 2 5L , 0
2 variation dR of its resistance R with length l
2L m 3L dl

5mL dR 1
2mL + 2mL + is µ . Two equal resistances are
2 = 13 L dl l
X cm =
4m 8 connected as shown in the figure. The
æ Lö galvanometer has zero deflection when the
2m ´ L + m ´ ç ÷ + m ´ 0 jockey is at point P. What is the length AP?
è 2ø 5L
Ycm = =
4m 8
25. As shown in the figure, two infinitely long,
identical wires are bent by 90° and placed in R' R'
such a way that the segments LP and QM are
along the x-axis, while segments PS and QN
are parallel to the y-axis. If OP = OQ = 4cm, G
and the magnitude of the magnetic field at O P
is 10–4 T, and the two wires carry equal currents A B
(see figure), the magnitude of the current in l 1 l
each wire and the direction of the magnetic field
at O will be (m0 = 4p × 10–7 NA– 2) : (1) 0.25 m (2) 0.3m
(3) 0.35 m (4) 0.2 m
Ans. (1)

8
 dl 28. An ideal battery of 4 V and resistance R are
Sol. For the given wire : dR = C , where C =
l connected in series in the primary circuit of a
constant. potentiometer of length 1 m and resistance 5W.
Let resistance of part AP is R1 and PB is R2 The value of R, to give a potential difference
of 5 mV across 10 cm of potentiometer wire,
R ' R1
\ = is :
R ' R 2 or R 1 = R 2 By balanced
(1) 490 W (2) 480 W
WSB concept. (3) 395 W (4) 495 W
dl Ans. (3)
Now ò dR = cò l
4v R
l
-1/ 2
\ R1 = C ò l dl = C.2. l
0 i i
Sol. 5W i
1
-1/ 2 1m
R2 = C ò l dl = C.(2 – 2 l )
l Let current flowing in the wire is i.
Putting R1 = R2
æ 4 ö
C2 l = C (2 – 2 l ) \ i= ç ÷A
è R +5ø
\2 l =1 If resistance of 10 m length of wire is x
1 0.1
l = 2 then x = 0.5 W = 5 × W
1
1 \ DV = P. d. on wire = i. x
i.e. l = m Þ 0.25 m
4 æ 4 ö
27. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for 5 × 10–3 = ç ÷·(0.5)
è R +5ø
a gas, the work done is : 4
C A \ = 10–2 or R + 5 = 400 W
6.0 R +5
\ R = 395 W
5
29. A particle A of mass 'm' and charge 'q' is
p(Pa) 4 accelerated by a potential difference of 50 V.
3
2 Another particle B of mass '4 m' and charge 'q'
is accelerated by a potential difference of 2500
1 B
1 2 3 4 5 lA
3 V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths l is
V(m ) B
(1) 1 J (2) 5 J
close to :
(3) 10 J (4) 30 J
(1) 10.00 (2) 14.14 (3) 4.47 (4) 0.07
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Since P–V indicator diagram is given, so work
Sol. K.E. acquired by charge = K = qV
done by gas is area under the cyclic diagram.
h h h
1 l= p= =
\ DW = Work done by gas = ×4×5J 2mK 2mqV
2
= 10 J
lA 2m Bq B VB 4m.q.2500
\ l = =
m.q.50
= 2 50
B 2m A q A VA

= 2 × 7.07 = 14.14

9
30. There is a uniform spherically symmetric Sol. At any instant 't'
surface charge density at a distance R0 from the Total energy of charge distribution is constant
origin. The charge distribution is initially at rest
1 KQ 2 KQ 2
and starts expanding because of mutual i.e. mV 2
+ = 0 +
2 2R 2R 0
repulsion. The figure that represents best the
speed V(R(t)) of the distribution as a function
1 KQ2 KQ2
of its instantaneous radius R (t) is : \ mV 2
= -
2 2R 0 2R
V(R(t)) V(R(t))
V0
2 KQ2 æ 1 1 ö
\ V= .ç - ÷
m 2 è R0 R ø
(1) (2)

R0 R(t)
R(t) R0 KQ 2 æ 1 1 ö 1 1
\ V= ç - ÷ =C -
V(R(t)) m è R0 R ø R0 R
V(R(t))
Also the slope of v-s curve will go on
decreasing
(3) (4) \ Graph is correctly shown by option(1)
R0 R0 R(t)
R(t)
Ans. (1)

10
 TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019
(Held On Saturday 12th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 09 : 30 AM To 12 : 30 PM
CHEMISTRY

1. Water samples with BOD values of 4 ppm and 4. A metal on combustion in excess air forms X. X
18 ppm, respectively, are upon hydrolysis with water yields H2O2 and O2 along
with another product. The metal is
(1) Clean and Highly polluted
(1) Rb (2) Li
(2) Clean and Clean
(3) Mg (4) Na
(3) Highly polluted and Clean
Answer (1)
(4) Highly polluted and Highly polluted
Sol. Rb + O2  RbO2
Answer (1)
excess
Sol. Clean water have BOD value of less than 5 ppm
whereas highly polluted water could have BOD value 2RbO2 + 2H2O  2RbOH + H2O2 + O2
of 17 ppm or more. 5. The correct order for acid strength of compounds
2. Given CH  CH, CH3 — C  CH and CH2 == CH2
Gas H2 CH4 CO2 SO2 is as follows :
Critical 33 190 304 630 (1) CH3 — C  CH > CH  CH > CH2 == CH2
Temperature/K (2) CH3 — C  CH > CH2 == CH2 > HC  CH

On the basis of data given above, predict which of (3) CH  CH > CH2 == CH2 > CH3 — C  CH
the following gases shows least adsorption on a (4) HC  CH > CH3 — C  CH > CH2 == CH2
definite amount of charcoal?
Answer (4)
(1) SO2 (2) CO2
Sol. Order of acidic strength is
(3) CH4 (4) H2
CH  CH > CH3 — C  CH > CH2 == CH2
Answer (4)
sp hybridised sp hybridised sp2 hybridised
Sol. More easily liquefiable a gas is (i.e. having higher
carbon carbon and + I carbon
critical temperature), the more readily it will be
adsorbed. (more effect of —CH3 (less
 Least adsorption is shown by H2 (least critical electronegative) electronegative)
temperature)
6. The hardness of a water sample (in terms of
3. The metal d-orbitals that are directly facing the equivalents of CaCO3) containing 10–3 M CaSO4 is
ligands in K3[Co(CN)6] are (molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol–1)
(1) dxy, dxz and dyz (1) 10 ppm (2) 100 ppm
(2) dxz, dyz and dz2 (3) 90 ppm (4) 50 ppm
(3) dx2 – y2 and dz2 Answer (2)
(4) dxy and dx2 – y2 Sol. 10–3 M CaSO4  10–3 M CaCO3
Answer (3)  10–3 M CaCO3 means 10–3 moles of CaCO3 are
present in 1L
Sol. K3[Co(CN)6]
ie 100 mg of CaCO 3 is present in 1L solution.
During splitting in octahederal co-ordination entities,
Hardness of water = Number of milligram of CaCO3
dx2 – y2 and dz2 orbitals point towards the direction
per litre of water.
of ligands (i.e. they experience more repulsion and
their energy is raised)  Hardness of water = 100 ppm
7. In the following reaction 9. The molecule that has minimum/no role in the
formation of photochemical smog, is
HCI
Aldehyde + Alcohol Acetal (1) NO (2) CH2 == 0
Aldehyde Alcohol (3) O3 (4) N2
HCHO tBuOH Answer (4)

CH3CHO MeOH Sol. NO, O3 and HCHO are involved in the formation
photochemical smog.
The best combination is
N2 has no role in photochemical smog
(1) HCHO and MeOH (2) HCHO and tBuOH
10. The increasing order of reactivity of the following
(3) CH3CHO and tBuOH (4) CH3CHO and MeOH compounds towards reaction with alkyl halides
directly is
Answer (1)
O O
Sol.
NH2 NH
HCl
Aldehyde + Alcohol Acetal
O
(A) (B)
more less steric
reactive alcohol CN NH2
aldehyde NH2

 Best combination is HCHO and MeOH

(C) (D)
8. Poly--hydroxybutyrate-co--hydroxyvalerate (PHBV)
is a copolymer of ___. (1) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)

(1) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 4-hydroxypentanoic (2) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
acid (3) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
(2) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 2-hydroxypentanoic (4) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)
acid Answer (2)
(3) 2-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic Sol. Reactivity of compounds (nucleophiles) with alkyl
acid halides will depend upon the availability of lone pair
of electrons on nitrogen (amines or acid amides)
(4) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic
acid

Answer (4)

Sol.

OH OH
—

CH 3 — CH — CH 2 — COOH + CH 3 — CH 2 — CH — CH 2 — COOH OH

3-Hydroxybutanoic acid 3-Hydroxypentanoic acid 11. CH3 CH2 C CH3 cannot be prepared by

Ph

—O — CH — CH 2 — C — O — CH — CH 2 —C— (1) PhCOCH2CH3 + CH3MgX

—

—
—

—
—
—

CH 3 O CH 2— CH 3 O n (2) CH3CH2COCH3+ PhMgX

PHBV (3) HCHO+PhCH(CH3)CH2MgX

(4) PhCOCH3+ CH3CH2MgX
 Monomers of PHBV are 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid
and 3-Hydroxypentanoic acid. Answer (3)
 O OH 13. The standard electrode potential E
–
and its
1. CH3MgX
Sol. 1. Ph C CH 2CH 3 Ph C CH2 CH 3 –
⎛ dE ⎞
2. H3O+ temperature coefficient ⎜⎝ ⎟ for a cell are 2 V and
dT ⎠
CH 3
OH – 5 × 10–4 VK –1 at 300 K respectively. The cell
O
reaction is
1. PhMgX
2. CH3 CH2 C CH3 CH3CH2 C CH3
2. H3 O
+
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)
Ph –
The standard reaction enthalpy (rH ) at 300 K in
O kJ mol–1 is,

3. H C H + PhCH(CH3)CH 2MgX [Use R = 8 JK–1 mol–1 and F = 96,000 C mol–1]

(1) 206.4
H3O+
HOCH2 CH 2 CH Ph
(2) –384.0
CH3 (3) –412.8
(4) 192.0
O OH Answer (3)
1. CH3CH2 MgX
4. Ph C CH3 Ph C CH3
2. H3O+ dE
Sol. r H  nFE  nF T
CH2 CH3 dT

Reaction (3) gives primary alcohol which is different Cell reaction : Zn(s)  Cu2  aq  Zn2  aq  Cu(s)
from tertiary alcohol given by the remaining
reactions.  rH° = –2 × 96000 (2 + 300 × 5 × 10–4)

12. Two solids dissociate as follows = – 2 × 96000 (2 + 0.15)

= – 412.8 × 103 J/mol
 B ( g) + C ( g) ;K P1 = x atm
A ( s ) 

 2

rH° = – 412.8 kJ/mol

 C ( g) + E ( g) ;K P2 = y atm
D ( s ) 

 2

14. Decomposition of X exhibits a rate constant of

The total pressure when both the solids dissociate 0.05 g/year. How many years are required for the
simultaneously is decomposition of 5 g of X into 2.5 g?
(1) x2 + y2 atm (2) (x + y) atm (1) 40

(3) x + y atm (4) 2 ( x+y ) atm

(2) 20
(3) 50
Answer (4)
(4) 25
Sol. A(S) 
 B(g)  C(g) KP = P1(P1 + P2) = x Answer (3)
P1 P1  P2 1

Sol. Rate constant of decomposition of X = 0.05 g/year

D(S) 
 C(g)  E(g) KP = P1(P1 + P2) = y
From unit of rate constant, it is clear that the
P2 P1 P2 2 decomposition follows zero order kinetics.
 P1(P1 + P2) + P2(P1 + P2) = x + y For zero order kinetics,
 (P1 + P2)2 = x + y [X] = [X]0 – kt

 P1 + P2 = xy 5  2.5
 t
0.05
 Total pressure = 2(P1 + P2) = 2  x  y  atm at
2.5
equilibrium   50 years
0.05
15. In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at Sol. In general, polarity increases the intermolecular force
the cathode. The cathode is made out of of attraction and as a result increases the melting
point.
(1) Carbon
18. In the following reactions, products A and B are
(2) Copper
(3) Platinum O O
dil NaOH
(4) Pure aluminium H3C H [A]
H 3C CH3
Answer (1)
+
H3O
Sol. In Hall-Heroult process, steel vessel with carbon [A] [B]

lining acts as cathode.
O O
16. What is the work function of the metal if the light of
CH3 CH3
wavelength 4000 Å generates photoelectrons of
(1) A = CH3 ;B= CH3
velocity 6 × 105 ms–1 from it?
HO
(Mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg
Velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1 O O
CH3 CH3
Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10–34 Js
(2) A = CH3 ;B= CH3
Charge of electron = 1.6 × 10–19 JeV–1) HO
(1) 4.0 eV (2) 2.1 eV
O
(3) 3.1 eV (4) 0.9 eV O
OH
C CH3
Answer (2) H3C H H
(3) A = ;B=
12400 H3C H 3C
Sol. Ephoton   3.1 eV CH3 CH3
4000

1 1 O O
KEe  mv 2   9  10 31  36  1010 J OH H 2C
2 2 H H
H3C
(4) A = ;B=
 1.62 × 10–19 J H3C H 3C
CH3 CH3
 1 eV
Answer (2)
 Work function  3.1 – 1
Sol.
 2.1 eV
17. Among the following four aromatic compounds, which
one will have the lowest melting point? O O O O
OH
H H
O

OH
(1) (2) OH
O
O

CH3 HO
OH +/
H 3O
O
(3) O
(4)
O
CH3

Answer (1)
19. The pair of metal ions that can give a spin only
magnetic moment of 3.9 BM for the complex CHO CHO
[M(H2O)6]Cl2, is (1) (2)
O OH
(1) V2+ and Co2+ (2) Co2+ and Fe2+
O CHO
(3) V2+ and Fe2+ (4) Cr2+ and Mn2+
Answer (1)
CH = NH CHO
Sol. μ = 3.9 BM (3) (4)
OH O
So, the central metal ion has 3 unpaired electrons.
OH
 Configuration is either d3 or d7 as H2O is a weak field
ligand. Answer (2)
V2+ has d3 configuration. Sol. DIBAL-H followed by hydrolysis converts nitrile to
aldehyde and ester to aldehyde and alcohol.
Co2+ has d7 configuration.
CHO
K CN
20. In a chemical reaction, A  2B   
 2C  D , the
DIBAL-H OH
initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of the O +
concentration of A, but the equilibrium concentrations H3O H
O
of A and B were found to be equal. The equilibrium O
constant (K) for the aforesaid chemical reaction is 22. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which
(1) 1 (2) 16 of the following plots does not correctly describe the
relation between various thermodynamic quantities?
1
(3) 4 (4)
4

Answer (3) CV
U
Sol. (1) (2)

A  2B  2C  D T V
t0 2 3
t eq 2  x 3 – 2x 2x x

Given, 3 – 2x = 2 – x CV Cp
(3) (4)
⇒ x=1
 [C] = 2, [D] = 1 T P

[A] = 1, [B] = 1 Answer (4)

Sol. C p and C v for ideal gases are dependant on
22  1
 Kc  4 temperature only. So, C p will not change with
12  1 pressure.
21. The major product of the following reaction 23. The volume of gas A is twice than that of gas B. The
compressibility factor of gas A is thrice than that of
CN gas B at same temperature. The pressure of the
gases for equal number of moles are
O (ii) H3O+ (1) PA = 2PB (2) PA = 3PB

O (3) 3PA = 2PB (4) 2PA = 3PB

Answer (4)
 Sol.
PVm
Sol. Z 
RT
Cl
MeO MeO Cl
Z A P A VA 
  Cl2 /CCl 4
ZB PB VB

AlCl3
PA
3 2
PB MeO

Cl
2PA = 3PB
24. Among the following compounds most basic amino
acid is 27. Iodine reacts with concentrated HNO3 to yield Y
along with other products. The oxidation state of
(1) Serine iodine in Y, is
(2) Lysine (1) 7 (2) 1
(3) Histidine (3) 5 (4) 3
(4) Asparagine Answer (3)
Answer (2) Sol. Conc. HNO3 oxidises I2 to iodic acid (HIO3).
Sol. Lysine is the most basic among the given amino 28. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will be
acids. an/a
25. Mn2(CO)10 is an organometallic compound due to
(1) Inner-transition metal (2) Transition metal
the presence of
(3) Alkaline earth metal (4) Alkali metal
(1) Mn – C bond
Answer (3)
(2) Mn – Mn bond
Sol. Element with Z = 120 will belong to alkaline earth
(3) Mn – O bond
metals.
(4) C – O bond
29. Freezing point of a 4% aqueous solution of X is
Answer (1) equal to freezing point of 12% aqueous solution of Y.
If molecular weight of X is A, then molecular weight
Sol. It is organometallic compound due to presence of
of Y is
Mn – C bond.
(1) 2A
26. The major product of the following reaction is
(2) 3A
CH3O
(1) Cl2/CCl4 (3) A
(2) AlCl 3(anhyd.)
(4) 4A
Cl Cl Answer (2)

(1) CH3O (2) CH3O 4 12

Sol. 
Mx My

 My = 3Mx
(3) CH3O (4) CH3O
 My = 3A
Cl
Cl (Since density of solutions are not given therefore
assuming molality to be equal to molarity and given
Answer (4)
% as % W/V)
30. 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to neutralize  M=2
25 mL of sodium hydroxide solution. The amount of
NaOH in 50 mL of the given sodium hydroxide 2  50
 Moles of NaOH in 50 mL =
solution is 1000
(1) 10 g (2) 40 g
2 1
(3) 20 g (4) 80 g = 
20 10
Answer (*)
 Weight = 4 grams
Sol. 2 × 50 × 0.5 = 25 × M
No option is correct
 TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019
(Held On SATURDAY 12th JANUARY., 2019) TIME : 09 : 30 AM To 12 : 30 PM
MATHEMATICS
1. For x >1, if (2x) 2y = 4e 2x–2y , then 3. Let S be the set of all points in (–p,p) at which
the function, f(x) = min {sinx, cosx} is not
dy
(1 + loge 2x )
2
is equal to : differentiable. Then S is a subset of which of
dx
the following?
(1) loge2x

(2)
x loge 2x + loge 2 (1) -{ 3p p 3p p
,- , ,
4 4 4 4 }
x
(3) xlog e2x (2) -{ 3p p p 3p
,- , ,
4 2 2 4 }
x loge 2x - loge 2

{ }
(4) p p p p
x (3) - , - , ,
Ans. (4) 2 4 4 2
Sol. (2x)2y = 4e2x–2y
2yln2x = ln4 + 2x – 2y {
p p
(4) - ,0,
4 4 }
x +ln2 Ans. (1)
y=
1 + l n 2x
-3p
4
1 Sol. p
(1 + l n 2x) - (x + l n 2)
x 4
y' =
(1 + l n 2x) 2
4. The product of three consecutive terms of a G.P.
é xl n 2x - l n 2 ù is 512. If 4 is added to each of the first and the
y '(1 + l n 2x)2 = ê ú
ë x û second of these terms, the three terms now
2. The sum of the distinct real values of m, for from an A.P. Then the sum of the original three
terms of the given G.P. is
which the vectors, mˆi + ˆj + kˆ , ˆi + mˆj + k,
ˆ
(1) 36 (2) 24
ˆi + ˆj + mkˆ are co-planer, is :
(3) 32 (4) 28
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) –1 (4) 1 Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
a
Sol. Let terms are ,a,ar ® G.P
m 1 1 r
Sol. 1 m 1 =0 \ a3 = 512 Þ a = 8
1 1 m 8
+ 4,12,8r ® A.P.
r
µ(µ2 – 1)–1(µ–1) + 1(1–µ) = 0 8
µ3 – µ – µ + 1 + 1 µ = 0 24 = + 4 + 8r
r
µ3 – 3µ + 2 = 0 1
µ3 – 1 – 3(µ–1) = 0 r = 2, r =
2
µ = 1, µ2 + µ – 2 = 0 r = 2 (4, 8, 16)
µ = 1, µ = –2 1
sum of distinct solutions = –1 r= (16,8,4)
2
Sum = 28
1
 7. Let S = {1,2,3, ...., 100}. The number of non-
5. The integral ò cos(loge x)dx is equal to :
empty subsets A of S such that the product of
(where C is a constant of integration) elements in A is even is :-
(1) 250(250–1) (2) 2100–1
x
(1) [sin(loge x) – cos(log e x)] + C (3) 250–1 (4) 250+1
2
Ans. (1)
x Sol. S = {1,2,3------100}
(2) [cos(loge x) + sin(log e x)] + C
2 = Total non empty subsets-subsets with product
(3) x[cos(log e x) + sin(log e x)] + C of element is odd
= 2100–1–1[(250–1)]
(4) x[cos(log e x) - sin(log e x)] + C = 2100 – 250
Ans. (2) = 250(250–1)
8. If the sum of the deviations of 50 observations
Sol. I = ò cos(l n x)dx from 30 is 50, then the mean of these
observation is :
I = cos(ln x).x + ò sin(l n x) dx (1) 50 (2) 51 (3) 30 (4) 31
Ans. (4)
cos(l n x)x + [sin(l n x).x - ò cos(l n x)dx]
50

x Sol. å (x i - 30) = 50
I = [sin(l n x) + cos(l n x)] + C i= 1
2 Sx i = 50 ´ 30 = 50
Sx i = 50 + 50 + 30
1 + 2 + 3 + .... + k
6. Let Sk = . If Sx i 50 ´ 30 + 50
k Mean = x = = = 30 + 1 = 31
n 50
5 9. If a variable line, 3x+4y–l=0 is such that the
S12 + S22 + .... + S10
2
= A , then A is equal to : two circles x 2 + y 2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 and
12
x2+y2–18x–2y+78 = 0 are on its opposite sides,
(1) 303 (2) 283 (3) 156 (4) 301
then the set of all values of l is the interval :-
Ans. (1)
(1) [12, 21] (2) (2, 17)
K +1 (3) (23, 31) (4) [13, 23]
Sol. SK =
2
Ans. (1)
5
SS2k = A Sol. Centre of circles are opposite side of line
12
2
(3 + 4 – l) (27 + 4 – l) < 0
æ K + 1 ö 2 + 3 + - - +11
10 2 2 2
5
å ç 2 ÷ =
K= 1 è ø 4
=
12
A (l – 7) (l – 31) < 0
l Î (7, 31)
11 ´ 12 ´ 23 5 distance from S 1
-1 = A
6 3 3+ 4 -l
³ 1 Þ lÎ(–¥, 2] È[(12,¥]
5 5
505 = A, A = 303
3 distance from S 2

2
 13. If the straight line, 2x–3y+17 = 0 is
27 + 4 - l perpendicular to the line passing through the
³ 2 Þ lÎ (–¥, 21] È[41, ¥)
5 points (7, 17) and (15, b), then b equals :-

so lÎ [12, 21] 35
(1) –5 (2) –
10. A ratio of the 5th term from the beginning to 3
the 5 th term from the end in the binomial
35
10 (3) (4) 5
æ 13 1 ö 3
expansion of çç 2 + 1 ÷÷ is :
è 2(3) 3 ø Ans. (4)
1 1 17 - b 2
(1) 1 : 4(16) 3 (2) 1 : 2(6) 3 Sol. ´ = -1
-8 3
1 1
(3) 2(36) 3 : 1 (4) 4(36) 3 : 1 b=5
Ans. (4) 14. Let f and g be continuous functions on [0, a]
such that f(x) = f(a–x) and g(x)+g(a–x)=4,
4
10 æ 1 ö
1/ 3 10 -4 a
C 4 (2 ) ç 2(3)1 / 3 ÷
T5 è ø = 4.(36)1 / 3 then ò f(x)g(x)dx is equal to :-
Sol. 1
= 10 - 4 0
T5 10 æ 1 ö
C 4 ç 1 / 3 ÷ (21 / 3 )4 a a
è 2(3 ) ø
(1) 4 ò f(x)dx (2) 2 ò f(x)dx
11. let C 1 and C 2 be the centres of the circles 0 0
x2+y2–2x–2y–2 = 0 and x2+y2–6x–6y+14 = 0
a a
respectively. If P and Q are the points of
intersection of these circles, then the area (3) –3ò f(x)dx (4) ò f(x)dx
0 0
(in sq. units) of the quadrilateral PC 1QC2 is :
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 4 Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) a
Sol. I = ò f(x)g(x)dx
0
2 2 (3,3)
Sol. a
I = ò f(a - x)g(a - x)dx
(1,1) 0

1 I = ò f(x)(4 - g(x)dx
0
Area = 2 × .4 = 2
2
12. In a random experiment, a fair die is rolled until a
I = 4 ò f(x)dx - I
two fours are obtained in succession. The 0

probability that the experiment will end in the

a
fifth throw of the die is equal to : Þ I = 2 ò0 f(x)dx
150 175 200 225
(1) 5 (2) 5 (3) 5 (4) 5 15. The maximum area (in sq. units) of a rectangle
6 6 6 6
Ans. (2) having its base on the x-axis and its other two
Sol. 4 4 vertices on the parabola, y = 12–x2 such that
the rectangle lies inside the parabola, is :-
1 æ 53 2C1 .52 ö 175 (1) 20 2 (2) 18 3 (3) 32 (4) 36
ç + ÷=
62 è 63 63 ø 65

3
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
Sol. f(a) = 2a(12 – a)2 Sol. tan–1(2x) + tan–1(3x) = p/4
5x
Þ =1
2
(a, 12 – a ) 1 - 6x 2
Þ 6x2 + 5x – 1 = 0
(0, 0) (a, 0)
1
x = –1 or x =
6
f'(a) = 2(12 – 3a2)
maximum at a = 2 1
x= Qx > 0
maximum area = f(2) = 32 6
16. The Boolean expression 19. An ordered pair(a,b) for which the system of
linear equations
((p Ù q) Ú (pÚ ~ q)) Ù (~ p Ù ~ q) is equivalent to:
(1+a)x + by+z = 2
(1) p Ù (~ q) (2) p Ú (~ q)
ax+(1+b)y+z = 3
(3) (~ p) Ù (~ q) (4) p Ù q ax+by+2z = 2 has a unique solution is
Ans. (3) (1) (1,–3) (2) (–3,1)
cot 3 x - tan x (3) (2, 4) (4) (–4, 2)
lim
17. x®p 4 cos x + p
( 4 )
is : Ans. (3)
Sol. For unique solution
(1) 4 (2) 8 2 (3) 8 (4) 4 2
Ans. (3) 1+a b 1
D¹ 0 Þ a 1+ b 1 ¹ 0
cot 3 x - tan x a b 2
Sol. lim
x®p / 4 æ pö
cos ç x + ÷
è 4ø
1 -1 0
(1 - tan 4 x) 0 1 -1 ¹ 0 Þ a + b ¹ -2
lim
x®p / 4 cos(x + p / 4) a b 2

(1 - tan 2 x) 20. The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded
2 lim by the parabola, y = x 2 + 2 and the lines,
x®p / 4 cos(x + p / 4)
y = x + 1, x = 0 and x = 3, is :
cos2 x - sin 2 x 1 15 15 21 17
R lim (1) (2) (3) (4)
x ®p / 4 cos x - sin x cos2 x 4 2 2 4
2 Ans. (2)

4 2 lim (cos x + sin x) = 8

x ®p / 4 Sol.
18. Considering only the principal values
of inverse functions, the set 4

{ }
1
p
A x ³ 0 : tan-1(2x) + tan-1(3x)
= = 0 3
4
(1) is an empty set
(2) Contains more than two elements 3
1 15 15
ò (x + 2)dx - .5.3 = 9 + 6 - =
2
(3) Contains two elements Req. area = 2 2 2
0

(4) is a singleton

4
21. If l be the ratio of the roots of the quadratic 24. Let P(4, –4) and Q(9, 6) be two points on the
equation in x, 3m2x2+m(m–4)x+2 = 0, then the parabola, y2= 4x and let X be any point on the
arc POQ of this parabola, where O is the vertex
1
least value of m for which l + = 1 , is : of this parabola, such that the area of DPXQ is
l maximum. Then this maximum area (in sq.
(1) 2 - 3 (2) 4 - 3 2 units) is :
125 125 625 75
(3) -2 + 2 (4) 4 - 2 3 (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 4 2
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
Sol. 3m2x2 + m(m – 4) x + 2 = 0 Q(9,6)
2
a b (t , 2t)
1
l+ = 1 , + = 1 , a2 + b2 = ab X
l b a
(a + b)2 = 3ab Sol.
2
æ m(m - 4) ö 3(2) (m - 4)2 6
ç - 2
=
÷ 3m 2 , =
è 3m ø 9m 2
3m
P
(m – 4)2 = 18, m = 4 ± 18, 4 ± 3 2
(4,–4) t=–2
22. If the vertices of a hyperbola be at (–2, 0) and y2= 4x
(2, 0) and one of its foci be at (–3, 0), then 2yy' = 4
which one of the following points does not lie 1 1
y' = = 2, t=
on this hyperbola? t 2
1
(1) ( 4, 15 ) (2) ( -6,2 10 ) 1 1
4
1 125
(3) ( 6,5 2 ) (4) ( 2 6,5) Area = 9 6 1=
2 4
Ans. (3) 4 -4 1

25. the perpendicular distance from the origin to

the plane containing the two lines,
Sol. x -1 y - 4 z + 4
(–2,0) (–2,0) (–ae,0) x+2 y-2 z+5
= = and = = ,
(–a,0) (a,0) ae = 3 3 5 7 1 4 7
is:
3 æ9 ö 11
ae = 3, e = , b = 4 ç - 1 ÷ , b2 = 5
2 (1) 6 (2) 6 11 (3) 11 (4) 11 6
2 è4 ø
Ans. (1)
x 2 y2
- =1
4 5 Sol. i j k
z-a 3 5 7
23. If (a Î R) is a purely imaginary number
z+a 1 4 7
and |z| = 2, then a value of a is :
ˆi(35 - 28) - ˆj(21.7) + k(12
ˆ - 5)
1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4)
2
7iˆ - 14ˆj + 7kˆ
Ans. (2)
z-a z -a ˆi - 2ˆj + kˆ
Sol. + =0
z+a z +a 1(x + 2) – 2(y – 2) + 1 (z+15) = 0
zz + za - a z - a + zz - za + za - a = 0
2 2 x – 2y + z + 11 = 0
|z|2 = a2, a = ±2 11 11
=
4 +1 +1 6
5
 æ pö dy y
26. The maximum value of 3cosq+5sin ç q - ÷ for Sol. = = lnx
è 6ø dx x
any real value of q is : 1
eò x = x
dx

79
(1) 19 (2) (3) 31 (4) 34
2 xy = ò xlnx + C
Ans. (1)
x2 1 x2
æ ln x -ò ×
3 1ö 2 x 2
Sol. y = 3cos q + 5 çç sin q - cos q ÷÷
è 2 2ø
x x2
xy =l n x - +C, for 2y(2)= 2ln2 – 1
5 3 1 2 4
sin q + cos q
2 2 ÞC=0
75 1 x x
y max = + = 19 y = lnx -
4 4 2 4
27. A tetrahedron has vertices P(1, 2, 1),
e
Q(2, 1, 3), R(–1,1,2) and O(0, 0, 0). The angle y(e) =
between the faces OPQ and PQR is : 4

-1 æ 9 ö -1 æ 19 ö
é1 0 0 ù
(1) cos ç ÷ (2) cos ç ÷ ê ú
è 35 ø è 35 ø 29. Let P = ê3 1 0 ú and Q = [q ij] be two 3×3
ë9 3 1 û
-1 æ 17 ö -1 æ 7 ö
(3) cos ç ÷ (4) cos ç ÷ q 21 + q 31
è 31 ø è 31 ø matrices such that Q–P5 = I3. Then is
q32
Ans. (2)
(1)
uuur uuur equal to:
Sol. OP ´ OQ = (iˆ + 2 ˆj + k)
ˆ ´ (2iˆ + ˆj + 3k)
ˆ
(1) 15 (2) 9 (3) 135 (4) 10
5iˆ - ˆj - 3kˆ Ans. (4)
O (0,0,0) é1 0 0 ù
Sol. P = êê3 1 0 úú
êë9 3 1 úû
P R (–1,1,2)
(1,2,1) é 1 0 0ù
ê
P = ê 3+3
2
1 0 úú
Q
(2,13) êë9 + 9 + 9 3 + 3 1 úû
uuur uuur
PQ ´ PR = (iˆ - ˆj + 2k)
ˆ ´ ( -2iˆ - ˆj + k)
ˆ
é 1 0 0ù
ˆi - 5ˆj - 3kˆ ê
P = ê3 + 3 + 3
3
1 0 úú
êë 6.9 3 + 3 + 3 1 úû
5+5+9 19
cos q = =
( )
2
25 + 9 + 1 35
é ù
ê 1 0 0ú
28. Lety = y(x) be the solution of the differential ê ú
P =ê
n
3n 1 0ú
dy ê n(n + 1) 2 ú
equation, x + y = x log e x,(x > 1). If
dx ê 3 3n 1 ú
ë 2 û
2y(2) = loge4–1, then y(e) is equal to :-
e2 e e e2 é 1 0 0ù
(1)
4
(2)
4
(3) -
2
(4) -
2 P = ê 5.3 1 0 úú
5 ê

Ans. (2) êë15.9 5.3 1 úû

6
Q = P5 + I3 30. Consider three boxes, each containing 10 balls
labelled 1,2,....,10. Suppose one ball is
é 2 0 0ù randomly drawn from each of the boxes.
ê 15 2 0 ú
Denote by ni, the label of the ball drawn from
Q= ê ú
êë135 15 2 úû the ith box, (i = 1, 2, 3). Then, the number of
ways in which the balls can be chosen such that
q 21 + q 31 15 + 135 n1 < n2 < n3 is :
= = 10 (1) 82 (2) 240 (3) 164 (4) 120
q 32 15
Ans. (4)
Aliter Sol. No. of ways = 10C3 = 120

æ1 0 0ö æ0 0 0ö
ç ÷ ç ÷
P = ç0 1 0÷ + ç3 0 0÷
ç0 0 1÷ ç9 3 0÷
è ø è ø
P=I+X

æ0 0 0ö
ç ÷
X = ç3 0 0÷
ç9 3 0÷
è ø

æ0 0 0ö
ç ÷
X = ç0 0 0÷
2

ç9 0 0÷
è ø
X3 = 0
P5 = I + 5X + 10X2
Q = P5 + I = 2I + 5X + 10X2

æ2 0 0ö æ 0 0 0ö æ 0 0 0ö
ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
Q = ç 0 2 0 ÷ + ç 15 0 0 ÷ + ç 0 0 0 ÷
ç 0 0 2 ÷ ç 15 15 0 ÷ ç 90 0 0 ÷
è ø è ø è ø

æ 2 0 0ö
ç ÷
Q = ç 15 2 0 ÷
Þ
ç135 15 2 ÷
è ø