CHN1

MODEL QUESTIONS FOR SEMINAR - 1
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following system of medicine is of Indian origin-?

a. Homoeopathy b. siddha
c. unani-tibb d. acupuncture
2. The system of medicine practiced in Tamil speaking areas of India is

a. ayurveda b. siddha
c. unani-tibb d. homoeopathy
3. The principle of a risk approach is

a. something for all b. more for the needy
c. all for some d. all for all
4. Epidemiology of cholera was first studied by

a. john snow b. williaqm buuu
c. john simon d. Chadwick
5. Sulivan’s index refers to

a. disability days b. no disabled people in a country
c. life free of disability d. life expectancy
6. Prevention of emergence of risk factors is

a. primordial prevention b. primary prevention
c. secondary prevention d. tertiary prevention
7. Which of the following is tertiary protection-?

a. health promotion
b. specific protection
c. early diagnosis and treatment
d. Disability limitation
8. Epidemiology involves study of

a. distribution of disease b. determination of disease
c. application of control d. all of the above
9. The aspect of epidemiology which deals with distribution of disease is

a. descriptive b. analytical
c. experimental d. interventional
10. The type of epidemiology which deals with risk factors of disease is
a. descriptive b. analytical
c. experimental d. interventional
11. The killing power of a disease is represented by
a. attack rate b. proportional mortality rate
c. case fatality d. survival rate
12. From case control study one can drive

a. relative risk b. incidence
c. odds ratio d. attributable risk
13. Keeping the frequency of disease within acceptable limit is called

a. Control b. eradication
c. surveillance d. treatment
14. Individual suffering from an impairment and disability is called as

a. Disability b. Handicap c. impairment
15. Restoration of family and social relationship is

a. social process
b. social rehabilitation
c. impairment
16. Restoration of the capacity to earn livelihood

a. Educational rehabilitation
b. Social rehabilitation
c. Vocational rehabilitation
17. Restoration of personal dignity and confidence is

a. Vocational rehabilitation
b. Psychological rehabilitation
c. Physiological rehabilitation
18. Science of health and embracer all factors which contribute to healthful living is
known as
a. Hygiene b. Cleanliness c. Personality
19. Hygiene is a word which derived from

a. Latin b. Greek c. French
20. Social medicine was first introduced by

a. Joseph Lister b. Jules Guerin c. Edward Tenner
21. Epidemiology is derived from the word

a. Epidemic b. Pandemic c. Environment
22. Branch of science which deals with treats of epidemics is

a. Epidemiology b. Sociology c. Community
23. Major foundation of epidemiologic approach
a. asking question & making comparison
b. rate and ratio
c. Measurement of mortality
24. Epidemiological tool of measurement

a. incidence & prevalence
b. rate, ratio and propotion
c. frequency & distribution
25. Mortality means

a. Sickliness rate b. Death rte c. Birth rate
26. Disease frequency is measurement by

a. Incidence and prevalence b. Rate & ration
C. Frequency & distribution
27. The number of new cases occurring is a defined population during a specified
period of time is
a. incidence b. prevalence c. epidemic
28. All current cases existing at a given of line or one a period of time in a given
population is
a. Prevalence b. Incidence c. Epidemic
29. The first phase of an epidemiological investigation is

a. Analytical study b. Descriptive studies
c. Cohort study
30. Unusual occurrence of disease in a particulars region

a. Pandemic b. Epidemic c. Incidence
31. An outbreak of disease is termed as

a. Incidene b. Epidemic c. Prevalence
32. An infection transmitted through animals tomanis

a. Mycosis b. zoonosis c. anthropology
33. Experimental epidemiology deals with

a. epidemics b. Intervention or modification
c. Screening of disease d. early diagnosis
34. Epidemiological triad includes all expect

a. agent, b. time c. host d. environment
35. The first person becoming sick in an epidemic is called

a. primary cas b. secondary case
c. contact case d. index
36. The first person detected as sick during an epidemic is called
a. primary b. secondary c. diphtheria d. tetanus
37. Disease which are amenable to eradication are all except

a. meastes b. polio c. diphtheria d. tetanus
38. Latent infection is seen in all expect

a. herpes simplex b. brill zinser disease,
c. chicken pox d. ancylostomiasis
39. Current concept of health promotion and the related activities lead to
a. Better treatment of a problem
b. Critical awareness and life style changes
c. Adoption of prophylactic services
d. Better-health services usage
40. Health promotion is the process to achieve health by

a. Enabling people to increase control over their health
b. Improving their health by life style change
c. Creating awareness among people
d. All of above
41. Which of the following is not a pre-requisite of health promotion?

a. Educate b. Treat c. Enable d. Mediate
42. Health promotion includes all except

a. Effective and concrete public participation
b. Directed towards action on the determinants of health
c. Does not approach or use complimentary method against health hazards
d. Focusing on people at risk for specific disease
43. Health promotional activities include

a. Inadequate health system
b. Unhealthy life style
c. poor environment
d. information, education and communication

a. unsafe environment b. health services
c. increasing stress d. increasing conditions
45. For maintaining health, individuals reed to take

a. unbalanced diet b. too much food
c. too less food d. proportionate food according to requirement
46. Exercise is helpful in maintain health by
a. strengthening the heart muscle
b. improving the immune system
c. strengthening the body muscle & bones
d. All of above
47. Hygiene aspect of health maintenance includes

a. Personal hygiene b. Environmental hygiene
c. Both of above d. None of above
48. Which of the following is the characteristic of community?

a. Different language b. Different attitude
c. Common values and interest d. None of above
49. According to Holistic concept, health is considered as

a. Absence of disease
b. proper adequate environment
c. Good interpersonal relationship
d. Sound body with sound mind living in sound family surrounded by sound
environment
50. Identify the factors which are responsible for health

a. External environment b. Genetic inheritance
c. Social Support system d. All of above
51. Which of the following is not the pre-requisite of health promotion?

a. Educate b. Unhealthy practices
c. Enable d. Mediate
52. Who is the father of germ theory of disease?

a. Louis Pasteur b. Virginia apgar
c. Newton d. None of theabove
53. __________ is the physiological or psychological dysfunction?

a. illness b. Sickness c. Disease d. None of the above
54. 7 April, 1948 is celebrated every year as _________

a. Nurse day b. World Health Day
c. Aids day d. Tuberculosis day
55. The concept Disease agent man disease is known as

a. Germ theory of disease b. Epidemiological tread
c. Natural history of disease d. All of the above
56. Dimensions of health

a. Physical dimension b. Mental dimension
c. Social dimension d. All the above
57. The determinants of health include
a. Biological determinants
b. Behavioral and socio-cultural conditions
c. Environmental
d. All of the above
58. Health is defined as State of complete physical, mental and social well being and
not merely absence of disease or infirmity by
a. Perkin b. Oxford English Dictionary
c. World Health Organization d. Webster
59. One of the following is not true international classification of disease (ICD)
a. It is revised once in 10 years
b. It was devised by UNICEF
c. The 10th revision consists of 21 major chapters
d. It provides the basis for use in other health fields
d. It is accepted for National and International use
60. The concept of social Medicine was first introduced by

a. Neumann and Virchow b. Robert Gritjahn
c. John Ryle d. Rene Sand e. Crew
61. Prophylactic administration of vitamin A in a child is

a. Health promotion b. Treatment c. Specific protection d. Rehabilitation
62. The restoration of body function is known

a. Vocational rehabilitation b. Primary preventionic
c. Social rehabilitation d. None of these
63. False about primary prevention is

a. Early diagnosis and treatment b. Environmental sanitation
c. Vaccination d. Health promotion
64. About community diagnosis all are true except

a. Virtual statistics taken
b. Age and sex distribution statistics needed
c. Age specific, death rate needed
d. Incidence of important diseases taken
65. Administration of oral polio vaccine to the children is a measure of

a. Health promotion b. Specific protection
c. Treatment d. Rehabilitation
66. Which of the following constitutes specific protection?

a. Immunization b. Avoidance of allergens
c. Healthy environment d. Chemoprophylaxis
67. Which of the following is tertiary level of prevention?
c. Early diagnosis and treatment d. Disability limitation
68. Screening for Carcinoma cervix is

c. Early diagnosis and treatment d. disability limitation
69. Iron and folic acid supplementation is type of

a. Specific protection b. Health promotion
c. Health education d. Primordial protection
70. The current concept of health promotion and the related activities lead to
b. critical awareness and lifestyle changes
d. Better health services usage
71. The best method of promoting healthy lifestyle in children

a. Primordial prevention b. Specific protection
c. Secondary prevention d. High risk strategy
72. All are health promotion activities except

b. Critical awareness and lifestyle changes
d. Better health services and usage
73. Primary aim of sentinel surveillance is

a. To know total number of disease patient
b. to know trend of disease
c. to decide mode of treatment
d. notification
74. Primordial prevention is applied when

a. Risk factors appear before disease
b. After risk factors appear
c. Prevalence of disease is low
d. NO disease and no risk factors
75. False about primary prevention is

a. Early diagnosis and treatment b. Environmental sanitation
c. Vaccination d. Health promotion
76. Which type of prevention used in change of smoking habit?

a. Primordial prevention b. Population (mass)
c. High risk strategy d. Secondary prevention
77. Tertiary level of prevention is
a. Health promotion b. chemopropylaxis
c. Rehabilitation d. Early diagnosis and treatment
78. Sentinel surveillance is done for all except

a. HW b. Diarrhea
c. Acute flaccid paralysis d. Per capita income
79. A concept directed against prevention of risk factors of CAD is

a. Primordial prevention b. Secondary prevention
c. Health education d. Primary prevention
80. Total morbidity is determined by

a. Active surveillance b. Secondary prevention
c. Sentinel surveillance d. primary perevention
81. Pap smear is an example of

a. Active surveillance b. Passive surveillance
c. Sentinel surveillance d. Annual survey
82. Keeping the frequency of illness with in acceptable limits is best described as
disease
a. Control b. Prevention
c. Eradication d. Surveillance e. Treatment
83. The system of medicine which is originated from Tamil Nadu state is
a. Ayurveda b. Siddha
c. Homepathy d. Unani-Tibb
84. Ayurveda is developed from the medical knowledge given in the following Veda
a. Atharvaveda b. Rigveda
c. Samaveda d. Ajurveda
85. The tridosha theory of disease mentioned in ayurveda denotes

a. Wind, gas & mucus
b. Yellow bile, black bile & phlegm
c. Wind gall & mucus
d. Wind gall & Bile
86. The concept of bare foot doctors originated from

a. Greek medicine b. Ayurvda
c. Egyptian medicine d. Chinese medicine
87. The court physician of king kanishka authored the famous writing on medicine
which is known as
a. charaka samhita b. sushruta samhita
c. atreya sarnhita d. papyrus
88. The pioneers of immunization are
a. Chinese b. Egyptians
c. Indians d. Romans
89.The word hygiene is derived from the following language

a. Mesopotamia b. Rome
c. Greek d. China
90. Concept of public health was born in

a. Mesopotamia b. Rome
c. Greek d. China
91. The middle ages of medicine between 500 and 1500 AD is called as
a. Sanitary awakening phase b. Dark ages of medicine
c. Disease control phase d. Disease prevention phase
92. The word drug, alcohol syrup and sugar are derived from which one of the
following language
a. Arabic b. Chinese
c. Greek d. German
93. Theory of contagion was formulated by

a. Galen b. Paracelsus
c. Fracastorius d. Andreas Vesalius
94. The first sanitary awakening took place in

a. Russia b. Europe
c. England d. Persia
95.Public health reforming through sanitation concept was ernphasitcd by

a. Edwin Chaclwicck b. Peter Frank
c. Cholera d. William budd
96. The germ theory was proposed by

a. Louis Pasteur b. Robert Koch
c. Edward jenner d. John Hunter
97. The last case of small pox in Somalia was seen in the year
a. 978 b. 1977
c. 1970 d. 1972
98.The major problem faced by the preventive medicine in developing countries is

a. Population explosion b. Social problems
c. economical problems d. Environmental problem
99. Health is a state where every cell and every organ is functioning at optimum
capacity. This definition of health is given under the following dimension of
health
a. Biological dimension b. physical dimension
c. Physiological dimension d. Vocational dimension
100. According to mental dimension o health, health is described as

a. A state of harmony between oneself and others
b. Absence of mental illness
c. A state of harmony between oneself and their emotions
d. Integration within individual
101. The major factor in reducing the morbidity, increasing life expectancy and
improving the quality of life is
a. economic status b. education
c. literacy d. occupation
102. The total number of infant death in a population of 5000 is 9, the infant mortality
rate (IMR) where the number of live birth is ISO
a. 75 b. 60
c. 65 d. 62
103. In health illness continuum, the transition of health from one stage to another
stage is
a. Gradual b. A cut-off point
c. a turning point d. Distinct
104. Modern diseases of civilization are due

a. Life style changes b. Traditional life styles
c. Mass media d. Present behavioral patterns
105. The map of literacy coincides with the maps of the following except
a. Poverty b. Malnutrition
c. High infant mortality rate d. Unemployment
106. One to one relationship between the causal agent and disease is explained in
a. Epidemiological triad b. Germ theory of disease
c. Web of causation d. Multifactorial causation
107. A substance which destroys or inhibits the growth of microorganisms is known as

a. disinfectant b. detergent
c. deodorant d. antiseptic
108. The cheapest disinfectant used indisinfecting the infected faeces is

a. Milk of lime b. Ethylene oxide
c. 2.5% cresol d. Potassium permanganate solution
109. The most effective method for sterilization of dressing materials is
a. Sun light b. Hot air
c. Radiation d. Autoclave
110. The continuous scrutiny of all aspects of occurrence and spread of disease that
are pertinent to effective, control is known as
a. quarantine b. screening
c. surveillance d. monitoring
111. Identifying the causes and risk factors are the part of
a. Descriptive epidemiology b. Analytical epidemiology
c. Experimental epidemiology d. Chronic disease epidemiology
112. An epidemic of food poisoning is an example of

a. Common source single exposure epidemic
b. Common source repeated exposure
c. Propagated epidemic d. Slow epidemic
113. False association between the disease and suspected factor is known as
a. Indirect association b. Direct association
c. Spurious association d. One to one causal association
114. The first step in investigation of an epidemic is

a. Defining the population at risk
b. Confirming the existence of epidemic
c. Verification of diagnosis
d. Rapid search for cases and their characteristics
115. There is an increased risk for children with lead exposure to develop
a. Hamatological and neurological problems
b. Circulatory disorders
c. Growth & development changes d. changes in the sensory organs
116. The output of carbon dioxide by a person at rest on an average is

a. 0.6 Cubic feet of Co2 per hour b. 0.7 Cubic feet of Co2 per hour
c. 3 Cubic feet of Co per hour d. 2 Cubic feet of Co2 per hour
117.Cooling power of air includes all except

a. Air temperature b. Heat retention
c. Air movement d. Humidity
118. The establishment of green belts in the prevention and control of air pollution is
a method of
a. Containment b. Replacement
c. Legislation d. Dilution
119. The optimum floor space requirements per person is

a. 110 sq ft-150 sq ft b. 50 sq ft-100sqft
120. The mechanical damage of ear occurs, when the noise level is more than
a. 90dB b. 85 dB
c. 160dB d. 140dB
121. The genetic effects or radiation exposure is

a. Leukemia b. Congenital deformities
c. Point mutation d. Dermatitis
122. The persons who are doing heavy muscular work in high temperature and
humidity are prone fro get
a. Heat exhaustion b. Fleet syncope
c. Heat cramps d. Heat hyperpyrexia
123. Orthotolidine test is used to find out

a. Free chlorine in water b. Combined chlorine in water
c. Free and combined chlorine in water d. None of the above
124. All the following indicate air pollution except

a. Sulphur dioxide concentration
b. Solling Index
c. Formaldehyde concentration
d. Total suspended particles
125. The effective size of sand particle in rapid sand filler is

a. 0.4-0.7 mm b. 0.8-0.9 mm c. 0.2-0.8 mm d. 1.0-1.5 mm
126. Sullage means

a. Waste water excluding human excreta
b. Solid excreta of human being
c. Solid and liquid excreta of animals
d. Waste water including human excreta
127. The heart of the slow sand filter is

a. sand bed b. water level
c. drainage of water d. vital layer
128. Purification of water can be done in the home easily by

a. Adding bleaching powder b. Boiling
c. Mixing with alum d. Filtration
129. Follow are true regarding chlorination except

a. Contact period: 30 minutes
b. Water should not be turbid
c. Residual chlorine: 0.5 mg/i
d. Chlorine demand should be estimated
130. Content of chlorine in bleaching powder is
a. 10% b. 21% c. 33.3% d. 66.6%
131. The following are the indicators of organic micro pollution of water except
a. Free ammonia b. Albuminoid ammonia
c. Nitrites d. Nitrates
132. The minimum distance between sanitary well and sources of contamination
should be
a. 0.5 meters b. 15 meters c. 25 meters d. 50 meters
133. Which one of the following chemical is used as an emergency disinfectant?

a. Chlorine tablet b. Iodine
c. Potassium permanganate d. Bleaching powder
134. The chlorine demand of the well water can be determined by

a. Orthotolidine arsenite test b. Pasteur Chamber and filter
c. HOrrock’s apparatus d. Katadyn filter
135. Carriers are more dangerous than causes because they

a. increase virulence of disease,
c. infect more people d. less infectious
136. Pseudo carrier refers to

a. asymptomatic carrier b. carrier who escapes detection
c. avirulent organism carrier
137. All the following are mosquito born disease except

a. malaria b. filaris
c. KFD d. dengue
138. Incubation period less than 3 days in all except

a. Chorea b. influenza
c. mumps d. staph, food poisoning
139. Hard immunity does not protect an individual in

a. diphtheria b. poliomyelitis
c. smallpox d. tetanus
140. Usually in live vaccines immunization is achieved with

a. 1 dose b. 2 dose c. 3 does d. 1 booster
141. Human specific immunogiobulin is not available for

a. measles b. gas gangrene c. rabies d. tetanus
142. Which is not a freeze dried vaccine-?

a. BCG b. yellow fever c. DPT d. DPT
143. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
a. BCG b. Polio c. measles d. DPT
144. Cold chain equipment used at outreach sites is

a. Cold box b. Vaccine carrier c. icepack d. freezer
145. Zero dose polio vaccine means

a. no vaccination
b. dose after first dose
c. no antibody response
d. vaccination at mobile camps
146. EPI includes all vaccines expect

a. typhoid b. measles c. mumps d. BCG
147. The advantage of hot air oven is

a. Costly b. not effective
c. no penetration power d. damages articles
148.The most effective sterilizing procedure is

a. sunlight b. boiling c. hot air oven d. radiation
149. Sputum is best disposed by

a. burning b. boiling
c. 5 percent cresol d. any of the above
150. Specificity is ability of a screening test to Identify

a. true positives b. true negatives
c. false positive d. false negatives
151. An ideal screening test should have all expect

a. low sensitivity b. low specificity
c. high yield d. high specificity
152. Chicken pox can be severe in

a. infants b. children
c. adolescents d. adults
155. Communicability of measles declines

a. antigenic shift b. antigenic drift
c. antigenic change of lesser degree d. stable antigles
156. Major epidemics or pandemics are caused by

a. antigenic shift b. antigenic drift
c. antigenic change of lesser degree d. stable antigens
157. Most of dreaded complication of influenza is
a. Otis media b. pneumonia
c. encephalitis d. conjunctivitis
158. The most common source of infection about

a. Case b. Subclinical case
c. Carrier d. all of the above
159. Schick test gives information about

a. immunity status b. hypersensitivity
c. both d. none of the above
160. Current concept of health promotion and the related

b. Critical awareness and life style changes
d. Better health services usage
161. Health promotion is the process to achieve health by

a. Enabling people to increase control over their health
b. improving their health by life style changes
c. creating awareness among people d. all of above
162. Which of the following is not a pre-requisite of health promotion ?

a. Educate b. Treat
c. Enable d. Mediate
163. Health promotion includes all except:

a. Effective and concrete public participation
b. Directed towards action on the determinants of health
c. Does not approach or use complimentary method against health hazards
d. Focusing on people at risk for specific disease

a. Inadequate health system b. Unhealthy life style
c. Poor environment d. information, education and communication
165. Health maintenance requires the measures to achieve health by

a. Unsafe environment b. Health services
c. Increasing stress d. Increasing conditions
166. Main purpose of sentinel surveillance is

a. To find out total number of cases
b. For intervention of therapeutics
c. To depict natural history of disease
d. Prevention of sentinel piles
167. Which one of the following is not a socioeconomic indicator ?
a. Literacy rate b. Family size
c. Housing d. Life expectancy at birth
168. The measure used to express the global burden of disease i.e., how a healthy life
is affected by disease, is
a. Disability – adjusted life year b. Case fatality rate
c. Life expectancy d. Age- specific incidence rate
169. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is
a. Activities of daily living (ADL) scale
b. Wing’s handicaps, behavior and skills (HBS) Schedule
c. Binet and Simon IQ tests
d. Physical quality of life index (PQLI)
171. Infant mortality rate in kerala is

a. 38 b. 30
c. 26 d. 16
172. Objectives of the health services include each of the following except
a. Delivery of curative care only
b. Health Promotion]
c. Prevention control, or eradication of disease
d. Treatment and rehabilitation
173. PQLI includes all except

a. Per capita income b. Life expectancy at age 1 year
c. Literacy d. Infant mortality
174. Physical quality of life in India is

a. 31 b. 43 c. 50 d. 61
175. Ability of an infectious agent to induce clinically apparent illness is known as
a. infectivity b. Virulence c. Pathogenicity d. Multiplication
176. The submerged portion of the iceberg represents the following cases except
a. Clinical cases b. Latent cases

c. Inapparent cases d. Presymptornatic cases
177. As a community health nurse, the best with of promoting healthy life style in
children is through
a. primary prevention b. Secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention d. primordial prevention
178. Loss of anatomical structure or physiological function is known as

a. Disease b. Disability
c. Handicap d. Impairment
179. The backbone of community health services is
a. Health education b. Home visit
c. Bag technique d. Referral services
180. Possessing the abilities and resources to accomplish family development task
is known as
a. Family health b. Family development
c. Group function d. Community health
181. The community health nurse should not make surprise supervisory visits
because
a. The village health nurse may he on leave
b. The village health nurse may not be prepared for visit
c. The aim of supervisory visit is to train the subordinates
d. The village health nurse may be on home visits
182. The community health nurse can maintain a cumulative and continuous record
for family health services through
a. Daily diary b. Family register
c. Home visit record d. Family folder
183. In the absence of the doctor, to facilitate the services, guidelines used by
community health nurses are called
a. Policy manual b. Health guidance
c. Standing order d. Job description
184. A permanent written communication that document information relevant to

client’s health care is called as
a. Policy manual b. Record
c. Register d. Report
185. Epidemiology is the

a. Study of distribution and determinants of disease
b. Study of epidemics
c. Science of diseases
d. Study of demography
186. The unit of study in epidemiology is

a. Family b. Society c. Cases d. Defined population
187. An outbreak of disease in a bird population is (b)

a. Omitholoy b. Epomithic c. Oncology
188. Person those who carrying disease producing organism and without producing
symptoms
a. Host b. Carrier c. Agent
189. Carrier of a virulent organisms are called
a. Mono carrier b. Pseudo carrier c. Agent
190. The time interval between the invasion of agent and appear cause of first of the
disease is
a. Transmission period b. Incubation period c. Termination place
191. Humoral immunity is associated with
a. T-cell b. B-cell c. Alpha cell
192. Immuno biological substance which produces specific protection against a

disease
a. immunity b. Vaccine c. Immune globulin
193. Killed vaccines are administered by

a. A 1/v or 1/m b. Subcutaneously or intramuscularly
c. Hypodermal
194. Major Immunoglobin of serum is

a. IgA b. IgG c. 1gM
195. Immuno globulins are administer through

a. Intravenously b. Intramuscularly c. Hypodermal
196. Passive immunization is achieved by

a. Vaccines b. Antisera or antitioxins c. by birth itself
197. Recommended temperature of storage of polio vaccine is

a. 36.c b. 20.c c. -4.c
198. A system which is used to help the storage and transportation of vaccine at low
tern-perature is
a. cold box b. cold chain c. refrigerator
199. Most common method of storage of vaccine at PHC level

a. Refrigerator b. ILR (ice lined Refrigerator) c. Cold chain
200. Method which is used to carry small quantities (16 – 20 vials ) of vaccine
a. Vaccine carrier b. ILR c. Refrigerator

201. The most common neurological complication associated swine flue influenza
vaccine
a. Increased ICP b. Guillian Barrie syndrome
c. Epilepsy
202. Corner stone for control of a communicable disease is
b. Rapid indentification c. Treatment
203. Oldest communicable disease control measure is

a. Quarantine b. Isolation c. Health education
204. Most powerful and cost effective weapons of modem medicine for prevention of
communicable disease
a. Immunoglobulin b. Active immunization c. Antitoxin
205. Global immunization programme was launched at

a. 1950 January b. 1974 May c. 1800 October
206. EDT was launched in India

a. 1950 June b. 1978 January c. 1974 May
207. Universal immunization of programme was launched in India

a. 1974 May b. 1985 Nov – 19 c. 1978 January
208. Ultimate objective of surveillance is

a. Treatment b. Prevention c. Detection
209. Measles vaccine give at

a. 15 months b. 9 months c. 1 year
210. MMR vaccine given at

a. 9 months b. 15 months c. 1 year
211. Substance which destroys harmful microbes

a. Bacteriostatic b. Disinfectant c. Detergent
212. Substance which destroys or inhibit the growth of micro organism

a. Disinfectant b. Antiseptic c. Bactericidal
213. Substance which suppresses or neutralized bad odor is

a. perfumes b. Deodorant c.Detergent
214. Process of destroying organisms including spore is (b)
a. Burying b. Sterilization c. Disinfection
215. Any deviation, subjective or objective from a stale of physiological well being is
known as:
a. Mortality b. Morbidity c. Handicap d. Impairment
216. Number o existing cases of a disease at specific time is called as:

a. Incidence b. Prevalence
c. Point prevalence d. Period prevalence
217. The tool which is used to measure the occurrence of any event in a population
during given time period is:
a. Rate b. Ratio
c. Proportion d. Denominator
218. When there is a cholera outbreak in a community as a community health nurse.

You have to carry out the following except
a. Notification b. Oral rehydration therapy &
tetracycline
c. Immunization of the at risk population d. Chlorination of wells once a week
219. Diseases which are imported from other country where they do not occur
otherwise s defined as :
a. epidemic diseases b. pandemic diseases
c. Sporadic diseases c. Exotic diseases
220. The source of the disease transmission means:

a. One who disseminates the disease agent to host
b. Disease agent multiplies and increases in number on storage
c. Storage o disease producing organism
d. Receiver of disease agent
221. The first case which comes to the attention of the investigator is :
a. Primary case b. Secondary case
c. Index case c. Contact case
222. A carrier who excretes the infectious agent for an indefinite period is known as:
a. Incubatory carrier b. Healthy carrier
c. convalescent carrier d. Chronic carrier
223. Sub clinical cases are referred to as:

a. Cases with mild symptoms b. inapparent cases
c. Cases without symptoms d. Cases with severe illness
224. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in non-communicable

diseases is known as:
a. Communicable period b Serial interval
c. Latent period d. Generation time
225. The diameter of the droplet to reach and to be retained in the aiveoli to cause
infection is :
a. 5 and less than 5 micron b. 10 micron
c. 15 micron d. 20 micron
226. the occurrence of an epidemic is regarded as highly unlikely in the presence of :

a. active immunity b. Passive immunity
c. combined active & passive immunity d. Herd immunity
227. Ring immunization means:
a. Given around 100 yards of a case detected
b. Given around a mile of a case detected
c. Forms a ring shaped sear
d. Given to produce ring shaped lesions
228. The result of Mantoux test is read after

a. 6 hours b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours d. 72 hours
229. Which of the following is Bacteriostatic-?

a. rifampicin b.ethambutol
c. INH d. streptomycin
230. Dose of BCG for Neonates is

a. 0.05 ml b. 0.1 ml
c. 0.2 ml d. 1 ml
231. The most accurate technique to measure prevalence of polio is
a. School Survey b. house to house
c. Lameness survey d. Serological survey
232. The major route of transmission of hepatitis A is

a. Faeco-ora route b. parenteral route
c. Sexual transmission d. perinatal transmission
233. The first serological marker of hepatitis B to appear is

a. HBs Ag, b. HBeAg,
c. anti HB c d. anti HBs
234. V. Chlorea produces diarrhea by

a. Increasing motility b. Increasing secretion
c. mucosal damage d. mal absorption
235. Enteric fever is caused by

a. salmonella typhi b. S. paratyphi-A,
c. S. paratyphi B d. all of the above
236. The most common helminthic in the world is

a. ascariasis b. ancylostomiasis
c. enterobiasis d. trihuriasis
237. Which of the following is also called break bone fever

a. dengue b. chikungunya
c. KFD d. orayar fever
238. Environment is classified into

a. Macro and micro b. Mini and minute
c. Small and large d. None of the above
239. The quantification of the following diseases of health is considered very difficult
or impossible:
a. Physical b. social
c. Mental d. spiritual
240. Sanitation and the national water supply programme in India was launched in the
year __________
a. 1954 b. 1964
c. 1974 d. 1984
241. which is the most suitable method for disposal of night soil, litter, refuses etc in
rural area
a. Biogas plant b. Composting
c. Dumping d. Manure pit
242. Oxidation pond is the method used for __________

a. Solid waste disposal b. Sewage treatment
c. Water purification d. Sullage disposal
243. Sewellage is____________

a. Liquid excretia b. Waste water from kitchen
c. By product of chemical industry d. Waste water from an industry
244. Solid was during the preparation, cooking & Consumption of food is known as
a. Garbage b. Refuse
c. Rubbish d. Litter
245. Orthotolidine test is used to determine___________

a. Nitrates in water b. Potassium in water
c. Ammonia in water d. Free combined chlorine in water
246. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by __________

a. Boiling b. Filtering
c. Disinfecting d. Chlorination
247. When chlorine is added to water what will happen __________

a. Hydrochloric and hypochlorous acid forms
b. Carbondioxide is released
c. o2 & CO2 is released
d. None of the above
248. The Greatest advancement in the water purification is

a. Sand bad filtration b. Disinfection
c. Chlorination d . All the above
249. Chemical used for purification of water ___________

a. Potassium permanganate b. DDT c. Alum d. Ammonia
250. House hold purification of water ___________
a. Boiling b. Mixing of bleaching powder
c. Double pot method d. None of the above
251. How many mg of calcium carbonate per litre water is considered as hardness of
water ___________?
a. 100 mg/lt b. 200 mg/lt
c. 300 mg/lt d. 400 mg/lt
252. In standard housing floor space should be at least______ sq.ft per person (b)
a. 60 sq.ft b. 100 sq.ft c. 120 sq ft
253. Prevention of food adulteration act is enacted by Government of India in

________ (b)
a. 1950 b. 1954 c. 1960
254. The best method of refuse disposal is: __________

a. Burning b. Dumping c. Composting
255. The tests for the biological examination of water includes_____

a. Algae b. Diatoms c. Fungi d. All
256.The agent for the dechlorinating is known as____

a. Charcoal b. Sodium thiosulfate
c. Sodium fluoride d. Sodium biocabonate
257. Which of the following is the natural ways of purification of water ______
a. Sedimentation b. Storage c. Filtration d. All
258. Which one of the following is the most effective disinfectant action after
chlorination: _________
a. Sedimentation b. Storage
c. Filtration d. All
259. Which one of the following does not indicate water pollution ?
a. Sudden decrease in turbidity
b. Sudden decrease in chlorides
c. sudden increase in chlorides
d. None
260. The sanitary disposal of excreta the important from the following points of view
expect:
a. Food contamination b. Water pollution
c. Air pollution d. Soil pollution
261. Which one of the following is the most effective disinfectant action after
chlorination________
a. O b. CCL c. HOL d. CL ions
262. What is the most hygienic method of disposal of solid wastes?
a. Composing b. incineration
c. Burial d. Manure pits
263. In acetone killed typhoid vaccine the immunity last for:

a. 6 months b. 1 years
c. 2 years d. 3 years
264. In salmonellosis, isolation is recommended till:

a. 3 consecutive stool cultures are-ve
b. Fever subsides
c. Widal reaction is –ve
d. 72 hour after chloramphenical therapy
265. The time period is more than _____ for chronic carrier of typhoid
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months
266. Highest incidence of typhoid fever in the age group (years):

a. 10-12 b. 20-30 c. 30-40 d. 40-60
267. In typhoid, a permanent carrier is one who excretes bacilli for more than:
a. 3 months b. 6 months
c. 1 year d. 3 years
268. Only human beings are the reservoirs for:

a. pox b. Influenza
c. Salmonella d. Rabies
269. In Salmonellosis isolation done till:

a. Fever subsides b. Blood culture negative
c. Spleen subsides d. Stool culture negative for three times
270. Vomiting occurs in a group of children in the night who had a meal at noon. The
causative agent for food poisoning is most likely to be:
a. Salmonella b. Botuslism
c. Staphylococus d. Vitral gastroenteritis
271. The common cause of diarrhea in children is:

a. Rota virus b. Norwalk virus
c. Adenovirus d. Giardiasis
272. Certificate of cholera vaccination is valid after days:

a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 10
273. Regarding cholera vaccine all are correct except that:

a. It is given at intervals of 6 months b. Long-lasting immunity
c. Not useful in epidemics d. Not given orally
274. As per the latest guidelines which of the following dehydration status required
ORS prescription:
a. Mild dehydration b. Moderate dehydration
c. Some dehydration d. Any dehydration
275. Best prophylaxis of cholera is:

a. Early case detection b. Improved water sanitation
c. Chemoprohylaxis d. Check spread of epidemic
276. In a cholera epidemic the information is to given up to level of :

a. Health ministry b. DGFAMS
c. Hospital d. CMO and IMO
277. Chemoprophylaxis for cholera is by administrating:

a. Doxycycline 300 mg ounce b. Metrogyl 400 mg. 3 tablets
c. Vancomycin 1 mg d. Kannamycin 500 mg
78. The drug of choice in cholera is:
a. Tetracycline b. Sulphadiazine
c. Ampicillin d. Streptomycin
279. Osmolality of WHO ORS is (mmoI):

a. 240 b. 270
c. 800 d. 330
280. Citrate is added to conventional oral rehydration solution (ORS) in order to:
a. Improve sodium chloride absorption
b. Correct acidosis c. Increases its shelf-life
d. Improve glucose absorption
281. Oral rehydration theory consists of the following except:

a. Sodium Chloride b. Potassium chloride
c. Magnesium sulphate d. Glucose
282. The WHO formula for ORS provides in mEq/L:

a. 70 of sodium b. 20 of potassium
c. 30 of chloride d. 80 of sodabicarb
283. Oral rehydration fluid does not contain:

a. Sodium chloride b. Calcium lactate
c. Bicarbonate d. Glucose
284. Which is not essential in case of cholera epidemic ?

a. Weekly chlorination b. Notification
c. Vaccination of individuals d. treatment with ORS and tetracycline
285. The required amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools
is :
a. 25 m/litre b. 50 gm/litre
c. 75 gm/litre d. 100 gm/litre
286. The infectivity of a convalescent case of cholera lasts for:

a. Less than 7 days b. 7 to 14 days
c. 14 to 21 days d. 21 to 28 days
287. In a case control study of a suspected association between breast cancer and
the contraceptive pill, all of the following are true statements except:
a. To control should come from a population that has the same potential for
breast cancer as the cases
b. The control should exclude women known to be taking the pill at the time of
the survey
c. All the control needs to be healthy
d. The attributable risk of breast cancer resulting from the pill may be directly
measured
288. Which one of the following is the longest carrier state found in the disease of
cholera?
a. 2 to 3 weeks b. 1 to 5 years c. 5 to 10 years d. Above 10 years
289. Of the total deaths, diarrhea induced deaths among children below 5 years of age
in India are:
a. 35% to 40% b. 25% to 30% c. 15% to 20% d. 5% to 10%
290. Epidemiology of cholera in England was classified by:

a. John Snow b. Winslow c. Chadwick d. Howard Hughes
291. True about eltor epidemiology are all except:

a. Chronic carrier are common
b. Asymptomatic mild cases common
c. Long extraintestinal survival
d. High secondary attack rate in families
292. True in Eltor cholera are E:

a. Infections are mild and symptomatic
b. They are resistant to polymyxin-b unit disc
c. Chronic carriers are common
d. Secondary attacks rate high
293. About cholera true is:

a. Eltor variety rarer than classical
b. Vaccine is essential during epidemics
c. Antibiotic theraphy contraindicated
d. Ganlioside receptors in the intestiries
294. Choler is a vehicle transmitted disease because:
a. When the vehicle is controlled the epidemic subsides
b. It is always possible to isolate the organism from the vehicle
c. The common source of infection is riot traceable
d. The organism does not travel great distances
295. Most common cause of epidemic of infective hepatitis in India is:

a. HAV b. HBV
c. HCV d. HEV
296. Maximum maternal mortality is seen in:

a. Hepatitis B b. Hepatitise E
c. Hepatitis c d. Hepatitis
297. Best method to protect newborn from HBsAg +ve, mother is:
a. Isolation b. Stopping breastfeeding
c. Hep B immunoglobulin d. Hep B- vaccine and immunoglobulin
298.True about viral hepatitis B is:

a. Transmits by oral route
b. More incubation period than viral A
c. Different histopathologically from viral A Hepatitis
d. Can b cultured
299. Average incubation period of infectious hepatitis is:

a. 7 days b. 15 days
c. 25 days d. 50 days
300. All of the following feature is suggestive of asbestosis except:

a. 0-5 years b. 0-10 years
c. 0-15 years d. 0.3 years
301.All of the following feature is suggestive of asbestosis except:

a. Occurs within five years of exposer
b. The disease progress even after removal of contract
c. Can lead to pleural mesothelima
d. Sputum contains asbestos bodies
302. In an epidemic of poliomyelitis best to stop spread by:

a. Injection of killed vaccine b. OPV drops to all children
c. Isolation of the cases d. Chlorination of all the wells
303. False regarding polio vaccine:

a. Injection of killed vaccine b. OPV drops to all children
c. Isolation of the cases d. Chlorination of all wells
304. The following statements are true for inactivated polio vaccine except:
a. It does not produce intestinal immunity
b. It prevents paralysis
c. It is contraindicated in immune deficiency disorders
d. Booster does with oral polio vaccine can be given
305. The following is not true of inactivated polio vaccine:

a. Induces only circulating antibodies
b. Prevents both paralysis and reinfection by wild polio virus
c. Does not require stringent epidemics
d. Not useful in controlling epidemics
306. Least likely to diagnosed polio is

a. Fever, malaise of 2 days
b. Fever and signs of neck rigidity
c. Descending symmetrical paralysis with preservation of reflexes and sensory
system
d. Gradual recovery of muscle function in 6 months
307. In polio transmission easy block can be applied by acting on:

a. Reservoir b. Susceptible host
c. Feco-oral d. Agent
308. The epidemiological trend of poliomyelitis are all except:

a. affects higher age groups b. increasing in topics
c. also cause upper limb paralysis d. sporadic to epidemic
309. Which of the following type of polio is most common?

a. Inapparent b. Abortive c. Nonparalytic d. paralytic
310. Wrong about polio patient who had paralysis:

a. Can transmit it by nasal discharge
b. Sub clinical infection common
c. Can by given vaccine
311. All true for a polio epidemic curve in a community except:

a. All cases within 7-14 days
b. Orofaecal mode of transmission
c. Herd immunity present
d. Epidemic curve has a slow rising slope and decline
312. Number of subclinical cases for 1 paralytic polio is:

a. 50 b. 100
c. 1000 d.10,000
313. AIDS was first year: ©
a. 1975 b. 1981 c. 1986 d. 1991
314. All are true of BCG inoculation, except:

a. Papule in 7 days b. Forms an ulcer
c. HeaPs spontaneously d. Size of 4-8mm in 5 weeks
329. Effectivity of BCG inoculation, except:

a. 80% b. 60%
c. 40% d. Less than 40%
315. A positive Mantoux test indicates that the child:

a. Is suffering from active TB
b. Has had BCG vaccination recently
c. Has had tuberculosis infection
d. all of the above
316. BCG is not given to patients with:

a. Generaliseci eczema
b. Infective dermatosis
c. Hypogammaglobulin anemia
d. all of the above
317. In the administration of BCG vaccine, the diluents is :

a. Glycerine b. Glycerol
c. Normal saline d. Distilled water
318. The vaccine Administered by subcutaneous route is:

a. BCG b. OPV
c. Tetanus toxoid d. Measles
319. The direct BCG vaccination in India is given up to age of:

a. 10 years b. 15 years
320. BCG vaccine is administered to children:

a. Intradermally b. Subcutaneously
c. Intramuscularly d. Orally
321. All the following are correct regarding BCG vaccination reactions except:
a. Ulceration with crust
b. Heals within 6-19 weeks
c. Maximum size of papule is reached at 5 weeks
d. Suppurative lymphadenitis
322. 0.1 ml of BOG contains mg. moist weight:

a. 0.050 b. 0.025
c. 0.075 d. 0.100
323. DOTS indicates
a. Long-term treatment under direct observation
b. Short-term treatment under direct observation
c. Short-term observation
d. Domicialiary treatment without observation
324. Short-term antitubercular therapy is given to minimize:

a. Resistance b. Toxicity
c. Relapse d. Cost
325. To prevent emergence of resistance in TB following are done except:

a. Multidrug regimen used
b. Drug to which bacteria are sensitive is used
c. Defaulter action
d. Pre-treatment regular culture sensitivity
326. True about tuberculin test:

a. Used for diagnosis of TB
b. Measure incidence of disease
c. More than 10mm in 72 hr indicates positive test
d. Measure immunity status
327. Tuberculin test positivity depends on:

a. Erythema b. Nodule formation
c. Induration d. Ulcerative change
328. For Mantoux test, the standard dose of tuberculin used in India is:
a. 0.5 TU b. 1.0 TU
c. 5.0 TU d. 10.0 TU
329. Tuberculin test is read after:

330. Annual infection rate in TB is the percentage of:

a. Person converted from tuberculine negative to positive
b. New cases of tuberculosis
c. Sputum positive cases
d. Radiological cases
331. Definitive host for malaria parasite is

a. Man b. Mosquito
c. Both of them d. None of the above
332. All the features of lymphatic filariasis except
a. Adult worms live in blood vessels
b. Microfilaria in blood increase at night
c. Disease is not some cases
333. Second generation tissue culture vaccine refers to rabies vaccine of

a. Human Origin b. Non human origin
c. Synthetic origin d. None of the above
334. Following an animal bite, the animal has to be observed for at least
a. 2 days b. 5 days
335. The ideal site for vaccination of simple vaccine is

a. anterior abdominal wall b. arm
c. front of thigh d. gluteal region
336. Oral rabies vaccine has been introduced for immunoglobulin of

a. Humans b. dogs c. foxes d. all of the above
337. The only animal known to manifest JE disease is

` a. Pig b. Cattle c. Buffalo d. hourse
338. In which state in India is kyasanur forest disease prevalent

a. Kerala b. Tamilnadu c. Karnataka d. Andrapradheh
339. _____is receiving special attention in the prevention of chronic disease?

a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention
c. Pre-morbid prevention d. Tertiary prevention
340. ________ is the process of enabling people for Increased control over & to
improve health?
a. Health education b. Environmental modification
c. Heart protection d. Health promotion
341. The epidemiological triad include _________ host & environment

a. Disease b. Agent c. Infection
342. The entry & development or multiplication of a disease-producing agent in the

body of man (or) animals is called ____________
a. Disease b. Infection c. Health
343. The time interval between the entry of the disease agent into the body & the
appearance of the first sign or symptom of the disease is called
a. Health b. Infection c. Isolation d. Incubation period
344. The person who harbor the disease agent without having any outward signs &
symptoms; is called
345. The separation of a person with infectious disease from contact with other
human being is called
a. Incubation b. Isolation c. Termination
346. Vector borne diseases are transmitted by

a. Air b.Animal c. Insect
347. Fomites are___________

a. Non living things b. Living things
c. Insects d. Animals
348. To a polio victim during initial hospitalization hydrotherapy is a part of ___

a. Specific protection b. Early diagnosis & Treatment
c. Rehabilitation d. Disability limitation
349. Study of place distribution in epidemiology is useful for ____

a. Urban rural Comparison b. Inter country comparison
c. Intra nation Comparison d. All the above
350. The inability to walk, without support is known as____

a. Handicap b. Disability
c. Impairment d. None of the above
351. The commonest mode of transmission of hookworm is_____

a. Mechanical vector b. Percutaenous
c. Faeco-oral d. All the above
352. Epidemiology includes the measurement of which of the following

a. Measurement of frequency of disease
b. Measurement of distribution of disease
c. Measurement of determinants of disease
d. all of the above
353. What is the basic difference between epidemiology

a. In clinical medicine, unit of study is case and in epidemiology unit of study is
population at risk
b. Unit of study in clinical medicine is population at risk and in epidemiology, it is
case
c. Unit of study in clinical medicine and epidemiology is population at risk
d. Unit of study in clinical medicine and epidemiology is case
354. Primary prevention means measures taken prevent the occurrence of disease
a. After the initation of disease
b. Before the occurrence of disease
c. After the disease is being complicated
355. Primary prevention includes which the following
a. Health promotion and specific protection
b. Early diagnosis and treatment
c. Disability limitation
d. All of the above
356. Impairment is defined as any loss or abnormality

a. Within the range considered normal for a human being
b. That leads to secondary treatment
c. In psychological physiological and anatomical structure or function
d. All of the above
357. Medical rehabilitation means

a. Restoring and retarding the functional ability of an individual
b. Making an individual capable to earn his livelihood
c. Restoring family and soda Relationship
d. Restoring the dignity and confidence of disabled individual
358. Descriptive epidemiology is one of the method of epidemiology IN includes:

a. The description of the occurrence of a disease in population
b. The relationship between the health status and other variables
c. The alteration in the program of disease
359. An epidemiologist studies the cohort in relation to exposure factor and outcome
back in years. Then it is which type of study:
a. Retrospective cohort study
b. Prospective cohort study
c. Case control study
d. All of the above
360. Cross sectional design is used to measure the disease in population. It is the
design which includes:
a. Repetition of observations in the same population over a prolonged period of
time
b. Single examination of a cross-section of population at one point in time
c. Comparing the known indices
361. Formulation of hypothesis primary level of prevention includes all EXCEPT:

c. Early diagnosis & treatment d. Primordial prevention
362. Prevention of coronary artery disease by changing life style by education is

referred as:
a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention d. Primordial Prevention
363. Prevention of coronary artery disease by changing life style by education is
referred as:
a. All health related events and states in population
b. Epidemic diseases
c. Communicable and non communicable diseases
364. Under the revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, a new case is
one who has never had treatment for tuberculosis or has taken anti-tubercular
drugs for less than:
a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks
c. 4 weeks d. 8 weeks
365. HIV virus can be isolated from all except:

a. Semen b. Saliva
c. Blood d. Skin scraping
366. A case in TB is defined as:

a. X-ray positive b. Culture positive
c. Sputum AFB positive d. Tuberculosis positive
367. Prevalence of tuberculosis infection is measured by:

a. Chest X-ray b. Sputum AFB
c. Tuberculin test d. Sputum culture
368. Annual infection rate in TB is the percentage of:

a. persons converted from tuberculine negative to positive
b. New cases of tuberculosis
c. Sputum Positive cases
d. Radiological Cases
369. Infectious pool of tuberculosis is denoted by:

a. Prevalence of sputum +ve cases
b. Prevalence of X-ray +ve cases
c. Clinically +ve cases
d. Any of the above
370. Which is best indicator of evaluating TB and its trends in society?

a. Tuberculosis conversion index b. Mortality rate
c. Prevalence of infection d. Any of the above
371. Assessment of magnitude of TB and its trend in community is by:

a. Tuberculin conversion index b. Incidence rate
c. Prevalence rate d. Fatality rate
372. The drug used by health workers in the management of acute respiratory illness
a. Cotrimoxazole b. Chloramphenicol
c. Benzyl penicillin d. Gentamycin
373. In meningococcal meningitis:
a. Fatality of typical untreated case is 10%
b. Rifampicin is the drug of choice in eradicating carrier state
c. Cases are the most important source of infection
d. Cases start losing their infectiousness 3-4 days after starting specific
antimicrobial therapy
374. The following diseases are under surveillance by WHO, except:

a. Relapsing fever b. Plague
c. Malaria d. Tuberculosis
375. In meningococcal epidemic all of the following are useful for prophylaxis except:
a. Rifampicin b. Sulfas c. Vaccine d. Tetracyline
376. Vaccines are available against group meningococcus:

a. A b. B c. C d. A and C
377. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a. Cholera Vaccine b. Typhoid Vaccine
c. Meninggococcal Vaccine d. Typhoid vaccine
378. Average incubation period for meningococcal meningitis is:

379. which of the following is true about meaning ococcal meningitis is:
a. Case fatality less than 10% in untreated cases
b. Cases are the main source of infection
c. Rifamicin is the drug of choice
d. Treatment in the first 2 days can save the life of 95% cases
380. Not true about carrier state of N. gonorrheal is:

a. Carrier state remains for several months
b. Organisms can be isolated from naoopharynx
c. Affected 5-30% of cases during epidemics
d. It is coccobacillus
381. The absolute contraindication for administration of pertussis vaccine is :

a. Diarrhoea b. Fever c. Malnutrition d. Convulsions
382. Incubation period of pertussis is:

a. 7-14 days b. Less the 2 weeks c. 16-28 days d. 6 weeks
383. If convulsions are present, which vaccine should not be given:

a. DPT b. Oral Polio c. BCG d. Tetanus Toxoid
384. Which one of the following doses in lethal flocculent units of diphtheria toxoid is
incorporated in DPT Vaccine?
a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35
385. Management of unimmunised contacts of disphtheria is:

a. Antitoxins b. Immunoglobins and antitoxin
c. Erythromycin d. Isolation
386. Treatment of choice for diphtheria Carrier is:

a. Erythromycin b. Tetracycline
c. Penicillin d. DPT
387. A herd immunity of over ______ is considered necessary to prevent epidemic

spread of diphtheria:
a. 50% b. 55% c. 60% d. 70%
388. Management of nonimmunised diphtheria contacted includes all except:

a. Prophylactic penicillin b. Single dose of toxoid
c. Daily throat examinations d. Throat swab culture
389. For which of the following diseases is the usual antibody source equine?
a. Tetanus, Diphtheria b. Infective hepatitis
c. Measles d. None of the above
390. Which one of the following combinations is of DPT

a. Toxoid, live and Killed b. Toxoid, killed and toxoid
c. Live, killed and toxoid d. Killed, killed and toxoid
391. One of the following is used in DPT Vaccine: (b)

a. magnesium sulphate b. aluminium phosphate
c. aluminium sulphate d. Magnesium hydroxide
392. Bull neck in diphtheria is due to:

a. Retropharyngeal abscess b. Laryngeal edema
c. Cellulitis d. Lymphadenopathy
393. The most common age group with diphtheria is:

a. Till cough Subsides b. Till Patient is febrile
c. Life-long d. For 15 days after infection
394. The infectivity of a patient with diphtheria is:

a. Till cough subsides b. Till patient is febrile
c. Life-long d. For 15 days after infection
395. Which of the following diseases has incubation period less than one week?
a. Tuberculosis b. Leprosy
c. Influenza d. Food poisoning
396. All are features of influenza epidemic except:
a. Large number of subclinical cases
b. Long Incubation period
c. Absence of cross immunity
d. Sudden outburst
397. Which of the following vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a. Rubella b. OPV c. BCG d. Hepatitis
398. True about mumps is all except:

a. Incubation period 2-3 weeks
b. Aseptic meningitis may be present
c. Even after B/L orchitis’s sterility is unusual
d. Hyperamylasia falls in pancreatitis
399. Following statements is not true regarding mumups:

a. Caused by paramyxovirus
b. Incubation period is less than one week
c. About 31 – 40 % of infections are clinically in apparent
d. Orchitis occurs in about one in 4 males
400. Incubation period for mumps is:

a. 18 days b. 14 days c. 10 days d. 5 days

Anatomy And Physiology

Multiple choice Questions
1. Anatomy is
a. The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts.
b. The study of how the body and its parts function.
c. The study of the body and its interaction with the environment.
d. All of the above are correct answers.
2. Physiology is
a) The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts.
b) The study of how the body and its parts function.
c) The study of the body and its interaction with the environment.
d) All of the above are correct answers.
3. Smooth muscle is an example of which level of structure organization

a. Tissue level b. organ level
b. c. Cellular level d. chemical level
4. Cell membrane is made up of
a. Fats b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins d. Proteins, lipids, little amount of carbohydrates
5. The, function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is

a. Protein synthesis b. Carbohydrates synthesis
c. Fattyacids synthesis d. Hormones
6. Power house of cell is

a. Ribosomes b. Lysosomes
c. Golgicomplex d. Mitochondria
7. Oxidation of food materials takes place in

a. Mitochondria c. Golgicomplex
b. Lysosomes d. Ribosomes
8. Traffic directors are

a. Ribosomes c. Golgi apparatus
b. RBC cells d. Lysosomes
9. The function of Lysosomes is

a. Production of blood c. Killing the bacteria
b. Protein synthesis d. Fattyacidsynthesis
10. Human nucleus contains chromosomes?

a. 46 c. 49
b. 48 d. 45
11. Single layer of flattened cells is called

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Ciliated columnar epithelium
12. Cube shaped cells present in which tissue

c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Ciliated columnar epithelium
13. Non keratinized stratified epithelium present in

a. Vagina c. Nails
b. Skin d. Hair
14. Oxygen enters a cell via
a. Filtration c. Diffusion
b. Osmosis d. Active transport
15. The term used to “cell eating” is

a. Exocytosis c. Pinocytosis
b. Phagocytosis d. None
16. Which of the following requires energy?

a. Active transport c. Passive transport
b. Osmosis d. Diffusion
17. In a cell, protein synthesis occur at the

a. Mitochondria c. Lysosomes
b. Nucleus d. Ribosomes
18. Which of the following is not found in the cell membrane?

a. Cholesterol c. Phospholipids
b. Proteins d. Galactose
19. The cells of the human body obtain most of the energy from
a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Fats d. None
20. Which ion is in highest concentration in the cells?

a. Calcium b. Magnesium c. Sodium d. Potassium
21. Respiration in a cell is mainly governed by

a. Vacuoles b. Cytosol c. Mitochondria d. Golgi apparatus
22. How many chromosomes are present in a human cell?

a) 4
b) 46
c) 24
d) 48
23. The ion in highest concentration outside of the human cell?

a. Magnesium
b. Calcium
c. Sodium
d. Potassium
24. What is the normal pH value of body fluids?

a. 7.15-7.25
b. 7.35-7.45
c. 7.55- 7.65
d. 7.00-7.35
25. Power house of the cell is
a. Golgibodies
b. Lysosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Nucleus
26. White fibrous tissues are present in

a. Tendons
b. Ligaments
c. Both A & B
d. Bone
27. Ciliated epithelium is presented in

a. Salivary glands
b. Elementary canal
c. Respiratory tract
d. Adipose
28. Hardest connective tissue is

a. Lymph
b. Bone
c. Blood
d. Adipose
e.
29. Loose tissue which contains fatty substances is
a. Lymphoid tissues
b. Adipose tissues
c. White fibrous tissues
d. Reticular tissue
30. Keratinized stratified epithelium present in

a. Skin
b. Hair
c. Nails
d. All the above
31. Keratinized stratified epithelium is found in

a. Fat cells
b. Mast cells
c. Fibro blasts
d. Goblet cells
32. White fibrous tissues is made up of protein known as
a. Keratin
b. Casein
c. Collagen
d. Lecithin
33. Keratinized stratified
34. epithelium present in

a. Nails
b. Vagina
c. Pharynx
d. Mouth
35. Transitional epithelium present in

a. Bone
b. Hair
c. RBC
d. Urinary bladder
36. Collagen fibers found in

a. Nerve cells
b. Ear
c. Skin
d. Liver
37. Strong inflexible fibres is called

a. Collagen fibres
b. Elastic fibres
c. Reticular fibres
d. Nerve fibres
38. Flexible fibres found in

a. Collagen fibres
b. Elastic fibres
c. Reticular fibres
d. Tendons
39. Three types of fibres present in which tissue?

a. Areolar tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Reticular tissue
d. Ligaments
40. Fats are stored in which tissue
a. Epithelial tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Areolar tissue
d. Adipose tissue
41. Hyaline cartilage found in

a. Sternum
b. Femur
c. Tibia
d. Scapula
42. Elastic cartilage is present in

a. Larynx
b. Patella
c. Vertebrae
d. External ear
43. Fibrous cartilage is present in

a. Vertebra
b. Larynx
c. Sternum
d. Pinna
44. Myofibrils is found in

a. Skeletal muscle tissue
b. Cardiac muscle tissue
c. Smooth muscle tissue
d. Nervous muscle tissue
45. Cardiac muscle found in

a. Lungs
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Brain
46. Ciliated columnar epithelium present in

a. Trachea
b. Liver
c. Blood vessels
d. Pancreas
47. Which tissue play important role of defence and protect the body organs from
mechanical, chemical or biological agent?
a. Muscular tissue
b. Connective tissue
c. Epithelial tissue
d. Nervous tissue
48. Which tissue transport the materials from one part of body to the others
a. Epithelial tissue
b. Fluid connective tissue
c. Connective tissue
d. Ligaments
e. Desmosomes
f. Tightjunction
49. The part of the cell that monitors the steps of cell division is
a. Ribosomes
b. Centrosomes
c. Mitochondria
d. Lysosomes
50. The type of intracellular connection throught which molecules moves easily is
molecule of
a. Desmosomes
b. Gap junction
c. Tight junction
d. Ion channel
51. Each chromosome is made up of giant

a. Gene .
b. Chromatin
c. DNA
d. RNA
52. Germ cell is a

a. Haploid cell
b. Diploid cell
c. Zygote
d. Mature cell
53. The number of lipid layers present in the each membrane is

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1
54. The ultimate units carrying hereditary characteristics are
a. Gene
b. Chromatin
c. DNA
d. RNA
55. Cell drinking is also known as

a. Phagocytosis
b. Pinocytosis
c. Exocyytosis
d. Endocytosis
56. In which stage of cell division the chromosome number remains same
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Prophase
d. Halo phase
57. The type of division in which the chromosomal number gets reduced to half
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Prophase
d. Halo phase
58. Substance transport that requires the expenditure of energy is

a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Counter transport
d. Facilitated diffusion
59. The movement of protein substances along its concentration gradient takes place by
the process of
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Counter transport
d. Facilitated diffusion
60. The system of fibres maintain the structure of cell is

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Cytoskeleton
d. Troponin
61. The movement of particles from higher concentration to the lower concentration is
termed as
a. Diffusion c. Endocytosis
b. Osmosis d. Pinocytosis
62. The movement of solvent from the region of its lesser concentration to the region
greater is
a. Diffusion c. Endocytosis
b. Osmosis d. Pinocytosis
63. Thickness of cell membrane

a. 70 to 100 angsstrom units c. 50-0 angstrom units
b. 72-101 angstrom units d. 50-100 angstrom units
64. Structure of cell wall is
a. Complex fluid mosaic mode c. Fluid mosaic model
b. Semi fluid mosaic model d. Maltery fluid mosaic model
65. Reticular tissue present in
a. Liver c. Lymph
b. Spleen d. All of the above
66. Muscular tissue is differentiated into
a. Striped and cardiac c. Cadiac and unstriped
b. Unstriped, striped and cardiac d. Striped and unstriped
67. Haverian canals is present in
a. Artery and vein c. Nerve and lymph vessels
b. Osteoblasts in areolar tissue d. All of the above
68. Nissel granules occur in
a. Bone cells c. Nerve cells
b. Mastcells d. Chondrocytes
69. Hardest substances of the body is
a. Bone c. Cartilage
b. Enamel d. Tendon
70. The only movable bone in the skull is

a. Maxilla c. Mandible
b. Fronto parietal bone d. Nasal bone
71. Which of the following is collar bone
a. Scapula c. Patella
b. Coracoids d. Clavicle
72. Deltoid ridge of humerus in meant for
a. Articulation
b. Attachment of muscles
c. Protection
73. Which of the following bones form pelvic girdle

a. Llium, ischium, pubis c. Llium, ischium and ribs
b. Llium, ischium and chronicle d. Coroid, clavicle, scapula
74. Human vertebral formula is
a. Thigh c. Upper arm
b. Pelvis d. Lower arm
75. Humerus bone is found in
a. C4T8L4S8C8 c. C7T12L5S4C5
b. C7T8L5S6C7 d. C7T12L5S5C4
76. Failure of descent of testis is called
a. Cholecystitis c. Hypogonadism
b. Cryptorchidism d. Sterility
77. Sutural joint is present between
a. Thumb and metatarsal c. Parietals of skull
b. Humerus and radius, ulna d. Glenoid cavity and pectoral grid
78. Malleus is a part of

a) reproduction system c) middle ear ossicles
b) skull of man d) fore limb
79. Greater trochanter is present in

a) Humerus c) Ulna
b) Radius d) Femur
80. Foramen magnum present on

a) Lateral side of skull c) Anterior side of skull
b) Posterior side of skull d) Neural canal
81. Which is the long bone?

a) Scapula c) Patella
b) Pelvis d) Humerus
82. Which bone is present in upper limb?

a) Radius c) Femur
b) Ribs d) Tibia
83. Which bone is present in lower limb?

a) Scapula c) Arm bone
b) Sternum d) Thighbone
84. Eye sockets present in
a) Ethamoid bone c) Frontal bone
b) Occipital bone d) Parietal bone
85. Which is the facial bone?
a) Femur c) Stapes
b) Ethymoid bone d) Sternum
86. Movable bone in the face

a) Mandible c) Vomer
b) Hyoid bone d) Acrimal bones
87. How many true ribs are present in our body?
a) 7 pairs c) 2 pairs
b) 5 pairs d) 8 pairs
88. How many true hip bones are present in our body?
a) 2 c) 6
b) 1 d) 8
89. Which is called ball and socket joint?

a) Ankle pair c) Carpal joint
b) Shoulder joint d) Elbow joint
90. Freely movable joints is

a) Synovial joints c) Public joint
b) Cartilaginous joint d) Temporal joint
91. The total salt content in blood is about

a) 1.85 to 1.9 % c) 2.85 to 2.97%
b) 11.85 to 11.9 % d) 0.85 to 0.9%
92. The substance that prevent clotting of blood in blood vessel is

a) Hemoglobin c) Thyroxin
b) Heparin d) Pepsin
93. The most abundant plasma proteins are

a) Clotting factors c) Albumins
b) Fibrinogen d) Globulins
94. Bleeding increases due to deficiency of

a) Leucocytes c) Thrombocytes
b) Erythrocytes d) T-Lymphocytes
95. kidney shaped nucleus is present in

a) Monocytes c) Granulocytes
b) Lymphocytes d) None
96. Microblastic anemia is due to deficiency of

a) Folic acid c) Iron
b) Vitamin B12 d) All the above
97. The universal donor blood group is
a) A c) AB
b) B d) O
97. Decreased platelet count results in

a) Purpura c) Hemophilia
b) Thrombosis d) Anemia
98. Neutrophils engulf and kill the microbes by
a) Granulopoiesis c) Erythropoiesis
b) Phagocytosis d) Pinocytosis
99. Erythropoietin is produced in

a) Bone marrow c) Spleen
b) Liver d) Kidney
100. Anemia due to maturation effect is

a) Baernolytic anemai c) Microcytic anemia
b) Normocytic anemia d) Pernicious anemia
101. What type of anemia is produced by chronic malaria

a) Aplastic c) Macrocytic
b) Microcytic d) Haemolytic
102. The most important function of neutrophils and monocytes is

a) Coagulation c) Antibody formation
b) Clotting d) Phagocytosis
103. The following are present in circulating blood

a) Prothrombin c) Thrombin
b) Fibrinogen d) Albumin & globulin
104. Leukemias
a) Increased in leucocytes count
b) Decreased in leucocytes count
c) Increase in erythrocytes
d) Enormous increase in leucocyte with immature cells
105. Blood contains

a) 90% Water c) 70% Water
b) 80% Water d) 60% Water
106. Polycythemia refers to an elevated number of

a) Erythrocytes c) Thrombocytes
b) Leucocytes d) Granulocytes
107. Hemophiliacs
a) Z linked disease c) XY linked disease
b) Y linked disease d) X linked disease
108. Which blood component plays the largest role in maintaining osmotic pressure of
blood?
a) Albumin c) W.B.C
b) Platelets d) Globulins
109. Blood dyscrasias that affect all three blood cell line are defined as
a) Leukemia c) Pancytopenia
b) Thrombocytopenia d) Agranulocytopenia
110. All factors are necessary in blood coagulation except

a) Prothrombin c) Globulins
b) Fibrinogen d) Ionic calcium
111. Porphyrin in blood is present in

a) Basophils c) Manocytes
b) Neutrophils d) RBC
112. Which of the following is an agranulocyte?

a) Monocyte c) Neutrophils
b) Basophil d) Eosinophils
113. Which is a granulocyte?

a) Eosinophils c) Monocyte
b) Lymphocyte d) RBC
114. The blood cells nucleus

a) Lymphocytes c) Basophils
b) Monocytes d) Acidophilis
115. Smallest of all WBC is

a) Basophils c) Lymphocytes
b) Monocytes d) RBC
116. A2 lobed nucleus occurs in

a) Basophils c) Eosinophill
b) Monocytes d) Lymphocytes
117. Multilobed nucleus is present in
a) Acidophil c) Monocytes
b) Neutrophils d) Basophils
118. Biggest WBC is
a) Monocytes c) Erythrocytes
b) Lymphocytes d) Acidophills
119. The fluid obtained after the clotting of blood is

a) Plasma c) Cytoplasm
b) Water d) Serum
120. Prothrombin helps in
a) Movement of lymph c) Movement of serum
b) Clotting of lymph d) Clotting of blood
121. Nucleus is absent in

a) Lymphocytes c) Monocytes
b) Neutrophills d) Platelets
122. The life span of eosinophils

a) 14-15 days c) 7-12 days
b) 10-12 days d) 15-20 days
123. The life span of RBC in man
a) 100 days c) 150 days
b) 120 days d) 175 days
124. Aged and old RBC is destroyed in

a) Kidneys c) Muscles
b) Lungs d) Spleen
125. Production of RBC is called as

a) Haemopoiesis c) Haemogenesis
b) Haemolysis d) None of the above
126. WBC are produced in

a) Spleen c) Thymus
b) Lymph d) All the above
127. Blood group antigens in blood are present on

a) Monocytes c) Lumphocytes
b) Basophills d) RBC
128. Blood group antibodies occur in

a) RBC c) Plasma
b) Eosinophills d) Basophills
129. Tricuspid valves are present between

a) RBC c) Plasma
b) Eosinophils d) Basophils
130. Pacemaker of the heart is

a) A-V node c) Mitral valve
b) S-A node d) Purkinjee fibers
131. The innermost covering layer of the heart is

a) Endocardium c) Myocardium
b) Pericardium d) Endometrium
132. The normal B.P of a healthy person is
a) 100/7 OmmofHg c) 120/8 OmmofHg
b) 140/8 OmmofHg d) 160/8 OmmofHg
133. Right side of the heart contains

a) Impure blood c) Mixed blood
b) Pure blood d) Oxygenated blood
134. Middle layer of heart is

a) Peticardium c) Endocardium
b) Myocardium d) Myometrium
135. Bundle of Hiss is present in

a) Heart c) Liver
b) Lings d) Spleen
136. Pacemaker is present in

a) Left atrium c) Right atrium
b) Left ventricle d) Right ventricle
137. Reserve pacemaker is

a) AV node c) Bundle of hiss
b) S-A node d) Tricuspid valve
138. The biggest artery of the body is

a) Superior venacava c) Aorta
b) Coronary artery d) Pulmonary artery
139. The cardiac output per minute in normal adult is

a) 5 Litres c) 8 Litres
b) 7 Litres d) 9 Litres
140. The longest vein in the body is

a) Femoral vein c) Great saphenous vein
b) Common illae d) Portal vein
141. Cardiac output=Stroke volume is

a) Cardiac cycle c) Heart sound
b) Heart rate d) Blood pressure
142. Approximate stroke volume is
a) 40 ml c) 60 ml
b) 50 ml d) 70 ml
143. The smallest veins are called

a) Capillaries c) Arteries
b) Venules d) Arterioles
144. Disorder of heart rate or rhythm is
a) Arrhythmia c) Brady cardia
b) Tachy cardia d) Palpitation
145. Bulging of an artery is

a) Ischemia c) Arterio sclerosis
b) Aneurysm d) Thrombosis
146. Decrease in heart rate is

a) Tachy cardia c) Palpitation
b) Brady cardia d) Heart block
147. The blood vessels that transport blood away from the heart
a) Veins c) Venule
b) Arteries d) Capillaries
148. The heart supplied with atrial blood by the

a) Right coronary artery c) Both A & B
b) Left coronary artery d) Pulmonary vein
149. The property of cardiac muscle to generate its own impulse

a) Excitability c) Rhythmicity
b) Contractility d) Automaticity
150. Ventricular diastole means

a) Relaxation of auricles
b) Relaxation of ventricles
c) Relaxation of auricles and ventricles
d) None of the above
151. Non valvular opening in the left ventricle is

a) Precaval c) Sinoauricular
b) Post caval d) Pulmonary
152. The thickness of respiratory membrane is

a) 2.5mm c) 2.5mm
b) 0.5mm d) 0.5mm
153. Normal tidal volume is

a) 500ml c) 300ml
b) 700ml d) 1000ml
154. Normal residual volume in adult is

a) 500ml c) 5600ml
b) 3000ml d) 1000ml
155. Inspiratory capacity is
a) TV+IRV c) VC+RC
b) TV+ERV d) ERV+RV
156. The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration is called
a) Tidal volume
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Total lung capacity
157. The normal ventilation perfusion ratio is

a) 0.8 c) 0.2
b) 1.4 d) 1.6
158. Lungs volume and capacities are measured by

a) Spirometer c) Stethoscope
b) Sphygmomanometer d) None of the above
159. The amount of air expelled forcefully in a given time is termed (d)
a) Maximum ventilation volume c) Peak respiratory flow rate
b) Respiratory minute volume d) Timed vital capacity
160. Normal FEV is around

a) 83% c) 93%
b) 63% d) 73%
161. Production of surfactant start at

a) One year after birth c) 7 month of fetal life
b) Immediately after conception d) 6 month after birth
162. Surfactant is produced by

a) Enterocytes c) Gastric cells
b) Type 2 alveolar cells d) Type 1 alveolar cell
163. Hyaline membrane disease is caused due to deficiency

a) Rennin c) Surfactant
b) Gastrin d) CSF
164. The P02 of arterial blood is

a) 40 mm of Hg c) 104 mm of Hg
b) 95 mm of Hg d) 4s mm of Hg
165. 02 transported by physical solution is

a) 10% c) 3%
b) 15% d) 23%
166. Dorsal respiratory group of neurons is present in
a) Medulla c) Hypothalamus
b) Pons d) Thalamus
167. Temporary arrest of breathing is called as

a) Eupnoea c) Dysponea
b) Apnea d) Orthopnea
168. Exposure to high altitudes causes

a) Hypoxia c) Hypercapnia
b) Asphyxia d) Dyspnoea
169. Cyanide poisoning is an example of

a) Hypoxic hypoxia c) Histoxic hypoxia
b) Stagnant hypoxia d) Anaemic hypoxia
170. Circulatory shock is an example of

a) Hypoxic hypoxia c) Histoxic hypoxia
b) Stagnant hypoxia d) Anaemic hypoxia
171. Pancreas secretes

a) Bile c) INSULIN
b) Gastric juice d) Insulin
172. The first part of the small intestine is called as

a) Llilum c) Jejunum
b) Duodenum d) Appendix
173. The process of taking food into alimentary tract

a) Propulsion c) Ingestion
b) Digestion d) Mastication
174. The largest serous membrane of the body

a) Peritoneum c) Tympanic membrane
b) Pleura d) All the above membrane
175. Hydrochloric acid is secreted in

a) Pancreas c) Intestine
b) Stomach d) Uterus
176. Islets of Langerhans are present in
a) Liver c) Pancreas
b) Kidney d) Thyroid
177. The enzyme secreted in the mouth is

a) Ptyalin c) Amylase
b) Pepsin d) Steapsin
178. Mastication means
a) Chewing c) Speech
b) Swallowing d) Taste
179. Number of permanent teeth is
a) 48 c) 28
b) 32 d) 24
180. The breakdown of protein begins with secretion of the

a) Salivary glands c) Pancreas
b) Stomach d) Small intestine
181. Volume of gastric juice secreted per day is

a) 3 liters c) 2 liters
b) 4 liters d) 1 liters
182. Taste buds are situated in

a) Liver c) Gall bladder
b) Stomach d) Tongue
183. Sphincter present between esophagus and stomach is

a) Oddi sphincter c) Pyloric sphincter
b) Urethral sphincter d) Cardiac sphincter
184. Pepsin is secreted by

a) Stomach c) Heart
b) Spleen d) Pancreas
185. The length of esophagus is

a) 50 cm c) 100 cm
b) 25 cm d) 75 cm
186. Bile salts are essential to digest

a) Proteins c) Vitamins
b) Carbohydrates d) Fats
187. Biggest gland in the body

a) Liver c) Pancreas
b) Thyroid d) Supra rental glands
188. Function of large intestine is
a) Storage of undigested food until defecation
b) Absorption of water
c) Absorption of electrolytes
d) All of the above
189. The layer responsible for absorption and secretion in the GIT is
a) Sub mucosa c) Muscularis
b) Mucosa d) Serous
190. The breakdown of carbohydrates starts with the secretion of the
a) Stomach c) Salivary glands
b) Pancreas d) Small intestine
191. Alpha cells of pancreas secrete

a) Insulin c) Bile
b) Glucagon d) Gastric juice
192. The Last part of the small intestine is

a) Duodenum c) Jejunum
b) llenum d) Appendix
193. Liver is affected by

a) Jaundice c) Measles
b) Smallpox d) Cholera
194. Triglycerides travel through lymphatic vessels in the form of small particles called
a) Small globules c) Micelles
b) Chylomicrons d) Globules
195. Parietal cells (Oxyntic cells) secrete

a) Pepsinogen c) HCI
b) Extrinsic factor d) Renin
196. Bile is formed in

a) Gallbladder c) Pancreas
b) Liver d) Duodenum
197. Gastric juice has the following enzyme except

a) Renin c) Ptyalin
b) Pepsinogen d) Lipase
198. Diabetes mellitus is due to

a) Increase in insulin level c) Decrease in insulin level
b) Decrease in glucagon level d) Increase in insulin level
199. Factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12 is

a) Pepsin c) Intrinsic factor
b) Renin d) Extrinsic factor
200. The stomach

a) Stores food c) Absorbs vitamin B12
b) Secretes amylase
201. Proteolytic enzyme of pancreatic juice is

a) Trypsin c) Enteropepticlase
b) Pancreozymin d) All of the above
202. Which digestive enzyme is produced in the salivary glands and pancreas?
a) Ptyalin c) Pepsin
b) Amylase d) Lipase
203. The site where most of the chemical and mechanical digestion is carried out in
a. Fundus c. Large intestine
b. Stomach d. Small intestine
204. The cells at the base of the flinclic or oxyntic glands

a. Chief cells c. Argentaffin cells
b. Globlet cells d. Parietal cells
205. The liver does

a. Glycogen storage c. Detoxification
b. Bile production d. All the above
206. Long muscular tube that connects pharynx with stomach is

a. Epiglottis c. Trachea
b. Esophagus d. Pharynx
207. An organ located near the junction of small and large intestine is
a. Fundus c. Colon
b. Appendix d. Pyloric antrum
208. A substance in the large intestine inhibits gastric secretion is

a. Enterokinase c. Enterokinin
b. Enterogastrin d. None
209. The main function of gall bladder is

a. Eliminate bile
b. Concentration and reservoir of bile
c. Secrets bile
d. None
210. Small intestine contains numerous fingers like projections called

a. Vill c. Appendix
b. Vacuole d. None
57

211. In the presence of HCL, pepsinogen is converted into
a. Papain c. Peptide
b. Pepsin d. Renin
212. The majority of food

a. Duodenum c. Ileum
b. Jejunum d. All of the above
213. Cutting teeth are

a. Incisors & canines c. Premolar and molar
b. Incisors & premolar d. Canines molars
214. Blood supply to teeth is by

a. Parotid c. Maxillary artery
b. Sublingual artery d. Carotid artery
215. Which of the following cells produces insulin ?

a. Betas-cells of pancreas
b. Gamma cells of pancreas
c. Alpha cells of pancreas
d. Kappa cells of pancreas
216. Small intestine consists of

a. Duodenum c. Ileum
b. Jejunum d. All
217. Which of the following cells concerned with bile formation ?

a. Leydig cells c. Kupffers cells
b. Proptalia cells d. Pectoral cells
218. Pancreatic juice contains the following except

a. Trypsinogen c. Lipase
b. Chymotrypsinogen d. Trypsin
219. What is the normal pH of gastric juice?

a. 3-4.5 c. 2-2.5
b. 5-6.5 d. 0.9-1.5
220. Pancreas secretion contains

a. Trypsin c. Pepsin
b. Lipase d. Both A & B
221. Chymotiypsinogen is activated into chymotiypsin by

a. Trypsin c. Fatty acids
b. Pepsin d. Bile acid
58

222. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is
a. Cholecystokinin c. Secretin
b. Gastrin d. Bile acid
223. Gastrin is produced by

a. Pancreas c. Pituitary
b. Gastric cells d. All the above
224. The delta cells of islets of langerhans produce which of the following ?
a. Insulin c. Glucagon
b. Somatostatin d. Adrenaline
225. All enzyme are present in gastric juice except

a. Ptyalin c. Renin
b. Pepsinogen d. Lipase
226. Caissons disease is seen in

a. Pilots c. Drivers
b. Doctors d. Engineers
227. Residual volume can be measured by

a. Nitrogen wash out method c. Stethography
b. Spirometer d. Ballisto cardiograph
228. Increased respiration rate is termed as

a. Hypoxia c. Tachypnoea
b. Hyperventilation d. Tachycardia
229. Influence of CO2 on the release and uptake of O2 is

a. Bohr effect c. Haldane effect
b. Venture effect d. Wind kessel effect
230. Influence of CO2 on the release and uptake of CO2 is called as

a. Haldane effect c. Bohr effect
b. Venture effect d. Wind kessel effect
231. Mysentric plexus of Auerbach is present between

a. Serosal and mucosal layer
b. Circular muscle layer and sub mucosal layer
c. Longitudinal and circular layer
d. In the mucosa
232. Interruption of respiration during swallowing is called

a. Deglutition apnea c. Hyperopnea
b. Sleep apnea d. Dyspnoea
59

233. Factor that increases gastric emptying is
a. Gastric c. Secretion
b. CCK d. Products of digestion
234. Parotid glands open through

a. Whartons duct c. Pancreatic duct
b. Stensons duct d. Duot of rivinus
235. Daily salivary secretion is about

a. 500ml c. 1200ml
b. 750ml d. 2500ml
236. Involuntary phase of deglutition is

a. Buccal phase c. Esophageal phase
b. Pharyngeal phase d. None
237. Decreased salivation occurs due to

a. Parasympathetic stimulation
b. Eating favorite foods
c. Atropine administration
d. Presence of irritating food in stomach
238. Mumps affects

a. Submaxillary glands c. Gastric glands
b. Parotid glands d. Intestinal glands
239. Reduced salivary secretion leads to

a. Xeropthalmia c. Parosmia
b. Xerostomia d. Agensia
240. Chief cells secrete

a. CL c. Pepsinogen
b. Mucus d. Intrinsic factor
241. Parietal cells secrete

a. HCL c. HCL & intrinsic factor
b. Intrinsic factor d. None of the above
242. Intrinsic factor is required for the –absorption of

a. Vit-C c. Vit- B
b. Vit-A d. Vit-B12
243. Gastrin is produced from

a. Mucous cells c. Peptic cells
b. Parietal cell d. G cells
60

244. Gastrin
a. Is an enzyme
b. Is produced from parietal cells
c. Inhibits gastric secretion
d. Is a polypeptide
245. Hormone responsible for gastric phase of gastric secretion is

a. Gastrin c. Secretin
b. CCK-PZ d. VID
246. Volume of gastric secretion produced per days

a. 500ml c. 2500ml
b. 1200ml d. 4000ml
247. Normal basal acid output is

a. 0.5 to 2 meq/hr c. 17 to 35 meq/hr
b. 5 to 8 meq/hr d. 3.5 to 6 meq/hr
248. Normal bile secretion in a day is

a. 1500ml c. 2500ml
b. 500ml d. 2000ml
249. Liver weight about

a. 500 gms c. 1500 gms
b. 750 gms d. 2500 gms
250. Kupffer cells are

a. Present in the liver c. Modified macrophages
b. Protective in function d. All
251. pH of bile is
a. 1.2 to 1.5 c. 7 to 7.5
b. 3.5 to 4 d. 9.5 to 10
252. Bilirubin is a
a. Bite salt c. Bile acid
b. Bile pigment d. None of the above
253. Bile is produced in the

a. liver c. spleen
b. gall bladder d. pancreas
254. The capacity of gall bladder is around

a. 150ml c. 50ml
b. 250ml d. 500ml
61

255. The main stimulus for contraction of gall bladder is
a. Gastrin c. Cholecystokinin
b. Secretin d. Thyroxine
256. Sodium taurocholate is a

a. Bite salt c. Bile acid
b. Bile pigment d. None of the above
257. The percentage of bile salts reabsorbed by small intestine is about

a. 70% c. 50%
b. <30% d. <90%
258. Cholecystectomy is removal of

a. liver c. Kidney
b. Gall bladder d. pancreas
259. Cholelithiasis is the presence of stones in

a. Salivary gland c. Kidney
b. gall bladder d. pancreas
260. Excessive break down of RBC’s lead to

a. Prehepaticjaundice c. Obstructive jaundice
b. Hepatic jaundice d. Hepatiejaundice
261. Normal serum bilirubin is

a. 0.1 – 0.3mg% 3. 0.2 – 0.8 mg%
b. 2 – 8mg% d. 1 – 3 mg%
262. The enzyme markedly increased in obstructive jaundice is

a. SGOT c. CCK – MB
b. SGPT d. Alkaline phosphates
263. pH of pancreatic juice is

a. 1.2-2 c. 6-7.4
b. 3-4.5 d. 8-8.3
264. Steatorrhea occurs due to deficiency of

a. Gastric enzymes c. Pancreatic enzymes
b. Saliva d. Succus entericus
265. Intestinal phase of pancreatic secretion is due to hormone

a. Gastrin c. GIP
b. motilin d. CCK
266. Amylase is a
a. Priteolytic enzyme c. Carbohydrate splitting enzyme
b. Fat splitting enzyme d. None of the above
62

267. Trypsin helps in digestion of
a. Proteins c. Fats
b. Carbohydrates d. Minerals
268. Vomiting center is present in the

a. Medulla c. Mid brain
b. Pons d. Large intestine
269. Mass peristalsis usually occurs in

a. Esophagus c. Small intestine
b. Stomach d. Large intestine
270. CCK pt is produced from

a. Cells of gastric gland c. D cells of pancreas
b. I cells of small intestine d. Hepatocytes of liver
271. Somatostatin is produced from

a. Pancreas c. Hypothalamus
b. gastro intestine mucosa d. All the above
272. Secretin is produced from

a. Liver c. Small intestine
b. Spleen d. Stomach
273. Pancreatic juice mainly contains

a. bicarbonate ions c. Chloride ions
b. Calcium ions d. Sodium ions
274. Peptic ulcer is caused due to

a. Anti inflammatory drugs c. Smoking
b. alcohol d. All the above
275. The pH of gastric juice is

a. 5-6 c. 1-2
b. 7-8 d. 6.5-7
276. Urine is emptied through the

a. Ureters c. Trigone
b. Pelvis d. Urethra
287. Now many nephrons in each kidney

a. Ten c. Hundred
b. One million d. One thousand
63

278. Complete stoppage of urine flow is
a. Oliguria c. Anuria
b. Polyuria d. Cytouria
279. Henle’s loop is present in the

a. Intestine c. Stomach
b. Liver d. kidney
280. Capacity of bladder is

a. 10cc c. 200 cc
b. 500 cc d. 5 liters
281. Functional unit of kidney is

a. Glomerulus c. Nephron
b. Neuron d. none
282. Glucose reabsorption takes place actively in

a.Distal convoluted tubules c. proximal convoluted tubule
b. collecting tubule d. Loop of Henle
283. A Substance that is used to measure the glomerular filtration rate is

a. Inulin c. Histamine
b. Insulin d. Mannitol
284. The urine entering into the collecting duct is

a. Hypotonic c. Hypertonic
b. Isotonic d. None
285. Glomerular filtration rate is

a. 50ml/min c. 300 ml/mm
b. 125ml/min d. 500 ml/mm
286. Cystitis is the inflammation of the

a. Kidney c. Bladder
b. Urethra d. Ovary
287. A high level of Creatinine indicates

a. Kidney c. Liver failure
b. Heart failure d. None
288. Direct control of water excretion in the kidney is controlled by

a.ADH c. Blood plasma
b. Oxytocin d. Sodium
64

289. In dehydrated condition which of the following increases?
a. ADT c. ADH
b. ATP d. AMP
290. Hormones secreted by the kidney

a. Melatonin c. erythropoietin
b. insulin d. calcitonin
291. An enzyme produced in the kidney which controls the B.P is

a. erythropoietin c. melanin
b. Renin d. serotonin
292. A funnel shaped structure of kidney is

a. Renal pelvis c. cortex
b. Medulla d. Hilum
293. Detrusor muscle is present in

a. Gall bladder c. Urinary bladder
b. Renal pelvis d. Ureter
294. The three orifices in the bladder wall form a triangle called
a. Trigone c. Urethra
b. Detrusor d. None
295. Which of the following is used to measure Kidney function?

a. Insuin c. Mannitol
b. Inulin d. Urea
296. Iodohippurate sodium is indicated to measure the function of the

a. Kidney c. Lung
b. Heart d. Intestine
297. GFR can be determined by all of the following dyes except

a. p-amino hippurate c. Inulin sodium
b. Phenol sulphonapthalein d. Methyl glyceride
298. The condition in which the kidney suddenly fails to excrete water, electrolytes and
waste products
a. Acute Nephritis c. Acute Renal Failure
b. Chronic Nephritis d. None
299. Counter current exchanger is formed by

a. Henle’s loop c. DCT
b. Vasa Recta d. PCT
65

300. Which among the following is not a part of juxtaglomerular apparatus
a. Maculadensa c. Juxtaglomerular cells
b. Extra glomerularmesangial cells d. Glomerus
301. Structural and functional unit of kidney is

a. Neuron c. Saffomene
b. Nephron d. Juxta- glomerular apparatus
302. The normal renal blood flow is

a. 650m 1/min c. 125ml/min
b. 1200 ml/mm d. 700ml/min
303. The normal GFR is

a. 125ml/min c. 1251ml/hr
b. 125 ml/day d. 1251/day
304. The substance used for the estimation of GFR is

a. Insulin c. Renin
b. Inulin d. Seratonin
305. The normal filtration fraction is

a. 60% c. 20%
b. 30% d. 75%
306. Renal threshold for glucose is

a. 180mg/dl c. 180mg/mm
b. 325 mg/dl d. 375 mg/mm
307. Tubular maximum for glucose to

a. 180mg/dl c. 180 mg /dl
b. 325 mg/dl d. 375 mg/mm
308. The hormone produced from the kidney is

a. Gastrin c. Aldosterone
b. Erythropoietin d. ADH
309. The hormone acting on Kidney is

a. Aldosterone
b. Thyroxin
c. Secretin
d. Erythropoietin
e. Mucus
f. Intrinsic factor
66

310. The normal maimum urea clearance is
a. 75 ml/mm c. 75mg/hr
b. 75 mg/mm d. 75 mg/day
311. The patient with diabetes mellitus will have

a. Osmotic dieresis c. Nodiuresis
b. Walen duuresis d. Voluntary dieresis
312. Normal renal plasma flow is

a. 1200 ml/mt c. 75ml/dl
b. 650 ml/mt d. 54.m 1/dl
313. The chemical agents increasing urination are called

a. Anesthetics c. Cathartics
b. Antidiuretics d. Diuretics
314. Each kidney has about---------------nephrons

a. one million c. one million
b. one lakh d. 2 million
315. The percentage distribution of cortical nephron is

a. 85 c. 15
b. 35 d. 55
316. The percentage distribution of juxtamedullary nephron is

a. 85 c. 15
b. 35 d. 55
317. Juxta glomerular apparatus secretes

a. Renin c. Thyroxine
b. Erythropletin d. Aldosterone
318. Normal urine output is

a. 1.5 to 2ml/min c. 5 to 6ml/min
b. 1 to 2ml/min d. 125 ml/min
319. Thr protein responsible for the absorption of water in the kidney is
a. Sialoprotein c. Calmodulin
b. Aquaporin d. Receptor protein
320. DAH clearance is used to estimate

a. Renal blood flow c. GFR
b. Renal plasma flow d. Filtration fraction
321. Glucose is reabsorbed from the PCT by the following transport mechanism
a. Antiport b. Symport d.Filtration fraction
c. Uniport
67

322. Inability of the kidney to respond to ADH results in
a.Nephrogenic diabetes c. Diabetes inspidus
b. Renal glycosuria d. Diabetes mellitus
323. External sphincter to the urinary bladder is supplied by

a. Pudendal nerve c. Sympathetic nerve
b. Hypogastric nerve d. para sympathetic nerve
324. The system that can sense the changes both inside and outside the body
a. Digestive system c. Nervous system
b. Endocrine system d. Circularity system
325. The major centre to receive, ennalyze and integrate information in the body is
a. Heart c. Pituitary
b. Synapse d. Brain
326. The structure in the body that act as wires of the telephone
a. Veins c. Muscles
b. Arteries d. Nerves
327. Neurons receives nutrients from

a. Erythrocytes c. Monocytes
b. Glial cells d. Blood platelets
328. The part of neuron which is generally called as nerve fiber

a. Dendrites c. Axon
b. Myelin sheath d. Cyton
329. Autonomic nervous system is a part of

a. Central nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system
c. Cerebrospinal nervous system
d. None
330. Somatic efferent pathway of autonomic nervous system is made up of

a. Preganglionic neuron c. Both
b. Postganglionic neurons d. None
331. The presence of relay ganglion in efferent pathway is a feature of

a. Central nervous system c. Cerebrospinal nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system d. Autonomic nervous system
332. Sympathetic nervous system arises from ___- segment of the spinalcard
a. C1 to C7 c. T1 to T7
b. T1 to T12 d. T7 to T12
68

333. Functionally, Sympathetic nerves are
a. Vasomotor (vasoconstrictor)
b. Sudomotor (secretomotor to sweat glands )
c. Pilomotor ( contract arrector pilli and cause erection of hair)
d. All the above
334. Which among the following is not an effect of stimulation of sympathetic nervous
system?
a. Dilation of Pupil
b. Adrenaline and noradrenaline secretion increased in medulla
c. Peristalsis reduced in stomach
d. Dilation of blood vessels generally
335. Parasympathetic nervous system is also known as

a. Thoracolumbar outflow c. Thoracosacral outflow
b. Craniosacral outflow d. Cranio lumbar outflow
336. Parasympathetic nerve endings are in nature

a. Similar to stomatic nerves c. Adrenergic
b. Cholinergic d. Both A and B
337. Which among the following is not an effect of stimulation of parasympathetic

nervous system?
a. Constriction of pupil
b. Rate and force of contraction of heart is increased
c. Salivation increased
d. Sphincters are relaxed
338. The structure of neurons that are arrange in the form of a tree with branches
a. Axon c. Dendrites
b. Cuton d. Myelin sheath
339. Nerves that carry impulses from brain and spinal cord to effector organs are
a. Sensory nerves c. Dendrites
b. Afferent nerves d. Efferent nerves
340. In disease like polio, the cells that get destroyed by virus are
a. Menocytes c. Motor nerves
b. Erythrocytes d. Sensory neurons
341. Structure anf functional unit of nervous system is

a. Neuron c. Neuroglia
b. Nephron d. Giant cell
342. The short branching process of neuron is
a. Axon c. Climbing fiber
b. Dendrite d. Mossy fiber
69

343. The nervous system co-ordinating different activities of internal organs is
a. Central nervous system
c. Autonomous nervous system
d. Reflex arc
344. The nerve carrying impulses from sense organs to brain is

a. Motor nerve c. Sensory nerve
b. Sympathetic nerve d. None of the above
345. The process that carries sensation away from the cell body is
346. Special cells capable of sensing the environmental changes are

a. Receptors c. Dendrites
b. Neurons d. None of the above
347. Nissil granules are the special particles seen in the cytoplasm of
a. Muscie cell c. Epithelia cell
b. Bone cell d. Nerve cell
348. The process which carries sensation toward the call body
349. The neurons classified based on the number of processes are the following except
(d)
a. Unipolar c. Apolar
b. Bipolar d. Polar
350. Brain and spinal cord are parts of

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Parasympathetic nervous system
c. Peripheral nervous system
d. Central nervous system
351. The part of the brain that has the glial cells
a. Pia matter c. Arachanoid membrane
b. Dura matter d. Grey matter
352. The outer membrane that covers the brain is

a. Myelin sheath c. Arachanoid membrane
b. Dura matter d. Pia matter
70

353. The fluid that flows between the outer and middle membranes entering the brain
a. Lymph c. Cerebro spinal fluid
b. Plasma d. Serum
354. The inner most membrane that covers the brain is

a. Pleura c. Piamatter
b. Dura matter d. Arachanoid matter
355. The surface area of cerebrum is increased by

a. Axons c. Myelin sheath
b. Dendrites d. Gyri
356. The highest centre of the brain that controls several functions of the body is
a. Medulla oblongata c. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum d. Diencephalons
357. The portion of brain that connects fore and mid brain is
a. Medulla oblongata c. Diencephalons
b. Cerebrum d. Pons varoli
358. The structure that passes through vertebral column and controls reflex action is
a. Medulla oblongata c. Cerebral cortex
b. Diencephalons d. Spinal cord
359. The substance that appears as ‘H’ in a transverse section of spinal cord
a. Dura matter c. Pia matter
b. White matter d. Grey matter
360. The number of pairs of spinal nerves in man are

a. 30 c. 12
b. 31 d. 13
361. The number of pairs of cranial nerves in man

a. 10 c. 12
b. 11 d. 13
362. The total number of pairs of peripheral nerves in man are

a. 41 c. 43
b. 42 d. 44
363. All the spinal nerves are

a. Afferent nerves c. Sensory nerves
b. Motor nerves d. Mixed nerves
364. The motor spinal nerve fibers originate from
a. Dorsal horn c. White matter
b. Ventral horn d. Piameter
71

365. Medulla oblongata continues in to the trunk as
a. Diencephalons c. Cerebellum
b. Aorta d. Spinal cord
366. The place of grey matter in spinal cord on the

a. outside c. Inner side
b. Right side d. Left side
367. The 2 parts of brain stem are

a. Cerebrum and pons varoli
b. Medulla oblongata and spinal cord
c. Pons varoli and cerebellum
d. Pons varoli and medulla oblongata
368. Cerebellum is a part of

a. Hindbrain c. Mid brain
b. Brain stem d. Hindbrain
369. Peripheral nervous system comprises of

a. Cranial nervous
b. Spinal nerves
c. Cranial and spiral nerves
d. Sympathetic and para sympathetic nerves
370. Material contributing to the formation of brain are

a. White matter c. Only axons
b. Grey and white matter d. None of the above
371. Gyri and sulci are the projections and grooves of
a. Cerebrum c. White matter
b. Optic lobes d. All of the above
372. Frontal, Parietal, temporal and occipital lobes are the division of
a. Cerebellum c. Cerebrum
b. Optic lobes d. Mesencephalon
373. Part of the brain associating with functions like sight, hearing, smell etc
a. cerebellum c. Hypothalamus
b. Penial body d. Pituitary
374. Olfactory and optic lobes are associated
a. Cerebrum and cerebellam
b. Cerebrum and mid brain
c. Diencephalon and hind brain
375. What part of nervous system controls involuntary action?
a. Medulla oblongata c. Hypothalamus
b. Cerebellum d. Spinal cord
72

376. The neurons in the spinal cord that processes the information and generate
responses are
a. Sensory neurons c. Axons
b. Motor neurons d. Association neurons
377. The organ which receive information and generates impulses is called
a. Effector c. Receptor
b. Dendrite d. Interneuron
378. Organ executing the reflex after receiving information from spinal cord is
a. Sensory nerve c. Receptor neuron
b. Motor nerve d. Interneuron
379. The weight of the brain in the total weight of the body is about
a. 2 % c. 4%
b. 3% d. 5%
380. The part of the brain that helps in analyzing a problem

a. Diencephalon c. Medulla oblongata
b. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum
381. Ivan pavlon conducted experiments on

a. Unconditional reflexes c. Conditional reflexes
b. Actions of cerebro spinal fluid d. Actions of pons veroli
382. Waking up to a particular time, every day after practicing for few days with alaram
a. Reflex action c. Unconditional reflex
b. Reflex arc d. Conditional reflex
383. Stopping the alarm fixed at a particular time by yourself in a sound sleep is
a. Unconditional reflex c. Voluntary activity
b. Conditional reflex d. None of the above comes under
384. Control and co-ordination of involuntary activities are under the influence of
a. Brain c. Spinal cord
b. Medulla d. Cerebrum
385. Hormones which have effect on the adjacent cells are called
a. classical hormones c. Paracrine hormones
b. neuro hormones d. Autocrine hormones
386. Chemical substances produced by endrocrine glands having their effect on distant
target organs are called
a. Hormones c. Enzymes
b. Vitamins d. Lipids
73

387. The pituitary glands weight around
a. 500gm c. 1mg
b. 10gm d. 10mg
388. The hormones secreted by posterior pituitary is

a. LH c. Vasopressin
b. FSH d. Growth hormone
389. The hormones produced by hypothalamus are

a. Thyrotropin releasing hormone c. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Thyroid stimulating hormone d. Growth hormone
390. Decreased secretion of growth hormone leads to

a. Cretinism c. Acromegaly
b. Dwarfism d. Gigantism
391. Increased secretion of growth hormone after puberty leads to

a. Cretinism c. Acromegaly
b. Dwarfism d. Gigantism
392. ADH acts on

a. Glomerulus c. PCT
b. Loop of henly d. DCI
393. Diabetes insipidus occurs due to deficiency of

a. Growth hormone c. ADH
b. Insulin d. Thyroxine
394. Tetany is caused due to decrease in

a. Thyroid hoemone c. Pituitary hormone
b. parathyroid hormone d. Pancreatic hormone
395. Calcitonin is produced by

a. Thyroid hoemone c. Pituitary hormone
b. parathyroid hormone d. Pancreatic hormone
396. Normal serum calcium level is

a. 1-3mg/100ml c. 1-3g/100ml
b. 8-11mg/100ml d. 9-11g/100ml
397. Adrenal cortical hormones are

a. steroids
b. Polypeptides
c. Glycolipids
d. Carbohydrates
74

398. Thyroid glands secretes
a. Thyroxine c. Adrenaline
b. Parathormone d. Oxytonic
399. Adrenal glands are situated on the

a. Liver c. Kidney
b. Brain d. None
400. Testosterone is a
a. Female sex hormone
b. Digestive juice
c. Male sex organ
d. Oral contraceptiv

401. Progesterone is a
a. Female sex hormone c. Male sex organ
b. Digestive juice d. Oral contraceptive
402. Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex contains

a. Sex hormones c. Mineral corticoids
b. Glucocorticoids d. Nor-adrenaline
403. Parathyroid hormone controls the metabolism of

a. Iron c. Potassium
b. Calcium d. Copper
404. Growth hormone is secreted by

a. Anterior pituitary c. Parathyroid glands
b. Thyroid glands d. Posterior pituitary
405. One of the following Hormones is not secreted by

a. Growth hormone c. Oxytocin
b. Prolactin d. FSH
406. Iodinated salt is used to prevent

a. Simple goiter b. Addison’s disease
c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Diabetes mellitus
407. Decreased parathormone secretion result in

a. Tetany c. Excess carbohydrate intake
b. ADH deficiency d. Acromegaly
75

408. High blood calcium level is due to
a. Glucagon c. Parathormone
b. Calcitonin d. Glucocorticoid
409. For the absorbtion of water the antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) acts at the
a. DCT c. collecting tubule
b.PCT d. Loop of Henle
410. The disorder of hypo functioning of adrenal cortex is

a. Acromegaly c. Goiter
b. Addison’s disease d. Cushing’s syndrome
411. The anterior pituitary secretes

a. Oxytocin c. Endorphins
b. ADH d. TRH
412. Among the following both exocrine and endocrine gland is

a. Pancreas c. Adrenal gland
b. Thyroid hormone d. master gland
413. Chief cells produce

a. Epinephrine c. parathyroid hormone
b. mineralocorticoids d. Thyroid hormone
414. Antidiuretic hormone is

a. Oxytocin c. Gastrin
b. Vasopressin d. None
415. All the glands in the body are controlled by

a. Pancreas c. Adrenal
b. Pituitary d. Thyroid
416. Oestrogen is produced by

a.Uterus c. Testis
b. Ovaries d. Seminal vesicles
417. Melatonin is produced by which of the following

a. Pituitary gland c. Lymph node
b. Pineal body d. Parathyroid body
418. Aldosterone is chiefly secreted by

a. Zona laxiculata d. Zonaintermedialis
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
76

419. Cortisol binding globulin is synthesized in
a. Liver c. Adrenal
b. Spleen d. Pituitary
420. Crohn’s disease syndrome occurs due to excess of

a. Glucocorticoids c. Sex steroids
b. Mineralocorticoids d. All the above
421. Addison’s disease is due to deficiency of

a. Thyroid hormones
b. Pituitary hormones
c. Adrenal cortical hormones
d. Adrenal medullary hormones
422.Cushings syndrome is due to increase in

a. Glucocorticoids c. Sex steroids
b. Mineralocorticoids d. All the above
423. The adrenal medulla secretes

a. Epinephrine c. Dopamine
b. Norepinephrine d. All the above
424. Hypothalamic releasing hormones are

a. Classical hormones c. paracrine hormones
b. Neuro hormones d. Autocrine hormones
425. Islets of langerhans are mainly present in

a. Head of pancreas c. Tail of pancreas
b. Body of pancreas d. Neck of pancreas
426. Alpha cells of pancreas secrete

a. Insulin c. Somatostain
b. Glucagons d. Pancreatic polypeptide
427. Beta cells of pancreas secrete

428. Gamma cells of pancreas secrete

429. Insulin causes

a. Increased blood glucose levels c. Decreased blood glucose
b. Increased protein breakdown d. Lipolysis
77

430. Somatostastin is a hormone found in
a. Brain c. GIT
b. pancreas d. All the above
431. The follicles of thyroid gland contain

a. Thyroglobulin c. calcitonin
b. Haemoglobulin d. parathharmone
432. The thyroid gland is present in

a. Inside the brain c. below the liver
b. In the neck region d. Above the kidneys
433. Thyroxin is made up of

a. Two DIT molecules c. One DIT and one MIT molecules
b. Two MIT molecules d. None of the above
434. Most essential element required for formation of thyroid hormone is

a. calcium c. Magnesium
b. Iron d. Iodine
435. The thyroid gland weighs around

a. 20mg c. 222mg
b.150mg d. 40gM
436. Iodine is taken up by thyroid cells through

a. Primary active transport c. Osmosis
b. diffusion d. Secondary active transport
437. Triiodothyronine is formed due to coupling

a. One MIT and one DIT molecules c. Two MIT molecules
b. Two DIT molecules d. None of the above
438. Thyroxine causes

a. Decreased BMR c. Increased skeletal growth
b. Decreased blood sugar d. Increased serum cholesterol
439. Excess of thyroxine causes

a. Decreased heart rate c. Detective myelination
b. Decreased BMR d. Increases systolic BP
440. Thyroid stimulating hormone is secreted of from

a. Adrenals
b. Thyroid
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pituitary
78

441. Myxoedema occurs due to
a. Hypothyroidism in children
b. Hypothyroidism in adults
c. Hyperthyroidism in children
d. Hyperthyroidism in adults
442. The hormone responsible for milk ejection reflex is

a. Oxytocin c. Progesterone
b. Estrogen d. prolactin
443. Trousseau’s sign is test for detecting

a. Tetanus c. Cretinism
b. Tetany d. Cushings syndrome
444. The receptor for vision is

a. Rods c. Macula
b. Hair cells d. Cristone
445. The receptor for smell is

a. Rods c. Macula
b. Hair cells d. Olfactory bulb
446. Site of production of aqueous humor is

a. Ciliary body c. Choroid
b. Iris d. Cornea
447. The normal intraocular pressure is
a. 10-20mm of Hg c. 5-6mmofHg
b. 10-2omm of Hg d. 0-15 mm ofHg
448. Increased intraocular pressure results in

a. Glaucoma c. presbyopia
b. cataract d. Nyctalopia
449. Opacity of the lens

a. Cataract c. Hypermetropia
b. myopia d. astigmatism
450. Myopia is corrected by

a. concave lens c. cylindrical lens
b. convexlens d. Bifocal lens
451. Hypermetropia is corrected by

a. concave lens c. cylindrical lens
b. convexlens d. Bifocal lens
79

452. Lesion of the optic nerve causes
a. Blindness in the same eye
b. Blindness in the opposite eye
c. Bitemporal heminopia
d. Homonymous hemianopia
453. Aqueous humour is absorbed through

a. Ciliary body c. Iris
b. cornea d. canal of schlemm
454. Fluid present in the internal ear is

a. Perilymph c. CSF
b. Lymph d. Serum
455. Minimal intensity of sound that can be appreciated by human ear is

a. 20,000hz c. 3000hz
b. 20hz 4. 1000hz
456. Perilymph is present in

a. Scalavestibul c. Helicotrema
b. scalamedia d. Middle ear
457. Which hormone is needed to make immature sperm to mature

a. FHS c. FSH
b. LH d. HL
458. In the menstrual cycle of normal women, ovulation occurs on the

a. 6th day c. 20th day
th
b. 14 day d. 25th day
459. Spermatozoa are formed in

a. Vas defferen’s c. Leydig cells
b. prostate gland d. Seminal vesicle
460. The entire sperm formation takes about

a. 5-6 weeks c. 3-4 weeks
b. 7-8 weeks d. 9-10 weeks
461. How many weeks’ sperm travels through the epididymis?

a. 6-8 c. 2-4
b. 1-3 d. 4-6
462. Which protects the vaginal and urethral openings?

a. Labia majora c. Clitoris
b. Labia minora d. Urethra
80

463. The release of LH in women causes
a. Menstruation c. Implantation
b. Ovulation d. Menopause
464. When ovaries stop producing estrogen this occur

a. Ovulation c. premenstrual syndrome
b. Implantation d. Menopause
465. The only Hormone produced in human body when a woman is pregnant
a. Estrogen c. Progesterone
b. HCG d. FSH
466. The contractions of uterus are stimulated by the produce of

a. Oxytocin c. Prolactin
b. Vasopressin d. Melanin
467. The most common Complication of pregnancy

a. preeclampsia c. Rh factor
b. Mis carriage d. Teraogens
468. Which Hormone Stimulates puberty?

a. GnRh c. FSH
b. LH d. TSH
469. Which of the following helps sperm to enter into ovum?

a. tail C. Mitochondrial sheath
b. Acrosome d. Vacuole
470. In which of the following, maturation of sperm occurs

a. Seminalvesicle c. Epididymis
b. Sertoli cells d. Leydig cells
471. Which of the following is a most potent androgen?

a. Dynazol c. Testosterone
b. Androstenedione d. Dehydro epiandro sterone
472. Absence of menstruation is

a. Dysmenorrhea c. Menorrhagia
b. Amenorrhea d. None
473. Examination of the fetus can be done by a method

a. Aminocentesis c. MRI
b. CT scan d. X-ray
81

474. Formation and maturation of ovum is
a. Spermatogenesis c. Ovulation
b. Oogenesis d. Fertilization
475. The ovarian cycle lasts usually

a. 14 days c. 24 days
b. 18 days d. 28 days
476. Count of spermatozoa is less than 20 million per ml of semen is considered as

a. Infertile c. More fertile
b. Fertile d. None
477. The end of each fallopian tube has finger like projections called
a. Fimbriae c. Cilia
b. Villi d. None
478. The first menstrual cycle is called

a. Menarche c. puberty
b. Menopause d. Maturation
479. The cells of the testis which produce testosterone are

a. Sertoli cells c. Kupffercells
b. leydig cells d. Parietalcells
480. Which among the following is not the hormone secreted by placenta?
a. HCG c. Oxytocin
b. Estrogen d. Progesterone
481. Process of expulsion or delivery of the fetus from the mother’s womb is called
a. Pregnancy c. Menstruation
b. Parturition d. Ovulation
482. FSH secretion starts at

a. Birth c. 9 – 11 years
b. 5 – 7 years d. 25 – 28 years
483. LH is secreted from

a. Anterior pituitary c. Ovary
b. Posterior pituitary d. Placenta
484. The phase occurring immediately after cessation of menstrual bleeding is called
a. Proliferative phase c. Midluteal phase
b. Secretory phase d. Bleeding phase
485. Permanent stoppage of menstrual cycle is called as
a. Puberty c. Menopause
b. Menarchae d. Herorrhagia
82

486. Normal duration of pregnancy in humans is around
a. 150days c. 320days
b. 280days d. 186days
487. HCG is produced in

a. First 2 months of pregnancy c. 3rd trimester of pregnancy
b. 2 trimester of pregnancy d. After delivery of child
488. The precursor of progesteroneis

a. Estrogen c. Oxytocin
b. Cholesterol d. Glycogen
489. Transport of progesterone occurs mainly by

a. Binding with albumin c. Binding with prealbumin
b. Binding with globulin d. Free form
490. Sperms are produced in

a. Epididymis c. Prostate
b. Seminal vesicles d. Seminiferous tubules
491. Progesterone is secreted by

a. corpus luteum c. Adrenal cortex
b. Placenta during pregnancy d. All the above
492. The lymphatic fluid is

a. brownish c. colorless
b. pinkish d. bluish
493. Largest lymphatic organ is

a. Spleen c. Kidney
b. thymus d. Liver
494. Prostate gland is found in

a. male c. both
b. female d. none of the above
495. Fertilization process is completed in

a. in ovary c. in cervix
b. in uterus d. in fallopian tube
496. The female organ corresponding to the male penis is

a. Labia minora c. clitoris
b. hymen d. Vestibule
497. Labyrinth is the part of
a. external ear c. internal ear
b. middle ear d. none of the above
83

498. Which structure helps in changing the thickness of eye lens
a. iris c. choroids
b. ciliary body d. sclera
499. The color of the eyes depends upon the colors of the
a. choroids c. cornea
b. sclera d. iris
500. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

a. thyroid c. lacrimal
b. adrenal d. pituitary
501. The largest nerve in the body is

a. sciatic c. tibial
b. peroneal d. pudendal
502. Father of anatomy
a. Robert koach c. Andreas Vesalius
b. Aristotle d. Robert Hook
503. Power house of cell is known as

a. Mitochondria c. Ribosomes
b. Lysosomes d. Nucleus
504. Normal size of cell is

a. 75-30 micron c. 1-2 micron
b. 7.5-300micron d. 2-3 micron
505. Plasma membrane is composed of

a. fat c. Protein
b. Carbohydrate d. All are right
506. The function of mitochondria in cell is

a. to form ATP c. Transportation
b. Protection of cell d. Excretion
507. Engulfing of the solid substance by cell is called

a. Phagocytosis c. Osmosis
b. pinocytosis d. none of them
508. Engulfing of the liquid substance by cell is called

a. Phagocytosis c. Osmosis
b. pinocytosis d. none of them
509. Which of the following cell organ contains hydrolytic enzymes?

a. nucleus c. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes d. Endoplasmic reticulum
84

510. The secretion of goblet cell is known as
a. hormone c. enzymes
b. mucous d. Digestive juices
511. Study of blood vessels is called

a. Cardiology c. Angiology
b. Hematology d. Serology
512. The urinary bladder is located in the region (b)

a. Umbilical c. Right inguinal
b. Hypogastric d. Left inguinal
513. Which of the following is non-invasive diagnostic technique?

a. Palpation c. Percussion
b. Auscultation d. All of the above
514. The innermost membrane that covers brains is

a. Pleura
b. Dura mater
c. Pia mater
515. Which of the following is the function of integumentary system?

a. Protective c. Excretory
b. Sensory d. All of the above
516. Study of skeletal system is called

a. Osteology c. Chondrology
b. Skeletonology d. Arthrology
517. A runner in the midway of his race begins to sweat profusely. The sweat glands
producing the sweat would be considered which part of a feedback loop?
a. Controlled condition c. Effectors
b. Receptors d. control centre
518. For radiography of a growth on urinary bladder, camera must be positioned on

which of the following region?
A. Umbilical c. Right inguinal
b. Hypogastric d. Left inguinal
519. Which of the following glands is an example of hollocrine gland?

a. Sweat gland c. pancreatic gland
b. Sebaceous gland d. salivary gland
520. In the state of infection which tissue are more active

a. Reticular tissue c. Elastic tissue
b. Adipose tissue d. Collagenase tissue
85

521. Brown adipose tissue is mostly found in
a. Adult male c. New born
b. Adult female d. old age persons
522. Largest gland of the body is

a. Pituitary c. Liver
b. Adrenal d. Pancreas
523. The potential reason of alopecia is

a. Protein deficiency c. Genetic
b. Malnutrition d. Vitamin deficiency
524. Nodes of ranvier is found in which cell

a. Epithelial cell c. nerve cell
b. muscles cell d. red cell
525. The total number of bones found in human body is

a. 206 c. 205
b. 306 d. 210
526. Lambdoid surture runs between these two bones

a. Parietal and frontal bone c. Parietal and occipital
b. Parietal and parietal bone d. In both temporal bone
527. In children fusion of anterior fontanel takes place during

a. 18 months c. 6 months
b. 2 months d. 12 months
528. Coronal sutures are found in

a. Pariental and frontal bone c. Parietal and occipital
b. Pariental and parietal bone d. in both temporal bone
529. Ribosomal subunits are synthesized in…………..

a. Nucleoplasm c. Cytoplasm
b. Nucleolus
530. The process of crossing over leading to genetic recombination occurs in

a. leptotene c. Pachytene
b. Zygotene
531. The function of protein sorting, lipid sorting and secretion is performed by
a. Rough ER c. Golgi apparatus
b. Smooth ER d. Peroxisomes
532. Peroxisomes are related to
a. Metabolism of purines b. metabolism of extra amino acids
c. Oxidation of toxins and alcohol d. All of the above
86

533. Which of the following is the constituent of cytoskeleton?
a. Microtubules (MTs) c. Intermediate filaments (Ifs)
b. Microfilaments (MFs) d. All of the above
534. Chromosome duplication occurs in which of the following phases?

a. G1 phase c. S phase
b. G2 phase d. prophase
535. Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs in

a. Zygotene c. Diplotene
b. Leptotene d. Pachytene
536. Which of the following is responsible for aging of cells?

a. Aging genes
b. Progressive shortening of telomeres
c. Damage due to free radicals
d. All of the above
537. Smallest bone of human body is
a. Stapes c. Tarsel
b. Fibula d. Stomach
538. Digestion begins in our body from

a. small intestine c. mouth
b. Large intestine d. stomach
539. Fetal heart can be felt on which day of embryonic life

a. at 25 day c. at 10 day
b. at 5 day d. at 40 day
540. The average time of cardiac cycle is

a. 6 sec c. l mm
b. 8 sec d. l sec
541. The contraction wave of heart starts from

a. S.A node c. Bundle of his
b. A.V. node d. Purkinje fiber
542. The formula to measure the cardiac output is

a. Stroke volume/heart rate c. Stroke volume+heart rate
b. stroke volume*heart rate d. stroke volume- heart rate
543. Most of digestion occurs in which part of alimentary canal of man

a. Small intestine c. Mouth
b. Large intestine d. Stomach
87

544. Function of pacemaker is
a. To initiate heart beat c. to regulate blood pressure
b. To regulate beat d. To regulate brain waves
545. During sleep blood pressure

a. Increases c. Does not change
b. Decreases d. First decrease than change
546. Sebaceous gland of the skin is a type of

a. Apocrine gland c. Holocrine gland
b. Merocrine gland
547. Haversian system is the characteristic feature in the histology of

a. Muscle c. Cartilage
b. Bone
548. Which of the following muscle tissues can be controlled voluntarily?

a. Smooth c. Skeletal
b. cardiac
549. Schwann cells are present in
a. Nervous tissue c. Connective tissue
b. Muscle tissue
550. The first stage in healing is

a. Proliferation c. maturation
b. Inflammation
551. One of the following is not the basic type of tissue according to function and
structure
a. Epithelial tissue c. Muscular tissue
b. Bone tissue d. Nervous tissue
552. One of the following is not the primary germ layer

a. Protoderm c. Endoderm
b. Ectoderm d. Mesoderm
553. If the lining of an organ produces and releases mucus, which of the following cells
would likely be found in the tissue lining the organ
a. Goblet cells c. Macropahges
b. Mast cells d. Fibroblasts
554. The ciliated variety of pseudostratified columnar epithelium is found in

a. Upper respiratorytract c. Gland ducts
b. Gastrointestinal tract d. male urethra
88

555. Which of the following tissues lines urinary bladder?
a. Pseudostratitied columnar epithelium
b. stratified columnar epithelium
c. Transitional epithelium
d. Noncffiated simple columnar epithelium
556. Fibroblasts are found in

a. Hyaline cartilage c. Dense connective tissue
b. Loose connective tissue d. Both and ‘c’
557. Which of the following cells is not found in alveolar connective tissue
a. Mast cells c. macrophages
b. adipocytes d. Fibroblasts
558. Which of the following fibres is found in alveolar Connective tissue

a. Collagen fibres c. Reticular fibres
b. Elastic fibres d. All of the above
559. Which of the following gives rise to all other types of connective tissue
a. Mesenchyme c. Alveolar connective tissue
b. Mucous connective tissue d. Reticular connective tissue
560. Which of the following is the function of reticular connective tissue

a. Forms stroma of organs
b. Binds together smooth muscle tissue cells
c. Filters and removes worn-out blood cells in the spleen and microbes in lymph nodes
d. All of the above
561. To complete one heart beat the time taken is

a. 0.8 second c. 72 second
b. 1 second d. 1.8 second
562. Blood bank of human body is

a. Spleen c. Bone
b. Liver d. Kidney
563. Longest artery found in the body of human is

a. aorta c. Capillaries
b. Venacava d. Vesicles
564. Red blood corpuscles is also known as

a. Erythrocytes c. monocytes
b. Leucocytes d. Oligodendrocytes
565. Graveyard of red blood cell is

a. Spleen b. Liver c. Bone d. kidney
89

566. Number of which type of WBC is greatest in blood of human
a. Neutrophils c. Monocytes
b. Basophils d. basophils
567. A person with AB blood group is some times called a universal recipient because of
the
a. Lack of antigen in his blood
b. Lack of antibodies in his blood
c. Lack of both antigen and antibodies in his blood
d. Presence of antibodies in his blood
568. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocytes cells formed?
a. Long bones c. Kidney
b. Spleen d. Heart
569. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called

a. Coronary artery c. femoral arteruy
b. pulmonary artery d. Radial artery
570. The epidermal layer that contains stem cells (capable of mitosis) is
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum basale
c. stratum spinosum
571. The skin cells which take part in immune responses are
a. Keratinocytes c. langerhans cells
b. Melanocytes d. Merkel cells
572. The skin layer found only in palms and soles is

a. Stratum lucidum c. stratum granulosm
b. stratum spinosum
573. Callus formed due to abnormal thickening of the

a. stratum corneum c. stratum spinosum
b. Stratum lucidum
574. Skin does not perform the function of

a. Calcium production c. Excretion of wastes
b. Vitamin D synthesis d. Temperature regulation
575. Which of the following substance helps to promote mitosis in epidermal skin cells?
a. Melanin c. Epidermal growth factor
b. Keratohyalin d. Carotene
90

576. Which is the layer of skin where keratinocytes undergo apotosis?
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum granulosm
c. Stratum lucidum
d. stratum spinosum
577. Which of the following is not true?

a. Albinism is an inherited inability of melanocytes to produce melanin
b. Striae form when dermis is over stretched to the point of tearing
c. Much of the body’s fat is located in the dermis of the skin
d. In order to prevent excessive scarring, surgeons should cut parallel to the lines of
cleavage

a. The matrix cells, responsible for the growth of existing hairs, arise from stratum basale
b. Stimulation of the arrector pili muscle due to cold or fright causes “gooseflesh”
c. Medulla is the middle concentric layer of hair
d. Dendrites of neurons, called root hair plexuses, surrounding each hair follicle are
sensitive to touch
579. Which of the following statement is not true?

a. The free edge of the nail is white due to absence of capillaries
b. Nails help to grasp and manipulate small objects
c. Nails protect the ends of digits from trauma
d. Nails color is due to combination of melanin and carotene
580. Which of the following chemical can be used in anticoagulant?

a. Sodium citrate c. Sodium nitrate
b. Calcium d. Heparin
581. The cells which have least regeneration capacity

a. Cells of brain c. Cells of heart
b. Cells of bone d. Cells of Kidney
582. Largest part of human brain is

a. Cerebrum c. pons
b. Cerebellum d. Oblongata
583. Centre of reflex action

a. Spinal cord c. Cerebellum
b. Pons d. cerebrum
584. In a cell process of respiration takes place in

a. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus
b. Ribosome d. Lysosomes
91

585. The only movable bone of the skull is
a. Maxilla c. Temporal bone
b. Mandible d. Frontal bone
586. The part of a long bone that takes part in the growth of the bone is
a. Diaphysis c. Epiphysis
b. Metaphysis
587. Human skeleton is made of a tota,l of

a. 201 bones c. 206 bones
b. 204 bones
588. The movement of joint away from the midline of the body is termed as
a. Adduction c. Abduction
b. Extension
589. The most common degenerative joint disease in the elderly often caused by wear
and tear is
a. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Gouty arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis
590. Which of the following parts of a long bone takes part in the growth of the bone?
a. Diaphysis c. Epiphysia
b. Metaphysis d. All of the above
591. One of the following is not a function of the skeleton:

a. Breathing c. Excretion
b. Hearing d. Blood formation
592. Total number of cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae comes to

a. 24 c. 37
b. 33 d. 27
593. The lower jaw or mandible is made of
a. One bone c. Three bones
b. Two bones d. Cartilage
594. Ilium, Ischium and pubis bones combine to form

a. Shoulder c. Chest case
b. Tail bones d. Innominate bones
595. In which of the following bones are paranasal sinuses not found?
a. Frontal bone c. Lacrimal bones
b. Sphenoid bone d. Ethmoid bone
596. Which of the following bone is not paired?
a. Vomer c. Maxilla
b. Palatine d. Nasal
92

597. The suture located between a parietal and temporal bone is called
a. larnbdoid c. Coronal
b. Sagittal d. Squamous
598. Which of the following is the most superior of the tarsals and articulates with the
distal end of the tibia
a. Calcaneous c. Cuneiform
b. Navicular d. Talus
599. The greater sciatic notch is located on the

a. ileum c.Femur
b. Ischium d. Pubis
600. Percentage of oxygen found in exhaled air is

a. 12% c. 14%
b. 16%

601. Saliva secreted from mouth digest

a. Starch c. Protein
b. Fat d. Alcohol
602. Tear gland is not found in

a. dog c. Pig
b. Man d. Crocodile
603. Estrogen is secreted by

a. Corpus luteum c. Graffian follicles
b. Decidua d. None of them
604. Which of the following hormone is called emergency hormone?

a. Insulin c. Estrogen
b. Adrenalin d. Progesterone
605. Which of the following control blood pressure?

a. Adrenal c. Glucagon
b. Thyroid d. Insulin
606. Lifesaving hormone is

a. Adrenal c. Glucagon
b. Thyroid d. Insulin
93

607. One of the following is called an emergency hormone. Tick the correct option
a. Thymus c. Adrenal
b. Pancreas d. Cowper
608. Insulin was discovered by

a. Louis Pasteur c. Jenner
b. Batting and best d. Washerman
609. Striated and involuntary muscle tissue is

a. Smooth muscle tissue
b. cardiac muscle tissue
c. skeletal muscle tissue
610. The source of ATP for muscle contraction is

a. Creatine phosphate c. Aerobic cellular respiration
b. Anaerobic cellur respiration d. All of the above
611. The fascia which separates muscle from skin is

a. Epifascia
b. Superficial fascia
c. Deep fascia
612. Which of the following is not the basic property of muscular tissue?
a. Hardness c. Elasticity
b. Contractility and extensibility d. Electrical excitability
613. Which of the following fascia (fibrous connective tissue) separates muscle from
skin?
a. Epifascia c. Superficial fascia
b. Myofascia d. Deep fascia
614. Which of the following layers of connective tissue from deep fascia surrounds the
muscle tissue?
a. Epimysium c. Endomysium
b. Perimysium d. All the above
615. Transverse tubules arising from the sarcolemma towards the centre of each muscle
fibre are filled with:
a. Blood c. Interstitial
b. Sarcoplasm d. Lymph
616. Which of the following is a mismatch between the muscle protein and its
description?
a. Titin—Regulatory protein that holds troponin in place
b. Myosin – Contractile motor protein
c. Tropomysin – Regulatory protein that blocks myosin-binding sites
d. Actin – Contractile anchoring protein that contains myosin-binding sites
617. During muscle contraction, all of the following occur except
94

a. Crossbridges are formed when the energized myosin head attaches to actin’s myosin
binding site
b. ATP undergoes hydrolysis
c. The thick filaments slide inward toward the M-line
d. Calcium concentration in the cytosol increases
618. A spasmodic twitching made involuntarily by muscles that are under voluntary
control, like twitching of the eyelid, is called a:
a. Tic c. Fasciculation
b. Tremor d. Fibrillation
619. Which of the following muscles does not flex the thigh?
a. Rectus femoris c. Sartotius
b. gracilis d. Tensor fascia latae
620. fascicles of a muscle are arranged on both sides of centrally positioned tendons it is
called:
a. Fusiform c. Bipennate
b. Unipennate d. Multipennate
621. Which of the following muscles does not move the mandible?
a. Messeter c. Medial and lateral pterygoids
b. Temporalis d. Digastric
622. Which of the following muscles moves the head?

a. sternocleidomastoid
b. semispinalis capitis and splenius capitis
c. Longissimus capitis
d. All of the above
623. Which of the following muscles that move the humerus is an axial muscle?
a. Latissimus dorsi c. Teres (major and minor)
b. Deltoid d. Coracobrachialis
624. Which of the following does not belong to the posterior (flexor) compartments of the
thigh designated as hamstrings?
a.Sartorius c. Semitendinousus
b. Abductor hallucis d. Abductor digiti minimi
625. One of the following plantar intrinsic muscles of the foot does not belong to the first
layer (most superficial)
a. Quadratus plantae c. Biceps femoris
b. Flexor digitorum brevis d. Semimembranosus
95

626. Strongest muscle of man is found in
a. Jaw c. Thigh
b. Wrist d. Foot
627. A person feel due to deposition of the following acid in their muscles?
a. Citric acid c. Diagonal acid
b. Lactic acid d. None of them
628. Part of eye used during eye donation is

a. iris c. Cornea
b. Retina d. Cones
629. Image of object is formed on which part of eye

a. retina c. Cornea
b. Iris d. Cones
630. In the retina of eye cells present for color differentiation

a. Rods c. Choroids
b. Cones d. Iris
631. Function of Iris is

a. To regulate the size of objects c. Secretion of tears
b. To make image d. Protection of eyes
632. Blood supply to eye is by

a. lliac artery c. Femoral artery
b. Ciliary and central retinal artery d. Olfactory nerve
633. Discovery of blood groups was done by

a. Karl Landsteiner c. Ogston
b. Paul ehrlich
634. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pulse?
a. Rate c. Compressibility
b. Rhythm d. Tachypnoea
635. The normal serum sodium level is

a. 135- 145 mg/l c. 100-140 mg/l
b. 35-45 mg/l d. 4.5—5.5 mg/l
636. Cardiac output is about

a. 3 L of blood c. 15 L of blood
b. 5 L of blood
637. Popliteal vein is present in

a. Leg c. Hand
b. Arm d. Foot
96

638. Each heart beat of human is completed in
a. 85 seconds c. 0.85 seconds
b. 8.5 seconds d. 5.8 seconds
639. Haemopoiesis is a process of the production of:

a. Blood plasma c. Bone marrow
b. Erythrocytes d. Haemoglobin
640. Which of the following is not required for clot formation?

a. Vitamin K c. Plasmin
b. Calcium d. Fibrinogen
641. What happens to the iron (Fe) that is released during the breakdown of damaged
RBCs
a. It is used to synthesize proteins
b. It is transported to the liver where it becomes part of bile
c. It is covered into urobilin and excreted in urine
d. It attaches to transferring and is transported to bone marrow for use in hemoglobin
synthesis
642. Which of the following would not cause an increase in erythropoietin?

a. Anemia c. Polycythemia
b. High altitude d. Hemorrhage
643. Which of the following is a mismatch between blood cells and their description?
a. Neutrophilis – Respond to tissue destruction by bacteria; release lysozyme, strong
oxidants and defensins
b. Lymphocytes – Occur as B-cells, T-cells, and natural killer cells
c. Eosinophils – WBC showing a kidney shaped nucleus; capable of phagocytosis
d. Basophils – Involved in inflammatory and allergic reactions; are involved in
hypersensitivity reactions
644. Which of the following is a mismatch?
a. Thrombin – serves as the catalyst to form fibrin
b. Fibrin – Forms the threads of a clot; produced from fibrinogen
c. Plasmin – Tissue protein that leaks into the blood from cells outside blood vessels and
initiates the formation of prothrombinase
d. Heparin – An anticoagulant
645. Short saphenous vein in located in:

a. Head region c. Lower limb
b. Shoulder d. Muscles of the heart
646. A player is found to have a resting cardiac output of 5.0 litres/mm and a heart rate of
50 beats/mm. What is her stroke volume?
a. 10 ml c. 1000ml
b. 100 ml d. 250 ml
97

647. In the ECG graph, the period of relaxation in heart beat is denoted by:
a. P c. S
b. Q d. T
648. Which of the following would not increase stroke volume?

a. Increased calcium in the interstitial fluid
b. Epinephrine
c. Increase in venous return
d. Increased in the interstitial fluid
649. Which of the following would not increase vascular resistance? (a)
a. Vasodilation c. Obesity
b. Polycythemia d. Dehydration
650. Which of the following help regulate blood pressure and help control regional blood
flow?
a. baroreceptors and chemocreceptors
b. Hormones and autoregulation
c. H concentration and 02 concentration of the blood
d. All of the above
651. Which of the following causes vasodilation?

a. ADH
b. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
c. Decrease in body temperature
d. Hypoxia and hypercapnia
652. Find out a mismatch between the following pairs:

a. Diastolic blood pressure – the lowest blood pressure in arteries during ventricular
relaxation
b. Bradycardia – a slow resting heart rate or pulse rate
c. Shock – a rapid resting heart rate or pulse rate
d. Systolic blood pressure – the highest force with which blood pushes against arterial
walls as a result of ventricular contraction
653. Thickest layer of skin is found on

a. Sole c. Thigh
b. Palm d. Eyes
654. The hardest part of human body is
a. Bone c. Skull
b. Spinal d. Enamel
655. Which of the is a vestigial organ?

a. Appendix c. Vagina
b. Breast d. finger
98

656. Which of the following organ have the capacity of regeneration-?
a. Appendix c. Liver
b. kidney d. Cornea
657. Crown of teeth is mainly made up of

a. Dentine c. Marrow
b. Canine d. Odontoblast
658. Tears of man have an enzyme which kills the bacteria. Identify the enzyme from the
options
a. Lysozyme c. protease
b. Acrosome d. Amylase
659. The total number of facial bones are

a. 10 c. 14
b. 12 d. 16
660. Optic foramen is situated in

a. Sphenoid bone c. Occipital bone
b. Ethinoid bone d. Frontal bone
661. Submandibular lymph glands are present under

a. Axilla c. Chest
b. Chin d. Groins
662. One of the following is not a lymphatic organ

a. pancreas c. Thymus
b. Spleen d. Tonsils
663. The lymphatic fluid returning from small intestine is rich in

a. Proteins c. Fats
b. Caldum d. Phosphorus
664. Spleen is called the “grave yard” of the

a. Erythrocytes
b. Leucocytes
c. Lymphocytes
665. Lymphatic fluid is rich in

a. Iron c. Neutrophils
b. Antibodies d. Basophills

a. Brownish c. Colourless
b. Pinkish d. Bluish
99

667. The thoracic duct of the lymphatic system pours its contents into the
a. Aorta c. Internal jugular veins
b. Subclavian vein d. Partially acidic and partially alkaline

a. Alkaline c. Neutral
b. Acidic d. Partially acidic and partially alkaline
669. Trabeculea in the lymph nodes are formed of

a. Lymphocytes c. Blood vessels
b. Fibrous tissue d. Lymphatic vessels
670. The structure of the lymphatic system present in the intestine are called
a. Mucosa c. Chyle
b. Villi d. Lacteals
671. “Crypts” are present in the tissue of

a. Thymus c. Spleen
b. Tonsils d. Reticulo-endotheliai system
672. The total number of vertebra in vertebral column are

a. 33 c. 26
b. 35 d. 39
673. The other name of collar bone is

a. Clavical bone c. Sternum
b. Scapula d. Radius
674. The joint which is found between radius and ulna bone is
a. Hinge joint c. Gliding joint
b. Pivot joint d. Condyloid joint
675. Hinge joint are found

a. In b/w femur and tibia c. In b/w femur and hip bone
b. In b/w tibia and fibula d. In b/w tarsal bone
676. Which muscles help in mastication?

a. Buccinators c. Mentalis
b. Temporalis d. Zygomaticus
677. Largest muscle of human body is

a. Adductor magnus c. Sartorius
b. Pectineus d. Gracille
100

678. What is the main site of lumbar puncture?
a. L1-L2 c. T5-T6
b. L3-L4 d. T8-T9
679. The total number of cranial nerves are

a. 12 pairs c. 18 pairs
b. 15 pairs d. 21 pairs
680. The largest nerve of the body is

a. Femoral nerve c. Sciatic nerve
b. Radial nerve d. Brachial nerve
681. Which of the following is an example of neurotransmitter?

a. Acetylcholine c. Cholinterase
b. Cholycystokinin d. Teretarase
682. Thalamus is situated in

a. Diencephlon c. Mesencephalon
b. Telencephalon d. Metencephalon
683. Spinal cord terminates at this point

a. The filum terminale c. The cauda equine
b. The cordis terminale d. The cona medularis
684. The gas which stimulates respiration is

a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon dooxide
685. The maximum amount of air which can be expired after the deepest inspiration is
called
a. Vital capacity
b. Tidal volume
c. Peak inspiratory volume
686. Lecithin is a substance present in

a. Oropharynx
b. Bronchial tubes
c. Alveoli
687. Smoking is one of the causes of

a. Hypoxia
b. Emphysema
c. Narcosis
101

688. The most important factor in determining the percent oxygen saturation of
hemoglobin is
a. The partial pressure of O2
b. Acidity
c. The partial pressure of CO2
689. The internal lining of trachea has a membrane of

a. Ciliated endothelium c. Connection tissue cells
b. Squamous epithelium d. Mucous cells
690. Mediastinum is the name of

a. Left lung c. Space between lungs
b. Cartilage in larynx d. Covering on the lungs
691. During normal breathing, the amount of air that moves into the lungs and comes out
is called
a. IRV c. ERV
b. Residual volume d. TV
692. PO2 stands for
a. Pure oxygen c. Pressure of oxygen
b. Partial oxygen d. Partial pressure of oxygen
693. Conchae are present in the

a. Cardiac notch c. Diaphragm
b. voice box d. Nasal cavity
694. Which of the following structure changes does not occur from primary bronchi to
terminal bronchioies?
a. The mucous membrane changes from pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium to
nonciliated simple cuboidal epithelium
b. The number of goblet cells increases
c. The amount of smooth muscle increases
d. Incomplete rings of cartilage disappear
695. Which of the following would not cause 02 to dissociate more readily from
hemoglobin?
a. Low P02 c. Hypercapnia (hypercarbia)
b. An increase in d. Hypothemia
696. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. Surface tension of alveolar fluid facilities inhalation
b. Passive exhalation results from elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs
c. Air flow during breathing is due to a pressure gradient between the lungs and the
atmospheric air
d. During normal breathing, the pressure between the two pleural layer (intrapleural
pressure) is always subatmospheric
102

697. Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of external respiration/
a. Partial pressure difference of the gases
b. Surface area of gas exchanges
c. Presence of biphosphoglycerate (BPG)
d. Diffusion distance
698. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Respiration rate increases during the initial onset of exercise due to input to the
inspiration area from proprioceptors
b. When baroreceptors in the lungs are stimulated, the expiratory area is activated
c. Stimulation of the limbic system can result in exication of the inspiration area
d. Sudden severe pain causes brief apnea, while prolonged somatic pain causes an
increase in respiratory rate.
699. In which disease the myelin sheath of neuron is destroyed

a. Cerebral palsy c. Parkinson disease
b. Multiple sclerosis d. Neurosarcoma
700. The blood brain barrier brain is formed by

a. Astrocytes c. Neurolemmocytes
b. Dendrocytes d. Lymphocytes
701. Which part of the brain work as a relay centre?

a. Thalamus c. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum d. Pons
702. The average weight of the brain of a normal person is

a. 5kg c. 1kg
b. 1.5 ksg d. 2kg
703. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by

a. Axons c. Dendroites
b. Choroids plexus d. Circle of villis
704. Aphasia is a speech disorder which is caused by destruction of which part of brain
a. Motor speech area c. Motor visual area
b. Sensory speech area d. None of them
705. Which of the following can easily break the blood brain barrier?
a. Virus c. Alcochol
b. Bacteria d. Protozoa
706. The cranial nerve which regulates biting, chewing and swallowing is
a. Trigeminal c. Cochlear
b. Oculomotor d. Facial nerve
103

707. Obstructive jaundice is due to
a. Gallstones in the common bile duct
b. Tumor of the head of pancreas
c. Fibrosis of the bile ducts
d. Saliva from the mouth is regurgitated
708. Bile is necessary for digestion of

a. Carbohydrate
b. Fat
c. Protein
709. Which of the following is not the function of the liver ?

a. Metabolism of carbohydrates, lipid and protein
b. Excretion of bilirubin
c. Nucleic acid metabolism
d. Synthesis of bile salts and activation of vitamin D
710. The absorption of the fats and glycerol takes place in the
a. Ileum
b. Stomach
c. Large intestine
711. Which of the following is not the function of the liver ?

a. carbohydrates, lipid and protein Metabolism
b. Excretion of bilirubin
c. Nucleic acid metabolism
d. Synthesis of bile salts and activation of vitamin D
712. Which of the following is not true ?

a. Segmentation in the small intestine help propel chyme through the intestinal tract
b. The migrating motility complex (MMC) is a type peristalsis small intestine
c. The large surface area for absorption in the small intestine is due to the presence of
circular folds, vili and microvilli.
d. Most long chain fatty acid and monoglyceride absorption in the small intestine
requires the presence of bile salts
713. The release of feces from the large intestine is not dependent on which of the
following?
a. Stretching of the rectal walls
b. Voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter
c. Voluntary contraction of the diaphragm anal abdominal muscles
d. Sympathetic stimulation of the internal anal sphincter
104

714. Which of the following is not true regarding the GI tract regulation ?
a. The mycentric plexus regulates GI tract motility
b. The submucosal plexus regulates GI tract secretion
c. The neurons of the enteric nervous system (ENS) cannot function independent and are
regulated by autonomic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic fibres increase the activity of ENS neurons while sympathetic inhibit
them
715. Which of the following is not true about tongue?

a. Extrinsic muscles move tongue from side to side and in and out
b. Intrinsic muscles alter shape of tongue, which helps in swallowing and speech
c. Nerve impulses from taste buds to salivary nuclei in brain stem and then to salivary
glands stimulates secretion of saliva.
d. Lingual glands secrets salivary amylase which helps to digest starch
716. Which of the following is not true about the digestive function of esophagus?
a. Relaxation of upper esophageal sphincter permits entry of bolus from laryngopharynx
into it
b. Peristalsis pushes bolus down esophagus
c. Secretion of mucus lubricates esophagus fro smooth passage of bolus
d. Water and some nutrients are absorbed in esophagus
717. Which of the following is a mismatch about the function of cells of stomach?
a. Surface mucous cell and mucous neck cell- secrete mucus
b. Parietal cell- secretes HCL and intrinsic factor
c. Chief cell- secretes pepsinogen and gastric lipase
d. G cell- secretes gastric amylase
718. Disease kwashiorkor is caused due to deficiency of

a. Carbohydrates c. Fats
b. Proteins d. Vitamins A
719. Rickets is caused due to deficiency of

a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D
720. Islets of Langerhans produced

a. Bile c. Insulin
b. Trypsin d. Renin
721. Which of the following is incorrect about glycolysis ?

a. A six-carbon glucose splits into two three-carbon pyruvic acid
b. There is a net gain of two ATP molecules
c. Two NADH molecules are oxidized
d. The activity of phosphofructokinase determines the rate of the chemical reactions
105

722. Dietary glucose is not used for one of the following, if it is not needed for ATP
production
a. Vitamin synthesis c. Glycogenesis
b. Amino acid synthesis d. Lipogenesis
723. End product of anaerobic phase of glycolysis is

a. Acetyl CoA c. Lactic acid
b. Pyruvic acid d. Phosphoenol pyruvate
724. Site of gluconegensis is

a. Skeletal muscles c. Liver
b. Kidney d. Both b & c
725. Which of the following are carriers of the endogenous triglycerides?

a. Chyomicrons c. LDLs
b. VLDLs d. HDLs
726. Which of the following deliver cholesterol to the body cells?

a. Chylomicrons c. LDLs
b. VLDLs d. HDLs
727. Which of the following hormones stimulate lipolysis ?

a. Epinerphrine and norepinephrine
b. Cortisol and thyroid hormones
c. Insuline like growth factors
d. All of the above
728. Functional disorder of the facial nerve is

a. Bell’s palsy c. Erb’s palsy
b. Cerebral palsy d. Paraplegia
729. The main function of autonomic nervous system is

a. Motor c. Sensory
b. Motor and sensory d. None of the above
730. Sciatic nerve is derived from

a. T11-T12 c. L1-L2
b. T9-T10 d. L3-L4
731. The total number of spinal nerve present in body are

a. 12 pairs c. 31 pairs
b. 21 pairs d. 27 pairs
732. The organ which is responsible for the body balance is

a. Eye c. Mouth
b. Ear d. Tongue
106

733. The normal length of the Eustachian tube is
a. 1cm c. 3cm
b. 2cm d. 4cm
734. Which part of the ear is responsible for the body balance?
a. Eustachian c. Cochlea
b. Ear drum d. Semi-circular canals
735. Aqueous humor secreted in eye by

a. Lens c. Vitreous body
b. Ciliary body d. Cornea
736. Tinnitus is a condition which means

a. Ringing of ear
b. Deafness
c. Excess amount of wax in the ear
d. None of them
737. Which is not an example of taste buds?

a. Vallate papilla c. Fungiform papilla
b. Glossal papilla d. Filliform papilla
738. Which part of the eye is effected in glaucoma?

a. Sleral venous sinus c. Cornea
b. Ciliary bosy d. Vitreous body
739. A notch in the bean shaped kidney is called
a. Calyx c. Pyramids
b. Papilla d. Hilum
740. Inner lining of the urinary bladder is made of

a. Columnar apithelium c. Pseudostratified epithelium
b. Collecting ducts d. Ureters
741. Ducts of Bellini are formed by

a. Artrioles
b. Transitional epithelium
c. Venules
742. Trigone is a part of

a. Renal Cortex c. Urethra
b. Renal medulla d. Bladder
743. Isotonic y urine is present in

a. Henle’s loop c. Proximal tube
b. Distal tubule d. Blood plasma
107

744. Renal fascia is the name of
a. Tissue of medulla c. Fibrous tissue around kidney
b. Tissue of bladder d. Fibrous tissue inside kidney
745. Loops is
a. U-shaped c. L-shaped
b. V-shaped d. shapeless
746. Micturition is a term applied to the movement of urine out of the

a. Bowman’s capsules c. Ureters
b. Ranal pelvis d. Bladder
747. Percentage of water in the urine is generally about

a. 55% c.99%
b. 95% d. 59%
748. Excretory unit of a kidney is

a. Bowman’s capsules c. Nephron
b. Glomerulus d. Henle’s loop
749. Which of the following is not the function is not the function of the kidneys?
a. Regulation of blood volume
b. Synthesis of glucose
c. Participation in Vitamin A synthesis
d. Regulation of blood pH
750. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

a. Glomerular fitration rate (GFR) is directly related to the pressures that determine net
fitration pressure
b. Angiotensin ll and atrial natriuretic peptide help regulate GFR
c. GFR increase when blood flow into glomerular capillaries decreases
d. Normally, GFR increases very little when systemic BP rises
751. Which of the following hormones does not affect Na, CI and water reabsorption and
K secretion by the renal tubules ?
a. Angiotensin ii c. Atrial natruiretic hormone
b. Aldosterone d. Thyroid hormone
752. Which of the following feature is not of the renal corpuscle that enhances its filtering
capacity?
a. Large glomerular capillary surface area
b. Thick, selectively permeable fitration membrane
c. High glomerular capillary pressure
d. Mesangial cells regulating the filtering surface area
108

753. Which of the following is not true about micturation reflex
a. It is initiated by stretch receptors in the ureters
b. It relies on parasympathetic impulses from the micturation center in S2 and S3
c. It results in contraction of the detrusor muscle
d. In inhibits motor neurons in the external urethral aphincter
754. Which of the following mechanism does not control GFR?

a. Renal autoregulation c. Hormonal regulation
b. Neural regulation d. Chemical regulation of ions
755. Which of the following is not reabsorbed by renal tubules?

a. Urea c. Hydrogen ions
b. Bicarbonate ions d. Phosphate ions
756. Which of the following is not secreted into the urine via tubules?
a. Bicarbonate ions c. Ammonium ions
b. Hydrogen ions d. urea
757. How much water reabsorption is obligatory?

a. 50% c. 0%
b. 70% d. 90%
758. Cataract in eyes means

a. An opacity of lens c. An absences of lens
b. A hardness of lens d. None of them
759. Lecrimal apparatus is situated in which part of the facial bone?

a. Lacrimal bone c. Frontal bone
b. Sphenoid bone d. None of them
760. The other name of optic disc from where the optic nerve passes
a. Fovea centralis c. Foramen ovale
b. Blind spot d. None of them
761. Hormone which is secreted from adrenal medulla is

a. Glucagon c. Thyroxin
b. Epinephrine d. Glucocortocoid
762. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone?

a. TSH c. LH
b. FSH d. ACTH
763. Hyper secretion of growth hormone causes

a. Acromegaly c. Hyperthyroidism
b. Micromegaly d. Addison’s disease
109

764. The first cranial nerve is
a. Olfactory
b. Oculomotor
c. optic
765. Which of the following is not the part of peripheral nervous system ?
a. Cranial nerves c. Spinal cord
b. Spinal nerves d. Ganglia
766. Which of the following neuroglia are not the components of the central nervous
system?
a. Astrocytes c. Satellite cells
b. Oligodendrocytes
d. Ependymal cells
767. The “seat of intelligence “is

a. Cerebellum c. Medulla oblongata
b. Cerebrum d. Diencephalon
768. Which of the following is not the effect of autonomic nervous system ?
a. Skeleton muscle c. Smooth muscle
b. Cardiac muscle d. Glands
769. Which of the following regions is the input region of a neuron ?

a. sensory
b. Integrative
c. Motor
770. Which of the following region in the input region of a neuron?

a. Dendrites
b. cell body
c. Axon
771. Find out a mismatch between neuroglia and their functions

a. Astrocytes – Support and [protect the neurons of CNS
b. Oligodendrocytes –function as phagocytes
c. Ependymal cells- produce and monitor Csf and assist in its circulation
d. Schwann cells- Myelinate axons of PNS
772. Which of the following is absent in the gray matter?

a. Cell bodies c. Myelinated axons
b. Dendrities and axon terminals d. Unmyelinated axons
110

773. The presynaptic neuron sends the signal to poetsynaptic neuron by which of the
following ways
a. Axodemdritic (from axon to dendrite)
b. Axosomatic (from axon to cell body)
c. Axoaxonic (axon to axon)
d. Any of the above
774. Removal of the neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft occurs by which of the
following ways?
a. Molecules diffuse away from the synaptic cleft
b. By enzymatic degradation
c. Uptake by cells
d. All of the above
775. When several presynaptic neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron, the
neural circuits is called
a. Diverging c. Reverberating
b. Converging d. Parallel after discharge
776. Which of the following conditions is required for the repair of damaged axons and
dendrities assented with neurolemma in the PNS ?
a. Intact cell body
b. The functional Schwann cell
c. Scar tissue formation does not occur too rapidly
777. Which part of the brain stem is associated with control of breathing?
a. Midbrain c. Medulla oblongata
b. Pons d. Both b and c
778. Which part of the brain regulates posture and balance?

a. Midbrain c. Diencephalon
b. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum
779. Which part of the brain controls and integrates activities of the autonomic nervous
system?
a. Mid brain c. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus d. Epithalamus
780. Which part of the brain regulates auditory and visual reflexes and contains nuclei
associated with cranial nerves III and IV?
a. Mid brain c. Pons
b. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus
111

781. Which of the following is a mismatch between the cerebral area and its associate’s
functions?
a. Broca’s area – Allow planning and production of speech
b. Primary motor area – coordinates muscle movement for complex, learned sequential
motor activities
c. Wernicle’s area- Translates words into thoughts
d. Primary somatosensory area- Receives impulses fro touch, porprioception, pain and
temperature
782. Which of the following major somatosensory tracts in the spinal cord convey nerve
impulses for pain and thermal sensations?
a. Posterior column c. Anterior spinothalamic
b. Lateral apinothalamic d. Anterior and posterior spinocerebellar
783. Which of the following is a direct (pyramidal) tract of the major motor pathway in the
midbrain and spinal cord?
a. Lateral corticospinal c. Corticobulbar
b. Anterior corticospinal d. All of the above
784. Which of the following is a indirect (pyramidal) tract of the major motor pathway
conveys nerve impulses for maintaining balance in response to the head movements?
a. Tectospinal c. Lateral reticulospinal
b. Vestibulospinal d. Medial reticulospinal
785. Which of the following is a two neuron or monosynaptic reflex arc?

a. Patellar reflex c. Flexor reflex
b. Tendon reflex d. Crossed extensor reflex
786. Which of the following is not true for ANS?

a. It operates without conscious control
b. It has sensory input from interoceptors in addition to special senses and somatic
senses
c. It has one motor neuron pathways
d. It has two divisions- sympathetic and parasympathetic
787. Which of the following is not an aspect of cerebellar function?

a. Monitoring movement’s intension
b. Comparing intent with actual performance
c. Sending out corrective signals
d. Directing sensory input to effectors
788. The deficiency of thyroxin hormone causes

a. Cretinism d. Gigantism
b. Addison’s disease
c. Acromegaly
112

789. Which hormone helps in the secretion of milk from breast ?
a. Oxytocin c. Estrogen
b. Prolactin d. Progesterone
790. Which hormones secretion is decreased in addison’s disease?

a. Mineralocorticoids c. Androgens
b. Glucocorticoids d. Epinephrine
791. Oxytocin hormone is secreted by

a. Adrenal cortex c. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary d. Adrenal gland
792. One of the following hormones is responsible for milk production. Identify the
hormone
a. Prolactin c. Thyroxin
b. Oxytonic d. HCG
793. Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection?

a. Prolactin c. Thyroxin
b. Oxytocin d. HCG
794. The other name of vasopressin hormone is

a. Antidiuretic Hormone c. parathormone
b. diuretic hormone d. None of them
795. Calcitonin hormone is secreated by which gland

a. Adrenal medulla c. Pituitary gland
b. Adrenal cortex d. Thyroid gland
796. Which hormone is responsible for diabetes insipidus?

a. Insulin c. Glucagon
b. Vasopressin d. Aldosterone
797. Normal PH of blood is

a. 7.00 c. 7.4
b. 7.02 d. 6.8
798. The average blood volume in the human body is

a. 2it c. 5 it
b. 4 lt d. 8 lt
799. Low secretion of glucocorticoid causes

a. Addison’s disease d. Dwarfism
b. Micromegaly
c. Cretinism
113

800. Which protein is responsible for formation of plasma protein antibodies?
a. albumin c. Prothrombin
b. Globulin d. Arginine
d. 18%

801. The osmotic pressure of blood is maintained by

a. albumin c. Prothrombin
b. Globulin d. Arginine
802. The normal count of WBC’s in blood is

a. 4000-11000 c. 4000-5000
b. 3000-4000 d. 2 lacs - 5 lacs
803. Formation of RBCs takes place in

a. Spleen c. Liver
b. Bone marrow d. Gall bladder
804. One molecule of oxygen carries how many molecules of hemoglobin

a. 2 molecules c. 8 molecules
b. 4 molecules d. 1molecules
805. The external ear consists of

a. Vestibule c. Auricle
b. Tympanic membrane
806. Parts of eye include all of the following except
a. Stapes c. lens
b. Cornea d. Pupils
807. The color of eyes depends upon the color of the

a. Choroid
b. sclera
c. Cornea d his
808. In hypermetropia the eyeball is

a. Too long c. Too short
b. Devoid of retina d. Too watery
809. “Organ of Corti” is a part of

a. External ear c. Middle ear
b. Inner ear d. Nasal chambers
114

810. Ciliary body in the eye ball is the extension of the:
a. Sclera c. Retina
b. Choroid d. Cornea
811. Fovea centralis is a part of the inner surface of the eye ball in posterior champer
which has:
a. More of rod cells c. Only pigment cells
b. More of cone cells d. Only muscle fibres
812. From outside to inside the arrangement of the bones of middle ear is:
a. Incus-malleus-stapes c. Malleus-incus-stapes
b. Stapes-malleus-incus d. incus-stapes-malleus

a. The sites of olfactory transduction are the olfactory hairs
b. The olfactory bulbs transmit impulses to the temporal lobe of the brain
c. The axons of the olfactory nerves terminate in the olfactory bulbs
d. Within the olfactory bulbs, the first order neurons synapse with the second order
neurons

a. Olfactory receptors respond to the chemical stimulation of an odorant molecule by
producing a receptor potential
b. Basal stem cells continually produce new olfactory receptors
c. Adaptation to odors is rapid and occurs in both olfactory receptors and the CNS
d. The orbitofrontal area is an important region for odor identification and discrimination

a. Taste is a chemical sense
b. The receptors for taste sensations are found in taste buds located in the tongue, the
soft palate, the pharynx, and the epiglottis
c. Gustatory hairs are the sites of taste transduction
d. The threshold for bitter substances is the highest
816. When viewing an object close to your eyes, which of the following is not required for
proper image formation on the retina?
a. Increased curvature of the lens
b. Contraction of the eyeballs
c. Divergence of the eyeballs
d. Refraction of light at the anterior and posterior surface of the cornea
817. Which of the following are mismatched?

a. Rod cells – Possess photopigment rhodopsin
b. Cone cells – possess one type of photopigment
c. Horizontal cells – Transmit inhibiting signals to bipolar cells
d. ganglion cells – convey impulses to the optic nerve
115

a. Retinal is the light – absorbing portion of all visual photopigments
b. The only photopigment in rods is rhodopsin, but three different cone photopigment
are present in the retina
c. Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
d. Color vision results from different colors of light selectively activating different cone
photopigments
819. Which of the following is the correct sequence for auditory pathway?
a. External auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditorynossicles, oval window, cochlea
and spiral organ
b. Tympanic membrane, external auditory canal, auditory ossicles, cochlea and spiral
organ, round window
c. Auditory ossicles, tympanic membrane, external auditory canal, cochlea and spiral
organ, round window, oval window
d. Auricle, tympanic membrane, round window, cochlea and spiral organ, oval window
820. The largest WBC found in human body is

a. Neutrophils c. Basophils
b. Monocytes d. Lymphocytes
821. The average life span of RBC in human is

a. 120 days c. 2 days
b. 80 days d. 140 days
822. Which factor is responsible for haemophilia?

a. Factor 5 c. Factor 8
b. Factor 6 d. Factor 12
823. Which factor is essential for normal clotting of blood?

a. Calcium c. Magnesium
b. phosphorus d. Albubumin
824. Most consistent sign of appendicitis is

a. increased monocytes c. Increased basophils
b. Increased neutrophilis d. Increased lymphocytes
825. The type of anemia which is caused by the deficiency of vitamin B 12

a. Megloblastic anemia c. Macrocytic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia d. Neoplastic anemia
826. Which of the following antibodies are found in maximum number in our body?
a. lgG c. lgM
b. lgA d. lgE
116

827. Antibody which is normally found in body secretion
a. lgG c. 1gM
b. lgA d. lgE
828. Which is the example of autoimmune disease?

a. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Tuberculosis
b. Gout d. Haemophilia
829. The formation of antibodies in our body takes place by

a. B lymphocytes c. Leucocytes
b. T lymphocytes d. Monocytes
830. The formation of platelets in blood takes place by-

a. leucoblast c. Hornoblast
b. Megakaryocytes d. Erythroblast
831. Which one is an example of natural anticoagulant?

a. heparin c. Dicoumarol
b. Coumadin d. All of above
832. Which one is an example of artificial anticoagulant?

a. Coumadin c. Novavin
b. Heparin d. All of above
833. After birth ductus arteriosus changes to

a. Ligamentum arteriosus c. Foramen oval
b. Fossa ovalis d. Umbilical ligament
834. Generally which vein is used for intra venous cannula?

a. Popliteal vein c. Median cubital vein
b. Brachial vein d. None of them
835. The main effect of antidiuretic hormone is

a. increased urine output c. Cessation of urine output
b. Decreased urine output d. Hematuria
836. Pituitary gland is situated in

a. Hypothalamus
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Sella turcia
837. The parathyroid glands are present on the poles of

a. Adrenal glands
b. Pituitary gland
c. Thyroid gland
117

838. Myxedema is caused by the deficiency of a hormone secreted by
a. parathyroid c. Thyroid
b. Hypothalamus d. pineal body
839. Cretinism is produced by the deficiency of the hormone (d)

a. Adrenaline c. Parathormone
b. Growth hormone d. Thyroxine
840. Medulla and cortex are the parts of an endocrine gland called:
a. Pituitary c. Adrenal
b. Thymus d. Hypothalamus
841. A gland that disappears in the adult but is active during childhood is:
a. Hypothalamus c. Adrenal cortex
b. Parathyroid d. Thymus
842. Renin is a hormone secreted by the

a. pancreas c. Liver
b. kidney d. Ovary
843. The Posterior pituitary

a. Produces oxytocin
b. Is under the control of hypothalamic releasing neurohormone
c. Secretes tropic hormones
d. Secretes neurohormone
844. Parathyroid hormone:

a. Is produced by thyroid gland
b. Is released when blood calcium levels fall
c. Stimulates osteoblasts to lay down new bone
d. Stimulates calcitonin release
845. Both adrenaline and coritisol are secreted in response to stress. Which of the
following statement is also true for both of these hormones?
a. They act to increase blood glucose
b. They are secreted by the adrenal cortex
c. Their secretion is stimulated by adrenocorticotropin
d. They are secreted into the blood within seconds of the onset of stress
846. Deficiency of which of the following hormones produces cretinism?

a. Adrenaline d. Thyroxine
b. Growth hormone
c. Parathormone
118

847. A person passes much urine and drinks much water but his blood glucose level is
normal. This condition may be the result of:
a. A reduction in insulin secretion from pancreas
b. A reduction in vaspressin secretion from posterior pituitary
c. A fall in the glucose concentration in urine
d. An increase in secretion of glucagons
848. Choose the correct statement about neurohypophysis

a. It stores the hormones secreted by adenohypophysis
b. It is poorly developed and functionless in humans
c. It stores and releases hormones secreted by hypothalamus
d. It secretes its own hormones
849. Which of the following diseases is not related to thyroid gland?

a. Myxoedema c. Cretinism
b. Acromegaly d. Goitre
850. Which of the following hormone is modified aminoacid?

a. Epinephrine c. Prostaglandin
b. Progesterone d. Estrogen
851. Which of the following pairs correctly matches with a disease resulting from its
deficiency?
A. Relaxin—Gigatism c. Parathyroid hormone—tetany
b. Prolactin—Cretinism d. Insulin—Diabetes insipidus
852. The accumulation of fat in the arteries is called

a. Atherosclerosis c. Aneurysm
b. Arteriosclerosis d. Phlebitis
853. Respiratory centre is situated in which part of brain

a. Hypothalamus c. Medulla oblongata
b. Thalamus d. Pons
854. What is the normal lung capacity of an adult?

a. 1.5 lt c. 2.5 lt
b. 3 lt d. 4.5 ft
855. Sphincter of oddi is situated in

a. Oesophagus c. Duodenum
b. Stomach d. Jejunum
856. What is the PH of pancreatic juice?

a. 7.1 c. 7.5
b. 3.5 d. 7
119

857. The main function of glucagon is
a. To change glycogen to glucose
b. To change glucose to glycogen
c. To produce insulin
d. To utilize the fat
858. Gall bladder stone is termed as
a. cholilithiasis c. Hypophysectomy
b. Cholecystectomy d. Cystitis
859. Which cell secretes the intrinsic factor in stomach?

a. Alpha cells c. Gama cells
b. Beta cells d. Parietal cells
860. Which bacteria is responsible for peptic ulcer?

a. Helicobector pylon c. Giardia lamblia
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria d. Escherichia coli
861. Anorexia nervosa is a

a. Digestive disorder c. Degenerative disorder
b. Neurological disorder d. Psychological disorder
862. The formation of glomerular takes place by

c. Simple acinar epithelium
d. Pseudo stratified epithelium
863. The normal glomerular filtration rate is

a. 100-110 mi/minute c. 150-200 ml/minute
b. 200-220 mi/minute d. 300 mi/minute
864. What are the common symptoms of renal failure?

a. Hyperkalemia c. Hyonatremia
b. Hypokalemia d. Hypermagnesimia
865. Which hormone secretes the hormone rennin?

a. Kidney c. Adrenal medulla
b. Appendix d. Adrenal cortex
866. Innermost layer of the uterus is

a. Endocardium
b. Endomertrium
c. Endopelvic
867. Colostrum is a thin fluid which is rich in

a. Carbohydrates b. Fat c. Proteins
120

868. Corpus luteum is formed of dead
a. RBCs c. Chorion
b. WBCs d. Graffian follicles
869. The fertilization of ovum takes place in the

a. Vagina c. Uterus
b. Oviduct d. Urethera
870. Hormone which helps in production of milk is
a. FSH c. Prolactin
b. LH d. Oxytocin
871. One of the following is not a paired organ in the male reproductive system:
a. Seminal vesicle c. Epididymis
b. prostate gland d. Cowper’s gland
872. The cell formed by the process of meiosis after which sperm formation takes place
is called:
a. Primary spermatocyte c. Spermatid
b. Secondary spermatocyte d. Sperm mother cell
873. Nourishment to the developing cells in the testes is provided by:

a. Sertoli cells c. Endometrium
b. Leydig’s cells
d. Germinal epithelium
874. Spermiogenesis is undergone by

a. Spermatids c. Spermatogonia
b. Primary spermatocytes d. Secondary spermatocytes
875. Which of the following hormones stimulates leydig’s cells of the testes to secrete
androgens?
a. GnRH c. LH
b. FSH d. Both ‘a’ and ‘11
876. Find out the mismatch between the following pairs:

a. Retrograde ejaculation--- pumping of sperms towards urinary bladder during the
orgasm
b. Anorchia--- Absence of testes in male child
c. Crytoorchidism—Undescend testes in achild
d. Hypogonadism--- Presence of urethral opening on the underside of penis
877. Which of the following may cause female infertility?

a. Chlamydia infection c. Prolonged use of contraceptives
b. Gonorrhoea d. All of the above
121

878. Which of the following is the function of sertoli cells?
a. Protection of the developing spermatogenic cells
b. Nourishment of spermatocytes, spermatids and aperm
c. Mediation of the effects of testosterone and FSH
d. All of the Above

a. An erection is a parasympathetic response initiated by sexual stimulation
b. Ejaculation is a sympathetic reflex coordinated by the sacral region of the spinal cord
c. Dilation of blood vessels supplying erectile tissue results in rection
d. Nitric oxide causes smooth muscle within erectile tissue to relax, which results in
widening of blood sinuses

a. A sperm head contain nucleus and acrosome
b. An acrosome is specialized to produce ATP needed for the movement of sperm
c. A sperm’s tail, a flagellum, propels it along its way
d. Once ejaculated, sperm are viable and normally are able to fertilize a secondary oocyte
for 48 hours
881. Which of the following is not correct?

a. Ova arise from the germinal epithelium of the ovary
b. Primary oocytes enter prophase l during fetal development but do not complete it until
after puberty
c. Secodary oocyte proceeds to metaphase ll and stops at this stage
d. The secondary oocyte completes meiosis ll only if fertilization occurs
882. Which of the following is a mismatch?

a. GnRH – Stimulates release of FSH and LH by the anterior pituitary
b. LH – Stiulates ovulation, formation of the corpus luteum and the secretion of
estrogens and progesterone
c. Progesterone and estrogens – prepare the endometrium for implantation
d. Relaxin – inhibits the secretion of GnRH
883. Failure of the testes to descend in the scrotum at the time of birth is known as
a. Orchitis c. Mastitis
b. Cryptorchidism d. Oophoritis
884. Fertilization of ovum and sperm takes place in
a. Ovary c. Rudimentary horn
b. Cervix d. Fallopian tube
885. The position of appendix in human body is

a. Left iliac fossa d. Left upper quadrant
b. Right iliac fossa
c. Right upper quadrant
122

886. Which photoreceptor is responsible for dim light vision?
a. Rods c. Both of them
b. Cones d. Macula
887. Transferrin is
a. Oxygen carrying plasma protein c. An anticoagulant
b. Iron carrying plasma protein d. An essential amino acid
888. Gout is a
a. Degenerative disorder c. Neurological disorder
b. Psychological disorder d. Metabolic disorder
889. The normal pH of vagina is

a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. None of them
890. The normal range of Ph of semena. 3.5-4.5

b. 7.3-7.5
c. 6-6.5
d. 7.00
891. The normal length of male urethra is
a. 18 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 10 cm
d. 14 cm
892. Hydrocele refers to

a. An accumulation of fluid in tunica vaginalis and spermatic cord
b. Accumulation of fluid in peritoneal cavity
c. An infection of testes
d. An absence of sperm in semen
123

Nutrition
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Calorie means
a) Unit of measurement of heat c) Unit of measurement of height
b) Unit of measurement of weight d) None of the above
2. ________________ is the combined science and art of feeding individuals or

groups under different economic or health conditions according to the principles
of nutrition and management
a) Anatomy c) Psychology
b) Dietetics d) None of the above
3. Is the combination of the health of the individuals as influenced by the utilization

of the nutrients?
a) Neutron c) Nutriment
b) Nutrients d) Nourishment
4. Following of the example of vitamin A deficiency disorder

a) Xerosis c) Deficiency of Vitamin A
b) Fever d) None of the above
5. The prolonged use of large doses of vitamin A is

a) Hyper vitaminosis A c) Hypo vitaminosis
b) Hyper vitaminosis d) All of the above
6. Skiagrams of long bones of the limbs may see in

a) Hyper vitaminosis A c) Both a & b
b) Hypo vitaminosis d) None of the above
7. Services of which of the following are needed to maintain as well as restoration of

health of people.
a) Nurse c) Social worker
b) Dietician d) All of the above]
8. Nutrition is defined as:

a) Science of food
b) Relationship of food to health
c) Role of nutrients in body growth, development and maintenance
d) All of the above
124

9. One of the above is not a macro nutrients:
a) Vitamins d) Carbohydrates
b) Protein
c) Fats
10. What percentage of protein contributes to the total energy in Indian diets?
a) 1-5% c) 20-25%
b) 10-15% d) 50-65%
11. What percentage of carbohydrates contribute to the total energy in india

a) 20-40% c) 60-80%
b) 30-50% d) 70-90%
12. The macronutrients are called as

a) Primary princles c) Both of the above
b) Proximate principles d) All the above
13. The example of the macro nutrients

a) Proteins c) Carbohydrates
b) Fats d) All the above
14. The organic compound which is required for normal growth and life
a) Minerals c) Nutrients
b) Vitamins d) None of the above
15. Gavage means

a) Artificial feeding by intubation c) Oral feeding
b) Aspiration
16. Human body requires amino acids

a) 22 c) 18
b) 20 d) 16
17. Among all amino acids __________ essential amino acids

a) 4 c) 6
b) 8 d) 10
18. One gram of protein gives of energy _____________ calories of energy

a) 2 c) 6
b) 4 d) 88
19. Daily requirement of protein is per kilogram of body weight

a) One gram c) 20 grams
b) 10 grams d) 30 grams
125

20. In pregnancy _________ grams of more proteins is required per day
a) 20 grams c) 30 grams
21. During lactation __________ grams of more proteins is required per day
a) 20 grams c) 40 grams
22. One of the carbohydrates

a) Sucrose c) Glucose
b) Lactose d) Maltose
23. Example of polysaccharides

a) Starch c) Glucose
b) Maltose d) Ribose
24. Example of monosaccharides

a) glucose c) Lactose
b) Sucrose d) Pectins
25. Another name of fructose is

a) Fruit sugar c) Dextrose
b) Cane sugar d) None of the above
26. Another name of glucose

27. Another name of sucrose

28. Another name of lactose

a) Milk sugar c) Dextrose
b) Cane sugar d) Maltose
29. Another name of malt sugar

a) Sucrose c) Maltose
b) Fructose d) Glucose
30. Example for the micro nutrients are

a) Calcium c) Fats
b) CHO (Carbohydrates)
d) Nutrients
126

31. Proteins are made up of
a) Micro nutrients c) Amino acid
b) Protenex d) All the above
32. How many of the amino acids that is needed by human body
a) 24 c) 18
b) 20 d) 30
33. Important function of protein is

a) Body building c) Both a & b
b) Improves activity of d) None of the above
absorption
34. One gram protein gives to following of energy

a) 24 c) 18
b) 20 d) 30
35. The fats are solid at

a) 20 c) 60
b) 40 d) 25
36. Simple lipids are

a) Triglycerides c) Cholesterol
b) Phospholipids d) None of the above
37. Normal human blood contains about – glucose per 100ml

a) 100-110 mg c) 80-100mg
b) 100-120mg d) 70-90mg
38. Human milk contains ____% of lactose

a) 6 c) 8
b) 7 d) 9
39. Cows and buffalo milk contain about ___% of lactose

a) 4 c) 3
b) 5 d) None of the above in cold
40. Starch is __________in cold water

a) Soluble c) Both a & b
b) Insoluble d) None of the above
41. ____is manufactured by the hydrolysis of starch

a) Fructose d) All the above
b) Maltose
c) Glucose
127

42. ______% of glycogen is the reserve carbohydrate found in liver
a) 5-7% c) 4-7%
b) 7-8% d) 3-7%
43. ______ is used in the media for culturing bacteria

a) Fructosans c) polygalacton
b) Agar-agar d) cellulose
44. which of the following is important essential fatty acid is ?

a) Thaimin c) All the above
b) Linoleic acid d) None
45. Deficiency disorder of essential fatty acid in the diet is

a) Phernoderma c) Dermatome
b) Dermatitis d) All the above
46. 1 gm carbohydrates gives

a) 4 Kcal c) 10 Kcal
b) 6 Kcal d) 16 Kcal
47. ______ is used for relieving constipation in children

a) Agar- agar c) Glucose
b) Starch d) Fructosans
48. _____ is used in medicine for the treatment of diarrhea

a) Pectins c) Glucose
b) Agar- agar d) None of the above
49. The salvia contains an alpha ____ amylase called

a) Amylase c) Glucose
b) Isomaltose d) Fructose
50. The ultimate products of digestion of carbohydrates the following except

a) Galactose c) Glucose
b) Isomaltose d) Fructose
51. _____ are the energy yielding foods

a) Carbohydrates c) Vitamins
b) Proteins d) Minerals
52. ____ are the body building foods

a) Carbohydrates c) Vitamins
b) Proteins d) Minerals
128

53. Example of phospholipids
a) Lacithin c) Both a and b
b) Cephalin d) Cerebrosides
e)
54. Example of glucolipids

a) Lecithin c) Esters of fatty acids
b) Cephalin d) Cerebrosides
55. The white matter of brain contains about % of cholesterol

a) 4-5 c) 2-3
b) 5-6 d) None of the above
56. The grey matter of brain contains about % of cholesterol

a) 1 c) 0.5
b) 2 d) 5
57. ____ is used as a catalyst during the hydrogenation of oils

a) Nickel c) Lithium
b) Hydrogen gas d) Bicarbonates
58. Fats are deposited in the

a) Muscle tissue c) Adipose tissue
b) Skeletal tissue d) None of these above
59. Normal human plasma in the post absorptive state contain about ___ mg of total
lipids
a) 500 c) 200
b) 300 d) 400
60. In normal human subjects adipose tissue constitutes about _____% of body
weight
a) 20-30% c) 10-15%
b) 15-30%
d) 10-20%
61. The name protein was suggested by

a) Koch c) Mulden
b) Swaminathan d) Pasteur
62. Proteins constitute about ____% of the animal body weight on the fresh weight
basis
a) 30% c) 20%
b) 40%
129

63. The nitrogen content of protein is
a) 20% c) 17%
b) 14% d) 16%
64. The main type of linkage between the amino acids in the protein molecules is
a) Covalent bond c) Peptide bond
b) Lonic bond d) Coordinate covalent bond
65. Proteins are
a) Crystalloids c) Base
b) Acid d) Colloids
66. One of the examples of simple protein is

a) Albumin c) Proteans
b) Nucleoproteins d) None of the above
67. One of the examples of conjugate proteins

a) Proteans c) Glyoproteins
b) Metaproteins d) None of the above
68. One of the examples of derived proteins

a) Globulins c) Phosphoproteins
b) Proteans d) None of the above
69. The following are proteolytic enzymes except one

a) Small intestine c) Peptidases
b) Large intestine d) Bile
70. Amino acids are absorbed in

a) Small intestines c) Duodenum
b) Large intestine d) Stomacch
71. Retinol was the name given to

a) Vitamin A c) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin B d) All the above
72. The triangular, pearly-while or yellowish, a foamy spot on the bulbar conjunctiva
on the either side of the cornea is known as
a) Bitot’s sports c) Keratomalacia
b) Conial xerosis d) All the above
73. Vitamin E also known as

a) Beauty vitamin
b) Tocopherol
c) Both a & b
130

74. Vitamin E shows the cytotoxic effect on
a) Human lymphoctyes invitor c) Liver
b) Heart
75. The example of water soluble vitamine is

a) Vitamin E c) Vitamin D
b) Thiamine d) All the above
76. Thiamine deficiency disorder is

a) Beri – Beri c) Marasmus
b) Xerosis d) Rickets
77. Example of complete proteins

a) Gelatin c) Plant proteins
b) Egg protein d) All the above
78. Which of the following food provides 4 Kcal (19 kilojoules) of energy per gram?
a) Fat c) Carbohydrates
b) Protein d) Both b and c
79. The international attention and intervention activities in the nutrition fields are
being looked after by:
a) FAO c) UNICEF
b) WHO d) All of the above
80. Which of the following nutritional problems is common among infants and pre-
shool children in developing countries like india ?
a) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
b) Anemia
c) Vitamin A deficiencies
d) All of the above
81. The root word ‘nutritious’ means:
a) To nourish c) To protect
b) To cherish d) All of the above
82. Sickness rate in the population is called
a) Natality c) Morbidity
b) Mortality d) Both b and c
83. The disease kwashiorkor is first reported by
a) Hopkins c) Mendel
b) Osborne d) Cicely Williams
84. Kwashiorkor is caused due to
a) Carbohydrate deficiency
b) Protein deficiency
c) Deficiency of fats
d) Deficiency of calories
131

85. Important symptoms of nutritional marasmus
a) Growth retardation c) Loss of appetite
b) Diarrhea d) Edema
86. Nutritional marasamus is caused by deficiency of

a) Carbohydrates c) Calories
b) Proteins d) Both b and c
87. _____ is rightly considered as the pioneer in studies on energy metabolism (a)
a) Lavosien c) Pettenkofer
b) Laplace d) Viot
88. These are energy yielding food factors, except

a) Carbohydrates c) Proteins
b) Fats d) Vitamins
89. 1 gram of carbohydrates yields cal of energy

a) 4
b) 7
90. 1 gram of fats yields

a) 9 cal c) 15 cal
b) 10 cal d) 20 cal
91. One gram of protein yields _______ cal of energy

a) 4.1 c) 5.45
b) 9.45 d) 6
92. The energy metabolism during work can be determined by using

a) Sphygmomanometer
b) Spfrometer
c) Max-planck respirometer
d) Max-plank spirometer
93. BMR means

a) Body mass range c) Body metabolic range
b) Basal metabolic rate d) Basal mass rate
94. The following are fat soluble vitamins except

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin C
132

95. Another name for vitamin C
a) Bioflavonoids c) Citric acid
b) Ascorbic acid d) None of the above
96. Another name of vitamin A
a) Provitarnin c) Carotamin
b) Provitain A d) Retinol
97. In adults, human subject’s liver can store large amount of ______ ug of vitamin
a) 2,00,000 c) 50,000
b) 1,00,000 d) 4,00,000
98. Important function of vitamin A is

a) Vision c) Bone formation
b) Growth d) None of the above
99. Follicular hyperkeratosis is also called as

a) Bitots spots c) Phrynoderma
b) Xenosis cornea d) Keratomalacia
e)
100. The conversion of carotene to vitamin A takes place in

a) Intestine c) Duodenum
b) Stomach d) Liver
101. Rich sources of carotene

a) Green leafy vegetables c) Eggs
b) Milk d) All the above
102. The carotenoids present in the vegetables are absorbed to the extent of
a) 25-50% c) 30%
b) 50-60% d) 45-50%
103. vitamins A deficiency can be treated by the daily oral dose of

a) 20,000 jig c) 5000 jig
b) 10,000 jig d) 4,00,000
104. One gram of vitamin A = mg carotene

a) 3 c) 5
b) 4 d) 2
105. Vitamin –D is _________ in water
a) Insoluble c) Both a & b
b) Soluble d) None of the above
106. The goitrogenic vegetables are

a) Cabbage c) Both a & b
b) Cauliflower d) None of the above
133

107. According to vitamin A prophylaxis programme the single massive dose of an
exaly preparation of vitamin A
a) 200,000 IU c) 300,000 IU
b) 10,00,000 IU d) 26,000 IU
108. The daily requirement of iodine for adult

a) 250 micro organs c) 400 micro organs
b) 300 micro organs d) All the above
109. Fluoride content of drinking water is

a) 10.5 mg/L c) 2.5 mg/L
b) 0.5 mg/L d) 5 mg/L
110. The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water in india

a) 0.5 c) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/L
b) 0.8 d) None of the above
111. Vitamin D2 is also called as

a) Ergosterol c) Tachysterol
b) Lumisterol d) Calciferol
112. _______ help in absorption of vitamin D

a) Bile c) Protein
b) Fat d) Carbohydrates
e)
113. Daily requirement of thiamine is

a) 0.5 mg per L010 Kcal c) 3.5 mg per 1000 Kcal
b) 2.5 mg per 1000 Kcal d) None of the above
114. Angular atomatis is due to

a) Deficiency of ribofailvan c) Deficiency of vitamin B6
b) Deficiency of niacin d) None of the above
115. Niacin deficiency disorder is

a) Pellagra c) Dermatitis
b) Diarrhea d) None of the above
116. The normal level of pantothenic acid in the human blood

a) 10 to 35 mg per 100ml c) 18 to 35 mg per 100ml
b) 20 to 30 mg per 100ml d) All the above
117. Vitamin B12 deficiency disorder is known as

a) Megaloblastic anemia c) Both a&b
b) Nutritional anemia d) None of the above
134

118. The vitamine that plays an important role in the tissues oxidation is
(a) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin K
(b) Vitamin C (d) All the above
119. Vitamin D is stored in

a) Liver c) Pegion chest
b) Pancreas d) Heart
120. Rickets is caused due to

a) Vitamin A (e) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin B c) None of the above
121. Well known clinical feature of rickets is

a) Edema c) Pigeon chest
b) Anasarea d) Bow legs
122. Deficiency of vitamin D in adults causes

a) Osteomalacia c) Rickets
b) Osteoporosis d) Bone deformities
123. Daily requirements of vitamin D for children

a) 400 UI
b) 200 UI
c) 100 UI
d) 50 UI
124. Daily requirements of vitamin D for adults

a) 400 UI c) 450 UI
b) 500UI d) 200 UI
125. Another name for vitamin E for

a) Tocopherol c) Dehydro cholesterol
b) Provitamin d) None of the above
126. Vitamin E is essential for

a) Reproduction c) Growth
b) Child birth a) All the above
127. Vitamin K is essential fro

a) Reproduction a) Decrease prothrombin level
b) Growth b) Blood coagulation
128. Better source of vitamin K are

a) Green leaf vegetables c) Milk
b) Meat d) Fish
135

129. The fresh fruits consists of the following vitamin
a) Thiamin c) Ascorbic
b) Niacin d) None of the above
130. The vitamin C deficiency disorder may be

a) Scurvy c) Anemia
b) Pellagra d) Fever
131. The amount of calcium in the blood is

a) 9 mg/dl c) 2 mg/dl
b) 10 mg/dl d) 4 mg/dl
132. Adult requirement of sodium is

a) 10 to 15 gm c) 15 to 20 gm
b) 10 to 20 gm d) None of the above
133. Iron is mostly absorbed from

a) Duodenum c) Both a & b
b) Upper small intestine d) None of the above
134. Absorption of vitamin E is due to presence of

a) Bile c) Gastric secretion
b) Insulin d) None of the above
135. Ascorbic acid is rapidly absorbed from

a) Intestine c) Duodenum
b) Stomach d) Liver
136. Deficiency of vitamin –C leads to

a) Scurvy c) Stomatitis
b) Osteoporosis d) Gingivitis
137. Daily requirement of vitamin C in adults is __ mg

a) 20 c) 40
b) 30 d) 50
138. Rich source of vitamin C are

a) Amla c) Orange
b) Apple d) Spinach
139. Another name for vitamin B1

a) Thiamine c) Tocopherol
b) Ascorbic acid d) Riboflavin
140. Thiamine was isolated by
a) Ogburm c) Mendler
b) Jansen and Williams d) Jansen and donath
136

141. Thiamine deficiency causes
a) Coagulation defects c) Beri beri
b) Bone deformities d) Edina
142. For the treatment of beriberi in adults mg of thiamine is administered once

in a week through intra muscularly
a) 30mg c) 20mg
b) 25mg d) 40mg
143. One of the rich source of thiamine is

a) Dried yeast c) Fruits
b) Vegetables d) Meat
144. Another name of vitamin B2

a) Thiamine c) Riboflavin
b) Ascorbic acid d) Tocopherol
145. Rich source of riboflavin

a) Liver c) Cereals
b) Vegetables d) Green leafy vegetables
146. _____ has been reported to occur in adult fed on riboflavin deficiency diet
a) Dermatitis c) Scrotal dermatitis
b) Stomatitis d) All of the above
147. Is the common mental disturbance in acute pellagra?

a) Delirium c) Schizophrenia
b) Dementia d) All the above
148. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of

a) Thiamine c) Nicotinic acid
b) Riboflavin d) Vitamin C
149. Rich sources of niacin are

a) Dried yeast c) Milk
b) Legumes d) Egg
150. 60 mg of tryptophan yield niacin

a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
151. Another name for vitamin B6

a) Pyridoxine c) Pyruvic acid
b) Pyridine d) Pyridoxal phosphate
137

152. Deficiency of pyridoxine leads to
a) Weakness c) Nausea
b) Dizziness d) Seborrhea lesions
153. Rich sources of pyridoxine

a) Rice polishing c) Legumes
b) Milled cereals d) Tubers
154. Burning feet syndrome is caused due to the deficiency of

a) Niacin c) Pantothenic acid
b) Pyridoxine d) None of the above
155. Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to

a) Megaloblastic anemia c) Beri beri
b) Scurvy d) Pernicious anemia
156. Intrinsic factor is secreted from

a) Liver c) Stomach
b) Pancreas d) lntestines
157. Absorption of vitamin B12 occurs in

a) Liver c) stomach
b) pancreas d) lntestine
158. vitamin B12 is stored in fair amounts of

a) Liver c) Stomach
b) Pancreas d) lntestines
159. _________ is responsible for absorption of vitamin B12

a) Extrinsic factor c) Gastric secretion
b) Intrinsic factor d) Bile
160. Another name for biotin

a) Vitamin A c) Vitamin H
b) Vitamin C d) Vitamin B
161. Anti egg white injury factor is called as

a) Vitamin C c) Biotin
b) Vitamin D d) Thiamine
162. Cow’s milk contains approximately ________mg biotin per litre

a) 50
b) 60
c) 20 \
d) 45
138

163. Human milk contains _____mg biotin per litre
a) 2 c) 10
b) 4 d) 15
164. ________ prevents accumulation of fat in the liver

a) Biotin c) Choline
b) Pyridoxine d) None of the above
165. Another name for vitamin P

a) Hlnositol c) Bioflavonoids
b) PABA d) Choline
166. The body contains about minerals

a) 22 c) 25
b) 24 d) 30
167. About __________% of the calcium is present in the skeleton

a) 99 c) 98
b) 75 d) 100
168. Adult human body contains about ________mg of calcium

a) 1000-1200 c) 800-1009
b) 1000-1100 d) 1200-1300
169. ___________ is essential for the formation of bone teeth

a) Magnesium c) Iodine
b) Calcium d) Iron
170. ________ is essential for the absorption of calcium

a) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B
171. In adult is a condition in which decalcification of the bone occurs due to

calcium deficiency in the diet
a) Osteoporosis c) Rickets
b) Osteomalacia d) Fractures
172. The calcium content of the blood serum is fairly constant ranging from
______mg per 100ml
a) 10-11 l c) 10-20
b) 9-11 d) 9-14
173. Important sources of calcium are

a) Milk and milk products c) Fish
b) Meat d) Green leafy vegetables
139

174. An adult human body contains about g of phosphorous as phosphates
a) 600 c) 400-500
b) 400-700 d) 500
175. Phosphorous is absorbed in _____________ as inorganic phosphate

a) Large intestine c) Stomach
b) Small intestine d) Duodenum
176. The inorganic phosphorous content of blood stream in normal human adults
ranges from ________ mg/100ml
a) 2.5 to 4 c) 5.5 to 6
b) 3.5 to 4.5 d) 2.5 to 3.5
177. The inorganic phosphorous content of blood serum in children are

_________mg/100ml
a) 3-4 c) 5-6
b) 4-5 d) 7-8 V
178. The adult human body contains about ______ g of magnesium

a) 20 c) 30
b) 25 d) 35
179. The one of the following example of cereals

a) Rice c) Both A & B
b) Wheat d) None of the above
180. Protective foods are

a) Vegetables c) Meat
b) Fat d) All the above
181. Mid-day meal programme was in operation from

a) 1961 c) 1975
b) 1975 d) 1980
182. The following is risk factor hypertension

a) Increased intake of salt c) Both a & b
b) Decreased intake of salt d) None of the above
183. Name the dietary foods that relieve the constipation

a) High fibre diet c) Milk
b) Meat d) Fat
184. The magnesium content of normal human serum is ______mg/100ml

a) 2-3 c) 4-5
b) 3-4 d) 5-6
140

185. The adult human body contains about ______ g of sodium
a) 100 c) 150
b) 200 d) 125
186. A greater part of the iron in the body is present at

a) Myoglobin c) Hemoglobin
b) Blood d) Erythrocytes
187. The total iron content of the normal adult man is estimated to be _____gms
a) 4-5 c) 6-7
b) 5-6 d) 7-8
188. ________ enhances the absorption of iron in the intestine tract

a) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A d) Vitamin P
189. Iron is absorbed from the intestines in the

a) Ferrin c) Ferrous
b) Ferric sulphate d) None of the above
190. The hemoglobin levels commonly range from ___________g/100ml

a) 13-15 c) 18-20
b) 14-18 d) 9-13
191. An example for trace elements id

a) Calcium c) Phosphorous
b) Iron d) Copper
192. The healthy human adult body contain about _________mg of copper
a) 100-200 c) 100-120
b) 100-150 d) 80-100
193. ___________ is a constituent of thyroxine

a) Thyroidine c) Sodium
b) Copper d) Iodine
194. The weight of the thyroid gland in normal adult

a) 20 gms c) 30 gms
b) 25 gms d) 40 gms
195. The adult body as a whole contains about _______mg of iodine

a) 10mg c) 40mg
b) 50mg d) 20mg
196. Goiter is caused due to deficiency of
a) Iodine c) Sodium
b) Copper d) Ion
141

197. Iodine requirements for adults are about mg daily
a) 0.2 to 0.4 mg c) 1 to 2 mg
b) 0.15 to 0.2mg d) 2 to 4 mg
198. The whole body of a normal man weighing 70kg may contain ___________ of
zinc
a) 1.4 to 2.3 d) 2.6 to 3.5
b) 2 to 3 e)
c) 2.5 to 4.5
199. Whole body contains about _____ mg/100ml of zinc

a) 0.9 c) 0.7
b) 0.8 d) 1
200. The vitamin that is responsible for blood clotting is
142

a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
Nutrition
201. Name the vitamin, useffum for increased absorption of iron ( c )

a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
202. The safe milk can be prepared under the process of (a)
a) Pasteurization
b) Sterilization of milk
c) Phosphatase
d) All of the process
203. Special nutrition programme was started at (b)
a) 1979
b) 1970
c) 1917
d) 1920
204. Balwadi nutrition programme was started (a)

a) 1970
b) 1980
c) 1990
d) 2000
205. Alopecia is due to the deficiency of (d)

a) Copper
b) Iron
c) Calcium
d) Zinc
206. Normal well balanced diet contains about _____mg of zinc (b)
a) 10-20
b) 10-15
c) 20-30
d) 25-35
207. The body of the normal man weighing 70kg contains about _____mg of
manganese (a)
a) 12-30
b) 12-20
c) 20-30
143

208. About ______ __% of the total body weight consisting of water (d)
a) 80-90
b) 90-95
c) 50-60
d) 70-80
209. Water is absorbed rapidly from the (d)

a) Large intestine
b) Stomach
c) Colon
d) Small intestine
210. From the stable food of the Indian human race (a)
a) Cereals and millets
b) Milk and meat
c) Green leafs vegetables
d) Fish and sea food
211. The protein content of wheat products (b)

a) 20%
b) 11-15%
c) 25%
d) 10-20%
212. 5.________is one of the oldest gram crops(a)

a) Barley
b) Oats
c) Maize
d) Jowar
213. Peanuts contains about % proteins (b)

a) 20%
b) 22-28%
c) 25-30%
d) 30-40%
214. Vitamin K is chemically known as (c )

a) Tocopherol
b) Pyridoxine
c) Napthaquinone
215. _______________ is required for absorption of vitamin K (a)

a) Bilesalt
b) Pancreatic juice
c) Insulin
144

216. Dryness of eye is (b)
a) Night blindness
b) Xerophthamimia
c) Bitot’s spot
d) Keratomalacia
217. Chemical name of thiamine (a)

a) Aneurine
b) Flavone
c) Vitamin B1
218. Chemical name of riboflavin (b)

a) Aneurine
b) Flavone
c) Vitamin B1
219. Soreness of tongue is (b)
a) Cheilosis
b) Glossitis
c) Photophobia
d) Dermatitis
220. Folic acid is chemically known as (c )

a) Aneurine
b) Flavones
c) Pteroylglutamic acid
221. Daily requirement of vitamin B12 is (b)

a) 1 microgram
b) 2 microgram
c) 3 microgram
d) 4 microgram
222. Applied nutrition programme was started in (c )

a) 1964
b) 1963
c) 1965
d) 1970
223. Supplementary nutrition programme was started in (a)

a) 1960
b) 1965
c) 1963
d) 1970
224. ICDS started in (b)

a) 1975
145

b) 1976
c) 1972
d) 1963
225. Balwadi nutrition programme in the year (a)

a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1976
d) 1963
226. Mid day meal programme has been in operation since (a)
a) 1961
b) 1962
c) 1963
d) 1970
227. Food and agriculture organization was formed in (b)
a) 1947
b) 1945
c) 1940
d) 1950
228. FAO headquarters is at (a)
a) Rome
b) Italy
c) Germany
d) New York
229. Prevention of food adulteration act was enacted by the Indian, parliament
in implemented (a)
a) 1954
b) 1955
c) 1947
d) 1951
230. The following is the example of vitamin A deficiency disorder (c )

a) Xerosis
b) Fever
c) Bitot’s spots
d) Rickets
231. Simple lipids are (a)

a) Triglycerides
b) Cholesterol
c) Phospholipids
232. Thiamine deficiency disorder is (b)
a) Xerosis
b) Beri beri
c) Rickets
d) Maramus
233. Daily requirements of thiamine is (c )
a) 0.9 mg oer 1000Kcal
146

b) 2.5 mg per 1000Kcal
c) 0.5 mg per 1000Kcal
d) 5 mg per 1000Kcal
234. According to vitamin A propylais programme the single massive does of an
orally preparation of vitamin A is (a)
a) 200,000 IU
b) 100,000 IU
c) 300,000 RY
d) 800,000JU
235. The vitamin C deficiency disorder may be (d)

a) Maramuss
b) Kwashiorkor
c) Beriberi
d) Scurvy
236. Pellagra deficiency disease due to lack of (a)
a) Nicotinic acid
b) Thiamine
c) Pyridoxine
d) Cynocobalarnine
237. The example of macro nutrients (d)

a) Proteins
b) Fats
c) Carbohydrate
d) All of the above
238. Important function of protein is (a)

a) Body building
b) Improves activity of absorption
c) Both a&b
239. Retinol was the name give to (a)
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin D
240. The vitamin that plays important role in tissue oxidation is (b)
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin D
241. The the prolonged use of large doses of vitamin in (a)

a) Hypervitaminosis A
b) Hypovitminosis
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hypervitaminosis D
147

242. The macro nutrients are also called as (b)
a) Primary principles
b) Proximate principle
c) Both a&b
243. The fats are solid at (a)

a) 20°C
b) 40°C
c) 60°C
d) 25°C
244. Protein are made up (d)
a) Micronutrients
b) Vitamins
c) Carbohydrates
d) Amino acids
245. Angular stomatitis due to (a)

a) Deficiency of riboflavin
b) Deficiency of niacin
c) Deficiency of vitamin B6
246. The daily requirement of iodine for adults is (b)

a) 400 microgram
b) 250 microgram
c) 500 microgram
d) 800 microgram
247. Special nutrition programme was started in the year (b)

a) 1979
b) 1970
c) 1917
d) 1920
248. The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water in india is (c )

a) 0.5 mg/litre
b) 0.8 mg/litre
c) 0.5 to 0.E mg/litre
249. One of the examples of cereal is (c )

a) Rice
b) Wheat
c) Both a & b
d) Red gram
250. Name the vitamin which is responsible to increase the absorption of iron is
(c )
148

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
251. The main type of linkage between the amino acids in the protein molecule
is
a) Covalent bond
b) Iron bond
c) Peptide bond
d) Coordinate bond
252. The triangular, pearly white , yellowish foamy spots on the bulbar
conjunctiva on the either side of the cornea is known as (a)
a) Bitot’s spots
b) Corneal xerosis
c) Keratomalacia
d) All the above
253. Mission of NNP was to achieve optimum state of nutrition for all but special
priority was given to (d)
a) Women
b) Mothers
c) Children
d) All of the above
254. Chairman of national nutrition mission was (a)

a) Prime minister
b) Minister of health and family welfare
c) Minister of human resource development
d) Minister of food and civil supplies
255. Which of the following on-going programme was selected to expand the
nutrition intervention net ) ( c)
a) Universal immunization programme
b) Oral rehydration therapy
c) Integrated child development services (ICDS)
d) All of the above
256. How much per capita per year availability of food grains is required to
ensure aggregate food security ? (c )
a) 115kg
b) 165kg
c) 215kg
d) 265kg
257. Which of the following micronutrient deficiencies ahould be covered under

prophyla is programmes among vulnerable groups (children, pregnant women
and lactating mothers) ? ( d)
149

a) Vit. A
b) Iron and folic acid
c) Iodine
d) All of the above
258. Which of the following essential food is planned to be fortified with iodine
and iron ? (a)
a) Salt
b) Sugar
c) Wheat flour
d) All if the above
259. Under nutrition results in (d)

a) PEM
b) Low birth weight children
c) Deficiency of vitamin A, iorn and iodine
d) All of the above
260. Percentage of low birth weight babies (less than 2.5 kg) in india since 1979
is (a)
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
261. About 90% of infant deaths occur with birth weight below (b)
a) 1900g
b) 2000g
c) 2100g
d) 2200g
262. Genu valgum, characterized by osteoporosis of the lower limbs and

reported in sorghum (jowar) eating areas of tamil nadu and andhra Pradesh is
a kind of : (b)
a) Lathyrism
b) Fluorosis
c) Vit A deficiency
d) Iron deficiency
263. National nutrition policy (NNP) was adopted by government in the year (b)
a) 1991
b) 1993
c) 1995
d) 1997
264. NNP was adopted under the dept (a)

a) Department of women and child development
b) Health and family welfare
c) Food and civil supplies
d) Food and nutrition board
150

265. National nutrition mission (NNM) was launched in 1993 in how many
districts? (c )
a) 120
b) 150
c) 180
d) 210
266. Which of the following is the objective of nutritional assessment ? (d)

a) To identify the population group at risk
b) To develop a health care programme that meets the assessment
c) To evaluate the failure or success of health programmes and health
services
d) All of the above
267. Which of the following is the method of assessment of nutrition status ? (d)
a) Clinical examination
b) Anthropometric measurement
c) Socio-economic assessment
d) All of the above
268. Which of the following physical signs is not associated with malnutrition ?
(a)
a) Pyorrhea
b) Angular stomotitis
c) Bitot’s spot
d) Absences of knee or ankle jerks
269. Which of the following is the limitation of clinical examination (d)

a) Malnutrition cannot quantified
b) Many deficiencies are not accompanied by physical signs
c) Lack of specifity and subjective nature of most of the physical signs
d) All of the above
270. Which of the follow is not the anthropometric measurement used as an
indicator of nutritional status (c )
a) Measurement of height and weight
b) Head and chest circumference in young children
c) Abdomen circumference
d) Skin fold thickness and arm circumferences.
271. Which of the following laboratory / biochemical examination is a useful

index of the overall state of nutrition ? (a)
a) Hemoglobin estimation
b) Stool examination for intestinal parasites
c) Urine examination for albumin and sugar
d) Serum albumin and globulin
272. Which of the following methods used in the assessment of dietary intake
(d)
151

a) Weightiest of raw food to be consumed
b) Weightiest of cooked foods
c) Oral questionnaire method
d) Any of the above
273. Which of the following vital statistics is used as an index of nutritional

status? (d)
a) Infant mortality rate
b) Rate of low birth-weight babies
c) Life expectancy
d) All of the above
274. Which of the following ecological factor is considered to make nutritional

assessment complete: (d)
a) Food balance sheet
b) Socio-economic factors
c) Health and educational status
d) All of the above
275. The number of reference curve in WHO growth chart is : (d)

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
276. The number of reference curves in growth chart used in india

recommended by Indian academy of pediatrics : (c )
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
277. Which of the following is not the use of growth chart: (b)
a) Identification of high risk children
b) Identification of deficiency of a particular nutrients
c) Educational tool for mothers for their active participation in growth
monitoring
d) Good methods to evaluate the effectiveness of corrective measures
278. Main focus of nutrition education should be on which of the following

fields
a) Pregnant and lactating mothers
b) Pre-school and school going children
c) Malnutrition and faculty food habits
d) All of the above
279. Which of the following method should be used for imparting nutrition
education (d)
a) Personal talks
b) Group discussion
152

c) Posters, charts etc.
d) All of the above
280. Which of the following amino acid is not a precursor for protein synthesis
? (c )
a) Alanine
b) Leucine
c) Ornithine
d) Arginine
281. Which of the following amino acids are nutritionally dispensable amino
acids healthy human ? (c )
a) Citruline and N-acetyl glutamine
b) Leucine and isoleucine
c) Aspartate and alanine
d) Methionine and lysine
282. Which of the following statement is true (d)

a) Hydroxyproline is formed by direct hydroxylation reaction of free amino
acid proline
b) 3-methyl-hisitidine is formed by methylation reaction of histidine and
methionine
c) A methylation reaction on arginine resulted in symmetric methyl-arginine
d) Citruline is formed from carbamyl reaction of ornithine
283. Which of the following amino acid has the highest nitrogen content per
mole? (a)
a) Arginine
b) Asparagines
c) Glutamine
d) Ornithine
284. Which is the most accurate parameter to estimate muscle protein

catabolism in healthy human subjects (b)
a) Rate of total urea nitrogen excretion
b) Rate of total # methyl-histidine concentration
c) Rate of plasma creatinine concentration
d) Nitrogen balance
285. Which of the following metabolic processes is the most important in

determination of nutritional requirements of protein in healthy human
population at all ages ? (b)
a) Needs directly associated with protein deposition for growth
b) Maintenance of body protein stores
c) Oxidation as one of the energy sources
d) Gluconeogenesis to maintain normal blood sugar level
286. Most of your body weight is from (d)

a) Protein
153

b) Carbohydrates
c) Skin
d) Water
287. This is not seen through a microscope : (b)

a) Fats
b) Calories
c) Carbohydrates
d) Proteins
288. An ounce of which of the following provides the most energy (b)
a) Fat
b) Sugar
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrates
289. Which of these foods supply the protein in that includes all the essential
amino acids in just the right balance? (b)
a) Celery and rhubarb
b) Eggs
c) Whole grains
d) Cheeses
290. One reason you eat protein is to maintain (c )

a) Blood flow
b) Hydration
c) Body parts
d) Sweat
291. Cells are made up of water and : (a)

a) Protein
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vitamins and minerals
d) Fiber
292. Calories are not seen because they are : (d)

a) Protein
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vitamins and minerals
d) A measurements
293. Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles: ? (d)

a) Control peristalsis
b) Grind large food particles
c) Secrete digestive juices into the Gl tract
d) Control passage of food through the Gl tract
294. Which of the following body organs does NOT secrete digestive enzymes ?
(a)
154

a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Pancreas
d) Salivary glands
295. What is the function of bile? (a)

a) It emulsifies fats
b) It initiates digestion of protein
c) It enhances absorption of complex carbohydrates
d) It protects stomach and small intestine from hydrochloric acid
296. What are the most intensively investigated additives ? ( c)

a) Flavor enhancers
b) Antimicrobial agents
c) Artificial colors
d) Antioxidants
297. The word organic on a food label is no guarantee that the food is (a)
a) Pesticide –free
b) Fertilized with manure or vegetable compost
c) Grown without hormones or antibiotics
d) Produced without genetic modification
298. All of the following are consequences of ingesting excess vitamin C

supplements EXCEPT (b)
a) Frequently causing diarrhea
b) Enhancing the action of ant clotting medications
c) Being safe at levels up to 300 mg/day
d) Interfering with laboratory urine tests for the diagnosis of diabetes
299. What is the approximate length of the typical adolescent growth spurt ? ( c)
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2.5 year
d) 4.5 year
300. About how many glasses of water should older adults drink every day? (c )
a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10
301. Blood cholesterol levels and death from heart disease tent to be lower
when fish, fruits and vegetables are eaten in abundance and dietary fat mostly
consists of (b)
a) Saturated fats
155

b) Monounsaturated fats
c) Polyunsaturated fats
d) Omega-6 fats
302. Who is the most appropriate person to consult regarding nutritional

information? (d)
a) Chiropractor
b) Medical doctor
c) Health food store owner
d) Registered dietitian
303. Glycogen is mainly stored in (a)

a) Muscle and liver tissue
b) Pancreas and kidney tissue
c) Stomach and intestine tissue
d) Brain and red blood cell tissue
304. In what part of the body are chylomicrons produced? (b)

a) Liver
b) Small intestine
c) Pancreas
d) Gall bladder
305. Which of the following substances is most depleted after a day of fasting ?
(c)
a) Amino acid
b) Fatty acid
c) Glycogen
d) Triglycerides
306. What is the primary excretory route for the water soluble vitamins ? (b)
a) Bile
b) Kidney
c) Intestine
d) Perspiration
307. In what population group are the effects of vitamins A deficiency most
severe ? (a)
a) Newborns
b) Adolescents
c) Adults
d) Elderly
308. Which of the following minerals is LEAST likely to be a dietary deficiency ?

(d)
a) Iron
b) Calcium
c) Chromium
d) Phosphorus
156

309. Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals? (a)
a) The amount found in foods are not predicatable
b) Dermatitis is a sign of deficiency common to many trace minerals
c) Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults
d) The average person has approximately 100gms of trace minerals in their
body
310. People who follow a vegan diet do NOT eat (b)

a) Legumes
b) Cheeses
c) Grains
d) Nuts
311. Which of the following foods requires the LEAST energy to produce ? (c )
a) Fruit
b) Vegetables
c) Grains
d) Meat
312. Heavy use of soy products as a substitute for meat can inhibit absorption
of (d)
a) Calcium
b) Folate
c) Vitamin D
d) Iron
313. The increasing independence that comes with adolescene can cause
nutritional problems, because many adolescents (d)
a) Have decreased appetities after their major growth spurt has taken place
b) Take medications that diminish the nutritional value of food
c) Spend their food money on illegal drugs
d) Are uninterested in or unaware of the important of good nutrition
314. Why is exercise an important part of the treatment of diabetes? (c )

a) It prevents the heart problems associated with diabetes
b) It helps prevent amputations because exercised legs are stimulates to
release storeed glycogen
c) It stimulates muscles to take up 10-20 times more glucose than unexercised
muscles.
d) It burns excess calories and reduces body fat associated with diabetes
onset
315. Ben’s caloric intake exceeds the RDA for his size, activity level, and
lifestyle. In order to obtain the best possible nutrition, what should he do? (a )
a) Increase exercise and decrease caloric intake
b) Increase protein intake and decrease carbohydrates intake
c) Decrease fat intake since this is where the bulk of calories are contained
d) Not be too concerned unless he gains additional weight.
157

MODEL QUESTIONS SEMINAR - 10
Pathology
Multiple choice questions
401. Increased Creatinine levels are found in

a. Renal dysfunction b. Reduced renal blood flow
c. Muscular dystrophy d. Both a and b
402. Increased uric acid levels are found in one of the following
a. Gout b. Wilson disease
c. Fanconisyndrome d. Yellow atrophy of liver
403. Normal uric acid levels are

a. 15-30 mg b. 3.4-7 mg/dl
c. 100-150mg d. 60-90mg
404. Elevated bilirubin levels are found in

a. Liver disease b. Excessive haemolysis
c. Obstruction of biliarytract d. All of above
405. Normal blood cholesterol levels are
a. 15-30 mg% b. 3.4-7 mg%
c. 60-90mg% d. 150-250 mg%
406. Regarding widal test for typhoid fever
a. Rising titre of both H and 0 agglutinogens is diagnostic
b. H antibodies persist for long time
c. Infection with non salmonella organisms may give anamenestic response
d. All the above
407. The site for bone marrow biopsy is

a. First piece of body of sternum
b. Posterior iliac crest
c. LuMbar spinous process
c. All the above
408. Normal urine is : (d)

a. Neutral b.Highly acidic
c. Slightly alkaline d. Slightly acidic
409. Urine output less than 400 ml/day is called : (b)

a. Polyuria b. Oliguria
c. Anuria d. Chyluria
410. Specific gravity of urine varies from :

a. 1.003 to 1.030 c. 1.151-1.161
411. Normal urine contains protein

a. Less than 50 mg of protein
b. Less than 100 mg of protein
158

c. Less than 160 mg of protein
d. Less than 200 mg of protein
412. Test used for detection of ketone bodies is :

a. Sulphur test b. Benedicts test
c. Rothera tests d. All of the above
e. 1.050-1.060 f. 1.0161-1.166
413. Tarry or Black colored stools are seen in :

a. Upper Gl haemmorhage
b. Lower GI hemorrhage
c. Piles
d. Anal fissure.
414. Odor of faeces is due to :
a. Chlorides b. Phosphates
c. Indole d. Nitrates
415. Test for occult blood is also known as :

a. Bendict’s test b. Benzedjne test
c. Gerhardt test d. Rothera’s test
416. CSF pressure is increased in
a. Brain tumor b. Meningitis
c. Hydrocephalus d. All the above
417. When the amount of free HCL in any specimen is more than 60 ml N/10 Hcl /100
ml , it is known as
a. Hyprochiorhydria b. Hyperchiorhydria
c. Achiorhydria d. All the above
418. For aspirating gastric contents the Ryles tube is passed up to

a. 50 cm b. 100 cm
c. 150 cm d. 200 cm
419. Sperm count less than 20 million/ml are known as

a. Polyspermia b. Tetratospermia
c. Oligospermia d. Azoospermia
420. Sputum with greenish hinge is seen in

a. Anaerobic infection b. Tuberculosis
c. Pseudomonas infection d. E-coli4nfection
421. Charcot layden crystals are seen in

a. Bronchial asthma b. Pneumoconiosis
c. Tuberculosis d. Pneumonia
422. Urine output less than 400 ml/day is called as

a. Polyuria b. Oliguria
c. Anuria d. Chyluria
423. Specific gravity of urine varies from
159

a. 1.003 to 1.030 b. 1.050 to 1.060
c. 1.151 to 1.61 d. 1.0161 to 1.166
424. Transudate is
a. Non inflammatory b. inflammatory
c. High in protein d. None of the above
425. Exudate is
a. Low in protein b. Non inflammatory
c. Inflammatory d. None of the above
426. The protein content in transudate is ______ Than 3g/dl.
a. Less b. More
c. Equal d. None of the above
427. The protein content in exudates is ________ than 3g/dl

a. More b. Less
c. Equal d. None of the above
428. The types of astrocytoma are

a. Low grade astrocytoma V b. Anaplastic astrocytoma
c. Mild blastoma multiform d. Alithe above
429. The reductions in bone mass result in fragile skeleton is

a. Osteomalacia b. Osteoporosis
c. Oste’hondroma d. None of the above
430. Infiammation / infection of the bone is termed as

a. Osteomalacia b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteornyelitis d. None of the above
431. Primary malignant tumor of the bone is

a. Chondroblastoma b. Osteosarcoma
c. Chondromyxoid fibroma d. Osteochondromas
432. Pregnancy and anemia leads to _____ packed cell volume

a. Increased b. Decreased
c. Normal d. None of the above
433. The Bleeding time normal value ranges from

a. 1-10mm b. 2-1mm
c. 10 to 15min d. None of the above
434. Clotting time normal value ranges from __f minutes

a. 1-3mm b. 4-7mm V
c. 10-15mm d. None of the above
435. Semen examination is done for the investigation of the following

a. Infertility
b. Sneers of vasectomy
c. Medico legal cases like rape
d. All the above
160

436. The normal numbers of spermatozoa per ml is
a. > 60 millions b. < 20 millions
c. 5to 10 millions d. None of the above
437. Total absence of sperm ejaculation is termed as

a. Aspermia b. Azoospermia
c. Olizospermia d. None of the above
438. The total absence of spermatozoa in semen is

a. Necrospermia b. Polyzoospermia
c. Disospermia d. Azoo spermia
439. Decrease in the number of sperm in semen is
a. Necrospermia b. Asperma
c. Poly zoospermia d. Oligozoospermia
440. Decrease in the volume of semen is termed as

a. Oligozoospermia b. Aspermia
c. Polyzoospermia d. Aspermia
441. Presence of dead sperms in the semen is

a. Oligozoospermia b. ASpermia
c. Necrospermia d. Polyzoospermia
442. Presence of sperms above 350 million per ml of semen is

a. Oligozoospermia b. Aspermia
c. Necrospermia d. Oligospermia
443. Hypochlorhydria is referred when amount of free HCL is

a. Less than 10 ml/N/10/100 ml
b. Less than 20 ml/N/10/100 ml
c. Less than 50 ml/N/10/100 ml
d. Less than 100 ml/N/10/100 ml
444. Achlorhydria is referred ‘& then amount of free HCL is

a. Absence of free HCL b. Increased free HCL
c. Decreased free HCL d. None of the above
445. Causes of thrombocytopenia are

a. Dengue hemorrhagic fever
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Polycythemia vera
d. Both a & b
446. The term imvolucrum means (a)

a. New living bones b. Dead bones
c. Old living bones d. All of the above
447. Which of the following condition leads to hypoglycemia ?

a. Hypopthyroidism b. Hypopitutarism
161

c. Liver disease d. All of the above
448. Osteoporosis is caused by all except

a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Heparin d. Hypoparathyroidism
449. Accumulation of fluid in abdominal cavity is referred as
a. Cellulites b. Ascites
c. Emphysema d. Atrophy
450. Normal volume of semen is

a. 0.5 ml b. 3.5 ml
c. 7 ml d. 10 ml
451. Sputum with greenish tinge is seen in

a. E-coli infection b. Tuberculosis
c. Anaerobic infection d. Pseudomonas infection
452. Aspermia is referred as

a. Sperm counts less than 20 million/ml
b. Sperm counts more than 350 million/ml
c. No spermatozoa in semen
d. Failure of formation of semen
453. Azoospermia is referred as

454. The usual site for lumbar puncture is ?

a. Between L1& L2 b. Between L2 & L3
c. Between L3 & L4 d. Between L4 & L5
455. The usual amount of CSF formed daily is

a. 0.5 liter b. 1.5 liter
c. 1 liter d. 2 liter
456. The normal pressure of CSF in supine position is

a. 20-30 mm b. 30-50 mm
c. 60-150 mm d. 300-500 mm
457. CSF pressure is increased in

c. Hydrocephalus d. All of the above
458. For aspirating gastric content, Ryes tube is inserted up to

a. 20 cm b. 100 cm c. 50 cm d. 150 cm
459. Normal amount of free HCL is

a. 10-20 ml/N/10/100 ml b. 50-100 ml/N/10/100 ml
162

c. 150-200 ml /N/100 ml d. 200-300 ml/N/10/100 ml
460. Hyperchlorydria is referred when amount of free HCL is

a. More than 20 ml/ N/10/ ml
b. More than 60 ml/N/10/100 ml
c. More than 150 ml/N/10, 100 ml
d. More than 200 ml/N/10/1
461. Oligospermia is referred as

c. no spermatozoa in semen
462. Necrosermia is referred as

d. Dead ooooor motionless spermatozoa
463. Sperm counts less than 20 million/nil is known as

a. Aspermia b. Oligospermia
c. POlyspermia d. Teratospermia
464. The Puncture site of lumbar puncture is

a. Between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae
b. Between 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae
c. Both a and b
465.Puncture of the cistern cerebellomidulosis through the posterior atlanto occipital

membrane to obtain CSF is
a. Lumbar puncture b. List anal puncture
c. Thoracentesis d. None of sthe above
466. Total volume of gastric analysis is

a. 1 to 2 liters b. 2 to 3 liters
c. 4 to 5 liters d. More than 5 liters
467. The average of PH of semen is

a. Less than 7.0 b. 7.O to 7.7
c. More than 8.0 d. None of the above
468. The average PIT of gastric content is

a. More than 7 b. 7.7
c. 16 to 18 d. None of the above
163

469.The amount of urine passed by adults in a day is
a. 500 to 1000 b. 1000 to 1500
c. 700 to 2500 d. More than 5000
470. Excess of urine is passed in 24 hours more than 2500 ml per day is
a. Oliguria b. Polyuria
c. Nocturia d. Anuria
471. The following is the test for urobilinogen in urine

a. Hay’s test b. Rothera’s test
c. Ehrlichs test d. Bendicts test
472. The following is the test for proteinuria

a. Heller’s test b. Hay’s test
c. Benedict’s test d. None of the above
473. The following is the test to assess the glucose in urine

a. Benedicts test b. Heller test
c. Hays test d. Ehrhich’s test
474. The following is the test for bile pigments in urine

a. Fouchet’s test b. Hay’s test
c. Heller’s test d. Herhich’s test
475. Is the disease of motor impairment which develops secondary to the damage of
brain motor center?
a. Huntington’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Cerebral palsy d. Alzheimer’s disease
476.—––– discovered the agglutinins and agglutinogens in blood

a. Karl land steiner b. Karl Marx
c. Max Weber d. Jones Wolpe
477. Increased leucocyte count is termed as

a. Leucocytosis b. Leucopenia S
c. eucopla 1 da d. None of the above
478. Decreased leucocyte count is termed as

a. Leucocytosis b. Leucopenia
c. Leucoplaria S d. None of the above
479. Normal range for triglycerides in an adult is —— mg/dl

a. 20-40 b. 40-175
c. 200-250 d. None
480. Normal serum in organic phosphorous in adult is mg/dl

a. 1.5 to 2.0 b. 5.5 to 7.0
c. 3.0 to 4.5 d. None of the above
164

481. Stages of bone healing are
a. Procallus formation b. Osseous callus formation
c. Remodeling d. All of the above
482. Stoke is also termed as

a. Cardio Vascular disease
b. Cerebro Vascular accident
c. Ischemic heart disease
483. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is also known as

a. Meningitis
b. HIV encephalopathy
c. Spongi form encephalopathy
d. Viral encephalitis
484. Mad cow disease is the name for

a. Encephalitis
b. Creutzfeldt-Jacob encephalopathy
c. Meningitis
485. Parenchymal infection of the brain is termed as

a. Meningitis b. Encephalopathy
c. Encephalitis d. None of the above
486. Inflammation of the layers of the meninges is termed as

a. Encephalitis b. Meningitis
c. Encephalopathy d. Hydrocephalies
487. Increased volume of the CSF fluid with in the skull, accompanied by dilation of
the ventricles is termed as (b)
a. Encephalitis b. Hydrocephalus
c. Meningitis d. Encephalopathy
488. ——— of the nipple is an eczematoud lesion of the nipple, often associated with
an invasive or non invasive ductal carcinoma of the underlying breast ©
a. Carcinoma b. Metaplasla
c. Paget’s diseases d. None of the above
489. Polycystic ovarian disease is also known as

a. Skin-leventhalsyndrome
b. Creutzfeldt-Jackob disease
c. Paget’s disease
490. ———— is a characterized by cystic swelling of the chorionic villi,

accompanied by valuable trophoblastic proliferation
165

a. Ectopic gestation b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Vesicular mole d. None of the above
491. Undescended testis is

a. Cryptorchidism b. Hypospadiasis
c. Epispadiasis d. None of the above
492. Inflammation of the urinary bladder is termed as

a. Cellulitis b. Cystitis
c. Prostatits d. Orchitis
493. Wilm’s tumor is also known as

a. Nephroblastoma b. Nephrosclerosis
c. Nephrotoxicity d. Nephritic syndrome
494. Grawitz tumor is (a)

a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Wilms disease
c. Nephritic syndrome d. Acute renal failure
495. Bright’s disease is also termed as

a. Renal Cell carcinoma b. Wilms disease
c. Nephritic syndrome d. Acute renal failure
496. Inflammation of the gall bladder

a. Pancreatitis b. Cholangitis
c. Cholecystitis d. Nephritis
497. Conversion of one type of cell to another cell type is called as

a. Atrophy b. Adhession
c. Mitosis d. Metaplasia
498.———— is a decrease in the size its function of a cell

a. Adhesion b. Atorphy
c. Meiosis d. Metaplasia
499.———— is an increase in the size of cell resulting in an increase in the size of the
organ
a. Atrophy b. Hyperplasia
c. Hypertrophy d. Metaplasia
500. ———— is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue usually

sustaining in increased size of the organ tissue
a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy
c. Aplasia d. Atrophy
501. Accumulation of serous fluid in the abdominal cavity is called as

a. Atrophy b. Biopy’
c. Ascitis d. Cellulitis
166

502. Removal of cyst is called as
a. Cyanosis b. Cystectomy
c. Hysterectomy d. cardectomy
503. Inflamation of a bile duct or the entire biliary tract is

a. Cystitis b. Cholithiasis
c. Cholangitis d. Apoptosis
504. Programmed cell death is

a. Atropy b. Fibrosis
c. Congestion d. Apoptosis
505. A small sac like dilation is (b)

a. Ascites b. Acinus
c. Abscess d. Adenoma
506. Afferent means

a. Towards the center b. Towards the periphery
c. Towards upwards d. None of the above
507. A localized collection of pus in a cavity formed by disintegration of tissue is

called as
a. Acinus b. Adenoma
c. Abscess d. Adhesions
508. A stone developing in the body like bladder and kidney is termed as
a. Carcinogen b. Caseous
c. Atrophy d. Calculus
509. A bluish discoloration of the skin, lipos, nails beds, mucus; membranes due to
excessive concentration of reduced haemoglobin in blood and hence deficient
oxygenated blood is
a. Angiogenesis b. Aggregation
c. Cyanosis d. Fibrosis
510. Abnormal accumulation of blood/fluid in a part is

a. Ascites b. Calculus
c. Congestion d. Chronic abscess
511. Formation of fibrous tissue usually in repair or replacement of cellular elements
is
a. Fibrosis b. Dysplasia
c. Gangrene d. Atrophy
512. A poison produced by living organisms is known as

a. Urea b. Toxins
c. Pyogens d. None of the above
167

513. Increased amounts of fluid within the pleural cavity usually due to inflammation
is
a. Pericardial effusion b. Pericarditis
c. pleural effusion d. Pleuritis
514. A sudden violent involuntary muscle contraction; a sudden tightening of a

passage or canal is (d)
a. Symptom b. Pyogen
c. Hypoplasia d. Spasm
515. The following are the complications of wound healing except

a. Wound contraction
b. Implantation cyst, infection
c. Pigmentation, incisional hernia
d. Neoplasia
516. The stages of wound healing are

a. Primary union b. Secondary union
c. Wound contraction d. Scar formation
d. All of the above

168

401. Which of the following diseases gives lifelong immunity after an attack?
a. Typhoid b. Mumps
c. Tetanus d. Diphtheria
402. Which of the following vaccine was introduced most lately?

a. Mumps b. Pertusis
c. Measles d . Rubella
403. What is not usually a feature of rubella?

a. Mumps b. pertusis
c. Measles d. Rubella
404. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is:

a. Rubella b. OPV
c. Tetanus d. Influenza
405. Keratomalacia is associated with:

a. Measles b. Mumps
c. Rubella d. Diarrhoea
406. True about measles vaccines is:

a. Given subcutaneous
b. Highly efficacy
c. Given below 1 year of age
d. Diluent does not require for storage 25%
407. All the following are true for measles vaccine except:
a. Fever can occur 6-10 days after vaccination
b. Immunity develops 11-12 days after vaccination
c. There is spread of virus from vaccine to contacts
d. Single dose of vaccine gives 95% protection
408. Measles vaccine given to a contact of measles case exerts protective effect
within:
a. 1 days b. 3 day
b. 7 days c. 10 days
409. Measles vaccine should be used within the following time after reconstitution:
a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 3 hours d. 1/2 hour
410. In all carriers cause transmission except:
a. Cholera b. Typhoid
c. Measles d. Poliomyelitis
169

411. Carriers are not an important source of transmission in:
a. Typhoid b. Poliomyelitis
c. Diphtheria d. Measles
412. Carriers are not (d)

a. Cholera b. Diphtheria
c. Typhoid d. Measles
413. Carriers are associated with transmission of disease in all except:

a. Typhoid b. Cholera
c. Measles d. Diphtheria
414. Following are complication of chickenpox except:

a. Rey’s syndrome b. Meningitis
c. Pheumonia d.Enteritis
415.All stages of rash are seen in:

a. Chickenpox b. Smallpox
c. Measles d. Typhoid
416. True about chickenpox rash:

a. Centrifugal b. Pleomorphic
c. Umblicated d. Deep seated
417. Chickenpox is characterized by all except:

a. Live virus can be isolated from crust
b. Rapid transformation of stage
c. Rash is centripetal in distribution
d. Lesions appear in crops usually
418. Which is not a complication of chickenpox?

a. Pancreatitis b. Pneumonia
c. Encephalitis d. Thrombocytopenia
419. Communication period of chickenpox is:

a. Till last scab falls off b. Pneumonia
c. In the incubation period d. Thrombocytopenia
EPIDEMIOLOGY
420. First step in investigation of epidemic:

a. Find the source b. Confirm diagnosis
c. Sanitation d. Spot map
421. In fresh bleaching powder the chlorine availability is:

a. 20% b. 30% c. 33% d. 40%
170

422. All of the following are false about bleaching powder except:
a. contains 20% available chlorine
b. 20% solution used for disinfection of faeces
c. Unstable compound on storage
d. Not used for disinfection of faces and urine
423. Sharp instruments may be sterilized with:

a. Radiation b. Lysol
c. Hot air d. Any of the above
424.Which of the following is most powerful chemical disinfectant?

a. Phenol b. Lysol
c. Dettol d. Potassium permanganate
425. For disposable items, the best method for sterilization surveillance except: ©
a. Dry heat b. Incineration
c. Gamma radiation d. Boiling heat
426.According to WHO, all the following diseases require surveillance except:

a. Chickenpox b. Yellow fever
c. Malaria d. Rabies
427. Chemoprophylaxis is given in all except:

a. Cholera b. Plague
c. Measles d. Meningococal meningitis
428.Surveillance by WHO is not done for:

a. polio b. Malaria
c. Viral encephalitis d. Relapsing fever
429.The hardness of the water is based on:

a. Calcium and magnesium salts b. Chlorine level
c. PH d. Temperature
430. The soap-destroying power of water is known as:

a. Turbidity b. taste and odor
c. Hardness d. Color
431. Poor swimming pool sanitation may lead to the following except:
a. Protozoal infections b. Athlete’s foot
c. Helminthic infections d. Lower respiratory tract infections
432. The addition of lime in water treatment helps to

a. Increase magnesium level
b. Reduce chromium level
c. Reduce hardness
d. Change the color of water
433. Refuse can be disposed hygienically by:

a. Dumping b. Composting
171

c. Burial d. Incineration
434. The most unsanitary method of solid waste disposal is:

a. Dumping b. Controlled tipping
c. Composting d. Manure pits
435. The satisfactory method of disposal of town wastage and night soil is:
a. The trench method b. The ramp method
c. 13angalore method c. Mechanical method
436. The collection and removal of night soil from pit latrines by human agency is
called as:
a. Sanitary latrines b. Conservancy system
c. Borehole latrine` d. Dug well latrine
437. Auger is required in construction of :

a. Borehole latrine b. Dug well latrine
c. Water seal latrine d. RCA (research cumaction) latrine
438. The structure which is helpful in eliminating bad odor in RCA latrine Is: (b)
a. pan b. Trap
c. Dugwell d. connectingpipe
439. The sludge is reduced in volume and becomes inoffensive in the septic tank
during the stage of;
a. Aerobic digestion b. Aerobic oxidation
c. Anaerobic digestion d. Anaerobic oxidation
440. The heart of the activated sludge process in modern sewage treatments is:
a. Grit chamber b. Primary sedimentation tank
c. Zoogleal layer d. Aeration tank
441. An economic method of sewage treatment is:
a. Seaoufall b. River outfall
c. Land treatment d. Oxidation pond
442. The area required for an oxidation ditch in case of 5000 population is:
a. 1 acre b. 2 acres
c. 5 acres d. 10 acres
443. The most effective step to break the disease cycle in faecal borne disease is:
a. Medical entomology b. Epidemiology

c. Ecology d. Antropology
444. A study of the arthropods which are of medical importance is known as:
a. Medical entomology b. Epidemiology
c. Ecology d. Anthropology
445. The disease agent undergoes cyclical change and multiplies in the body of
the arthropod, transmission is said to be:
a. Propagative b. Cyclio-propagative
172

b. Cyclo-developmental d. Direct contact
446. An example of arthropod borne diseases which spreads through direct

contact is:
a. Lepros b. Diarrhea
c. Plague d. Scabies
447. The lodgment, development and reproduction of arthropods on the surface of

body or in the clothing is known as:
a. Infestation b. Infection
c. Incubation d. Inflammation
448. Combining two or more methods for vector control is called as:
a. Environmental control b. Biological control
c. Chemical control d. Integrated approach
449. The life span for an adult mosquito is:

c. 1 week d. 3 weeks
450. Culex mosquito lay eggs in:

a. Clean water b. Dirty water collection
c. Running water d. None of the above
451. Malaria is transmitted by:

a. Female anopheles mosquito
b. Male culex mosquito
c. Aedes Mosquto
d. Mansonoides
452. The recommended aperture size of the mosquito net is:

a. 0.0475 inch b. 0.475 inch
c. 4.75 inch d. 40.75 inch
453. The best example for stomach poison is:

a. Paris green b. Fenthion
c. Abate d. Chlorpyrifos
454. The biological method of mosquito control is:

a. Gambusia fish b. Paris green
c. Genetic control d. Mosquito net
455. The convenient time for the community to attend the mass awareness
programme is:
a. Morning b. Afternoon
c. Sunday d. Evening & night
456. Regulatory approach in health education is otherwise known as:
173

a. Legal approach b. service approach
c. Administrative approach d. Educational approach
457. The food adulteration act is a best example for the following approach of
health education:
a. Service approach b. Legal approach
c. Administrative approach d. Educational Approach
458. Name the health education approach which is based on felt needs of the
people :
a. Regulatory approach b. Legal approach
c. Administrative approach d. Educational approach
459. The knowledge is instilled in the minds of the people. This concept is
emphasized in:
a. Health education b. Health propaganda
c. Communication d. Audio-visual aids
460. The most practical one-way communication in community to pass the

message is:
a. Lecture method b. Workshop
c. Demonstration d. Symposium
461. The process of communication is complete in the following type of

communication:
a. One way communication b. Two way communication
c. Both A & B d. None of the above
462. Body language is:

a. Verbal communication b. Nonverbalcommunication
c. One way communication d. Two way communication
463. Another name for informal communication is:

a. Grape-vine b. Gossip circles
c. Didactic d. Socratic
464. The low cost visual form of communication:

a. Charts b. Television
c. Radio d. Network
465. The process of communicating over distance using electromagnetic

instruments is known as:
a. Visual communication b. Telecommunication
c. Mass communication d. Informal communication
466. One way communication is otherwise known as:

a. Socratic method b. Didactic method
c. Grape-vine d. Gossip circle
467. The example for point to point communication is:
174

a. Telephone b. Television
C. Radio d. Computer
468. The flow of information from the audience to the sender is called as:
a. Decoding b. Coding
c. Message d. Feedback
469. Health education given by community health nurses can be made effective
with the proper use of:
a. Decoding ` b. Coding
c. Message d. Feedback
470. The recommended size for the flip chart is:

a. 25 30 centimeters b. 30X30 Centimeters
c. 25X25 centimeters d. 30X25 Centimeters
471. The method of communication by the radio is:

a. Didactic method b. Socratic method
c. Grape-vine d. Gossip circle
472. Planned end points of any activities is known as:

a. Objective b. Target
c. Goal d. Demand
473. Sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish

objectives is known as:
a. Planning b. Programme
c. Policy making d. Procedure
474. The communicable disease which is to be eliminated in the year 2005

according to National health Policy 2002 is:
a. Polio b. Leprosy
c. AIDS d. Tuberculosis
475. The ideal duration of a lecture should not be more than:

a. 15 to 20 minutes b. Leprosy
c. 45 to 60 minutes d. Tuberculosis
476. The ideal duration of a lecture should not be more than:

a. 10 to 20 b. 6 to 12
c. 15 to 20 d. 20 to 25
477. A series of speech on a selected subject by experts is called as:

a. Symposium b. Panel discussion
c. Workshop d. Role play
478.Integration of preventive and curative services is otherwise called as:

a. Bhore committee b. Mudaliar committee
c. Chadah committee d. Mukerji committee
175

479. Committee on integration of health services is otherwise called as:
a. Bhore committee b. Kartar Singh committee
c. Chadah committee d. Jungalwallas committee
480. The chairman of the planning commission is:

a. Planning Minister b. Prime Minister
c. Finance Minister d. Health Minister
481. The important milestone which is helpful to secure the balanced development
of all parts of the country is:
a. National Health policy b. Health sector planning
c. Five year plans d. National Health Programmes
482. Administrtion of national health programme is the responsibility of:

a. Union Health Ministry
b. Directorate General of Health services
c. Central Council of Health
d. Ministry of communicable Diseases
483. The principle unit of administration in India is:

a. Sate b. District
c. Think d. Village
484. Community development programme is:

a. Of the people, for the people & by the people
b. Unipurpose programme
c. To integrate rich & poor
d. For the development of rural & urban communities
485. The co-ordinator and team leader for time development Programme of the
district is:
a. District health officer
b. District collector
c. Commissioner
d. Mayor
86. The village level worker in community development programme is:
a. Panchayat president b. Gram sevak
c. Counselor d. Ward Member
487. Aim of Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) is:

a. To eliminate rural poverty
b. To promote adult education
c. To improve communication faculties in rural areas
d. To provide supplementary nutrition for all children
488. The main work of Hindu Kusht Niavaran Sangh is:

a. To reduce the incidence of tuberculosis
b. To promote child welfare
c. To prevent & control leprosy
176

d. To improve the sanitation
489. A new approach in health care only through which you can achieve health for
all is :
a. Comprehensive health care
b. Basic health care
c. Holistic care
d. Primary health care
490. The concept of primary health centre was first given by:
a. Bhore committee b. Mudaliar Committee
c. Chadali committee d. Shrivastav committee
491. First reterral unit for primary health centre is:

a. Community health centre b. Regional hospital
c. Specialist hospital d. Taluk hospital
492. The voluntary health agency which has the objective of helping people to
achieve health by their own action is:
a. Indian Council for child welfare
b. Central social welfare board
c. Family planning Association of India
d. Bharat Sevak Samaj
493. The health programme which is getting assistance from Swedish international
Developmnent Agency (SIDA) is:
a. Natiional tuberculosis control programme
b. National blindness control programme
c. National leprosy eradication programme
d. National malaria eradication programme
494. The international agency which was helping in the establishment of All India
institude of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) is:
a. Ford foundation
b. Rockefeller foundation
c. The Colombo plan
d. United state Agency for International Development (USAID)
495.The target which India has achieved based on the National Health Policy-1983
is:
a. Birth rate b. Infant mortality rate
c. Birth rate d. Maternal mortality health
496. The main aim of tenth five year plan is:

a. Primary health care b. Comprehensive health care
c. Centralization d. Decentralization
497. Reproductive and child health programme was started during:

a. 6th five year plan b. 7th five year plan
c. 8th five year plan d. 9th five year plan
177

498. The most common cause of high mortality rate among under live children in
India is:
a. Tuberculosis b. Acute respiratory tract infections
c. Diarrhoeal diseases d. Malaria
499. The most difficult health problem to tackle in India is:

a. Nutritional problem
b. Medical care problem
c. Environmental sanitation problem
d. Population problem
500. Institute of Public Health was established in the year:

a. 1960 b. 1935 c. 1947 d. 1957
501. The vector involved in transmission of chikungunya fever expect
a. aedes b. culex c. mansonia
502. The most dangerous type of flea involved in plague transmission is

a. blocked flea b. partially blocked flea
c. flea which had blood meal d. none of the above
503. Neonatal tetanus most often manifests at

a. birth b. 48 hours
c. 7th day d. 14th day
504. Leprosy is transmitted by

a. droplet infection b. contact transmission
c. Via breast milk d. all of the above
505. The best method of controlling spread of sexually transmitted disease is

a. Contact tracing b. Cluster testing
c. Case holding d. Mass survey
506. AIDS in India is predominantly spread by

a. ELISA b. western blot
c. Southem blot d. electron microscopy
507. The most specific test for diagnosis of AIDS

a. ELISA b. heterosexual contact
c. I.V. drug abuse d. blood transfusion
508. World AIDS day is observed every year on

a. January-31 b. May – 1
c. February – 1 d. October – 1
509. Levels of health care are (d)

a. Primary healthcare b. Secondary healthcare
c. Tertiary healthcare d. All of the above
178

510. Promotion of health is
a. Primary level of health prevention
b. Secondary level of health prevention
c. Tertiary level of health prevention
511. The most suitable strategy to prevent diabetes is the occurrences of

a. Early diagnosis & treatment b. Specific protection
c. Primordial prevention d. Rehabilitation
512. Immunization is which level of prevention ?

a. primary level prevention
b. Secondary protection
c. Tertiary level prevention
d. Primordial level of prevention
513. Number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specific

period of time is
a. Primordial b. Primary c. Secondary d. Tertiary
EPIDEMIOLOGY
514. BCG Vaccine is administered to prevent

a. Tuberculosis b. Measles
c. Chickenpox d. Mumps
515. Incubation period of measles is

a. 10-14 days b. 1-3 days
c. 20-30 d. 4-5 days
516. Whooping cough is caused by

a. Vericella zoster b.Bordetella pertusis
c. Peramyxo virus d. Entrovirus
517. Mantoux test is done in

a. Tuberculosis b. Typhoid
c. Malaria d. Filaria
518. Chicken pox is caused by ©

a. Vericella zoster b. Bordetella pertusis
c. Herpes virus varicella d. paramyxovirus
519. What is the causative organism of small pox____

a. Rubella b. Varicella zoster
c. Retro virus d. Variola virus
520. National malaria eradication programme launched in the year of __

a. 1953 b. 1982
179

c. 1990 d. 1956
521. In which year AIDS is detected in India?

a. 1984 b. 1986
c. 1990 d. 1956
522. What is the incubation period of chicken Pox?___
a. 14-17 days b. 9-10 days
c. After 21 days d. 5-7 days
523. The causative organism of mumps _____

a. Varicella zoster b. Rubiola
c. Rubella d. Paramyxovirus
524. Typhoid fever is otherwise known as____

a. Enteric fever b. Chicken pox
c. Malaria d. None of the above
525. What is the major cause of infant mortality in india?____

a. Hypothermia b. Jaundice
c. Neonatal tetanus d. Birth asphyda
526. What is the main clinical manifestation of rabies:

a. Hydrophobia b. Photophobia
c. Tetanus d. Neonatal tetanus
527. The causative organism of AIDS ___

a. Varicella zoster b. HIV
c. Rubella d. Variola
528. National aids control programme launched in the year ____

a. 1990 b. 1991
c. 1988 d. 1987
529. Poliomyelitis is a ____

a. Fungal b. Bacterial
c. Protozoa d. Viral
530. Incubation period of the poliomyelitis is_____

a. 7-21 days b. 10-20 days
c. 8-15 daya d. 10-25 days
531. Hepatitis B is otherwise known as___

a. Viral hepatitis b. Serum hepatitis
c. Bacterial hepatitis d. None of this
532. The causative organism of measles ___
a. variola b. Rubella
c. Rubeola d. None of the above
533. Measles is a infection

a. Bacterial b. Viral
180

c. Pathogen d. None of the above
534. Whooping cough is otherwise called___

a. Influenza b. Pertusis
c. Varicella d. Rubeola
535. Hepatitis G virus was discovered in the year

a. 1996 b. 1998
c. 1992 d. 1990
536. District TB control programme was started in which year

a. 1986 b. 1962
c. 1965 d. 1974
537. Complication of small-pox or anti rabies vaccine is: ____

a. Encephalopathy & vaccinal encephalitis
b. Thalasemia
c. Anemia
538.Which vaccine given at: ___

a. BCG & OPV
b. Measles
c. DPT
539. DPT-1 7 OPV-1 vaccine given in which week: ____

a. 6 weeks after birth
b. 5 years
c. 9 months
540. Vaccine given at 10-16 yrs

a. TT
b. DT
c. DF
541. National immunization programme started in the year

a. 1978 b. 1986
c. 1986 c. 1972
542. The target by which primary immunization is to be completed under the

universal immunization programme is:
543. Vaccine which is given at earliest:

a. BCG b. OPV
c. MMR d. DPT
e. DT
544. Following diseases require isolation to break transmission except:
a. Measles b. Mumps
c. Chickenpox d. Tetanus
181

545. In control of communicable diseases, the period of quarantine in respect of a
disease is determined by:
a. Incubation period b. Infectivity period
c. Duration of illness d. Carrier state
546. Natifiable disease is:

a. Varicella b. Cholera
c. Malaria d. Influenza
547. The following diseases are under surveillance by WHO; except:

a. Relapsing fever b. Plague
c. Malaria d. Tuberculosis
548. Ideal temperature for DPT Storage:

a. Room temperature b. 4 to 8.c
c. 0 to -20.c d. None of the above
549. Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in:

a. Chilled tray b. Freezer
c. Tray below the freezer d. Shelves in the doom
550. Live attenuated vaccines are except:

a. BCG b. Salk
c. Sabin d. Measles
551. Which one of the following is not a live vaccine?

a. OPV b. BCG
c. Hib vaccine d. Try 21 a against typhoid
552. Live attenuated vaccines are:

a. OPV b. Hepatitis
c. Japanese-B-encephalitis d. Chickenpox
553. Killed bacterial vaccine is:

a. BCG b. Diphtheria
c. Pertussis d. Toxoid
553. Live attenuated vaccine used in man is:

a. Influenza b. BCG
c. Yellow fever d. Japanese-B-encephalitis
555. Live vaccines are all except:

a. Typhoid oral b. Measles
c. BCG d. Pertussis
556. All are live vaccines except:

a. Measles b. BCG
c. OPV d. Hepatitis B
182

557. Secondary attack rate reflects:
a. severity b. Communicability
c. Fatality d. Infectivity
558. Which does not have latent infection?

a. smallpox b. chickenpox
c. mumps d. malaria
559. Incubation period is helpful for all except:

a. Quarantine b. Source Identification
c. Preventive immunization d. Isolation
560. The period after entry of the organism to produce maximum infection known
as:
a. Incubation period b. Generation time
c. Serial interval lead d. Lead time
561. Which is most difficult to block spread of?

a. Vector b. Man to man
c. Airborne d. Waterborne
562. The cycle of yellow fever virus is Aedes is:

a. Propagative b. Cyclopropagative
c. Cyclodevelopment d. Any of the above
563. Vertical transmission is by:

a. Mosquitoes b. Direct contact
c. Droplet d. Placenta
564. Transovarian transmission of diseases includes:

a. Syphilis b. AIDS
c. KFD d. Rubella
565. Carrier state is important in following except:

a. Measles b. Polio
c. cholera d. Typhoid
566. Carriers are not an important source of transmission in the following disease:
a. Diphtheria b. Measles
c. Typhoid d. Poliomyelitis
567. Healthy carriers are found in all except:

a. Cholera b. Diptheria
c. Typhoid d. Pertussis
568. Diseases which are imported into a country in which they do not otherwise
occur is:
183

a. Exotic b. Epizootic
c. Endemic 1 d. None of the above
569. Disease imported to a country not otherwise present:

a. Exotic b. Epizootic
c. Epizootic d. Endemic
570. Anthropozoonosis are all except:

a. Guinea worm infestation b. Rabies
c. Plague d. Hydatid cyst
571. The best criteria to judge association causes relationship is:

a. Case control study b. Cohort study
c. Cross-sectional d. Analytical study
573. Evaluation of new antihypertensive drug, test of significance is:

a. Chi-square test b. Fischer F, test
c. Paired t-test d. Pooled
574. Best indicator to determine maximum benefit to the community through

preventive strategies is:
a. Relative risk b. Attributable risk
c. Absolute risk d. Odd’s ratio
575. As a Health Inspector, treatment plan of action you should use:

a. Relative risk
b. Attributable risk
c. Population attributable risk
d. Odd’s ratio
576. Best method to calculate the incidence rate is:

a. Case control study b. Sentinel surveillance
c. Cohort study d. Cross sectional prevalence study
577. If you desire to study the incidence of diarrhea in a community which study
method would you like to opt:
a. Cross-sectional study b. Cohort study
c. Case control study d. Double blind placebo study
578. All true about cohort studies except:

a. Prospective b. Useful for rate diseases
c. Necessary for incidence d. Costly
579. Case control study most characteristic is:

a. Odd’s ratio estimation b. Problem bias
c. Yields incidence rate d. Expensive
580. When launching a study many respondents are invited some of whom fail to
come. This is called:
184

a. Response bias b. Volunteer bias
c. Selection bias d. Berkesonian bias
581. Case control study is used for:

a. Finding a rare cause b. Finding multiple risk factors
c. Finding incidence study d. Finding morbidity
582. Relative risk can be obtained from:

a. Case study b. Cohort study
c. Case control study d. Experimental study
583. Incidence among exposed and nonexposed is called:

a. Relative risk b. Attributable risk
c. Odd’s ratio d. Attack ratio
584. Weighting is:

a. Normal Variable b. Discrete variable
c. Confounding variable d. Continuous Variable
585. All are true about case control study except:

a. It is cheaper than other studies
b. It is useful to investigate a rare disease
c. Odd’s ratio can be detected from it
c. Relative risk can be detected from it
586. The process of matching allows:

a. The matched variables to be evaluated
b. For selecting the case and control group with the same known confounding
variables
c. Odd’s ratio can be detected from it
d. Relative risk can be detected from it
587. All of the following are true regarding case control study except:
a. Relative risk can be calculated
b. Less expensive
c. Suitable for rare disease
d. Backward study
588. All are true about case control studies except:

a. It is easy to conduct
b. It is cheaper
c. Can measure attributable risk
d. Those with disease are matched with those without
589. The most useful study in a hospital setting is:

a. Cross- sectional b. Longitudinal
c. Cohort d. Case control
590. False about point source epidemic is:

a. children are more affected
b. Rapid rise and fall
185

c. AU cases occur in one incubation period
d. No secondary waves
591. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of:

a. Slow epidemic b. Continuous epidemic
c. Point source epidemic d. Propagated epidemic
592. Chernobyl tragedy is an example of:

a. Point source epidemic b. Propagated epidemic
c. Modern epidemic d. Continuous epidemic
593. The three major types of epidemics would include all except:
a. Common source epidemics
b. Periodic epidemics
c. Propagated epidemics
d. Slow epidemics
594. Institute of Public Health (IPH) was founded by:

a. Rockefeller b. B. DANIDA
c. FAO d. WHO
595. The three units of institute of public health are the following except:
a. Health unit b. Training Unit
c. Research unit d. Health education unit
596. A policy decision to integrate all unipurpose programme under multipurpose

workers (MPWs) scheme was made under the recommendations of:
a. Kartar Singh committee
b. Mudaliar committee
c. Chadah committee
d. Multipurpose workers committee
597. Health assistant female may cover:

a. One PHC b. One sub centre
c. One thousand population d. three sub centers
598. Central health education Bureau was created in the year:

a. 1950 b. 1948
c. 1956 d. 1960
599. The following arc the activities of central health education bureau except:
a. conduct health. Education programmes
b. Training to the teachers
c. Preparation of printed material
d. Research in health education
600. The best approach to rehabilitate the persons with disabilities is:
a. Counseling b. Vocational training
c. Community based rehabilitation d. Specialized rehabilitative services
186

601. The liaison between the nursing staff and the administration is through:
a. Policy makers b. In salt as lodate
c. In drinking water d. In wheat hour
602. In national Goiter Control progrmme, iodine is supplied:

a. In salt as iodide b. In salt as Iodate
c. In drinking water d. In wheat hour
603. WorldHcalth Organization (WHO) defines blindness as visual acuity less than:
a. 6/60 b. 1/60
c. 6/24 d. 6/18
604. Which species of the malaria parasite has the widest geographic distribution
throughout the world?
a. Plasmodium v/vax b. Plasm odium fr.ilciparum
c. Plasnuidium inalariae d. Plasniodium ovale
605. The recommended level of Iodization at consumer level is:

a. 15 ppm b. 30 ppm
c. 20 ppm d. 10 ppm
606. The appropriate age to administer measles vaccine is:

a. 3-4 months b. 9-12 months
c. 5-6 months d. when exposed to rubella
607. Filaria control programme concentrates on:

a. Chemotherapy and vector control
b. Mass therapy and entomological survey
c. Selective treatment and environment survey
d. Serological tests and vaccine
608. Which of the following disease has the greatest chance of global eradication
in foreseeable future?
a. Pohiomyelitis b. Kala-azar
c. Yellow fever d. Malaria
609. The dosage of iron and folic acid for adult is:
a. 60 mg of elemental iron & 500 mg of folic acid
b. 60 mg of elemental iron & 100 mg of folic acid
c. 60 mg of elemental iron & u0mg of folic acid
d. 60 mg of elemental iron & 500 meg of folic acid
187

610. Best preventive measure against tetanus neonatorum:
a. Active immunization of mother
b. Passive immunization of mother
c. Active immunization of child
d. Passive immunization of child
611. Expanded Programme of immunization (EPI) includes all of the following

except:
a. BCG b. DPT
c. Measles d. MMR
612. The full form of MDT is:

a. Multi dimension therapy
b. Multi drug therapy
c. Multi bacillary drug therapy
d. Moderate drug therapy
613. The mid day meal programme is an integral part of:

a. Special nutrition programme
b. Applied nutrition Programme
c. Supplementary feeding programme
d. Feeding for specific deficiency
614. While advising an antenatal mother, you will ask the mother to take following
to enhance the absorption of iron:
a. Folic acid b. Fatty acid
c. Ascorbic acid d. Fluorine
615. Milk is purified through the process of:

a. Pasteurization b. Milk hygiene
c. Fortification d. Adulteration
616. In pasteurization the milk is treated with:

a. High temperature & high pressure
b. High temperature & low pressure
c. High temperature
d. Low temperature
617. The characteristics of good meat is:

a. Hard to touch b. Slimy layer
b. Soft to touch d. Pale pink or deep purple
618. Fish is the intermediate host to transmit the disease of:

a. The worm b. Thread worm
c. Round worm d. Hook worm
619. The example of bacterial food borne infection is:

a. Botulism b. Gastroenteritis
c. Viral hepatitis d. Oxyuriasis
188

620. Ergotism occurs due to:
a. Aspergillus b. L salivus
c. Claviceps fusiformis d. Argemone inexicana
621. The process whereby nutrients are added to foods to maintain or improve the
quality of the diet is known as:
a. Food additives b. Food fortification
c. Adulteration d. Food standards
623. The food standards in India are based on the standard of:
a. PFA standards b. The Agmark standard
c. Codex Alimentarius d. Bureau of Indian Standards
624. Name of the toxin produced by fungi in food borne intoxication is:
a. Botulism b. Ergot
c. Asbestos d. Lathyrism
625. Most common cause for maternal mortality in india is:

a. Infection b. Severe bleeding
c. Eclampsia d. unsafe abortion
626. Perinatal mortality means:

a. Infant mortality and neonatal mortality
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Still birth and early neonatal deaths
d. Infant and maternal mortality
627. In a population of 10,000 there are 300 births, 16 neonatal deaths and 23 post
neonatal deaths. The IMR of the given population is:
a. 47 b. 8.77
c. 107 d. 130
628. The best indicator of maternal and child health (MCH) service is:
a. Birth rate b. MMR
c. Anemia in mother d. IMR
629. The aim and objectives of the under five clinical are the following except
a. Preventive care b. Care in illness
c. Growth monitoring d. Preschool education
630. Recommended elemental iron during preganancy is:

a. 40 mg/day b. 60 mg/day
c. 80 mg/day d. 10 mg/day
631. Vaginal bleeding anytime from 6 hours alters delivery to the end of the
puerperium is called:
a. Primary hemorrhage b. Secondary hemorrhage
c. Antepartum hemorrhage d. Tertiary hemorrhage
189

632. A Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative (BFH1) has focused on following aspects
except:
a. Promoting breast feeding
b. Clean delivery practices
c. Exclusive breast feeding till two year
d. Newborn care
633. The major social factor for maternal mortality in India is:
a. Anemia b. Accidents
c. Unsafe abortion d. Malnutrition
634. The leading cause of death among 1-4 year age group children in developed
country is:
a. Diarrhoeal disease b. Accidents
c. Respiratory infection d. Malnutrition
635. The clean 5 principles of safe motherhood include the following except:
a. Clean tie b. Clean cord
c. Clean clothe d. Clean room
636. The common cause for the low birth weight is:
a. Anemia in mother
b. Short stature of mother
c. Poor socio-economic status
d. lliteracy
637. The legal age for marriage among girls in india is

638. India has entered the following phase of demographic cycle

a. High stationary b. Early expanding
c. Late expanding d. Low stationary
639. Following are major risk factor for non communicable diseases prevalence
expect
a. smoking b. stress factor
c. pollution d. immunodeficiency
640. The following are characteristic features of non communicable disease expect
a. Well defined etiological agent
b. multi factorial agent
c. long latent period
d. indefinite onset
641. Following increase the risk for CHD except

a. Oral contraceptives b. alcohol abuse
c. High fiber diet d. type A- personality
642. Most common type of hypertension is (a)
a. idiopathic b. renal disese
c. heart disease d. adrenal hyperplasia
190

643. Demography gap refers to difference
a. between birth and death rate
b. in sex ration
c. child to women ratio
d. between two censes count
644. Perinatal mortality includes all the following expect
a. late fetal deaths b. death during labor
c. early neonatal deaths d. deaths up to 4 weeks
645. The school health committee in India recommends medical examination

a. every 6 months b. every year
c. once in 3 motnhs d. every 4 years
646. The most common side effects of women fitted with IUD is
a. pain
b. increased vaginalbleeding
c. Pelvic infection
d. uterine perforation
647. Most common malignancy in India is

a. Lung cancer b. cervical
c. oropharyngeal d. breast
648. The best investigation for epidemiological studies in diabetes is

a. urinalaysis b. fasting blood sugar
c. random blood sugar d. post prandial blood sugar
649.The obesity index which is used as a standard all over the world for
epidemiological purposes is
a. body mass index b. pondral index
c. broca index d. corpulence index
650. Incubation period of rubella: ____

a. 2 to 3 weeks b. 5 to 6 weeks
c. 5 to 7 weeks d. 7 to 8 weeks
651. Causative organism of Diphtheria (a)

a. Comebacterium diphtheria b. clostridium tetani
c. clostridium tetani d. influenza virus
652. Causative organization of TB___

a. Mycobactenum tuberculi
b. clostridium tetani
c. Influenza virus
653. Incubation period of viral hepatitis

a. 15 to 45 days b. 20-40 days
c. 10 to 12 days d. 20-30 days
654. Incubation period of cholera:
191

a. 1-days b. 5-6 days
c. 5-8 days d. 3-5 days
655. Rubella is otherwise known as____
a. Diphtheria b. German measles
c. Measles d. None of the above
656. Incubation period of mumps

e. 5 to 6days
657. The Incubation period of whooping cough

a. 7 to 14 days b. 10 to 14 days
658. which is the main test for TB_____

a. Mantoux text Coomb’s text c. WIDAL test i
659. National filarial control programme started in which year:

a. 1955 b. 1956
c. 1960 d. 1962
660. ______Vaccine’s shouldn’t be administered to the persons with immune

deficiency disease?
a. Inactivated or killed vaccine
b. toxoids
c. live vaccine
d. cellular fractions vaccine
661. What is the storage temperature of polio vaccine?

a. 20.c b. -30.c
.
c. -20 c d. 30.c
662. ____ is the first step in the control of a communicable disease?

a. Early diagnosis
b. Notification
c. Rapid identification
663.____ is the diseases or infections which are naturally transmitted between

vertebrate animals & man
a. Communicable disease
b. Non-communicable disease
c. Zoonosis
664. The other name for enteric fever is _____

a. Cholera b. Typhoid c. Malaria
665. The disease caused by mycobacterium leprae is___

a. TB b. Leprosy c. Aids
192

666. NACO is the programme for____
a. TB b. STD C. AIDS
667. Scabies is a skin disease caused by

a. Rodents b. Itchnute c. Cats
668. The separation of a person with infectious disease from contact with other
human being is called
a. Incubation b. Isolation c. Termination
669. Vector borne diseases are transmitted by

a. Air b. Animal c. Insects
670. The vaccine given in 9 months_____

a. BCG b. DPT c. Measles
671. What is the incubation period of whooping cough?

a. 8-10 days b. 10-15 days
c. 7-14 days d. 10-20 days
672. Tuberculosis test was discovered in_____ the year

a. 1927 b. 1905
c. 1907 d. 1910
673. Best primary prevention of TB & leprosy

a. Health education
b. Isolation
c. Early diagnosis & treatment
d. Chemotherapy
674. Live vaccine is____(a)

a. BCG oral polio b. Rabies
c. Tetanus d. Plague
675. Problem village is all except:

a. where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from community
b. Water is more than depth of 15m
c. There is excess on Na, K,F salts
d. Risks of guinea worm infection
676. Cancer control programme was launched in:

a. 1976 b. 1986
c. 1970 d. 1992
677. The national Diabetes control Programme in India includes all the following
activities, except:
a. Primary prevention of diabetes through genetic testing and genetic
counseling
b. Identification of high-risk subjects at an early stage, with appriate health
education
193

c. Early diagnosis and management of cases
d. Prevention, arrest or slowing of metabolic and cardiovascular complications
of the disease
678. In community Needs Assessments approach as part of the Reproductive and

Child health programme, the target for various health activities are set at the
level of:
a. Community b. Sub-centre
c. Primary health centre d. District
679. The safe motherhood schemes (CSSM) major thrust area is:
a. Promotion of reproductive health
b. Elimination of maternal morbidity
c. Fertility regulation
d. To provide essential prenatal, natal and postnal services
680. In the reproductive and child health (RCH) programme the main addition over
and above the child survival and safe motherhood programme is:
a. Care of reproductive tract infection
b. Essential newborn care
c. First referral unit
d. At-risk
681. Under reproductive and Child Health Programme, following two indicators are
used:
a. Life expectancy at age 1 and MMR
b. Crude birth rate and IMR
c. Crude death rate and IMR
d. CDR and CBR
682. In the expanded programme of immunization it is proposed to achieve target

of immunization of children by 1990
a. 80% b. 90%
c. 95% d. 100%
683. Target for EPI to be achieved by 1990 was:
a. 60% coverage b. 80% coverage
c. 90% coverage d. 100% coverage
684. In the National Goiter control programme Iodine is supplied:

a. In drinking water b. In salt as Iodine
c. In salt as iodate d. As TM injection of iodized oil
685. The goal set for AD 2005 by the National programme for the control of
blindness in India is to reduce blindness to:
a. 0.3 per cent of total population
b. 0.6 per cent of total population
c. 1.2 per cent of total population
d. 2.4 per cent of total population
194

686. Under the National programme for Prevention of Blindness, Vitamin Ai to be
given to:
a. All children between the age of 1 to 5 years at 6 monthly intervals
b. Children with history of night blindness
c. Children with severe protein energy malnutrition
d. Children with Bitot spots
687. Under the national TB Programme for a PHC to be called at PHI-R, requiste is
a. Microscopy b. Microscopy plus radiology
c. Radiology d. Specialties of doctors
688. False about DOTS is:

a. Continuation phase drugs are given in a multiblister pack
b. Medication is to be taken in presence of a health worker
c. Biweekly dosage and DOT at time
d. Improve compliance
689. District TB control programme is mainly concerned with:
a. Finding out new cases
b. Finding out resistant cases
c. Detecting cases and treatment
d. All of the above
690. The screening method of choice prevalence of leprosy is 1 in 1000 is

a. Contact survey b. Group survey
c. Mass survey d. Any of the above
691. Under the National Leprosy Eradication programme mass surveys are
undertaken when the prevalence of leproscy is
a. 1/1000 b. 3/1000
c. 5/1000 d. 10/1000
692. India has entered which phase demographic cycle:

a. High stationary b. Low stationary
c. Early expanding d. Late expanding
693. High prevalence zone for leprosy has cases per 1,000 populations as:
a. 1-2 b. 2-5
c. 5-10 d. 10-20
694. Which of the following is/are used as operational indicator in antileprosy
activity?
a. Incidence
b. Incidence and prevalence
c. Relapse rate and case detection ratio
d. Incidence and case detection ratio
695. The multidrug regimen under the national leprosy eradication programme
(NLEP) for the treatment of all multi-bacillary leprosy would include:
a. Clofazimine thiacetazone and dapsone
b. Clofazimine rifampicin and dapsone
c. Ethionamide, rifampicin and dapsone
195

d. Propionamide rifampicin and dapsone
696. In leprosy control programme, Indicator of efficacy of early diagnosis case is:
a. Disability rate among newly used

b. Lepromin +ve% among used
c. Ratio of multipauci bacillary cases
d. All of the above
697. The screening method of choice prevalence of Leprocy is 1 in 1000 is: (b)
a. Contact survey b. Group survey
c. Mass survey d. Any of the above
698. Longest incubation period, among the following is of:

a. Malaria b. Hepatitis
c. Leprosy d. Filaria
699. In the national leprosy eradication programme (NLEP), mass surgery is done if
the prevalence is:
a. 1/1000 b. 2/2,000
c. 6/1000 d. 10/1,000
700. Mid year population in a village is 15000. The number of live births during the
year is 36. The crude birth rate of the given population is:
a. 20 b. 22
c. 30 d. 24
701. The age of mother at pregnancy which is associated with highest rate of
maternal death is:
a. Below 20 years and over 35 years
b. Below 18 years and over 35 years
c. Below 15 years and over 45 years
d. Below 18 years and over 45 years
702. High degree of continuous motivation is needed for the following method of
contraception:
a. Infrauterine devices b. Barrier methods
c. Terminal methods d. All the contraceptive methods
703. The combined pill for contraception contains

a. Norethisterone and levonorgestrel
b. Diethyl stiboestrol and oestrogen
c. Oestrogen and pragestogen
d. Gossypol and destrogen
704. When the menstrual cycle of a woman varies from 26 to 31 days, the period of
abstinence to be followed jprythm method of family planning is between:
a. 8th to 21st day of the menstrual cycle
b. 8th to 22nd day of the menstrual cycle
c. 10th to 2oth day of menstrual cycle
196

d. 7th to 23rd day of menstrual cycle
705. After a vasectomy, the male is not considered as sterile up to: (b)
a. one month
b. 30 ejaculations
c. Two months of abstinence
d. Two months
706. Subdermal implants are known as:

a. Norplant b. NET-EN
c. DMPA d. DMPA and NET – EN
707. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act and passed in the y ear:
a. 1972 b. 1971
c. 1978 d. 1975
708. The physiological changes which indicate ovulation except:

a. Raw egg white like vaginal discharge
b. Rise in basal body temperature
c. Production of progesterone
d. Thick and scanty vaginal discharge
709. The most appropriate time for loop insertion after delivery, is:
a. 6-8 weeks after deliver
b. soon after delivery
c. During the first week after delivery
d. During lactation period
710. An example for third generation intrauterine device is:
a. CuT-200 b. Nova T
c. Progestasert d. Multiload devices
711. The estimated number of condoms needed to protect a couple

a. 76 Condoms per year b. 74 Condoms per year
c. 356 Condoms per year d. 72 Condoms per year
712. The action to spermicidal is through:

a. Diaphragm b. Vaginal Sponge
c. Condom d. None of the above
713. The action to spermicidal is through:

a. Antiseptic effect b. Surface-active method
c. Antibiotic effect d. Disinfectant
714. The following is an example of conventional contraceptives:

a. Combined pill b. Progesterone only pill
c. Oestrogen only pill d. Once-a-month pill
715. The best choice of method for post-coital contraception is:

a. Combined pill b. Progesterone only pill
c. Oestrogen only pill d. Once-a-month pill
197

716. The other names for safe period method of contraception are the following
except:
a. Calender method b. Rhythm method
c. Programmed sex d. Natural method
717. At the village level, the health care worker in-charge of family planning is:
a. Male health workers b. Village health guides
c. Health visitors d. Health supervisors
718. Family planning was declared as the centre of planned development during
the:
a. Third five year plan b. fourth five year plan
c. Fifth five year plan d. Sixth five year plan
719. In motivation of small family norm the emphasis was shifted

a. From clinic approach into extension approach
b. From extension education approach into clinic approach
c. From clinic approach into structured reorganization of the programme
d. Extension education approach into structured reorganization of the
programme
720. The Ministry of Family planning was renamed as:

a. Ministry of Social Welfare
b. Ministry of Family Welfare
c. Ministry of population control and Family planning
721. Two child family norm was emphasized by:

a. State level health care delivery system
b. Centre level health care delivery system
c. District level health care delivery system
d. Primary’s health centre
722. In Family Welfare programme, State Governments are responsible for:

a. Planning & implementation of family welfare programme
b. Administration and implementation of family welfare programme
c. Financial support
d. Distribution of family planning materials
723. Which of the following is an age independent index of malnutrition among

under fives?
a. Height b. Weight
c. Bangle test d. Growth chart
724. Vital statistics include:

a. Mortality and morbidity data
b. Mortality only
c. Birth, death and marriage data
d. Birth, death and immigration data
198

725. The pathological state resulting from a disproportion among essential
nutrients with or without the absolute deficiency of any nutrient is known as:
a. Under nutrition b. Over nutrition
c. Imbalance d. Specific deficiency
726. Lathyrism is caused by the consumption of:

a. Red gram b. Bengal gram
c. khesari dhal d. None of the above
727.what is known as poor man’s meat?

a. Milk b. Pulses
c. Fish d. Egg
728. Oral vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children in every

c. 9 months d. one year
729. The major nutritional problem in India is ©

a. Neurolathyrism b. Endemic dropsy
c. Low birth weight d. Obesity
730. The increase of skill and function in children are referred as:
a. Maturity b. Development c. Growth d. Milestone
731. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
a. cod liver oil b. green leafy vegetables
c. papaya d. carrot
732. Pasteuration of milk kills all the following expect

a. anthrax b. M. tuberculosis
c. Streptococcus d. btrucella
733. The term reference protein is used for

a. egg, b. milk
c. fish d. meat
734. The chief protein of milk is

a. casein b. lactalbumin
c. lactoglobulin d. albumin
735. All the principles in formulating mid day meal expect

a. low cost b. Substitute to home diet
c. easily prepared d. frequent change of menu
736. Excess of fluorine intake causes all expect

a. genu valgum b. dental fluorosis
c. skeletal fluorosis d. dental carries
737. Prolonged exposure to coal dust causes

a. anthracosis b. silicosis
199

c. asbestosis d. siderosis
738. Byssinosis is caused by inhalation of

a. sugar cane, b. Cotton b. jute d. benzene
739. Sickness absenteeism indicates

a. production capacity of a factor
b. state of health of workers
c. poor factory management
d. inadequate preplacement examination
740. Which is not feature of sickness benefit under ESI act

a. Periodical cash payment
b. full daily wages given
c. persons reviving the benefit should treatment provided under the act
d. insured person protected from dismissal
741. The best method for arthropod control involves

a. environmentally measures b. chemical c. biological d. genetic
control
742.Reconstituted measles vaccine should be used within how many hours__

a. 1 hour b. 2 hours
743. Ideally the vaccine in a vaccine carrier can be stored for a minimum period
of______
744. The polio virus can remain viable in water in cold environment for ___
a. One year b. One month
745. The target by which primary immunization is to be completed UIP is

c. 2 years d. 1 year
746. 1 dose of triple vaccine is given at the age of _____

747. Syphilis is caused by

a. Spirochaetes b. Virus
b. Fungus d. None of the above
748. The following disease are transmitted by the Aedes mosquitoes except ?
a. Japanese encephatitis b. Yellow fever
c. Dengue fever d. Haemorrhagic fever
200

749. Megaloblasticanaemia is caused due to the defiency of __
a. B12 b. B2
c. B6 d. B1
750. Tab vaccines is given for the prevention of

c. TB d. None of the above
751. RNTCP test was introduced in___

a. 1993 b. 1904 c. 1980 d. 1990
752. Gention Violet solution will be used to mark the children vaccinated for___
a. BCG b. Polio c. Vit-A d. Measles
753. The most common cause of death in children under 5 years of age
a. Diarrhea b. Measles
c. Accidents d. Pre-maturity
754. How many doses of hepatitis B vaccine is given to an infant___
a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 2
755. What is VVM_____

a. Test for vaccine protency
b. Test for vaccine contamination
c. Measurement of dosage
d. All the above
756. The following is the example of modes of transformation of hepatitis B__

a. Blood
b. Contaminated syringes, needles
c. Sexual contact
d. all the above
757. Hepatitis B is otherwise known as____

a. Viral hepatitis b. Serum hepatitis
c. Bacterial hepatitis d. None of this
758. The toxins that released during the food poisoning

a. Alpha toxin b. Toxins
c. Antitoxins d. All the above
759. Prevention of food adulteration act started in the year

a. 1954 b. 1964
c. 1960 d. 1984
760. The Best Medicine used for the Syphilis is__

a. 5th july 1975 b. 5th may 1975
th
c. 5 april 1975 d. none of the above
761. The best medicine used for the syphilis is___
201

a. Inj. Procainpencillin for10 days (600,000 units)
b. Inj. Penidure for 10 days (6,00,000 units)
c. Inj. Amox for 10 days (600,000 units)
762.The national Tuberculosis programme has been in operation since__

a. Mineral oils b. Paris Green
c. Synthetic method d. AU the above
763. The national tuberculosis programme has been in operation since___

a. 1962 b. 1960
c. 1970 d. None of the above
764. The acquired immunodeficiency syndrome some time called as___

a. Zoonosis b. Slim disease
c. Both a & b d. None of them
765. Test does is not necessary before administration of following injection

a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin
c. Tetanus toxoid d. None above
766. Kopliks sports are diagnostic features of

a. Mumps b. Chicken pox
c. Measles d. Cholera
767. TAB vaccine is given t prevent (

a. Cholera b. Typhoid c. Tuberculosis
768. _____ is the diseases or infections which are naturally transmitted between
vertebrate animals & man
a. Communication disease
b. Non-communicable disease
c. Zoonosis
769. In Which year AIDS is detected in India? _______

a. 1984 b. 1986
c.1990 d. 1956
770. The causative organism of AIDS ____

a. Varicella Zoster b. HIV
c. Rubella d. Variola
771. National aids control programme launched in the year _____

a. 1990 b. 1991
c. 1988 d. 1987
772. NACO is the programme for

a. TB b. STD
c. AIDS
202

773. Leprosy is commonly called
a. Mental disease b. Social disease
c. Physical issue d. all the above
774. Causative organism of leprosy is

a. Staphylococci b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Mycobacterium d. Both a & b
775. Incubation period of leprosy is

a. 3-5 years b. 5-15 days
c. 7-17 day d. 1-2 years
776. Lepra bacilli present in

a. Animal milk b. Human milk
777. Dapsone & Rifanipicin drug used for treatment of

a. Cholera c. Leprosy
c. Diarrhea d. Constipation
778. J.E was first identified in

a. Japan b. Thailand
c. India d. Malaysia
779. _________ are the vectors responsible for spread of JE

a. Masquitoes b. Human being
c. Pigs d. Cattles
780. The transporting & storing system of vaccine is know as____

a. Cold chain b. Refrigerator
c. Hot chain d. Chain of infection
781. What is the causative organism of rables

a. Lyssa virus type 1 b. Rubella
c. Varicella d. None of the above
782. The last case of smallpox was reported in the world in:
a. 1977 b. 1978 c. 1979 d. 1982
783. Smallpox was eradicated because of the following factors except:

a. Potent vaccine
b. Easy to recognize
c. Extra human reservoir control
d. Long incubation period
784. Leprosy is a chronic disease.

a. Communicable b. Non-communication
c. Both a & b d. None
203

785. Which of the following is true of chickenpox?
a. Virus is not found in scab
b. Virus can be grown on the chicken embryo
c. Caused by RNA virus
d. Does not cross the placental barrier
786. Infectivity of chickenpox last
a. Till the last scab fall offs
b. 3 days after appearance of rash
c. 6 days after appearance of rash
d. As long as fever last
787. All stages of rash are seen in:

a. Chickenpox b. Smallpox
c. Measles d. Typhoid
788. Carrier associated with transmission of disease in all except:

c. Measles d. Diphtheria
789. Koplik’s spots are seen in:

a. Rubella b. Rubeola
c. Typhoid d. Chickenpox
790. All are true about measles except:

a. Incubation period of 10 to 14 days
b. Secondary attack rate of 30 %
c. More severe in malnourished
d. Sub clinical infection
791. Sub acute sclerosing panencaphalitis (SSPE) can occur in infection with:
a. Measles b. Rubella
c. Mumps d. Chickenpox
792. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now ?

a. ABER
b. Infant parasite rate
c. Annual parasite incidence
d. Slide positivity rate
799. National programme are now organized for the following in India except:
a. Filariasis b. Leprosy c. Smallpox d. Trachoma
794. The objective of minimum needs programme does not include:

a. One PHC for 30,000 populations
b. Link-mid-day meal programme to sanitation
c. Integration of health water and sanitation
d. Urban area given priority
795. Under NMEP the minimum annual blood examination rate should be:
a. 10% b. 12 %
204

c. 14% d. 18%
796. Modified programme for National Malaria Eradication Programme is based
on:
a. API b. ABER
c. Infant parasite rate d. Spleen rate
797. In NMEP, the recommendation for area API-2 are A/E:

a. Presumptive treatment
b. DDT spraying fortwiced in a year
c. Epidemiological investigation of all cases
d. Follow-up every case for one year and monthly blood
798. Which is not true of malaria eradication programme MEP):

a. Started in 1953
b. Modified plan started in 1970
c. Incidence was 2 million cases in 1958
d. Incidence decreased to 50,000 in 1961
799. The expected reduction in API by 2000 AD in Inidia is:

a. 1/10 b. 1/100
c. 1/1000 d. 0.5/1000
800. Under NMEP, the function of fever depot treatment is:

a. Diagnosis of cases + spraying
b. Collection of slides + treatment of fever
c. Treatment fever cases only
d. Treatment + slide collection + spraying


801. Under NMEP, the minimum annual blood examination rate should bef:
a. 10% b. 12%
c. 14% d. 18%
802. All of the following statements about National Malaria Control Programme are
true except:
a. Number of slides examined should amount to at least 10% of the population
under surveillance in a year
b. Annual parasite incidence based on active and passive surveillance and
cases confirmed by blood examination
c. Annual blood examination rate is calculated from the number of slides
examined per 100 cases of fever
d. The slide positivity rate provides information on the trend of malaria
transmission
803. Under NIMEP for areas with API more than 2 the vector is refractory to DDT,
the new recommendation is:
205

a. HCH-1 round/year
b. HCH-2 round/year
c. HCH-3 round/year
d. Malanthione-2 rounds/year
804. Under the National Malaria Eradication programme, radical treatment for
P.vivax malaria is given for:
a. 1 days b. 5 days
805. Under NMEP for areas with API more than 2 and vector refractory to DDT, the
recommendations is:
a. Malathion – 3 rounds/year b. HCH-I round/year
c. HCH-2 round/year d. HCH-3 rounds/year
806. Health education is:

a. Health promotion b. Health distortion
c. Thorough public health d. Not prevalent
807. In the process of health education of community the most important step is:
a. Contact to doctors
b. Community discussion
c. Announces, to community by loudspeaker
d. Knowing to local needs
808. Following are used in planning of health education except:

a. Cover felt needs b. Using simple words
c. Catchy slogans d. Ensuring participation
809. WHO constitution was made in:

a. 1947 b. 1950
c. 1952 d. 1956
810. In health education programme a group of 10 people are speaking on a topic

of common interest called as:
a. Workshop b. Panel discussion
c. Group discussion d. symposium
811. Not a feature of mass media education:

a. Deals with local problem of communication
b. Easily understandable
c. Wide approachable
d. Rapid
812. The Bhore Committee was set up in:

a. 1943 b. 1946
c. 1947 d. 1952
813. PHC was inctroduced as a result of repor:

a. Bhore Committee b. Kartar singh
206

c. Mudaliar d. Planning commission
814. All are true about Mudaliar committee except:

a . To imp ro ve t he q u a lit y of h ea lt h ca r e
b. Strengthening of district hospital
c. Consolidation of advances made in the first two five-year plan
d. Each primary centre covers population of 80,000
815. Panchayat Raj means:

a. Local health care centre
b. Community health care centre
c. Primary health care
d. Local self rule government
816. The community development programme is means:

a. To bring about a special and economic change in village life through the
b. effort of the villagers themselves
c. To arrange w elfare programmes for women and children
d. To improve agriculture product through better manure and seeds
e. To plan development programme in a village high population of 60
and 80 thousand
817. Drinking water is best made free of Cyclops by:

a. Filtration b. Boiling
c. Chlorination d. None of the above
818. Diethyl toluamide is an effective:

a. Larvicidal
b. Agent against pupal of anopheles
c. Repellent
d. Space spray
e. None of the above
819. Which of the following disease is found in India?

a. Westnile fever
b. Murray valley encephalitis
c. Yellow fever
d. Colorado tick fever
820. Aedes is vector for all except:

a. Dengue b. Yellow fever
c. Encephalitis d. Hemorrhagic fever
821. Which is not transmitted by culex? (

a. Dengue b. Filaria
c. Viral arthritis d. Westnfle fever
822. Diseases spread by mosquito are:
207

a. Malaria b. Toxoplasmosis
c . Histoplasma d. Sleeping sickness
823. Culex mosquito can transmit:

a.. Malaria b. Kala-azar
c. Dengue fever d. None of the above
824. "Nuisance mosquito" is:

a.Anopheles b. Culex
c. Ades d. Tse-tse fly
825. The maximum permissible level of occupational exposure to radiation is -

per year:
(a) 5 rem (b) 2 rem
(c) 10 rem (d) 50 rem
826. Rat flea transmits all the following except:

(a) Plague (b) Salmonellosis
(c) H. Dimunita (d) Murine fever
827. Which of the following is not an arthropod borne infection in India?

(a) Japanese B encephalitis (b) KDF
(c) Dengue (d) Tanapox virus
828. The vector of Kyasanus Forest diseases is:

(a) Anopheles mosquito (b) Culex mosquito
(c) Flea (d) Tick
829. Trench fever is transmitted by:

(a) Flea (b) Louse
(c) Tick mosquito (d) None of the above
830. Hard tick transmits:

(a) Oroyo fever (b) Oriental sore
(c) Leishmanials (d) Tick typhus
831. For proper functioning, an oxidation pond requires:

a. Algae, sunlight and ferns
b . Algae. scavenging bacteria and sunlight
c . A lg a e . s a p r o p h yt i c b a c t e r i a a n d s u n l i g h t
d . A lg a e , h u ma n p a t h o g e n ic b a c t e r ia a n d s u n l ig h t
832. True about septic tank is:

a. Disinfectants should be used periodically
b . Anaerobic digestion takes place inside and aerobic digestion takes
place out side
c . M in imu m capac it y of t he tan k is 100 g a llon s
d . A retention period of 24 hours is insufficient
208

833. An inexpensive and efficient method of sewage disposal for a small
community is:
(a) River outfall (b) Oxidation pond
(c) Trickling filter (d) Activated sludge
834. Trickling filter is used in:

(a) Primary treatment of sewage
(b) Secondary treatment of sewage
(c) Sewage effluent treatment
(d) Sewage farming treatment
835. Biological oxygen demand denotes contamination with:

(a) Bacteria (coli forms) (b) Organic matter
(c) Nitrates (d) Algae
836. Oxygen demand calculated in water is for evaluating I its:

(a) Biological Value (BOD) (b) Organic nature
(c) Stand by time (d) E. coli ratio
837. Strength of sewage is expressed in terms of:

(a) Biological oxygen demand
(b) Chemical oxygen demand
(c) Suspended solids
(d) E. coli count
838. Anaerobic digestion of sludge is seen in:

(a) Aquaprivy (b) Effluent
(c) Septic tank (d) All of the above
839. Septic tank decomposition takes place by:

(a) (a) Anaerobic (b) Aerobic
(c) Both (d) None
840. Which of the following is not a sanitary latrine?

(a) Aqua privy (b) Bore hole
(c) RCA type (d) Service latrine
841. Accepted depth of water in water-seal latrine should not be more than
cm (d)
(a) 2.5 (b) 4.0
(c) 5.0 (d) 2.5
842. Which is the latrine of choice for camps?

(a) Aqua privy (b) Trench hole
(c) Pit latrine (d) Chemical
843. Pit latrine has depth of feet: (d)

(a) 2-4 (b) 4-6
209

(c)6-10 (d) 10-12
844. Sanitation barrier is:
(a) Segregation of faeces (b) Control of flies
(c) Excreta disposal (d) Proper water suppi,
845. Soalcage pit is used' for hygienic disposal of:

(a) Garbage (b) Rubbish
(c) Sewage (d) Sludge
846. The disposal of night soil and refuge is by:

(a) Chemical sterilization (b) Burning
(c) Composting (d) Any of the above
847. Controlled tipping is a method of disposal of:

(a) Sewage (b) Human excreta
(c) Suilage (d) Rufuse
848. Red Cross w as founded by:

(a) Hippocrates. (b) Henry Durant
(c) Galen (d) Madam Curie
849. Kata thermometer is used to measure

(a) Maximum temperature (b) Minimum temperature
(c) Radiant heat (d) Cooling power of air
850. A rupture of ear drum may actually occur at a decibel level above:
(a) 40 (b) 80
(c) 120 (d) 160
851. Which of the following is referred to as tiger mosquitoes-?

(a) anopheles (b) Culex
(c) aedes (d) mansonia
852 Source reduction in mosquito control comprises of

(a) minor engineering methods
(b) genetic engineerin g technique
(c) Personal protection against bites
853. Vector of changes disease are

(a) testse fly (b) reduvlid bug
(c) soft tick (d) sand flea
854. Trench fever is transmitted by

(a) flea (b) louse
(c) tick (d) mosquito
855. Requirement of extra calories for a lactating mother during first 6 months is:
(a) 300 Kcal/day (b) 400 Kcal/day
(c) 550 Kcal/day (d) 800 Kcal/day
210

856. Peliagra may result from regular consumption of:
(a) Lath yrus sativus (b) Soya bean
(c) Ragi (d) Maize
857. Daily requirement of protein for children under five years is:
(a) 1gm/kg (b) 15gm/kg
(c) 2 gms/kg (d) 2.5 gms/kg
858. The risk of stomach cancer has been related to:

(a) Deficiency of Vitamin C (b) Deficiency of vitamin A
(b) Deficiency of Vitamin B (d) Deficiency of vitamin D
859. According to Gomez classification 60-74% of weight for age denotes:

(a) I degree malnutrition (b) II degree malnutrition
(c) III degree malnutrition (d) IV degree malnutrition
860. Which of the following is the first inidicator of PEM (Protein energy malnutrition):
(a) Under height for age (b) Under weight for age
(c) Under weight for height (d) Under weight for age & height
861. Edema is the clinical feature of protein energy malnutrition (PEM) in:
(a) Marasmus (b) Endemic Fluorosis
(c) Kwashiorkor (d) Neurolathyrism
862. Following vitamin will get lost from the rice during the process of milling except:
(a). Thiamine (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Riboflavin (d) Niacin
863. The two in one salt is fortified with:

(a) Iodine (b) Iodine & iron
(c) Iodine & vitamins (d) Iodine & calcium
864. The energy value in 100 ml of human milk is:

(a) 60 kcal (b) 70 kcal
(b) 80 kcal (d) 100kcal
865. The nutritional status of the child is said to be satisfactory if the mid arm
circumference is:
(a) More than 13.5 cm (b) 12.5 cm to 16.5cm
(b) 13.5cm to 16.5 cm (d) 12.5 cm to 13.5cm
866. The most common preventable childhood nutritional deficiency is:

(a) Riboflavin deficiency (b) Vitamin A deficiency
(c) Iron deficiency (d). Vitamin B defiency
867. The grass root level worker in ICDS (Integrated Child Development Scheme) is:
a. Midwife
b. Health worker female
211

c. Child development project officer
d. Anganwadi worker
868. The calories and protein provided special nutrition programme is:
a. 500 kcal and 25 gms of protein
b. 300 kcal and 10 gms of protein
c. 300 kcal and 25 gms of protein
d. 500 kcal and 12 gms of protein
869. Nalgonda technique is for:

a. Irion fortification
b. iodine fortification
c. Deflurodisation of water
d. Detoxification of Lathyrus sativus
870. AS a school health nurse, your focus of care will be:

a. Medical examination of children
b. Comprehensive health care of children
c. Comprehensive care of health & well being of children throughout the
school years
d. Medical examination and school feeding programme throughout the school
years
871. Mid-day meal programme in India was started by:

a. UNICEF b. UND
C. USAID d. WHO
872. The common health problems seen in Indian school children are the following
except:
a. Diseases of skin eye & ear
b. Dental carries
c. Blood disorders
d. Acute respitory infection
873. The desirable type of desk which in to be provided for school children is:
a. Minus type b. Plus type
c. Desk with cupboards d. Desk with footrest
874. The lighting facility in a school is preferable from:

a. Front side of the student b. Back side of the student
c. Right side of the student d. Left side of the student
875. In a ideal school lavatory, one urinal should be fixed for every:
a. 100 students b. 25 students
c. 75 students d. 60 students
876. The main objective of school health services is:

a. Early diagnosis, treatment and follow-up of detects
b. First aid and emergency care
c. Care of handicapped
d. Nutritional surveillance
212

877. The school health committee recommended on establishment of school health
programme in the year:
a. 1959 b. 1961 c. 1971 d. 1981
878. The school health committee recommended per capita space for a student in
classroom should not be less than:
a. 5sqft b. 7 sqft c. 10sqft d. 15sqft
879. The personality disorder which is commonly seen in school children is:
a. Thumb sucking b. Stealing
c. Tempertantrums d. Hallucination
880. Ergonomics means:

a. Placing the right man to the right job
b. Industrial health
c. Industrial legislation
d. prevention of disease in work place
881. Bagassosis is associated with the inhalation of the following dust:
a. Coal b. Sugar cane
c. Cotton d. Hay or grain dust
882. The size of the dust in occurrence of pneumoconiosis

(a)
a. 0.5 to 3 micron b. 0.3 to 0.5 micron
c. 0.3 to 5 micron d. 3 to 5 micron
883. The workers with special risk of silicosis are in:

a. Agriculture b. Steel industry
c. Cotton industry d. Leather factory
884. Ground glass appearance in the lower two thirds of chest X-ray seen in which of
the following pnenmoconiosis: (d)
a. Silicosis b. Anthracosis
c. Bagassosis d. Asbestosis
885. A 45 years man working in rubber industry had complaints of constipation,

abdominal colic, blue line on gums and anemia. The possible diagnosis should be:
a. Pancytopenia b. Cancer oral cavity
c. Lead poisoning d. Aplastic anemia
886. The recommended air space for worker in industry is:

a. 500 cu ft b. 500 sq ft
c. 50 cu ft d. Sosqft
887. In occupational health, the replacement of a har-hfu: material by a harmless one

is called as:
a. Enclosure b. Isolation
c.Substitution d. Mechanization
213

888. Prescribed working hours per week by the Factories Act 1948 is:
a. 48 hrs b. 40 hrs
c. 60 hrs d. 42 hrs
889. Ionizing radiation causes:

a.Sterility b Dermatitis
c.Keratitis d.White fingers
890. The scope of Employees State Insurance (ESI, Act 1948 includes the following
categories of employees except:
a.. Shops b. Small scale industries
c..Cinema theatres d. Mine workers
891. A reduction in a person's capacity to fulfill a social role is called as:

a. Impairment b. Role change
c. Handicap d. Invalid
892. Memory loss is an example of:

a.. Disach.ity b. Impairment
c..Handicap d. Mentally handicap
893. Poverty caused by blindness is:

a..Primary handicap b. Social handicap
c. Secondary handicap d. Physically handicap
894. Physical handicap resulting from polio is called as:

a..Crippled b. Invalid
c.Impairme-7 d. Disability'
895. According to WHO classification, the intelligence quotient (10 level in severe
mentally retarded children will be:
a. Between 2:-5: b. Between 20-34
c. Below2.: d. Between 25-50
896. In children. w hen the opportunities for the development of a healthy

personality are hampered. they become:
a.. Socially handicapped/ b. Mentally handicapped
c. Orphans d. Destitute children
897. The intelligence distribution in the general public follow the:

a. Gauss curve
b. Intelligence quotient distribution
c . WH O pop u lat ion c urv e
898. The organosphnosphorus compound with least toxicity is

a. abate b. malathion c. diazinon d.
fenthion
214

899. Chiorination of water kills
a. bacteria b. spores
c. protozoal cysts d. helminthic ova
900. The center the symbol for under five clinic represents
a. health education b. family planning
c. immunization d. adequate nutrition
901. Road to health indicates that a child is

a. Freeform diseases b. growing normally
c. Completely immunized d. mentally stable
902. Demography includes study of
a. fertility b. mortality
b. Social morbidity d. all of the above
9 0 3 . W h i c h o f t h e f o l l ow i n g d i s e a s e s g i v e s l i f e - l o n g immunity
after an attack?
a.Mumps b.Typhoid
c. Tetanus d. Diphtheria
904. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during

a. Incubation period b. Onset of swelling
c. After swelling appears d. prodromal period
905. Shick test is done in:

a. Meningitis b. Diphtheria
c. pertussis d. Polimyelitis
906. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

a. Gluteal b. Deltoid
c. Lateral aspect of thigh d. Forearm
907. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of:

a. 1 year b. 2-3 years c. 10-15 d. 20-25 years
908. The vaccine usually given to pilgrium to the middle east is:
a. DPT b. Influenza
c . Y e l l ow f e v e r d. Meningitis
909. Measles vaccine is given under the National Immunization

Programme:
a. 6 weeks b. 6 months
c. 9 months d. 18 months
910. Modifiable risks factors in case of Hypertension include all,

EXCEPT:
a.Age b. obesity
c. Salt intake d. Alcohol intake
911. Saturated fatty acids are all, EXCEPT:
215

a. Lauric b. Palmitic
c. Stearic d. Oleic
912. Infections primarily of animals that can be transmitted through

milk is all EXCEPT:
a. Tuberculosis b. Brucellosis
c. Q fever d. Malaria
913. The diseases notiflable to the WHO under the International Regulation
Act are all except:
(a) Cholera (b) Plague
(c) Yellow Fever (d) Diphtheria
914. Quickening means:

(a) Hearing of the fetal heart sound
(b) S u d de n c e s s a t io n o f M e n s t r u a t i o n
(c) The movement of the fetus in the uterus felt by the mother
(d) N ausea a nd v o mit ing in th e mor n in g
915. Discoloration of teeth is caused by a kind of antibiotics called:

(a) Streptomycin (b) Neomycin
(c) Tetracycline (d) Penicillin
916. Dengue fever is otherwise called as

(a) Enteric fever (b) Break bone fever
(c) Q-fever (d) Brain fever
NON- COMMUNICABLE
917. Ninety percent of the oral cancer in India is due to

(a) Spicy food (b) Beedi rolling
(c) Over eating (d) Chewing tobacco.
918. A mentally healthy person

(a) Feels reasonably secure & accept his short mistake
(b) I s u n a b l e t o c o n c e n t r a t e
(c) L o o s e s t e m p e r
919. A Spoon shaped nails are seen in

(a) Iron deficiency anemia (b) Megaloblastic anemia
(c) Sickle cell anemia (d) Pernicious anemia
920. Megaloblastic anemia is caused due to the deficiency of —

(a) B (b) B2
(c) B6 (d) B1
921. PEM can be prevented by

(a) Adequate nutrition (b) Treatment of infection
(c) All of the above (d) Health education
216

922. Vitamin A prophylaxis programme advocates the administration of Vitamin A
orally in solution form in a d o s e o f :
(a) 10000 micrograms (b) 56000 micrograms
(c) 66000 micrograms (d) 76000 micrograms
923. The Vitamin A supplement administered in "Prevention of nutritional
blindness in children programme" contains:
(a) 25,000 i.u./ ml (b) 50,000 i.u. / nil
(c) 1 lakh i.u./nil (d) 2, 00,000 i.0 /ml
924. Blindness as defined by WHO is visual acuity is less than:

(a) 1/60 (b) 6/18
(c) 6/24 (d) 6/60
DEMOGRAPHY:
925. Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per

a) 3000 males b) 1500 males c) 1000 males d) 2000 males
926.is the scientific study of human population

(a) Sex ratio (b) Demography (c) Urbanization (d) Family
welfare
927. What is the major cause of infant mortality In India?

(a) Hypothermia (b) Jaundice (c) Neonatal tetanus (d) Birth
asphyxia
9 2 8 . - - - - i s t h e n u mb e r o f d e a t h s p e r t h o u s a n d populations per year in a

given community? a. Crude death rate
b. Expectation of life
c. opositional mortality rate
d.None of the above
929. Crude death rate means

a. Death per 100C population in a year
b. Death per 100C population per month
c. B o t h a & b
930. As per birth and death registration act the birth should be registered within
(a) 5 days (b) 7 days (c) 9 days (d) 10 days
931. Crude death rate is

(a) Death rate per month per 1000 population
(b) Deaths per 1000 population per year in a given community
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
932. The term incidence refers to

(a) The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a
specific period of time
217

(b) The nu mb er of o ld cases se en in a re a
(c) B o t h a a n d b
(d) N o n e o f t h e a b o v e
933. Prevalence refers to

(a) All correct cases (old and new) existing in a given time (or) over a period of
time in a given population
(b) D i s e a s e r a t e o f t h e o l d c a s e s
(c) B o t h a a n d b
(d) N o n e o f t h e a b o v e
934. What is the denomination in General fertility rate

(a) Married women
( b ) Women in reproductive age group (15-44 years)
( c ) Ma r r ie d w o men in t he ag e o f 15- 44
(d) All w omen
935. The percentage of women in the reproductive age group is

(a) 15% (b) 22%
(c) 30% (d) 40%
936. The national policy is to bring the couple protection rate to:
(a) 50% (b) 60 %
(c) 75% (d) 90 %
937. The expected growth rate by 2000 A.D. is

(a) 0.8 (b) 1.2
(c) 2.0 (d) 2.3
938. The growth rate of India is:

(a) 55% (b) 3%
(c) 2% (d) 2.2%
(e) 2%
939. The highest per capital income in India is in 0

(a) Kerala (b) Punjab
(c) haryana (d) Goa
940. Mortality experiences in taken into consideration when defining

(a) General fertility rate (b) Total fertility rate
(c) Net reproduction rate (d) Gross reproduction rate
941 Population count is taken on

(a) 1st January (b) 15t march
51
(c) 1 July (d) 15t august
942. Population growth is said to be explosive when growth rate is

a 1.5 b. 2
c. 2.5 d. none
218

943. First 5 years plan in India started at
(a) 1950 (b) 1951
(c) 1952 (d) 1953
944. Declining death rate and more declining birth rate, the stage is
(a) Late expanding(b) Early expanding
(c) High stationary (d) Declining
945. in India census for literacy rate, the lowest cut off age is - years
a. 1 b. 2.3
c. 5 d. 11
e. None
946. Death rate as reported in India is
(a) 12.5 b. 10.9
(c) 6.5 d. none
947. Under the national population policy, family size should be brought down to
a. 1 b. 2.3
c. 3.2 d. 4.2.
948. Total fertility rate refers to

(a) Number of women between 15-44 years of age
(b) Number of birth / 1000 women.
(c ) Approximate completed family size
(d) Number of female children / women.
949. In demographic study of population, a country with low birth rate and a low
death rate is in following phases:
(a) 1 Phase (b) 2 phase
(c) 3" Phase (d) 4th phase
950. Net reproduction rate by 2000 AD

(a) 1.0 to 1.2 (b) 2.5-2
(c) 2.5 to 3 (d) 3 to 5
951. Demographic gap means

(a) Difference betw een birth and death
(b) Difference between age specific birth and death rates
(c) Difference In sex ratio
(d)) Difference in child; women ratio
952. All are true indicators for health for all by 2000 AD except
(a) Family size ( b) Annual growth rate 12
(c) Life expectancy 64 (d) IMR less than 60
953. Net reproduction rate of 1 implies a couple protection rate of

(a) 50 (b) 60
(c) 70 (d) 80
219

954. The denominator to calculate literacy rate is
(a) Population above 14 years
(b) Entire population
(c) Population above 7 years
(d) All males
955. The Incorrect statement regarding couple protection rate is

(a) 50-60% birth per year are birth order 3 or more
(b) To achieve NRR of 1, CPR should be 60 %
(c) CPR was 37% in 1987
(d) CPR of 60% is equivalent to 3 children per couple
956. In latest Indian census, population density Is___ per square meter
(a) 152 (b) 204
(c) 267 (d) 31
(e) None
957. In what stage of demographic cycle is India Today?

(a) Low stationary (b) High stationary
(c) Early expanding (d) Late expanding
958. Vocational guidance in the physically challenged children comes under the
following approaches of prevention:
a. Primary prevention . b. At-risk approach
c. Tertiary prevention d.Secondary prevention
959. Illicit drug trafficking is entwined with the:

a. Street children b. Asian children
c. African children d. Child labor
960. Boys over 16 years who are too difficult to be handled in a certified school are
sent to the following special school:
a. Remand homes b. Foster homes c.Borstals d. Orphanages
961. The study of physical and psychological changes which are incident to old age
is called as:
a. Geriatrics b. Gerontology
c. Clinical gerontology d. Clinical geriatrics
962. The main reason for mental and social problems in the elderly is:
a. Impaired memoryb. Rigidity of outlook
c. Reduced incomed. Dislike of change
963. Integration of preventive and curative medicine was recommended by:

a. Mudaliar committee b. Bhore comrnttee
c. Chadab committee d. Mukerji committee
964. Most therapeutic application radionuclide emits:

a. Gamma rays b. Beta rays c…Alpha rays d. Gases
220

965. Exposure of radiation occurs through each of the basic pathways except:
a. Inhalation b. Ingestion
c. Injection d. Direct exposure
966. Radiation sickness is otherwise known as:

a. Shortening of life
b. L e u k e m i a
c. Acute radiation syndrome
d. Radiation poisoning
967. Permant method of family planning in male is

(a) Tubectomy (b) Laparoscopy
(c) Vasectomy (d) Appendectomy
968. Currently one third of the world's population is under the age of
(a) 5years (b) 25years
(c) 15years (d) 20years
969. The first census of India was conducted in

(a) 1 872 (c) 1947
(b) 1965 (d) 1951
970. The state with highest population in India is-

(a) Maharashtra (b) Tamilnadu
(c) Karnataka (d) Andrapradesh
971. It is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community

(a) Fertility (b) Net reproductive rate
(c) Couple protection rate (d) Consummer protection
act
972. Population density means number of persons living in square kilometer

(a) Isq/km (b) 3sq/km
(c) 2sq/km (d) 4sq/km
973. Best method of post coital contraception is

(a) IUCD (b) High Estrogen pills
(c) High progestin pills (d) Androgetis
(e)Menstrual regulation
974. B e s t m e t h o d f o r s pa c in g i s
(a) Condom (b) Pessary (c) IUCD (d) Tubectomy
975. Family welfare programmer's goal is to reach couple protection rate of

(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%
976. Male contraceptive pill contains

(a) Bromocryptine (b) Cyporoheptadine
(c) Cyproterone acetate (d) None of the above
221

977. T h e M T P a c t w a s p a s s e d i n
(a) 1949 (b) 1962 (c) 1971 (d) 1974
978. The family planning programme started is
(a) 1947 (b) 1950
(c) 1952 (d) 1960
979. The national planning programme was started in

(a) 1952 (b) 1965
(c) 1955 (d) 1977
980. The crude birth rate is to be brought down to — by 2000 AD

(a) 20 (b) 21
(c) 22 (d) 25
981. Tamil Nadu contributes how much percent to the total population in India?
(a) 5% (b) 6%
(c) 6.59 % (d) 7%
982. Targeted couple protection rate by 2000 AD is

(a) 40% (b) 60%
(c) 80% (d) 100%
983. DMPA is an injectible contraceptive given every

(a) Three weeks (b) Two months
(c) Three months (d) Two years
984. Which one of the following is a rate complication of the use of hormonal
contraceptives
(a) Contraceptive failure (b) Cardiovascular effects
(c) Carcinogenesis (d) Metabolic effects
(e) Liver disorder
985. Multi load device refers to

(a) First generation IUCD (b) Second generation IUC:
(c) Oral contraceptive pills (d) Barrier contraceptives
986. Mini pill contains

a. Only progesterone in small quantity
b. Progesterone and estrogen in small quantity
c. Estrogen is small quantity and progesterone in large quantity
987. IUCD acts by
a. Killing spermatozoa
b . A sept ic inf la mma t ion o f e n do me tr iu m
c. Increasing cervical mucus
d. Preventing the fertilization of ova
988. Multi load device contains

(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(c) Progestrone (d) Silver
222

989. The number of condoms needed for protection in one year is
(a) 50 (b) 72
(c) 100 (d) 175
(e) 45.1
990. The couple protection rate at present in India is-

(a) 38.1 (b) 43.5
(c) 45.1 (d) 55.1
991. WHO South - East region covers all except

(a) Indonesia (b) Burma
(c) Thailand (d) Afghanistan
992. Which of the following are true of `Saheli'

a. It is commenced one of the fifth days of the start of menstrual bleeding
b. One tablet is taken twice a week in the first three months
c. It is a non-hormonal contraceptive
993. The family planning programme started in

(a) 1947 (b) 1950
(c) 1952 (d) 1960
994. The family planning programme started in
(a) Sweden and GDR ( b) USA & USSR
(c) France and Japan (d) No
995. Most appropriate contraceptive during first 6 months of lactating mother (a)
(a) IUCD (b) Oral pills
(c) Injectables pills (d) Rhythm method
995. An average failure rate in the couple using condom is about

(a) 0-5 percent (b) 10-20 percent
(c) • 30-40 percent (d) 50percent or more
996. Calendar method was described by

(a) Bitings (b) Ogino
(c) Wallace (d) Ogive
997. Copper T is ideally inserted at

(a) Just before Menstruation (b) Menstruation
(c) Just after Menstruation (d) On the 14th day
998. The national policy is to bring couple rate to

(a) vasectomy (b) tubectomy
(c) Copper (d) Oral pills
999. The risk of pregnancy in IUCD acceptor is highest in

(a) 1 year (b) 2". year
(c) 3rd year (d) 4th year
223

1000. The proportion of school age children in India's population is
approximately
(a) 15% (b) 25%
(c) 40% (d) 50%
1001. Male to female ratio is

a. Males for 100 populations
b. Females for 100 males
c. Males for 100 females
d. None •
1002. Following vasectomy for family planning, a patient should be advised to use
some other method of contraception, till
a. Removal of all sutures
b. Pain completely resolved
c. two weeks
d. None of above
1003. Sperms immobile in cervical fluid is k ecause of

a. Vaginal of other factor
b. Elevated progesterone levels
c. Abnormal sperms
1004. Best method of contraception in 3 commercial sex worker

(a) IUCD (b) OCP
(c) Permanent sterilization (d) Barrier methods
1005. In census, literacy rate is assessed by

a. A t t e n d e d l i t e ra c y c la s s e s f o r o ne y e a r
b. Ability to write signature
c. Ability to read and write
d. Ability to read newspaper
1006. Copper T 200 need be replaced after -

(a) 1 year (b) 2 year
(c) 3 year (d) 5 yea
1007. Indian MPT act allows abortions only up to

(a) 15 weeks (c) 24 years
(b) 20 weeks (d) 28 weeks
1008. In demography, estimated family size in given by

(a) NRR (b) GFR
(b) TFR (d) GMFR
1009. Most widely practiced method of family planning by eligible couples in India is
(a) IUCD (b) OC Pill
(c) Sterilization (d) None of above
224

1010. The pearl index indicates the number of accidental pregnancies per
a. 1000 population b. 100 life births
c. 100 women in the age group of 15 to 44 years
d. 100 women years
1011. A net reproduction rate (NRR) of one by 2000 AD would help to achieve
stabilization of population in about 50years. For his purpose, the couple
protection rate by 2000 AD should be at least
a. 30% b. 40%
c. 50% d. 60%
1012. The family planning programme was started in India in

a. 1952 b.1965
c. 1955 d. 1975
1013. Consent form guardian for MPT is required if

a. Female is below 28 years of age
b. Female is below 23 years of age
c. Female is below 17 years of age
d. Female is a divorcee
1014. Fertility rate can be reduced by following method

a. Spacing of pregnancies b. early marriages
c. Female literacy d. compulsory sterilization
1015. What is the age group of the eligible couple?

a. 15-5 yrs b. 15-45 yrs
c. 20-60 yrs d. 18-40 yrs
1016. The natural contraceptive method is

a. Mala N b. Mala D
c. Breast feeding d. Withdrawal
1017. What is the permanent termination method in males?

a. Vasectomy b. Copper-T
c. Tubectomy d. Diaphragm
1018. What is the permanent termination method in female?

a. Vasectomy b. Copper-T
c. Tubectomy d. Diaphragm
1019. Coitus interrupts is otherwise known as

a. Tubectomy b. Diaphragm
c. Vasectomy d. Condom
1020. The best time for IUD insertion is

a. After 1 week of menstruation
b. 3-7 days
c. 3 day d. 14th day
225

1021. National family welfare programme launched in the year of ___
a. 1952 b. 1953
c. 1967 d. 1988
1022. In contraceptives the spacing method for men

a. Condom b. lipper loop c. Copper- T
1023. The age of eligible couple’s

c. 25-35 years d. 20-25 years
1024. Oral pills contain small amount of

a. Estrogen & progesterone
b. Oxytocin
c. Norplant
1025. Name of the committee who reviewed family planning

a. Bhore b. Kartar
c. Mukharjee d. Chardah
1026. Oral pills mala-N consists of

a. Norgestrol b. Ethinol oestradlol
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
1027. Give the example for injectable contraceptives

a. DMPA (Depot- Medroxy progesterone acetate)
b. NET-EN (Nrethisterone Enaritate)
c. Both a & b
1028. One of the following is contraindication for IUDs

a. Previous ectopic pregnancy
b. Fever
c. Headache
d. The mother who wants to practice spacing method
1029. Copper T is contra indicated in

a. Pregnancy b. Pelvic infections
c. Heart diseases d. All above
1030. The expectation of life in female is
a. 63.8 b. 64.8
c. 62.8 d. 63
1029. After vasectomy the sperm produced are destroyed by

a. Necrosis b. Inflammation
c. Phagocytosis d. All the above
1031. The family planning programmes was started in india in
a. 1953 b. 1952
c. 1949 d. 1950
226

1032. How much population is coming under PHC?
a. 5000 b. 1000
c. 3000 d. 25500
1033. Who is the team leader in the health care team?

a. Block extension educator
b. Health guide
c. Head nurse
d. Medical office
1034. What is the other name of domiciliary midwifery?

a. Home care b. Home confinement
c. Antenatal care d. Home visit
1035. The backbone of all MCH services is
a. Antenatal care b. Home visiting
c. Dais d. Health worker
1036. _____ is an essential component of health care system?

a. Referral system b. Graiage system
c. Health care system d. None of the above
1037. How much population is coming under one sub center?

a. 5000 b. 10000
c. 2000 d. 2500
1038. The important person in the

a. Midwife b. ANM
c. dai d. Female health worker
1039.______ is intended to deliver health services?

a. Health system b. Health care
c. Health development d. Health team concept
1041. primary health care

a. First level health care
b. Second level health care
c. Tertiary health care
1042. The following are the main features of primary health

a. Acceptability b. Essential health care
c. Universal accessibility d. Physician mediated
1043. The population of municipality is

a. 10,000 to 2 lalhs b. 5 to 7000
c. 10 lakhs d. 5 lakhs
1044. In charge of community development block is

a. BDO b. H.M
c. G.M d. PD
227

1045. Elements of primary health care
a. Promotion of food supply & proper nutrition
b. Adequate supply of safe water & sanitation
c. Maternal & child health care
d. All the above
1046. The purposes of home visiting are

a. Prevention of diseases
b. Promotion of health of family members
c. To carry out simple nursing procedures in the home
d. all of the above
1047. In community health nursing focus in on

a. Sick people b. vulnerable groups
c. Whole community with entire people
d. Mothers and children
1048. Objective of community health nursing is

a. Maintenance of health
b. Monitoring of health
c. Restoration of health
d. All of the above
1049. Elements of primary health care include all of the following except
a. providing essential drugs
b. Adequate supply of safe Water & basic sanitation
c. sound referral system
d. Health education
1050. Community health centre

a. Has 100 beds
b. Covers a population of approx.one lakh
c. Has X-Rays and laboratory facilities
d. Acts as a referral hospital for the community development block
Medical Surgical Nursing
1. Normal CSF pressure is

a. 110-180mm, b. 180-300mm, c.200-400, d. 5-10mm.
2. Commonest spinal tumor is

a. Meningioma b. ependymoma
c. Neurofibroma. d. Neuronlastomas
228

3. Commonest site of brain abscess
a. temporal b. frontal
c. parietal d. Occipital
4. Glasgow coma scale has all, except

a. verbal response, b. motor response
c. sensory response, d. eye opening
5. Brain space occupying lesions causes death by

a. acute hypertension, b. brain herniation,
c. Cushing syndrome, d. hypotension
6. Parkinson’s disease is caused by

a. degeneration of substantia nigra depleting dopamine production
b. ischemic in the brain stem producing motor disorder
c. a post- viral illness causing ascending pareshthsis
d. an autoimmune disorders that destroy acetylcholine receptors
7. Bell’s palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve

a. craninal nerve IV b. cranial nerve VII
c. cranial nerve IX d. craninal nerve XII
8. What is the first thing a nurse should assess to determine the presence of
neurological changes?
a. vital signs b. mental status, c. reflexes, d. level of consciousness
9. The most common early manifestation of myasthenia gravis is:

a. parathesis of lower extremities, b. absent papillary reflex,
c. Poises, d. dysphagia
10. Which is the following term describes discrete, jerky, purposeless movements in
distal extremities and face: (a)
a. chorea, b. myoclonus, c. Tic, d. tremors
11. Which are the following types of seizures is most common

a. tonic – clonic b. partial seizures,
c. atonic, d. absence
12. Which of the following is not a classic manifestation of brain tumor

a. head ache b. vertigo c. nausea, d. vomiting
13. Objective measurement of patient’s level of consciousness is best determind by

using: (a)
a. Glasgow coma scale b. Consciousness scale
c. Communication scale d. Stimuli scale
14. The early signs of Parkinson’s disease are

a. Masked faced,
b. Pill rolling movements of the hands,
c. Difficulty in initiating movements
d. Shiffling gaits
229

15. the most common risk factor for Alzheimer’s die\sease is
a. increasing age, b. head injury
c. myocardial infarction d. environment
16. The following types of seizures are all examples of generalized seizures except:
(b)
a. myoclonic, b. myoclonic – tonic
c. clonic d. tonic
17. The three cardinal features the nurse would expect to find in a patient with
Parkinson’s disease are: ©
a. amnesia, echolalia, apraxia
b. paresthesis, drowsiness, incontinence
c. Tremor, tigidity, bradykinesia
d. Diplopia, dysphagia, dysarthria
18. The nurse is assessing vital sings of a patient with head injury, which of the
following indicates increased intracranial lpressure
a. tachycardia, b. bradycardia,
c. widened pulse pressure, d. decreased body temperature
19.Convulsions are associated with

a. meningitis, b. CRF
c. CCF, d. Babinskin response
20. Intra- cranial pressure of children (normal)

a. below 24 mmhg, b. 48 mmhg,
c. 10-20 mmhg, d. 24 mmhg,
21. Reyes syndrome is manifested by

a. paralyses of one leg,
b. acute encephalopathy falty degeneration of brain
c. convulsion
d. abnormal sensory motor function
22. Dopamine is a:
a. neuro – regulator b. neuro –transmitter
c. muscle relaxant d. None of the above
23. Normal amount of CSF in human body

a. 1500-2000ml b. 140-150 ml
c. 500-700 d. 80-100
24. Primary intra-cranial neoplasm are due to tumors of
a. Pituitary of pineal body b. cranial
c. skull, d. all of the above
25. Priority management for cerebrovascular disease

a. Maintain airway b. administering medication
c. benign health education d. observe for seizures
230

26. A drug which inhibits neurotransmission
a. dopamine b. M-set
c. atropine d. All the above
27. Which one of the following should the client with multiple sclerosis is warned to
avoid
a. Hot weather b. Wet weather
c. Dry environment d. Cold temperature
28. When a nurse makes a home visit to evaluate a 79 yrs. Old client, which symptom
suggested that the client is having transient ischemic attack (TIAs)
a. The client reports having brief periods ofunilateral weakness
b. The clinet reports having brief periods of mental depression
c. The clinet reports having brief periods of photosensitivity
d. The clinet reports having brief periods of stabbing head pain
29. A client whith symptoms that suggest a brain tumor is schedule for positrom
emission tomography when the nurse provides test preparation instruction which
substance is it important for the client to avoid the day before the test?
a. Antibiotics b. Diuretics
c. Caffeine d. Food dyes
30. If the nurse notes all of the following when assessing the client with the head
injury, which one is most likely contributing to the change in his condition? ©
a. The client has been disturbed every hour
b. The client had very little fluid intake
c. The client neck is flexed toward his chest
d. The client bladder is becoming quit full
31. Which one of the following is the most appropriate addition o the care plan for the
client with Bell’s palsy?
a. Inspect the buccal pouch for food after eating
b. Reduce the amount of light within the room
c. Advise the client to drink liquids from a cup
d. Discourage the client from looking in a mirror
32. Which of the following is most appropriate for the nurse to assess while the client
with head injury is receiving mannitol
a. Respiratoty rate b. Urinary output
c. Level of pain d. Skin condition
33. Commonest spinal tumor is ©

a. Merdngioma b. Ependymoma
c. Neurofibroma d. Neuroblastomas
34. The part of the brain, which is responsible for the coordination of movement, is:
(b)
a. Brain stem b. Cerebellum
c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus
231

35. Which of the following medications may be prescribed to a patient with
Parkinson’s disease to give him relief from distressing symptoms? (b)
a. Levamisole b. Levodopa
c. Levothyroxine d. Levofloxacin
36. A patient who demonstrate a stuporous level of consciousness

a. Is oriented but sleeps often has slowed speech
b. Sleeps almost constantly. Can be aroused, follows simple command
c. Awakens only with vigorous stimulation
d. Does not respond to environment stimuli Axids
37. Shock is best defined as

a. Cardiovascular collapse
b. Loss of symptomatic tone
c. inadequate tissue perfusion
d. blood pressure less than 90 mmhg.
38. The correct position to palpate the apical pulse is at the

a. Left midclavicular line at the level of second intercostals space
b. Left midclavicular line at the level of the fifth intercostals space
c. Left axillary line at the level of fifth intercostals space
d. Left midclavicular line at the level of seventh inercostals space
39. Which is the following is indicated in a patient with cardiogenic shock to prevent
temporary circulatory assistance
a. temporary pace maker, b. ventricular assist device
c. intra – aortic ballon pump d. defibrillator
40. Conduction disturbances arising out of ischemia developed in atrioventricular

node and Purkinge fibers are the result of occlusion in which of the branch of
coronary artery
a. Left main coronary artery
b. Left anterior descending artery
c. Right coronary artery
d. Circumflex artery
41. A patient with the bicuspid valve disorder will have impaired blood flow between
the
a. Vena cava and right atrium
b. Right atrium and right ventricle
c. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery
d. Left atrium and left ventricle
42. The artery supplying the anterior wall of the heart is

a. Right coronary artery
b. Circumflex artery
c. Left anterior descending artery
d. Left internal mammary artery
232

43.Blood flow through the coronary arteries primarily occurs during
a. Inspriation b. Expiration
c. Systole d. Diastole
44. Which of the following areas of the heart will be affected by occlusion of right
coronary artery? (d)
a. Anterior wall, b. Posterior wall
c. Lateral wall d. Inferior portion
45. The most common complication after acute myocardial infraction is

a. Cardiac temponade, b. Cardiac failure
c. Pulmonary embolism, d. Dysrhythmias
46. A patient with myocardial infarction (MI) is admitted to the CCU. The physician
prescribes IV morphine and streptokinase. This thrombolytic agent streptokinase
must be administered how soon after onset of MI symptoms
a. Within 63-6 hours, b. With in 12-24 hours,
c. Within 24-48 hours d. Within 3-6 days
47. The most common cause of myocardial infarction is

a. Aneurysm of coronary artery
b. Thrombus formation in a coronary artery
c. Occlusion of coronary artery by an embolus
d. Vasospasm of coronary artery
48. A patient with myocardial infarction is receiving myovin (IV GTN). Which of the
following the nurse should assess frequently?(a)
a. Blood pressure, b. Blood glucose
c. Breath sounds d. Urine output
49. In myocardial infarction the area of the heart most frequently affected is: ©
a. Conduction sytem b. Atrioventncular septum
c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle
50. The pain medication of choice in acute myocardial infarction is

a. Pethidine hydrochloride b. Diclophenac sodium
c. Codeine sulfate d. Morphine sulfate
51.A patient admitted with myocardial infarction is being evaluated for thrombolytic
therapy. Which statement made by the patient would indicate a possible
contraindication to thrombolytic therapy
a. “ I have been having chest pain for 2 hours”
b. “ I feel really nauseated right now”
c. “ I have been taking insulin for the last 5 Years”
d. “ I am still taking medicine for my stomach ulcer”
233

52. A patient 5 days after myocardial infarction (MI) is restless and apprehensive. The
nurse can help by
a. Providing all care by doing everything for the patient
b. Modifying the environment so that the patient can rest
c. Encouraging the family to provide for the patient’s physical care and emotional
support
d. Obstructive disease caused by distraction of alveolar walls
53. Asthma is characterized by

a. an inflammatory disease
b. irreversible bronchospasm resulting from inflammation of airways walls
c. Obstruction of airway by mucous plugs.
d. Obstructive disease caused by distraction of alveolar walls.
54. Emergency management of a patient in status asthmaticus includes which of the

following medications? (a)
a. Inhalaled beta, agonists b. Inhaled corticosteroids
c, IV beta, agonists d. oral corticosteroids
55. Chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD) is a disease state characterized by air
flow obstruction caused by
a. Increased airway resistance secondary to bronchial mucosal edema.
b. Increased airway resistance due to smooth muscle contraction
c. Decreased elastic recoil
d. All of the above
56. How ofter should a tracheostomy tube be changed

a. 1-2 weeks b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks d. 3-4 days
57. When the patient is on mechanical ventilation which of the following equipment
should be kept ready at bedside
a. water seal chest drainage, b. manual resuscitation bag
c. oxygen analyzer, d. tracheostomy cleaning kit
58. Which of the following nursing actions in most essential for a patient with an
endotracheal (ET) tube
a. monitoring proper placement of the tube every 2 hours,
b. suctioning endotraheal tube every 1 hour
c. monitoring arterial blood gas every 4 hours,
d. provide frequent oral care
59. The nurse is assessing a dark-skinned patient cyanosis, Inspection of which of the
following areas is more reliable
a. Lips b. mucous membrane c. nail beds d. ear lobes
60. The nurse hyperventilates and hyperoxygentes a patient before endotracheal

suctioning. Which of the following complications is prevented by this intervention
a. atelectais b. treacheal mucosal damage
c. pneumothorax d. cardiac arrhythmias
234

61. Which of the following types of chronic pharyngitis is also known asclergyman’s
sore throat
a. hypertrophic b. atrophic
c. chronic granular, d. none of the above
62. Which of the following types of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due
to pharyngeal occlusion?
a. simple b. obstructive
c. central d. mixed
63. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the definitive means of diagnosis of
pulmonary embolism?
a. Chest X-ray b. CT –scan
c. Ventilation- perfusion scan d. Pulmonary angiography
64. The nurse understands that the patient diagnosed with pulmonary embolism will
be treated by
a. Streptokinase b. tissue plasminogen activator
c. IV heparin sodium d. Sodium warfarin
65. Patient has following arterial blood gas values: pH – 7.48 PaCo2 mmhg, HCO3 – 34
meqll. Which of the following is the correct interpretation
a. respiratory acidosis, b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis
66. The normal pH value ranges from

a. 7.20-7.34 b. 7.35-7.45
c. 7.46-7.55 d. 7.56-7.65
67. Patients at high-rist for respiratory failure those with which of the following
diagnosis
a. pulmonary edema b. pulmonary tuberculosis
c. thoracic spinal cord injury d. hyperthyroidism
68. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a tension pneumathorax

a. Hemoptyis b. sucking sounds made on
inspiration
c. collapsed neck veins d. deviation of the trachea]
69. Which of the following treatment would the nurse expect for a patient with
spontaneous embolism? ©
a. antibiotic b. thoracentesis
c. insertion of chest tube d. mechanical ventilation
70. Which of the following method is employed for removal of pleural fluid in pleural
effusion
a. insertion of a chest tube in the pleural space
b. perform paracentesis
c. perform thoracentesis
d. diuretic therapy
235

71. Which is the following is one of the earliest manifestations of lung cancer
a. Hemoptysis b. persistent penumonitis
c. Weight loss d. Hoarseness
72. Which of the following is the most important risk factor for lung cancer
a. Cigarette smoking
b. Working in asbestos indudustry
c. Genetic predisposition
d. exposure to low level radiation.
73. Which of the following conditions causes portal cirrhosis

a. alcohol abuse b. autoimmune hepatitis,
c. chronic biliary obstruction and infection d. Chronic severe right sided heart
failure
74. While caring for a patient with advanced cirrhosis the nurse finds the patient
disoriented. What the nurse should do first
a. document her observation in nurse’s record
b. inform the physician
c. provide a railed cot to the patient
d. perform mental status examination
75. Definitive diagnosis of cirrhosis is made from

a. history of long term alcohol abuse, b. liver function test
c. liver ultrasound d. liver biopsy
76. a Patient with advanced cirrhosis has developed esophageal varices. Which of the
following nursing interventions is appropriated
a. observing for hemorrhage,
b. teaching deep breathing exercise,
c. encouraging adequate nutritional intake according to his choice
d. teaching patient about varices
77. Which of the following assessment finding in a patient with advanced cirrhosis
would indicate that the patient is at risk of developing hepatic coma ( encephalopathy)
a. asterixis b. hyperactivity
c. hyperthermia, d. elevated blood urea level
78. Which of the following person is at risk of developing cholelithiasis

a. a 30 years old young man with family history of cholelithiasis
b. a 20 years old college girl who found of fatty foods
c. a 30 years old yound women complaining of infertility
d. a 50 years old woment on estrogen replacement therapy
79. A patient after laparoscopic cholecystectomy is complaining of gas pain. Which of

the following instructions by the nurse would relieve the patient pain and discomfort
a. to lie down on abdomen
b. to increases fluid intake
c. to ambulate and move around
c. to take deep breaths
236

80. A nurse is teaching a patient with hepatitis B before discharge regading
prevention of infection to family members. Which of the following instruction is
appropriate?
a. keep separate personal items like tooth brushes, safety razor and utensils
b. have a family member vaccinated with hepatitis B vaccine (HBV)
c. have the family member get an injection of HBIG (hepatitis B imuunigloubulin)
d. both B and C
81. The mode of transmission of hepatitis A virus is by

a. sexual contact
b. use of contaminated needles and syringes
c. perinatal transmission
d. contaminated food and water
82. The nurse is assessing a 40 years old male patient with cirrhosis of liver. During
assessment he is expected to find all of the clinical findings except
a. gynecomastia b. loss of auxiliary and pubic hair,
c. enlargement of testis d. loss of libido
83. The most common cause of acute appendicitis is (a)

a. a fecalith, b. kinking of appendix
c. tumor in the cecum d. external occlusion of the bowel by
adhesions
84. All the following factors may influence obesity except

a. genetics b socioeconomics
c. gender, d. sedentary life style
85. Which of the following is the recommended enteral access placement for a patient
with high-risk of aspiration during enteral feeding
a. esophageal b. gastric
c. post-pyloric d. any of the above
86. which of the following methods of administrations is used in gastric feeding

a. bolus b. continuous c. intermittent, d. all of the above
87. Which of the clinical manifestations is a characteristic feature of bulimia nervosa

a. episodes of binge and purging( vomiting)
b. loss of body weight,
c. common among middle aged women
d. sensitivity to cold
88. Which of the following conditions is less likely to cause stomatitis

a. nutritional disorders b. chemotherapy
c. heart failure d. allergies
89. Which of the following surgical procedures is done for the treatment of
gastroesophageal reflux disease that is unrelieved by conservative management
a. esophagomyotomy b. fundoplication
c. pneumatic dilation of lower end of esophagus
237

90. The most common symptoms of a sliding hiatal hernia are
a. feeling of fullness b. difficulty in breathing
c. gastroesophageal reflux d. all of the above
91. A nurse is assessing a patient with duodenal ulcer Which of the following findings
she is not expected to find
a. pain 2-3 hours after eating b. meleana
c. weight loss d. epigastric tenderness
92. Which of the following intestinal disorders is responsible for fistula formation as
complication? ©
a. choronic gastroenteritis b. ulcerative colitis,
c. crohn’s disease d. appendicitis
93. The following are the functions of the kidney except

a. formation of erythropoietin b. formation urea
c. maintaining water balance d. maintainiacid balance
94. common indication of urethritis is

a. pus in urine b. ABCs in urine
c. casts in urine d. all of the above
95. The nurse understands that urine flows through a Foley’s catheter by the principle
of
a. higher pressure to lower pressure b. gravity
c. suction d siphoning
96. The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with acute pyelonephritis, which of the
following symptoms she is expected to find(d)
a. urinary retention
b. feeling of coldness and hypothermia
c. high blood pressure
d. flank pain on the affected side
97. 90% of urinary stones are made up of

a. calcium b. phosphate
c. oxalate, d. uric acid
98. The technique of removal of a soft bladder stone by crushing with an instrument,
lithotrite, (stone crusher) is called
a. ureteroscopy b. cystoscopic lithotripsy
c. cystolitholapaxy d. ureterorenoscopy
99. Which of the following palliative procedure is usually performed when the ureters
are obstructed by a tumor?
a. transuretheral resection
b. cutaneous ureterostomy
c. pyelostomy
d. percutaneous nephrostomy
238

100. the most common cause of urinary retention in women is
a. uretheral stricture b. spinal cord injury
c. cystocele d. detrusor failure
101. Involuntary urine loss associated with overdistenstion of bladder is

a. urge incontinence b. stress incontinence
c. reflex incontinence d. overflow incontinence
102. Which of the following conditions is a common cause of prerenal acute renal
failure?
a. glycosuria b. myoglobinuria c. Enlargement prostate d. Atherosclerosis
103. Most important nursing interventions for a patient with acute renal failure in the
diuretic phase involves
a. providing high caloric diet,
b. restricting fluid and salt intake
c. encouraging socialization
d. encouraging deep breathing
104. A patient in acute renal failure has been prescribed 50% glucose solution with 10
units of regular insulin and sodium bicarbonate. The nurse understands that this
therapy is intended to treat
a. hypokalemia b. hyperkalemia
c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia
105. In chronic renal failure there is progressive destruction of

a. glomerulus b. bowman’s capsule c. tubular system d. nephron
106. A patient with renal stone has undergone lithotripsy. The nurse strains all
outflow drainaged and sends the stone fragment to laboratory for
a. culture and sensitivity b. cytological test,
c. analysis of stones composition
d. all of the above
107. a patient with renal failure is being treted with continuous ambulatory peritoneal
dialysis. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most appropriate
a. risk for infection b. self care deficit c. acute pain d. hyperglycemia
108. A patient with acute renal failure is admitted in hospital. During the oliguric
phase the nurse should monitor the patient for
a. kussmaual respiration and hypotension
b. crackles and ECG changes
c. Urine for high creatinine and low sodium concentration
d. hypernatremia and fatigue
109. Dietary restrictions for a patient with chronic renal failure involves
a. low protein, carbohydrate, fluid sodium and potassium intake,
b. high carbohydrate, low protein , fluid sodium and potassium intake
c. high protein and carbohydrate low fluid, sodium and potassium intake,
d. high carbohydrate and fluid, low protein, sodium and potassium intake
239

110. Which of the following drugs should be withheld before hemodialysis
a. insulin b. calcium preparation
c. dioxin d. antihypertensive
111. Which of the following drugs is preferably administered to reduce the serum
phosphorus level of a patient with chronic renal failure
a. sodium bicarbonate, b. sorbitol
c. Calcium carbonate d. Aluminium hydroxide
112. The most accurate laboratory test for renal function is: (d)
a. blood urea nitrogen b. urinalysis
c. creatinine clearance d. serum creatinine
113. Which of the following blood components is deficient in anemia

a. erythrocytes b. hemoglobulin,
c. hematocrit d. all of the above
114. what is the life span of normal platelets

a. 1-3 days b. 3-6 days c. 8-10 days
115. The goal of leukemia is complete remission with restoration of normal bone
marrow function . This is achieved by
a. bone marrow transplantation
b. radiation
c, chemotherapy
d. stem cell transplantation
116. Which of the following sings and symptoms are expected in a patient with iron
deficiency anemia?
a. Itching, jaundice and fatigue
b. Fever, petechiae, and fatigue
c. Nausea, vomiting and anorexia
d. Pallor, tachycardia and dyspnoea
117. The nurse is assessing a patient with pernicious anemia. What sign and
symptoms she is expected to find?
a. Pallor, sore, smooth and red tongue paresthesias of the hands and feet
b. Pallor, bradycardia and decreased pulse pressure
c. Sore tongue, dyspnoea and weight gain
d. Jaundice, anorexia and double vision
118. Which of the following iron rich foods should the nurse encourage a patient with
iron deficiency anemia requiring iron therapy to eat?
a. Milk and spinach b. Liver and dry beans
c. Chicken and banana d. Milk and apple
119. Which of the following type of anemia as caused by failure to absorb vitamin B ?
a. Sickel cell b. Microcytic hypochromic
c. Normocytic normochromic d. Macrocytic normochromic
240

120. The most frequent complication arising from hyper viscosity of polycythemia
Vera is:
a. thrombosis b. cardiomyopathy
c. 8-10 weeks d. pulmonary fibrosis
d. leukemia
122. A patient with anemia is admitted in hospital. The laboratory results reveal
Hemoglobin of 5.8 gm/dl. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with:
a. Parenterall iron replacement therapy
b. Albumin intravenously
c. Packed red blood cells transfusion
d. Oral iron replacement therapy
123. What is the only known cure for sickle cell anemia?
a. Bone marrow transplantation
b. Splenectomy
c. Exchange blood transfusion
d. Administration of hydroxyurea
124. A patient with severe anemia related to chronic kidney disease is admitted in the
hospital. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate
a. Monitoring fluid intake and urine output
b. Instructing patient a high-iron diet
c. Monitoring urine for hematuria
d. administering epoietin as prescribed
125. During assessment of a patient with microcytic hypochromic anemia the nurse
would question the patient about
a. Dietary intake of iron
b. A history of gastric surgery
c. A history of acute blood loss
d. A history of sickle cell anemia
126. A patient receiving chemotherapy for cancer develops marked granulocytopenia.

Appropriated nursing intervention for the patient would be
a. Meticulous hand washing and frequent temperature assessment
b. Inserting an indwelling catheter and monitorin g hourly urine output
c. Monitoring lung sounds and administering packed cells as ordered
d. Relieving anxiety and encouraging visits from family members and friends
127. The risk factors associated with leukemia include all of the following except:
a. Genitics b. Exposure to ionizing radiation and chemicals
c. Dietray factors d. Congenital abnormalities
128. Which of the following types of leukemia is most common among the older
adults in the United States and Europe but rarely seen in Asia
a. Acute myelogenous leukemia
b. acute lymphocytic leukemia
c. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d. Hairy cell leukemia
241

129. The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected diagnosis of disseminated
intravascular coagulation from metastatic cancer. To which nursing diagnosis should
the nurse give highest priority?
a. Acute pain related to bleeding in to tissue and disease process
b. Ineffective tissue perfusion ( cerebral, cardiopulmonary, renal, gastrointestinal an
peripheral) related to bleeding and sluggish blood flow secondary to thrombosis
c. Anxiety related to fear to unknown , disease process, diagnostic procedures and
therapy
d. Activity intolerance related to weakness and malaise secondary to tissue hypoxia
130. All of the following conditions can cause anemia except?

a. Gastritis, b b. cobalamine deficiency
c. G6PD deficiency d. Herpes simplex infection
131. A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy has developed neutropenia. Which of

the following assessment the nurse should regularly perform?
a. Respiratory rate and breath sounds
b. Pulse rate and heart sounds
c. abdominal pain and bowel sounds
d. Urine output and blood pressure
132. Multiple drugs are primarily used in combination to treat leukemia andn
lymphoma because:
a. There is decrease drug resistance
b. Use of multiple drugs with varying toxicities minimize drug toxicity to the patient
c. They can interrupt cell growth at multiple points in the cell cycle
d. All of the above reasons are correct
133. The Eustachian tube is

a. Open into the roof of the orapharynx
b. Open into the floor of the oropharynx
c. Open into the roof of the nasopharynx
d. Open into the vocal folds
134. Myringoplasty is
a. Reconstruction of eardrum only
b. Reconstruction of drum and ossicles
c. Reconstruction of ossicles alone
d. Reconstruction of middle ear ossicle with amstoidectomy
135. Recommended surgical procedure for Osteosclerosis is

a. Mastoidectomy b. Stapedectomy
c. Myringotomy d. None of the above
136. Infection of middle is called as

a. Sinusitis b. Mastoiditis c. Otitis Media d. Labyrinthitis
137. Bony labyrinth consists of

a. Cochlea b. Vestibule c. Semicircular canals d. All of above
242

138. Techniques appropriate for the removal of ear foreign bodies include
a. Mechanical extraction b. Irrigation
c. Suction d. All of above
139. Surgical procedure used for Meniere’s disease is

a. Endolymphatic sac decompression b. Mastoiditis
c. Myringoplasty d. None of the above
140. The epistaxis is defined as

a. Perforation of nasal septum
b. Dispalcement of nasal septum
c. Bleeding from nose
141. The cavity of the pharynx is divided into

a. Nasopharynx b. Oropharynx
c. Laryngopharynx d. All of the above
142. The lower part of the pharynx situated behind the larynx and partly surrounds the
larynx is:
a. Laryngo pharynx b. Oro pharynx
c. Naso pharynx d. None of the above
143. Inflammation of nasal mucosa is known as:

a. Rhinitis b. Sinusitis
c. Laryngitis d, None of the above
144. An operation performed on the maxillary sinus to create a permanent window to

facilitate drainage of discharge is
a. Antrum puncture
b. Intranasal Antrostomy
c, Caidwell- Luc Radical Antrostomy
d. Balloon Sinuplasty
145. Tracheostomy is usually performed between the tracheal rings of cartilage: (b)
a. Second and third b. Third and fourth
c. Fourth and fifth d. All of the above
146.Surgery to remove part of the larynx is called as
a. Partial laryngectomy b. Total laryngectomy
c. Hemilaryngectomy d. Supragloffic larynegectomy
147. Localized accumulation of pus in the peritonsillar tissue is
a. Suppurative tonsillitis b. Laryngitis
c. Quinsy d. Epistaxis
148. The most common symptom of laryngitis is:

a. Hoarseness b. Sore throat c. Cold or flu-like symptoms d. Dry cough
149. Ulcerative Pharyngitis is most commonly caused by

a. Group A streptococcus b. Beta- hemolytic streptococci
c. Coxsackievirus A d. All of the above
243

150. Intermediated complications of tracheostomy are:
a. Tracheal erosion
b. tube displacement or obstruction
c. Aspiration & lung abscess
d. All of the above
151. The names of some inflammatory mediators involved in common colds include
a. histamine b. interleukins
c, Prostaglandins d. All of the above
152. For mild allergic rhinitis, a can be helpful for removing mucus from the nose
a. Allergen Avoidance b. Nasal wash
c. Immunotherapy d. None of the above
153. A drug commonly used to dialate the pupil of the eye is called
a. Miotic b. Mydriatic
c. Cycloplegic d. None of the above
154. Cause of premature presbypia are

a. Hypermetropia b. Primary open-angle glaucoma
c. Excessive close work d. All of them
155. SAFE strategy developed by the WHO for the treatment of

a. conjunctivitis b. Trachoma
c. Ptosis d. Glaucoma
156. Inflammation of the cornea is called as

a. Iridocycitis b. Iritis
c, Keratitis d. Masstoiditis
157. Sty is an inflammation of the

a. Gland of zeis b. Meibomian gland
c. Lacrimal d. None of the above
158. One of the following is not a symptom of corneal ulcer

a. Watering b. Pain in the eye
c. Mucopurulent discharge d. Redness of the eye
159. Abnormal sensitivity to light is known as

a. Hydrophobia b. Diplopia c. Photophobia d. Aphasia
160. The action of the mydriatic eye drops is

a. To decrease the capacity of the lens
b. To reduce the intra-ocular pressure
c. To improve drainage through Schlemm’s canal
d. To dilate the pupil
161. Intraocular pressure is measured with an instrument called

a. Oculomotor b. Perimeter
c. Tonometer d. manometer
244

162. Myopia is a condition in which a person
a. Can see ner objects clearly
b. Can see distant objects clearly
c. Has double vision
d. None of them
163. Removal of whole breast is known as

a. Mastectomy
b. Breast-sparing surgery
c. Breast reconstructive surgery
164. The test most often used in detecting cervical cancer is
a. Schiller’s test b. Pap smear
c. Hurler’s test d. None of the above
165. Permanent cessation of menstruation resulting from the loss of ovarian follicular
activity is known as: (b)
a. Menstruation b. Menopause
c, Ovulation d. None of the above
166. A procedure performed using a long telescope – like instrument inserted through
the cervix to diagnose uterine problems is known as:
a. Laparoscopy b. Hysteroscopy
c. Colposcopy d. None of the above
167. A menstrual condition characterized by severe and frequent menstrual cramps

and pain associatd with menstruation is termed as
a. Dysmenorrhea b. Amenorrhoea
c. Hypermenorrhea d. Polymenorrhea
168. Surgical removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries is called as

a. Salpingo-oophorectomy b. Omentectomy
c, Total hysterectomy d. None of the above
169. A vaginal fistula that opens into the rectum is called

a. Vesicovaginal fistula b. Colovaginal fistula
c. Rectovaginal fistula d. Enterovaginal fistula
170. India launched the Nation Family Welfare Programme in the year
a. 1952 b. 1971. C. 1951. D. 1961
171. Which of the following is correct regarding endometriosis?

a. It refers to the presence of endometrial glands outside the uterus
b. The implantation and metaplasia theories probably account for most cases
c. Symptoms are related to the amont of endometriosis
d. Diagnosis requires biopsy of an area of endometriosis
172. A 15 years old girl is brought to the hospital clinic with complain of primary
amenorrhea. The nurse attending the girl should assess
a. Height and weight b. Breast tenderness
c. Nausea d. Secondary sex characheristics
245

173. Which of the following is a cause of menorrhagia
a. Anovulatory menstrual cycles
b. Uterine fibroids
c. Hypothyroidism
d. All of the above
174. Which of the following methods of contraception provides protection against

sexually transmitted diseases
a. Oral contraceptives b. IUD
c. Condom d. Norplant implant
175. Pelvic inflammatory disease may result from all of the following except
a. Sexual intercourse b. Recent abdominal surgery
c. Child birth d. Termination of pregnancy
176. A women admitted in hospital with the diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease.
During assessment the nurse is most likely to find a history of:
a. Recent blood transfusion
b. Multiparity
c. Multiple sex partners
d. Pulmonary tuberculosis
177. The term endometriosis refers to

a. Inflammation of the endometrium
b, Hypertrophy of the endometrium
c, Endometrial tissue is located outside the uterus
d. Metaplasia of endometrial tissue with in uterine cavity
178. Breast self examination involves both

a. Inspection of breasts and palpation of breast tissue
b. Palpation of breast tissue and cervical lymph nodes
c. Palpation of breast tissue and squeezing nipple for discharge
d. Palpation of breast tissue and axillary lymph nodes
179. Which of the following women is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer
a. Woman above age 60 years
b. Menopause after age 55
c. Woman using oral contraceptive
d. All of the above
180. The cause of primary dysmenorrheal is most commonly due to

a. Elevated levels of estrogen
b. Elevated levels of uterine prostaglandins
c. Endometriosis
d. Uterine niyonla
181. Which of the following women is at greatest risk of developing cervical cancer
a. Women with history of recurrent candidiasis
b. Woman with a pregnancy before age 20 years
c. Woman infected with human papilloma virus
d. Pulmonary tuberculosis
246

182. Best position for self palpation of breast in women is
a. Sitting b. Standing
c. Leaning forward d. Lying down
183. Which types of burn is painless?

a. First degree b. Second degree
c. Third degree d. None
184. Which type of burn has blister

a. Second degree b. First degree
c. A and B d. None
185. Which formula do we use to calculate the percentage a burn

a. Clark formula b. Parkland formula
c. Rule of nine d. All of the above
186. The graft of the patient taken from his own body is called
a. Autograft b. Allograft
c. Hetrograft d. Both A and B
187. The main complication of burn is

a. Weight loss b. Contracture
c. Scar d. All of the above
188. The component of burn wound care is ?

a. Fluid replacement therapy
b. Skin grafting
c. Resuscitation
d. Wound debridgement
189. Rule of nine to estimated surf ace areas of a brunt patient was introduced by
a. Mortiz Kaposi b. Alezander Wallace
c, Joseph Lister d. Thomas Barclay
190. Rhytidectomy operation involves

a. Correction of nasal defects
b. Removal of wrinkles in forehead
c. Straightening of curved penis
d. Correction of pouting lips
191. In an adult, a full thickness burn that involves 2% to 10% of the body surface is
classified as
a. Minor burn b. Moderated Burn
c. Critical burn d. Circumferential burn
192. A burn characterized by intense pain, reddening, and blisters is called a

a. Superficial burn b. Partial thickness burn
c. Full thickness burn d. Critical burn
247

193. Metastasis is defined as:
a. Bizarre cell growth resulting in cells that differ in size, shape or arrangement
b. The ability of the neoplastic cells to spread
c. Increases in the number of cells of a tissue
d. Conversion of one type of mature cell into another type of cell
194. Common characteristics of malignant cells are

a. Continuous cell Division
b. Metastasis
c. Are Joined Loosely together
d. All of the above
195. The surgical resection to reduce tumor burden is called

a. Debulking surgery b. Prophylactic surgery
c. Palliative surgery d. None of the above
196. In which surgery part of stomach is removed and remaining portion is

anastomosed to duodenum
a. Gastrojejunostomy b. Gastroduodenostomy
c, Gastrectomy d. Endoscopic mucosal resection
197. Most common cause of superior vena caval obstruction is

a. Teratoma b. Lymphoma
c. Squamous cell Ca of Lung d. Adenocarcinoma lung
199. The test most often used in detecting cervical cancer is

a. Schiller’s test b. Pap smear
c. Hurler’s test d. None of the above
200. Regular screening of colorectal cancer includes

a. Digital rectal examination b. Fecal occult blood test
c. Flexible sigmoidoscopy d. All of the above
201. Most common side effect of chemotherapeutic drugs is:

a. Bone marrow depression c. Cardiomyopathy
b, Nausea and vomiting d. Nephrotoxicity
202. AFP is raised in:

a. Prostate cancer b. Lung cancer
c. Colon cancer d. Breast cancer
248

203. Sudden, unexpected and uncommon crisis is known as
a. Maturational crisis b, Situtional crisis
c, Adventitious crisis d. All of the above
204. Shock which is resulting from severe allergic reaction is

a. Distributive shock b. Septic shock
c. Anaphylactic shock d. All of the above
205. Shock is caused by (d)

a. Dehydration b. Spinal injuries
c. Burns d. All of the above
206. Examples of methylxanthine medications are

a. Theophylline and aminophylline
b. Salmeterol and formeterol
c. Albuterol and levalbuterol
d. Prednisone and methyiprednisolone
207. Heatstroke is defined as increase in body temperature that exceeds

a. 40ºC or 103ºF b. 39ºC or 102ºF
c. 41ºC or 104ºF d. None of the above
208. Drug of choice in pain due to acute myocardial infarction is :

a. Inj. Morphine Sulphate b. Inj. Anafortan
c, Inj. Diclofenac sodium d. All of the above
209. Obstetrical Emergencies of Pregnancy include except

a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Placenta Accreta
c, Placenta previa d. Eclampcia
210. Drug Clonazepam is used for

a. Absensce seizures b. Atonic seizures
c. Myoclonic seizures d. All of the above
211. Posturing in which the client remain for a long duration is called
a. Negativism b. Verbigeration c. Waxy flexibility d. Immobility
212. The Psychosocial theories include the following except:

a. Disengagement theory b. Free radical theory
c. Activity theory d. Continuity theory
213. Aging can be explained by which of the following theories?

a.Biological b. Psychosocial c. Free radical theory d. All ot the above
214. Depression is very common the elderly, often caused by:

a. Feeling of hopelessness
b. Isolation from family/friends
c. Loss of friends or a spouse ( especially widowers)
d. All of the above
249

215. Chronological age refers to the:
a. Determination of age by body function
b. Person’s ability to contribute to society and benefits other& himself
c. Number of year a person has lived
d. All the above
216. People in the “ middle – old” category of aging range in age from- to
a. 65-74 b. 85-100
c. 75-84 d. 57-67A
217. People in the “ young – old” category of aging range in age from- to
a. 65-74 b. 85-100
c. 75-84 d. 57-64
218. Which type of incontinence results from immobility of cognitive impairment? ©
a. Stress incontinence b. Urge incontinence
c, Functional incontinence d. Overflow incontinence
219. A comprehensive health assessment of an older person involves:

a. Functional assessment c. Psychosocial assessment
b. Clinical assessment d. All of the above
220. Adjustment theory defiens aging as a series of adjustment to

a. Retirement
b. Changes in social life and marital status
c. Potential deterioration of health & well being
d, All of the above
221. People in the “ Old- Old” category of aging range in age from to
a. 65-74 b. 85-100
c. 75-85 d. 57-67
222. Exchange of gas molecules 1 from araea of high concentration to areas of low
concentration is called…
a. Transfusion b. Diffusion
c. Perfusion d. Ventilation
223. Hypoxia means

a. Decrease in oxygen supply to the tissue and cells
b. Increase in oxygen supply to the tissue and cells
c. Decrease in CO2 supply to the tissue and cells
d. Increase in CO2 supply to the tissue and cells
224. Continuous musical sounds associated with airway narrowing or partial

obstruction is called
a. Crackles b. Wheeze
c. Cough d. None of the above
225. Dyspnea means

a. Loboured breathing b. Shortness of breath
c. a or b d. None of the above
250

226. Expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract is called
a. Hemetemesis b. Hemoptysis
c. a or b d. None of the above
227. Decrease in arterial oxygen tension in blood is called

a. Hypoxemia b. Hypocapnea
c. Hypercapnea d. All of the above
228. Ventilation means

a. Movement of air in airway.
b. Movement of air out or airway
c. Movement of air in and out of airway.
d. No movement of air
229. Inability to breathe easily except in an upright position is called

a. Dyspnea b. Orthopnea
c. Orthostatio dyspnea d. All of the above
230. Respiration means
a. Gas exchange between atmospheric air and the blood
b. Gas exchange between the blood and cells of the body
c. A and B
d. Gas exchange in particular area of the body
231. Crackles is:

a. Soft high pitched sound
b. Discontinous popping sounds during inspiration coursed by delayed reopening of
the airway
c. a and b
d. Low pitched rocking sound
232. Examples of paranasal sinuses are

a. Frontal sinus b. Ethmoidal sinus
c. Sphenoidal sinus d. Maxillary sinus
e. All of the above
234. Pectus carinatum is

a. Barrel chest b. Pigeon chest
c. Funnel chest d. Kyphoscoliosis
235. In which of the chest is seen

a. Rickets b. a and c
c. Marfan’s Syndrome d. None of the above
236. Normal respiratory pattern is described as

a. Eupnea ( 12.8 Breaths/ mm)
b. Bradypnea (< 10 breaths/mm)
c. Tachypnea ( > breaths/ mm)
d. Hyperapnea
251

237. Slow breathing is termed as
a. Eupnea b, Bradypnea
c. Tachypnea d. Hyperapnea
238. In which of the following cases bradypnea is present

a. Increased intracranial pressure
b. Brain injury
c. Drug overdose
d. All of the above
239. Tachynea means

a. Normal respiration b. Rapid breathing
c. Slow breathing d. Increases in depth of respiration
240. Tachypnea is commonly seen in patient with
a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary edema
c. Severe pain d. All of the above
241. Increase in depth of respiration is called

a. Hyperpnea b. Apnea
c. Hypervatilation d. Biot’s respiration
242. Hyper ventilation is

a. Increase in depth of respiration
b. Increase in rate of respiration
c. Increase in force of respiration
d. a and b
243. Apnea describes varying periods of

a. Increase in depth of respiration
b. Cessation of breathing
c. Increase in rate of respiration
d. b and c
244. Cheyne- stokes respiration is characterized by

a. Episode of apnea
b. Period of deep breathing
c. Deep respiration become increasingly shallow followed by apnea may last
approximately 20 seconds. The cycle repeats after each apnic period
d. All of the above
245. Cheyne – stokes respiration is usually associated with condition like ©
a. Heart failure
b. Damage to the respiratory center
c. A and B
d. Alcoholic patient
246. Cluster’s respiration is otherwise termed as

a. Blots respiration b. Tacypnea
c. Hyperventilation d. Kussmaul’s respiration
252

247. Hyperventilation that is marked by an increase in rate and depth, associated with
severe acidosis of diabetic or renal origin- is called
a. Biot’s respiration b, Tacypnea
c. Kussmaul’s respiration d. all of the above
248. Which of the following are the normal breath sounds

a. Vesicular b. Bronchovesicular
c. Bronchial d. All of the above
249. Whar are the characteristics of percussion sound in case of large Pneumothorax
a. Flatness b. Dullness
c. Hyper resonance d. Tympany
250. Soft, high pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration
is called
a. Crackles b. Wheezes
c. Friction rub’s d. b and c
251. The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath is called
a. Tidal volume ( VT or TV)
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. Residual volume
252. Normal value of Tidal volume is

a. 500 ml b. 500ml c. 300 ml d. 1300ml
253. Inspiratory reserve volume means

a. Maximum volume of air that can be haled after a normal inhalation
b. The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled forcibly after a normal Exhalation
c. The volume of air remaining in the lung after a maximum exhalation
d. b and c
254. Normal volume of inspiratory reserve volume is

a. 3000ml b. 500ml c. 1500ml d. 6000 ml
255. The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximum exhalation is called
a. Tidal volume
b. Residual volume
c. Inspiratory reserve volume
d. Expiratory reserve volume
256. In which condition residual volume may be increased

a. With heart disease
b. With kidney disease
c, With obstructive lung disease
257. Normal value of residual volume is

a. 1200 ml b. 1600 ml c. 1800 ml d. 600ml
253

258. The maximum volume of air that can be exhaled forcibily after a normal
exhalation is called
a. Vital capacity
b. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
c. Inspiratory reserve volume
d. Residual volume
259. In which of the following condions expiratory reserve volume is decreased (d)
a. Obesity b. Acitis
c. Pregnancy d. All of the above
260. Expiratory reserve volume’s normal value is

a. 1200 ml b. 1100ml c. 3000ml d. 51
261. Which among the following are the lung capacities?

a. Vital capacity (VC)
b.Inspiratory capacity (IC)
c. Functional residual capacity (FRC)
d.all of the above
262. The volume of air in the lungs after a maximum inspiration is called.
a. Total ‘ lung capacity’ b. Vital capacity
c. FRC d. Inspiratory capacity
263. The purpose of post operative deep breathing and coughing excecise are to
a. Reduce pain b, Prevent hypoxia
c. Prevent wound infection d. Prevent atelectasis
264. The patient who is posted for surgery under general anesthesia has to be kept nil
per oral (NPO) for
a. 4 to 6 hours b. 8 to10 hours
c. 6 to 8 hours d. 10 to 12 hours
265. A patient who has under gone gastrectomy should be placed in which position
post operatively?
a. Prone position b. Right lateral position
c, Left lateral position d. Supine position
266. Darwin’s tubercie of the Pinna is seen

a. As a small elevation on the postero superior part of the Helix
b. As a small depression on the postero inferior part of the Helix
c. As a small depression on the postero superior part of the Helix
d. As a small elevation on the postero inferior part of the Helix
267. In Wilderjrmuth’ ear is tharaclerid

a. Prominence of lobule of the ear
b. Prominence of tragus with under developed antitragus
c. Prominence of antihelix and an under developed helix
d. Prominence of Helix with an under developed antihelix
254

268. Severe of hearing loss is
a. Between 25 and 40 dB b. Between 56 and 70dB
c. Between 71 and 90dB d. profound 91 dB orgreater
e. none of the above
269.The purpose of preoperative skin preparation is to
a. Decrease the number of micro organism in the skin
b. Affix the dressing post operatively
c. Prevent the contamination of the wound
270. Which is the most important nurse’ s responsibility on the day of surgery?
a. Collect patien’s history
b. Send blood for investigations
c. Teach deep breathing exercise
d. Administer pre anesthetic medications
271. Which area is known as the “ Holding Area” ?

a. Area where surgical instrument are placed
b. Area where surgery is performed
c. Waiting are adjacent to the surgical suit
d. Area where the patient is placed after the surgery
272. Which of the following principle is the principle to be followed for a surgical
scrub?
a. Place fingers higher than the elbows
b. Scrub from fingers to elbow
c. Scrub from wrist to elbow
d. Scrub from elbows to fingers
273. Ragional nerve block is the injection of ?

a. Medication into tissues through which surgical incision will pass
b. Local anesthetic into epidural space
c. Local anesthetic into or around a specific nerve or group of nerves
d. Medication into the subdural space
274. What is the immediate management of malignant hyperthermia?

a. Administration of dantrolene
b. Monitoring vital signs hourly
c, Cold application
d. Collect a family history of malignant hyperthermia
275. Which of the following patients need to be transferred to the intensive care unit
(ICU) postoperatively?
a. Patient who have undergone wound debridement
b. Patient who have undergone superficial skin graft
c. Patient who have undergone open heart surgery
d. Patient who have undergone herniorrhaphy
276. The medication given to reverse the effects of neuro muscular agents is
a. Glycopyrrolate b. Pancuronium
c. Hydrocortisone d. Succinylcholine
255

277. The splitting open of a surgical skin wound postoperatively is known as?
a. Evisceration b. Dehiscence
c. Abrasion d. Laceration
278. Which is the most important assessment by the nurse on receiving the patient in
the postoperative unit?
a. ECG monitoring
b. Assessing the surgical wound
c. Assess airway patency and respiratory status
d. Measure urinary output
279. The most characteristics symptom of a hiatal hernia which the nurse should
observe for is ?
a. Dysphagia b. Regurgitation
c. Pyrosis d. Coughing
280. All the following instructions for a patient with hiatal hernia true except?
a. Patient should be taught to avoid tight clothing and bending
b. The overweight patient should reduce the weight
c. The head of the bed may be elevated on blocks
d. The drug of choice is an anti cholinergic
281. The most common symptom of esophageal carcinoma would be ?

a. Sore throat b. Dysphagia
c. Weight loss d. Hemorrhage
282. Which of the following is most likely to cause reflex esophagitis?

a. Out pouching of the muscular layer
b. Impairment of autonomic nerve plexus
c.Incompetent lower esophageal sphincter
d. Stricture of the esophagus
283. All of the following statement about gastrostomy feedings are true except:
a. The feeding may be blended foods or special formula
b. The feeding should be warmed to 104*F (40*C)
c. Residual volume should be checked before feeding
d. Water should be given before and after feeding
284. Volvulus is otherwise referred to as:

a. Telescoping of bowel
b. Adhesion in the bowel
c, Twisting of the bowel
d. Strangualted hernia of the bowel
285. The needle used for liver biopsy is:

a. Trucut biopsy needle b. Scalp vein
c. Vim silver Man’s needle
d. Jamshidi needle
256

286.Palpation of the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant of the
abdomen known as:
a. Cullen’s sign b. Allen’s sign
c. Rovsing’s sign d. Turner’s sign
287. Caput medusa is
a. Small pin pointed bleeding under subcutaneous tissue

b. Dilatation of the superior rectal veins
c. Prominent abdominal veins radiating around the umbilicus
d. Large bluish discoloration in the skin
288. In acute pancreatitis the bluish discoloration of the flanks is known as:
a. Kernig’s sign b. Turner’s sign
c. Cullen’s sign d. Homan’s sign
289. The nurse explains to the patient with gastroesophageal reflex disease that this
disorder:
a. Results in acid erosion and ulceration of the esophagus caused by the frequent
vomiting
b. Will require surgical wrapping or repair of the pyloric sphincter to control the
symptoms
c/ Is the protrusion of a portion of the stomack into theesophagus through an
opening in the diapharam
d. Ofter involves relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter allowing stomack
contents to backup into the esophagus
290. The pernicious anemia that may accompany gastritis is due to which of the
following?
a. Chronic auto immune destruction of the cobalamine stores in the body.
Progressive gastric atrophy from chronic breakage in themucosal barrier and blood
loss
b. Lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by the acid secreting cells of the gastric
mucosa
c. Hyperchlorhydrea resulting from an incrase in acid secreting parietal cells and
degradation of RBCs
d. Altered gastric mucosal barrier
291. The appropriate collaborative therapy for the patient with acute diarrhea caused
by Rota virus is to:
a. Increase fluid intake
b. Administer an antibiotic
c. Administer an anti motility drug
d. Quarantine the patient to prevent spread of the virus
292. During the assessment of a patient with acute abdominal pain, the nurse should:
a. Perform deep palpation before auscultation
b. Obtain blood pressure and pulse rate to determine hypervolemic changes
c. Auscultate bowel sounds because hyperactive bowel sound suggest paralytic ileus
d. Measure body temperature because an elevated temperature may indicate an
inflammatory or infectious process
257

293. The nurse would increase the comfort of the patient with appendicitis by:
a. Having the patient lie prone
b. Flexing the patient’s right knee
c. Sitting the patient upright in a chair
d. Turning the patient on to his or her left side
294. The nurse performs a detailed assessment of the abdomen of a patient with
possible bowel obstruction knowing that a manifestation of an obstruction in the
large intestine is:
a. A largely distended abdomen
b. Diarrhea that is loose or liquid
c. Persistent colicky abdominal pain
d. Profuse vomiting that relives abdominal pain
295. A patient with metastatic colorectal cancer is scheduled for both chemotherapy
and readiation therapy. Patient teaching should include:
a. Chemotherapy can be used to cure colorectal cancer
b. Radiation is routinely used as adjuvant therapy following surgery
c. Both chemotherapy and radiation can be used as palliative treatments
d. The patient should except few if any side effects from chemotherapeutic agents
296. A nursing intervention that is most appropriate to decreases post-operative

edema and pain following an inguinal herniorrhaphy is:
a. Applying a truss to the hernia site
b. Allowing the patient stand to void
c. Supporting the incision during routine coughing
d, Elevating the scrotum with support or small pillow
297. Which of the following should a patient to taught after a heamorrhoidectomy?

a. Do not use the Valsalva maneuver
b. Eat a low fiber diet to rest the colon
c. Administer oil retention enema to empty the colon
d. Use prescribed pain medication before a bowel movement
298. During assessment of a patient with obstructive jaundice the nurse should
expect to find:
a. Clay colored stools
b. Dark urine and stools
c. Pyrexia and severe pruritis
d. Elevated urinary urobilinogen
299. A patient with hepatitis A is in the prodromal ( preicteric) Phase. The nurse plans
care for the patient based on the knowledge that:
a. Pruritis is a common problem with jaundice in this phase
b. The patient is most likely to transmit the disease during this phase
c. Gastro intestinal symptoms are not as severe in hapatits
d. Extra hepatic manifestation of glomerulo nephritis and polyarteritis are common in
this phase
258

300. The patient with advanced cirrhosis asks the nurse why his abdomen is so
swollen. The nurses respond to the patient is based on the knowledge that:
a. Lack of cloating factors promote the collection of blood in the abdominal cavity
b. Portal hypertension and hypo albuminemia cause a fluid shift into the peritoneal
space
c. Decreased peristalsis in the GI tract contributes to gas formation and the stention
of the bowel
d. Bile salts in the blood irritate the peritoneal membrance causing edema and
pocketing of fluid
301. When caring for a patient with pre hepatic encephalopathy, the therapeutic
measures are carried out to:
a. Promote fluid loss
b. Decreases portal pressure
c. Eliminated potassium ions
d. Decrease the production of ammonia
302. In planning care for patient with metastatic cancer of the liver, the nurse includes
interventions that:
a. Foucs primarily on symptomatic and comfort measures
b. Re assure the patient that chemotherapy offers a good prognosis for recovery
c. Promote the patient’s confidence that surgical excision of the tumor will be
successful
d. Provide the necessary information to make decision for liver transplantation
303. The nurse explains to the patient with acute pancreatitis that the most common
pathogenic mechanism of the disorder is:
a. Cellular disorganization
b. Over production of enzymes
c. Lack of secretion of enzymes
d. Auto digestion of the pancreas
304. Hernias are commonly found in any of the following sites except:
a. Epigastrium, b. Inguinal ring
c. Umbilicus d. Femoral ring
305. One classic sign of pre hepatic coma is:

a. Bile colored stools b. Elevated cholesterol
c. Flapping hadn tremors d. Depressed muscle
306. The basic patho physiologic problem in cirrhosis of liver causing esophageal
varicose is:
a. Ascites and edema b. Portal hypertension
c. Loss of regeneration d. Dilated veins and varicosities
307. Sengstaken Blackmore tube is used in the control of bleeding for

a. Eroded peptic ulcer b. Gastric ulcer
c. Esophageal varices d. Hemorrhoids
259

308. Serum amylase is transiently elevated in
a. Acute pancreatitis b. Cirrhosis of liver
c. Carcinoma of liver d. Acute appendicitis
309. A patient with thrombophlebitis develops sudden chest pain, dyspnoea ,

diaphoresis and cyanosis. These manifestation suggest:
a. Heart block b. Heart attack
c. Pulmonary embolism d. Ventricular tachycardia
310.Increased serum creatine phosphokinase-MB in ischemic heart disease patient is

due to:
a.Extreme pain and anxiety
b. Cellular membrane destruction
c. In adequate cardiac output
d. Incresed cholesterol intake
311. The serum digoxin toxicity level is

a. 0.25ng/ml b. 2ng/ml
c. 20ng/ml d.2.5ng/ml
312. The butterfly rash on face is characteristic of:
a. Allergic drug eruption
b. Systemic lupus arythematosus
c. Rheumatic fever
d. Seborrheic dermatitis
313. The nurse should monitor the patient after the thrombolytic therapy for following
adverse effect :
a. Chest pain b. Cyanosis
c. Hemoptysis d. Tachycardia
314. The catheter introduced for right side cardiac catheterization is through:
a. Femoral vein b. Saphenous vein
c, Radial artery d. Femoral artery
315. The commonly used drug to control chest pain associated with myocardial
infarction is:
a. Digoxin b. Morphine sulphate c. Lidocaine d. Streptokinase
316. The surgical removal of fatty plague from the inner and middle layer of vessel
wall is called:
a. Endarterectomy b. Embolectomy c, Percutaneous transcoronory angiography
d. Balloon mitral valvuloplasty
317. When patient complains of resting pain in the leg, the nurse should suspect for:
a. Coronary insufficiency b. Cerebral insufficiency
c, Arterail insufficiency d. Venous insufficiency
318. Intermittent claudiaction is commonly associated with

a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Aneurysm
c. Thromboangitis obliterans d. Varicose vein
260

319. During dietary teaching for the patient with congestive heart failure, the nurse
should recommend:
a. Low sodium, low potassium
b. Low sodium. High potassium
c. Low fat, low calorie
d. High calorie, low fat
320. When the patient is on continous heparin infusion the nurse should monitor for
which of the following laboratory value
a. Creatine phosphokinase MB
b. Troponin-t
c. Partial thromboplastin time
d. Prothrombin time
321. Presence of Bence Jones Proteins in a patient’s urine suggest for which of the
following diagnosis:
a. Multiple myeloma b. Leukemia
c. Sickle cell crisis d. Hodgkin’s disease
322. Patient is advised to take orange juice with iron supplement in order to:
a. Prevent toxic effect of iron
b. Promote absorption of iron
c. Prevent rapid absorption of iron
d. Prevent constipation
323. The nursing management of a patient in sickle cell crisis includes:

a. Aggressive analgesics and O2 therapy
b. Platelet administration and monitoring of CBC
c. Blood transfusion and iron supplement
d. Bed rest and heparin therapy
324. The counter pulsation device used to assist the failing heart by decrasing O2
demand of myocardium, increasing coronary perfusion and reducing after load is: (b)
a. Pacemaker b. Intra aortic ballopumping
c. Defibrillator d. Mechanical ventilator
325. Sudden accumulation of blood or fluid within the pericardial space causing heart
compression and interfering with cardiac filling and injection is called:
a. Cardiomyopathy b. Pericardial effusion
c, Dressler’s syndrome d. Cardiac temponade
326. Which of the following Activity is not recommended for a patient with permanent
pacemaker?
a. Checking their own pulse
b. Carrying pacemaker information card
c. Travelling by air
d. Working near high magnetic field
261

327. Cramp like pain felt in the calf muscles that is precipitated by walking and
relieved by rest is called
a. Ischemia b. Arterial hypoxia
c. Intermittent claudication d. Dyserflexia
328. The important health teaching for a patient with mitral valve replacement is:
a. Low fat diet
b. Fluid restriction
c. Lifelong anti coagulant therapy
d. Excersice
329. Turbulent blood flow produces vibration within the heart and great vessles that
can be detected as a blowing sound which is called as:
a. Ejection clicks b. Opening snaps
c. Murmurs d. Pericardial friction rub
330. The chance of getting corornary artery disease in patient with higher level of HDL
in proportion to LDL is:
a. Less b. More
c. Equal d. Not related
331. The initial manifestation of left sided heart failure is:

a. Pulmonary edema b. Hepatomegaly
c. Ankle edema d. Elevated jugular venous pressure
332. The shunt present initially in the patient with tetralogy of Fallot is:
a. Left to right b. Right to left
c. Bi directional d. Retrograde
333. The abnormal increase in erythrocyte production is called: ©

a. Anemia b. Leukocytosis
c. Polycythemia d. Leucopenia
334. Which test is used to confirm the megaloblastic anemia?

a. Schilling test
b. Coomb’s test
c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
d. Platelet aggregation
335. Name of the catheter which is used to measure the pulmonary artery pressure:
a. Swan-Ganz catheter
b. Pigtail catheter
c. Multipurpose catheter
d. Sengstaken - Blakemore catheter
336. When the client is receiving both digoxin and furosemide, the nurse has to
monitor which of the following important electrolytes:
a. Sodium b. Calcium
c. Phosphorous d. Potassium
262

337.Which of the following signs and symptoms would suggest digoxin toxicity?
a. Visual disturbances such as diplopia and colored vision
b. Skin reshes
c. Dyspnoea
d. Elevated blood pressure
338. The reason to advice the heart failure patient to take furosemide in the morning is
to:
a. Prevent rapid absorption
b. Prevent sleep disturbances during the night
c, Promote the action of drug
d, Monitor for complication in day time
339. The signs and symptoms of left side heart failure is associated with:
a. Reduced cardiac output and pulmonary congestion
b. Increased venous return and congestion in right ventricle
c. Increased venous and right atrium congestion
d. Reduced O2 concentration in the blood
340. The nurse notes the patient’s ECG as given the strip. The nurse identifies this
rhythm as which of the following?
a. Atrial fibrillation b. Atrial tachycardia
c. Ventricular tachycardia d. Vetricular fibrillation
341. When patient’s monitor shows ECG as given, the nurse should interpret it as:
a. Atrial flutter b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. First degree heart block d. Mobiz type 1 second degree heart block
342. The elective procedure used to convert an arrhythmia into a normal sinus rhythm
by delivering electric shock is
a. Defibrillator b. Cardio version
c. Temporary spacing d. Radio frequency ablation therapy
343. During the adult CPR sternum should be compressed between:

a. 1 to 2 cm b. 2 to 3 cm
c. 3.5 to 5 cm d. 4 to 5.5cm
344. Name the maneuver which is used to open the airway?

a. Heimlich meneuver
b. Finger sweep maneuver
c. Jaw thrust maneuver
d. Head tilt- chin lift maneuver
345. Patient is started on a course of corticosteroids. Which of the following

assessment is most important in connection with the therapy?
a. The need for more oxygen therapy
b. The need for improved nutririon
c. Whether he is still smoking
d. Any indication of infection
263

346. Which of the following nursing intervention will help to prevent the complications
of Hypoxia during deep tracheal suctioning?
a. Suction once per hour
b. Use sterile techniques
c. Hyperventilate the lungs before suctioning
d. Use 100% oxygen that has been humidified
347. The patient has thick, tenacious tracheal secretions that he has difficulty
bringing up through his tracheostomy. Which of the following measures will aid in
liquefying the secretions prior to suctioning?
a. Use postural drainage to mobilize the secretions
b. Instill normal saline directly into the trachea
c. Encourage him to cough and deep breathe more often
d. Use sterile technique
348. The patient’s chest X-ray shows consolidation in left lower lung. Which of the
following would not be noted over the are of consolidation on physical examination?
a. Resonance b. Bronchophony c, Egophony d. Dull percussion sound
349. When the patient is placed on penicillin IV, which side effect is important to
assess?
a. Blurring of vision b.Allergic reaction c. Nausea and vomiting d. Constipation
350. When the patient is receiving intravenous aminophylline to relieve

bronchospasm. The nurse must observe for which of the following manifestation
indicating toxicity?
a. Tachycardia, Agitation, vomiting
b. Bradycardia, fatigue, increased blood pressure
c. Tachypena, Drowsiness , increased pulse
d. Fluid retention, ataxia decreased blood pressure
351. The nurse encourages the patient to do pursed lip breathing in order to:
a. Increase oxygen supply to the lungs
b. prevent airway closure and air trapping
c. Moblilize bronchial secretins
d. Promote rapid exhalation of air
352. When the patient is receiving the isoniazid hydrochloride, he will also be on:
a. Aspirin b. Neomycin c. Lorazepam d. Pyridoxine
353. While the chest tube is being removed, the nurse should ask the patient:
a. Breathe in, hold breath and bear down
b.Breathe out, hold breath and bear down
c. Breathe out and then rapidly breath
d. Either breathe out or in, then hold the breath
354. Which of the following technique should the nurse teach to encourage proper
breathing exercise?
a. High chest breathing b. Inhalation should be 2 to 3 times longer than exhalation
c. Pursed – lip breathing
d. Inhalation through the mouth and exhalation through the nose
264

355. The collection of pus in the pleural cavity is referred as:
a. Emphysema b. Empyema
c. Eosinophilia d. Pleural effusion
356.The characteristic three layer sputum will be formed in :

a. Emphysema b. Pneumonitis
c. Bronchiectasis d. Asthma
357. Gray hepatization is observed in:

a. Pneumonia b. Asthma
c. Emphysema d. Tuberculosis
358. Which of the following position should be used to drain apical segments during
postural drainage?
a. Sitting b. Trendelenburg’s
c. Side –lying d. Prone
359. A client is admitted with carbon monoxide intoxication. The nurse understands
that poisonous nature of carbon monoxide results from:
a. Its ‘ preferential combination with hemoglobin
b. Its tendency to block CO2 transport
c, Its inhibitory effect on vasodilation
d. The bubbles it tends to form in blood plasma
360. When the patient comes with corbon monoxide inhalation injury, the patient
should be given
a. 40% of O2 b. 60% of O2
c, 80% of O2 d. 100% of O2
361. The nurse use an AMBU bag in the ICU when:

a. The client is in ventricular fibrillation
b. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present
c. Respiratory output must be monitored at intervals
d. There is respiratory arrest
362.Whcih of the following is not a normal breath sound?

a. Vesicular b. Broncho vesicular
c. Rhonchi d. Bronchial
363. There nurse is aware that when Emphysema is present there is a decreased O2
supply because of:
a. Infectious obstruction
b. Respiratory muscle paralysis
c. Pleural effusion
d. Loss of aerating surface
364. A thorococentesis is performed. Following the procedure it is imported for the

nurse to observe the clinet for
a. Increased breath sound b. Expectoration of blood
c. Decreased respiratory rate d. Period of confusion
265

365.When assessing an individual with a spontaneous pneumothorax, the nurse
should assess expect dyspnea as well as:
a. Increasing chest motion
b. Unilateral chest pain
c. Haematemisis
d. Mediastinal shift toward the involved side
366. Complete lung expansion before removal of chest tubes is evaluated by:
a. Absence of additional drainage
b. A decrease in adventitious sounds
c. Return to normal tidal volume
d. Comparison of chest radiograph
367. To prevent pulmonary embolus in a client on bed rest the nurse should:
a. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
b. Use the knee hatch when the client is in bed
c. Limit the clients fluid intake
d. Teach the clients to move the legs when in bed
368. The single most important method of preventing spread of infection is

a. Antibiotic therapy
b. Gowning and Gloving
c. Hand washing
d. Isolation measures
369. The most characteristic manifestation of rabies is:

a. Pharyngeal spasm b. Diarrhea
c. Urinary stasis d. Memory loss
370. For the tubercle bacilli to multiply an initated a tissue reaction in the lung it
should be deposited in
a. The alveoli b. The bronchi
c. The trachea d. The bronchiole
370. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease that involves the mucosal surface of
the
a.Urethra b. Pharynx
c. Rectum d. Genitourinary trach
371. One of the common complication of mumps is

a. Otitis media b. Cervical adenitis
c. Laryngitis d. Epididymoorchitis
372. Patient with hepatitis B infeaction is considered infections for at least

a. 6 month b. 12 month
c. 2 year d. 4 year
373. Hepatits C is primarily transmitted:

a. Parenterally b. Perinatally
c. Sexually by contaminated foods
266

374. Identify the primary symptoms of an immune deficiency disease
a. Failure to thrive b. Weakness and malaise
c. Chronic infection d. Chronic pain
375. Stem cell deficiency is characterized by absence of

a. T cell function b. Both T and B cell
c. B cell function d. Thymic development
376. Education to the patient with immune deficiency include except:

a. Need to avoid crowds
b. Signs and symptoms of infection
c. Importance of good hygiene
d. Need to take prophylactic medications
377. For the signs of hyperglycemia the nurse should observe a diabetic patient for:
a. Fluid retention, high potassium levels
b. Fever, malaise
c. Dehydration, electrolyte depletion
d. Infection, pain
378. When teaching a diabetic client on foot care, it is important to emphasize:

a. Cleaning the foot by using antiseptic solution
b. Trimming toe nails as close to the bed of the nail as possible
c. Wearing the tight fittings shoes
d. Trimming corns and calluses regularly
379. Assessment of the diabetic chart for common complications should always
include examination of the
a. Lymph glands b. Pharynx
c. Abdomen d. Eyes
380.Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the
development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
a. Cigarette smoking b. High cholesterol diet
c. Obesity d. Hypertension
381. Clinical findings in a client with hypothyroidism include:

a. Hyperactive bowel sound
b. Oily skin and acne
c. Postural tremors of the hands
d. Edema of the face and eyelids
382. The nurse should assess the client with Graves’ disease for:
a. Anorexia b. Tachycardia
c. Weight gain d. Cold skin
383. Chronic treatment with levethyroxine (Synthroid) is associated with:

a. Tachycardia b. Severe osteoporosis
c. Insomnia d. Sweating
267

384. Classes of medications commonly used to treat hyper thyroid conditions include:
a. Antibiotics and corticosteroids
b. ACE inhibitors, antiolytics, and antithyroid medications
c. Beta blockers, NSAID and anti thyroid medications
d. Calcium channel blockers and corticosteroids
385. Which of the following symptoms might indicate that a client was developing
tetany after a sub total thyroidectomy?
a. Pain in the joints of the hands and feet
b. Tinkling in the fingers
c. Bleeding on the back of the dressing
d. Tension on suture line
386. Which of the following is the best indicator for determining whether a client with
Addison’s disease is receiving the correct amount of glucocorticoid replacement?
a. Skin turgor b. Temperature
c. Thirst d. Daily weight
387. Which statement should the nurse include when teaching the client about taking
oral glucocorticoids?
a. Take your medication with a full glass of water
b. Take your medication on an empty stomach
c. Take your medication at bed time to increase absorption
d. Take your medication with meals (or) with an antacid
388. One of the earliest clinical manifestations the nurse should observe for patient
with chronic thyroiditis is:
a. Pain b. Goiter
c. Redness d. Hoarseness
389. Early symptoms of hypothyroidism would include:

a. Mental determination
b. Puffy appearance to tissue
c. Dull sparse hair. Loss of hair
d. Fatigue, lethargy, incrased somnolence
390. Which of the following medications would be contra indicatated for a patient
receiving thyroid replacement therapy?
a. Estrogen b. Antibiotics c. Aspirin d. Feosal
391. The nurse is assessing a patient for sings of low serum calcium by tapping the
facial nerve. This is known as:
a. Chvostek’s sign b. Trousseau’s sign
c. Homan’s Sign d. Rovsing’s sign
392. Dietary recommendations for a patient with chronic hyperparathyroidism would

include:
a. High calcium, high phosphorus, low sodium
b. High calcium, low phosphorus, Vitamin D supplement
c. High calcium, high potassium, high sodium
d. Low calcium, low phosphorus, high sodium
268

393. The majority of patients with hyperparathyroidism is known to develop:
a. Renal calculi b. Vitamin D deficiency
c, Anemia d. Osteoporosis
394. Typical symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome include:

a. Thin skin with hyper pigmentation
b. Truncal obesity, thin extremities, moon face
c. Weight gain, obesity, edema
d. Increased appetite, hyperthermia
395. The most significant clinical feature of pheochromocytoma is:

a. Nausea b. Hypertension c. Hypotension d. Headache
396. In diabetes mellitus acidosis is caused by:

a. Reduced respiratory function
b. Reduced kidney fuctions
c. Increased ketone bodies
d. Incrased protein metabolism
397. Increases of the blood glucose level in the early morning is called:
a. Somogly effect b. Dawn phenomenon
c. Insulin resistance d. Erratic insulin action
398. Appropriate instruction for the patient with diabetes related to skin care of the
feet is:
a. Use of heat to increase the blood supply
b. Avoidance of softening lotions and cream
c. Daily inspection of all surfaces of the feet
d. Use of iodine on cuts and abrasions
399. When doing a physical examination on a client with hyperthyroidism, a common

neurological finding is:
a. Memory, attention and problem solving deficits
b. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
c. Severe cognitive impairment
d. Delusions and psychosis
400. In evaluating the laboratory values taken from a client with Grave’s disease,
nurse should except:
a. TSH levels to be increased
b. TSH levels to be decreased
c. TSH levels to be within normal limit
d. T4 levels to be decreased

269

401. Which of the following might cause hypoglycemia in the client with diabetes
except:
a. Tremor b. Flank pain
c. Sweating d. Polyuria
402. Protein in the urine is a sign of which long term complication of diabetes?
a. Neuropathy b. Nephropathy
c. Retinopathy d. Gastro paresis
403. All of the following might cause hypoglycemia in the client with diabetes except:
a. Stress b. A dish of ice cream
c. Exercise d. Fasting
404. The client who is having fracture pain, nurse expects the patient to describe it as:
a. A dull, deep, boring ache
b. Sharp and piercing
c. Similar to ‘ muscle cramps’
d. Sore and aching
405. A common pressure problem area for leg cast is

a. Dorsalis pedis b. Peroneal nerve
c. Poplitial artery d. Tibialis posterior
406. After removal of a cast. The patient needs to be instructed to do all of the
following except: (d)
a. Apply an emollient lotion to soften the skin
b. Control swelling with elastic bandage as directed
c. Gradually resume activities and exercise
d. Use friction to remove dead surface skin by rubbing the area with a towel
407. For a patient with an arm cast complaints of pain, the nurse should do all of the
following except:
a. Assess the fingers for the color and temperature
b. Administer a prescribed analgsics to promote comfort and allay anxiety
c. Suspect that the patient may have a pressure sore
d. Determine the exact sight of the pain
408. The potential debilitating complications of peroneal nerve injury is:

a. Permanent paratheisias
b. Foot drop
c. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Infection
270

409. Skin traction is usually limited to a weight between
a. 1 and 3 Ibs b. 4 and 7 Ibs
c. 8 and 10 Ibs d. 11 and 13 Ibs
410. When a patient is in continuous skeletal leg traction, it is important for the nurse
to remember to all of the following except?
a. Encourage the patient to use the trapeze bar
b. Maintain adequate counter traction
c. Remove the weight when pulling the patient up in the bed unnecessary pulling on
the fracture site
d. Use a fracture bed pan to prevent soiling and to maintain patient comfort
411. After a total hip replacement. Stair climbing and stooping are to be avoided for:
a. 1 month b. 3 months
c, 9 months d. 1 year
412. After a total hip replacement the patient is usually able to resume daily activities
after:
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 1 year
413. The best position to ease low back pain is:

a. High Fowler’s to allow for maximum hip flexion
b. Supine with the knees slightly flexed and the head of the bed elevated 30º
c. Prone with a pillow under the shoulders
d. Supine with the bed flat and firm mattress in place
414. The nurse should encourage a patient with low back pain to do all of the
following except:
a. Lie prone with leg slightly elevated
b. Strengthen abdominal muscle
c. Avoid prolonged sitting or walking
d. Maintain appropriate weight
415. The specific treatment for chronic osteomyelitis would probably be:
b. Drainage of localized faci of infection
c. Immobilization
d. Surgical removal of the sequestrum
416. A serum study that is positive for the rheumatoid factor is:
a. Diagnostic for Sjogren’s Syndrome
b. Diagnostic for systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Specific for rheumatoid arthritis
d. Suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis
417. When a person with arthritis is temporarily confined to bed the position
recommended to prevent flexion deformities is:
a. Prone b. Semi – Fowler’s
c. Side lying with pillows supporting the shoulders and the legs
d. Supine with pillows under the knee
271

418. To immobilize an inflamed joint, the nurse should splint the joint in a position of:
a. Slight dorsiflexion b. Extension c. Hyperextension d. Internal rotation
419. Red raised patches of the skin covered with silvery scales are seen in:
a. Scabies b. Pemphigus vulgaris
c. Psoriasis d. Contact dermatitis
420. When assessing a partial thickness burn, the nurse would except to find:
a. Exposed fascia
b. Dry, waxy appearance
c. Red, shiny, wet appearance
d. Absence of blanching with pressure
421. The type of skin biopsy that would be done when malignant melanoma is
suspected in:
a. Incisional biopsy b. Bunch biopsy c. Needle biopsy d. Excision biopsy
422. While examining a client’s skin under Wood’s light’ which of the following is to
be followed?
a. Obtain an informed consent
b. Darken the room for the examination
c. Shave the skin and scrub with beta dine solution
d. Prepare a local anesthetic
423. While planning to perform ‘ patch test’ to determine the allergen causing
dermatitis, which instruction is to given to the client? ©
a. Remain nil per oral
b. Prior to the test
c. Discontinue the prescribed antihistamine 2 days before the test
d. Consume only fluids on the day of the tests
424. The ward sisters avoids assigning which of the following staff members to take
care of the client with Herpes zoster:
a. A nurse who never had mumps
b. A nurse who never had chicken pox
c. An experienced registered nurse who had chicken pox
d. A nurse who never had German measles
425. Characteristic of Herpes zoster infection is:

a. A generalized body rash
b. Small, blue-white spots with a red base
c. A butterfly rash
d. Clustered skin vesicles along dermatomes
426. Which of the following is noted while assessing the client with frost bite of the
right hand?
a. Fiery red skin with edema in the nail beds
b. A pink, edematous hand
c. Black finger tips surrounded by an edematous rash
d. A white color to the skin which is insensitive to touch
272

427. Which assessing the client’s sacral area who has stage II decubitus ulcer which
of the following is to be noted?
a. Skin is intact
b. Partial thickness skin loss of the epidermis
c. A deep, creter- like appearance
d, Presence of sinus tract
428. While assessing for the presence of cyanosis in a dark- skinned client, which
body area will provide the best assessment?
a.Back of the hands b. Ear lobes
c. Palms of the hand d. Sacrum
429. Which of the following assessment finding denote scabies?

a. The appearance of vesicle with thick honey colored crust
b. The presence of white patches scattered about the trunk
c. Multiple straight or wavy, thread like lines beneath the skin
d. Patchy hair loss and round red macule with scales
430. Which of the following will be noted, while inspecting the oral cavity of a client
with candidiasis
a. The presence of numerous small, red pinpoint lesions
b. The presence of blisters
c. The presence of white patches
d. The presence of purple colored patches
431. In client with second and third degree burns in anterior thorax, which of the
following is noted during the emergent phase?
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Increased blood pressure
c. Elevated hamatocrit levels
d. Increased urinary output
432. Salicylic acid is prescribed for a patient with psoriasis. Which of the following
would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity form these medications?
a. Decreased respiration b. Diarrhea
c. Constipation d. Tinnitus
433. Isotretinoin si prescribed for a patient with severe acne which of the following
investigation should be done prior to the administration of this drug? ©
a.Complete blood count b. WBC count
c. Triglyceride level d. Platelet count
434. A skin graft that is taken from another portion of a patient’s own body is know
as?
a. An allograft b. An auto graft c. A homograft d. A heterograft
435. A large, flaccid bullae with honey colored crust around the mouth and nose is
characteristic of:
a. Measles b. Impetigo c. Pemphigus d. Psoriasis
273

436. A therapeutic measure used to prevent hypertrophic scaring during the
rehabilitative phase of burn recovery is
a. Applying pressure garments
b. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours
c. Performing active range of motion exercise at least every four hours
d. Massaging the new tissue with water- based moisturizers
437. The most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy of fluid resuscitation,
for client with second and third degree burns is
a. Vital signs b. Urine output
c. Peripheral pulses d. Mental status
438. The darkening of tissue seen in the various forms of gangrene is due to the
breakdown of hemoglobin with subsequent formation of:
a. Heme b. Ferrous sulfide
c. Ferric chloride d. Insoluble protein
439. The time taken by gum tissue to adapt dentures is:

a.Less than 1 month b. 6 to 8 weeks
c. About 3 months d. 3 to 4months
440. Preventive orthodontics for malocclusion is stated at age of:

a. 3 years b. 5years
441. Chewing is controlled by:

a. 2nd cranial nerve b. 3rd cranial nerve
c. 4th cranial nerve d. 5th cranial nerve
442. Acute inflammatory gum disease caused by proliferation of normal mouth flora is
termed as: (a)
a. Gingivitits b. Peridontitis
c. Pulpitis d. Stomatitis
443. Name the polysaccharide that helps the plaque bacteria to attach to the teeth:
a. Dextross b. Dextran
c. Sucrose d. Carbohydrates
444. Primary post tooth extraction hemorrhage occurs within:

a. ½ to 1 hour of extraction b. 1 to 2 hours of extraction
c. 2 to 3 hour of extraction d. 2 ½ to 3 hours of extraction
445. The side effect of Dilantin (phenytoin) therapy results in:

a. Stomatitis b. Candidiasis
c.Gingival hyperplasia d. Dental caries
446. Opacity of the crystalline lens and its capsule is termed as:
a. Glaucoma b. Pterygium
c. Trachoma d. Cataract
274

447. The instrument is used to measure intra ocular pressure is:
a. Barometer b. Audiometer c. Tonometer d. Thermometer
448. Emmetropia means:

a. Ideal vision b. Near sightedness
c. Foresightedness d. Blurred vision
449.Complete surgical removal of eye ball is called:

a. Enucleation b. Confrontational test
c. Trabeculectomy d. Iridectomy
450. Which test is done to detect peripheral vision?

a. Snellen’s chart b. Confrontational test
c,Corneal light reflex test d. Ishihara chart
451. Regular intraocular pressuremonitoring is indicated in older adults who are

taking:
a. High doses of inhaled glucocorticoids
b. Non steroidal anti- inflammatory analgesics
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Insulin
452. In older adults, the most common cause of decreased visual functioning is:
a. Cataract formation b. Glaucoma c. Macular degeneration d. Arcus senilis
453. The drug which is used as a miotic is:

a. Atropine sulfate
b. Lidocaine hydrochloride
c. Phenylephrine hydrochloride
d. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
454. After cataract surgery a patient is encouraged to:

a. Maintain bed rest for1 week
b. Lie on his stomach while sleeping
c. Avoid bending his head below the waist
d. Lift weight to increase muscle strength
455. Macular degeneration characterized by:

a. Raccoon eye b. Pupil dilation
c. Loss of peripheral vision d. Loss of central vision
456. In case of legal blindness, the Snellen’s chart result is:

a. 20/20 vision b. 20/40 vision
c. 20/80 vision d, 20/200 vision
457. While giving instruction to the client with glaucoma the nurse should insist:
a. Decrease fluid intake to control the intraocular pressure
b. Avoid over use of the eyes
c. Decrease the amount of the salt in the diet
d.Eye medicatins needs to be administered life long
275

458. Which of the following is associated with detached retina?
a. Pain in the affected eye
b. Total loss of vision
c. A sense of a curtain falling across the field or vision
d, A yellow discoloration of the sclera
459. Which assessment test is done to detect central area of blindness?

a. Confrontational method b. Amsler grid
c. Hirschberg’s test d. Ishihara chart
460. The normal intraocular pressure by Tonometer is:

a. 10-21 mm Hg b. 20-30 mm Hg
c. 25-35 mm Hg d. 3-10 mm Hg
461. Surgical management of angle closure glaucoma is

a. Intracapsular cataract extraction
b. Extra capsular cataract extraction
c. Trabeculoplasty
d. Sclera buckling
462. The purpose of administering carbonic anhydrase inhibitors in patient with

glaucoma is to:
a. Produce papillary constriction
b. Cause papillary dilatation
c. Inhibit the production of aqueous humor
d. Increase outflow aqueous humor
463. Corneal light reflex test is used to determine:

a. Peripheral vision loss b. Central area blindness
c. Eye alignment d. Color vision
464. Inflammation of conjunctiva due to chlamydial infection is known as:

a. Trachoma b. Hordeolum c. Chalazion d. Keratitis
465. In case of chemical eye injury, the initial nursing action is to:
a. Begin visual acuity testing
b. Irrigate the eye with sterile normal saline
c. Swab the eye with antibiotic ointment
d. Cover the eye with pressure patch
466.Rinne’s test is done to assess:

a. Equilibrium b. Air and bone conduction
c. Hearing acuity d. Conductive and sensorineural hearing loss
467. Hearing loss with out any organic involvement is known as:
a. Sensorineural hearing loss
b. Psychogenic hearing loss
c. Conductive hearing loss
d. Perceptive hearing loss
276

468. Examination of the auditory canal of an adult can be done by:
a. Pulling the pinna downward and backward
b. Pulling the pinna outward
c. Pulling the pinna upward and backward
d. Turning the head to one side
469. The type of deafness cause by cerumen impaction is:

a. Conductive b. Sensorineural c. Mixed d. Noise induced
470. The triad of symptoms is Meniere’s disease is:

a. Nausea, vomiting , hearing loss
b. Tinnitus, vertigo, hearing loss
c. Pain in ear, nausea, hearing loss
d. Nausea, vomiting, tinnitus
471. Surgical correction of entrochoanal polyp is known as:

a. Caldwell- Luc operation b. Ethmoidectomy
c.Rhinoplasty d. Polypectomy
472. A patient with epistaxis is placed in which position?

a. Supine position
b. Side lying position
c. Upright position with head extended backward
d. Upright position with head flexed forward
473. In case of a chornic recurrent infection of the tonsils, the treatment of choice is
a. Saline gargle b. antibiotics b. Tonsillectomy d. bed rest
474. If bleeding occurs with in 24 hours after tonsillectomy. It is know as:

a.Primary heamorrhage b. Secondary heamorrhage
c. Acute heamorrhage d. Reactionary heamorrhage
475. Nursing management of a patient following laryngectomy includes the following

except:
a. Introducing the nasogastric tube
b. Maintain patency of drainage tube
c. Place patient in semi-Fowler’s position
d. Changing the surgical procedure
476. A client with pulmonary embolus is intubated and placed on mechanical

ventilation. When suctioning the endotracheal tube, the nurse should:
a. Apply suction while inserting the catheter
b. Hyper oxygenate with 100% O2 before and after suctioning
c. Use short tapping movements of the catheter
d. Suction 2-3 times in quick succession to remove the secretions
477. An investigation to diagnose hearing impairment is:

a. Audiogram b. Otoscopic examination
c. Hearing aids d. Slit lamp examination
277

478. The tingling of fingers and toes and muscle twitching in acute renal failure are
caused by:
a. Acidosis b. Calcium depletion
c. Potassium retention d. NaCl depletion
479. The primary purpose of aluminum hydroxide gel in renal failure is to:
a. Prevent metabolic acidosis
b. Relieve gastric irritation
c. Prevent gastro intestinal ulcer formation
d. Bind phosphate in the intestinal tract
480. In a renal failure patient, the purpose of giving regular insulin 2 units with 50 ml
of dextrose is to:
a. Lower the blood sugar b. Decrease the serum potassium
c. Reduce cerebral edema d. Prevent tetany
481. The greatest danger of hyperkalemia in chronic renal failure is:

a. Cardiac arrest b. Tetany
c. Fluid over load d. Internal bleeding
482. The nurse explains to the patient with chronic renal failure, purpose of
administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate ( Kayexalate) is to:
a. Lower serum potassium levels
b. Produce dieresis
c. Lower serum phosphorus
d. Reduce blood pressure
483. Urinary infection is a potential danger with an indwelling catheter, which can be
avoided by:
a. Assessing urine specific gravity
b. Maintaing the ordered hydration
c. Collecting a weekly urine specimen
d. Emptying the drainage bag frequently
484. Which acts as a semi permeable membrane in hemodialysis?

a. Skin b. Dialyzer c. Muscle d. Peritoneum
485. Dialysis is indicated in following conditions except:

a. Increased level of serum potassium
b. Drug over dose
c. Increasing acidosis
d. Decreased urine output
486. The purpose of the peritoneal dialysis is to:

a. Reestablish the kidney function
b. Clean the peritoneal membrane
c. Provide fluid for intracellular spaces
d. Remove toxins and metabolic wastes
278

487. In hemodialysis the expected outcome should be:
a. Decreased serum bicarbonate
b. Decreased serum creatinine
c. Decreased serum proteins
d. Decreased serum sodium
488. In peritoneal dialysis, to promote the drainage of fluid during the out flow
periods, the nurse should:
a. Keep the head end of the bed flat
b. Attach the outflow tubing to low intermittent suction
c. Turn the client from side to side
d. Remove the outflow tubing and insert a new one
489. During dialysis, if a client complaints of nausea, headache and appears

confused, the nurse should:
a. Administer anti emetics
b. Attempt to reorient the client
c. Decrease the rate of exchange
d. Monitor for changes in vital signs
490. Symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome during dialysis includes:

a. Headache, confusion and seizure
b. Ankle edema, bed rales in the lungs and weight gain
c. Fever, joint pain, chills
d. Decrease blood pressure, rapid pulse and chest pain
491. An acute life threatening complication of partial nephrectomy would be:

a. Sepsis b. Hemorrhage
c. Renal failure d. Paralytic ileus
492. The sign of rejection of kidney transplantation include:

a. Weight loss
b. A subnormal temperature
c. An elevated blood pressure
d. An increased urinary output
493. If a client develops leucopenia after 3 weeks of kidney transplantation the nurse
should suspect for:
a. Bacterial infection
b. High creatinine level
c. Rejection of the kidney
d. The anti rejection medication
494. When a patient return from recovery room after kidney transplantation, the nurse
must check the urinary output every:
a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour d. 2 hour
279

495. An abscess that extended into the fatty tissue around the kidney is called:
a. Peri-nephric abscess b. Renal abscess
c. Renal carbuncle d. None of the above
496. Which of the following is a bacterial infection of the renal pelvis, tubules and
interstitial tissue of one or both kidney?
a. Glomerulonephritis b. Nephritic syndrome
c. Pyelo nephritis d. Hydro nephrosis
497. Chronic hereditary nephritis is otherwise called as: (b)

a. Medullary sponge kidney
b. Alport’s syndrome
c. Polycystic kidney
d. Medullary cystic kidney
498. A dull ache in the costovertebral angle is related to:

a. Epispadiasis b. Hypospadiasis
c. Cystitis d. Renal carbuncle
499. A dull ache in the costovertebral angle is related to:

a. Idiopathic b. Bladder pain
c. Kidney pain d. Prostatitis
500. The factor that may be responsible for renal calculi is:
a. A high cholesterol diet
b. Excess ingestion of antacids
c. An excessive exercise programme
d. Frequent consumption of alcohol
501. A client with ureteral calculus is expected to complain of:
a. A boring pain in the left flank
b. Pain that intensifies on urination
c. Pain that is dull and constant in the costovertebral angle
d. Spasmodic pain on the left side radiating to the suprapubic
502. A palliative method of urinary divergence sometimes used for client with
advanced kidney disease is:
a. Cecostomy b. Ileostomy
c. Nephrostomy d. Ureterostomy
503. Absence of menstrual flow is:

a. Crpto menorrhea b. Amenorrhea
c. Dysmenorrhea d. Menorrhagia
504. Lower abdominal pain which occurs during ovulation is

a. Dysmenorrheal b. Mettelschmerz
c. Tenderness d. Hot flushes
505. Surgical removal of the prepuce of the penis is called:

a. Circumcision b. Excision
c. Vasectomy d. Prostatectomy
280

506. Primary symptom of endometrial cancer is:
a. Post menopausal bleeding
b. Tender mass
c. Urinary frequency
d. Constipation
507. Major postoperative complication of prostatectomy is:

a. Urinary incontinence
b. Bleeding
c. Infection
d. Loss of sexual function
508. Cytologic test for detecting cervical cancer is:

a. Endocervical curettage b. Cone biopsy
c. Papanicolaou smear d. Endometrial biopsy
509. When the uterus appears completely outside the vaginal orifice is:
a. Rectocele b. Procidentia
c. Cystocele d. Enterocele
510. An X ray contrast study of the uterus and the fallopian tube is:
a. Computerized tomography
b. Histarosalpingography
c. Ultra sonography
d. MRI
511. Expand ZIFT?

a. Zoom intra fallopian transfer b. Zygote intra fallopian transfer
c. Zygosis intra fallopian transfer d. Zygote intermittent fallopian transfer
512. The best exercise the nurse should educate for a patient with cystocele is:
a. Abdominal breating b. Kegel’s exercise
c. Foot and arm exercise d. Deep breathing exercise
513. Name the agent that induces artificial menopause?

a. Loop diuretics b. Spasmoproxyvon
c. Atropine d. Lupron
514. The placement of urethral opening on dorsum of the penis is:

a. Epispadias b. Cryptorchidism
c. Hypospadias d. Orchitis
515. Erectile dysfunction is otherwise termed as:

a. Sterility b. Wee Cryptorchidism
c. Impotence d. Orchitis
516. The obstructive and irritative symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia are
collectively known as:
a. Prostatodynia b. Prostatism
c. Enlarged prostate d. Dysprostatia
281

517. Expand TURP?
a. Trans urinal resection of the prostate
b. Trans urethral resection of the prostate
c. Trans cutaneous resection of the prostate
d. Trans uro retrograde of the prostate
518. The major cause of epidydimitis is:

a. Staphylococcus aurous b. Orchiopexy
c. Cryosurgery d. Phimosis
519. Name the surgery done for Cryptorchidism?

a. Orchiectomy b. Orchiopexy
c. Cryosurgery d. Phimosis
520. The persistent erection of the penis is known as:

a. Phimosis b. Balanitis
c. Priapism d. Orchiopexy
521. The presence of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavenosum is known
as:
a. Priapism b. Peyronie’s disease
c. Circumcision d. Phimosis
522. The client who experienced neurological changes in relation to transient

ischemic attack will typically have had evidence of these changes for:
a. Several hours b. Several days
c. Longer than 24 hours d. Over 2 to 3 months
523. Which nursing intervention is related to the client with hemiparesis?

a. Padded side rails
b. Full active range of motion
c. Full active and passive range of motion
d. The use of picture aids for communications
524. When caring for the client with head trauma, a priority of care would be to
prevent transient increases in intracranial pressure. A nursing intervention aimed at
preventing this would be:
a. Administer anti emetics as soon as nausea occurs
b. maintain the client in a flat position with a proper head and neck alignment
c. Encourage television and radio for sound diversion
d. Perform only rectal temperature for accuracy
525. A classic finding associated with an increase in intracranial pressure is:

a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Projectile vomiting
d. A slow, deep, regular respiratory pattern
282

526. While caring for a patient with impairment of 2nd carnial nerve, which nursing
action ensures clients safety?
a. Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles
b. Test the temperature of the shower water
c. Speak loudly to the client
d. Check the temperature of food on the dietary tray
527. Proper use of which of the following items demonstrate that the client is adapting
successfully to problem with cerebellar lesion:
a. Adaptive eating utensils b. Walker
c. Raised toilet seat d. Slider board
528. In the following approaches which is least to helpful in assisting the client with
confusion secondary to a neurological problem:
a. Curing simple, clear directions
b. Providing stable environment
c. Providing sensory cues
d. Encouraging multiple visitors at one time
529. Which one of the following nursing action is most helpful in assisting the client
to adopt urinary incontinence?
a. Establishing a toileting schedule
b. Inserting a Foley’s catheter
c. Using adult diapers
d. padding the bed with an absorbent cotton pad
530. While preparing a patient for cerebral angiogram the nurse checks for:
a. Allergy to salmon b. Allergy to iodine or sell fish
c. Claustrohobia d. Excessive weight
531. The absolute contra indication for MRI is:

a. Hypertension b. COPD c. Heart failure d. Prosthetic value
532. Post procedure care of CT scanning with a contrast medium is :

a. Eating lightly for the remainder of the day
b. Resting quietly for the remainder of the day
c. Hold medications for at least 4 hours
d. Force fluids for the day
533. The nurse is suctioning the unconscious client with tracheostomy. The nurse
avoids which of the following action?
a. Keeping a supply of suction catheters at the bed side
b. Auscultating breath sounds to determine need for suctions
c. Hyper oxygenating the client before during and a after suctioning
d. Making sure not to suction for longer than 30 seconds
534. While positioning the client with increased intracranial pressure, the nurse
should avoid which of the following position?
a. Head turned to the side b. Head midline
c. Neck in neutral position d. Head of bed elevated 30 to 40 degress
283

535. The nurse monitors for which of the following trends in vital signs if the
intracranial pressure is rising?
a. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respiration, decreasing blood
pressure
b. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respiration, increasing blood
preassure
c. Decreasing temperature, decreacing rules, increasing respiration, decreacing blood
preassure
d. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respiration, increasing blood
pressure
536. The activity that prevents elevation in intracranial pressure is:

a. Exhaling during repositioning b. Isometric exercises
c. Blowing the nose d. Coughing vigorously
537. The nurse determines that clear fluid leaking from the nose following basilar
skull fracture is cerebral spinal fluid If it:
a. Clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7
b. Seperates into concentric rings and test positive for glucose
c. Is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6
d. Is clear in appearance and test negative for glucose
538. The position used after craniotomy with a supratentorial incisionis:

a. Head of the bed flat; head and neck midline
b. Head of the bed flat; head turned to the non operative side
c. Head if the bed elevated 30 to 45 degress; head and neck midline
d. Head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees; head turned to the operative side
539. Which of the following items is not induced in the homecare instructions for the
post craniotomy client?
a. Tub bath or shower is permitted, but keep the scalf dry until sutures are removed
b. Use a check of system for anticonvulsant medication to avoid missing doses
c. The client after craniotomy will not hear sounds clearly unless they are loud
d. If the patient is prone to seizures or gets dizzy spells, someone should br with the
client while wlking
540. Which of the following item is the most important part of routine monitoring of
seizures?
a. Duration of seizure
b. What the client ate n the 2 hours preceding the seizureactivity
c. Seizure progression and type of movements
d. Changes in pupil size or eye deviation
541. While caring right side hemiparesis patient, the nurse incorporates in the care
plan to place obects:
a. Within the client’s reach, on the right side
b. Within the client’s reach, on the left side
c. Just out of the client’s reach, on the right side
d. Just out of the client’s reach, on the left side
284

542. The strategy for preventing myasthenic cholinergic crisis is:
a. Too little exercise
b. Increased intake of fatty acids
c. Omitted doses of medications
d. Excess medications
543. The strategy for preventing myasthenic cholinergic crisis is:

a. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued
b. Taking medications one time to maintain therapeutic blood levels
c. Doing muscle strengthening exercise
d. Eating large, well- balanced diet
544. While the client is experiencing a Parkinsonian crisis, the nurse immediately
places the client:
a. In a quiet, dim room with respiratory and cardiac support available
b. In a high Fowler’s position, with a nasogastric tube at the bed side
c. In a room near the nursing station, which is near the code chart
d. In a bed with padded side rils, with limb restraints nearby
545. The client is admitted with Guillain Barre syndrome having an ascending
paralysis to the level of the waist knowing the complications of the disorder, the
nurse takes which of the following items into the:
a. Nebulizer and pulse oximeter
b. flash light and spirometer
c. ECG monitoring electrodes and incubation tray
d. Blood pressure cuff and flash light
546. Which of the following risk factor is not related to the exacerbation of multiple
sclerosis?
a. A stressful week at work
b. Ingestion of more fruits and vegetables
c. A recent bout of the flu
d. Inability to sleep
547. Which of the following plans is particularly important in the care of a patient who
has Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Using behavior modification techniques
b. Assessing the patient;s abilities on an on going basic
c. Helping the patient explore emotional conflicts
d. Implementation a bowel-training programme
548. When the paitent is experiencing seizure, which of the following actions would
the nurse take?
a. Insert a padded tongue blade between the teeth
b. Elevate the head of the bed
c. Administer oxygen to the patient via face mask
d. Monitor the nature of the patients behavior
285

549. The bowl retraining programme for a patients who has had a cerebral vascular
accident should include which of the following measures?
a. Check the fecal impaction daily
b. Increasing the intake of milk products
c. Utilizing incontinent pads util control is achieved
d. Urinary catheterization
550. Which of the following manifestations would a nurse except to observe in a

patient immediately following a tonic-clonic generalized seizure?
a. Hyper salivation b. Hypotonia)
c. Lethargy d. Tachypnea
551. Which of the following finding would indicate to be a nurse that a patient who is
administered phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) is experiencing an adverse effect of the
drug ?
a. Gingival hperplasia b.Tunnel vision
c. Parastheisias d. Hypertension
552. An elderly man arrives at the emergency department disoriented and breating
rapidly. He has hot, dry skin. The priority treatment at this point is to:
a. Assess his airway, breathing, and circultion
b. Obtain a detailed medaical history from his family
c. Determine the kind of insurance he has before treating him
d. Start oxygen administration and have the emergency department physician see him
553. The most effective intervention in decreasing absorption of an ingested poison

is:
a. Ipecac syrup b. Milk dilution
c. Gastric lavage d. Activated charcoal
554. While triaging during disaster management, priority 1(red) will be given to a
person:
a. Who has expired
b. Has a fracture femur
c. Has a penetrating trauma to the head and neck
d. Who has a Glasgow coma scale of 12
555. Which of the following biologic agents of bioterrorism has no effactive

treatment?
a. Anthrax b. Botulism
c. Small pox d. Hemorrhagic fever
556. The acting out of emotions of fear or anger to cause harm to someone or
something is called:
a. Domestic violence b. Violence
c. Battered syndrome d. Bioterrorism
557. Pasteurella is the organism present in the mouth of healthy:

a. Dog b. Cat
c. Human being d. Rat
286

558. The venom released by ticks is:
a. Neurons toxic b. Nephro toxic
c. Auto toxic d. None of the above
559. The use of pneumatic anti shock garment is temporary strategy for:
a. Pelvic fracture b. Rib fracture
c. Cervical fracture d. Any dislocations
560. The development of characteristic symptoms after a psychologically stressful

event is:
a. Grieving process b. Post traumatic stress disorder
c. Crisis d. Violenec
561. The folowing are the steps for managing internal bleeding except:
a. Administer whole blood and plasma expanders
b. Apply pneumatic counter pressure devic
c. Assess ABGs
d. Assess the site for external bleeding
562. Clinical manifestations of blut abdominal trauma include all except:

a. Pain on movement
b. Rebound and maximal point tenderness
c. Decreased or absent of bowel sounds
d. Giddiness with nausea
563. Which of the following is not the part of emergency medical service system?
a. Public information campaign
b. Transportation system
c. Disaster preparedness
d. Rehabilitative care facility
564. An important principle of history taking in emergency situation is to:

a. Obtain history after emergency care
b. Record befor giving care
c. Verify history with family members or friends
d. Ask leading question to facilitate the process
565. Which patient should be triaged first?

a. A two year old with a head laceration, who is awake and crying
b. An 85 year old women with crushing chest pain who is diaphoretic and pale
c. A 32 year complaining of a recent onsat of a fever, aches, and chills after recent
travel
d. A 16 year old with swollen ankle that he injured while playing basket ball
566. A core temperature greater than 103 to 106 degree F without sweating and altered
mentation is known as:
a. Heat edema b. Heat exhausation
c. Heat stroke d. Heat cramps
287

567. Superficial vasoconstriction leads to peripheral extremities to fell tinkling and
burning is called:
a. Frost bite b. Hypothermia
c. Frostnip d. Deep hypothermia
568. Expansion for AMPLE is:

a. Allergy, Madication, Past health history, Last meal, Events
b. Allergy, Monitoring, Past health history, Last meal, Events
c. Activity, Madication, Past health history, Last meal, Events
d. Activity, Monitoring, Past health history, Last meal, Events
569. Induction of vomiting and gastric lavage is indicated in all of the following ecept:
a. Ingestion of amitriptyline (tricyclic anti depressant)
b. NSAIDs
c. Ethylene glycol
d. Kerosene ingestion
570. Gerontology is the study of:

a. Old age b. Care of elderly
c. Aging process d. Disseases realted to aging
571. The average number of years that a person can except to live is:
a. Lifespan b. Life expectancy
c. Old age d. Baby boomers
572. Disengagement theory explains about:

a. Old age physical problems
b. Old age psychological problem
c. Old age withdrawal from society
d. Successful adjustment to old age
573. Fat consumption in elderly should be:

a. 30 to 35% b. 15 to 20%
c. 20 to 25% d. 30 to 45%
574. Inability to interpret existing stimulus is known as:

a. Sensory deprivation b. Sensory loss
c. Sensory deficiency d. Confusion
575.Tests the ability to name up to 10 items in 4 sets is called:

a. Set test b. Get up and got test
c. Katz index d. Folstein mini mental test
576. The memory loss during Alzheimer’s disease is due to:

a. Deposits of beta amyloid protein
b. Deposits of amyoid precursor protein
c. Decreased brain size
d. Decreased acetylcholine producting
288

577. Soft systolic ejection murmur heard in elder person is commonly due to:
a. Left ventricle become smaller
b. Sclerotic changes of aortic leaflets
c. Decreased elasticity and widening of aorta
d. Increased connective tissue in SA and AV node
578. Heat loss in older patients in operating room can be prevented by:
a. Keeping hot water bag under the mattress
b. Covering the client with blanket during anesthesia
c. Covering the head of the patient with heat retaining cap
d. Intravenous fluids and irrigating fluids need to be warm
579. The following are forms of elder abuse except:

a. Exploitation
b. Violation of individual rights
c. Psychological neglect
d. Burn out
580. Which condition is known as strep throat?

a. Acute laryngitis b. Acute tonsillitis
c. Acute pharyngitis d. Acute ehinitis
581. Lens develops from

a. Neural ectoderm b. Surface ectoderm
c. Optic vesicle d. All of the above
582. Retina develops from

a. Surface ectoderm b. Mesoderm,
c. Optic vesicle d. Embryonic fissure
583. Muscles controlling pupil arise from

a. Mesoderm b. Ectoderm
c. Endoderm d. None of the above
584. The avascular structure of eye is
a. Choroid b. Lens
c. Conjunctiva d. Ciliary body
585. Aqueous humour is secreted by

a. Angle of anterior chamber
b. Choroid
c. Ciliary body
d. Iris
586. Optic disc is also known as

a. Macula lutea b. Blind spot,
c. Fovea d. Rods and cones
587. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by the

a. Optic nerve b. Third cranial nerve
c. Fourth cranial nerve d. Sixth cranial nerve
289

588. The sensory nerve supply of the eye is by the
a. Optic nerve b. Third cranial nerve
c. Fifth cranial nerve d. Seventh cranial nerve
589. Optic nerve contains

a. Pigment layer b. Ganglion cell layer
c. Nerve fiber layer d. All the above
590. The junction of cornea and sclera is known as

a. Angle of anterior chamber b. Ciliary body
c. Pupil d. Limbus
591. Tarsal plate is situated in

a. Eyebrow b. Eyelid
c. Lacrimal apparatus d. Conjunctiva
592. Between epithelium and stroma of cornea lies

a. Bowman’s membrane b. Descemet’s membrane
c. Endothehum d. None of the above
593. Lamina cribrosa is present in

a. Choroid b. Cihary body
c. Sclera d. Retina
594. Suspensory ligament extends between lens and

a. iris b. Ciliary body
c. Choroid d. Limbus
595. Oculomoter nerve palsy features include all, EXCEPT

a. Facial weakness b. Divergent squint
c. Diated fixed pupil d. Absent accommodation
596. The normal tricbromatic color vision consists of following colors

a. Red, blue, yellow b. Red, blue, green
c. Red, blue, white d. Red, green, yellow
597. The trichromatic theory of color vision has been propounded by

a. Schiotz b. Von Graefe
c. Young-Helmholtz d. None of the above
598. The intraorbital length of the optic nerve is

a. 1 mm b. 5 mm
c. 10 mm d. 25 mm
599. The total length of the optic nerve is

a. 2.5cm b. 3cm
c. 4.5cm d. 5cm
290

600. The neuron of the 1st order in the visual pathway lies in which layer of retina
a. Inner plexiform b. Outer plexiform
c. Optic nerve fiber d. None of the above

601. Lesion of the optic tract causes

a. Homonymous hemianopia b. Bitemporal hemianopia
c. Binasal hemianopia d. Ipsilateral blindness
602. Scotopic vision is due to

a. Cones b. Rods c. Both d. None
603. Visual acuity is a record of

a. Light sense b. Form sense c. Contrast sense d. Color sense
604.Visual centre is situated in

a. Pariental lobe b. Frintable lobe
c. Midbrain d. Occipital lobe
605.Optic nerve extends up to
a. Optic chiasma b. Optic tracts
c. Lateral geniculate body d. Optic radiations
606. Visible spectrum extends from

a. 100-300nm b. 300-650nm
c. 400-700nm d. 720-920nm
607. Vortex vein drain

a. Iris ciliary body b. Sclera
c. Uveal tract d. Retina
608. Highest visual resolution is seen in

a. Macula lutea b. Fovea centralis
c. Optic disc d. Ora serrata
609. Second order neurons in the optic pathway are present in

a. Superior colliculus b. Retina
c. Medical geniculate body d. Lateral geniculate body
610. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen with

a. Aneurysm of circle of Willis
b. Temporal SOL
c. Frontal SOL
d. Retinoblastoma
291

611. Ciliary congestion is most marked at the
a. Sclera b. Fomix
c. Bulbar conjunctiva d. Limbus
612. Superficial vascularisation of cornea has all the following features, EXCEPT (
a. Irregular and tortuous vessel
b. Rich dendritic branching
c. Vessels continuous with conjunctival vessel
d. Vessels lie deep to Bowman’s membrane
613. Corneal thickness is measured by

a. Kertometer b. Venier scale
c. Pachymeter d. None
614. Keratometry is used in the measurement of

a. Length of eyeball b. Curvature of cornea
c. Diameter of cornea d. Thickness of cornea
615. Corneal sensations are reduced in

a. Hypopyon ulcer b. Phlyctenular keratitis
c. Herpes simplex d. Dances senilis
616. Corneal staining is done by following vital stains

a. Iodine b. Fluorescein
c. Carbolic acid d. Silver nitrate
617. All of the following result in loss of corneal sensation EXCEPT
a. Actue congestive glaucoma
b. Absolute glaucoma,
c. Dendritic ulcer
d. Senile mature cataract
618. The normal depth of anterior chamber is

a. 1mm, b. 2.5 mm, c. 3mm, D. 3.5mm
619. Anterior chamber is shallow in

a. Buphthalmos b. Open angle glaucoma
c. Closed angle glaucoma d. Aphakia
620. Dilated pupil is seen in all of the following EXCEPT

a. Pontine hemorrhage b. Open atrophy
c. Acute glaucoma d. Papillitis
621.Tremulousness of iris is seen in

a. Chronic iridocyclitis b. Open angle glaucoma
c. Aphakia d. None of the above
622. Pupil is pinpoint in

a. Optic atrophy b. Absolute glaucoma
c. Atropine d. Iritis
292

623. White papillary reflex is seen in
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Congential cataract
c. Complete rential detachment
d. All of the above
624. In a frightened man, the pupil shall

a. Dilate b. Constrict
c. Remain unaltered d. First dilate and then constrict
625. In aphakia there is absence of following Purkinje-Sanson’s images

a. 1st and 2nd b. 3rd
c. 4th d. 3rd and 4th
626. The normal intraocular pressure is (Schiotz)

a. 10-15mmHg b. 10-20mmHg
c. 25-330mmHg d. less than 10mmHg
627. The most accurate method of measuring IOP is

a. Digital b. Application
c. Schiotz d. Gonioscopy
628. Near vision is recorded at a distance of

a. 10cm b. 25cm
c. 35cm d. 50cm
629. Distant vision is recorded at a distance of

a. 1m b. 2m
c. 3m d. 6m
630. Normal field of vision extends on the nasal side to

a. 40˚ b. 50˚
c. 60˚ d. 70˚
631. Peripheral field of vision is tested by

a. Bierrum’s screen b. Snellen’s chart
c. Lister’s perimeter d. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
632. Central field of vision is limited upto

a. 20˚ b.30˚
c. 40˚ d. 50˚
633. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy is done at a distance of

a. 1m b. 6m
c. 22 cm d. Close of the face
634. In indirect ophthalmoscopy the images is

a. Inverted, real, magnified b. Erect, real, magnified
c. Erect, virtual d. None of the above
293

635. In direct ophtalmoscy the image is
a. Virtual, erect, magnified
b. Virtual, inverted, condensed
c. Real, inverted, magnified
d Real, erect condensed
636. Periphery of retina is best visualized with

a. Direct ophthamoscopy
b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
c. Retinodcopy
d. USG
637. ‘A’ wave in ERG corresponds to activity in

a. Pigment epithelium b. Nerves bundle layer
c. Inner retinal layer d. Nerve bundle layer
638. Campimetry is used to measure

a. Squint b. Angle of deviation
c. Pattern of retina d. Field charting
639. Angle of anterior chamber is studied with

a. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
b. Gonioscopy
c. Retinoscopy
d. Amblyoscope
640. Direct ophthalmoscopy magnification of images in comparision to indirect
type(+1 3D lens) is –times in emmetropes
a. 2 b. 3
c. 5 d. 6
641. Temporal crescent is seen typically in

a. Astigmatism b. Hypermetropia
c. Myopia d. None of the above
642. blurring of vision for near work occurs in

a. Hypermetropia b. Presbyopia
c. Both of the above d. None of the above
643. Optical conditions of aphakia include all EXCEPT

a. Loss of Accommodation
b. Astigmatism against rule
c. Enlargement of retinal image
d. Myopia
644. Unilateral aphakia can be treated by

a. Contact lens c. Intraocular lens implant
c. Both d. None
645. Standard power of posterior chamber intraocular lens is

a. +20D b. +10D c. +5 d. +15D
294

646. Cylindrical lenses are prescribed in
a. Presbyopia b. Astigmatism
c. Myopia d. Squint
647. A Newborn is invariably

a. Hypermetropic b. Myopic
c. Astigmatic d. Aphakic
648. Astigmatism is a type of

a. Axial ametropia b. Index ametropia
c. Curvature ametropia d. Spherical abeeration
649. Hypermetropia causes

a. Divergent squint b. Convergent squint
650. In retinoscopy using a plane mirror, when the mirror is titlted to te right the
shadow in the pupil moves to the left in
a. Hypermetropia b. Myopia more than -1D
c. Emmetropia d. Myopia less than -1D
651. Optical condition of the eye in which the refaction of the two eyes differs is
a. Mixed astigmatism b. Irregular astigmatism
c. Antisometropia d. Compound astigmatism
652. Latent hypermetrpia is detected when following mydriatic is used

a. Adrenaline b. Phenylephrine
c. Cyclopentolate d. Atropine
653. Radial kerattomy is useful in

a. Myopia b. Hypermetropia
c. Presbyopia d. Aphakia
654. Incident parallel rays come to a focus posterior to the light sensitive layer of
retina in
a. Aphakia b. Retinal detachment
c. Cataract d. Closed angle glaucoma
655. Indistinct distant vision is seen in

a. Vitreous degeneration b. Hypermetropia
c. Cataract d. Closed angle glaucoma
656. The complications of myopia include all EXCEPT
a. Presbyopia b. Myopia
c. Hypermetropia d. None of the above
657. The type of lens used for correction of regular astigmatism includes
a. Biconvex lens b. Biconcave lens
c. Cylindrical lens d. None of the above
295

658. Pseudopapillitis is seen in
a. Hypermetropia b. Myopia
c. Presbyopia d. None of the above
659. Contact lenses may be useful in treatment of all EXCEPT

a. Kertoconus
b. Refractive anisometropia
c. Funch’s endothelial dystrophy
d. Severe keratoconjunctivtis siccca
660. Prisms are used in ophthalmology to measure and to treat

a. Heterophoria b. Heterotropia
c. Both d. None
661. Hard contact lens is made up of

a. MEMA b. PMMA
c. PVP d. PVC
662. Biconvex lens is used in all EXCEPT

a. Aphakia b. Preshyopia
c. Astigmatism d. Hypermetropia
663. In compound hypermetropic astigmatism

a. Both the foci are in front of retina
b. Both the foci are behind the retina
c. One focus is in front and one focus is behinf the retina
664. Determination of the refraction is done by all EXCEPT

a. Retinoscopy b. Refractometer
c. Keratometer d. perimeter
665. Retinoscopy is done in a dark room at a distance of

a. 1m b. 2m
c. 3m d. 6m
666. Drug of choice for papillary dilatation in children is

a. Atropine b. Retinal detachment
c. Scopolamine d. Closed angle glaucoma
667. Out of the following which is the shortest acting mydriatic

a. Tropicamide b. Homatropine
c. Cyclopentolate d. Atropine
668. Frequent change of prebyopic glasses is an early symptom of

a. Closed angle glaucoma b. Open angle glaucoma
c. Senile cataract d. After cataract
296

669. Accommodation is maximum in
a. Childhood b. Adulthood
c. Middle-age d. Old age
670. Treatment of choice in aphakia is

a. Spectacles b. Contact lens
c. Anterior chamber IOL d. Posterior chamber IOL
671. All the following are serous acinous glands EXCEPT

a. Krause’s glands b. Meibomian gland
c. Lacrimal glands d. Salivary gland
672. Natural protective mechanism of conjunctiva include

a. Low temperature b. Flushing due to tears
c. Blinking of eyelids d. All the above
673. Follicles are not seen in which of the following

a. Spring cataract
b. Trachoma
c. Adenovirus conjunctivitis
d. Streptococcal conjunctivitis
674. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by

a. Staphylococcus b. Pneumococcus
c. Virus d. Morax-Axenfeld bacillus
675. Eyes should not be bandaged in
a. Corneal ulcer b. Purulent conjunctivitis
c. Glaucoma d. Retinal detachment
676. Blood vessel in a trachomatous pannus lie

a. Beneath the Descemet’s membrane
b. In the stroma
c. Between Bowman’s membrane and stroma
d. Between Bowman’s membrane and epithelium
677. Cobblestone appearance of the conjunctive is seen in

a. Spring catarrh b. Angular conjunctivitis
c. Eczematous conjunctivitis d. Trachoma
678. The HP inclusion bodies in trachoma are

a. Intranclear b. Intracytoplasmic
c. Both d. None
679. Sequelac of trachoma include (d)

a. Pseudoptosis b. Cicatricial entropion
c. Trichiasis d. All of the above
680. The pathognomonic feature of trachoma are all EXCEPT

a. Follicles b. Papillac
c. Herbert’s pits d. pannus
297

681. Herbert’s pits are seen on the (d)
a. Lid margin b. Palpebral conjunctiva
c. Art’s line d. Limbus
682. Promising treatment of epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is by

a. oxytetracycline b. Sulphacetamide 30%
c. Chloramphenicol d. Adenine arabinoside
683. As a complication of acute mucopurulent conjunctivitis, the Coraeal ulcers that

develop are
a. Marginal b. Central
c. Anywhere on cornea d. No where
684. True membranous conjunctivitis is caused by

a. Trachoma b. Morax-Axenfeld bacillus
c. Virus d. Diphtheria
685. Phlyctenulara conjunctivitis is due to

a. Pneumococcus
b. Pseudomonas pyocyanea
c. Allergy to endogenous protein
d. Allergy to exogenous protein
686. Concretions are due to accumulation of epithelial cells and mucus in

a. Zeis’s gland b. Meibomian gland
c. Moll's gland d. Henle’s gland
687. Pinguecula is due to the infi tration of
a. Hyaline b. Lipid
c. Calcium d. Fatty acids
688. Most common conjunctival cyst is due to

a. Dilatation of lymph spaces
b. Implanatation cyst
c. Retention cyst
d. Hydatid cyst
689. Most common conjunctive cyst is due to

a. Dilatation of lymph spaces
c. Implanation cyst
d. Hydatid cyst
690. The association of keratoconjunctivitis sicca with rheumatoid arthritis is

a. Reiter’s syndrome
b. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
d. Mikulicz’s syndrome
691. The treatment of angular conjunctivitis is

a. Oxytetracycline ointment b. Zinc Oxide
c. Both d. None
298

692. Biateral fat-like nodular area on nasal side is described as
a. Pinguecula b. Pterygium
c. Phlycten d. Pemphigoid
693. Dryness of eye is seen in all EXCEPT

a. Vitamin A deficiency b. Trachoma stage IV
c. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca d. Homer’s syndrome
694. The following are the features of conjunctival concretions EXCEPT

a. Calcification b. Palpebral location
c. Age related d. Corneal abrasions
695. Deficiency of vitamin A can cause all EXCEPT

a. Xerosis b. Keratomalacia
c. Nightblindness d. Dermoid
696. Herbert’s pits are seen in

a. Trachoma b. herpetic conjunctivitis
c. Ophthalmia neonatorum d. Spring catarrh
697. Trantas nodules are seen in

a. Blepharoconjunctivitis b. Vernal conjunctivitis
c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d. Herpes keratitis
698. All is true about Sjogren’s syndrome EXCEPT

a. Occours in males b. Polyarthritis
c. Dryness of eyes d. Dryness of mouth
699. Most common cause of blindness in

a. Cataract b. Glaucoma
c. Trachoma d. Vitamin A deficiency
700. In a patient of stroke, dexamethasone is administered to

a. Increase intracranial
b. Reduce intracranial
c. Increased renal blood flow
d. Decreased renal blood flow
701. The nurse can best prevent foot drop for the bed rest client by the use of-
a. Traction b. Splint
c. Cradle d. Railings
702. In a lumbar puncture needle must be inserted into-

a. Subarachnoid space b. Sinuses
c. In bone d. Pia mater
703. Injury to which part of the brain is particularly likely to cause death?
a. Cerebellum b. Pons
c. Medulla d. Hypothalamus
299

704. Which one of the following antimicrobial drug is suitable for treatment of both
tuberculosis and leprosy?
a. Isoniazid b. Rifmpicin
c. P-aminosalicyclic acid d. Streptomycin
705. Metastasis is the proses by which-

a. Normal cell division
b. Cancerous cell spread through the blood or lymph
c. Cell divided into four daughter cells
d. None of them
706. What may cause a person ear to get hurt during take-off or landing of an aircraft?
a. stretching of the tympanic
b. Deamage of ossicles
c. Increase production of cerumen
d. Tear in tympanic membrane
707. Dysphagia refers to-

a. Difficulty in breathing b. Difficulty in Swallowing
c. Difficulty in speaking d. Difficulty in walking
708. Ammonia excretion by the kidney helps to maintain-

a. Osmotic pressure of the blood
b. Acid base balance of the body
c. Low bacterial level in the urine
d. Normal red blood cell production
709. Fever can causes which of the following problem-

a. Fluid loss b. Hypernatremia
c. Hyponatremia d. Hypokalemia
710. In a patient of stroke, dexamethasone is administered to

a. Edema b. Shock
c. Dehydration d. Hypervolemia
711. One of the most common complications of myocardial infraction is-

a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia
c. Cardiac enlargement d. Cardiac dysrhythmia
712. The function of Coronary is-

a. Carry blood from heart to lungs
b. Carry blod from heart to brain
c. Carry blood from aorta to myocardium
d. Supply blood to the endocardium
713. While caring for a client who has undergone cardiac catheterization, it is most
important that the nurse-
a. Provide for rest b. Administer oxygen
c. Check the ECG every 30 minute d. Check the pulse distal to the insertion site
300

714. Cholesterol is a substance that
a. May be controlled entirely by eliminating food sources
b. Is found in many foods, both plant and animal sources
c. All person would be better off without because it cause the disease process
d. Circulates in the blood, the level of which responds usually to dietary substitutions
of unsaturated fats for saturated fats
715. While a pacemaker catheter is being inserted, the clients heart rate drop
to 38. The drug the Physician would order is-
a. Atropine sulphate b. Digoxin
c. Lidocaine d. Procainamide
716. Which of the following is also known as lethal dysrhythmia?

a. Atrial fibrillation b. Sinus tachycardia
c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Second degree heart block
717. Orthostatic hypotension can be modified by-

a. Lying down for 30 minutes after taking medicine
b. Avoiding task that require high energy expenditure
c. Sitting on the edge of the bed a short time before arising
718. The children with cardiac problems who are awaiting corrective surgery are
placed on long term antibiotic prophylaxis. This is done to prevent-
a. Sub-actue bacterial endocarditis
b. Pericarditis
c. Myocarditis
d. Lower respiratory infection
719. In a client on rest, the pulmonary embolus can be prevented by-

a. Limiting the clients fluid intakes
b. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing
c. Using the knee cap when the client is in bed
d. Teaching the client to move the legs when in bed
720. To record central venous pressure

a. Supine position
b. Dorsal recumbent position
c. Side opposite to manometer
d. Fowlers position
721. A test for diagnosis of varicose vein is

a. Angiography b. Arteriography c. Trendlenburg test d. Rothra’s test
722. Following a atreptococcal infection, a disorser characterized by swollen joints,

fever and the possibility of endocarditis and death is-
a. Mumps b. Measles c. Rheumatic fever d. Rubella
723. Pacemaker serves the function normally performed by the

a. SANODE b. AVNODE
c. Bundle of his d.. None of then
301

724. When performing colostomy-irrigation the nurse inserts the catheter into the
stoma upto
a. 2 cm b. 5 cm
c. 10 cm d. 15 cm
725. While administering the enema the height of the container should be-
a. 15 cm b. 25 cm
c. 35 cm d. 45 cm
726. Intussusception is-

a. Telescoping of a proximal loop of bowel into a distal loop
b. Kinking of the bowel onto itself
c. Connective tissue compressing the bowel
d. Protrusion of an organ into another
727. Barium enemas serve to-

a. Illuminate the alimentary canal
b. Dye the alimentary tract and provide colour contrast
c. Given off visible light an illuminate the alimentary tract
d. Absorbs X-rays and thus given contrast to the soft tissues of the alimentary tract
728. In haemorrhoidectomy post-operative care should be given-

a. Administration of laxatives and stool softness
b. Administration of enemas to promote defecation
c. Dressing of area
d. Encouraging shower if needed
729. There are 8 essential amino acids. This means that-

a. These formed in the body
b. These formed in the body and essential for growth
c. These are not formed in the body and obtained from diet
d. These are essential for life
730.A readily form of energy stored in the liver by conversion of glucose to-
a. Starch b. Fatty acid
c. Glycogen d. Amino acid
731. Which of the following is essential for absorption of fat soluble vitamins in
intestine?
a. Bile salt b. HCL
c. Lipase d. Amylase
732. Abdominal discomfort by ingestion of milk may be the result of a genetic

deficiency of enzyme-
a. Lactase b. Maltase
c. Sucrose d. Amylase
733. A client who has had a colostomy should follow a diet that is-
a. As close to normal as possible b. Rich fat
c. Rich carb d. Rich protein
302

734. A client with ascites has been ordered paracentesis. Before the procedure the
nurse- should instruct the client to
a. Assume supine position
b. Assume lateral position
c. Empty the bladder
d. Remain NPO for 12 hrs
735. The visualization of the GI tract after a barium enema is made possible because-
a. Barium physically colours the intestinal walls
b. Barium has the x-ray transmitting properties
c. Barium chemical interact with electrolytes
d. Barium has the x-ray absorbing properties
736. The chief complaint in client with vincents angina is-

a. Bleeding oral ulceration b. Chest pain
c. Shortness of breath d. Left hand pain
737. Befor schenduling a client for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

(ERCP) the nurse should assess the client’s is-
a. Bilirubin level b. Serum glucose
c. Urine output d. Pulse
738. Assessment for sign of respiratory complication is important following

cholecystectomy, because the-
a. Incision in close proximity to the diaphragm
b. Length of urine required or surgery is too prolonged
c. Clients resistance is lowered because of bile blood
d. Blood stream is invaded by microorganism from the biliary duct
739. Fracture mandible is usually immobilized with wires. The life threatening
postoperative problem that can develop with the procedure is-
a. Diarrhoea b. Paralysis
c. Vomiting d. Infection
740. The dumping syndrome refers to-

a. Nausea due to full stomach
b. Rapid passage of osmotic fluid into the jejunum
c. Reflux of intestinal content into the oesophagus
d. Build-up of faeces and gas within the large intestine
741. Phosphor soda is

a. Saline b. Stimulant cathartic, classified
c. Emollient d. Bulk forming
742. Client with gastrectomy may develop pernicious anaemiabecause

a. Vitamin b-12 is only absorbed in stomach
b. The hemopoitic factor is secreted in the stomach
c. The parietal cell of the gastric mucosa secrete intrinsic factor
d. Chief cell in the stomach secret intrinsic factor
303

743. Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of-
a. Prothrombin b. Cholecystokinin
c. Oxytocin d. Prolactin
744. Acute appendicitis is a condition associated with-

a. Compromised circulation of the appendix
b. Infection of the bowel
c. Infection of mouth
d. Hypertension and resultant oedema
745. The main role of liver in relation to fat metabolism is to-

a. Store fats for energy reserve
b. Convert fat to lipoprotein for transport out into body
c. Produce fatty acid
d. Increase fat absorption
746. The term saturated and unsaturated fatty acid relates to degree of-
a. Colour b. Taste
c. Diestibility d. Density
747. The Hormone secretin and pancreozymin are secreted by-

a. Duodenum b. Jejunum
c. Appendix d. Liver
748. The term that refers to lack of interest in food is-

a. Anorexia b. Dysphagia
c. Polyphagia d. Dyspepsia
749. There is an increased risk of developing cancer of the tongue in a patient with
history of-
a. Heavy consumption of alcohol
b. Frequently gum chewing
c. Poor dental habits
d. Nail biting
750. The major post transfusion viral hepatitis is-

a. Hepatitis D b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis A
751. Vitamins are administered parenteral for clients with an inflamed intestine
because-
a. Intestinal absorption may be inadequate
b. Rapidly absorbed
c. In Tolerate orally
d. Decrease colon irritability
752. Which position is commonly used in sigmoidoscopy?

a. Genu-pectoral b.. It lateral
c. Prone d. Tredlenburg
304

753. One of the main sources of carotene is-
a. Leafy greens b. Pomegranate
c. Potato d. Oranges
754. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes the following-

a. Limiting hepatotoxic drug therapy
b. Screening of blood donors
c. Avoid fatty diets
d. Avoid milk in diet
755. Before ligation of haemorrhoids the diet advice would be-

a. High protein diet b. High fat diet
c. Low reidue diet d. High calorie diet
756. At the time of receiving enema, the client should be placed in-
a. Lt. Lateral position b. Rt. Lateral position
c. Knee chest position d. Lithotomy position
757. The most important method of preventing amoebic dysentery is-
a. Pesticides control b. Rat control
c. Sewage disposal d. Tick control
758. Haemorrhoids result from-

a. Constipation b. Diarrhoea
c. Exercise d. High calorie diet
759. One of the main functions of bile is-

a. Fat emulsification
b. Protein emulsification
c. Help in synthesize vitamin
d. Carbohydrate digestion
760. The nurse should administer a nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the
hazards of-
a. Flatulence b. Regurgitation c. Distension d. Diarrhoea
761. The breakdown of triglyceride molecules yields which of the following-

a. Amino acid b. Fatty acid
c. Urea nitrogen d. Simple sugar
762. Development of obstructive jaundice is evidenced by-

a. Inadequate absorption of fat soluble vitamin A
b. Light amber urine, dark brown stool and yellow skin
c. Dark coloured urine, clay coloured stool and itchy skin
d. Straw coloured urine, putty coloured stool, and yellow selera
763. Ingestion of fatty foods cause discomfort in client with cholilithiasis, because-
a. Fats are hard to digest
b. Bile flow in the intestine is obstructed
c. Not formation of bile
d. None of them
305

764. The gavage the inserted the client should be placed in-
a. High fowler’s position b. Semi fowlers position
c. Supine position d. Sims position
765. While caring for a client with hepatitis A the nurse should take special precaution
to-
a. Use gloves when removing the client bed pan
b. Wear mask and gown before entering the room
c. Prevent droplet spread of infection
d. stay away while caring the patient
766. AMBU bag is used in the intensive care unit primarily when-
.a. A respiratory arrest occur
b. A client is in ventricular fibrillation
c. The respiratory output must br monitored
d. A Surgical incision with copious drainage is present
767. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs by-
a. Diffusions b. Osmosis
c. Active transport d. Both osmosis and diffusion
768. Which of the following nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for the client of
pneumonia?
a. Impaired gas exchange
b. Altered oral muscus membrane
c. Altered nutrition less than body requirement
d. Activity intolerance
769. The most critical factor in the immediate care of an infant after repair of clieft lip
would be-
a. Prevention of vomiting
b. Maintenance of airway
c. Administering parenteral fluids
d. Administering of medication to reduce oral secretion
770. Under normal physiological condition, the respiratory centre is stimulated by-
a. Calcium ion b. Carbon dioxide
c. Oxygen d. Lactic acid
771. The most reliable index to determine the respiratory status of a client is to-
a. Observe the chest rising and falling
b. observe the skin colour
c. Listen and feel the air movement
d. Observe the tongue colour
772. In a client with atelectasis what would be expected-

a. Slow, deep respiration b. Diminished respiration
c. A dry, productive cough d. Fast, short respiration
306

773. Which of the following symptoms should be referres to the pulmonary clinic for
suspected tuberculosis?
a. Chest pain, increased cough, and weight gain
b. Haemoptysis, increased cough, and weight gain
c. Nausea, vomiting and weight loss
d. Haemoptysis, increased cough and night sweat
774. Choanal atresia is an anomaly located in the –

.a. Anal area b. Nasopharynx c. Intestinal tract d. Pharynx and larynx
775. Which bacteria cause the whooping cough?

a. Mycobacterium b. Corynobacterium pertissis
c. Bordetella pertussis d. Salmonella typhi
776.Thest physiotheraphy is primarily done to-

a. Mobilizing secretion b. Dialate the bronchiole
c. Expand the chest d. Provide humidification
777. Which position gives a maximum air exchange?

a. Supine position b. Orthopeneic position
c. High fowlers position d. Semi fowlers position
778. Complication associated with tracheostomy tube insertion includes-

a. Pneumonitis b. Respiratory distress
c. Pneumothorax d. Laaryngeal nerve damage
779. A Cataract is-

a. An opticity of the lens b. A band in the lens
c. Degeneration of the lens d. A crystallization of the pupil
780. The contraction of the ciliary muscles-

a. Close the eye lids b. Causes the pupil to dilate
c. Focuses the lens on near object d. Brings about convergence of both eyes
781. The treatment of choice for malignant melanoma of the eyes is-
a. Radiation b. Encleation
c. Cryosurgery d. Chemotherapy
782. Physiologically the function of the middle ear is to-©
a. Maintain balance
b. Translate sound waves into nerve impulse
c. Amplify the energy of sound waves entering the ear
d. Communication with the throat via the Eustachian tube
783. In Menieres disease what drug nurse expect from the physician-
a. Vasodiator b. Vasoconstrictor
c. An uretic d. Diuretic
784. The most important symptoms in cataract would be-

a. Loss of vision b. Farsightedness
c. No vision in light d. Blurred and hazy vision
307

785. The most common site of cancer in female is-
a. Vagina b. Cervix
c. Fallopian tube d. Fundus
786. After a mastectomy what instruction should be given by nurse to patient?

a. How to perform a breast self-examination
b. Follow up visits with a physical therapist
c. Referral to reach for recovery group
d. Return to physician for monthly breast self-examination
787. Timolol melate (deta adrenergic blocker) help in control glaucoma by-
a. Dilate the pupil
b. Constrict the pupil
c. Reducing aqueous humour formation
d. Increasing aqueous humour formation
788. Instillation of drug ineye is known as-

a. Topical b. Injection c. Inunction d. Insufflation
789. The lifestyle factor of a patient with colorectal cancer includes-

a. A low protein intake b. A high carbohydrate
c. A high fat, low fibre diet d. A diet low in vitamin C
790. The most frequently occurring type of brine tumour is?

a. Glioma b. Melanoma c. Willm’s tumor d. Adenoma
791. Asthma is caused due to-

a. Spasm in bronchial muscle b. Spasm in chest wall
c. Spasm in cardiac muscle d. None of them
792. Lungs have numerous alveoli for-

a. Increasing surface area for gaseous diffusion
b. Increased volume of inspired air
c. Keeping lung in proper shape
d. No specific reason
793. Exchange of respiratory gaseous 02 and CO2 take place through respiratory
surface in the form of
a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Reverse osmosis d. Active transport
794. The major chemical compound found in human kidney stones is-
a. Calcium Sulphate b. Calcium oxalate
c. Calcium Carbonate d. Calcium oxide
795. Urea is formed in liver cell from-

a. Ammonia and nitrogen
b. Ammonia and carbon dioxide
c. Ammonia, carbon dioxide and aspartic acid
d. Ammonia and carbon mono oxide
308

796. Which of the following hormone is secreted by Uterus for the implantation of
fertilize ova?
a. Oestrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Prolac tin
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin
797. Surgical procedure in which a small portion of sperm duct is removed and cut
end is ligated in male is called-
a. Vasectomy b. Tubecotomy
c. Hysterectomy d. Laparotomy
798. Which one of the following is smallest gland of the body?

a. Pituitary b. Thymus
c. Adrenal d. Pancreas
799. Myxoedema is disorder produced due to hyper secretion of-

a. Thyroid b. Pancreas
c. Renal d. Cowper
800. Which one of the following is also known as pacemaker of endocrine gland?
a. Thyroxin b. Insulin
c. Glucagon d. Adrenalin
801. Pineal gland is situated in-

a. Brain b. Kidney
c. Liver d. Stomach
802. Which one of the gland disappears during old age?

a. Pituitary b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal d. Thymus
803. Production o0f which one of the following is a function of liver-

a. Insulin b. Urea c. Glucagon d. Ptylin
804. The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as-
a. Phagocytosis b. Apoptosis
c. Suicidal bag d. Necrosis
805. Suicidal bag of cell is-

a. Lysosome b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus d. Golgi apparatus
309

806. The enzyme found in lysosome is –
a. Dilytic enzyme
b. Hydrolytic enzyme
c. Hydrochloric enzyme
d. None of them
807. In old age skin becomes wrinkled due to-

a. Reduce elasticity of muscles
b. Reduced elasticity of epidermis
c. Due to increase pigmentation
d. Due to low blood supply
808. Life span of WBC is approximately-

a. 48 hours b. 120 days
c. 80 days d. 24 hours
809. Which skin cancer have poor prognosis because of its metastasis is so rapid
a. Basal cell epithelioma
b. Squamous cell epithelioma
c. Malignant melanoma
d. Sebaceous cyts
810. Tinnitus is a symptom that is-

a. Objective b. Functional
c. Prodromal d. Subjective
811. If glaucoma is left untreated, its lead to

a. Blindness b. Miopia
c. Metropia d. Cataract
812. When irrigating an indwelling urinary catheter the nurse should

a. Obtain and use sterile equipment
b. Ensure for return flow
c. Use warm saline for irrigating
d. Use cold saline for irrigating
813. Infection from retention catheter can best be prevented by-

a. irrigating the catheter once daily
b. Change the catheter daily
c. Encouraging adequate fluid
d. Cleansing around the meatus periodically
814. The women are most susceptible to urinary tract infections, because of
a. The length of urethra b. Length of vagina
c. Inadequate fluid intake d. Poor hygiene
815. The removal of a stone3 from urinary bladder is-

a. Cystotomy b. Cholilithotomy
c. Cholecystectomy d. Cystolithectomy
310

816. In a renal calculi of calcium phosphate composition the diet therapist would
prefer-
a. Low calcium and low phosphorus diet
b. High calcium and high phosphorus diet
c. Low calcium and low sodium diet
d. High calcium and high phosphorus diet
817. In what condition haemodialysis is needed for chronic renal failure patient-
a. Acidosis b. Alkolis
c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperkalemia
818. In actue renal failure the patient become confused and irritable due to-
a. Hyponatremia b. Hypernatremia
c. An elevated BUN d. Hyperkalaemia
819. Predisposing condition of renal calculi formation is-

a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Dehydration and immobility
c. Overhydrating
820. A pig skin graft applied to burned area is known as-

a. An autograft b. An xenograft
c. An allograft d. An homograft
821. The confirm diagnosis of arthritis is–

a. Antinuclear antibody b. Alkaline phosphate
c. Uric acid d. Pancreeatic lipase
822. A client’s condition following cardiac catheterization is evaluated by palpating

the pulse-
a. In all extremities b. At the insertion site
c. Distal to the catheter insertion d. Above the catheter insertion
823. Pacemaker serves the function of-

a. AV node b. SA node
c. Bundle of his d. Accelerator nerve to the heart
824. The nurse explains that patent ductus arteriosus is-

a. A narrowing of the pulmonary artery
b. An enlarge aorta and pulmonary artery
c. Connection \between the pulmonary artery and the aorta
d. An abdominal opening between the right and left
825. The nurse is obtaining data from a client with thromoangitis obliterans (Burger’s
disease)- The nurse would except the client to demonstrate or report
a. Easy fatigue of extremities, continuous cladication
b. General blaudication of skin and intermittent caludication
c. Intermittent claudication, burning pain after exposure to cold
d. Burning pain precipitated by cold exposure fatigue, blanching of skin
311

826. Myoglobin contains the metal
a. Copper b. Silver
c. Iron d. Nickel
827. Normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is

a. 37 b. 310
c. 98 d. 280
828. By EEC we can observe the activity of –

a. Brain b. Heart
c. Kidney d. Muscles
829. In human body, which one of the following hormones regulates blood calcium
and phosphate?
a. Pituitary hormone b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Growth hormone d. Adrenal hormone
830. Which one of the following is considered as the easily digestible sourse of
protein?
a. Egg albumin b. Soyabean
c. Fish d. Gall bladder
831. Which one of the following organs of the human body break down the old red
blood cells and stoted iron from them?
a. Spleen b. Liver
c. Pancreas d. Gall bladder
832. A surge of which hormone stimulates ovulation in females-
a. Oestrogen b. Lteinizing hormone
c. Progesterone d. Oxytocin
833. Which one of the following enzyme is found in human saliva?

a. Ptylin b. Renin
c. Pepsin d. Ergetin
834. Blood is an-
a. Connective tissue b. Epithelial tissue
c. Dense tissue d. None of them
835. An effective first aid treatment for alkaline burn after flusing the water is-
a. A heavy acid b. A week acid
c. Base solution d. None of them
836. Which of the following assessment finding is most indicative of systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE)?
a. An oval rashes b. Butter fly rashes
c. Inflamed small artery d. Muscle degeneration
837. The most likely joint affected in osteoarthritis is?

a. Cervical joint b. Ankle joint
c. Hip and knee joint d. Finger joints
312

838. The treatment of psoriasis is?
a. Topical application of antifungal cream
b. Topical application of steroids
c. Avoiding exposure of sun
d. Potassium permanganate bath
839. The client with osteoporosis should be encouraged to increase the intake of-
a. Turnip green b. Red meat
c. White meat d. Multigrain
840. Intramedullary nailing is used in the treatment of-

a. Slipped epiphysis of the femur
b. Fracture of the shaft of the femur
c. Fracture o the neck of the femur
d. Interochanteric fracture of the femur
841. An effective pain reliever for client with rheumatoid arthritis is?
a. Xanax 0.5 mg tds b. Aspirin 0.6 qid
c. Codeine 30mg qid d. Meperidine 30 mg qid
842. The nurse explains the patient about an action of hydrocortisone injection in
knee joint is to-
a. Relieve pain
b. Relieve in shortening of joint
c. Relieve inflammation
d. Prevent alkalosis of joint
843. The drug which acute attack of goutis?

a. Meperidine b. Hydrocortisone
c. Aspirin d. Coichicine
844. Systemic lupus erthematosus is a disease related to which part of the human
body?
a. Skin b. Connective tissue
c. Bones d. Ears
845. When evaluating fluid loss resulting from burns, the best blood test is?
a. BUN b. Haematocrit
c. Haemoglobin d. Blood urea
846. Allupurinol Is use to treat gout because-

a. It increase joint motility
b. It decrease joint motility
c. Decrease uric acid production
d. It diminish the action of uric acid
847. In a client of a cerebral vascular accident the nurse should change the client
position in every-
a. 1 hour b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours d. 4Hours
313

848. An increased intracranial pressure of head injury patient is demonstrated by-
a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia
c. A bulging d. Hyper altertness
849. When caring for a client admitted with head injury, the nurse should assess for-
a. Decrease carotid pulse
b. Bleeding from the oral cavity
c. Altered leel of consciousness
d. Absence of deep tendon reflexes
850. Neostigmine is prescribed for a client with myasthenia gravis. This drug act by-
a. Stimulating the cerebral cortex
b. Blocking the action of cholinesterase
c. Blocking the action of cholinesterase
c. Replacing deficient neurotransmitters
d. Accelerating transmission along nerral sheath
851. An over exercised muscle that has an insufficient oxygen supply may become
sore from a build-up of –
a. Acetone b. Acetate c. Linoleic acid d. Lactic acid
852. Primary responsible of the nurse during generalized motor seizure in a client is-
a. Determine if an aura was experienced
b. Inserting a plastic airway between the teeth
c. Clearing the immediate environment for safety
d. Administering the prescribe anticonvulsant
853. Use of crutch field tongs in a concurrent cervical injury patient is useful to-
a. Hyperextend the verbral column b. Hypo extend the verbral column
c. Hypo flexed the vertebral column d. None of them
854. A client with quadriplegia tells the nurse that he is experiencing an episode of
autonomic is to-
a. Ask him what he thinks has precipitated this episode
b. Assess his blood pressure and pules
c. Elevate his head as high as possible
d. Assist him in emptying his bladder
855. Internal organ such as the bladder and oesophagus, are not directly under the
control of-
a. Autonomic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Spinal cord
856. Inparkinson’s disease the use of levodopa is to

a. Improve rnyelination of neurons
b. Decrease myelination of neuron
c. Replace the acetylcholine in brain
d. Replace the dopamine in the brain cell
314

857. Intractable pain in the upper torso can be relieved by a procedure called?
a. Craniotomy b. Rhizotomy
c. Cordotomy d. Rhinotomy
858. The portal of entry for bacteria that produce meningitis is via the-
a. Gastrointesttinal tract b. Genitourinary tract
c. Respiratory tract d. Sinuses
859. Cold applications for short periods of time produce-

a. Peripheral constriction b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Local anaesthesia d. None of them
860. A patient complains of ringing sensation in the ear after trauma, Which of the
following nerves is likely to be affected?
a. Temporal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. 6th cranial abducent nerve
d. 8th cranial vestibule-cochlear nerved
861. Following spinal cord injury the client should be encouraged to drink fluids
primarily to prevent-
a. Dehydration
b. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
d. Urinary tract infection
862. Soon after the admission of a client to the hospital with head injuries, the
temperature rises to 102.5 degreen. This suggests injury to the
a. Medulla oblongata b. Pons
c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus
863. What is optic chaisma?
a. Is a crossing of some veins in heart
b. Is a crossing of some optic nerves in the cranial cavity
d. Eye ball cavity
864. The nurse should carefully assess the newborn with Down syndrome for-
a. Posterior fontanel b. Anterior fontanel
b. Heart sound d. Abdominal circumference
865. The realy centre for sensory impulses is the

a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus
c. Pons d. Cerebellum
866. Hemiplegia refers to-

a. Paralysis of the one side of the body b. Paralysis of the both side of the body
c. Paralysis of the upper extremities d. Paralysis of the lower extremities
867. A child sitting on a chair in a playroom beings a tonic-clotion seizure with a

clenched jaw. Nurse’s best initial action would be to-
a. Attempt to open the jaw b. Tightly holding the child
c. Call the doctor d. Lower the child to the floor
315

868. Smallest human viruses that infect the motor cell of the anterior horn of the
spinal cord is-
a. Poliomyelitis b. Varicella zoster
c. Anthrax d. Rubella
869. Maintaining fluid balance in the body in the body is performed mainly by the-
a. Kidney b. Pancreas
c. Appendix d. Heart
870. After spinal anaesthesia, the position that should be given to patient is-
a. Semi fowlers b. Left lateral
c. Slight trendelenburg’s d. None of them
871. The client with gastric lavage or prolonged vomiting must be assessed for-
a. Acidosis
b. Alkalosis
c. Loss of oxygen from the blood
d. Loss of the osmotic pressure from the blood
872. A normal PH of arterial blood is

a. 7.0 b. 7.30
c. 7.42 d. 750
873. The most imnt electrolyte present in intracellular fluid is-

a. Potassium b. Sodium
c. Calcium d. Chloride
874. the percentage of water in the average adult human body is

a. 70% b. 60%
c. 40% d. 20%
875. The receptor for the regulation of body water through osmotic pressure are
located in the?
a. Blood b. Thymus gland
c. Kidney d. Hypothalamus
876. A patient is instructed to take a low sodium diet, the nurse should encourage the
client to include________ in diet
a. Banana shake b. Carrots
c. Tomato juice d. Orange juice
877. Which cell is the first line of defence, against bacterial infection working primarily
through phagocytosis?
a. Monocytes b. Basophils
c. Eosinophil’s d. Neutrophils
878. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes-

a. Preventing constipation
b. Avoid high fatty diet
c. Limiting the uses of hepatotoxixity medication
d. Screening of blood donor
316

879. A client with a spinal cord injury has paraplegia. One major problem will be
experienced by the client be-
a. Bladder control b. Food intake
c. Water intake d. Quadriceps setting
880. Rhizotomy refers to-

a. Resection of posterior spinal nerve root
b. Resection of anterior spinal nerve root
c. Removal of ehinus membrance
d. None of them
881. The best blood tset to assess the fluid loss from the body-
a. Haemoglobin test b. Haematocrit test
c. Liver function test d. Hormonal assay
882. Systemic lupus erythromatus is a disorder of-

a. Dedenerative disorder
b. Infectious disorder
c. Connective tissue disorder
d. Endocrinal disorder
883. Sarcoma refers to-

a. Malignant tumour of kidney
b. Malignant tumour of bone
c. Malignant tumour of connective tissue
d. Malignant tumour of skin
884. Sclerderma is-

a. Digestive disorder b. Autoimmune disorder
c. Haematological disorder d. Degenerative disorder
885. A nurse suggests which laboratory diagnosis for the patient of a arthritis-
a. Haematocrit b. Kidney function test
c. Antinuclear body test d. X-ray
886. A patient of renal dailure complain of muscle twitching and finger numbness, the
cause of this-
a. Ca++ depletion b. Na+ retention
c. K-‘- retention d. H+ retention
887. Female are more prone for cystitis because of-

a. Proximity of urethra and anus
b. Short length of urethra
c. Poor hygiene
d. Both a and b
888. The main indication to start the haemodialysis for the patient of chronic renal
failure is-
a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia
317

889. The removal of urinary bladder stone by surgery is called?
a. Chloilithotomy b. Nephrolithotomy
c. cystolithotomy d. Ureterolithotomy
890. What is the main complication of mumps in male?

a. Bleeding Disorder b. Infertility
c. Nausea and vomiting d. Haematuria
891. Which position is suitable for the patient of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
a. Fowlers position b. Trendlenburg position
c. Supine position d. Genu pectoral position
892. Which one of the following is a sex linked disease?

a. Colour blindness b. Leukaemia
c. Jaundice d. Polio
893. A colour blind person cannot distinguish-

a. Black and white b. Red and green
c. Blue and yellow d. Green and black
894. For a colour blind person red colours appear as-

a. Green b. Blue
c. White d. Black
895. Haemophilia is due to-
a. Dominant autosomal genes
b. Recessive autosomal genes
c. Recessive sex linked genes
d. Dominant sex linked genes
896. Which medicine is used to prevent gastro intestinal bleeding-

a. Aspirin b. Pitressin
c. Coumadin d. Dicyclomine
897. The cause of paralytic ilius is-

a. Viral infection b. Impaired nerve function
c. Bacterial infection d. Trauma
898. Which position is used for the sigmoidoscopy?

a. Genu pectoral position b. Prone position
c. Supine position d. Trendelenburg position
899. A nurse shouid prescrible the diet for a patient of syndrome. It refers to-
a. High fatty diet b. High fibre diet
c. Low residue diet d. High carb diet
900. A patient is diagnosed as a case of dumping syndrome. It refers to-

a. excess movement of bowel
b. Abnormal movement of bowel
c. Rapid passage of undigested food into jejunum
d. None of them
318

901. The symptoms of Vincent angina is-
a. Bleeding gums b. Pain on talking
c. Pain in swallowing d. All of the above
902. The tube which is used to prevent bleeding esophageal varices is-
a. Ryles tube
b. Gastric tube
c. Blankmore sangstaken tube
d. Lavage tube
903. What is the height of the enema can during the procedure of enema?
a. 40 cm b. 45 cm
c. 60 cm d. 75 cm
904. VoJvulus means?

a. Kinking of bowel into itself
b. Extension of bowel
c. Abnormal band in bowel
d. Obstruction in bowel
905. A test which is used for the diagnosis of varicose vein is-
a. Haemogram b. Trendelenburg’s test
c. Mantoux test d. Density test
906. A client is admitted in hospital and is diagnosed as having patent ductus

arteriosus, which means?
a. A connection between pulmonary and aorta
b. A septal defect
d. A connectionbetween coronary and pulmonary artery
d. None of them
907. A patient’s blood pressure is found very low following a spinal anaesthesia. This
may be because spinal anaesthesia-
a. Constrict blood vessels b. Dilate blood vessels
c. Increase urine output d. Decrease urine output
908. Homan’s sign is the positive sign of-

a. Thrombophebitis b. Myocardial infraction
c. Varicose vein d. Myocarditis
909. In brain, centre of pleasantness is situated

a. Cerebrum b. Pons
c. Cerebellum d. Thalamus
910. ELISA refer to-

a. Enzyme linked immune sorbent assay
b. Enzyme linked immune system area
c. Enzyme linked immune surface area
d. Enzyme linked immunity seal enzyme
319

911. What position should be given after spinal anaesthesia?
a. Supine b. Left lateral
c. Right lateral d. Slight trendelenburg’s position
912. The commonest nosocomial infection is caused in-

a. By Pneumococci
b.By clostridium difficile
c. By corynebacterium diptheriae
d. By M.Laprae
913. Acute salpingitis is the normal complication of-

a. Syphilis b. Genital warts
c. Gonorrhoea d. Cystitis
914. The surgery which is used for the treatment of Meniere’s disease-
a. Labyrithectomy b. Tympanoplasty
c. Myringoplasy d. Tympenoctomy
915. The drug which is used for the treatment of Meniere’s disease –
a. Diuretic b. Antihypertensive
c. Mydriatics d. Tympenoctomy
916. Timolol control the glaucoma as-

a.It reduces aqueous humor formation
b. Increase aqueous humor formation
c. It increase vitreous humor formation
d. It decrease vitreous humor formation
917. The main symptom of cataract is?

a. Blurred vision b. pain in eye
c. Excess secretion of tear d. Redness of eye
918. What is the best way to remove the cerumen from ear?
a. Irrigating ear canal b. Using aural suction
c. Insert a cotton stick d. By aural curette
919.Ossiculoplasty refers to-

a. Reconstruction of tympanic membrane
b. Reconstruction of middle year bones
c. Removing of tympanic membrance
d. Reconstruction of cochlea
920. The main classical traid features of Meniere’s disease is?

a. Headache, tinnitus, vertigo
b. Hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo
c. Hair loss, tinnitus, vertigo
d. Headache, tinnitus, vitiligo
320

921. Nitro glycerine is used for the patient of angina, one of the main side effect of
using this drug is-
a. Headache b. Hypotension
c. Hypertension d. Dyspnoea
922. Following haemorrhoidectomy, the position that should be given to the patient is-
a. Side lying b. Fowler’s
c. Knee chest d. Supine
923. The common symptoms which help in to diagnose the diabetes is-
a. Polydipsia b. Polyphagia
c. Polyuria d. All of the above
924. The administration of vasopressin for a patient of diabetes insipidus is done

because-
a. It increase intracranial pressure
b. It decrease intracranial pressure
c. It increase blood pressure
d. It decrease blood pressure
925. The main symptoms of Parkinson disease is-

a. High pitch volume
b. Low pitch monotonous volume
c. Increase appetite
d. Flexion of neck
926. Aspirin is used for the patient of angina, because of-

a. It cause vasodilation
b. It dose thrombolysis
c. It prevent platelet aggregation
d. All of the above
927. In a patient of cholecystitis, which colour of urine is most likely?

a. Pale-yellow b. Amber
c. Yellow orange d. Brisk red
928. The angina pectoris is a sign of-

a. Myocardial infarction b. Myocardial ischemia
c. Coronary thrombosis d. Mural insufficiency
929. The client with peripheral vascular disease should stop amoking. Because
nicotine
a. Constrict the superficial vessels b. Constrict the peripheral vessels
c. Dilate the superficial vessels c. Dilate the peripheral vessels
930. The P-R interval in an ECG represents the time it takes for the-
a. Impulse to begin atrial contraction
b. Impulse to transverse to the AV node
c. SA node to discharge impules or begin atrial depolarization
d. Impulse to travel to the ventricles
321

931. The best way to limit the ankle oedema is?
a. Fluid restriction b. Exercise
c. Elevating the legs d. Elevate the head
932. During a cardiac arrest, the nurse must keep in mind the-
a. Time the client is anoxic
b. Emergency medication available
c. Pulse of client before arrest
d. Temperature of the client
933. Which cardiac enzyme is expected to rise within 3-8 hours of MI?
a. LDH-1 (lactic dehydrogenase)
b. LDH-2
c. LDH
d. Creative kinase (Ck)
934. Sign that would indicate thrombophlebitis

a. Intermittent claudication
b. Pitting oedema of the lower extremities
c. Severe pain on extension of extremities
d. Localized warmth and tenderness of the legs
935. The nurse working in an ER is concerned when a client continues to bleed from
severe laceration even after applying direct pressure. The next action is to-
a. Apply ice to lower the body temperature
b. Monitor closely for sign of shock
c. Elevate the upper extremities and apply blankets to raise body temperature
d. Maintain a patient airway and prevent vomiting
936. The degree of oedema in an extremity can be best assessed by-

a. Weighing the client b. Checking the pitting
c. Measuring the affected area d. Observing intake and output
937. The laboratory test that would confirm a diagnosis of myocardial infection
include
a. LDH,CK- MB,and AST b. Serum calcium and APPT
c. Sedimentation rate, and ALT d. Paul-bunnell, and serum potassium
938. Among the last signs of heart failure in infants and children is
a. Orthopnea b. Tachycardia
c. Tachycardia d. Peripheral oedem
939. In a normal infant there are-

a. Two vessels one vein and one artery
b. Three vesels; two veins and one artery
c. Three vessels; one vein and two arteries
d. Four vessels; two vein and two arteries
322

940. Cardio version si most affective when the client demonstrates-
a. Ventricular standstill
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Ventricular tachycardia
d. Premature ventricular beats
941. The normal range of CVP is?

a. 10-20 cm of H2O b. 5-10 cm of H2O
c. 15-30 cm of H2O d. 30-40 cm of H2O
942. Bradycardia refers to-

a. Heart rate<60 b. Heart rate<80
c. Heart rate<100 d. Heart rate<120
943. A positive kernings sign indicates-

a. Meningeal irritation b. Arthritis
c. Hepatitis d. Jaundice
944. In which space of spinal cord Lumber puncture needle is inserted-

a. Subarachanoid space b. Subpiamater
c. Epidural d. Subdural
945. Oxygen via nasal cannula is to be set at-

a. 2L b. 3L
c. 6L d. 8L
946. While performing cardiac compression on an adult client, chest is to be

depressed by?
a. 1.3 to 2 cm b. 2 to 2.5 cm
b. 2.5 to 5 cm d. 4 to 5 cm
947. In children with cardiac anomalies the most common finding is?
a. Mental retardation
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Family history of cardiac anomalies
d. Delayed physical growth
948. A client with right ventricular heart failure is expected to complain of?
a. Dyspnoea, oedema and fatigue
b. Vomiting and nausea
c. Feeling of distress when breathing
d. Vertigo and headache
949. The ckiebt who should get priority in nursing care is the one with?
a. A fracture patella b. Abdominal wound
c. Head injuries d. Ventricular fibrillation
323

MODEL QUESTIONS FOR SEMINAR -19
CHILD HEALTH NURSING
1. The rooting reflexes will disappear at

a. 10 Weeks b. 14 Weeks
c. 16 Weeks d. All the above
2. The average weight gain of the infant per week is

a. 140-200 gm b. 150 gm
c. 120 gm d. None
3. When the child develops Eye-Eye contact while taking

a. 7-9 weeks b. 7-9 months
c. At 9 months d. None
4. Emotion and personality in infant 0-1 year was explained by

a. Frued b. Symon
c. Erikson d. None
5. Form birth to 1 year of child develops sense for trust Vs mistrust according to
a. Erikson b. Freud
c. Symon d. None
6 Toilet training should be started at

c. 2 years d. None
7. The sense of autonomy Vs shame and doubt will develop at age of

c. 10 years d. 1-3 years
8. The industry vs inferiority develops at

a. 5-9 years b. 10 years
c. 1 years d. None
9. Hepatitis B vaccine gives protection against

a. Hemophelous influenza type B bacteria
b. Streptococci
c. Tuberculosis
d. None
10. Neonates and premature infants require a reduced dosage because of

a. Disease process
b. Infection
c. Decreased effective renal function
324

11. The paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by based on
a. Body surface area b. Disease condition
c. Both A&B d. None of the above
12. Clark’s rule for pediatric drug dose

a. Age in months X 13 years
b. Child weight pounds/150x adult dose
c. None
d. All the above
13. The following is the oral rehydration solution prepared at home

a. 5 teaspoon of sugar
b. Three, tiger-pinch of salt
c. 1 liter of boiled and cooled water
d. All the above
14. During the CPR for infant the rate and volume of breathing
a. 20 breaths/minute b. 6 breaths/minute
c. 20 breaths/2 minute d. None
15. The following is a example for inherited disease

a. Anemia b. Heart disease
c. Hemophilia d. None
16. The clotting factor that lack in the hemophilia

a. Factor VIII and IX b. Factor I and II
c. Factor II and III d. None
17. The following is the example of the common fracture

a. Longitudinal fracture b. Pathological fracture
c. Greenstic fracture d. None
18. The trisomy 21 is known as

a. Extrasomes b. Down syndrome
c. Nephrrotic syndrome d. None
19. The integrated child development service launched in

a. 1974 b. 1976
c. 1975 d. 1990
20. The term newborn refers

a. From birth to one year of age
b. From birth to one month of child
c. From birth to one week
21. The newborn loses following weight during first 10 days

a. 20% b. 19%
c. 30% d. 10%
325

22. 1 tea spoon of medicine is equal to
a. 10ml b. 15ml
c. 5ml d. 20ml
23. The type of restraint used during the examination of head and neck for an
infant is
a. Jacket restraint b. Mummy restraint
c. Clove hitch restraint d. All the above
24. Hypoxemia means

a. Decreased O2 in the blood
b. Increased O2 in the blood
c. Decreased CO2 in the blood
d. Increased CO2 in the blood
25. A normal baby says bata… mama… at

a. 2 years of age b. 10 years of age
c. 9 months of age d. 6 months of age
26. Assessment of newborn can be done with in

a. One day after birth b. Immediate after birth
c. At any time after birth d. None
27. The diet which should be provided for the anemic child
a. Peas, chicken, green vegetables
b. Rice, dal, chapatti
c. Milk, paneer, curd
d. Potato, milk, rice
28. The main symptom of celiac disease is

a. Enlarged liver b. Enlarged abdomen
c. enlarged head d. none of them
29. The non-surgical treatment of undescended testes includes

a. Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
b. Progesterone
c. Androgen
d. Corticosteriod
30. The tentative cause of pneumococcal meningitis is

a. Middle ear infection
b. Peritonitis
c. Orchitis
d. Nephritis
31. Which color of light used for treatment of neonatal jaundice?

a. Red light b. White light
c. Blue light d. Violet light
326

32. A test that is done on neonates to detect PKU is
a. Guthrie test b. Mentoux test
c. Phenistix test d. Tyrosine test
33. The common effect associated with downs syndrome is

a. Hydrocephalus b. Meningitis
c. Tetany d. Congenital heart defect
34. A child with congenital megacolon is admitted for surgical correction, the
enema should
a. Oil enema b. Soap water enema
c. Phosphate enema d. Isotonic saline enema
35. The bilirubin encephalopathy due to high concentration of indirect bilirubin on

brain and basal ganglia in the neonatal period is
a. Status epileptics b. Kernicterus
c. Pathological jaundice d. Physiological jaundice
36. Thalassemia is
a. Cooley’s anemia b. Aplastic anemia
c. Sickle cell anemia d. Megloblastic anemia
37. For the correction of club foot the splint used is

a. Thomas Splint b. Plain Splint
c. Dennis Brown Splint d. Straight Splint
38. Pertussis vaccine is contraindicated if the child has-

a. a history of convulsion b. a history of juvenile diabetes
c. a history of jaundice d. a history of tuberculosis
39. Passive immunity is transferred to neonate from mother as

a. IgG b. IgA
c. IgM d. IgE
40. A neonate shows yellow discolouration of the third day of life the nurse can
suspect it as
a. Pathological jaundice b. Bilirubin encephalopathy
c. Physiological jaundice d. None of them
41. Projectile vomiting is a characteristic feature of

a. Pyloric stenosis b. Intestinal perforation
c. Diverticulum’s d. Intestinal obstruction
42. The organism responsible for causing Chicken pox is

a. Varicella b. Herpes simplex
c. Giardia lamblia d. Heliocobector pylon
43. Strict bed rest is provided to a child with diphtheria because it

a. May prevent myocarditis b. Prevent lung collapse
c. May prevent joint stiffness d. Provides comfort
327

44. Congenital defect seen in new born due to the failure of esophagus to develop
as a continuous canal is a
a. Trachea esophageal fistula b. Diverticulum’s
c. Anal atresia d. Stomach ulcer
45. Autism can usually be diagnosed when the child is about

a. 1 month b. 2 month
46. Malrotation of colon is termed as

a. Diverticulum b. Colonic fistula
c. Anal ateresia d. Volvulus
47. A bile or faecal matter in vomiting indicates

a. Anal ateresia b. Intestinal perforation
c. Congenital megacolon d. Esophageal fistula
48. Absence of rectum is

a. Anal ateresia b. Rectal atresia
c. Anal fistula d. Phimosis
49. Tonsilectomy is contraindicated in children below 4 years because

a. It is a life threatening situation
b. Bleeding is not controlled
c. Tonsils are a part of the immune system
d. it’s not easy to remove
50. A condition in which a portion of lung or the whole lung fails to expand is
a. Emphysema b. Asthma
c. Atelelctasis d. Distress
51. The drug of choice in rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process is
a. Salicylates b. Storoids
c. Metroyl d. Diclofenac sodium
52. A defect characterized by an increase of free fluid in the cranial cavity is

a. Hyddrocephalus b. Microcephalus
c. Hydrocele d. Plurall effusion
53. A condition in which Spinal cord and cord membrane protrude through the
defect in the laminae of the veretebral column is
a. Spina bifida occulta b. Myelomeningocele
c. Spina bifida cystic d. Lordosis
54. Down syndrome is

a. Duplication of chromosome 21
b. Duplication of chromosome 17
c. Absence of two chromosomes
d. None of them
328

55. Inflammation of testes is called as
a. Bronchitis b. Orchitis
c. Cystitis d. Cholecystitis
56. Oral preparation of iron medication is administered between meals along with
fruit juices because
a. Vitamin C help for absorption of iron
b. It irritate the intestine
c. It forms acidity
d. It lowers the blood glucose
57. The most common form of childhood cancer is

a. Thalassemia b. Leukemia
c. Hodgkin’s disease d. Pagets disease
58. Liquid diet is advised for a child with otitis media because
a. Chewing difficulty b. Digestion problem
c. Maintain fluid balance d. None of them
59. A child with acute leukemia is on chemotherapy including prednisone-The side

effect of prednisone is
a. diarrhea b. Anorexia
c. Vomiting d. Mood changes
60. The earliest clinical sign in idiopathic reparatory distress syndrome in a young
infant if usually
a. Sternal and subcostal retraction
b. Cyanosis
c. Grunting
d. Rapid respiration
61. The 3c’s of tracheosephageal fistula are

a. Coughing, chocking, cyanosis b. cyanosis, caraditis, chorea
c. coughing, chocking, carditis d. Carditis, chorea, cyanosis
62. Ribbon like or pellet like stool is the characteristic of

a. Pyloric stenosis b. Megacolon
c. Volvulus d. Anal atresia
63. The most serious complication of meningitis in young children is

a. Peripheral circulatory collapse b. Epilepsy
c. Growth retardation d. Communicating hydrocephalus
64. A viral disease that begins with respiratory inflammation and skin rash and
may result in grave complication is
a. Rubella b. Rubeola
c. Small pox d. typhoid
329

65. A foul smellingfrothy stool in cystic fibrosis result from the presence of large
amount of
a. Phenylalanine b. Undigested fat
c. Undigestesd CHO d.
66. Neonatal herpes simplex infection-identify false statement

a. Cesarean section is mandatory if there is history of prior maternal genital
infection
b. Repeated cervical cultures during pregnancy area not useful
c. Affected infant should be isolated
d. Affected neonate should receive acyclovir
e. Steroids may exacerbate HSV infection
67. A baby is born with a midline mass at the back in the lower lumbar region. It is
covered completely with skin.
The most likely diagnosis is
a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele
c. Teratoma d. Dermal cyst
e. Lipoma
68. Which of the following organisms(s) has been recovered from the cervical
cultures of pregnant women and implicated as a possible cause of chorioamnionitis
and prematurity?
a. Group B streptococci b. E.coli
c. Listeria d. Ureaplasma urealyticum
e. Candida albicans
69. Which of the following statements is true of alpha fetoprotein (AFP)?

a. Its concentration in amniotic fluid is not increased in fetal intestinal atresia
b. In amniotic fluid, its concentration is maximum at 22-24 weeks gestationo
c. In maternal serum its maximum concentration is at 26 weeks gestation
d. Main site of synthesis of AFP is the fetal spinal cord
e. AFP levels are normal in closed meningocele
70. Which of the following may not resolve spontaneously?

a. Eosinophillic rash (erythema toxicum)
b. Portwine stains
c. Capillary hemangioma
d. Cephalhematoma
e. Vaginal tag
71. Auditory brainstem evoked responses should be tested in the following babies
except
a. Neonatal seizures
b. Aminoglycoside therapy
c. Hyperbilirubinema
d. Infant of a mother with thyrotoxicosis
e. Usher syndrome
330

72. Which of the following conditions is associated with neonatal hypoglycemia?
a. Nesidioblastosis
b. Congenital hypothyroidism
c. Infant of a mother with thyrotoxicosis
d. Lucy Driscoll syndrome
e. a and d
73. Hypertrophy and hyperplasis of islets of Langerhan have been found in infacts
of diabetic mothers and also in
a. Erythroblatosis fetalis b. Congenital toxoplasmosis
c. Down’s syndrome d. SGA babies
e. Adrenogenital syndrome
74. A neonate with an Apgar score of 6 and 9 at 1 an 5 minutes respectively is seen

to have petechiae over trunk during the first day of life. What is the likely diagnosis?
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. TORCH
d. Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
e. Congenital hemophilia
75. Total body water (% of body weight) in a newborn is

a. 50–55% b. 55–60%
c. 60–65% d. 65–70%
e. 70–75%
76. Which of the following is the best method for monitoring oxygen therapy in a
30-week gestation baby with arterial blood pressure of 30/18 mm Hg
a. Fi02
b. TcP02
c. Pulse-oxymetry (i.e. oxygen saturation
d. Pa02
e. Capillary blood po2
77. All of the following are true in pyloric stenosis except

a. Incidence in males is higher than in females
b. Onset is generally late in the first month of life
c. Vornitus is bile-stained
d. Appetite is good
e. Jaundice occurs in association
78. The best rapid specific confirmation of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV)

inflection
a. Measuring total 1gM in cord sera
b. Use of specific 1gM antibodies in cord sera
c. Demon
331

79. The single most common eye manifestation of congenital rubella is
a. Retinopathy b. Cataracts
c. Glaucoma d. Microphthalmia
e. Coloboma of eyelids
80. Grunting respiration in a newborn is suggestive of

a. Meconium aspiration syndrome
b. Transient tachypnoea of the newborn
c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. Metabolic acidosis
e. Cerebral edema
81. The most reliable amniotic fluid test for the diagnosis of lung maturity is
a. Shake test
b. Orange staining epithelial cells
c. Creatinine level
d. LIS ratio
e. Cerebral edema
82. As pregnancy advances, the concentration of each of the following

constituents of amniotic fluid increases except
a. Electrolytes b. Estriol
c. Amylase d. Creatinine
e. Phospholipids
83. Hypocalcemia during first 12-72 hours of life is commonly seen in alol except
a. Premature infants
b. Cow’s milk feeding
c. Infants of diabetic mothers
d. Infants with asphyxia
e. Transient physiologic hypoparathyroidism
84. Indicate incorrect statement regarging myelomeningocele

a. Risk of recurrence after one affected child rises to 4%
b. Nutritional factors have important bearing on etiology
c. Anticonvulsant valproic acid administered during pregnancy increases the risk
of myelomeningocele
d. Vitamin A administration to pregent animals increases the risk of neural tube
defect
e. The lower sacral region accounts for over 60% of myelomeningocele
85. Given the component neonatal care services available today, the best long-
term prognosis for quality of life can be given to which of the following babies?
a. Full-term small for gestation age (weight = 1800 gm)
b. Preterm appropriate for gestational age (weight = 1800 gm)
c. Preterm small for gestational age (weight = 1500 gm)
d. Full-term large for gestation age (weight = 5000 gm)
e. All categories will have the same prognosis
332

86. Regarding growth and development, all except one of the following is true
a. At age of 12 years, most girls weight more than boys
b. Length at birth is doubled at 4 years
c. In a healthy term baby head circumference at birth is at least 3 cm larger than
chest circumference
d. Head circumference at birth approximates crown rump length (sitting height)
e. After the age of 1 year, chest circumference exceeds head circumference
87. The body proportions i.e. ration of upper to lower limb (CR:RH ratio) are like
those of an infant in
a. Malnutrition b. Rickets
c. Hypopituitarism d. Cretinism
e. Morquio’s disease
88. Sexual maturity rating (SMR) in boys, stage I comprise

a. No pubic hair
b. Scanty pubic hair and slight enlargement of penis and testes
c. Spares, slightly pigmented eurled, downy hair
d. Dark curly pubic hair, slight enlargement of testes but no enlargement of penis.
e. Testes enlarged, penis slightly enlarged, no pubic hair
89. Weight velocity in girls is greatest during

a. First 2 years of life b. 2-5 years
c. At puberty d. Mid childhood
e. 10-13 years
90. Bone age is less than chronological age in all except

a. Chondrodystrophies b. Constitutional delay
c. Hypothyroidism d. Hypopituitarism
e. Malnutrition
91. The final adult height can reasonably be predicted as

a. Thrice that at 2 years
b. Twice that at 2 years
c. Two and a half times that at 3 years
d. One and a half times that at 4 years
e. Three times at birth
92. Regarding speech development, indicate the correct statement

a. Isolated delay in speech development is usually due to deafness
b. Girls tend to speak earlier than boys
c. Delay in speech development is often familial
d. Tongue tie is not an important cause of delayed speech
e. All of the above statements are true
93. Pica is
a. A symptom of calcium deficiency
b. A development phase in psychosocial development
c. Without hazard d. All of the above e. None of the above
333

94. Thumb sucking is
a. Normal in early infancy b. Name longer of two lines
c. Draw a triangle d. Throw ball overhead
95. Which of the following is the first visible sign of puberty in girls?
a. Menarche
b. Peak in height velocity
c. Appearance of breast buds
d. Appearance of pubic hair
e. Appearance of auxiliary hair
96. The correct sequence regarding the appearance of clinical signs of puberty is
a. Menarche-thelarche-pubarche-accelerated growth
b. Thelarche-pubarche-accelerated growth-menarche
c. Accelerated growth-pubarche-thelarche-menarche
d. Menarche-accelerated growth-thelarche-pubarche-
e. pubarche-thelarche-accelerated growth- menarche
97. The incorrect statement regarding bowel and bladder control is

a. 75% of children will have attained reasonable control of bowel evacuation by
24 months
b. Bowel control is likely to be established before bladder control
c. Bed-wetting is more common among girls than among boys
d. Bed-wetting is more common among boys than among girls Eg:- 8% of the
school-age children have nocturnal enuresis once a month
98. The following statements regarding growth are correct except

a. Male newborns have an average higher birth weight than females
b. Newborn babies lose initially about 8% of their birth weight
c. Skeletal development in boys occur earlier than in girls
d. Deciduous dentition occurs in males and females at the same age
e. Prepuberty accelerated growth appears in girls approximately two years earlier
than in boys, on an average
99. The first English book on children’s disease called “Book of Children” was
written by
a. Hippocrates b. Soreneus
c. Thomas Phaer d. Bagallardar
100. The declaration of Alma Ata “Health for All by 2000 AD” was adopted on
a. 12th August 1972 b. 12th September 1978
c. 6th December 1980 d. 18th January 1984
101. Child survival and safe motherhood programme was introduced by

a. World Health Organization (WHO)
b. Ministry of Health (MOH)
c. Indian Academy of Pediatrics (IAP)
d. National Neonatology Forum (NNF)
334

102. Government of India launched the Reproductive and Child Healath (RCH)
programme in the year
a. 1976 b. 1986
c. 1996 d. 2004
103. The cause of increased death rate among children below 5 years of age in India
is
a. Infection b. Malnutrition
c. Accidents d. Child abuse
104. The state with lowest infant mortality rate is

a. Kerala b. Goa
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Rajasthan
105. Startle reflex can b elicited by

a. Sudden slap on the bed
b. Placing an object in the palm
c. Ticking the foot
d. Keeping a finger near the lips
106. Which of the following best state the position of most psychologists on the
relevant importance of hereditary and environmental in determining intelligence
quotient (IQ) scores?
a. Heredity is more important than environment
b. Environment is more important than heredity
c. Heredity and environment interact
d. The heredity and environment are independent and are of equal importance
107. Rekha was raised an orphanage and later adopted, but at age of 27 years she is
unhappy and suspicious of others because she perceives hostility and coldness in all
her interaction with others. Erikson might say that in infancy Rekha developed a
sense of
a. Basic mistrust b. Impending disaster
c. Role confusion d. Isolation
108. Parents of school age children tend to stress achievement at school, ignore
talents and achievements in other areas. According to Eriksson the child who
perceived himself or herself to be incomplete act in this stage of life may develop a
sense of
a. Role confusion b. Shame and guilt
c. Inferiority d. Despair
109. Average weight gain of an infant after 3 months of life is

a. 10 gms/day b. 20 gms/day
c. 15 gms/day d. 30 gms/day
110. During the first year of age the length of the infant is increased by
a. 25 to 30 cm b. 15 to 20 cm
c. 20 to 24 cm d. 12 to 15 cm
335

111. The characteristic play of an infant is
a. Parallel play b. Associative play
c. Solitary play d. Co-operative play
112. Symmetric cyanosis of the extremities called as

a. Central cyanosis b. Cyanosis
c. Acroyanosis d. Peripheral cyanosis
113. The average increase of head circumference from birth to 6 months is

a. 0.5 cm/month b. 1 cm/month
c. 1.5 cm/month d. 2 cm/month
114. Contribution water to total body weight at birth is

a. 70-75% b. 65-70%
c. 60-65% d. 55-65%
115. The psycho social development attained by a school age child is

a. Autonomy versus shame or doubt
b. Trust versus mistrust
c. Initiative versus guilt
d. Industry versus inferiority
116. The stomach capacity of a newborn is

a. 15 ml b. 30 ml
c. 40 ml d. 20 ml
117. Infancy ends and childhood begins when a child

a. can move about independently
b. An begin to represent the world abstractly through language
c. Has his or her first birthday
d. Loses his primary reflexes
118. Rani insists her mother to pour orange juice into a different glass “make it
more”. Rani lacks the concept of
a. Decent ration b. Symbolism
c. Conservation d. Formal operation
119. The growth spurt associated with puberty occurs ……………… puberty for
girls, and ………………. Puberty for boys
a. After, after b. After, before
c. Before, after d. Before, before
120. Which of the following is an example of proximodistal trend in development?

a. Infant should stand after they are able to hold and head erect
b. Infant manipulate fingers after they are able to use their whole hand
c. Fingers and toes develop after embryonic limb buds
d. Infants begin to have fine muscle control after gross random muscle
movement
336

121. Ramu tells his friend “today is sunny. There is no rain. The sun shines because
I want to play with you”. This concept of a preschooler is called as
a. Animism b. Artificialism
c. Realism d. Symbolism
122. Injection amoxicillin 150 mg is prescribed for an infant. The vial contains 500
mg diluted in water for injection to make 10 ml. How many ml will you administer for
150 mg?
a. 2 ml b. 3 ml
c. 2.5 ml d. 4 ml
123. Syrup lasix contains 8 mg in 5 ml. the prescribed dose is 6 mg how many ml
will you administer?
a. 5 ml b. 3.5 ml
c. 2.5 ml d. 3.75 ml
124. Ashif weights 10 kg at one year. What is the expected weight of Ashif at six
year?
a. 16 kg b. 18 kg
c. 19 kg d. 20 kg
125. The expected height of child at 5 years will be

a. 115 – 120 cm b. 105 – 110 cm
c. 95 – 100 cm d. 122 – 125 cm
126. An 18 month old child gets 5% dextrose and ringer lactate 1000ml IV in 24
hours. The drop factor of the micro drips set is 60 drops / ml. What will be the set rate
of flow?
a. 45 drops/ min b. 44 drops/ min
c. 41.6 drops/ min d. 43 drops/ min
127. Isotonic solution is

a. A solution that have higher concentration of solution than plasma
b. A solution that have same osmolarity as body fluids such as plasma
c. A solution that have lower concentration of solute than plasma
d. A solution with high concentration of electrolytes
128. The reflex elicited by suspending the new born in prone position by patting or
placing hand under the abdomen is called?
a. Parachute reflex b. Landau’s reflex
c. Stepping reflex d. Doll’s eye reflex
129. The nurse is employed in well baby clinic to administer vaccines. Which of the
following is present is a contraindication for receiving immunization?
a. Vomiting b. Excessive crying
c. Diarrhea d. Fever
337

130. A 7 year old child is diagnosed with attention deficit hyper active disorder. To
promote the child’s optimal functioning, wich of these approaches should be used?
a. Encourage use of delayed reward system
b. Encourage a diet that emphasizes processed foods
c. Obtain a placement in a small structured class room
d. Obtain a prescription for antidepressant
131. For all lIM injection in children, the length of the needle should not be more
than
a. 0.5 inch b. 1.0 inch
c. 1.5 inch d. 2 inch
132. While administering medication to the following interventions are important

except
a. Explain about the medication
b. Be truthful aout the taste of medicine
c. Provide medicine with large amount of milk
d. Establish a good relationship with the child
133. The least proffered site for intramuscular injection in infant is

a. Vastus lateralis b. Rectus frmoris
c. Ventrogluteal d. Deltoid
134. The best choice of restrains to keep the child in his wheel chair, high chair or
crib is
a. Mummy restraints b. Belt restraints
c. Jacket restraints d. Abdominal restraints
135. Following are the purpose for nasogastric feed to a child except
a. To provide a method of feeding that requires minimal effort to suck in
premature infants
b. To provide a safe method of feeding a sick child
c. To make work easy to pediatric nursing in feeding the child
d. To prevent fatigue from nipple feeding
136. While giving CPR are for an infant the depth of compression should be
a. 0.5 – 1 inch b. 1 inch
c. 1 – 1.5 inch d. 2.0 inch
137. Ideal time for bathing baby is

a. Early morning b. Before second feed
c. After lunch time d. Evening
138. To increase the effectiveness of the transfusion by yielding more billirubin

binding sites……………………. is given 1 – 2 hour prior to exchange transfusion
a. Dextrose saline b. 10% calcium gluconate
c. Albumin d. Protamine sulphate
338

139. The mechanism for the onset of respiration of birth is
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypercapnia
c. Increased sensitivity of chemo receptors
d. All of the above
140. An audible harsh, high pitched crowing, creaking; whistling sound during
inspiration because of incomplete obstruction of the larynx is called
a. Asthma b. Croup
c. Stridor d. Broncitis
141. In drug therapy of asthma in children the most appropriate route of

administration of epinephrine is through
a. Inhalation b. Intramuscular
c. Oral d. Subcutaneous
142. The management of foreign body aspiration in respiratory tract is by

a. Manuel removal b. Mechanical suction
c. Bronchoscopy d. Hyper ventilation
143. The widened systolic blood pressure differences between aspiratory and
expiratory phase of respiration is known as
a. Pulse pressure b. Dead space
c. Pulsus paradoxus d. Paradoxical breathing
144. The total lung capacity in a new born is

a. 100 ml b. 150 ml
c. 200 ml d. 250 ml
145. Abnormal ventilation perfusion ratio on asthmatic children results from the
following factor except
a. Hyper inflated lungs b. Hypoventilation of alveoli
c. Atelectasis d. Immature lungs
146. Contraindicated group of drug therapy in bronchial asthma is

a. Sypathomimetic drugs b. Anti hitamines
c. Anti cholinergic drugs d. Immature lungs
147. Purulent sputum indicated the presence of

a. Asthma
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Suppurative lung disease
d. Tuberculosis
148. When caring for a child with croup, the priority nursing action should be
a. Initiate measures to reduce fever
b. Constant assess respiratory status
c. Provide support to reduce apprehension
d. Ensure delivery of 40% humidified oxygen
339

149. Children in the family of a person who has tuberculosis and has been exposed
but shows no evidence of the disease
a. Can be considered to be immune
b. Should be treated with INH (Isoniazid) and PAS (para Amino Salicylic acid)
c. Massive doses of penicillin is given
d. Should take X-ray every 6 months
150. Brownish vomitus with fecal odour indicates

a. Gastritis b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusceptions d. Intestinal obstruction
151. Which of the following findings confirms esophagi atresia?

a. Radiographs showing air in the stomach and intestine
b. Abdomen is flat and scaphoid
c. Repeated history of pneumonia
d. Inability to pass a radiopaque catheter
152. While examining a newborn, a nurse attempts check the temperature through
rectal thermometer, but she feels difficulty in inserting thermometer the rectum. What
is the diagnosis?
a. Imperforate anus b. Anal stenosis
c. Anal agenesis d. Rectal atresia
153. While palpating a 1 year old infant’s abdomen nurse feels sausage shaped
mass. The above finding indicates
a. Tumor in the kidney b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusceptions d. Impacted stool
154. A 3 month old infant diagnosed as Hirschsprung’s disease is admitted with

complaints of fever, diarrhea and poor tolerance to feedings. What is the potential
complication in this situation?
a. Enterocolitis b. Perforation
c. Intestinal obstruction d. Chronic constipation
155. A 9 months old infant is undergoing ECMO (Extra Corporeal Membranous

Oxygen) therapy for diaphragmatic hernia. The nursing intervention of priority should
be
a. Strict aseptic technique with vascular catheters used with the ECMO circuit
b. Monitor for edema
c. Keep the skin clean and dry
d. Observation of respiratory
156. When obtaining a history of an infant with suspected inguinal hernia, the nurse
would expect to hear
a. Nausea, vomiting and abdominal distention
b. Scrotum is swollen from the birth
c. Swelling in the groin while crying and coughing
d. A tender mass in the groin and the baby cries while touched
340

157. Which of the following signs should alerts the nurse for peritonitis while
examining a 10 year old child with appendicitis
a. Periumblical pain radiating to the lower right quadrant
b. Abdominal pain, vomiting with fever, slide lying posture with flexed knees
c. Rapid rise of temperature, guarding the abdomen and shallow respiration
d. WBC count of 12000/cu mm, fever and abdominal pain
158. While giving instruction to a mother of a 10 year old child with constipation, all
instruction should be given except
a. Encourage plenty of water intake
b. Increase intake of high residue food
c. Encourage plenty of cheese and milk
d. Include whole grain products in the diet
159. An infant returns to the nursing unit following a surgical repair of cleft lip on
the right side. The best position to place the infant at this time is
a. On the right side b. Prone position
c. On the left side d. Supine position
160. The nurse reinforces homecare instructions to the parents of a child with
celiac disease. Which of the following items does the nurse advice the patents to
include in the child’s diet except
a. Rice b. Rye toast
c. Oats meal d. Wheat bread
161. The 3 C’s seen in trachesoophageal fistula are the following except
a. Coughing b. Choking
c. Cyanosis d. Crepitation
162. The paediatric nurse can encourage mother to feed the baby soon after
delivery
a. Within ½ hours b. Within 2 hours
c. Within 2 hours d. Within 4 hours
163. The protein which present in the human milk is known as

a. Protenex b. Lactoprotein
c. Caseinogen d. None infant birth weight
164. The normal Indian the

a. 2.5 to 3.2 kg b. 4 kgs
c. 10kg d. 6 kgs
165. By the 6th months the infant weight is

a. No change in weight b. Double the birth weight
c. Decreases the weight d. None
166. The formulas that can be practiced to calculate the weight of children from 1 to
6 years is
a. No specific formula b. Age * birth age * 100
c. (age in years * 2) + 8 d. None of the above
341

167. The which formula to calculation of weight of children from 6 to 12 years
a. (age in years * 7) – 5/2 b. Age in months * 7/5
c. Age in days * 7/5 d. None of the above
168. The incisors will erept for an infant at

a. 3 months b. 6-9/12
c. 6-8/12 d. 3-5/12
169. The humidity in the incubator must be maintained

a. 30 to 40% b. 60-70%
c. 20-30% d. 25-30%
170. The temperature of incubator for premature baby maintained is

a. 30°C to 35°C b. 20-30°C
c. 10°C d. 100°C
171. The safe and effect method of treating neonatal jaundice is

a. Nothing per orally b. Blood purification
c. photo therapy d. None
172. If the nurse found the new born with severe Asplhyxia (Apgarscore 4-6) the
immediate responsibility of nurse is
a. Aspirate oral, nasal, secretions, Administer
b. Arrange endotracheal intubation
c. Start cardiac message
d. All the above
173. The endotraheal tube size for new born is

a. Size 2, 2.5 and 3 cm b. Size 4, 4.5, 5 mm
c. Any size can be used d. None of the above
174. Lobar pneumonia are common in

a. Among children of 2 years old
b. Children of 6 years of age
c. No age limit
d. None
175. The common site for nose bleeding in childhood

a. Nsal septum b. Posterior nasal septum
c. Anteriornascal septum d. None
176. The nasal bleeding otherwise called as

a. Throat bleeding b. Nose bleeding
c. Epistaxis d. None
177. In the WHO recommended ORS the amount of glucose

a. 10 gm b. 20 gm
c. 15 gm d. 25 gm
342

178. Teach mother to give ORS after each loose motion
a. 50-100 ml of ORS for a child less than 2 years old
b. 100 to 200 ml for old children
c. All the above
d. None
179. To treat the severe dehydration the immediate responsibility of a nurse is

a. Start I.V. fluid with RL b. Give blood expanders
c. Give only oral fluids d. None
180. Fallot’s tetralogy in children there are

a. 2 main defects in heart
b. 4 main defects in heart
c. 3 main defects in the fallot
d. None
181. Child suffering from sore throat and it is not taken care, after a few weeks the
child taken to hospital by the parents with complaints of hematuria, fever, the
condition of the child may be
a. Glomerulo nephritis b. Appendicitis
c. Nausea d. None
182. The nephritic syndrome is common in the child with age group
a. 6 years b. 2 to 7 years
c. 1 to 3 years d. None
183. The nephritic syndrome signs and symptom is

a. Proteinurea Hypo albuminemia
c. Perl orbital edema d. All the above
184. The toy stage of children is

a. 2 years b. 3-4 years
c. 1 to 7 years d. 8 years
185. According to national health policy the infant mortality rate has to bring down
to
a. 60 per 1,000V b. 70 per 1,000
c. 80 per 1,000 d. None
186. From conception to two weeks the growth of fetus is called as

a. Ovum b. Decidua
c. Conception d. None
187. The embryonic period is

a. Upto 12 months
b. Upto 12 week’s intrauterine life
c. Up to 2 years
d. None
343

188. At one year of age, the height of child is
a. 50cm b. 60cm
c. 75cm d. 80cm
189. When the child can be called as Toddler hood

a. From year to 2 year b. 12 weeks
c. 12-13 weeks d. None
190. When do you called child as a premature

a. When the birth weight is 3.5 kg
b. 4 kgs birth weight
c. 3 kgs of birth weight
d. 2.5 kg birth weight or less than
191. The preterm baby is born

a. Less than 37 week’s gestation
b. Less than 32 week’s gestation
c. More than 37 week’s gestation
d. None
192. Requirements of feeding of the newborn on the first day of birth is

a. 60 kg b. 80 ml kg
c. 8 ml kg d. None
193. The special nutritional programme (SNP) was started in

a. 1960 b. 1960-1965
c. 1970-1971 d. None
194. The main aim of special nutrition programme

a. To provide 500 calories + 25 gm of protein per pregnant/day
b. To provide 300 calories ± 12 gm of protein per child/day (2-6 years)
c. 200 calories + 8 gm protein per child (below 2 years)/day
d. All the above
195. The special nutrition programs give the services nutrition programme (SNP)
was days/year
a. 309 days b. 360 days/year
c. 200 days/year d. None
196. One medicine teaspoon is equal to

a. 10 ml b. 15 ml
c. 20 ml d. 5 ml
197. The juvenile age is

a. A boy who has not attained age of 16
b. A girl who has not attained age of 18
c. All of above
d. None
344

198. Juvenile court is
a. A court tackled the problems of juvenile
b. Rehabilitation centre for the children
c. Education for the children
d. None
199. The Hindu adoption and maintenance act was introduced in the year of
a. 1960 b. 1956
c. 1966 d. None
200. The following is the reflexes of neonate

a. Double vision b. Smiling
c. Dolls eye d. None

201. The neonate’s first stool is called

a. Fecal material b. Bowl movement
c. Meconium d. None
202. The sticky and Greenish neonate is

a. Meconium b. Stetorrhea
c. First pass d. None
203. The neonate, stomach capacity is

a. 90 ml b. 90 cm
c. 90 mg d. None
204. The passage of meconium should occur

a. With in 16 hours
b. Within 36 hours after birth
c. Within 2 hours after birth
d. None
205. The first urine output in the neonate is

a. 20 milliliters b. 20 mg
c. 30 milliliters d. None
206. The Apgar score system is developed by

a. Dr. Dutta b. Virginia Apgar
c. Erikson d. None
207. The apgar score of 5-7 shows

a. Condition of newborn is fair
b. Severe distress of newborn
c. Moderate difficulty of newborn to adjust extra uterine life
d. None
345

208. A depressed fontanelle in the infant shows the evidence of
a. Dehydration b. Brain injury
c. Skull fracture d. None
209. Shaped of anterior fontanelle is

a. Star shaped b. Symmertical
c. Diamond d. None
210. In female newborn baby the bloody virginal discharged called as

a. Virginal flow b. Bseudomenstation
c. Both A and B d. None
211. A while cheesy substance accumulated around the glance peins around the
four skin is called
a. Smegma b. White discharge
c. Semine d. None
212. Which of the following organ is immature in the neonate

a. Kidney b. Uterus
c. Liver d. None
213. After birth of baby cutting of the umbilical cord is about

a. 5 cm length
b. 10 cm length from abdomen
c. 15 cm length from abdomen
d. 5 cm length away from abdomen
214. The noenate cleaned in the direction of

a. Cecephalo-caudam b. Back to front
c. Side by side d. None
215. The life span of red blood cells in the new born
a. 20 days to 30 days b. 60-80 days
c. 100 days d. None
216. Kernicterus is known

a. Bilirubin encephalopathy
b. Blood in the brain
c. KereGn in the brain
d. None
217. The choice of treatment for the physiological jaundice is

a. Phototherapy b. Phenobarbitome
c. Exchange blood transfusion, salt d. All the above
free abbumin
218. Complication of phototherapy is

a. Hyper hyperpyrexia b. Dehydration
c. Irretability/Transient skin rash d. All the above
346

219. In the phototherapy the lights are positioned at the distance of
a. 50 cm to 75 cm higher from infant b. 15-17 cm higher from infant
c. 50-60 cm higher from infant d. None
220. The infection opthalmia neonatorum is caused by

a. Gonococci b. Viral
c. Syphillis d. None
221. Thrush in the mouth of neonate is caused by

a. Herpes simplex b. Candida Albicans
c. Hepatits d. None
222. The amino centesis can be done at

a. 13 weeks to 16 weeks of gestation
b. 14 weeks to 18 weeks of gestation
c. 16 to 18 weeks of gestation
d. None
223. Amino centesis is

a. synthesis of aminotic fluid
b. Development of aminotic fluid
c. Obtaining aminotic fluid from a pregnant woman
d. None
224. Which of the following disease the child shows a old man appearance
a. Marasmus b. Typhoid
c. Fever d. None
225. A blank unresponsive face may seem in children in

a. Mental retardation b. Lardsis
c. Marasmus d. None
226. A lusty cry in children may indicate

a. Pain abdomen
b. Increased intra cranial tension
c. Bite
d. None
347

227. A high pitch cry in children may indicate
a. Pain abdomen
b. Increased intra cranial tension
c. Bite
d. None
228. In the kwashiorkor the cry of child may called as

a. Whimparing b. Normal cry
c. Both a and b d. None
229. In which disease condition a visible persistaltic waves seen is

a. Stomach cancer b. Pyloric stenysis
c. Kidney failure d. None
230. The mantous test result can be read after

a. 68 hours b. 48-72 hours
231. The diameter of induratan below 5 mm in tuberculin test

a. Positive b. Negative
232. The Monteux test done to diagnose

a. Lung cancer b. Infection
c. Tuberculosis d. None
233. The 0.1 ml tuberculin vaccine can be injected at

a. Right upper hand b. Left upper hand
c. As the gluteal muscle d. Anterior left forearm
234. The incupation period of chicken pox

a. 14-21 days b. 20 days
c. 15 days d. None
235. Meseal’s is common in the age group

a. 10-20 years b. 20 years
c. 15 days d. None
348

236. A tiny white papules surrounded by red area appear on the mucous membrane of
mouth in the measles is known as
a. Meseal’s b. Koplik’s Sports
c. First stage d. None
237. The causative organism for whooping cough

a. Salmonellae b. Influenza
c. Bordetella pertussis d. None
238. Name the active immunization should be given for whooping cough
a. BCG b. DPT
c. Meseals d. None
239. Passive immunity that can be administered for the patient suffering from
whooping cough
a. Gamma Globulin b. Beta Globulin
c. Alpha Globulin d. None
240. The peculiar sign trismus (jaw) could be found in following disease
a. Convulsions b. Contractures
c. Tetanus d. None
241. The payer’s patches can be found in the following condition

a. Gastro enteritis b. Intestinal disease
c. Typhoid fever d. None
242. The term apphetatitis B is known as

a. Liver abscess b. Tumer in liver
c. Portal hypertension d. Inflammation of liver
243. Dietary treatment of children with PKU includes

a. Low phenylalanine diet b. Low fat diet
c. Low throsine diet d. Protein free diet
244. Sudden voluntary repetitive movements of voluntary muscle, in children is termed

as
a. Pica b. Tic syndrome
c. Ecolalia d. Echo praxia
245. A common type of deformity in which the foot is twisted out of its normal shape
and position
a. Congenital club foot b. Talipes calcaneus
c. Cleft foot d. Jenu valgum
349

246. Which reflects is not found in infant?
a. Moros reflects b. Pincer grasp reflects
c. papillary reflects d. Rooting reflects
247. The normal level of haemoglobin in female is

a. 15-18 gm/dl b. 12-16 gm/dl
c. 12-14 gm/dl d. 20-24 gm/dl
248. Neonetus are more susceptible hypo glycemia because of

a. Immature lungs b. Immature pancreas
c. Immature liver d. Immature kidney
249. Apgar score was developed by

a. Sigmund freud b. Virginia Apgar
c. Anderson Apgar d. Jony alexandar
250. Vernix caseosa found normally on the skin of new born serves the function of
a. Insulation b. Protection
c. Vacteriolytic d. All the above
251. At birth infant is covered with gray white matter is jaundice because
a. Lanugo b. Vernix caseosa
c. White gravidarum d. Oil sebum
252. Phototherapy is provided to infant for treatment of jaundice because

a. It reduces bilirubm
b. It enhance appetite
c. It reduce RBC destruction
d. None of them
253. The commonest site of memimgomyocele

a. Lumbosacral region b. Lumbar region
c. Sacral region d. Cervical region
254. Surgery done to repair cleft lip is

a. Myringoplasty b. Tympanoplasty
c. Manbibuloplasty d. Cheiloplasty
255. Surgery done for repair of cleft palate is

a. Myringoplasty b. Staphylorrhaphy
c. Manbibuloplasty d. Cheiloplasty
256. What is the right urine of surgery is phimosis?

a. At birth b. Within 10 days after birth
c. After 1 year of birth d. After 3 year of birth
350

257. The commonest type of fracture which is found in children is
a. Multiple fracture b. Green stick fracture
c. Pathologic fracture d. Hair line fracture
258. The commonest type of leukaemia which is found in children is

a. Acute lymphoid laukaemia
b. Chronic lymphoid laukaemia
c. Chronic myelogenous laukaemia
d. Acute myelogenus laukaemia
259. Volutary grasp is usually present at which age?

c. 3 weeks d. 5 months
260. The American Academy of pediatric recommends that children can being to
drinking low fat milk at what age?
a. 1 year b. 2 years
261. Anterior foutanel normally closes between ages

a. 2 & 3 months b. 12 & 18 months
c. 3 & 6 months d. 1 & 9 months
262. According to theorist Jean Piaget, an infant who learns about objects by placing
them in his mouth is in which stage of development?
a. Properational b. Sensori motor
c. Concrete operational d. Formal operation
263. Name the theorist who postulated that the personality is a structure with three
parts, called the id, the ego & the super ego
a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Eriksson
c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg
264. Troddlers are at high risk for injuries because of their increasing curiosity,
advancement in cognition, & improved motor skills. All these are a concern for this age
group except
a. Burns b. Poisoning
c. Shorts injury d. Falls
265. Which of the following characteristics pertain to adolescent?

a. Egocentricity
b. Abstract thinking
c. High risk behaviors
d. Sense of mortality
e. Hand dominance development
f. Secondary sex charactertics development
351

266. Which term describes development in the head-to-tail direction?
a. Sequential trend b. Proximodistal pattern
c. Cephalocaudal trend d. Mass to specific pattern
267. An infant begins to sit with support by months

268. Which of the following is incorrectly matched

a. Stuffering Toddler
b. Sleep pattern of infancy 2 to 3 years
c. Fear – pre School
d. Oedial complex – infancy
269. A five year old child can remember number up to how many digits
a. 4 b. 5
c. 6 d. 7
270 Head control is possible in an infant at

c. 5 month d. 6 month
271. A child starts crawling at

272. Increase in length in the first year of life is

a. 12 cms b. 15 cms
c. 25 cms d. 35 cms
273. Child smiles at familiar persons at the age of

274. A three year old child can do which of the following except
a. Ride a tricycle
b. Build a tower of ten cubes
c. Knows his age and sex
d. Use scissors to cut out pictures
275. Number of deciduous teeth is

a. 20 b. 24
c. 28 d. 32
276. First permanent tooth which erupts is
a. 1st premolar b. 1st molar
c. 1st incisor d. 2nd premolar
352

277. The maximum number of teeths in children occurs in following age group
c. First 7 days d. 6 months – 12 months
278. A child starts taking self- decision at age of ______ year

a. 3 b. 5
c. 6 d. 7
279. Child changes rattle from one hand to another at the age of
c. one year d. 2 years
280. Vocabulary of 1.5 years of old child is

a. 1-10 Words b. 10-20 Words
c. 20-30 Words d. 30-40 Words
281. By years all milk teeth are erupted

a. 1.5 b. 2
c. 3 d. 3.5
282. 3 months infant requires energy per day

a. 100 k.cal/day b. 150 k.cal/day
c. 120 k.cal/day d. 140 k.cal/day
283. 16-19 year’s boy requires energy/day

a. 2000 k.cal/day b. 2500 k.cal/day
c. 3000 k.cal/day d. 3500 k.cal/day
284. Which is fat soluble vitamin?

a. vit-C b. vit-B
c. vit-K d. a&b
285. Which is water soluble vitamin?

a. vit-B b. vit-K
c. vit-C d. a&c
286. 1 gm fat relese K.cal.energy

a. 5 K.cal b. 7 K.cal
c. 10 K.cal d. 9 K.cal
287. 1 gram protein releases K.cal energy

a. 4 K.cal b. 6 K.cal
c. 8 K.cal d. 10 K.cal
288. Human milk contains super per 100 ml
a. 7 K.cal b. 5 gm
c. 4 gm d. 9 gm
353

289. Cow milk contains super per 100 ml
a. 7 gm b. 5 gm
c. 3 gm d. 4 gm
290. Baby friendly hospital concept was launched by WHO in the year
a. 1997 b. 1991
c. 1999 d. 2001
291. In India baby friendly hospital concept was launched in year

a. 1987 b. 1994
c. 1992 d. 1995
292. Which service is provided by under five clinics

a. Preventive care
b. Promotive care
c. Curative and rehabilitative care
d. A, B and C
293. WHO launched global immunization programme in which year?

a. 1970 b. 1972
c. 1979 d. 1974
294. Immunization is for

a. Infant b. Children
c. Pregnant woman d. A, B and C
295. Which is killed vaccine?

a. BCG b. Pertusis
c. Oral polio d. Mumps
296. Cold chain is used in vaccination for

a. Good appearance b. For storage
c. Potency and efficacy d. for carrying
297. Which one is combined (triple) vaccine?

a. Oral polio b. BCG
c. DPT d. Rabies
298. DPT first booster dose is given at

a. 1 year b. 2 years
299. Hepatitis 1st booster dose is given at

354

300. Total doses of polio vaccine are
a. 3 b. 5
c. 9 d. 7
301. Pregnant women should be immunized for

a. Hepatitis vaccine b. T.T. vaccine
c. MMR vaccine d. BCG vaccine
302. Hep-B vaccine is administered at

a. 0, 1, 6 months b. 0, 4, 8 months
c. 1, 3, 5 months d. 0, 1, 10 months
303. MMR should give times

a. Two time b. 4 times
c. Single d. 10 times
304. Excessive crying is seen after which

a. Polio b. DPT
c. BCG d. Measles
305. Under pulse polio programme, target age group is

a. Under 1 year b. Under 3 year
c. Under 5 year d. Under 10 year
306. A child is not involved in play activities, in which type of play behavior it comes
a. Solitary independent play b. Onlooker behavior
c. Parallel play d. Unoccupied behavior
307. A child belongs to 8 to 12 years of age, child is in which stage of play

a. Toy stage b. Play stage
c. Day dreaming stage d. Exploratory stage
308. Which one of the following is not a value of play?

a. Intellectual development b. Moral development
c. Family development d. Physical development
309. If a child used to play with similar toys which are found in play of nearby children,
this behavior comes in
a. Onlooker behavior b. Parallel play
c. Inassociative play d. Co-operative play
310. Commonest cause of neonatal death in India is

a. Prematurity
b. Congenital malformations
c. Metabolic disease
d. Birth injury
355

311. Pincer grasp reflex is seen at
312. The bone most frequently fractured during delivery is the

a. Radius b. Clavicle
c. Hummerus d. Ulna
313. Normal reflex patterns at birth may include

a. Grasp reflex b. Moro’s reflex
c. Rooting reflex d. All of above
314. Which of the following is not seen in infants of diabetic mother?

a. Hairy pinna b. Large tongue
c. Hypoglycemia d. Respiratory distress syndrome
315. Child born to diabetic mother can have

a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypokalemia
c. Mental retardation d. All of the above
316. Which is a high risk neonate?

a. Less than 1500 gm b. Previous neonatal death
c. Palpable liver and kidney d. Phimosis
317. Hypoglycemia in infant and child occurs if blood glucose level is

a. 40 mg/dl b. 60 mg/dl
c. 10 mg/dl d. 20 mg/dl
318. One of the following is not a normal feature of neonate

a. Vaginal bleeding
b. Breast engorgement and witch’s milk
c. Hypospadiasis
d. Scrotum appears pigmented with rugae
319. Pincer grasps develop in an infant at

a. 8 months b. One year
c. 18 months d. 2 years
320. The surgery performed in congenital hypertrophy pyloric stenosis is
a. Gastrojejunostomy b. William’s procedure
c. Ramstedt’s d. Blalock surgery
321. A 3 year old child is brought to the hospital by her father will bruises on the hand,
face and the body. The baby looks sad with tears. On observation what will you suspect
in this child?
a. Multiple injuries b. Fracture
c. Child abuse d. Neglect
356

322. An intravenous infusion is started on a child with severe burns. The nurse should
assess for signs of fluid over load, which includes
a. Depressed anterior fontanelle
b. Increased abdominal circumference
c. Moist rates and Rhonchi
d. Tea colored urine
323. When a child is admitted with suspected child abuse, the nurse is aware that the
legal proceedings may be necessary. Expecting this, the possible action that should
receive priority is
a. Assessing child’s development level
b. Determining the extent of injuries
c. Documenting the physical findings and interactions during admission
d. Informing parents about diagnosis
324. The drug used for the closure of patent ductus arteriosus is
a. Prostaglandin b. Hyperbaric oxygen
c. Indomethacin d. Corticosteroids
325. A 2 year old has been diagnosed to have coarctation of aorta. The nurse should
expect
a. Bounding femoral pulse
b. Blood pressure high in upper extremities
c. Machine like murmur
d. Weak thread pulse
326. The nurse is correct in telling the parents that the optimal time for surgical
correction of coarctation of aorta is
a. As soon as the child’s condition has been stabilized
b. When the child is 6 months old
c. Before the child is 2 years old
d. When the child is between 2 and 3 years of age
327. Signs of pediatric lanoxin (Digoxin) toxicity is

a. Apical pulse rate of 90/min and vomiting
b. Fatigue, diaphoresis
c. Tachtcardia, Tachypnea
d. Wheezing, pallor
328. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for additional teaching about
administering Digoxin?
a. If a dose is missed, the next dose is given at the regular scheduled time
b. The apical pulse is checked before each medication dose is given
c. Each dose of medication is mixed in a small amount of formula
d. The dose is increased or decreased only when ordered by the doctor
357

329. The comfortable position for a child with cyanotic spell is
a. Fowler’s position b. Sim’s position
c. Lateral position d. Knee chest position
330. Patent ductus arteriosus is the

a. Communication between pulmonary vein and aorta
b. Communication between pulmonary artery and aorta
c. Communication between pulmonary vein and descending aorta
d. Communication between pulmonary artery and pulmonary
329. The comfortable position for a child with cyanotic spell is

a. Fowler's position b. Sim's position
c. Lateral position d. Knee chest position
330. Patent ductus arteriosus is the

Communication between pulmonary vein and aorta
Communication between pulmonary artery and aorta
Communication between pulmonary vein and descending aorta
Communication between pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein
331. In tetralogy of Fallot, breathlessness is relieved by squatting position because of

a. Increase in systemic vascular resistance and reducing
right to left shunt
b.Increase in venous return
c. Improving pulmonary blood flow
d. Improving arterial blood flow
332. In transportation of great arteries, anatomical correction is done be

a. Mustard procedure b. Senning's procedure
c... Arterial switch operation d. Rastlli procedure
333. Before administering frusemide (Lasix) to a patient, nurse should monitor the
patient's serum level of
a.. Albumin b. Acid phosphate
c..Blood urea nitrogen d. Lactic dehydrogenase
334. A parent of an infant who has a smaller atrial septa! defect makes all of the
following comments. Which of the following indicates that parent needs further
instructions?
a. I won't tell my baby get upset and cry
b. My baby needs to have heart surgery immediately
c. My baby may need to rest more than other children while
feeding
d. I understand that my baby will grow at a slower space
358

335. The manifestation in an 8 year old child with mitral valve prolapse which
makes the nurse to suspect sub acute bacterial endocarditis is
a. Throbbing head ache and restlessness
b. Dependent edema and petechiae
c. Thready peripheral pulses and pallor
d. Low grade fever and lethargy
336. Following cardiac catheterization, the nurse should expect to observe for all of the
following except
a. Seizures
b. Decreased pulses distal to venipuncture site
c. Respiratory distress
d. Hematoma at the venipuncture of the site
337. Serum iron is often raised in the following condition

a. Anemia of chronic disorders
b. Beta thalassemia
c . I ro n d e f ic ie n c y an e m i a
d. Congenital spherocytosis
338. The nurse's best action to promote optimal functioning of a 14 year old child with
hemarthrosis is
a. Elevate and immobilize the affected joint
b. Institute passive range of motion to the affected joint
during acute phase
c. Apply pressure to the area as needed
d. Apply a warm compress to the affected joint
339. Oral iron supplements are prescribed for 6 year old child with iron deficiency
anemia. The nurse instructs t h e m o t h e r t o a d m i n i s t e r t h e i r o n w i t h to
promote absorption of iron
a.Water b. Orange juice
b. Milk d. Apple juice
340. Unrestricted proliferation of immature WBC's in the blood forming tissue of the
body is called as
a.. Thalassemia b. Leukemia
c.. Sickle cell anemia d. Hemophilia
341. A bleeding disorder caused by a hereditary deficiency

of a blood factor essential for coagulation is
a. Disseminated intra vascular coagulation
b . Den gue h e mo rr hag ic f e ve r
c. Hemophilia
d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic
359

342. Deposition of iron in various tissues of the body is called
a. Hemopoiesis b. Hemolysis
c. Hemosiderosis d. Hemagglutination
343. Before assessing an infant for undescended testes, the nurse should
a. Allow the child to defecate
b. Assess the vital signs
c. Palpate the inguinal canal
d. Warm her hands and the room
344. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by

a. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia and hypo
cholesterolemia
b. Generalized edema, albuminuria and
hyperalbuminemia
c. Massive proteinuria, hypoalburninemia. generalized
edema and hyper cholesterolemia
d. Hyperalbuminemia, Generalized edema and hemeturia
345. In hydronephrosis, obstruction of urine flow is at the

a. Junction of renal pelvis and ureter
b. Vesico-urinary junction
c. Proximal urethra
d. Distal portion of the ureter
346. Epispadias is
a. Urethral opening located behind glans penis
b. Urethral opening on the dorsal surface of the penis
c. Stenosis at the urethral opening
347. A child presents with periorbital edema, dark colored urine and decreased urine
output. A priority question for the nurse to ask when obtaining the history from the
parent is
a. Has your child been diagnosed recently with the streptococci throat
infection?
b. Does your child get short of breath while playing?
c. Is there any history of liver disease in the family?
d. Does your child seem to be more tired than usual?
348. When warming pre operative care for the child suspected of having Wilm's
tumor, the nurse should recognize the interventions which place the child at risk for
complication is
a. Palpating the child's abdomen in every 8 hours
b. Measuring the child's temperature rectal
c. Monitoring the child blood pressure every 4 hours
d. Monitor the child’s intake and output
360

349. In anuria. the urine output is
a. <3mIlkg/hr b. <1ml/kg/hr
c. <5mlikg/hi d. <10ml/kg/hr
350. A nurse is assigned care for a 2 year old child who has been admitted for
surgical correction of Cryptorchidism. The nurse highest priority in the
postoperative nursing care for this child is to
a. Force oral fluid
b. Prevent tension on the suture
c. Test urine for glucose
d. Encourage coughing
351. The common type of Nephrotic syndrome in is: ©

a. Nephrotic syndrome with lesion
b. Congenital Nephrotic syndrome
c. Minimal change Nephrotic syndrome
d. Secondary disorder
352. A condition in which the anterior surface of the bladder lies open on the lower part of
the abdomen is called as
a. Obstructive uropathy b. Cryptorchidism
c. Ectopia vesicae d. Horse shoe kidney
353. The dietary changes that a nurse would implement with a 2 year child who is in
the acute stage of Nephrotic syndrome is
a. Increased iron intake
b. Decreased fat intake
c. Decreased sodium intake
d. Increased protein intake
354. Seizures disorder results from the effect of lesions of which following lobe in
cerebrum
a. Frontal lobe b. Temporal lobe c. Parietal lobe d. Occipital lobe
355. Febrile seizures generally occur between which of the following age group?
a. 0 to 6 months b. 6 month to 5 years
c. 3 years to 8 years d. 6 years to 10 years
356. Persistence of a seizure for more than 10 minutes or recurrent seizures without
gain of consciousness is
a.. Unconsciousness b. Grand mal seizures c.. Epilepsy d.Status
epilepticus
361

357. A cystic malformation of the cerebellum and zit" ventricle, which occurs due to
atresia of the foramina of luschka and magendie, is
a. Aquaduct stenosis
b. Arnold Chiary malformation
c. Dandy Walker malformation
d. Hydrocephalus
358 In meningitis patient, flexing the hip of the patient to 90° and also flexing the knee
and then extending the knee beyond 135°, which evokes pain in the limb and limitation
of the knee extension, is
a.,.Brudzinski sign b. Kernig's sign
c. Meningism d. Salam seizures
359. In which of the following condition lumbar puncture is contra indicated? ©

a. Infe ct ion in t he C S F
b . Le ss i n t r a cr a n ia l pre ss u r e
c . R a i s e d i n tra cr a n ia l p r e ss u r e
d. Drug administration
351. Premature closure of one or more cranial sutures is

a.. Craniosynostosis b. Microcephaly
c.. Fibrous sutures d. Schizencephaly
360. Tumors located in cerebral hemispheres, which have worse prognosis, is

a. Ependymomas
b. Optic nerve glioma s
c. Choroid plexus papiloma
d. Astrocytoma
361. A non progressive neuromuscular disorder of cerebral origin is called as

a. Quadriplegia b. Mental retardation
c.. Cerebral palsy d. Infantile spasm
362. The water deprivation test is performed to

a . A s s es s a ld o st e r o n e p r o d u c t i o n
b. Assess diabetes mellitus
c . A s s es s t h yro id f u n c t i o n
d. To pick up X-linked carriers of diabetes incipidus
363. An infant is diagnosed as hypothyroidism and has been ordered levothyroxine

orally. The infant should be noted for signs of over dosage which include
a. Enuresis. dilated pupils, Bradycardia
b. Irritability, tachycardia, increased appetite
c. Decreased blood pressure, intolerance to cold
c. Bradycardia, constipation, Tachypnea
362

364. The most common symptoms in diabetes incipidus are
a. Polydypsia, anorexia, loss of appetite, polyuria
b. Polyuria, polydypsia, excessive perspiration
c. Polyphagia, Polyuria, polydypsia, convulsion
d. Anorexia, growth failure, Polyuria, vomiting
365. Confirmatory test for Cushing syndrome is

a. Dexamethasone suppression test
b. Fasting blood glucose
c. Koplik's spot
d. Physical examination
366. A multisystem disorder with the predominant characteristic of chronic

pulmonary disease, pancreatic enzyme deficiency and abnormally high sweat
chloride is
a. Emphysema
b. Respiratory distress syndrome
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Diabetes incipidus
367. Addison's disease is otherwise called as

a. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency
b. Hyperpituitarism
c. Chronic adrenocortical insufficiency
d. Hyperaldosteronism
368. Congenital hypoplasia of the lung on affected side is seen in

a.. Omphalocele b. Hiatus hernia
c. Inguinal hernia d. Diaphragmatic hernia
369. Lesion with characteristic of erythximatos, macular, urticarial, papular, vesicular or

bullous, which may be either localized to distal extremities or generalized involving oral
and genital mucosa and conjunctiva, is
a. Pyoderma
b. Psoriasis
c. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
d. Lyell's syndrome
370. Dermatophyte infection of scalp and heir is known as

a. Tinea capitis b. Erythema infectiosum
c. Roseola infantum d. Furncles
371. Fluid Resuscitation for moderate andsevere burns in 24 hours is

c a l c u l a t e d b y u s i n g t h e f o l l ow in g f o r m u l a
a. (2 ml/kg body weight x % body surface area burnt) + 1500 ml/m2
b. (4ml/kg.body weightx % body surface area burnt) + 1500 ml/m2
c. Depend on oral intake – urine output x 24 hours
d. 200 ml/m2
363

372. A child with a cast for correction of a club foot need to report if assessment
reveals that
a. Cast has not dried in 2 hours
b. Color change and cool skin proximal to cast
c. Toes move and capillary refill is < 3 sec.
d. Edges on the cast is rough
373. After performing a physical assessment of a 12 year old child, the nurse should
document which of these findings related to scoliosis?
a. Convex angulations in thoracic area
b. Asymmetry of shoulder, back and waist
c . C o n c a v e c u r va t u r e o f l u m b a r s p in e
d. Malformation of vertebra
374. Plantar flexion of the foot in which the toes are fixed lower than the heel is
a.. Talipes varus b. Talipes valgus
c.. Talipes equines d. Talipes calcaneus
374. Plantar flexion of the foot in which the toes are fixed lower than the heel is
a. Talipes varus b. Talipes valgus
c. Talipes equines d. Talipes calcaneus
375. Osteomyelitis is mainly caused by

a.. Brucella b. Salmonella
c.. E coli d. Staphylococcus
376. The deficiency of protein causes the

a) Marasmus b) Kwashiorkor
c) Beriberi d) None
377. The deficiencies of vitamin A causes drying of conjunctiva and cornea the
condition is called as
a). Dry conjuctiva b) Xerosis
c). Hyper pigmentation d) None
378 .Daily requirement of vitamin for an infant

a) 1, 00, 00 IV b) 2. 00, 00 IV
c) 1500 IV d) None
379. The best source of vitamin A in the following is

a. Meat
b. Carbohydrates
c. Chicken
d. Codliveroil
364

380. Following is the co enzyme which helps in fat, protein metabolism
a) Peptinogene b. lactogen
c) Niacin d. none
381. The following is the best supplementation of vitamin D is

a) Ghee b) Egg yolk
c) Shark liver oil d) All the above
382. Congenital hyperrecognised

a) Ramsted’s operation b) Rama rao surgery
c) Both A & B d) None
383. The surgery done to current for the congenital hypertrophied pyloric stenosis is
named as
a) Ramsted’s operation b) Rama rao surgery
c) Both A & B d) None
384. An omphalocele is
a) Hernitation of abdominal organs in to umbilical cord
b) Swelling of umbilical cord
c) Opening of the abdomen
d) None
385. The enlarged colon in named as

a) Large bowel b) Bit bowel
c) Mega colon d) None
386. What is the disease that occurs due to absence of parasympathetic ganglia in the
rectum?
a) Paralysis of rectum b) Paralytic ilus c) Lactogen d) None
387. The main causes for infant diarrhea is

a) Mal nutrition b) Fever
c) Vomiting d) None
388. The main causative organism of rheumatic fever

a) Influenza b) Rheumatism
c) Beta hemolytic strepto cocci d) None
389. Ascett bodies are found in the following disease

a) Cordiomyophy b) Cardiac arrest
c) Rheumatic carditis d) Rheumatic arthritis
390. The following condition is the example for the neural tube development defect is
a. Spinal injuries b. Meningomyelocoele
c. Spina bifida d. Both B & C
365

391. When performing mouth to mouth breathing for an infant, the nurse should tilt the
infants head back slightly to
a. prevent air way b. Prevent air way
c. Prevent destination of abdomend. none
392. The fluids that preferable for children soon after the tonsillectomy
a. Hot drinks b. Milk
c. A cool drink d. Tea, coffee
393. Tuberculin test was found in the following year

a. 1907 b. 1973
c. 1972 d. None
394. The APGAR SCRE OF NEWBORN CAN be checked at

a. At the time of birth only
b. After admission and before discharge
c. At 1 minute and again at 5 minutes after birth
395. The main causative fever is

a. 36.5. C to 37. C b. 33.6.C to 33.8.C
c. 60. F to 70. F d. 20.C to 30. C
396. Which of the following can be called as high risk birth or high risk infant?
a. Birth weight<2.5 kgs b. Twins
c. Birth order 5 or more d. All the above
397. The road, to health card was first designed by

a. Charles quick b. David morley
c. Marldw d. Erikson
398. The following disease if once affected usually it gives lifelong immunity
a. Meseals b. Mumps
c. Typhoid d. None of the above
399. In which of the following disease the child become dyspnic on exertion and after
squat after walking a short distance
a. Mumps b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Ebstein’s disease d. All the above
400. The presence of C reactive protein found in the following disease during the
laboratory investigation
a. Bilurubenemia b. Protenemia
c. Rheumatic fever d. none of the above
366

401. Hydrocephalus refers

a. Execussive accumulation for CSF in the head
b. Presence of water in Brain
c. Presence of air in brain
402. The cardinal sign of meningitis is

a. Epilepticus b. Status epilepticus
c. Seizures d. All the above
403 The recurrent attack of seizures without regaining the consciousness

a. Epilepticus b. Status epilepticus
c. Seizures d. All the above
404. One of the examples for locomotor disability in the children

a. Cerebral plasy b. Fever
c. Common cold d. None of the above
405. Doll’s eye reflex can be disappeares in the child after

a. 2 weeks after birth b. Beyond 2 weeks
c. After 6 months d. None
406. Presistant Doll’s eye phenomenon in children indicates

a. Cerebral lesion b. Good health of baby
407. Following is the heterogenous group of inherited hematologic disorder

a. Thalassemia b. Leukemia
c. Sickle cell disease d. None
409. The most common malignant disease of children will be

a. Brain tumor b. Bone tumor
c. Leukemia d. All the above
410. The common endocrine metabolic disease of child hood is

a. Gout b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cushing syndrome d. All the above
411. The common causative organism of glomarulonephritis in the child is

a. Pneumococci b. Staphylococci
c. RNA virus V d. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
367

412. Phenyl ketonuria (PKU) is a (a)
a. Autosomal recessive disorder
b. Metabolic disorder V
c. Endocrine disorder
d. All the above
413. Tempertanturms usually found in normal children around

a. 2 years of age b. 4 years of age
c. up to 4 years of age d. Up to 6 years of age
414. Blepheritis refers

a. Inflammation of eye ball b. Inflammation of eye lid
c. Inflammation of ear d. All the above
415. The following is the one of the example for the anthropometric measurement
a. B.P b. Temperature
c. Pulse d. Head circumferences
416. The following disease are considered as protein energy malnutrition

a. Marasmus b. Kwashiorkor
417. Kwashiorkor may be termed as

a. Camel’s back syndrome
b. Protein malnutrion syndrome
c. Energy malnutrition syndrome
418. Kwahiarkor was first described by

a. Dr. Cicetz Williams b. Dr. Williams
c. Erikson d. All the above
419. The protein deprivation occurs in the following disease

a. Kwashiarkor b. Vitamin A
c. Beriberi d. All the above
420. In the case of marsmus the child thrives on a low diet of

a. Calories b. Protein
421. The vitamin D deficiency disorder is

a. Rickets b. Beriberi
c. Scurvey d. All the above
422. Integrated child development service launched in

a. 1976 b. 1977 b. 1974 d. 1975
368

423. Newborn refer’s to first
a. 2 weeks of life b. 5 weeks of life
c. 7 weeks of life d. None of the above
425. The newborn loses following weight during first 10 days

a. 10% b. 20%
b. 30% d. 40%
426. The posterior fontanelle closed by

427. Community pediatrics means

a. Paediatrics it apples to family only
b. Paediatrics it applies to the child ,his family and the community
c. Paediatric apply to society
d. All the above
428. What are the six-vaccine preventable diseases

a. Bronchitis, bronchiectisis, pneumonia fever, cold and cough, convulsions
b. Polio diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, tuberculosis and measles
c. Scab, impetigo, cholera, diarrhea, encephalitis, meningitis
d. All the above
429.BCG vaccine is given to prevent

a. Cholera b. diarrhea
b. Tuberculosis d. All the above
430. The standard site of the BCG vaccine

a. Middle of deltoid over the left-upper arm
b. Middle of deltoid over the right upper arm
c. Middle of right low arm
d. Middle of left lower arm
431. Weaning food first started with

a. solids b. Semi solids
c. Eggs d. Liquids
432. The first production of breast milk is called

a. Proteins b. Colostrum
c. Colostomy d. All the above
433. Which milk is best for low birth weight baby

a. Tinned milk b. Cow’s milk
c. Goat milk d. Expressed breast milk
369

434. Kwashiorkor occurs, due to deficiency of
a. Fats b. Vitamins
c. Minerals d. Protein and calories
435. Xeropthalmia due to deficiency of

a. Vitamin B b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin D d. All the above
436. Treatment of vitamin A deficiency is

a. Green leafy vegetables b. Orange applie
c. 10000IU of vitamin a d. Amla
437. The richest source of proteins

a. Meat, liver, kidney, poultry, fish
b. Cheese, ghee
c. Green gram, Bengal gram
d. All the above
438. The causative organism of whopping cough

a. Clostridium tetani b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Virus d. Tetanus bacilli
439. The drug of choice is typhoid fever

a. Penicillin b. Chloramphenicol
c. Crystallin pencicillin d. Vitamin B
440. The characterized features of malaria are

a. Cough and cold
b. Recurrent fever, splenomegaly and anemia
c. fever
d. All the above
441.Bag and mask ventilation in Newborn resuscitation is contraindicated in

a. Diaphragmatic hemia b. Pulmonary hypoplasia
c. Tracheo-esophageal fistula d. Laryngomalacia
442. Baby of diabetic mother shows all except

a. Hyaline membrane disease b. Large baby
c. Macrosomia d. Hyperglycemia
443. A low birth weight baby is by definition

a. Less than the 10th percentile
b. Less than the 15th percentile of the expected weight
c. Less than the 5th percentile of the expected weight
d. Less than the 20th percentile of the expected weight
370

444. The number of major fontanelles present in a new born child is
a. 1 b. 2
c. 4 d. 6
445. Low birth weight baby is defined as

a. Birth weight less than 1500 gm
b. Birth weight less than 2000 gm
c. Birth weight less than 2500 gm
d. Birth weight less than 1000 gm
446. A mother is preparing to breast feed her infant, it would be a value of her, if she were
acquainted with
a. Moro’s reflex b. Rooting reflex
c. Grasp reflex d. Cough reflex
447. Sneezing in a Neonate in that’s is

a. Nasal Allergy b. Syphillis
c. Nasopharyngitis d. A normal phenomenon
448. Neonatal period extends up to

a. 21 days of life b. 30 days of life
c. 28 days of life d. 35 days of life
449. Breast milk jaundice is due to

a. Prignandiole b. Vitamin K excess
c. Excessive calcium d. Cause not known
450. Infants receiving phototherapy

a. Have increased insensible water loss
b. Generally develop a bronze discoloration of skin
c. Should have their eyes patched during therapy
d. Often becomes constipated
451. In Rh isoimmunization, exchange transfusion is Indicated if

a. Cord blood hemoglobin is less than 10 gm %
b. Cord bilirubin is more than 5mg
c. History of previous sibling affected
d. a. b and c d
452. Fetal hypoxia is assessed by

a. Scalp blood pH b. Alpha feto protein levels
c. fetal heart monitoring d. a and c
453. Known to prevent intraventricular hemorrhage when given antenatally

a. Phenobarbitone b. Vitamin K
c. Both d. None
371

454. Physiological icterus usually appears on the regress by the
a. First day and third day b. Third day and seventh
c. Third and ninth day d. Ninth day and eleventh day
456. In kernicterus which is increased?

a. Conjugated bilirubin b. unconjugated billirubin
c. Both d. none
457. In physiological Jaundice in pre-term infants, serum bilirubin does not generally
exceed
a. 5gm% b. 10mg%
c. 15mg% d. 20mg%
458. Breakdown of 1 gm of haemoglobin yields about

a. 20 mg bilirubin b. 35 mg bilirubin
c. 5 mg bilirubin d. 20 mg
459. Photherapy reduces toxic biirubin to non toxic bilirubin by

a. E. Isomerisation b. H. Isomerisation
c. B. Isomerisation d. Increasing hepatic enzyme levels
460. X-ray appearance in hyaline membrane disease is

a. Homogenous ground glass appearance
b. Reticulonodular shadow
c. Normal X-ray
d. Air bronchogram
461. Most common cause of respiratory distress after birth in first 24 hours is
a. Neonatal sepsis b. Meconium aspiration
c. Bacterial pneumonia d. Air embolism
462. Commonest cause of pathological hyperbilirubinemia in India is

a. ABO incompatibility b. Rh- incompatibility
c. Septicemia d. G6 PD deficiency
463. Visual acuity reaches adult acuity by the age

a. 7 b. 9 c. 5 d. 3
464. Respiratory distress syndrome in infants is seen in

a. Babies of diabetes b. Premature rupture of membrane
c. a and b d. Less than 37 weeks
465. Indication of fetal distress is

a. Decrease in fetal scalp blood pH b. Meconium staining
c. Late deceleration of heart rate d. All of the above
372

466. Meconium is excerted by a Newborn till day
a. 2 b. 3
c. 6 d. 4
467. Which of the following is a characteristics radiological finding in neonatal

a. Gas in the portal b. Gas in the intestinal wall
c. Pnemoperitonium d. Air fluid level
468. In a child cessation of breathing for 20 second with bradycardia is

a. Apnea b. Dyspnea
c. Seizure d. None
469. In which child would you suspect child abuse?

a. A 2 years old with bruises on both shins
b. A 2 years old who won’t make eye contact with the nurse
c. A 3 years old who acts withdrawn & has bruises on his back
d. A 10 years old who comes to the emergency department with a broken arm
470. Which of the following signs & symptoms indicate lead poisoning?
a. Constipation, lethargy, elumsiness
b. Diarrhea
c. Oliguria
d. Tachycardia
471. What’s the leading cause of head injury in children younger than age 5?
a. Nonaccidental trauma b. Falls at home
c. Motor vehicle accidents d. Trauma caused by a sibling
472. A couple has a 2 years old with cystic fibrosis, when planning their next pregnancy,
the couple should undergo
a. Genetic counseling
b. Psychological counseling
c. Counseling regarding transmission of sexually transmitted diseases
d. TORCH tes
473. Which drug is used as an antidote for acetaminophenpoisoning?

a. Furosemide b. Ampicillin
c. Acetylcysteine d. Ethyline diamine tetra acetic and (EDTA)
474. Which nursing intervention is at the highest priority, in a case of a child who has
upper body bruising possible parental physical abuse
a. Report suspicions to appropriate authorities
b. Establish protective measure for the child
c. Identify circumstances surrounding the injury
d. Document actual, objective data to support assessment findings
373

475. Before reporting a child abuse case to protective services, the nurse must
a. Have a suspicion that abuse has occurred
b. Have a positive evidence that the abuse has doctored
c. Notify the parents of the intent to report the suspicious of abuse
d. Obtain your supervisor’s permission to report the suspected abuse
476. Collection of air or gas in the pleural space is termed as

a. Pneumothorax
b. Acute respiratory infection
c. Emphysema
d. Pleural effusion
477. Asthma presenters are

a. Ketotifen, cromoglycate, steroid
b. Aminophylline, Theophylline
c. Beclomethasone, budesonide
d. Salbutamol, teributaline
478. Submersion in water leading to death with 24 hours

a. Near drowning b. Drowning
c. Wet drowning d. Dry drowning
479. The capacity of spacehaler for infants & young children respectively is
a. 15m 1750 m1 b. 250m1, 200 ml
b. 100ml, 450 ml d. 50 ml, 100 ml
480. which is the test time to assess the respiratory rate of a young child?
a. While the child is sleeping
b. While the child is playing in the playroom
c. Immediately after taking the child’s blood pressure
d. While the child is sitting on his mother’s lap
481. A child is having shallow respiration with 5 second periods of apnea. What action
should a nurse take?
a. Notify the physician immediately
b. Request an order monitoring
c. Continue routine monitoring
d. Bring the crash to room
482. You observe that a neonate has cyanotic feet & hands 12 hours after birth. What
action should you take?
a. Notify the physician
b. Prepare to administer supplemental oxygen
c. Make sure the neonate is warm enough, & continue observing him
d. Apply warm compresses to feet & hands
374

483. Which of these observations would indicate respiratory problems?
a. Cyanosis of feet & hands
b. Respirations of 30 breaths mm
c. Grunting respirations
d. Respirations of 40 breath/mm
484. While performing the inspection of a neonate’s abdomen which finding of the
umbilical cord is normal?
a. The child squints
b. The child closes one eye to see
c. The child has rapid eyeball movements
d. The child holds a look close to his face
486. which assessment finding suggests that a 5 month old infant has a hearing deficit?
a. Absence of babbling
b. Failure of localize a source of sound by age 4 months
c. Failure to respond to spoken words
d. Pronounced startle reflex
487. Which factor place an infant at greater risk than an adult for developing oitits media
?
a. Introduction of solid foods b. Flat, wide Eustachian tubes
c. Immature cardiac sphincter d. Feeding in semi-fowler’s position
488. What’s an easy way to determine whether an infant has strabismus?

a. Observe for the red reflex
b. Observe for the reflection of a penlight in the infant’s eyes
c. Measure the epicanthal fold of the nose
d. Determine whether the pupils are the same size in both eyes
489. When performing physical assessment on a school age child during a well child
chieck up, nurse palpate a goiter. Which condition can be suspected?
a. Diabetes insipidus b. Hypopituitaris
c. Hyperpituitarism d. Hyperthyroidism
490. Which of the finding would lead a nurse to conclude that the child has chickenpox?
a. Rash that starts on the face and moves to the trunk
b. Rad raised rash that begins on the trunk
c. Central rash that’s sparse on distal limbs
d. Scaling of the palms & soles
491. The American Academy of pediatrics recommends that the first dose of hepatitis B
vaccine be given at what age?
a. Neonate b. 2 months
375

492. Which immunization is to be given to 4 months old infant? (
a. MMR b.IPV
c. DTap d.HIB
e.Varicella
493. A child is born to a woman who tested HBsAg positive when should this infant
receive the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine?
a. Within 12 hours of birth
b. Within first 2 months after birth
c. Between ages 1 & 4 months
d. Between ages 6 & 18 months
494. Which of the following clinical manifestations, most commonly appears in a child
suffering from measles?
a. Arthrits
b. Parotid gland enlargement
c. Erthematous rash
d. Encephalitis
495. A child diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopen purpura has the following clinical
manifestation
a. Petchiae
b. Dark colored urine
c. External hemorrhage
d. Temperature more than 101F (38.3 C)
496. Hemophilia is
a. a Y-linked recessive disorder that leads to deficient factor IX production
b. an X-linked recessive disorder that leads to deficient factorsVlll or IX
production
c. Seen only in males and is likely to produce a platelet count greater than
500,000/pi
d. Transmitted at the time of delivery and usually is not apparent until the child is
age 2
497. The abdominal x-ray of child diagnosed with sickle cell disease, reveals an
enlarged liver & spleen. These findings indicate which type of crisis.
a) Aplastic crisis b) Sequestration crisis
c) Vaso-occiusive crisis d) Hemolytic crisis
498. Which of the following activities is most appropriate for 8 years old with iron
deficiency anemia?
a) Dancing b) Playing video games
c) Reading a book d) Riding a bicycle
376

499. Which vitamin nurse make sure the child diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia,
is taking with iron?
a) Folic acid b) Ascorbic acid
c) Niacin d) Riboflavin
500. Which of the following instructions is most important when teaching home
management of a child with hemophilia?
a. Toothbrushes should be held under warm water before use
b. Aspirin should be used for mild joint pain & inflammation
c. Bleeding extremities should be held in a dependent
position to encourage stasis & clot formation
d. Wall-to-wall carpetting should not be used anywhere in
the home
501. The main cause of symptoms with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is

a. Destruction of platelets thorugh an autoimmune process
b. Decreased platelet production
c. An enlargement spleen
d. Bleeding & petechiae
502. Which precaution is used during phototherapy?

a . Le av e th e inf a nt 's c lot h es o n
b. Check the infant's temperature once a day
c. Reposition the infant infrequently
d . Co v er th e inf a nt 's e yes
501. The main cause of symptoms with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is

a. Destruction of platelets thorugh an autoimmune process
b. Decreased platelet production
c. An enlargement spleen
d. Bleeding & petechiae
502. Which precaution is used during phototherapy?

a . Le av e th e inf a nt 's c lot h es o n
b. Check the infant's temperature once a day
c. Reposition the infant infrequently
d. Co v er th e inf a nt 's e yes
503. Which finding most likely indicates a child has a urinary tract infection (UTI)
a. He has clear urine
b. He's toilet trained but experiences enuresis
c. He drinks a lot of fluids at frequent intervals
d. He urinates once in the mornings and once in the evening
377

504. Hypospadias is
a. Ventral curvature of the penis
b. Meatal opening located on the dorsal surface of the penis
c. Narrowing or stenosis of the preputial opening of the foreskin
d. Urethral opening located behind the glans penis or along the ventral surface
of penil shaft
505. Cryptorchidism is
a. Protrusion of abdominal contents into scrotum
b. Narrowing of the preputial opening of the foreskin
c. Failure of one or both testes to descend into scrotum
d. Fluid in the scrotum
506. Which of the following medications used for allergic rhinitis doesn't cause
sedation and would therefore be the best choice for patient
a. Brompheniramine and pseudoephedrin (Dimetapp)
b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
c. Pseudoephedrine (Triaminic)
d. Laratadine (Claritin)
507. Otolani test is used to identify

a. Genu valgum
b. Congenital spine deformities
c. Congenital dislocation of hip
d. Rickets
508. The most common source of infection in osteomyelitis is

a. Exogenous infection b. Hematogenous spread
c. Direct contact d. Droplet infection
509. The traction which is used to treat an upper extremity is

a. Russell traction
b. Dunlop traction
c. Balance suspension traction
d. Crutchfied traction
510. A 12 year old child who has been diagnosed with scoliosis is to be treated with
a Milwaukee brace. To which of the following nursing diagnosis would a nurse give
priority?
a. Skin integrity b. Self care deficit
c. Impaired gas exchange d. Sleep pattern
disturbances
378

511. Child presenting with painless abdominal mass, fever, abdominal pain and
hemeturia is suspected for
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Wilm's tumor
d. Chronic myeloid leukemia
512. Reed Sternberg cell which is a giant cell with mirror image nucleus is seen in
a. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
b. Acute non lymphocytic leukemia
c. Hodgkin's disease
d. Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
513. The most important diagnostic test for brain tumor is

a. Arterial blood investigation
b. X ray skull
c. CT
d. MRI
514. The in which type of brain tumor surgical removal is not possible?
a. Medulloblastoma
b. Brain stem gliomas
c. Ependymoma of the 4th ventricle
d. Cerebellar Astrocytoma
515. A child undergoing whole body radiation for Hodgkin's disease may have
destruction of bone marrow resulting in
a. Increased blood viscosity
b. Increased tendency for fracture
c. Decreased number of erythrocytes
d. Decreased susceptibility to infection
516. During chemotherapy for a child with leukemia the nurse expects the client to
develop soreness of the mouth and anus because
a. These tissues are poorly nourished
b. The gastro intestinal tract is directly involved by irritating effects of
chemotherapy
c. These tissues normally divide rapidly and damaged by chemotherapeutic
agents
d. The side effects of chemotherapeutic agents tend to concentrate in these
body areas
379

517. In childhood tuberculosis, a typical tubercle formation with surrounding layer of
mononuclear leukocytes and occasional giant cells in the lungs is described as
a. Pleural lesion b. Mantoux reaction
c.Khon reaction d. Ghon focus
518. The causative organism in Mumps is

a. Paramyxo virus b. Bacteria
c.Rickettsia d. Protozoa
519. The incubation period of chicken pox is

a. 14 — 21 days b. 10 — 12 days
c. 8-12 days d. 7-16 days
520. The nursing plan for child with measles includes

a. Contact precaution
b. Respiratory isolation
c. Protective isolation
d. Isolation of blood and blood products
521. The child with poliomyelitis cannot kiss its knee without bending the knees while
in sitting position. The test is used to demonstrate
a. Stiffness of back b. Stiffness of extremities
c. Stiffness of neck d. None of the above
522. Pea soup stool and rose red spots over the abdomen are seen in case of
a. Dengue hemorrhagic fever
b. Cholera
c. Typhoid
d. Diphtheria
523. Small vesicles with honey colored serum is a symptom of

a.. Scabies b. Seborrheic dermatitis
c.. Impetigo d. Diphtheria
524. In planning the care for a child with tetanus the primary consideration should be to
a. Reduce tactile and auditory stimuli
b. Feed the child
c. Meet the emotional need
d. Administer oxygen
525. The fluid and electrolyte status of the child is more precarious that of the adult for the
following reasons except
a. A larger percentage of fluid is located in the intracellular space
b. Total body water as a percentage of body weight is higher
c. The limited ability to handle changes in sodium
d . The d ep e n de n c y n e e ds of t he c h i l d
380

526. While examining a child with head injury which of the following signs indicate
increased intracranial pressure
a. Hypertension and Bradycardia
b. Hypotension and tachycardia
c. Bleeding from ear and nose
d. Loss of consciousness and seizures
527. Which one of the following strategies is not acceptable in a child with poly trauma?
a. Applying pressure to cricoids cartilage during intubation
b . U s i n g g a s t r i c t ub e w h ile su ct io n in g
c. Using oral endotracheal tube with self inflating bag
d. Head tilt and chin lift to establish airway
528. The term ' hem etochezia' refers to

a . S o f t b l a c k ta r c o lo r e d s t o o l s
b. Blood and mucus in the stools
c . B r igh t re d o r ma r o o n c o lo re d st oo ls
d. Pale yellow stools
529. Inducing vomiting is contraindicated in the following types of poisoning in children

except
a. Poisonous plants and seeds
b. Acid poisoning
c. Kerosine poisoning
d. Dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane (DDT) poisoning
530. Air hunger is a remarkable sign in which type of poisoning?

a. Brufen toxicity b. Paracetamol toxicity
c. Aspirin toxicity d. Chloroquine toxicity
531. In a 10 month old infant with foreign body aspiration which is the most dangerous
technique that should not be practiced?
a. Lay infant face down on rescuers lap, head lower than the trunk and supportive
head and perform four back blows
b. Turn infant as a unit to supine position and perform chest thrust
c. Blind finger sweep in the mouth to remove the foreign body in the pharynx and
larynx
d. Heimlich maneuver with victim standing or sitting
532. Following a health teaching on prevention of foreign body aspiration in infants

and toddlers which of the following indicate the parents need further instructions?
a. Do not permit eating and drinking while in a lying down position
b. Do not permit to play with small objects e.g. coins, buttons, and marbles
c. Place the child in left side after feeding to facilitate digestion of food
d. Safety pins should be kept closed and not placed within reach of the child
381

533. A difference in blood pressure in upper and lower extremity is seen in
a.. Pulmonary stenosis b. Aortic stenosis
c.. Coarctation of aorta d. Systemic hypertension
534. A child is undergoing bone marrow aspiration. Immediately after the

procedure the nurse should
a. Position the child on the affected side

b. Frequently monitor the vital signs
c. Cleanse with an antiseptic solution
d. Briefly apply pressure over the aspiration site
535. The ventricular septa! defect is

a. Vascular disease
b. A cyanotic congenital heart disease
c. Cyanotic heart disease
d. Atheroscelerosis
536. Pallets tetralogy means

a. Pulmonarysterosis, VSD, right ventricular defect and dextroposition of the
aorta
b. Diabetes, hypertension, myocardial infraction, peptic ulcer
c. Marasmus, bitot spot, scurvy, cold
d. All the above
537. The drug of choice in rheumatic fever is

a) Cifran b) Amikacin
c) Amoxycillin d) Benzathine penicillin
538. Encephalitis signifies inflammation of

a) Heart b) Glands
c) Tonsil d) None of the above
539. Neck rigidity and kernings sign is positive in case of

a) Encephalitis b) Brain abscess
c) Tuberculosis meningitis d) Cerebral palsy
540. We see febrile convulsions when a child having

a. Low temperature
b. Above 1000 F temperature
c. Temperature of 98.4°F
d. Temperature above 104°F
382

541. An important clinical feature of diarrhea is
a. Head ache, general malaise
b. Pain
c. Cold and cough
d. Vomiting and water motions
542. The causative organism of cholera

a) Vibrio cholera b) Staphylococc
c) Clostridium d) Streptococci.
543. Oral rehydration therapy means

a. Re p lac e me nt o f sa lts an d 1 lite r w ater
b. Replacement of glucose
c. Replacement of minerals
d. All the above
544. Glomerulonephritis is characterized by sudden onset of

a. Hematuria, oliguria, edema and hypertension
b. High fever, tenderness, liver enlargement
c. Cold, cough, fever, pain
545. Leukemia is characterized by persistent and enormous production of

a. RBC
b. Neutrophil
c. Immature white blood cells
d. All the above
546. The prodrome infant means

a. A baby born before a gestation period of 37 weeks or
less
b. A baby bron before a period of 40 w eeks
c. None of the above
d. All the above
547. The incubator is used to maintain

a) Weight b) Sleep
c) Temperature-, humidity d) All the above
548. The toilet training may be started from the age of

a) 18 months b) 12 months
c) 5 years d) 10 years
549. Contra indicator for immunization

a) Malignancy, fever b) Irradiation
c) Only A & B d) Pyloric stenosis
383

550. Immunization with live vaccines should not be repeated before
a) 1 week b).3 days
c) 3 weeks d). none of the above
551. Pertussis vaccine is with history of

a). Fever b) Jaundice
c). Diarrhea d) Convulsions
552 .The play therapy in the hospital to be sick child is important because the child
can temporarily divert his mind from the following
a) Emotions, tension b) Pain
c) Loneliness d) All the above
553. The color of the meconium is

a) Black b) Yellow
c) Brown d) Greenish yellow
554. The newborn can easily adjusted to the extra uterine life when the Apgar score is
between the
a) 5-7 b) 0-4
c) 8-10 d) All the above
555. The pulse rate of newborn is

a) 60 to 70/ minute b) 80 to 85/minute
c) 50 to 90/minute d) 120 to 140/minute
556. Anterior fontanelle usually closed by the month of

a. 18 months
b. 16 months
c. 3 years
d. 30 years
557. The first step in nursing management of the neonate is

a) Taking temperature b) Change of position
c) Maintain patient airway d) Immunization
558.The action of phototherapy is

a. Changing of yellow lipid bilirubin to water soluble
b. bilirubin
c. Chanigng of yellow bilirubin to black bilirubin
e. All the above
559. When the male child is under phototherapy we has to cover

a) Whole body b) Hands
c) Legs d) Genital area
384

560. The chief source of vitamin D
a) Fish b) Milk
c) Sun rays d) Cold liver oil
561. No history of passing meconium in a case of

a) Imperforate anus b) Intestinal obstruction
c) Hiatus naming d) Pyloric stenosis
562 The drug of choice in ascariasis

a) Metrogly — b) Peparazine citrate
c) Cloxacillin d) Amoxyllin
563. When a portion of a lung or the whole lung fails to expand it is called
a) Asthma b) Ca-lung
c) Atelectasis d) None of the above
564. Calmpose is a (a)
a) Tranquilizer b) Antibiotic
c) Antihistamine d) Antidote
565. The meaning of anti dote is

a. Which controls the effect of poison?
b. Which controls terror?
c. Which controls cold?
d. Which controls convulsions?
566. Deformity cause by congenital or acquired contraction of muscle or

tendons of the' foot called
a) Tapipes b) Club foot
c). All the above d) None of the above
567. In children, before complete ossification of bone a partial break or bending may
occur it is called
a) Compound fracture b) Closed fracture
c) Green stick fracture d) Depressed fracture
568. Hypoxemia means

a. Insufficient 02 content in the blood
b. Insufficient content in the blood
c. Insufficient water in the blood
d . I n s u f f i c ie n t c a lc i u m i n t h e b l o o d
569. Pellagra is deficiency disease due to lack of

a) Nicotinic acid b) Thiamine
c) Pyridoxine d) Cynocobalamine
385

570. Quincy means
a) Peritonsillar abscess b) Lung abscess
c) Tonsillitis d) Pharyngitis
571. When an infant requires restraint for examination or treatment of head and neck.
This restraint helps to immobilize the infant
a) Jacket restraint b) Mummy restraint
c) Clove hitch restrain d) All the above
572. Which is the wrong statement regarding normal development for an 18-month
old child?
a. Recognizes miniature toys at 10 feet with each eye separately
b. Climbs adult chair
c. Eats with a spoon
d. Takes off shoes and socks
e . R e s po n d s t o f r e e - f ie l d a u d io me t e r
573. A normal 4-year old child

a. Demonstrates single-letter vision at 20 feet
b . C a n u n d r e s s a n d d re s s h im s e lf c o mp l e te l y
c. Draws a man with head and legs
d. Gives full name and age
e. Can copy a square and draw a house with a door
574. DDST is valuable in assessing the follow ing parameters in the

developmental testing of a child except
a.Gross motor b. Fine motor
c.Personal- social d. Reading
e. Language
575. A 30-month old child is expected to

a. Hop on one foot
b. Have 20 teeth
c . C o u n t u p t o 1 00 a c c u r a t e l y
d. Names 4 colors
e. Draw a triangle
576. Which ossification center is not expected to be seen in an x-ray of a 6- month

old child
a. Head of the femur b. Proximal end of the femur
c. Proximal end of the tibia d. A metacarpal bone
e.Capitate
577. For a healthy one-year child which of the following statements is true
a . He a d s iz e is la rge r tha n c he s t
b. Weight is around 8 kg
c. Upper segment to lower segment ratio is about 1:6
d. Head circumference is 42 cm
e. Length is 66 cm
386

578. Skeletal age is more retarded than the height age in
a. Co nst itut ion a l de l a y o f g ro w th
b. Familial short stature
c. Growth hormone deficiency
d. Down's syndrome
e. Isosexual precocity
579. The span is longer than height in all except the following
a.. Eunachoidism b. Arachnodactyly
c..Pott' s spine d. Marfan's syndrome
e. Precocious puberty
580. The span measurement is more than total length in

a. Female infant b. Children 8-10 years old
c. Adolescent male d. Pituitary dwarfism
e..Achondroplasia
581. Measurement of span and comparing it with the height/length of a child is

clinically very useful particularly in the diagnosis of short stature. Normal child
beyond 14 years has a span minus height/length as under
a. 0 cm in both male and female
b +4cm in male and +1cm in female
c. + 2.5 cm both in male and female
d .+ 1 c m in ma le a nd 0 c m i n fe ma le
e .+ 1 c m i n ma le a n d -1 c m i n fe ma le
582. Height velocity during the first eighteen years of life is highest during
a. First year of life b. Preschool years
c.2 3 years d. Pubertal spurt
e. School age
583. Physical growth during puberty Identify the incorrect statement

a. During adolescence, a teenager's weight doubles and height increases by 15-
20%
b. Before puberty there is little difference in muscular strength between boys
and girls
c. Linear growth at peak velocity is around 9.5 cm for boys and 8.3 cm for girls
d. During puberty, major organs including lymphoid tissue, double in size
584. Adolescent suicide, identify the incorrect statement
a. Thoughts of suicide occur during normal mood swings during which short
periods of depression are common
b . F e ma l e s h a v e h ig h e r r a t e t h a n m a le s
c. Unsuccessful suicide attempts are three times higher in females than in
males
d. More common in younger adolescents th a n older
387

585. Richest source of dietary phosphorous is
a.Meat b. Eggs
c. Legumes d Nuts
e.Colas and soft drinks
586. Clinical effects of magnesium deficiency are all except

a . Mu s c l e fa s c i cu l at i o n a nd t r e mo r s
b. Personality changes
c. Depression of ST segment in ECG
d. Increased neuromuscular excitability
e. Respiratory depression
587. Selenium deficiency can be associated with all of the following except
a. Keshan Cardiomyopathy
b. Patients on long term TPN
c. Premature infants with BPD
d . H yp er p ig m en t at i o n o f h a i r a nd s k in
e . A p l a s m a s e le n iu m v a lu e < 1 0 p g l L
588. Goiter occurs when iodine intake or excretion in urine is

a. Between 80-120 jig/day b. Between 60-80 jig/day
c. Between 40-60 jig/day d. Between 20-40 jig/day
e. Less than 20 jig/day
589. Vitamin A supplementation in the diets of poor community in developing

countries has resulted in
a. Fa ll in th e inc ide nce of b lindness
b. Reduced mortality in children under 5 yrs
c. Reduced measles related mortality
d. All of the above
e. a and c only
590. With which overdose of the following vitamins is necrotizing enterocolitis

associated
a. Niacin in oral dose of 200 mg
b.Vitamin F in doses up to 100 mg/kg/day IV
c. Vitamin A in doses of over 20,000 IU/day
d. Vitamin D in doses of over 40,000 IU/day
a Vitamin B6 in doses of over 500 mg/day
591. A child aged 1 year, with weight below the 5th centile
weighing 5.5 kg, without edema, will be classified as
protein calorie malnutrition of which category
a. Underweight b. Marasmus c. Marasmic kwashiorkor
d. Grade II malnutrition e. None of the above
388

592. Kwashiorkor is most likely to result from which of the following
a. Dysadaptation of the body to the nutritional stress
b. Severe deficiency of protein and moderate deficiency of
calories
c. Severe deficiency of calories and moderate deficiency of protEns
d. Moderate deficiency of both proteins and calories
e. Vegetarian diet
5 9 3 . A c h i l d p r e s e n t s w i t h b r aw n y d e r m a t i t i s , somnambulism hallucinations,
and neurological signs, like hyperesthesia. There is an increase in organic aciduria.
He is known to have been fed raw egg-white regularly This could result from
a. Overdose of Vitamin B6 b. Biotin deficiency
c. Niacin deficiency d. Vitamin K excess
a. None of the above
594. Regarding 'Reference Protein', point out the false statement

a. Mus t conta in all e ss entia l amino a cids
b. Has a Net Protein Utilization (NPU) of 85
c. Hen's egg is an example of a reference protein
d. For an infant breast milk is a reference protein
e. Reference protein ,s completely utilized because of its easy digestibility
595. "Chemical score - is defined as

a. Total calories derived from protein in food
b. Total composition of all essential amino acids in a protein food
c. -
total composition of all essential and unessential amino acids in protein food
d. a and b
e. Percent concentration of the most limiting essential amino acid in a protein
596. Which of the following vitamins is endogenously produced by intestinal

bacteria?
a. Ascorbic acid b. Biotin
c. Thiamine d. Vitamin D
e. Riboflavin
597. Natural milk is a poor source of the following nutrients

a. Iron b. Vitamin C
c.. Vitamin D d. All of the above
e.a and b
598. Recognized features of Vitamin A deficiency include

a. Xerophthalmia b. Renal calculi
c. Pseudotumor cerebri d. a and b
e.a and c
389

599. Hyperplasia of gums is associated with which of the following conditions
a. Scurvy b. Phenytoin therapy
c. Xanthomatosis d. All of the above
e. a and b only
600. Human colostrum has all the following properties except

a. It has higher fat content than mature human milk
b. It has a higher protein content than mature human milk
c. It is richer in vitamin A compared with mature human milk
d. Sodium and potassium are higher than in mature human milk
e. It contains protective antibodies

601. Niacin deficiency is characterized by

a. Increased incidence of patients on vegetarian diet including milk and eggs
b. Diar rhea , der ma titis and de ment ia
c. Dermatitis responding to exposure to sunlight
d. A decreased incidence in fall and w intar
e. High morbidity
602. The normal daily requirement of tc .al protein per kg body weight at the end of the
first year of life is
a. 5 gm per kg body weight
b. 4.5 gm per kg body weight
c. 3.5 gm per kg body weight
d. 2.5 gm per kg body weight
e. 1.5 gm per kg body weight
603. Common characteristic features of vitamin D deficiency rickets include

a. Pain in legs
b. Hypocalcemic tetany
c. Widening of ends of long bones
d. Retardation of bone age
e. c & d
604. Which of the following changes are seen in body fluid compartments in
Kwashiorkor?
a . Tota l b o d y w at e r i s i n c re a se d
b. Ratio between extra cellular water to total body water is increased
c. Sodium is retained in the body
d . All of the a bo v e e . a & c
390

605. Megaloblastic anemia may be associated with
a.. Goat's milk feeding b. Anti-epileptic therapy
c.. Pica d. a & b
e. a & c
606. Which of the following foods is rich in zinc?

a..Milk b. Wheat
c. Mutton d. All of the above
e. b & c
607. Hypervitaminosis A may be associated with all except

a. Acute ingestion of 300,000 units of vitamin A
b . S ym p t o m s of p se u d ot u m o u r c e r e b r i
c. Anorexia and vomiting
d . B loo d re t i n o l l e v e l s 2 0 - 5 0 u g / d L
e. Desquamation of the skin
608. Pyridoxine deficiency may be associated with all of the following except
Seizure disorder
a. Isoniazid ingestion
b. Macrocytic anemia
c. Ingestion of prolonged heat processed formula by infants
d. Inherited inability to utilize normal amounts of pyridoxine
609. Each of the following statements regarding severe scurvy is true, except
a. It can be marked by severe degeneration of the skeletal muscles
b. Can lead to cardiac hypertrophy
c. Bo ne marrow depr ess io n c a n occ ur
d. Atrophy of adrenals can take place
e. Can give rise to liver atrophy
610. Which amongst the following fruits has the highest content of iron per 100 gm of
edible portions?
a. Seethaphal (Custard Apple)
b. Dates
c. Mango
d. Banana
611. Which among the following fruits is the richest source of vitamin C
a..Orange b. Grapes
c. Guava d. Mango
612. Which amongst the following fruits is the richest source of carotene?
a.. Mango b. Papaya
C Orange d. Banana
391

613. Symptoms and signs of hypervitaminosis D include all of the following except
a. Hypotonia b. Polydypsia and polyuria
c. Hypocalcemia d. Comeal calcification
614. In Kwashiorkor the following are expected findings except

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Diabetic glucose tolerance curve
c. Magnesium deficiency
d. Increased excretion of hydroxyproline
e. Aminoaciduria
615. Hypervitaminosis D is associated with the following except

a. Vomiting
b. Diarrhea
c. Aortic valvular stenosis
d. Polydypsia
e. Hypotonia
616. Which is the correct statement regarding daily requirement of vitamins in

children?
a. Vitamin Bi 0.5-1.5 mg
b. Vitamin B12 10-100 mg
c. Vitamin B6 0.4-1.4 mg
d. Vitamin E 4-5 IU
e. Nicotinic acid 8-20 mg
617. Normal contents of breast milk include the following except

a..Riboflavin 0.5-0.8 mg/L b. Pyridoxine 100 jug/L
c..Copper 300-400 pgIL d. Zinc 4 mg/L
e. Thiamine 150 u/I.
618. Regarding mothers and their successfully breast feeding infants, identify the
correct statement
a. Babies need extra water during the hot weather
b. Babies do not need extra water even during hot weather
c. Mothers need extra water during the period of breast feeding
d. Extra fluid intake by mothers increases the milk yield for the babies
e. Both mother and baby benefit from drinking extra quantities of water.
619. The diagnostic clinical triad of Kwashiorkor is

a . G r ow th f a i l u r e , m i s e r y a n d e de ma
b . G r ow th f a i l u r e , d e r m a t o s is a n d e de ma
c . E d e m a , f a t t y l i v e r an d m i se r y
d . E d e m a , d e r m a t o s i s a n d d y s c h r o mo t r i c h ia
e. Grow th failure, fatty liver and edema
392

620. Nutritional value of foods, identify false statement
a. Yoghurt contains inadequate amount of Vitamin D
b. Milk of mothers who drink fluoridated water contain
adequate fluoride for the infant
c. Imitation milks are too low in protein
d. Human milk may not provide adequate Vitamin D for
infants with dark skin
e. Mother's milk deficient in thiamine can cause beriberi
in the exclusively breast fed infant
621. Radiologic bone changes in the wrist in Rickets include all except
a. Ground glass appearance of bone
b. Increased distance from distal ends of radius/ulna to metacarpal bones
c. Prominent trabeculae
d. Greenstick fracture
e. Cupping of distal end of radius and ulna
622. Immunologic disturbances known to be associated with malnutrition are

a. Large and hypertrophic thymus
b. Slow humoral antibody response
c. Adequate polymorphonuclear phagocytic response
d. Reduced proportion of B-lymphocytes
e . R e d u c e d s ec re t o r y I g A
623. The following are expected findings in marasmus except

a. Increased metabolic rate
b. Hypotonia
c . S u b n o r m a l t e mp e r a tu re
d. Decreased pulse rate
e. Hypochromic microcytic anemia
624. True statements concerning the dietary treatment of classical phenylketonuna

include all of the following except
a. The diet is phenylalanine restricted
b. Breast milk is ideal for the involved infant
c. Blood phenylalanine level must be checked regularly so as to adjust the diet
d. Thiamine is added
e. a and c
625. Average urinary losses of sodium (or average daily needs) in mEqi Kg/24 hours
a. 5 mEqIkg body weight / day
b. 5-7 mEq1kgIday
c. 7-9 mEq/kg/day
d. 9-11 mEqIkg/day
393

626. Average urinary losses of potassium (or average daily needs) in mEqi kg124 hours
a. mEqfkg body weight I day
b. 0.25 mEqIkg/day
c. 0.50 mEq/kg/day
d. 1-2 mEqfkg/day
627. Average urinary losses of chloride (or average daily needs) in mEq/ kg/24 hours
a. <1 mEq/kg body weight / day
b. 1-3 mEq/kg/day
c. 2-4 mEq/kglday
d. 3-5 mEq/kglday
e . > 5 mEq/kg/day
628. All of the following can result in hypokalemic states except:

a. Alkalosis
b. Aldosterone
c. Laxative abuse
d. Renal tubular disease
e. Rapid cell breakdown (e.g. trauma)
629. Hyperkalemic states can be treated with all except

a. IV calcium b. Spironolactone
c. Insulin and glucose IV d. Dialysis
e.Diuretics
630. Hypokalemic states can be treated with all except

a.Potassium supplements b. Amiloride
c.IV calcium d. Spironolactone
e.Triamterone
631. Causes of hyponatremia are all Except

a . C e n tr a l d i a be t e s i n s ip i d us
b. Diuretic use
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Adrenal insufficiency
e. Excessive sweating
f.
632. The level of deficit of potassium in hypernatremic dehydration is
a. >6mEqIL
b. 4-6 mEq/L
c. J4 q/1
d. Remains at the pre-dehydration level
e . I s u n p r e d i c t a b le
394

633. Which of the following medications might be implicated in the development
of Reye's syndrome?
a. Phe n yt o in (D il an t in)
b . F r u s e m i d e (L a s ix )
c. Phytonadione (Aqua Mephyton)
d. Aspirin
634. Which of the following precautions must be taken while taking care of child with
AIDS?
a) Airborn precautions b) Standard precautions
c) Protective isolation d) Strict hand washing
635. Which sign of meningeal irritation occurs in a child diagnosed with bacterial
mengitis?
a) Marked irritability b) Overriding sutures
c)Prominent scalp veins d) Depressed anterior
e.fontanel
636. Which assessment finding would lead you to suspect down syndrome in an
infant?
a. Single palmar crease and hypotonia
b. Cleft lip & palate & high-pitched cry
c. Flat maxillary area & short palpable fissures
d. Hyperactivity, microcephaly, and persistent post natal growth lag
637. Which nutrient decreases the incidence of neural tube defects (NTDs)?
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D d) Folic acid
638. Which assessment finding suggests that a neonate has spina bifida occulta?
a. Bilateral hip dislocation
b. Bulging anterior fontanel
c. Noticeable dimpling above the separation of the buttocks
d . No mov e men t in l ow e r ex t r e mit ie s
639. Which of the following signs indicate increased ICP?

a. Bulging fontanel
b. Tachycardia
c. Slurred speech
d. Decreased level of consciousness
e. Bradycardia
f. decreased head circumference
640. A child with difficulty breathing & a 'barking cough' is displaying signs associated
with which conditions
a) Cystic fibrosis b) Asthma
c) Epiglottiditis d) Croup
395

641. Which instruction about preventing sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) should
the nurse include when teaching the parents of an infant?
a. Position the infant on his stomach when sleeping
b. Position the infant in an infant seat to sleep
c. Position the infant on his back to sleep
d. Position the infant in a side lying position to sleep'
642. Which test result is a key finding in the child with cystic fibrosis (CF)?
a. Chest x-ray revealing interstitial fibrosis
b. Neck x-ray showing areas of upper airway narrowing
c. Lateral neck x-ray revealing an enlarged epiglottis
d. Positive pilocarpine iontophoresis sw eat test
643. The nurse is assessing the lung sounds of a child with asthma. Which sound is
the nurse most likely to hear?
a) Vesciular sound b) Wheezing
c) Crackles d) Pleural friction nib
644. Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate before dioxin administration?
a . Ta ke t he i n fa n t ' s b loo d p r e s su r e
b. Check the infant's respiratory rate for 1 minute
c. Check the infant's radial pulse for 1 minute
d. Check the infant's apical pulse for 1 minute
645. Which drug may be administered to achieve pharmacologic closure of

patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
a) Digoxin (Lanoxin) b) Prednisone (Deltasone)
c)Frusemide (Lasix) d) Indomethacin (Indocin)
646. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

a . Atr ia l se p ta l d efe c t (A SD )
b. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
c. Right ventricular hypertrophy
d. Aortic stenosis
e. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome f) Right ventricular outflow obstruction
f. g) Overriding aorta
647. The most commonly identified viral pathogen that produces diarrhea is
a) Giardia b) Rotavirus
c) Salmonella d) Shigilla
648. Which test provides a definitive diagnosis for Hirschsprung's disease?

a) Rectal biopsy b) Barium enema
c) Upper GI series d) Stool for parasites
396

649. Which sign or symptom would you expect to find in an infant with pyloric stenosis?
a) Vomiting of bile b) Lethargy
c) Diarrhea d) Projectile vomiting
650. Which signs or symptoms would you expect in an infant with intussuception?
a. Projectile vomiting containing formula but no bile
b. Ribbon like stools
c. Abdominal distension and pale, w atery stools
d. Severe colicky abdominal pain & a sausage shaped mass in the right upper
quadrant
651. The mechanisms generally responsible for solute movement across the
intestinal m.u-osa are
a. Carrier mediated transport
b. Passive diffusion
c. Solvent drag
d. All of the above
e. A and C only
652. All of the following can result in hyperkalemic states except

a. Oliguric renal failure
b. Beta 2 catecholamines
c. IDDM
d. Adrenal insufficiency
e. Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
653. Cause of hypernatremia are all except

a. Newbom in a radiant warmer
b. Adipsia (lack of thirst)
c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d. Excessive sw eating
e . I na p p r o p r i at e s ec r e t io n o f A D H
654. In patients with the Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, the platelets

a. Are functionally normal
b. Are morphologically normal
c. Are less than normal
d. Have decreased adhesiveness
e . H a v e in c r e a se d n u m b e r o f o rg a n e l l e s
655. Selective IgA deficiency is characterized by each of the following, except

a . No rma l a nt ib od y me d i ate d immu n it y
b. Decreased cell mediated immunity
c. Selective IgA deficiency associated with chromosome 6 abnormality
d. Patients with deficiency of serum IgA have gradually acquired normal levels
after 3-5 years without any specific therapy
397

656. The following may be associated with IgA deficiency excepb
a. Autoimmune disorder
b. No observable clinical abnormalities
c. Allergic diseases
d. Ataxia telangiectasia
e. Absent delayed cutaneous hypersensitivity
657. Clinical manifestation in Ataxia-Telangiectasia include each of the following

except
a. Inherited as autosomal trait
b. Recurrent sino-pulmonary infection
c. Death is common from malignant lymphoma
d. Increased serum IgE level in 20-40%
658. DiGeorge's Syndrome is characterized by all of the following except

a. It is safe to transfuse fresh blood
b. Neonatal hypocalcemia is frequently the initial manifestation
c. Lymphopenia is not a characteristic feature
d. Occasionally has no congenital heart disease
659. Common drugs known to produce systemic lupus erythematosus include all
the following except
a. Hydralazine b. Procainamide
c. lsoniazid (INH) d. Diphenylhydantoin
e. Erythromycin
660. Serological findings that can be noted in SLE include

a. Positive test for lupus anticoagulant
b. Anticardiolipin antibodies
c. Elevated ANA titers
d. All of the aboves
661. Neonatal lupus phenomenon is characterized by all of the following except

a. Usually born to mothers with either subclinical or active SLE
b. Strongly associated with the presence of maternal antibody to RD/SSA or
LAISSB
c. May present with permanent congenital heart block
d. Cholestasis and hepatic fibrosis may also be a concomitant of the
neonatal lupus syndrome
e. Permanently positive ANA test
662. Job syndrome is characterized by all of the following except

a. Extremely high serum IgE level
b. Chronic eczema
c. Marked eosinophilia
d. Presence of delayed hypersensitivity on skin test
398

663. Graft-versus-Host disease, the acute form is characterized by the following
except
a. Sunburn-like rash
b. Protein losing enteropathy
c. Bone marrow aplasia
d. Eosinophilia
e. Lymphopenia
664. Omenn syndrome is characterized by all except

a. Exfoliative erythroderma
b. No organomegaly
c. T-ce ll infiltration of intestine s
d. Persistent leukocytosis
e. Lymphadenopathy
665. Typical features of hereditary angio-edema include all except

a. Occurs in persons born without ability to synthesize CI esterase inhibitor
b. Tran smitte d as a utoso mal re cess iv es tra it
c. The condition can be acquired with lymphoid cancer
d. Swelling of the affected part appears rapidly without itching or wheals
666. Diminished levels of serum IgE protein have been observed in all of the following
conditions, except
a. Hypogammaglobulinemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Macroglobulinemia
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
e. Ataxia telengiectasia
667. The total serum immunoglobulin G le /el is generally within normal limits in each
of the following except
a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. Combined immunodeficiency diseases
c. DiGeorge anomaly
d. Ataxia-telengiectasia
e. IgG subclass deficiency
668. A 10-year old child with muscle weakness, an erythematous and violaceaous
rash on the face, arms and hands, and heliotrope patches on the cheeks most likely
has
a. Dermatomyositis
b. Eczema
c. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
d. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
399

669. The prognosis in systemic lupus erythematosus is least favorable in patients
with: (d)
a. Fever and leukocytosis b. Positive LE preparation
Polyserositis d. Nephritis
670. Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly in a child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Suggests a complicating infection or sepsis
Suggests that the diagnosis of JRA is probably erroneous
671. The most common type of cardiac involvement in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is
a..Pancarditis b. Pericarditis
c. Vulvulitis d. Myocarditis
672. The diagnosis of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis would be unlikely in the absence of
a. A positive latex fixation test
b . A p os i t iv e he te r op h i l t e st
c. RA factor
d. Any of the above
673. Patients with anaphylactoid purpura generally have

a . A d e c r e a s e d p lat e le ts c o u n t
b. A prolonged prothrombin time
c. A prolonged partial thromboplastin time
674. Histocompatible antigens (HLA) are not present on all tissues. On which of the
following cells is it present
a. Leucocytes b. Reticulocytes
c. Mature red blood cells d. All of the above
675. Symptoms and signs of atypical measles in children include

a . Pne u mo n i a w ith p l e u r a l e ff u s io n
b. Abdominal pain
c. Myalgias
e. All of the above
676. Which of the following immunoglobulin is known to both cross placental

barrier and combine with complement
a. IgG b. 1gM
c. IgA d. IgE
e. Ig D
400

677. Increased susceptibility to what type of infection occurs in splenectomized
patients
a. Gram positive bacterial and polysaccharide containing microorganism
b. Gram negative and polysaccharide containing organism
c. Gram positive and non-polysaccharide containing organism
d. Fungal infection
678. Which of the following may not activate the complement system
a. Properdin
b. Antigen-antibody complex
c. Polysaccharide
d. IgA
e . L yso so ma l en z y m e
679. A useful test in the diagnosis of polyarteritis nodosa may be

a. Muscle or skin biopsy
b. Renal biopsy
c. Mesenteric or renal angiography
e. All of the above
680. HLA association with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is most common in JRA of
a. Systemic onset disease
b. Pauciarticular disease type
c. Polyarticular disease
d. b & c
e. a & c
681. The low level of C3 in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (most often,
those with active renal disease) usually is due to
a. Decreased synthesis of C3
b. Elevated catabolism of C3
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
682. Kawasaki disease (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome) is characterized by

each of the following except
a. Fever lasting for 5 days
b. Erythematous rash followed by desquamation
c. Salicylates therapy indicated during febrile phase
d. Corticosteroids are indicated in coronary thrombosils
e. Intravenous gammaglobulin therapy given early in the disease prevent coronary
artery involvement
683. The first immunoglobulin produced by the fetus is
a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE
e. All immunoglobulins are produced at the same time
401

684. True statement concerning a 28-weeks gestational age preterm baby is
a. Capability to produce 1 gM is limited
b. T-cell function is not yet developed
c. Can reject skin grafts
d. a, b
685. Incorrect statement concerning immunoglobulin is

a. Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs when
immunoglobulin are below 250 mg/dl
b. IgG composed of 80% of the total immunoglobulin
c. Half life of IgG is approximately 2 months
d. Maternal acquired IgG fall to this lower level by 4-6 months of age
e. All of the above
686. Which of the following disorder is associated with phagocytic function

disturbance?
a. Job syndrome
b. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Pelget-Huet anomaly
e. All of the above
687. False statement pertaining to AIDS is

a . Re tro v iru s is th e e t io lo g ic a ge nt
b. Chronic parotid gland swelling is peculiar for pediatric AIDS only
c. Thrombocytopenia is present in about 30% of the patients
d. Patients tire unable to produce antibody to HIV e f-helper
e. T-suppressor ratio may he normal
688. Laboratory finding suggestive of ataxia telengiectasia

a. Elevated level of serum alpha fetoprotein
b. Elevated level of IgA and IgE
c. Elevated level of Carcino-embryonic antigen
d. a, c
689. In Graft-versus-Host diseases

a. It involves T-cell function
b. The clinical phenomena follows transfusion of antibody containing blood
c. Usually it occurs 7-14 days after grafting or transfusion
d . C a n be t r e a te d b y p la s m ap h e re s is
e. a,c
402

690. Hereditary angio-edema is characterized by
a. Tran smitte d as a utoso mal domina nt trait
b . R e d uc e d s yn t h e s i s o f C I i nh i b it or
c. May present with recurrent gastrointestinal attacks of colic
d. All of the above
691 Defect of complement function should be suspected in patient with

a. Congestive heart failure
b. Collagen vascular disease
c. Splenectomy
d. Chronic nephritis
e. b, d
692. All of the following organisms are known to cause s e r i o u s d i s e a s e i n

p a t i e n t s w i t h c h r o n i c granulomatous disease except
a. Serratia marcessens
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Aspergillus fumigatus
e. Burkholderia cepacia
693. The syndrome of recurrent infections, partial albinism, photophobia, and

nystagmus is seen in
a. Bodian-Shwachman syndrome
b. Chronic granulomatous disease
c. Nezel of syndrome
d. DiGeorge syndrome
e. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
695. Which of the following laboratory test results is not

found in the majority of children with AIDS?
a. Elevated at least two iminunoglobulin classes
b. T-helper to T-suppressor lymphocytes ratio of < 1.0
c. Impaired antibody synthesis after immunization
d. Absolute lymphopenia
e. a, b
696. True statement pertaining to immunodeficiency disorder includes

a . R e c u r r e n t N i s s e r i a m e n i n g i t i s i n f e c t i o n a r e characteristic of some
type of complete deficiencies
b. B-cell defects account for approximately half of all symptomatic disorder
c. Patient with symptoms prior to 6 months of age usually have The!! deficiency
d. All of the above
e. b, c
403

697. Bruton disease is characterized by all of the following except
a. Inheritance as X-linked
b. Hyperplasia of the lymphoid tissue
c. Low level of 1gM and IgA
d. Overwhelming infection by encapsulated organism
e. Treatment consists of intramuscular immunoglobulin
698. Hypergammaglobulinemia can be seen in which of the following diseases

a.Chronic infection b. Leukemia
c. Ulcerative colitis d. Hashimoto thyroidism
e. All of the above
699. Host defense may be impaired in all except

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hodgkin's disease
c. Renal failure
d. Congenital spherocytosis
e. Malnutrition
700. An 8-month old boy has had four episodes of suppurative otitis media. In
addition, he has a generalized eczematous eruption that bleeds easily when
scratched. Among the following, these findings are most suggestive of
a. Chronic granulomatous disease
b. Wiskott-Aldrich disease
c. Severe combined immunodeficiency
d. DiGeorge syndrome
701. The following conditions are associated with immunodeficiency states

a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. DiGeorge syndrome
c. Rubella syndrome
d. All of the above
e. b and c only
702. Satisfactory transplacental passive immunity is present at birth against all the
following diseases except
a Measles b. Diphtheria
c. Pertussis d. Rubella
e. Tetanus
703. Common causes of IgA deposition in the kidney is I are

a. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
b. Cirrhosis of the liver
c. SLE
d. All are correct
e. Only a and c are correct
404

704. Ataxia telangiectasia
a. Usually present in early infancy
b. Peripheral neuropathy is a recognized feature
c. T-cell immunity is commonly impaire d
d. All are correct
e. Only a and c are correct
705. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g i s t r u e a b o u t pauci-articular IRA

a. Severe ocular damage is common
b. Severe spondyloanthropathy in later life
c. Usually g ood if dia g nos ed e a rly
d. All are correct
e. Only a and b are correct
706. Anti-tumor activity of steroids is possibly through all except

a. Dissolution of lymphocytes
b. Increased fatty acids in the cytoplasm of tumor cells
c. Presence of corticosteroid receptor protein
d. Prevention Of transcription in the nucleus
e. Phagocytosis by RE system in its presence
707. Which of the statement is not correct regarding the treatment of rhinitis?
a. avoidance of nonspecific irritant is effective in vasomotor
rhinitis
b. antihistamine is effective in treatment of both allergic
and eosinophilic non-allergic rhinitis
c. cronolyn sodium is effective in both allergic and non-
allergic chronic rhinitis
d. Corticosteroid effect is doubtful for the treatment of
vasomotor rhinitis
e. topical decongestants are effective in all forms of chronic
rhinitis
708. The symptom of allergic rhinitis with least response to antihistamine treatment is
a. Rhinorrhea b. Sneezing c. Itching d. Tearing
e. Nasal congestion
709. Vasomotor rhinitis triggering factors are the following except

a. Change in temperature b. Change in posture
c. Exposure to irritants d. Specific antigens
Change in humidity
710. The ultimate standard for diagnosis of type 1 of allergic disease is based on
a. Positive double-bind challenge
b. Presence of specific IgE
c. Demonstration that symptoms are the result of IgE mediated inflammation
d. a and c only
e. All of the above
405

711. The following statements regarding skin allergy test are correct except
a. Good sensitivity
b. Quality control is easy
c. Wide variety of allergens can be tested
d. Affected by drugs
e. Slight risk of reaction
712. The following statements about the in vitro allergy test are correct except
a. Not as sensitive as skin test
b. Affected by antihistaminic drug
c. Delayed result
d. Safe
e. No t al l an t ige ns c a n be d et e cted
713. Significantly increased blood eosinophilia may be seen in the following

diseases except
a. Trichinosis
b. Giardiasis
c. Loeffler's syndrome
d. Ascariasis
e. Hyper IgE syndrome (Job Syndrome)
714. The following statements about bronchial asthma are true except
a. Male to female ratio for childhood asthma is 2:1
b. Viral infections are major precipitating factors in early childhood
c. Pollen allergy is the most common cause for childhood bronchial asthma
d. The remission rates among asthmatic children is high
e. Late phase asthma attack might develop without new exposure to the
precipitating factors
715. In acute bronchial asthma attack the following statements are correct except
a. during early stages of acute asthma, minute ventilatior is increased and
PaCO2 falls
b. pH is normal or elevated during the early stage of acute asthma
c. Hypercarbia and respiratory acidosis are presented it all stages of bronchial
asthma attack
d. spirometry during the initial evaluation of acute asthma is of help
e. forced expiratory maneuvre may increase the degree of airway obstruction in

acute asthma attack
716. Which statement regarding skin testing is incorrect?

a. Skin testing detects only IgE mediated reactions
b. It predicts the possibility of serum sickness
c. It does not predict the possibility to drug fever
d. It does not predict the possibility of hemolytic anemia
e. a and d
406

717. Events in the lung by drowning include the following except
a. Peripheral airway resistance increases
b. Laryngeal spasm occurs
c. Dilatation of the pulmonary vessel occurs
d. Lung compliance decreases
e. Ventilation-perfusion rating falls
718. Recognized clinical features of pneumothorax include each of the following

except
a. Reduced movements of the chest on the affected side
b. Shift of mediastinum to the opposite side
c. Hyperresonant percussion note
d. Vesicular breath sounds with reduced air entry
e. Whispering pectoriloquy in all cases
719. Atelectasis due to foreign body inhalation is characterized by each of the

following except
a. Mediastinum is pulled towards the affected side
b. Intercostal spaces on the affected side may be narrowed
c. Percussion note is usually normal
d. Breath sounds are reduced
e. Bronchial breathing may be audible
720. Recurrent respiratory infections are known to occur in association with

each of the following except
a. VSD b. Ataxia telengiectasia
c. Mucoviscidosis d. Fallot’s tetralogy
e. Gastro-esophageal reflux
721. Secondary pulmonary hemosiderosis is associated with each of the

following conditions except
a. Good pasture syndrome
b. Thalassemia major
c. Periarteritis nodosa
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
e. Wegener’s granulomatosis
722. Recognized features of Kartagener (Immotile cilia) syndrome include each
of the following except
a. Recurrent attacks of otitis media
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Situs inversus
d. Facial dysmorphism
e. Sterility in males
407

723. Pulmonary edema is a recognized feature of each of the following except
a. Kerosine poisoning b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Severe bums d. Near drowning in sea
f. Cardiogenic shock
723. Respiratory acidosis is a recognized feature of the following except

a. Opium poisoning
b. Status asthmaticus
c. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
d. Salicylate poisoning
e. Hyaline membrane disease
724. Pleural friction rub is characterized by each of the following except

a. It is audible during inspiratory phase of breathing
b. It may be associated with pain
c. It unaltered by coughing
d. Better heard with chest piece of stethoscope tightly placed over chest wail
e. It may disappear when pleural exudates increase in quantity
725. Functional residual capacity (FRC) consists of

a. Tidal volume
b. Residual volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. a and b
e. b and c
726. Upper airway obstruction is an important cause of respiratory failure in

children. The presence of,such obstruction can be diagnosed by
a. Measurement of airway resistance
b. Measurement of lung compliance
c. Analysis of expiratory and inspiratory flow volume curves
during maximal effort
d. Arterial blood gas profile
e. Routine lung spirometry
727. In the presence of pulmonary air leak, the most effective means of
ventilator support is provided by
a. IPPB
b. High frequency ventilation
c. CPAP
d. PEEP
408

728. The incorrect statement regarding corticosteroids in allergy is
a. The mechanism of action is not known
b. Corticosteroids are lymphopenic
c. Corticosteroids decrease synthesis of prostagiandins
d. Long-term usage suppresses linear growth in children
729. Alternate day regimens decrease side effectsThe incorrect statement on

atopic dermatitis is
a. Diseases most often begins in infancy
b. Minority of patients have elevated IgE
c. Causative allergens are often determined in patients
d. T-cell function may be impaired
e. White dermatographism” is often present
730. The false statement concerning Stevens-Johnson syndrome is

a. Skin lesions often involve the scalp
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia may be the etiologic agent
c. Mortality may be as high as 10%
d. Urination may be painful
e. Photophobia is common
731. The most common cause of epistaxis in children
a. Sinusitis
b. Polyps
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Trauma
e. Dry air
732. Possible reasons for higher incidence of acute otitis media in infants and
younger children is
a. Less well-developed immunologic defenses
b. More abundant nasopharyngeal lymphoid tissue
c. Less favourable Eustachian tubal factors
d. Greater proportion of time spent in the horizontal position
e. All of the above
733. Methylxanthines lead to the relief of bronchial asthma attacks due to the
following mechanism except
a. Methylxanthines may augment respiratory muscle contractility
b. Methylxanthines have some degree of anti-inflammatory activity
c. The action of methylxanthine on the bronchial muscle is established to be due to
inhibition of phosphodiesterase and the increase of cAMP
d. Rates of clearance of methylxanthine vary widely with the age of patient
e. The peak serum concentration of theophylline is attained about Vz to 2 Vz hours
after administration of oral theophylline
409

734. Of the following, the least likely useful aspect of treatment of a patient with
erythema multiforme is
b. Discontinuation of any drug regimen that was in place before onset
c. Long term glucocorticoid therapy
d. Attention of fluid and electrolyte balance
735. Cough receptors are found in which of the following

b. Discontinuation of any drug regimen that was in place before onset
c. Long term glucocorticoid therapy
d. Attention of fluid and electrolyte balance
736. In which of the following ways, does eosinophilic gastroenteritis differ from
milk induced gastroenteritis
a. Involvement of the upper Gl tract
b. Greater degree of peripheral blood eosinophilia
c. Need for corticosteroid therapy
d. All of the above
737. Which of the following is unlikely to be caused by Chiamydiatrachotnatis

a. Lymphogranuloma venereum
b. Pneumonia
c. Urethritis
d. Enteritis
e. Conjunctivitis
738. Bornholm disease (epidemic pleurodynia) is caused by

a. Parainfluenza virus b. Coxsackie B virus
c. Mycoplasma d. Influenza virus
e. H. influenza
739. Herpangina- a common viral infection is caused by

a.Coxsackie group A and B b. Influenza virus
c. Parainfluenza Virus d. Herpes virus
e. Parvovirus
740. What percentage of patients with encephalitis do not have an etiologic

agent identified?
a. Below 30% b. 30%- 40%
c. 40—50% d. 60—70%
e. Over 80%
410

741. What viral infection classically produces edema over the manubrium and
upper chest?
a. Polio virus infection b. RSV infection
c. Influenza virus d. Mumps
e. Rotavirus
742. Specific adenoviral syndromes include all except

a. Pharyngoconjunctival fever
b. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
c. Hemorrhagic cystitis
d. All of the above
e. A and B
743. Which of the following is not an arboviral disease

a. Echovirus type 2
b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. Eastern and western equine encephalitis
d. Dengue
e. Yellow Fever
744. Viruses causing gastroenteritis are all except

a. Astroviruses b. Norwalk virus
c. Calcivirus d. Hepatitis E virus
e. Cytomegalovirus
746. In a child 18 months of age, diagnosis of HIV infection is made by

a. IgG antibody test for HIV b. ELISA test
c. Western blot test d. Positive HI V culture
747. "AIDS defining" opportunistic infection in children include all except
a. HIV enecephalopathy
b. Chronic intestinal isosporiasis
c. Mycoplasma pneumonia
d. Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis
e. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
748. Children with symptomatic HIV infection should be given all vaccines except
a. MMR b. DPT c. BCG d. OPV
e. Hib
749. Erythema infectiosurn is caused by
a. Coxsackie A b. Coxsackie B c. Human Parvovirus
d. Herpes Virus e. Corona Virus
411

750. CMV is least likely to be acquired by the infants by the following
a. Following maternal viremia or birth canal secretions
b. From maternal milk
c. Transferred blood products
d. Droplet infection
e. Saliva of playmates
751. A pertusis like syndrome has been described in association with which infection?
a. RSV b. Influenza
c. Adenovirus d. EBV
e. Rhinovirus
752. Clinical trials on Cefuroxime (second generation cephalosporin) in childhood

bacterial meningitis have revealed
a. Excellent in vitro activity against three principle
pathogens of childhood meningitis
b. Good CSF penetration
c. No clinically significant adverse reactions
d. All of the above
e. a and c
753. Rifampicin prophylaxis for contacts of patients with H. flue infection include
a. All household contact, irrespective of age
b. All children under 2 years of age
c. All household contacts where there are children (other
than the case less than 4 years old
d. Pregnant women who are contacts of affected case
e. b and d only
754. The false statement about childhood salmonella gastroenteritis

a. Carrier state more common in patients given oral
ampicillin than in those not treated
b. Uncomplicated cases will resolve spontaneously
c. An age related resolution of diarrhea has been reported
d. Antibiotic therapy will reduce the incidence of
complications
e. In febrile, acutely ill younger children, parenteral
antibiotic therapy has been found preferable to oral
therapy
755. Conditions associated with persistence of fever or development of secondary fever

in some patients during treatment of bacterial meningitis includes
a. Subdural effusion b. Drug fever
c. Subdural empyema d. All of the above e. b and c
412

756. The definite response to treatment of kala-azar is best judged by
a. Reversion of serum albumin globulin ratio to normal
within three weeks
b. Regression of spleen within three weeks
c. Immunodiagnostic responses such as ELISA and
indirect immunofluorescent antibodies
d. Defervescence of fever and improvement of anemia and
leucopenia within three weeks
e. Negative blood culture
757. Infection with Schistosoma mansoni is associated with

a. Katayama fever b. Portal hypertension
c. Pulmonary hypertension d. All of the above e. a and b
758. Which one of the following would appear to be most beneficial drug in treatment of
infants with severe RSV bronchiolitis
a. Corticosteroid b. Theophyllin c. Acyclovir d. Ribavirin e. AZT
759. Most patients with cat scratch disease have

a. Signs & symptoms of systemic disease
b. Exanthema
c. Lymphangitis
d. Therapeutic response to penicillin
e. Spontaneous resolution within 6 months
760. Which of the following is least common in children with HIY infection
a. Neuro-developmental abnormalities b. Recurrent bacterial infection
c. Kaposi's sarcoma d. Chronic pneumonitis
e. Salivary gland enlargement
761. If available, the most useful, both practical and sensitive laboratory method for the
diagnosis of RSV
a. Tissue culture
b. Acute and convalescent phase serum titer
c. lmmunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal specimen
d. ELlSA on nasopharyngeal secretion
e. ELlSA on tracheal aspirate
762. True statement about infectious mononucleosis in infant less than 2 years of age
include all of the following, except
a. Majority have fever as their main symptom
b. Blood smears often show numerous atypical
lymphocyte
c. Heterophil agglutinins are detected in < 50%
d. Petechiae are usually present
e. Hepatosplenomegaly is a common sign
413

763. Mumps is not characterized by
a. An incubation period of 18---21 days
b. lnapparent infection in 90% of patients
c. Complications may occur without parotitis
d. Mumps vaccine breakthrough has been reported
e. Diagnostic isolation of mumps virus is not a routine
laboratory procedure
764. Increased susceptibility to what type of infection occurs in splenectomized patients

a. Gram-positive bacterial and polysaccharide containing
microorganism
b. Gram-negative and polysaccharide containing
organism
c. Gram-positive and non-polysaccharide containing
organism
d. Fungal infection
765. Which of the following statements is correct, purulent pleurisy associated with
pneumonia in infant is mostly due to
a. Hemophilus influenza b. Staphylococcus c. P neumotoccus
d. Klebsiella pneumonia e. Streptococci
766. Pneumonia is less likely to occur as complication in which one of the following
condition
a. Cystic fibrosis b. Oesophageal atresia
c. Pertussis d. Antibody deficiency syndrome
e. Scarlet fever
767. Which type of pneumonia is less likely to occur in early infancy?

a. Bronchopneumonia
b. Aspirations pneumonia
c. Lobar pneumonia
d. Pneumonia with abscess formation
e. Interstitial pneumonia
768. The following statements concerning respiratory tract infection are correct except
a. children without underlying diseases may experience as many as six to eight
episodes of respiratory tract infection during early childhood
b. the majority of respiratory tract infections in childhood are caused by viruses
and mycoplasma pneumonia
c. many asymptomatic people are carriers of bacteria in their respiratory tract and
are potentially infectious for other people
d. many asymptomatic people also carry viral agent in their respiratory tract and
are potentially infectious for other people
e. RSV is the cause of about 45----75% of cases of bronchiolitis
414

769. Which one of the following conditions or signs is least common in Viral croup
a. Preceding URTI b. Dysphagia
c. Stridor d. Cough (seal-like)
e. Retraction
770. Which of the following organisms is the most common agent causing acute
laryngotracheobronchitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Respiratory syncytial virus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Hemophilus influenza type 8
e. Non-typable H. Influenza
771. Antibiotic therapy should be withheld in each of the following except

a. acute bronchiolitis
b. post measles bronchopnemonia
c. common cold
d. acute laryngotracheobronchitis
e. acute gastroenteritis in a 6 month old infant
772. Streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with oral Penicillin for a minimum
period of
a. 6 days b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 2 weeks
e. 3 weeks
773. Which of the following vaccines contain killed organisms?

a. BCG b. IPV c. Measles d. Pneumococcal
e. Diphtheria toxoid
774. Oral polio vaccine carries a risk of vaccine associated paralytic disease in
a. Immunodeficient recipient
b. Immunodeficient contact of recipient
c. Unvaccinated healthy adult contacts of recipient
d. Child immunized with IPV-E vaccine
775. A 6 year old child is admitted with hypertensive encephalopathy. The drug of choice
for therapy is
a. Sodium nitroprusside b. Methyldopa C. Diazoxide d. Minoxidil
776. The following are associated with cardiac disease except

a. Crouzon syndrome
b. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
c. Morquio's syndrome
d. Hunter syndrome
e. Jervell and Lange Nielson syndrome
415

777. Surgical treatment of PDA consists of
a. Ligation of the duct only in infants
b. Ligation and division only in large defects
c. Ligation in patients with large defects in infancy
d. Ligation and division in all cases
e. Contraindicated if there is congestive heart failure
778. Polygenic inheritance of congenital heart disease is characterized by

a. Equal recurrence risks in siblings and in offspring
b. The recurrence risk is increased when the disorder is more severe
c. The risk of recurrence is related to the incidence of the disease
d. The risk of recurrence is increased when multiple family members are affected
e. All of the above
779. Sudden death during infancy and childhood can be associated with all the following
except
a. Congenital valvular aortic stenosis
b. Romano-Ward syndrome
c. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
d. Kawasaki diseases
e. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
780. Signs recognized to be useful for diagnosis of early stage of heart failure in the
infant
a. Tachycardia b. Anorexia
c. Hepatomegaly d. Pulmonary edema with Kerley B lines
e. Jugular venous distension
781. If infective endocarditis occurs in a patient without known preexisting heart

disease, the following condition should be suspected except
a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Pulmonic stenosis
c. Atrial septal defect d. Ventricular septal defect
e. Bicuspid aortic valve
782. A neonate has central cyanosis and has short systolic murmur on the second day
of birth. The diagnosis is
a, Tetralogy of Fallot b. Transposition of great vessels
c. Atrial septal defect d. Ventricular septal defect
783. A blue newborn presents with cyanosis, the X-ray chest revealed oligaemic lung
field and normal sized heart. Most likely diagnosis is
a. Ebstein' s anomaly b. Pulmonary atresia
c. Transposition of great arteries d. Tetralogy of Fallot
416

784. Which of the following is not a common manifestation of congenital rubella? (c)
a. Deafness b. PDA
c. Aortic stenosis d. Mental retardation
785. Pott's shunt is

a. Right subclavian artery to right pulmonary artery
b. Descending aorta to left pulmonary artery
c. Left subclavian to left pulmonary artery
d. Ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery
786. A neonate has recurrent attacks of restlessness, irritability, and diaphoresis on

feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a non-specific murmur. He is believed to he
at risk for myocardial infarction. Likely diagnosis is
a. Atrial septal defect b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Tetrology of Fallot's d. Anomalous origin of left coronary artery
787. True statement about ductus arteriosus is

a. It undergoes anatomic closure within 24 hours of birth
b. Forms the ligamentum venosum in later life
c. It is induced to close by high levels of prostaglandins
d. May cause a machinery murmur by its patency
788. True about coarctation of aorta

a. Most common site is distal to the origin of the left
subclavian artery
b. Most common age of presentation is at 15---20 years
c. Upper rib notching is due to erosion by dilated collateral
d. Gives rise to right ventricular hypertrophy
789. A child presented with headache, dizziness, intermittent claudication with

occasional dyspnoea. The most possible diagnosis is
a. Atrial septal defect b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Coarctation of aorta
790. Most common cause of sustained hypertension in children is: (b)

a. Coaractation of aorta b. Parenchymal disease of kidney
c. Phaeochromocytoma d. Drug induced
791. All of the following statements regarding total anomalous pulmonary connection
are true except
a. The total pulmonary venous blood reaches the right atrium
b. Always associated with a ventricular septal defect
c. The oxygen saturation of the blood in the pulmonary artery is higher than that
in the aorta
d. Infracardiac type is always obstructive
417

792. Regarding ataxia, identify the false statement
a. It is usually secondary to cerebellar disease
b. May be a false localizing sign as a result of involvement of cerebellar
connections (brainstem, thalamus, frontal lobes)
c. Ataxia is contralateral when cerebellum is involved and ipsilateral when its
connections are involved
d. Acute cerebellar ataxia may follow varicella
e. Truncal ataxia results from involvement of the vermis
793. Regarding the tonic neck reflex (TNR), indicate the false statement
a. In severe cerebral palsy asymmetrical TNR persists and may increase
b. TNR normally disappears at 6 month of age
c. The reflex is partly responsible for preventing the child rolling from prone to
supine or vice versa in the early weeks
d. 'Obligate' TNR (i.e. the child remains in asymmetric TNR posture until the
head is turned) is abnormal.
e. The reflex is seen at intervals in young babies in the first 2 months
794. Regarding some common neurological reflexes, identify the correct statement
a. Ankle clonus may be normal up to 4 months of age
b. The crossed adductor reflex is a normal response in a 1-year old infant
c. Presence of the crossed adductor reflex indicates pyramidal tract dysfunction
in a 6-month old infant
d. During the first 6 months the posture of extension of legs in vertical
suspension is pathological
e. An infant born 4 weeks premature generally catches up developmentally by 5
years of age
795. Recognized side effects of Phenytoin include each of the following except
a. Hyperkinesis b. Acne
c. Ataxia d. Hirsutism
e. Megaloblastic anemia
796. Recognized clinical features of Friedriech's ataxia include each of the following
except
a. Cerebellar ataxia b. Bilateral extension plantar response
c. Retinitis pigmentosa d. Pescavus
e. Cardiomyopathy
797. Brain abscess: predisposing factors can be all except

a. Sepsis at various otorhinologic sites
b. Metastatic abscesses
c. Hypoxic-iSchemic brain damage due to birth asphyxia
d. Cyanotic congenital heart disease
e. Head injury
418

798. Recognized sequelae of kemicterus are all except
a. Paralysis of upward gaze b. Strabismus
c. Athetoid type of cerebral palsy d. Deafness
e. Brown staining of teeth
799. Infantile myoclonic seizures: identity correct statement

a. Have also been called petit mal seizures
b. Usually involve a single muscle group
c. May reoccur several hundred times a day
d. Difficult to differentiate from pyknolepsy on EEG
e. Are best treated with Phenobarbital
800. Cerebellar ataxia is a recognized feature of

a. Gullian - Baxi syndrome
b. Tuberous sclerosis
c. Mumps meningo-ence P halitis
d. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
e. Abetaiipoproteinemia (BassenKorfizWig disease)

801. Werdnig-Hoffman disease is the result of

a. Involvement of anterior horn cells and posterior roots
b. Diffuse demyelinating polyneuropathy
c. Degenerative changes of the anterior horn cells
d. Degenerative changes of anterior horn cells and corticospinal tracts.
e. Polyneuropathy of acute infectious origin
802. A 4-year-old boy recovering uneventfully from meningitis due to H. influenza type B
develops a decrease in visual acuity; detailed ophthalmic evaluation and
funduscopy are normal; the most likely cause?
a. Neuromyelitis optica b. Retrobulbar neuritis
c. Optic papilitis d. Cortical blindness
e. b, c
803. The first phase of Kernicterus is characterized by

a. Seizure
b. Opisthotonus
c. Shrill cry and oculogyric crises
d. Hypotonia and lethargy
e. Spasticity and choreoathetosis
419

804. Tuberous sclerosis may be associated with
a. Polycystic disease of kidney
b. Rhabdomyoma of the heart
c. Mental retardation
d. Myoclonic seizures during infancy
e. Any of the above
805. Brain tumors in childhood. Identify the correct statement
a. Are supratentorial in most cases
b. Have highest incidence during the first year of life
c. Papilledema is a very early sign in infancy
d. All of the above
806. Which of the following disorders might cause infantile hemiplegia

a. Herpes encephalitis b. Moya-Moya disease
c. Fibromuscular dyplasi d. Carotid arteritis
e. All of the above
807. Which is the commonest mode of inheritance in Charcot-Marie Tooth disease? (a)
a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-linked recessive d. Sporadic
d. All of the above
808. Which of the following cause proptosis (exophthalmos) in a young child

a. Shallow orbit b. Optic nerve glioma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. All of the above
e. All of the above
809. The following usually occur in imipramine overdose except

a. Extrapyramidal rigidity b. Diarrhea
c. Urinary retention d. Hallucinations
d. Cardiac arrhythmias
810. Congenital deafness may be associated with the following except

a. Charcot- Marie-Tooth disease
b. Friedrich's ataxia
c. Jervell and Lange Nielsen syndrome
d. Pen dred’s syndrome
e. Crouzon’s syndrome
811. Clinical manifestations of Friedrich's ataxia might include the following except
a. Speech disturbance in 70-80% of cases
b. Nystagmus in more than 50% of cases
c. Impaired deep sensation in 20-30% of cases
d. Dysmetria of upper extremities in 80-90% of cases
e. Positive Romberg in 95% of cases
420

812. Regarding subacute sclerosing pancencephalitis, identify false statement
a. Caused by persistent measles virus infection
b. Virus particles and matrix (M) protein found in the brain
are responsible for pathology
c. ln more than 85% cases onset occurs between 5 and
15 years of age
d. Is a slow virus infection of the human nervous system?
e. The incidence in some countries has remarkably
declined
813. Which one of the following causes of a large head is least likely to be associated
with mental retardation
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Hydraencephaly
c. Cerebral gigantism (Sotos syndrome)
d. Megalencephaly
e. Subdural effusion
814. Which one of the following would not be expected in a child with Lennox-Gastaut
syndrome?
a. Mixed seizure disorder
b. Positive family history of similar disorder
c. Abnormal ECG finding
d. Mental retardation
e. History of prior brain damage
815. The following neurological disorders are known to be associated with optic atrophy
except
a. T.B. meningitis b. Lead poisoning
c. Schilder's disease d. Tuberous sclerosis
e. Abetalipoproteinemia
816. Duchenne-muscular dystrophy

a. EMG usually show deneravation pattem
b. Increased risk for lymphoid malignancy
c. EMG changes in female carriers
d. Proximal muscle weakness
e. Usually evident from early infancy
817. Retinoblastoma
a. Sporadic in more than 50% of cases
b. Bilateral in at least 10-20% of cases
c. Prognosis is better in inherited cases
d. Sporadic usually bilateral
e. Unilateral usually inherited
421

818. The tumor which disserninates least to the subarachnoid space is
a. Medulloblastoma b. Brainstem glioma
c. Craniopharyngioma d. Lymphoma
e. Glioblastoma multiforme
819. Clinical features of hypoparathyroidism may include all except

a. Increased metaphysial bone density (in X-rays)
b. High serum alkaline phosphatase
c. Lenticular cataracts
d. Mental retardation
e. Mucocutaneous candidiasis
820. Deafness is a recognized feature of all except

a. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
b. Usher syndrome
c. Pendred syndrome
d. Jervel Lange-Neilson syndrome
e. Alport's syndrome
821. Causes of hypercalcemia include all except

a. Vitamin D excess
b. Hypervitarninosis A
c. Prolonged immobilization
d. Acute pancreatitis
e. Adenoma of parathyroid gland
822. The syndrome of diabetes insipidus. Diabetes mellitus optic atrophy and deafness
comprise
a. Septic optic dysplasia b. Woifran syndrome
c. Listeria monocytogenous sepsis
d. Group B betahemolytic streptococcal meningitis
e. Idiopathic diabetes insipidus
823. An 8-year-old boy presents with a height age of 12 years, bone age 12 years, I.Q.
60, prominent jaw and forehead, large hands and feet, clumsy awkward gait,
sexual development occurred consistent with age. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Acromegaly b. Pituitary gigantism
c. Marfan's syndrome d. Soto's syndrome
e. Hereditary tall stature
824. True precocious puberty may result from all except

a. Prolonged untreated primary hypothyroidism
b, Therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia
c. hCG secreting tumor
d. Administration of gonadotropin
e. Hypothalamic hematoma
422

825. A female child, 18 months, presents with bilateral breast development, normal
genitalia, slightly advanced osseous maturation, low normal LH and estradiol, and FSH
(basal) levels greater than in normal controls, normal abdominal ultrasound. On follow-
up, breast development regresses after the 2nd year, persists for another 2 years but is
non-progressive thereafter. The diagnosis most likely is
a. True precocious puberty b. Precocious pseudopuberty
c. Exogenous estrogen administration d. Ovarian tumor
e. Premature thelarche
826. The prevalence of congenital hypothyroidism woridwide is

a. 1 in 2,000 b. 1 in 4,000 c. 1 in 7500 d. 1 in 10,000
e. 1 in 20,000
827. Isosexual precocious pseudopuberty in the female may result from all except
a. Ovarian teratoma b. Gonadotropin administration
c. Ovarian chorioepithelioma d. Adreno-cortical tumor
e. Exogenous estrogen
828. Despite complete agenesis of the thyroid gland most infants are asymptomatic at
birth. The reason is
a. Transplacental passage of T3 providing 10—20% of normal T3 at birth
b. Transplacental passage of T4 providing 20---- 5% of normal T4 at birth
c. Elevated levels of TSH in the fetal circulation
d. All the above statements are true
e. All the above statements are wrong
829. An infant has a moderately enlarged thyroid end difficulty in respiration for which
surgery was considered. Clinically, the baby is euthyroid but has elevated levels of TSH
and low levels of T4. Bone age is delayed. There is history of maternal medication with
an antiarrhythmic drug. The most probable diagnosis is
a. Congenital athyriosis
b. Iodine deficiency goiter
c. Hypothyroidism due to maternal treatment with
antithyroid drugs
d. Hypothyroidism from excess iodide administration to
mother
e. Lithium carbonate administration to mother causing
hypothyroidism
830. Methimazole is preferred to Propylthiouracil in the treatment of Graves's disease in

children. Identify the incorrect statemen
a. Methimazole is 10 times more potent and less toxic
b. Has a longer serum half life and small dose
c. Methimazole is preferable for treatment of thyrotoxicosis in the newborns
d. Methimazole is less protein bound than propylthiouracil
e. Propylthiouracil inhibits extra thyroidal conversion of T4 to T3
423

831. Carcinoma of thyroid in children. Identify the false statement
a. Is more common in boys
b. Has a slow course
c. Thyroid gland is unusually sensitive to radiation
d. Average age at diagnosis is 9 years and 7% occur before age 18 years
e. Multicentricity is more frequent in irradiation induced cancer
832. All the following statements regarding calcitonin are true except
a. Action is dependent on PTH and Vitamin D
b. It inhibits bone resorption
c. Is synthesized in Gl tract, pancreas, brain and pituitary
d. Is synthesized in the thyroid gland
e. Has higher mean basal circulating levels in children
than in adults
833. What is the proper composition of diet for children with insulin-dependent diabetes
a. Carbohydrate 70%, fat 20%, protein 10%
b. Carbohydrate 30%, fat 40%, protein 30%
c. Carbohydrate 60%, fat 15%, protein 15%
d. Carbohydrate 40%, fat 40%, protein 20%
e. Carbohydrate 50%, fat 30%, protein 20%
834. All the following factors may trigger Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus in
children except
a. Lead poisoning
b. HLADR3/DR4
c. Viral infection of the islet cells
d. Congenital anomaly of the pancreas
835. The following lab results are present in Diabetic Ketoacidosis except
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Acidosis
d. Excess of phosphorus in the plasma
836 . Characteristic for hypoglycemia are the following except

a. Blood Glucose level below 40 mg/dl
b. Excess of acetone in urine
C. CNS impairment like drowsiness and tremor
d. Caused by high insulin dose
837. The following parameters are present in Rickets expect

a, Bone deformity
b. Alkaline phosphatase is below normal
c. Normal to high calcium level
d. Radiological changes in X-ray of the wrist
424

838. The presence of a goiter at birth is usually the result of the following except
a. Ingestion of goitrogenic substances by mother
b. Congenital hypothyroidism
c. Severe peroxidase deficiencies
d. Thyroiditis congenital
839. All of the following are characteristics of congenital hypothyroidism except

a. Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism may present at Girth
b. Classic myxedema of the feet
c. T4 level is low, TSH is high
d. The only guide to measure effectiveness of the therapy is to observe physical
changes
840. The most common causes of goiter in childhood are

a. Hashimoto thyroiditis
b. Graves disease
c. Cancer of the thyroid gland
d. a and b
841. The proper approach to diagnose goiter are the following except
a. History and full physical examination
b. Thyroid function test
c. Isotope scanning
d. Frozen section by surgery of the thyroid gland
842. Characteristics associated with Tumers syndrome include

a. Advanced maternal age
b. Gonadal dysgenesis
c. Tendency to develop neoplasia
d. Criminal behavior
e. B and c
843. Human growth hormone secretion
a. Decreases during sleep

b. Increases during starvation
c. Promotes elimination of potassium from the body
d. Deficiency manifests as growth retardation from birth
e. Deficiency causes asymmetric growth of body segments
844. A female child has cafd-au-lait pigmentation, bony changes and gigantism apart
from other features. The most likely endocrine disorder is
a. Grave's disease
b. Pendred syndrome
c. McCune Aibright Syndrome
d. Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndrome
e. Autoimmune Polyendocrinopathy Syndrome
425

845. Boy, 3 year old presents with: Diabetes insipidus, a petechial exanthem, bilateral
exophthalmos, pulmonary infiltrates on X-ray and skeletal involvement. The most
likely diagnosis is
a. Craniopharyngioma
b. Langerhan's cell histiocytosis
c. Septo-optic dysplasia
d. Laron syndrome
e. Tuberculous lesion of pituitary, hypothalamus region
846. All of the following features characterise Aarskog syndrome except

a. Female carriers
b. Normal intelligence
c. A decrease in upper to lower segment ratio
d. Shawl scrotum
e. Wide philtrum
847. In the evaluation of hypoglycemia in a young child, the least helpful diagnostic test
among the following would be
a. Oral glucose tolerance test b. Serum ketone levels
c. Serum lactic acid level d. Plasma insulin level
e. Plasma level of growth hormone
848. Reducing substance in urine is suggestive of all except the following Metabolic
disorders
a. Histidinaemia b. Galactosemia c. Hereditary fructosemia
d. Diabetes Mellitus e. Alkaptonuria
849. Which of the following can, per se. cause cirrhosis of liver in childhood
a. Jamaican bush tea b. Liver fluke infection
c. Schistosomiasis d. Kwashiorkor
850. Cirrhosis liver can be caused in children from all the following causes except
a. Congenitall biliary atresia b. Schistosomiasis
c. Copper toxicity d. Jamaican Bush tea
e. Kwashiorkor
851. Dysphagia in children may be caused by all the following except

a. Chalazia b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Cerebral palsy d. Werdnig-Hoffman disease
e. Scieroderma
852. Pathogenesis of steatorrhoea in blind loop syndrome is due to

a. Associate relative exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
b. Lack of micelle formation c. Deconjugation of bile salts
d. Inability of bile to reach the blind loop e. Mucosal atrophy of the blind loop
426

853. The following are useful in differentiating Hirschprung's disease from Acquired
megacolon except
a. Symptoms present from birth
b. Palpation of feces in abdomen
c. Presence of stool in ampulla
d. RectaI biopsy
e. Barium enema
854. Pica is associated with

a. Mental retardation b. Family disorganization
C. Lead poisoning d. All of the above
e. a and c
855. The most practical diagnostic test for acute lead poisoning is
a. Urine lead level
b. Urinary ALA excretion
c. 24 hour urine coproporphyrin excretion
d. Blood lead level
e. Gastric lavage
856. Aphthous ulcers: All statements are true except

a. Are self limiting and heal within a week to 10 days without scarring
b. They occur more frequently on oral mucosa that overlie bone
c. They are painful and covered by fibrinous exudates with an erythematous
border
d. Currently they are thought to have an autoimmune pathogenesis
e. TopicaI steroids are effective only during the prodromal stage before the ulcers
have occurred
857. The "gold standard" for the differentiation of obstruction from parenchymal jaundice
in an infant is
a. Liver biopsy b. 99Tc acid scan
c. Ultrasonography d. Antitrypsin level
e. Intravenous cholangiography
858. Each of the following is atypical complication following portoentrostomy for biliary
atresia, except
a. Cholangitis b. Esophageal varices
c. Hyperspienism d. Zinc deficiency
e. Water-soluble vitamin deficiency
859. In Crohn's disease, which of the following is least likely to be a presenting sign I
symptom
a. Abdominal pain b. Diarrhea
c. Rectal bleeding d. Weight loss
e. Fever
427

860. Carbohydrate malabsorption is typically associated with
a. Watery diarrhea b. Family history of allergy
c. Crampy abdominal pain d. Blood tinged stool e. a and c
861. Treatment of anorectal malformations

a. Surgical repair at birth in all cases
b. Definitive surgery at 6---9 m. in high type
c. Transverse colostomy is needed in all types
d. Anal dilatation is dangerous
e. Cysto-urethrogram should he done in all lesions
862. The incorrect statement regarding hereditary spherocytosis is

a. Autosomal dominant
b. Red cell surface and cell volume are increased
c. Shortened red cell life span
d. Invariable response to splenectomy
e. High incidence of gallstones
863. The incorrect statement regarding thalassemia syndrome is

a. Bone marrow transplantation may be curative
b. Growth failure is common
c. Extramedullary hematopoiesis helps to decrease transfusion needs
d. Beta chain genes are coded on chromosome 11
e. Alpha gene complex is situated on short arm of chromosome 16
864. You have made a diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Which of the following is least
effective in prolonging survival'?
a. Chemotherapy b. Radiotherapy alone
c. Surgery alone d. Chemotherapy and surgery
e. Radiotherapy and surgery
865. Incidence of leukemia is increased in all except

a. Down's syndrome b. Bloom’s syndrome c. Fanconi's syndrome
d. Lympangiectasis e. Agammaglobulinemia
866. Characteristics of GGPD deficiency include all except

a. Most common cause of hemolysis is infection
b. X-linked recessive inheritance
c. Enzyme levels may be normal during hemolytic episode
d. Ioro hypothesis explains why homozygous females are asymptomatic
e. Splenomegaly is common
867. Thrombocytopenia has been described in

a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Leukemia
c. Pernicious anemia d. All of the above
e. a and c
428

868. The following are defective in uremia except
a. Platelet factor 3
b. Platelet aggregation to ADP, ristocetin
c. Coagulation
d. Bleeding time
e. ADP release from platelets
869. Predisposing factors to thrombosis in a child can include the following except
a. Protein C deficiency b. Homocystinuria
c. Kwashiorkor d. Anti-thrombin deficiency
e. Kawasaki disease
870. Identify correct statement about ITP in children

a. Use of IV immunoglobulins in acute stage prevents development of chronic
cases
b. IV immunogiobulins have been shown to be superior in both acute and chronic
types
c. Autoantibodies against platelet membrane glycoprotein Ib has been shown to
be the main etiologic factor in chronic ITP
d. Only 30-40% of cases have increased levels of autoantibodies against
platelets
e. Anti-platelet antibodies against platelet surface glycoprotein Ib have been
associated with severe form of ITP in children
871. Causes of folic acid deficiency might include the following except
a. Celiac disease b. Methotrexate
c. Pyrimethamine d. Trimethoprim
e. Busuiphan
872. The incidence of hemihypertrophy in patients with Wilm' s tumor is

a. 1/250 b. 1/30 c. 1/100 d. 1/1000
e. 1/2500
873. Platelet aggregation is impaired in the following except

a. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome b. Bernard Soulier Syndrome
c. Hereditary Afibrinogenemia d. Glanzman' s thrombocythenia
e. Chronic renal failure
874. ESR is very low in all of the following conditions except

a. Anorexia nervosa b. Hereditary spherocytosis Steroid therapy
d. Serum sickness e. Alpha-I antitrypsin deficiency
875. Which is the least significant prognostic indicator of ALL

a. Low Hb at diagnosis b. Low platelet count at diagnosis
c. Male sex d. Infection at diagnosis
e. Body weight below 5th centile
429

876. Tumor lysis syndrome in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
a. May need dialysis
b. Is very rare
c. Is seen only in the abdominal type
d. Could be prevented in the majority with hydration and alkalinization of urine
e. Is characterized by high serum potassium, uric acid, low phosphorus levels
877. Identify the true statement concerning serum iron level in patients with viral
hepatitis
a. The levels are decreased
b. The levels are normal or increased
c. Increased uptake capability by hepatic RE cells in viral hepatitis reduces serum
iron
d. The decrease in levels are due to a decrease in iron release by damaged
hepatocytes
e. c and d
878. False statement in Burkitt's lymphoma in children is

a. B-cell neoplasm
b. Early dissemination to bone marrow
c. Related to EBV mainly in endemic areas
d. Chemotherapy sensitive
e. Mostly abdominal in non-endemic variety
879. Increased incidence of childhood leukemia is seen in all except

a. Klinefelter's syndrome b. Turner's syndrome
c. Bloom's syndrome d. Fanconi's syndrome
e. Down's syndrome
880. The least common drug which causes myelosuppression is

a. Bleomycin b. Procarbazine
c. AHA-C d. DTIC
e. VinbIastine
881. Laboratory manifestations in acute non-lymphocytic leukemia are

a. Almost always WBC > 50,000/ cumm at diagnosis
b. About 20% have WBC> 100,000 1 cumm at diagnosis
c. Nuramidase increase in CSF
d. Normal platelet count at diagnosis
e. None is correct
882. Low Rb A2 is observed in

a. Alpha-thalassemia b. Hereditary persistence of HbF
c. HbE disease d. CB-thalassemia
e. All are correct
430

883. Recognized features of iron deficiency anemia includes the following except
a. Splenomegaly b. Increased 2, 3 diphosphoglycerate
c. Widening of skull dipole d. Increase free erythroprotoporphyrin
e, Thrombocytosis
884. Spherocytosis is commonly seen in all except

a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. Burn injury
c. ABO incompatibility d. Hemolysis in GGPD deficiency
e. Thalassemia trait
885. The following conditions predispose to iron deficiency anemia except

a. Cyanotic congenital heart disease b. Folic acid deficiency
c. Congenital spherocytosis d. Ankylostomiasis
e. Long-term aspirin therapy
886. Neutropenia might be caused by all except

a. Phenothiazines b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Tetracycline s d. Influenza
e. Ethosuximide
887. The low glomerular filtration rate in 3000 gm newborn as compared to an adult
may be related to all of the following except
a. Low glomerular membrane permeability b. Low renal plasma flow
c. Low hydration d. Low perfusion pressure
e. Less glomerular filtering surface
888. All of the following have an effect on calcium as well as sodium absorption except
a. Aldosterone b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
c. Mannitol d. Frusemide e. Metabolic acidosis
889. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of primary (versus secondary)

enuresis
a. Polydipsia b. Polyuria c. Family history of enuresis d. Constipation
890. All of the following diuretic agents may be associated with hypokalemia except
a. HydrochiorothiaZide b. Spirolatone
c. Frusemide d. Ethancryonic acid
e. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
891. Which of the following is correct regarding short stature in a child with chronic renal
failure
a. There is an apparent growth hormone resistant state
b. GH levels are elevated
c. Decreased insulin like growth factor-1 (IGF-l)
d. Major abnormalities of IGF-binding proteins
e. All of the above
431

892. Renal biopsy is probably indicated as part of initial work up in the following except
a. Asymptomatic transient proteinuria
b. Asymptomatic proteinuria + hemoturia
c. Lupus nephritis
d. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
e. Membranous glomerulonephritis
893. A 6-year old child admitted with hypertensive encephalopathy. The drug of choice
for therapy
a. Sodium nitroprusside b. Methyldopa
c. Diazoxide d. Minoxidil
894. Absolute indications for initiation of chronic dialysis include each of the following
except
a. Hypertension b. Uremic pericarditis
c. Uremic neuropathy d. Renal Osteodystrophy
895. A true statement about treatment of side effects of chronic renal failure in
children is
a. Anemia does not respond to erythropoietin
b. Peripheral neuropathy responds to vitamin B 12
c. Delay in sexual development does not improve after renal transplantation
d. Growth retardation responds to growth hormone
896. A 3-year old girl is diagnosed as having urinary tract infection. This is her first
documented infection. Further evaluation should include
a. IVP b. VCU (Voiding Cystourethrogram)
c. VCU and renal ultrasound d. None of the above
897. All of the following disease may be related to soluble immune complexes except
a. Acute poststreptrococcal glomerulonephritis
b. Serum sickness nephritis c. Shunt nephritis
d. Goodpasture's syndrome
898. Reduced C3 levels may be seen in all of the following except

a. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
c. Lupus nephritis
d. Shunt nephritis
e. Hereditary nephritis
899. Therapy with steroids may be beneficial in which of the following?

a. Membranous glomerulonephritis
b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
c. IgA—IgGnephritis
d. Acute post streptococcus glomerulonephritis
432

900. All of the following forms of glomerulonephritis in children are associated with good
prognosis except
a. Varicella-associated nephritis
b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
c. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
d. Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
901. Among the following the least likely direct consequence of the physiological
disturbance in chronic renal failure is
a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemi c. Hypernatremia
d. Hyponatremia e. Hyperphosphatemia
902. Of the following conditions the one least likely to accelerate decline in renal function
in children with chronic renal failure is
a. High protein intake b. Hypertension
c. Anemia d. Hyperphosphatemia
903. Factors contributing to renal osteodystrophy in children with chronic renal failure
include each of the following except
a. Impaired production of calcitriol b. Hyperphophatemia
c. Hypercalcemia d. Excessive parathormone secretion
904. All of the following stimulate renin release except

a. Diazoxide b. Hydralazine c. Minoxidil
d.Methyldopa e. Frusemide
905. A full-term male infant is noted to have idiopathic respiratory distress associated
with spontaneous pneumothorax. The most likely associated urinary tract anomaly in
this neonate is
a. Ureter pelvic obstruction b. Bladder neck obstruction
c. Renal agenesis d. Congenital renal cyst
906. A positive dipstick test of urine for hematuria is least likely to be due to
a. Urinary tract infection
b. high concentration of ascorbic acid in urine
c. Myoglobinuria
d. Hypercalcinuria
e. Oxalosis
907. A 7-year old boy has had reddish urine with a dipstick test result negative for
hematuria. Among the following the least likely explanation for this finding is ingestion of
a Ex-lax (phenolphthalein) b. Beets (anthocyanin)
c. Blackberries d. Nitrofurantoin
e. Aspirin
433

908. A 10-year old child has had isolated microscopic hematuria for 3 years, which of the
following studies is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?
a. Determination of tubular reabsorption of phosphate
b. Multiple cultures of urine
c. Serial ASO titers
d. Simultaneously measured urinary and blood pH
e. Urinary calcium-to-creatinine ratio
909. Among the following, the finding most convincingly indicating that hematuria is of
glomerular origin is
a. Proteinuria> 100 mg/rn2 per day
b. Hypertension
c. Edema
d. RBC casts
e. Brownish color to urine
910. Three organisms cause 75 to 90% of all urinary tract infections in girls. In addition to
E.coli and proteus species, the organisms most likely to cause such infections are
a. Candida albicans b. Enterococcus species
c. Klebsiella species d. Pseudomonas species
e. Staphylococcus species
911. True statements about vesicoureteral reflux include each of the following except
a. The majority of cases of Grade I and II reflux resolve spontaneously
b. There is a familial tendency
c. Grade IV to V will probably require surgery
d. Resolution of grade Ito II at steady rate of less than 15% per year
912. The least common “cause” for pediatric urolithiasis is

a. Infection b. Anomalies of urinary tract
c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypercalcinuria
e. Idiopathic
913. A 2-1/2 year old boy with diarrhea has a focal seizure. Findings include pallor, stupor
and hematuria. Of the following, the most likely to aid in diagnosing this patient’s
problem is measurement of
a. Blood urea nitrogen b. Calcium
c. Glucose d. Magnesium
e. SerumpH
914. A 4-year old girl presents with dysuria and frequency. Of the following tests, which
one is the quickest and most accurate screening method for urinary tract infection
a. Dipstick for white blood cell esterase b. Dipstick for nitrite
c. Examination of urine for white blood cells d. Gram stain of urine
e. Urine cultures
434

915. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is most likely to be indicated in the
management of
a. Lumen calculi (urethral)
b. Upper tract calculi
c. Staghorn calculi
d. Urinary calculi in patient with bleeding
916. In order for the edema to be clinically recognizable, the child’s usual body weight
must have been increased by at least
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 25%
917. Which of the following forms of treatment is least likely to decrease bed wetting in a
child with a primary enuresis
a. Arousal system; having the child take responsibility
b. Using wet alarm system
c. DAVP
d. Psychotherapy
918. True statements about magnesium depletion include ail of the following except
a. Cause refractory cardiac arrhythmias
b. Is excluded by abnormal serum level
c. Is often suspected because of hypokalemia or hypocalcemia
d. Not uncommonly seen in the hospitalized pa: e'- receiving prolonged parenteral
therapy
919. Hyperparathyroidism in renal failure results from which of the following

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypomagnesaemia
c. Low calcitriol (25(011)2, Vitamin D)
d. High calcium phosphate product
920. The hemolytic-uremic syndrome is commonly associated with all of the following
except
a. A history of preceding upper respiratory tract infection
b. Anemia
c. Azotemia
d. Thrombocytopenia
e. Elevated ASO titer
921. Minimal change nephritic syndrome in childhood is usually associated with all of the
following except
a. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. Lowered serum C3 levels
c. Serum cholesterol levels 300—1000 mg/dl
d. Serum albumin levels lower than 2.5 gm /dl
435

922. Contraindications to and/or complication of peritoneal dialysis include all of the
following except
a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypernatremia
c. Recent abdominal surgery d. Acute peritonitis
e. Hypertension
923. The major side effect(s) that may be associated with cyeclophosphaldehide therapy
includes which of the following
a. Gonadal failure b. Leukopenia
c. Alopecia d. Hemorrhagic cystitis
e . All of the above
924. In the first six months of life nephrotic syndrome may be associated with all of the
following except
a. Infantile hepatitis B b. TORCH infections
c. Focal segmental sclerosis d. Diffuse mesangial sclerosis
925. Primary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus may be associated with all of the following
except
a. Hypertonic dehydration b. Polyuria
c. Female propensity d. Growth retardation
926. A 5-week old infant is admitted with severe vomiting and failure to thrive. The blood
pressure is normal. Laboratory investigation reveals a hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
associated with hyponatremia and hypochloremia. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Pyloric stenosis b. Primary hyperaldosteronism
c. Baffler’s syndrome d. Adrenal insufficiency
927. All of the following are genetically determined except

a. Infantile polycystic kidney b. Medullary cystic disease
c. Oligomeganephronic hypoplasia d. Adult polycystic disease
928. Renal angiography is most useful in the diagnosis of

a. Hydronephrosis b. Renal trauma
c. Polycystic kidney d. Nephrotic syndrome
929. Of the following, the clinical finding most characteristic of the syndrome
inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is
a. Decreased capillary refill b. Doughy skin
c. Normal skin turgor d. Pitting edema
e. Tenting of the skin (positive ridge sign)
930. Prenatal diagnosis may be possible in the following conditions except

a. Fanconi’s anemia b. Amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
c. Schwachman Diamond syndrome d. Blackfan Diamond syndrome
e. Meningomyelocele
436

931. X-linked conditions include the following except
a. Fabry’s disease b. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
c. Amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia d. Granulomatous diseases of childhood
e. Dyskeratosis congerital
932. Fragile X-syndrome is characterized by all of the following features except

a. Long face b. Large ears c. Large nose d. Large testis
933. Which of the following features is seen in Klinefelter’s syndrome?

a. Short stature b. Pituitary adenoma
c. Subnormal intelligence d. Breast adenoma
934. A child presents with short stature, webbing of the neck, pectus carinatum, cubitus
vulgus, antimongoloid slant of the eyes and pulmonary stenosis. The most likely
diagnosis is
a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Noonan’s syndrome
c. Turner’s syndrome d. Down’s syndrome
935. Which is the functional unit of DNA?

a. Chromosome b. Gene
c. Nucleus d. Mitochondria
936. In autosomal recessive inheritance what are the chances for a child to get the
disease?
a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%
937. In X-linked recessive inheritance, what are the chances that female carriers have an
affected son?
a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%
938. Which chromosomes are involved in translocation type of Down’s syndrome?

a. 13,14,15,21 b. 8,13,18,21 c. 3,13,18.21 d. 2,7,9,10
939. All of the following are features of Down’s syndrome except

a. Epicanthic folds b. Mental retardation
c. Sinuan crease d. Cleft lip
940. All of the following are features of Edward syndrome except

a. Mental retardation b. Rocker Bottom feet
c. Micrognathia d. Brush field spots
941. All of the following are features of Patau’s syndrome, except

a. Cleft lip and palate b. Polydactyly
c. Cardiac defects d. Trisomy 18
942. What is the chromosomal defect in Cri-du-Chat syndrome?

a. 4p b. 5p c. 4q d. 5q
437

943. What is the karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome?
a. 45X0 b. 47XXY c. 47XYY d. 47XXX
944. Regarding phenylketonuria, which of the following statements is true?
a. It is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase
b. Patients with PKU are blonde, have fair skin and blue eyes
c. Urine has a musty odor
d. All of the above
945. Tall stature, progressive subluxation of ocular lens and mental retardation is
diagnostic of which metabolic disorder?
a. Marfan’s syndrome b. Homocysteifluria
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome d. Pituitary gigantism
946. Ataxia, pellagra like rash and episodic psychological changes all are suggestive of
which of the following disorder
a. Hartnup disease b. Refsum disease
c. Maple syrup urine disease d. Abetalipoproteinemia
947. Lipidoses are associated with cherry red spot of t-e macula and
hepatosplenomegaly except
a. CM 1 gangliosidoSis b. Niemann Pick's disease
c. Taysach’s disease d. Sandoff s disease
948. In an infant with marked hypotonia, severe cardiomegaly with moderate

hepatomegaly the most likely diagnosis is
a. Endocardial fibroelastosis b. Pompe’s disease
c. Thiamine deficiency d. Familial hypercholesterolemia
949. All of the following statements are true, about Von Gierke’s disease except
a. Enzyme deficient is glucose-6-phosphate b. Hyperuriceiflia is present
c. Lactic acidosis occurs d. Spleen is enlarged
950. In McArdle’s disease which of the following enzyme is deficient?

a. Liver phosphorylase b. Muscle phosphorylase
c. Phosphofructokinase d. Glucose-6-phosphatase
951. Which of the following statements regarding Lesch- Nyhan syndrome is incorrect
a. It is due to total deficiency of HPRT enzyme
b. It is due to partial deficiency of HPRT enzyme
c. It is characterized by compulsive self destructive behavior
d. The mode of inheritance is X-linked recessive
952. Which of the following enzymes is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria?

a. Porphobilinogen deaminase b. ALA dehydratase
c. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase d. Fe ochelatase
438

953. In which of the following conditions, does the diaper of e baby stain pink?
a. Alkaptonuria
b. Ina anuria
c. Co genital erythropoietic porphyria (Gunther disease)
d. Phi nylketonuria
954. X-linked conditions include the following except:©

a. DysKeratosis b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum d. Ataxia telangiectasia
e. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Bio Chemistry

1. The subcellular organeele which is the primary consumer of respiratory oxygen is:
a. Motchondrion b.Lysosome
c.Peroxisome d.Nucleus
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is associated with:

a. Protein synthesis
b. Lipid synthesis
c. Synthesis of ketone bodies
d. Pentose phosphate pathway of glucose oxidation
3. Intracellular diagnestive emzymes are present in:

a.Cytosol b.Microsomes
c.Lysosomes d.Golgi apparatus
4. The Cellular organelle is designated as the power house of the cell is:
a. Lysosome b. Mithochondrion c. Golgi body d. Nucleus
5. Plasma membrane refers to:

a. The inner membrane of the cell b. The outer membrane of the cell
c. The mitochondrial membrane d. The outer nuclear membrane
6. Glucose on reduction forms:

a. Dulctiol b. Mannitol
c. Sorbitol d. Mannitol and Sorbitol
7. Table sugar is:

a. Glucose b. Lactose
c. Sucrose d. Maltose
439

8. Inulin is the polymer of:
a.Fructose b. Ribose
c.Ribulose d.Fucose
9. A disaccharide linked by alpha 1-4 glycosidic bond is:

a. Lactose b. Maltose
c. Sucrose d. Cellubiose
10. The glycosaminoglycan which functions as a functions as a lubricant and shock

absorber in synovial fluid is:
a. Heparin b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Keratan sulphate d. Chondroition 4-sulphate
11. Plant cells differ from animal cells in having:

a. Mitochondria b. Ribosomes
c. Cell wall d. Golgi bodies
12. Aerobic respiration is performed by:

a. Glyoxisomes b. Ribosomes
c. Lysosomes d.Mitochondria
13. Fibrous larnina is component of:

a. Nucleolus b. Nucleoplasm c. Nuclear matric d. Chromatin
14. One of the following is without any covering membrane:

a.Peroxisome b.Ribosome
c. Protein synthesis d.Glyoxysome
15. Mithochondria perform:

a. Synthesis of ATP b. In carboxylic acid cycle
c. Protein synthesis d. All the above
16. Oxysomes or elementary particles are found in:

a. Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex d. Glyoxysomes and Perxisomes
17. The term suicidal bags is used for

a. Peroxisomes b. Lysosome c. Mitochindria d. Ribosomes
18. The cell was first discovered by:

a. Robert hooke b. Robert huke
c. Robert monad d. Robert hill
19. The cell theory was first developed in 1839 by:

a. Marthias Jacob schleiden b. Matthias han
c. Jan evangelista d. Jan monad
440

20. Gram positivee cell wall contain:
a. Teichoic acid b.typtophan
c. Acetic acid d.tyrosine
21. Gram negative cell wall do not contain:

a. Teichoic acids b. Lipids
c.Phospholipids d. lipopolysaccharides
22. Robosomes bound to rough endoplalsmic reticulum synthesis are:

a. Proteins b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrate
23. The prokaryotic cells do not contain:

a. Mitochondria b.Circular DNA
c.ribosome’s d.Flaella
24. The eukaryotic cells contains the type of ribosomes’s:

a. 80s b. 70s
c. 60s d.50s
25. Transmission electron microscopy (TEM) is quite similar to:

a. Compound light microscope b. Light microscope
c. Phase contrast microscope d. Dark field microscope
26. The sear for glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathway is:
c. Cytosol d. Golgi bodies
27. Synthesis of retinal pigments, steroid hormones and fats occours in:
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi bodies d.Mitochondria
28. The function of protein sorting, lipid sorting and secretion is performed by:
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgiapparatus d. Mitochondria
29. Diseases like Hunter’s Syndrome, Hunter’s Syndrome, Tay Sach’s disease, etc are
related with abnormalities of:
a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgiapparatus
d.lysosomes
30. Peroxisomes are related to:

a. Metabolism of purines b. Metabolism of extra amino acids
c. Oxidation of toxins and alcohol d. All the above
441

31. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibting the enzyme xanthine Oxidize
is :
a.Aspirin b.Allopurinol c.Colchicine d.probenecid
32. Oxadation of which substabce in the body yields the most calories:
a.Glusoce b.Glycogebn c.Protein d.Lipids
33. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?

a.Vitanin C b. Vitanin A
c. Vitanin B2 d. Vitanin K
34. Milk is deficient in which mineral?

a.Phosphorus b.Sodium
c.Iron d.Potassium
35. Synthesis of prostaglandinsis is inhibited by

a. Aspirin b. Arsenic
c. Fluoride d. Cyanide
36. HDL is synthesized and secreted from

a. Pancreas b. Liver
c. Kidney d. Muscle
37. Which is the chlesterol esters thar enter cells through the receptor-mediated
endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed?
a. Endoplasmin reticulum b. Lysosomes
c. Plasma membrane receptor d. Mitochondria
38. Which of the following phospholipids is localized to a greater extent in the outer
leaflet of the membrane lipid bilayer?
a. Choline phosphoglycerides
b. Enthanolamine phosphoglycerides
c. Inositol phosphoglycerides
d. Serine phosphoglycerides
39. All the following processes occour rapidly in the membrane lipid bilayer except
a. Flexing of fatty acyl chains
b. Lateral diffusion of phospholipids
c. Transbilayer diffusion of phopholipids
d. Rotatoin of phospholipidsd around their lomg axes
40. Which of the following statement is correct about membrane cholesterol?

a. The hydrozyl group is located near the centre of lipid layer
b. Most of the cholesterool is in the form of a cholesterol ester
c. The steriod nucleus forms a rigid, planar structure
d. The hydrocarbon chain of cholesterol projects into the extra cellular fluid
442

41. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?
a. Nucleus b. Mithochondria
c. Cytoplasm d. Golgi apparatus
42. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

a. Lysosomes b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi apparatus d. Entoplasmic reticulum
43. The degradative Processes are categorized under the heading of

a. Anabolism b. Catabolism
c. Metabolism d. None of the above
44. The exchange of material takes place

a. Only by diffusion b. Only by active transport
c. Only by pinocytosis d. All of these
45. The average pH of Urine is

a. 7.0 b. 6.0
c. 8.0 d. 0.0
46. The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratio between H2CO3

And NaHCO# is
a. 1:10 b.1:20
c. 1:25 d.1:30
47. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

a.Diffusion b.Effusion
c.Afusion d.Coagulation
48. The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and medium is
decreased by
a. Bilw Salts b.Bile acids
c.Conc.H2SO4 d.Acetic acid
49. Which of the following is located in mitochondria?

a. Cytochrome oxidase b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Dilhydrolipoyl dehydrogenase d. All of these
50. The most active site of protein synthesis is the

a. Necleus b. Ribosome
c. Mitochondrion d. Cell sap
51. The fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through
a. Active transport b. Facilitated transfer
c. Non-facilated transfer d. None of these
443

52. Mitochondrial DNA is
a. Circular double standard b.Circular single standard
c. Linear double helix d.None of these
53. The absorption of intact protein from the gut in fetal and newborn animalstakes place
by
a.Pinocytosis b.Passive diffusion
c. Simple diffusion d.Active transfer
54. The cellular organelles called “suicide bags”are

a.Lysosomes b.Ribosomes
c.Nucleolus d.Golgi’s bodies
55. From the biological viewpoint, solutions can be grouped into
a. Isotonic solution b. Hypotonic solutions
c. Hypertonic solution d. All of these
56. Bulk transfer across cell membrane is accomplished by

a.Phagocytosis b.Pinocytosis
c.Extrusion d.All of these
57. The ablility of cell membrane to act as a selective barrier depends upon
a. The lipid composition of the membrane
b. The pores which allows small molecules
c. The special mediated transfer system
d. All of these
58. Carrier protein can

A.Transport only one substance
b. Transport more than one substance
c. Exchange one substance to another
d. Perform all of these functions
59. A lipid bilayer is permeable to

a. Urea b.Fructose c.Glucose d.Potassium
60. The Golgi complex

a. Synthesizes proteins
b. Produces ATP
c. Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals
d. Forms glycoproteins
61. The following points about micrcofilaments are true except

a. They form cytoskeleton with microtubules
b. They provide support and shape
c. They form intracellular conducting channels
d. They are involved in muscule cell contraction
444

62. The following substance are cell inclusions except
a. Mwlanin b. Glycogen
c. Lipids d. Centrosome
63. Fatty acid can be transported into and out cell membrane by
a. Active transport b. Facilated transport
c. Diffusion d. Osmosis
64. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the

a. Ribosomes b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Lysosomes d. Inner mitochondrial membrane
65. Mature erythrocytes do not contains

a. Glycolytic enzymes b. HMP shut enzymes
c. Pyridine nucleotide d. ATP
66. In mamalian cells rRNA is produced mainly in the
a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Ribosome
c. Nucleolus d. Nucleus
67. Genetic information of neclear DNA is transmited to the site of protein synthesis by s
a. rRNA b. mRNA
c. tRNA d. Polysomes
68. The power house of the cell is

a. Nucleus b. Cell membrane
c. Mitochondria d. Lysosomes
69. The digestive enzymes of cellular compounds are confined to

a. Lysosome b.Ribosomes
c. Peroxisomes d. Polysomes
70. The Ph of gastric juice is

a.2.0 b.4.0
c.4.5 d.5.0
71. The difference in Ph between arterial and venous blood is rarely more than
a. 0.02 b. 0.03
c. 0.04 d. 0.06
72. The Ph of urine is

a. 5.6 b. 6.0
c. 6.4 d. 6.8
73. The osmosis preasure of a solution increase with the rise in

a.temperature b.cold
c.humidity d.rancidity
445

74. The osmotic preasure of solution relating to solute molecules depends on the
a.Size b.Shape
c.Number d.Volume
75. Osmosis is opposite to

a.effusion b.transport
c.Conffusion d.Diffusion
76. Hemolysis is caused by the dilution of RBC by

a. Diffusion b. osmosis
c. effusion d. imbibation
77. The surface tension of a soluytion is loweres by

a. ammonia b. sodium hydroxide
c. potassium hydroxide d. aluminium hydroxide
78. The surface tension of a solution is increased by

a. bile salts b. bile acids
c. Concentrated sulphuric acid d. acetic acid
79. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the action of
A.amylase b.lipase
c.pepsin d.Trpsin
80. The General formula of polysaccharides is (a)

a. CnH2Non b.C2nH2On
c.CnH2O2n d.CnH2nO2n
81. The tgeneral formula of polysaccharides is

a. (C6H10O5)n b .(C6H12O5)
c. (C6H10O6)n d. (c6H10O6)n
82. The aldose dugar is

a.Glycerose b.Ribose
c.Erythrose d.Dihydoxyacetone
83. A triose sugar is

a.Glycerose b.Ribose
c.Erythrose d.Fructos,e
84. A pentose sugar is

a.Dihydrozyacetone b.Ribulose c.Erythrose d.Glucose
85. The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is

a.Lyxose b.Robose
c.Arabinose d.Xylose
446

86. Polysaccharides are(a0
a.Polymers b.Acids
c.Proteins d.Oils
87. The Number of isomers ofglucose is

a.2 b.4
c.8 d.16
88. Two sugurs which differ from one another only in configration around a single carbon
atom are termed
a.Epimers b.Anomers
c. optical isomers d.Stereoisomer
89. Isomers differing as a result of variations in configuration of the –OH and –H on

carbon atoms 2, 3 and 4 of glucose are known as
a. Epimers b. Anomers
c. Optical isomers d. Stereoisomers
90. The most important epimer of glucose is

a. Galactose b. Fructose
c. Arabinose d. Xylose
91. a-D- glucose and a-D-glucose are

a. Stereoisomer b. Epimer
c. Anomers d. Keto-aldo pairs
92. a-D-glucose+ 1120’!+52.50.!+190 a-D-glucose for glucose above represents

a.Optical isomers b.Mutarotation
c.Epimerisation d.D and L isomerism
93. Compounds having the same structural formula but differing in spatial configration
are known as
a. Stereoisomers b. Anomers
c. Optical isomers d. Epimer
94. In glucose the orientation of the –H and –OH groups around the carbon atom 5
adjacent to the terminal primary alcohol carbon dertermines
a. D or L series b. Dextro or Levorotatory
c. α and β anomers d.Epimers
95. The Carbohydrate of the Blood group substances is

a.Sucrose b.Fucose c.Arabinose d.Maltose
96. Erythromycin contains

a. Dimethyl amino sugar b.Trimethy amino sugar
c. Sterol and sugar d.Glycerol and sugar
447

97. A sugar alcohol is
a.Mannitol b.Trehalose
c.Xylulose d.Arabinose
98. The major sugar of insect hemolymph is

a.Glycogen b.Pectin
c.Trehalose d.Sucrose
99. The sugar found in DNA is

a.Xylose b.Ribose
c.xyribose d.Ribulose
100.The sugar found in RNA is

a.Ribose b.Deoxyribose
c.Ribulose d.Erythrose
101. The sugar found in milk is

a.Galactose b.Glucose
c.Fructose d.Lactose
102. Invert sugar is

a.Lactose b.sucrose
c. Hydrolytic products of sucrose d. Fructose
103. Sucrose consister of

a. Glucose+glucose b. Glucose+fructose
c. Glucose+galactose d. Glucose+mannose
104. The monosaccharide untis are linked by 1-14 glycosidic linked in

a. Maltose b. Sucrose
c. Cellulose d. Cellobiose
105. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

a. Isomaltose b. Sucrose
c. Lactose d. Trehalose
106. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

a. Sucrose b. Tehalose
c. I somaltose d. Agar
107. A dissaccharide formed by 1, 1-glycosidic linkage between their monosaccharide

units is
c. Trehalose d. Sucrose
448

108. A dissaccharide formed by 1, 1--glycosidic linkage between their monosaccharide
units is
c.Trehalose d. Sucrose
109. Mutarotation refers to change in

a.pH b. optical rotation
c.conducatance d. Chemical roperties
110. A polysacchharide which is often called animal starch is

a. Glycogen b. Starch
c. Inulin d. Dextrin
111. The homopolysaccharide used for intravenous infusion as plasma substitute is

a. Agar b.Inulin
c.Pectin d.Starch
112. The polysaccharide used in assessing the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is
a. Glycogen b. Agar
c. Inulin d. Hyaluronic acid
113. The constituent unit of inulin is

a. Glucose b. Fructose
c. Mannose d. Glucose
114. The polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of invertebrates is

a.Pectin b.Chitin
c.Cellulose d.Chondroitin sulphate
115. Which of the following is a heteroglycan?

a. Dextrins b. Agar
c. Inulin d. Chitin
116. The glycosaminoglycan which does not contain uronic acid is

a. Dermatan sulphate b. Chondroitin sulphate
c. Keratan sulphate d. Heparan sulphate
117. The glycosaminoglycan which does not contain uronic acid is

a. Hyaluronic acid b.Heparin
c. Chondroitin sulphate d.Dermatan sulphate
118. Keratan sulphate is found in abundance in

a. Heart muscle b.Liver
c. Adrenal cortex d.Cornea
449

119. Repeating untis of hyaluronic acid are
a. N-acetyl glucosamine and D-glucuronic acid
b. N-acetyl galactosamine and D-glucuronic acid
c. .N-acetyl glucosamine and galactose
d. .N-acetyl galactosamine and L-iduron’c acid
120. The approximate number of branches in amylopectin is

a. 10 b. 20
c. 40 d. 80
121. In amylopectin the intervals of glucose units of each branch is

a. 10 – 20 b. 24 - 30
c. 30 – 40 d. 40 – 50
122. A polymer of glucose synthesized by the action of leuconostoc mesenteroids in a

sucrose medium is
a. Dextrans b. Dextrin
c. Limit dextrin d. Inulin
123. Glucose on reduction with sodium amalgam froms

a. Dulcitol b. Sorbitol
c. Mannitol d. Mannitol and sorbitol
124. Glucose on oxidation does not given

a. Glycoside b. Glucosaccharic acid
c. Gluconic acid d. Glucouronic acid
125. Oxidation of galactose with conc HNO3 yields

a. Mucic acud b. Glucuronic acid
c. Saccharic acid d. Gluconic acid
126. A positive Benedict’s test is not given by

a. Sucrose b. Lactose
c. Maltose d. Glucose
127. Starch is a
a. Polysaccharide b. Monosaccharide
c. Disaccharide d. Glucose
128. A positive Seliwanoff’s test is obtained with

c. Lactose d. Maltose
129. Osazones are not formed with the

c. Sucrose d. Lactose
450

130. The most abundant carbohydrate found in nature is
a.Starch b.Glycogen
c.Cellulose d.Chitin
131. Impaired renal function is indicated when the amount of PSP excreted in the first 15
minutes is
a. 20% b. 35%
c. 40% d. 45%
132. An early feature of renal disease

a. Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to person osmotic work
b. Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity
c. Decrease in filtration factor
d. Decrease in renal plasma flow
133. ADH test is based on the measurement of

a. Specific gravity of urine
b. Concentration of urea in urine
c. Concentration of urea in blood
d. Volume of urine in ml/minute
134. The specific gravity of urine normally ranges from

a. 0.900-0.999 b. 1.003-1.030
c. 1.000-1.001 d. 1.101-1.120
135. Specific gravity of urine increases in

a. Diabetes mellitus b. Chronic glomerulonephrities
c. Compulsive polydypsia d. Hypercalcemia
136.Fixation of specific gravity of urine to 1.010is found in

a. Diabetes insipidus b. Compulsive polydypsia
c.Cystinosis d. Chronic glomerulonephritis
137. Addis test is the measur of

a. Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work
b. Secretory function of liver
c. Excretory function of liver
d. Activity of parenchymal cells of liver
138. Number of stereoisomers of glucose is

a. 4 b. 8
c. 16 d. None of these
139. Maltose can be formed by hydrolysis of

a.Starch b.Dextrin
c.Glycogen d.All of these
451

140. α-d-Glucuronic acid is present in
a. Hyaluronic acid b. Chondroitin sulphate
c. Heparin d. All of these
141. Fructose is present in hydrolysate of

a. Sucrose b. Inulin
c. Both of the above d. None of these
142. A carbohydrate found in DNA is

a. Ribose b.Deoxyribose
c. Ribulose d. All of these
143. Rubulose is these

a. Ketotetrose b. Aldotetrose
c. Ketopentose d. Aldopentose
144. A carbohydrate,commonly known as dextrose is

a. Dextrin b. D-Fructose
c. D-Glucose d. Glycogen
145. A carbohydrate found only in milk is

a. Glucose b. Galactose
c. Lactose d. Maltose
146. A carbohydrate, known commonly as invert sugar, is

a. Frutcose b. Sucrose
c. Glucose d. Lactose
147. A heteropolysacchraide among the following is

a. Inulin b. Cellulosen
c. Heparin d. Dextrin
148. The predominant from of glucose in solution is

a. Acyclic form b. Hydrated acyclic from
c. Glucofuranose d. Glucopyranose
149. An L-isomer of monosaccharide formed in human body is

a. L-fructose b. L-Erythrose c. L-Xylose d. L-xylulose
150. Hyaluronic acid is found in

a. Joints b. Brain c. Abdomen d. Mouth
151. The carbon atom which becomes asymmetric when the straight china form of
monosaccharide changes into ring form is known as
a. Anomeric carbon atom b. Epimeric carbon atom
c. Isomeric carbon atom c.None of these
452

152. The smallst monosaccharied having furanose ring structure is
a.Erythrose b.Ribose
c.Glucose d.Fructose
153. Which of the following is an epimeric pair?

a. Glucose and fructose b. Glucose and galactose
c. Galactose and mannose d. Lactose and maltos
154. α-Glycosidic bond is present in

a . Lactose b. Maltose
c. Sucrose d. All of these
155. Branching occurs in glycogen approximately after every

a. Five glucose units b. Ten glucose units
c. Fiteen glucose units’ d. Twenty glucose units
156. N-Acetylglucosamnine is present in

a. Hyaluronic acid b.Chondroitin sulphate
c.Heparin d.All of these
157. Iodine gives a red color with

a.Starch b.Dextrin
c.Glycogen d.Inulin
158. Amylose is a constituent of

a.Starch b.Cellulose
c. Glycogen d.None of these
159.S ynovial fluid contains

a. Heparin b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Chondroitin sulphate d. Keratin sulphate
160. Gluconeogenesis is decreased by

a. Glucagon b. Epinephrine
c. Glucocorticoids d. Insulin
161. Lactate formed in muscles can be utilized through

a. Rapoport-Luedeling cycle b. Glucose-alanine cycle
c. Cori’s cycle d. Citric acid cycle
162. Glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in

a. Liver aned kidneys
b. Kidneys and muscles
c. Kidneys and adipose tissue
d. Muscles and adipose tissue
453

163. Pyruvate carboxylase is regulated by
a.Induction b.Repression
c. Allosteric regulation d.All of these
164. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate is formed by the action of

a. Phosphofructokinase-1
b. .Phosphofructokinase-2
c. Fructose biphosphate isomerase
d. Fructose-1, 6- biphosphatse
165. The highest concentration of fructose are found in

A. Aqueous humor b. Vitreous humor
c. Synovial fluid d. Seminal fluid
166. Glucose uptake by liver cells is

a. Energy-consuming b.A saturable process
c. Insulin-dependent d.Insulin-independent
167. Renal threshold for glucose is decreased in

a. Diabetes mellitus b. Insulinoma
c. Renal glycosuria d. Alimentary glycossuria
168. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by

a. Ouabain b. Phlorrizin
c. Digoxin d. Alloxan
169. Glucose-6-phosphate is absent or ndeficient in

a. Von Gierke’s disease b. Pompe’s disease
c. Cori’s disease d. McArdle’s disease
170. Debranching enzyme is absent in
a. Cori’s disease b.Andersen’s disease
c. Von Gierke’s disease d.Her’s disease
171. McArdle’s disease is due to the deficiency of

a. Glucose-6-phosphatase b.Phosphofructokinase
c. Liver phosphorylase d. Muscle phosphorylase
172. Tautomerisation is
a. Shift of hydrogen b. Shift of carbon
c. Shift of both d. None of these
173. In essential pentosuria, urine contains

a. D-Ribose b. D-Xylulose
c. L-Xylulose d. D-Xylose
454

174. Action of salivary amylase on starch leads to the formation of
a. Maltose b. Maltotriose
c. Both of the above d. Neither of these
175. Congenital galactosaemia can lead to

a. Mental retardation b.Premature cataract
c. Death d. All of the above
176. Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) is

a. Required for metabolism of galactose
b. Required for synthesis of glucuronic acid
c. Asubstrate for glycogen synthetase
d. All of the above
177. Catalytic activity of salivary amylase requires the presence of

a. Chloride ions b.Bromide ions
c. Iodide ions d.Allof these
178. The following is actively absorbed in the intestine:

a.Fructose b.Mannose
c.Galactose d.None of these
179. An amphibolic pathways among the following is

a. HMP shunt b. Glycoysis
c. Citric acid cycle d. Gluconeogenesis
180. Cori’s cycle transfers

a. Glucose from muscles to liver
b. Lactate from muscles to liver
c. Lactate from liver to muscles
d. Pyruvate from liver to muscles
181. Excessive intake of ethanol increases the ratio:

a.NADH: NAD+ b.NAD+: NADH
c.FADH2: FAD d.FAD:FADH2
182. Ethanol decreases gluconeogenesis by

a. Inhibiting glucose-6-phosphatase
b. Inhibiting PEP carboxykinase
c. Converting NED+ into NADH and decreasing the availability of pyruvate
d. Converting NED+ into NADH and decreasing the availability of lactate
183. Glycogenin is
a. Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
b. Polymer of glycogen molecules
c. Portin primer for glycogen synthesis
d. Intermediate in glycogen breakdown
455

184. During starvation, ketone bodies are used as a fuel by
a.Erythrocytes b.Brain
c.Liver d.All of these
185. Animal fat is in general

A .Poor in drsatursted and rich in polyunsatursted fatty acids
b. Rich in drsatursted and poor in polyunsatursted fatty acids
c. Rich in drsatursted and polyunsatursted fatty acids
d. Poor in drsatursted and polyunsatursted fatty acids
186. In the diet of a diabetic patient, the recommended carbohydrate intake should
preferably be in the form of
a. Monosaccharides b. Dissaccharides
c. Polysaccharides d. All of these
187. Obesity increases the risk of

a. Hypertension b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cardiovascular disease d. All of these
188. Worldwide, the most common vitamin deficiency is that of

a. Ascorblc acid b. Folic acid
c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin D
189. Consumption of iodized salt is recommended for prevention of

a. Hypertension b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Endemic goiter ` d. None of these
190. Restriction of salt intake is generally recommended in

a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hypertension
c. Cirrhosis of liver d. Peptic ulcer
191. Polyuria can occur in

a. Diabetes mellitus b.Diarrhea
c. Acute glomerulonephritis d. High fever
192. Normal specific gravity of urine is raised in all of the following except
a. 1.000-1.010 b.1.012-1.024
c. 1.025-1.034 d.1.035-1.045
193. Specific gravity of urine is raised in all of the following except

a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Dehydration d. Acute glomerulonephritis
194. Specific gravity of urine is decreased in

a. Diabetes mellitus b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Diarrhea d. Chronic glomerulonephritis
456

195. Heavy proteinuria occurs in
a. .Acute glomerulonephritis b. Acute pyelonephritis
c.Nephrosclerosis d. Nephritic syndrome
196. Mucopolysaccharides are

a. Homopolysaccharide b. Hetropolysaccharides
c. Proteins d. Amino acid
197. Bence-Jones protein precipitates at

a. 20 -40 C b. 40 – 60 C
c. 60 – 80 C d. 80 – 100 C
198. Serum cholesterol is decreased in

a. Endemic goiter b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Myxoedema d. Cretinism
199. The heptose ketose sugar formed as a result of chemical reation in HMP shunt:
a.Sedohetulose b.Galactoheptose
c.Glucoheptose d.Mannoheptose
200. The general formula for polysaccharide is

a. (C6H12O6) b. (C6H19O6)n
c. C6H12O5)n d. (C6H19O6)n

Bio Chemistry
201. The number of isomers of glucose is
a.4 b.12 c.12
202. The epimer of glucose is

a. Fructose b. Galactose
c. Ribose d. Deoxyribose
203. The intermediate in hexose monophospate shute is

a. D-Ribolose b. D-Arobinose
c. D-xylose d. D-lyxose
204. Hony contains the hydrolytic product of

c. Inulin d. Starch
205. Glycosides are found in many

a. Vitamis b.Drugs
c. Minerals d.Nucleoproteins
457

206. Galactose on oxidation with conc.HNO3 produces
a. Gluconic acid b. Saccharic acid
c. Saccharo Lactone d. Mucic acid
207. The distinguishing test between monosaccharides and disaccharides is

a. Bial’s test b. Selwanoff’s test
c. Barfoed’s test d. Hydrolysis test
208. Cellulose is made up the molecules of

a. a-glucose b. b-glucose
c. Both of the above d. Glycogen
209. Iodine solution produces no color with

a.Cellulose b. Starch
c. Dextrin d. Glycogen
210. Glycogen structure includes a branch in between-glucose units

a. 6-12 b. 8-14
c. 6-10 d. 12-18
211. Amylose contains glucose untis

a. 100-200 b. 200-300
c. 300-400 d. 500-600
212. Each branch of amylopectin is at an interval of glucose untis

a. 14-20 b. 24-30
c. 34-40 d. 44-50
213. N-actylneuraminic acidis an example of

a. Sialic acid b. Mucic
c. Glucouronic acid d. Hippuric acid
214. In place of glucuronic acid chondroitin sulphate B contains
a. Gluconic acid b. Gluonic acid
c. Induronic acid d. Sulphonic acid
215. Blood group substances consist of

c. Fructose d. Mucose
216. The component of cartilage and cornea is
a. Keratosulphate b. Chondroitin sulphate
c. Cadmium sulphate d. Antimony sulphate
217.Benedict’s test is less likely to given weakly positive results with concentrated urine
due to the action of
a. Urea b. Uric acid
c. Ammonium salts d. Phosphates
458

218. Active transport of sugar is depressed by the agent
a. Oxaloacetate b. Fumarate
c. Malonate d. Succinate
219. The general test for detection of carbohydrates is

a. Iodine test b. Molisch test
c. Barfoed test d. Osazone test
220. Glycose absorption may be decreased in

a. Edema b. Nephritis
c. Rickets d. Osteomalitis
221. Glycogen synthetase activity is depressed by

a. lyucose b. Insulin
c. Cyclic AMP d. Fructokinase
222. The branching enzyme acts on the glucogen when the glucogen china has been
lengthened to between glycose untis
a. 1 and 6 b. 2 and 7
c. 3 and 9 d .6 and 11
223. Cyclin AMP is formed from ATM by the enzyme adenylate cyclase which is activated
by the hormone
a. Insulin b. Epineephrine
c. Testosterone d. Progesterone
224. Hexokinase has a high affinity for glucose than

a. Fructokinase b. Galactokinase
c. Glucokinase d. All of the above
225. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate are

Intercoverted by
a. Triose isomerase
b. Phosphotriose isomerase
c. Diphosphotriose isomerase
d. Dihydroxyacetone phosphyorylase
226. Citrate is converted to isocitrate by aconitase which contains

a. Ca++ b. Fe++
c. Zn++ d. Mg++
227. The reation succinyl COA to succinate requires

a. CDP b. ADP c. GDP d. NADP+
228. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is

a. Succinate b. Fumarate c. Malate d. Oxaloacetate
459

229. UDPG is oxidized to UDP glucuronic acid by UDP dehydrogenase in presence of
a. FAD+ b. NAD+
c. NADP+ d. ADP+
230. Galactose is phosphorylated by galactokinase to form

a. Galactose-6-phosphate
b. Galactose-1, 6 diphosphaate
c. Galactose-1-phosphate
d. All of these
231. The conversion of alanine to glucose is termed

a. Glycolsis
b. Oxidative decarboxylation
c. Specific dynamic action
d. Gluconeogenesis
232. The blood sugar raising action of the hormones of suprarenal coetex is due to
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Glucagon-like activity.Due to inhibition of glomerular filtration
233. Under anaerobic conditions the glycolysis one mole of glucose yields-moles of ATP
a. One b. Two
c.Eight d.Thirty
234. Which of the following metabolite integrates glucose and fatty acid metabolism?
a. Acetyl CoA b. Pyruvate
c. Citrate d. Lactate
235. Cerebrosides consist of mostly of theis sugar

c. Galactose d. Arabinose
236. Glucose will be converted into fatty acids if the diet has excess of
a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins
c. Fat d. Vitamins
237. The purple ring of Molisch reation is due to

a. Furfural b. Furural +a Napthol
c. C Napthol d. Furfural + H2SO4 + a – Naphthol
238. One of the following enzymes dose not change glycogen synthase
a. Glycogen synthase kinases 3, 4, 5,
b. Ca2+ calmodulin phosphorylase kinase
c. Ca2+ calmodulin dependent protein kinase
d. Glycogen phosphorylase
460

239. In EM pathway -2-phosphoglycerate is converted to
a. Phospho enol pyruvate
b. Enol pyruvate
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate (DHAP)
d. 1, 3 bisphosphoglycerate
240. An aneplerotic reation which sustains the availability of oxaloacetate is the

carboxylation of
a.Glutamate b.Pyruvate
c.Citrate d.Succinate
241. Specific test for ketohexoses

a. Seliwanoff s test b. Osazone test
c. Molisch test d. None of these
242. Two important byproducts of HMP shunt are

a. NADh and pentose sugars
b. NAdPH and pentose sugars
c. Pentose sugar and 4 membered sugar
d. Pentose sugar and sedoheptulose
243. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and ả-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex

require the following for their oxidative decarboxylation
a. COASH and Lipoic acid
b. NAD+and FAD
c. COASH and TPP
d.COASH, TPP, NAD+FAD, Lipoate
244. The four membered aldose sugar phosphate formed in HMP shut pathway is
a. Xylulose P b. Erythrulose P
c. Erythrose P d. Ribulose
245. Cane sugar (sucrose) injected in to blood is

a. Changed to fructose
b. Changed to glucose
c. Undergose no significant change
d. Changed to glucose and fructose
246. Pentose production is increased in

a. HMP shut b. Uromic acid pathway
c. EM pathway d. TCA cycle
247. Conversion of Alanine to carbohydrate is termed

a.Glycogenesis b.Gluconeogenesis
c.Glycogenolysis d.Photosynthesis
461

248. The following is an enzyme required for glycolysis
a. Pyruvate kinase b. Pyruvate carboxylase
c. Glucose-6-phosphatase d. Glycerokinase
249. Our body can get pentoses from

a. Glycolytic pathway b. Uromic acid pathway
c. TCA cycle d.HMP shunt
250. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in human liver is by

a. Hexokinase only
b. Glucokinase only
c. Hexokinase and glucokinase
d. Giucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
251. The following is an enzyme required for glycolysis

a. Pyruvate kinase
b. Pyruvate carboxylase
c. Glucose-6-phosphatse
d. Glycerokinase
252. The normal glucose tolerance curve reaches peak is

a. 15 min b.1hr c.2hr d.2 ½ hrs
253. Oxidative decarboxylation.the oxidation of lactic acid to pyruvic acid requires the
following vitamin derivative as the hydrogen carrier
a. Lithium pyrophosphate b. Coenyzme A
c. NAD+ d. FMN
254. Physiological glycosuria is met with in

a. Renal glycosuria b. Alimentary glycosuria
c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Alloxan diabetes
255. Two example of substrate level phosporylation in EM pathway of glucose

metabolism are in the reations of
a.1, 3 bisphoglycerate and phosphoenol pyruvate
b. Glucose-6 phosphate and Fructo-6-phosphate
c. 3 phosphoglyceraldehydehyde and phosphoenolpyruvate
d. 1, 3 bisphoglycerate and 2-phosphoenolpycerate
256. The number of molecules of ATP produced by the total oxidation of acetyl CoA in
TCA cycle is
a.6 b.8 c.10 d.12
257. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle is in step

a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase b. Malate dehydrogenase
c. Aconitase d. Succinate thiokinase
462

258. Fatty acids cannot be converted into carbohydrates in the body as the following
reation is not possible
a. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose
b. Fructose 1, 6- bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
c. Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate
d. Formation of acetyl CoA from
259. Fattylation of pyruvate requires

a. NADP+ b. Cytichromes
c. Pyridoxal phosphate d. COASH
260. Glucose tolerance is decreased in

a. Diabates mellitus b. Adrenalectomy
c. Acromegaly d. Thyrotoxicosis
261. Glucose tolerance is decreased in

a. Diabetesn mellitus b. Fructokinase
c. Aldolase d. Diphosphfructophosphatose
262. During glycolysis, Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate is decomposed by

the enzyme
a.Enolas b.Fructokinase
c.Aldolase d.Diphosphofructophosphatose
263. The following enzyme is required for the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway
a. Glucose-6-phosphatase
b.Phosphorylase
c. Aldolase
d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
264. Dehydrogenase enzymesb of the hexose monophosphate shunt are

a.NAD+specific b. NADP+ specific
c. FAD specific d. FMN specific
265. Under anaerobic conditions the glycolysis of one mole of glucose yields
______moles of ATP
a.One b.Two
c.Eight d.Thirty
266. Glycogen is converted to glucose-1-phosphate by

a. UDPG transferase b. Branchingenzyme
c.Phosphorylase d. Phosphatase
267. Which of the following is not an enzyme invovlved in glycolysis?

a. Euolase b. Aldolose
c. Hexokinase d. Glucose oxidase
463

267. Tricarboxylic acid cycle to be continuous requires the regeneration of
a. Pyruvic acid b. Oxaloacetic acid
c. a –Oxoglutaric d. Malic acid
269. Dehydrogenation of succinic acid to fumaric acid requires the following hydrogen
carrier
a. NAD+ b. NADP+
c. Flavoprotein d. Glutathione
270. Rothera test is not given by

a.a –hydroxy butyrate b.bile salts
c.Glucose d.None of these
271. Gluconeogenesis is increased in the following condition

a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diabetes Mellitus
c.Hypothyroidism d.Liver diseases
272. The oxidation of latic acin to pyruvic acid requires the following vitamin derivative
as the hydrogen carrier
a. Lithium pyrophosphate b.Coenenyzme A
c. NAD+ d.FAM
273. Physiological glycosuria is met with in

a. Renal glycosuria b.Alimentary glycosuria
c. DiabetesMellitus d.Alloxan diabetes
274. Two examples of substrate level phosphorylation in EM pathway of glucose

metabolism are in the reation of
a.1, 3 bisphosphospoglycerate and phosphoenol pyruvate
b. Glucose-6 phosphate and Fructo-6- phosphate
c. 3 Phosphoglyceraldehyde and phosphoanolpyruvate
d. 3 bisphosphospoglycerate and 2-phoshoglycerate
275. The number of molecules of ATP produced by the total oxidation of acetyl CoA in
TCA cycle is
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12
276. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle is in step

a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase b. Malate dehydrogenase
c. Aconitase d. Succinate thiokinase
277. Fatty acids cannot be converted in to carbohydrates in the bosy as the following
reation is not possible
a. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate in to glucose
b. Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate c. Transformation of actely CoA to pyruvate
d. Formation of actely CoA from fatty acids
464

278. Glucose enters the by
a. Insulin independent transport
b. Insulin dependent transport
c. Enzyme mediate transport
d. Both (A) and (B)
279. Glucogen while being acted upon by active phosphorylase is converted first to
a.Glucose
b. Glucose 1-phosphate and Glycogen with 1 carbon less
c. Glucose-6-phosphate and Glycogen with 1 carbon less
d. 6-Phosphogluconic acid
280. When O2 supply is inadequate, pyruvate is converted to

a.Phosphopyruvate b.Acetyl CoA
c.Lactate d.Alanine
281. Reactivation of inactive liver phosphorylase is normally favored by

a.Insulin b.Epinephrine
c.ACTH d.glucagon
282. Befor pyruvic acid enters the TCA cycle it must be converted to
a. Acetyl CoA b.Lactate
c. a –ketoglutarate d.Citrate
283. The total glycogen content of the body is about -------- gms
a.100 b.200
c.300 d.500
284. The total Glucose in the body is --------- gms

a. 10-15 b. 20-30
c. 40-50 d. 60-80
285. Pyruvate kinase requires --------------ions for maximum activity

a. Na+ b. K+
c. Ca2+ d. Mg2+
286. ATP is ‘wasted’ in Rapoport-Lueberring cycle in RBCs as otherwise it will inhibit

A. Phosphoglucomutase
b. Phosphohexo isomerase
c. Phosphofructo kinase
d. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase
287. The following co-enzyme is needed for the oxidative decarboxylation of ketoacids
a. NADP+ b.TPP
c. Folate coenzyme d.Biotin coenzyme
465

288. Synthesis of Glucose from amino acid is termed as
a.Glycolysis b.Gluconeogenesis
c.Glycogenesis d.Lipogenesis
289. The following examples are important hrteropolysaccharides except

a.Amylopectin b.Heparin
c.Peptidoglycan d.Hyaluronic acid
290. Cytoskeleton is constituted by

a. Microtubules (mt5) b. Microfilaments (mt5)
c. Intermediate filaments (if5) d. All the above
291. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes in having

a. 80s ribosomes b.Centerosome
c. Spindle apparatus d. Peptidoglycans in the cell wall
292. Separation of cell organelles is done by

a. Electrophoresis b. Differential centrifugation
c. Chromatography d. Homogenization
293. Which of then followingis a tetrose

a. Glycerose b. Ribose c. Erythrose d. Lactose
294. Which of the following is not an epimer of the other types?

a. Glucose b. Frutose c. Galactose d. Mannose
295. The c- and f3 isomers of glucose are also called

a. D and Ltypes b. + and –types c. Anomers d. Epimers
296. Which of the following pentose occurs in glycoproteins?

a. D – Ribulose b.D- Lactose
c. L-xylulose d.L- fructose
297. Which of thefollowing hexose is found in seminal fluid and provides energy to
sperms
a. Glucose b. D – fructose c. D-galactose d. D-Mannose
298. One of the following does not poessess glucose

a. Starch b. Glycogen- c. Insulin d. Cellulose
299. Which of the following is incorrect about NAD and FAD?

a. Both are derivatives of B – vitamins
b. Both are used to carry H - atoms released during oxidation reactions and become
reduced in the from of NADH and FADH2
c. Both acts as coenzymes in the kerbs cycle
d. They are the finel electron acceptors in the electron transport chain
466

300. End product of anaerobic phase of glycolysis is
a. Actyl-CoA b.Pyruvicacid c. Lactic acid d. Phosphoenol pyruvate
301. Site of gluconeogenesis is

a. Skeletal muscles b.Kidneys
c. Liver d.Both b and c
302. Which is the source of pyruvato formation other than glycolysis?
a. From oxidation of lactic acid b. By deamination of alanine
c. By decarboxylation of oxaloacetic d. All of the above
303. Which of the following dehydrogenation reaction involves FAD ascoenzyme instead
of NAD in kreds cycle?
a. Isocitric acid-alpha- ketoglutaric acid
b. Alpha-ketoglutaric acid- succinylCOA
c. Succinic acid fumaric acid
d. Mallic acid – oxaloaceticacid
304. Total ATP yield in mitochondrial oxidation of pyruvic acid to CO2 and H2O per
glucose molecule is
a. 24 b. 28
c. 30 d. 36
305. Liver stores about 72-100gm of glycogen but muscules can store glycogen about
a.145g b.190g
c. 245g d. 290g
306. Mean sensitivity level of blood glucose to various auto regulatory mechanism is
approximately
a. 70mg% b. 80mg%
c. 90mg% d. 100mg%
307. Various regulatory processes of blood glucose level like glycogenesis,

glycogenolysis and glucose utilization are influenced by
a. Ratio between insulin on one hand and hormones of adrenal cortex and anterior
pituitary on the other hand.
b. Absorption of glucose from intestine
c. Physical and mental activity, emotional states etc.
d. All of the above
308. One of the following is not attributable to glucocorticoids for increase in blood
glucose level
a. Increased protein catabolism in peripheral tissues for availability of amino acids to
gluconeogenesis.
b. Increased hepatic uptake of amino acids
c. Decreased peripheral uptake and utilization of glucose.
d. Decrease of liver glycogen due to inactivation of glycogen syntheses enzyme.
467

309. Hyperglycemia is caused by
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hyperpituitarism
c. Hyperactivity of adrenal glands
d. All the above.
310. Renal tubular maximam for glucose reabsorption is

a. 150mg/mm b. 250mg/mm
c. 350mg/mm d. 450mg/mm
311. Glycosuria occurs when the venous’ blood glucose exceeds

a. 140 - 180mg/dl b. 150 – 160mg/dl
c. 160 – 170mg/dl d. 170 – 180mg/dl
312. Which of the following causes hyperglycaemic glycosuria?

a. Intake of large carbohydrate diet.
b. Nervou or emotional factors
c. Endocrine disorders
d. All the above.
313. Which of the following causes renal glycosuria?

A. Injury in the floor of 1V ventricle of brain
b. Injection of alloran drug
c. Subcutaneous injection of phloridzin
d. All the above
314. One of the following does not cause juvenile____onset diabetes (IDDM)
a. Genetic factors
b. Auto Immune disorder
c. Obesity and Carbohydrate rich diet
d. Certain viral injections (e.g. Coxsachie B4 virus, Mumps virus.)
315. Which of the following symptoms are not serious complications of diabetes
mellitus?
a. Poly dypsia, polyuria, polyphagia and loss of weight
b. Atherosclerosis of large blood vessels
c. Retinopathy, cataract and nephropathy
d. Peripheral neuritis and skin lesions.
316. Which of the following is incorrect about glycolysis?

a. A six-carbon glucose splits into two three-carbon pyruvic acid
b. There is a net gain of two ATP molecules
c. Two NADH molecules are oxidized
d. The activity of phosphor fructokinase determines the rate of the chemical reactions.
468

317. dietary glucose is not used for one of the following, if it is not needed for ATP
production
a. Vitamin synthesis b. Amino acid synthesis
c. Glycogenesis d. Lipogenesis
318. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the oxidation of glucose to
produce ATP
a. Electron transport chain, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, formation or acetyl COA
b. Krebs cycle, formation of acetyl, COA electron transport chain, glycolysis.
c. Glycolysis, electron transport chain, Krebs cycle, formation acetyl COA.
d. Glycolysis, formation of acetyl COA, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain.
319. Which of the following is a compound?

a. O2 b. H2
c. Ch4 d. Fe
320. Which of the following is a major element of our body?

a. Nitrogen b. Calcium
c. Sodium d. Sulphur
321. Which of the following subatomic particle that takes part in chemical reactions
a. Proton b.Electron
c. Neutron d. All the above.
322. Which of the following constitutes the mass number of an atom

a. Protons + electrons b. Neutrons + electrons
c. Protons + neutrons d. Protons + neutrons + electrons
323. The reaction, AB g A+B is a type of

a. Synthesis reaction b. Decomposition reaction
c. Exchange reaction d. Reversible reaction.
324. Which of the following is not the property of water?

a. It has no odor and taste
b. It is good conductor of electricity
c. Its pH is 7 (neutral)
d. It has high dielectric constant.
325. Which of the following is incorrect about water?

a. It has high cohension and adhesion force, and high surface tension
b. It has high specific heat, high heat, of vaporization and high heat of fusion
c. It has high degree of ionization.
d. Its density is maximum at 4°C.
469

326. which of the following cations is involved in impulses transmission, muscle
contraction and fluid electrolyte balance, and its level is controlled by aldosterone, ADH
and
a. Ca b. Mg
c. Na+ d. K
327. Which of the following properties of water molecules is significant for its structure
and electrical aonductivity?
a. Formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
b. Dissociation to form hydronium and OH- ions
c. Protons hopping
d. All the above.
328. The pH if human blood

a. 5.4 b. 6.4
c. 7.4 d. 8.4
329. The value of pka for weak acids is calculated by

a. pH meter
b. Henderson ---- Hasselbaich equation
c. A titration curve
d. Measuring electrical conductivity.
330. One of the following is not the property of enzymes
a. Colloidal b. Thermostable
c. Proteinaceous d. High specific.
331. All proteins contain the

a. Same 20 amino acids
b. Different amino acids
c. 300 Amino acids occurring in nature
d. Only a few amino acids.
332. Proteins contain

a. Only L- a – amino acids b. Only D- amino acids
c. DL- Amino acids d. Both (A) and (B)
333. The optically inactive amino acid is

a. Glycine b. Serine
c. THreonine d. Valine
334. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:

a. Dipolar ions
b. Non polar molecules
c. Positive and monovalent
d. Hydrophobic
470

335. The true statement about solutions of amino acids at physiological pH is
a. All amino acids contain both positive and negative charges
b. All amino acids contain positively charged side chains
c. Some amino acids contain only positive charge
d. All amino acids contain negatively charged side chains
336. pH (iso electric pH) of alanine is

a. 6.02 b. 6.6
c. 6.8 d. 7.2
337. Since the pK values for aspartic acids are 2.0, 3.9 and 10.0, it follows that the
isoelectric (pH) is
a. 3.0 b. 3.9
c. 5.9 d. 6.0
338. Sulphur containing amino acid is

a. Methionine b. Leucine
c. Valine d. Asparagine
339. An example of sulphur containing amino acid is

a. 2- Amino- 3 –mercaptopropanoic acid
b. 2-Amino- 3 –methylbutanoic acid
c. 2-Amino- 3 –hydoxypropanic acid
d. Amino acetic acid
340. All the following are sulphur containing amino acids found in proteins except
a. Cystenine b. Cystine c. Methionine d. Threonine
341. An aromatic amino acid is

a. Lysine b. Tyrosine c. Taurine d. Arginine
342. The functions of plasma albumin are

a. Osmosis b. Transport
c. Immunity d. Both (A) and (B)
343. Amino acid with side chain containing basic groups is

a. 2-Amino 5-guanidovaleric acid b. 2-Pyrrolidine carboxylic acid
c. 2-Amino 3-mercaptopropanoic acid d. 2- Amino propanoic acid
344. An example of amino acid not present in proteins but essential in mammalian
metabolism is
a. 3-Amino 5- hydroxypropanoic acid
b. 2-Amino 3-hydroxybutanoic acid
c. 2-Amino 3-mercaptobutanoic acid
d. 2-Amino 3-mercaptopropanoic acid
471

345. An essential amino acid in man is
a. Aspartate b.Tyrosine
c. Methionine d. serine
346. Non essential amino acids

a. Are not components of tissue proteins
b. May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids
c. have no role in the metabolism
d. May be synthesized in the body in diseased states
347. Which one of the following is semi essential amino acid for humans?
a. Valine b. Arginine
c. Lysine d. Tyrosine
348. An example of polar amino acid is

a. Alanine b. Leucine
c. Arginine d. Valine
349. The amino acid with a non polar side chain is

a. Serine b. Valine
c. Asparagine d. Threonine
350. A Ketogenic amino acid is

a. Valine b. Cysteine
c. Leucine d. Threonine
351. An amino acid that does not form an helix is

a. Valine b. Proline
c. Tyrosine d. Tryptophan
352. An amino acid not found in proteins is

a. Alanine b. Proline
c. Lysine d. Histidine
353. In mammalian tissues serine can be a biosynthetic precursor of

a. Methionine b. Glycine
c. Trypophan d. Phenylalanine
354. A vasodilating compound is produced by the decarboxylation of the amino acid

a. Arginine b. Aspartic acid
c. Glutamine d. Histidine
355. Biuret reaction is specific for

a. -CONH-linkages b. -CSNH2 group
c. -(NH)NH2 group d. All of these
472

356. Sakaguchi’s reaction is specific for
a. Tryroosine b. Proline
c. Arginine d. Cysteine
357. Million-Nasse’s reaction is specific for the amino acid

a.Tryptophan b.Tyrosine
c.Phenylalanine d.Arginine
358. Ninhydrin with evolution CO2 forms a blue complex with

a. Peptide bond b. Amino acids
c. Serotonin d. Histamine
359. The most of the ultraviolet absorption of proteins above 240nm is due to their
content of
a.Tryptophan b.Aspartate
c.glutamate d.Alanine
360. Which of the following is a dipeptide?

a. Anserine b. Glutathione
c. Glucagon d. Lipoprotein
361. Which of the following is a tripeptide?

a. Anserine b. Oxytocin
c. Glutathione d. Kallidin
362. A Limiting amino acid is an essential amino acid

a. That is most deficient in proteins
b. That is most excess in prteins
c. That which increases the growth
d. That ehich increases the weight gain
363. The Limiting amino acid of rice is

a.Lysine b.Tryptophan
c.Phenylalanine d.Tyrosine
364. The Limiting amino acid of fish proteins is

a. Tryptophan b. Cysteine
c. Lysine d. Tyrosine
365. Pulses are deficient in

a. Lysine b. Treonine
c. methionine d. Tryptophan
366. A trace element deficient in the milk is

a. Magnesium b. Copper
c. Zinc d. Chloride
473

367. A conjugated protein present in the egg yolk is
a. Vitellin b. Livetin
c. Albuminoids d. Ova-mucoid
368. The chief protein of cow’s milk is

a.Albumin b.Vitellin
c.Livetin d.Casein
369. A water souble vitamin deficient in egg is
a. Thiamin b. Ribofalvin
c. Ascrobic d. Cobalamine
370. Pulses are rich in

a. Lysine b. Methionine
c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
371. Milk is deficient in

a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B2
c. Sodium d. Potassium
372. When net protein utilization (NPU) is low, the requirement for proteins are
a. High b. Moderate
c. Low d. Supplementary
373. Protein content of human millk is about

a. 1.4% b. 2.4$
c. 3.4% d. 4.4%
374. Protein content of cow’s milk is about

a. 2.5% b. 3.5%
c. 4.5% d. 5.5%
375. Protein content of soyabean is about

a. 30% b. 40%
c. 50% d. 60%
376. Lipid content of egg white is

a. 12% b. 33%
c. 1 0-11% d. Taces
377. The recommended daily allowance (RNA) of proteins for an adult man is
a. 70gms b. 50gms
c. 40gms d. 30gms
378. The basic amino acid are

a. Lysine b. Bile acids c. Glycine d. Alanine
474

379. The daily caloric requirement for the normal adult female is about
a. 1500 b. 2100
c. 2500 d. 2900
380. Gamma heavy chains are present in

a. IgA b. IgG
c. IgM d. IgD
381. Heavy chains in IgD are of following type

a. Alpha b. Gamma
c. Delta d. Epsilon
382. On exposure to any antigen, the first antibody to be formed is of the following class
a.IgA b. IgG
c. IgM d. IgE
383. Constant segment genes of heavy chains are present in a cluster in which the first
gene on side is
a. Alpha b. Gamma
c. Delta d. None of these
384. Cell-mediated immunity is the function of

a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes
c. Plasma cells d. Basophils
385. The most abundant T cells are

a. Cytotoxic T cells b. Helper T cells
c. suppressor T cells d. Memory T cells
386. T cells can recognize

a. Free antigens
b. Antigens bound to cells
c. Antigens bound to antibodies
d. Antigens bound to MHC proteins
387. MHC proteins are unique to

a. Each cell b. Each organ
c. Each individual d. Each species
388. MHC class I proteins are present on the surface of

a. B cells only b. T cells only
c. Macrophages d. All cells
389. MHC class I proteins, in conjunction with antigens are recognized by

a. Cytotoxin T cells b. Helper T cells
c. Suppressor cells d. Memory T cells
475

390. Human immunodeficiency virus destroys
a. Cytotoxin T cells b. Helper T cells
c. B cells d. Plasma cells
391. In allergic diseases, the concentration of the following is increased in

plasma
a. IgA b. IgG
c. IgD d. IgE
392. IgE has a tendency to attach to

a. Basophils b. Mast cells
c. Both (A) and (B) d. none of these
393. Reaginic antibody is

a. IgA b. IgG
c. IgD d. IgE
394. Active immunity can be produced by administration of

a. Killed bacteria or viruses
b. Live attenuated bacteria or viruses
c. Toxoids
d. All of these
395. Passive immunity can be produced by administration of

a. Pure antigens
b. Immunoglobulins
c. Toxoids
d. Killed bacteria or viruses
396. Helper T cells release all the following except

a.Interleukins
b. Colony stimulating factors
c. Perforins
d. Tumor necrosis factor
397. IgG cleaved by papain into

a. Two light and two heavy chains
b. Two Fab and one Fc fragments
c. Two pairs of one light and one heavy chain each
d. One Fab and two Fc fragments
398. Bence-Jones protein is

a. An immunoglobulin b. A dimer of heavy chains
c. A dimer of light chains d. A dimer of one heavy and one light chain
476

399. Bence-Jones proteins possess all the following properties except
a. They are dimmers of light chains
b. Their amino acids sequences are identical
c. Their N-terminal halves have variable amino acid sequences
d. Their C-terminal halves have constant amino acid sequences
400. A Zwitterion is
a. Postitive ion a.Negative ion
c.Both (A) and (c) d.None of these

Bio Chemistry
401. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of energy from 25 gm of protenins
is about
a. 70 kcal b.100 kcal c. 130 kcal d.200 kcal
402. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of energy from 25 gm
Of carbohydrates is about
a. 70 kcal b. 95 kcal
c. 100 kcal d. 105 kcal
403. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of energy from 100 gm of fat is
about
a. 600 kcal b. 780 kcal
c. 900 kcal d. 1020 kcal
404. If proteins, carbohydrates and fats are consumed together

a. The total SDA is the sum of individual SDAs of proteins, carbohydrates and fats
b. The total SDA is more than the sum of individual SDAs of proteins, carbohydrates fats.
c. Carbohydrates and fats lower the SDA of proteins
d. Proteins raise the SDA of carbohydrates and fats
405. After calculating the energy requirement of a person

a. 10 % kcal are subtracted on account of SDA
b. 10 % kcal are added on account of SDA
c. 20 % kcal are subtracted on account of SDA
d. 20 % kcal are subtracted on account of SDA
406. The recommended energy intake for an adult sedentary Indian woman is
a.1, 900 kcal/day b. 2, 400 kcal/day
c. 2, 700 kcal/day d. 3, 000 kcal/day
477

407. The recommended energy intakes for an adult sedentary Indian woman is
a. 1,900 kcal/day b. 2,200 kcal/day
c .2,400 kcal/day d. 2,700 kcal/day
408. During pregnancy,the following should be added to the calaculated

energy requirement
a. 300 kcal/day b. 500 kcal/day
c. 700 kcal/day d. 900 kcal/day
409. During first six months of lactation,the following increment in energy

intake is Recommended
a. 200 kcal/day b. 300 kcal/day
c. 550 kcal/day d. 1,000 kcal/day
410. The proximate principles of diet are

a. Vitamins and minerals
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates and fats
d. Carbohydrates, fats and proyeins
411. The limiting amino acid wheat is

a. Leucine b. Lysine
c. Cysteine d. Methionine
412. Maize is poor in

a. Lysine b.Methionine
c. Tryptophan d.Lysine and tryptophan
413. The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen absorbed into blood stream

Is known as
a. Net protein utilization
b. Protein efficiency ration
c. Digestibility coefficient
d. Biological value of protein
414. Biological value of a protein is

a. The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen absorbed into circulation
b. The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen in the body
c. The percentage of ingested protein utilized for protein synthesis in the body
d. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of protein ingested
415. Net protein utilization depends upon

a. Protein efficiency ratio
b. Digestibility coefficient
c. Digestibility coefficient and protein efficiency ratio
d. Digestibility coefficient and biological value
478

416. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of protein ingested is known as
a. Net protein utilization
b. Protein efficiency ratio
c. Digestibility coefficient
d. Biological value of protein
417. The following is considered as reference standard for comparing

the nutritional quality of proteins
a. Milk proteins b. Egg proteins
c. Meat proteins d. Fish proteins
418. Biological value of egg proteins is about

a.70% b.80%
c.86% d.94%
419. The following has the highest protein efficiency ratio

a. Milk proteins b. Egg proteins
c. Meat proteins d. Fish proteins
420.The following has the lowest protein efficiency ratio

a. Maize proteins b. Wheat proteins
c. Milk proteins d. Rice proteins
421. Protein content of egg is about

a. 10% b. 13%
c. 16% d. 20%
422. Protein content of meat is about

a. 10% b. 13%
c. 16% d. 20%
423. Protein content of rice is about

A. 7% b. 12%
c. 15% d. 20%
424. The calorific value of wheat is about

a. 2.5 kcal/gm b. 3.5 kcal/gm
c. 4.5 kcal/gm d. 5.5 kcal/gm
425. For vegetarians, pulses are an important source of

a.Carbohydrates b.Proteins
c.Fat d.Iron
426. The amino acids present in pulses can supplement the limiting amino
Acids of
a.Cereals b.Milk c.Fish d.Nuts and beans
479

427. Milk is a good source of
a. Proteins, calcium and iron
b. Proteins, calcium and ascorbic acid
c. Proteins, lactose and retinol
d. Proteins, lactose and essential fatty acids
428. Milk is a good source of all of the following except

a. Essential amino acids b.Vitamin c
c. Galactose d. Calcium and phosphorous
429. Milk is poor in

a.Cholesterol b. Retinol
c.Calcium d. Iron
430. Egg is rich in all of the following except

a.Cholesterol b.Saturated fatty acids
c. Ascorbic acid d. Calcium
431. A phosphoprotein present in egg is

a. Casein b. Albumin
c. Ovoglobulin d. Ovovitellin
432. Consumption of raw eggs can cause deficiency of

a. Calcium b. Lipoic acid
c. Biotin d. Vitamin A
433.Egg is poor in
a. Essential amino acids b. Carbohydrates
c. Avidin d. Biotin
434. Cholesterol is present in all the following except

a. Milk b. Fish
c. Egg white d. Egg yolk
435. Meat is rich in all of the following except

a.Iron b.Fluorine
c.Copper d.Zinc
436. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is seversly deficient in

a. Iron b. Calories
c. Proteins d. Essential fatty acids
437. Clinical features of Kwashiorkor include all of the following except

a. Mental retardation b. Muscle wasting
c. Edema d. Anemia
480

438. Kwashiorkor usually occurs in
a. The post-weaning period b. Pregnancy
c. Lactation d. Old age
439. Marasmus occurs from deficient intake of

a. Essential amino acids b.Essential fatty acids
c.Calories d.Zinc
440. Marasmus differs from Kwashiorkor in the of these following respect

a. Mental retardation occurs in Kwashiorkor but not in marasmus
b. Growth is retareded in Kwashiorkor but not in marasmus
c. Muscle wasting occurs in marasmus but not kwashiorkor
d. Subcutaneous fat disappears in marasmus but not in kwashiorkor
441. Energy reserves of an average well-fed adult man are about

a. 50,000 kcal b. 100,000 kcal
c. 200,000 kcal d. 300,000 kcal
442. During starvation,the first reserve nutrient to be depleted is

a. Glycogen b. Proteins
c. Triglycerides d. Cholesterol
443. Synthesis of the following enzymews is increased during starvation

a. Digestive enzymes b. Gluconeogenic enzymes
c. Urea cycle enzymes d. Glucokinase
444. In hypoparathyroidism
a. Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous are low
b. .Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous are high
c. .Plasma calcium is low and inorganic phosphorous high
d. Plasma calcium ishigh and inorganic phosphorous low
445. A/G ratio is

a. Strength of proteins b. Ratio of serum proteins
c. Ratio of cerulopasmin d. None of these
446. Insulin is made up of

a. A single polypeptide chain having 51 amino acid residues
b. A single polypeptide chain having 84 amino acid residues
c. A-chain having 21 and B-china having 30 amino acid residues
d. A-chain having 30 and B-china having 21 amino acid residues
447. The number of amino acid residues in preproinsulin is

a.51 b.84
c.109 d.119
481

448. Pre-proinsulin contains a singal sequence having
a. 9 amino acid residues b. 19 amino acid residues
c. 27 amino acid residues d. 33 amino acid residues
449. The number of intra-china disulphlde bonds in pro-insulin

a.One b.Two
c.Three d.Four
450. Pentagastrin is a
a. Naturally accuring form of gastrin
b. Inactive metabolite of gastrin
c. Active metabolite of gastrin
d. Synthetic form of gastrin
451. Secretion of gastrin is evoked by

a. Entry of food in to stomach b. Cagal stimulation
c. Lower aliphatic alcohols d. All of these
452.Gastrin stimulates
a. Gastric motility b. Gastric secretion
c. Both (A) and (B) d. None of these
453. Secretin is made up of

a. 17 amino acids b.27 amino acids
c. 37 amino acids d.47 amino acids
454. Secretin causes all of the following except

a. Secretion of pancreatic juice
b. Secretion of bile
c. Inhibition of gastric secretion
d. Stimulation of intestinal motility
455. All of the following statements about pancreatic somatostain are true except
a. It is secreted by mucosa of small intestine
b. It stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
c. It stimulates contration of gall bladder
d. It inhibits gastric motility
456. All of the following statements about pancreatic somatostain are true except
a. It is secretion by mucosa of small intestine
b. It stimulates secration of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
c. It inhibits the secretion of secretin
d. It inhibits the secretion of cholecystokininpancreozymin
457. Histidine is converted in to histamine by

a. Carboxylation b. Decarboxylation c. Methylation d. Hydroxylation
482

458. Histamine is synthesized in
A. Brain b. Mast cells
c. Basophils d. All of these
459. Histamine causes all the following except

a. Stimulation of gastric secretion b.Vasoconstriction
c.Pruritus d. Increas in capillary permeability
460. H2-receptors are blocked by

a.Diphenhydramine b.Mepayramine
c.Pyrilamine d.Cimetidine
461. Haematuria can occur in all of the following except

a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Cancer of urinary tract
c. Stone in urinary tract
d. Mismatched blood transfusion
462. Chyluria can be detected by addition of the following of the urine

a. Sulphosalicylic acid b.Nitric acid
c. Acetic anhydride d.Chloroform
463. Normal range of serum urea is

a. 0.6-1.5 mg/dl b. 9-11 mg/dl
c. 20-45 mg/dl d. 60-100 mg/dl
464. Normal range of serum creatinine is

a. 0.6-1.5 mg/dl b. 9-11 mg/dl
c. 20-45 mg/dl d. 60-100 mg/dl
465. Standard urea clearance is

a. 54 ml/min b. 75 ml/min
c. 110 ml/min d. 130 ml/min
466. Maximum urea clearance is

467. Average creatinine clearance in an adult man is about

468. Inulin clearance in an average adult man is about

483

469. Among the following,a test of tubular function is
a. Creatinine clearance b. Inulin clearance
c. PAH clearance d. PSP excretion test
470. A simple way to assess tubular function is to withhold food and water for 12hours
and, then, measure
a. Serum urea b. Serum creatinine
c. Urine output in one houre d. Specific gravity of urine
471. Among the following, the most sensitive indicator of glomerular function is
a. Serum urea b. Serum creatinine
c. Urea clearance d.Creatinine clearance
472. All the following statements about inulin are correct except
a. It is completely non-toxic
b. It is completely filtered by glomeruli
c. It is not reabsorbed by fubular cells
d. It is secreted by tubular cells
473. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in blood include all of the following except
c. Creatinine d. Inositol
474. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in blood are rasied in

a. Starvation b. Liver damage
c. Renal failure d. All of these
475. Creatinine clearance is deceased in

a. Acute tubular necrosis b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Hypertension d. Myopathies
476. Serum amylase is increased in

a. Acute parotitis b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Pancreatic cancer d. All of these
477. Maximum rise in serum amylase occurs in

a. Acute parotitis b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Chronic pancreatitis d. Pancreatic cancer
478. Zymogen is
a. An intracellular enzyme b. Serum enzyme
c. A complete extracellular enzyme d. An inactivated enzyme
479. SGOT level in a adult is a

a. 5-40 units/dl b. 1-4 units/dl
c. 5-15 units/dl d. 50-100 units/dl
484

480. Activity of ceruloplasmin shown in vitro (
a. Reductase b. Hydrolase
c. Ligase d. Oxidase
481. Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to

a. Breadown of muscle proteins
b. Decreased utilization of non essential amino acids
c. Leakage of amino acids to plasma
d. Impaired renal function
482. The following 4 amino acids are required for completion of urea cycle except
a. Aspartic acid b. Arginine
c. Ornithine d. Glycine
483. Number of amino acods present in the dietary proteins

a. 22 b. 23
c. 20 d. 19
484. Urea synthesis takes place in

a. Blood b. Liver
c. Kidney d. Heart
485. All following are ketogenic amino acids except

a.Leucine b.Isoleucine
c. Pheenyl alanine d. Glycine
486. The amino acid containing an indole ring

a. Tryptohan b. Arginine
c. Threonine d. Phenylalanine
487. Essential fatty acid:

a. Linoleic acid b. Linolenic acid
c. Arachidonic acid d. All these
488. The fatty acid present in cerebrosides is

a. Lignoceric acid b. Valeric acid
c. Caprylic acid d. Behenic acid
489. The number of double bonds in arachidonic acid is

a. 1 b. 2
c. 4 d. 6
490. In humans,a dietary essential fatty acid is

a. Palmitic acid b. Stearic acid
c. Oleic acid d. Linoleic acid
485

491. A lipid containing alcoholic amine residue is
a. Phosphatidic acid b.Ganglioside
c. Glucocerebroside d. Sphingomyelin
492. Cephalin consists of

a.Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and choline
b. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and ethanolamine
c. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and inositol
d. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and serine
493. The importance of phospholipids as constituent of cell membrane is because they

possess
a. Fatty acids
b. Both polar and nonpolar groups
c. Glycerol
d. Phosphoric acid
494. In neutral fats, the unsaponificable matter includes

a. Hydrocarbons b. Triacylglycerol
c. Phospholipids d. Cholsesterol
495. Higher alcohol present in waxes is

a.Benzyl b.Methyl
c.Ethyl d.Cetyl
496. Gangliosides are complex glycosphingolipids found in

a.Liver b.Brain
c.Kidney d.Muscle
497. Unsaturated fatty acid found in the cod liver oil and containing 5 double is
a. Clupanodonic acid b. Cervonic acid
c. Elaidic acid d. Timnonic acid
498. Phospholipid acting as surfactant is

a. Cephalin b. Phosphatidyl inositol
c. Lecithin d. Phosphatidyl serine
499. An oil which contains cyclic fatty acids and once used in the treatment of leprosy is
a. Elaidic oil b. Rapeseed oil
c. Lanoline d. Chaulmoogric oil
500. Unpleasant odors and taste in a fat (rancidity) can be delayed or prevented by the
addition of
a. Lead b. Copper
c. Tocopherol d. Ergosterol
486

501. Dietary fats after absorption appear in the circulation as
a. HDL b. VLDL
c. LDL d. Chylomicron
502. Free fatty acid are transported in the blood

a. Combined with albumin
b. Combined with fatty acid binding protein
c. Combined with lipoprotein
d. In unbound free salts
503. Long china fatty acids are first activated to acetyl-CoA in

a. Cytosol b. Microsomes
c. Nucleus d. Mitochondria
504. The enzyme acyl-CoA synthase catalyses the conversion of a fatty acid in the
presence of
a. AMP b. ADP
c. ATP d. GTP
505. Carnitine is synthesized from

a. Lysine and methionine
b. Glycine and arginine
c. Aspartate and glutamate
d. Proline and hydroxyproline
506. The enzymes of oxidation are found in

a. Mitochondria b. Cytosol
c. Golgi apparatus d. Nucleus
507. Long china fatty acids penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrance
a. Freely b. As acyl-CoA derivative
c. As carnitine derivative d. Requiring Na dependent carrier
508. An important feature of Zellweger’s syndrome is

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Accumulation of phytanic acid in tissues
c. Skin eruptions
d. Accumulation of C26-C38 polyenoic acid in brain tissues
509. Neonatal tyrosinemia improves on administration of

a.Thiamin b.Riboflavin
c.Pyridoxine d.Ascorbic acid
510. Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase causes

a. Neonata tyrosinemia b. Phenylketonuria
c. Primary hyperoxaluria d. Albinism
487

511. Richner-Hanhart syndromes is due to defect in
a.Tyrosinase
b. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c. Hepatic tyrosine transaminase
d. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
512. Plasma tyrosine level in Richner-Hanhart syndrome is

a. 1-2 mg/dL b. 2-3 mg/dL
c. 4-5 mg/dL d. 8-10 mg/dL
513. Amount of phenylacetic acid excreted in the urine in phenylketonuria is

a. 100-200 mg/dL b. 200-280 mg/dL
c. 290-550 mg/dL d. 600-750 mg/dL
514. Tyrosinosis is due to defect in the enzyme:

a. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
b. p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvate hydroxylase
c. Tyrosine transaminase
d. Tyrosine hydroxylase
515. An important finding Histidinemia is

a. Impairment of conversion of –Glutamate to-ketoglutarate
b. Speech defect
c. Decreased urinary histidine level
d. Patients cannot be treated by diet
516. An important finding in glycinuria is

a. Excess excretion of oxalate in the urine
b. Deficiency of enzyme glycinase
c. Significantly increased serum glycine level
d. Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine
517. Phrynoderma is a deficiency of

a. Essential fatty acids
b. Proteins
c. Amino acids
d. None of these
518. The percentage of linoleic acid in sunflower oil is

a.73 b.57
c.40 d.15
519. The percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids in soyabean oil is

a.62 b.10
c.3 d.2
488

520. The percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids in butter is
a.60 b.37
c.25 d.3
521. The deficiency of both energy and protein causes

a. Marasmus b.Kwashiorkar
c. Diabetes c.Beriberi
522. Kwashiorkar is characterized by

a. Night Blindness b. Edema
c. Easy factorability d. Xerophthalmia
523. A characteristic feature of Kwashiorkar is

a. Fatty liver
b.Emaciation
c. Low insulin lever
d. Occurrence in less than 1 year infant
524. A characteristic feature of marasmus is

a. Severe hypoalbuminemia
b. Normal epinephrine level
c. Mild muscle wasting
d. Low insulin and high cortisol level
525. Obestity grnerally reflects excess intake of energy and is often associated with the
development of
a.Nervousness
b. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
c.Hepatitis
d. Colon cancer
526. Atherosclerosis and coronary heart diseases are associated with the diet:
a. High in total fat and saturated fat b. Low in protein
c. High in protein d. High in carbohydrate
527. Cerebrovascular disease and hypertension is associated with

a. High calcium intake b. High salt intake
c. Low calcium intake d. Low salt intake
528. The normal range of total serum bilirubin is

a. 0.2-1.2 mg/100 ml b.1.5-1.8 mg/100 ml
c. 2.0-4.0 mg/100 ml d. Above 7.0 mg/100 ml
529. The normal range of direct reacting (conjugated) serum bilirubin is

a. 0-0.1 mg/100 ml b. 0.1-0.4 mg/100 ml
c. 0.4-0.6 mg/ml d. 0.5-1 mg/100 ml
489

530. The normal range of indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin in serum is
a. 0-0.1 mg/100 ml b.0.1-0.2 mg/100 ml
c. 0.2-0.7 mg/100 ml d.0.8-1.0 mg/100 ml
531. Jaundice is visible when serum bilirubin exceeds
a. 0.5 mg/100 ml b.0.8 mg/100 ml
c. 1 mg/100 ml d.2.4 mg/100 ml
532. An increase in serum unconjugated bilirubin occurs in

a. Hemolytic jaundice b.Obstructive jaundice
c.Nephritis d.Glomerulonephritis
533. One of the causes of hemolytic jaundice is

a. G-6 phosphatase deficiency
b. Increased conjugated bilirubin
c. Glucokinase deficiency
d. Phosphoglucomutase deficiency
534. Increased urobilinogen in urine and absence of bilirubine in the urine suggests
a. Obstructive jaundice b.Hemolytic jaundice
c. Viral hepatitis d.Toxic jaundice
535. A jaundice in which serum alanine transaminase and alkaline phosphatase are
normal is
a. Hepatic jaundice
b. Hemolytic jaundice
c. Parenchymatous jaundice
d. Obstructive jaundice
536. Fecal stercobilinogen is increased in

a. Hemolytic jaundice b.Hempatic jaundice
c. Viral hepatitis d.Obstructive jaundice
537. Fecal urobilinogen is increased in

a. Hemolytic jaundice b. Obstrution of biliary duct
c. Extrahepatic gall stones d. Enlarged lymph nodes
538. A mixture of conjugated and un conjugated bilirubin is found in the circulation in

a. Hemolytic jaundice b. Hepatic jaundice
c. Obstructive jaundice d.Post hepatic jaundice
539. Hepatocellular jaundice as compared to pure obstructive type of jaundice is

characterized by
a. Increased serum alkaline phosphate, LDH and ALT
b. Decreased serum alkaline phosphateas, LDH and ALT
c. Increased serum alkaline phosphateas and decreased level of LDH and ALT
d. Decreased serum alkaline phosphateas and increased serum LDH and ALT
490

540. Icteric index of an normal adult varies between
a. 1-2 b.2-4
c. 4-6 d.10-15
541. Clinical jaundice is present with an icteric index above

a.4 b.8
c.10 d.15
542. Normal quantity of urobilinogen excreted in the feces per day is about
a. 10-25 mg b.50-250 mg
c. 300-500 mg d.700-800 mg
543. Fecal urobilinogen is decreased in

a. Obstruction of biliary duct
c. Excess fat intake
d. Low fat intake
544. A complete absence of fecal urobilinogen is strongly suggestive of

a. Obstruction of bile duct
c. Intrahepatic cholestasis
d. Malignant obstructive
545. Immediate direct Vanden Bergh reaction indicates

a. Hemolytic jaundice b.Hepatic jaundice
c. Obstructive jaundice d.Megalobastic anemia
546. The presence of bilirubine in the urine without urobilinogen suggests

a. Obstructive jaundice b. Hemolytic jaundice
c. Pernicious anemia d.Damage to the hepatic parenchyma
547. Impaired galactose tolerance test suggests

a. Defect in glucose utilization
b. Liver cell injury
c. Renal defect
d. Muscle injury
548. Increased serum ornithine carabamoyl transferase activity is diagnostic of

a.Myocardial infarction b. Hemolytic jaundice
c. Bone disease d. Acute viral hepatitis
549. The best knoen and most frequently used test of the detoxicating functions of liver
is
a. Hippuric acid test b. Galactose tolerance test
c. Epinephrine tolerance test d. Rose Bengal dye test
491

550.The ability of liver to remove a dye like BSP from the blood suggests a normal
a. Excretory function b.Detoxification function
c. Metabolic function d.Circulatory unction
551. Removal of BSP dye by the liver involves conjugation with

a.Thiosulhate
b.Glutamine
c. Cystein component of glutathione
d. UDP glucuronate
552. Normal value of plasm total proteins varies between

a. 3-4 gm/100ml b.6-8 gm/100ml
c. 10-12 gm/100ml d.14-16 gm/100ml
553. A decrease in albumin with increased proteins which migrate in region suggests
a. Cirrhosis of liver b.Nephrotic syndrome
c.Infection d.Chronic lymphatic leukemia
554. In increase in-2-Glubulin with loss of albumin in urine suggests

a. Primary immune deficiency b. Nephritic syndrome
c. Cirrhosis of liver d. Multiple myeloma
555. The normal levels of Prothorombin time is about

a. 2 sec b.4 sec
c. 14 sec d.10-16 sec
556. In obstructive jaundice Prothorombin time

a. Remains normal
b.Decreases
c. Responds to vit K and becomes normal
d. Responds to vit K and increases
557. In parenchymatous liver disease the Prothorombin time

a. Remains normal b. Increases
c. Decreases d. Responds to vit K
558. Urea clearance test is used to determine the

a. Glomerular filtration rate
b. Renal plasm flow
c. Ability of kidney to concentrate the urine
d. Measurement of tubular mass
559. Average maximum urea clearance is

a. 30 ml b.50 ml
c. 75 ml d.90 ml
492

560. The average normal value for standard urea clearance is
a. 20 ml b.30 ml c. 40 ml d.54 ml
561. Urea clearance is lowered in

a. Acute nephritis
b.Pneumonia
c. Early stage of nephritic syndrome
d. Benign hypertension
562. Glomerular filtration rate can be measured by

a. Endgenous creatinine clearance
b. Para-aminohippurate test
c. Addis test
d. Mosenthal test
563. At normal levels of creatinine in the blood , this metabolite is

a. Filtered at the glomerulus but not secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubule
b. Secreted by the tubule
c. Reabsorbed by the tubule
d. Secreted and reabsorbed by tubule
564. The normal values for creatinine clearance varies from

a. 20-40ml/min b. 40-60 ml/min
c. 70-85ml/min d. 95-105ml/min
565. Measurement of insulin clearance test is a measure of a

a. Glomerular filtration rate
b. Filtration factor
c. Renal plasma flow
d. Tubular secretory mass
566. The Polysaccharide insulin is

a. Filtered at the glomerulus but neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubule
b. Filtered at the glomerulus and secreted by the tubule
c. Filtered at the glomerulus and reabsorbed by the tubule
d. Filtered at the glomerulus and secreted and reabsorbed by the tubule
567. Normal insulin clearance is

a. 40 ml/1.73 sqm b.60 ml/1.73 sqm
c. 80 ml/1.73 sqm d. 120 ml/1.73 sqm
568. Creatinine EDTA clearance is a test to measure

a. Renal plasma flow
b. Filtration fraction
c. Glomerular filtration rate
d. Tubular function
493

569. The end products of saponification
a. Glycerol b. Acid
c. Soap d. Both (a) and (c)
570. The normal PAH clearance for a surface area of 1.73 sqm is
571. Triglycerides are

a. Heavier than water
b. Major constituents of membranes
c. Non-polar
d.Hydrophilic
572. Cerebronic acid is present in

a. Glycerophospholipids b. pingophospholipids
c. Cerebroside d. Sulphatide
573. Acysphingosine is also known as

a.Sphingomyelin b.Ceramide
c.Cerebroside d.Sulpatide
574. The highest phospholipids content is fouynd in

a.Chylomicrons b.VLDL c.LDL d.HDL
575. The major lipid in chylomcrons is

a.triglycerides b.Phospholipids c.Cholesterol d.Free fatty acid
576. Number of carbon atoms in cholesterol is

a.17 b.19 c.27
577. Fatty liver may br caused by

a. Deficency of methionine b. Puromycin
c. Chronic alcoholism d. All of these
578. Alcohol dehydrogenase converts etanol into

a.AcetylCoA b.Acetaldehyde
c.Acetate d.CO2 and H20
579. Lipids are stored in the body mainly in the form of

a.Phospholipids b.Glycolipids
c.Triglycerides d.Fatty acids
580. Lipid stores are mainly presents in

a. Liver b. Brain
c. Muscles d. Adipose tissue
494

581. Glycerol is converted into glycerol-3-phosphate by
a. Thiokinase b. Triokinase
c. Glycerol kinase d. All of these
582. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3 phosphate required for the synthesis of triglycerides
comes mainly from
a. Hydrolysis of pre-exsting triglycerides
b. Hydrolysis of phospholipids
c. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed in glycolysis
d. Free glycerol
583. Glycerol realeased from adipose tissue by hydrolysis of triglycerides is mainly

a. Taken up by liver
b. Taken up by extrahepatic tissues
c. Reutilised in adipose tissue
d. Excreted from the body
584. Genetic deficiency of lipoprotein lipase causes hyperlipoproteinaemia of following

type
a. Type l b. Type lla
c. Type llb d. Type V
585. Chylomicrons are present in fasting blood samples in hyperlipoproteinaemia of

following type
a. Type l and lla b.Type lla and llb
c. Type l and V d.Type lV and V
586. Glutathione is constituent of

a. Leukotriene A4 b. Thromboxane A1
c. Leukotriene C4 d. None of these
587. Prostaglandins are inactivated by

a. 15-Hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase
b. Cyclo-oxygenase
c. Lipo-oxygenase
d. None of these
588. Phenylbutazone and indomethacin inhibit

a. Phospholipase A1 b. Phopholipase A2
c. Cyclo-oxygenase d. Lipo-oxygenase
589. Prostaglandins stimulate

a. Aggregation of platelets
b. Lipolysis in adipose tissue
c. Bronchodilation
d. Gastric acid secretion
495

590. For extra mitochondrial fatty acid synthesis, acetyl CoA may be obtained from
a. Citrate b. Isocitrate
c. Oxalocetate d. Succinate
591. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhabit

a. Phospholipase A1 b. Phospholipase A2
c. Cyclo-oxygenase d. Lipo-oxygenase
592. Cyclo-oxygenase is involved in the synthesis of

a. Prostaglandins b. Thromboxanes
593. Leukotrienes cause

a. Increase in capillary permeability b. Aggregation of platelets
c. Bronchodilatation d. None of these
594. Prstaglandins decrease all of the following except

a. Gastric acid secretion b. Blood pressure
c. Uterine contraction d. Platelet aggregation
595. Hypocholesterolamia can occour in

a. Hyperthyroidism b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Obstructive jaundice d. Diabetes mellitus
596. Galactosidease is deficient in

a.Fabry’s disease b.Krabbe’s disease
c.Gaucher’s disease d.Metachromatic leukodystrophy
597. The enzyme deficient in metachromatic leukodystrophy

a. Arylsulphatase A b. Hexosaminidasse A
c. Ceramidase d. Sphingomyelinase
598. All of the following statement about generalized gangliosidosis are true except
a. It results from deficiency of GM1-Gangliosidase
b. Breakdown of GM1 ganglioside is impaired
c. GM2 ganglioside accumulates in liver and elsewhere
d. It leads to mental retardation
599. Hexosaminidase A is deficient in

a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Gaucher’s disease
c. Niemann-pick disease d. All the above
600. Mental retardation occours in

a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Gaucher’s disease
c. Niemann-pick disease d. All the above
496

Bio Chemistry
601. The Enzyme deficient in Fabry’s disease is
a.Galactosidase b. Galactosidase
c. Glucosidase d. Glucosidase
602. Highest protein content amongst the following is present in

a.Wheat b.Rice
c.Pulses d.Soyabean
603. Daily protein requirement of an adult man is

a. 0.5 gm/kg of body weight
b. 0.8 gm/kg of body weight
c. 1.0 gm/kg of body weight
d. 1.5 gm/kg of body weight
604. Daily protein requirement of an adult woman is

a. 0.5 gm/kg of body weight
b. 0.8 gm/kg of body weight
c. 1.0 gm/kg of body weight
d. 1.5 gm/kg of body weight
605. Cysteine can partially meet the requirement of

a.Phnylalnine b.Threonine
c.Methionine d.None of these
606. Invisible fat is present in

a. Milk b. Coconut oil
c. Groundnut oil d. Hydrogenated oils
607. Visible fat is present in

a.Milk b.Pulses
c. Coconut oil d.Egg yolk
608. Fat content of egg is about

a. 7% b.10%
c.13% d.16%
609. Fat content of pulses is about

a. 5% b.10%
c.15% d.20%
610. Predominant fatty acids in meat are

a.Saturated b.Monounsaturated
c.Polyunsaturated d.Mono and poky-unsaturated
497

611. Which of the following has the highest cholesterol content?
a. Egg yolk b. egg white
c. Meat d. Fish
612. The following contains the least cholesterol

a.Milk b.Meat
c.Butter d.Cheese
613. Which of the following constitutes fibre or roughage in food?

a. Cellulose b.Pectin
c.Inculin d.All of these
614. The starch content of wheat is about

a. 50% b.60%
c.70% d.80%
615. The starch content of pulses is about

a. 50% b. 60%
c. 70% d. 80%
616. A Significant source of starch among vegetables is

a. Radish b.Spinach
c. Potato d.Cauliflower
617. The cyclic ring present in all the steroids

a. Cyclopentano perhydrophenanthrene
b. Nitropentano
c. Both (A) and (B0
d. None of these
618. Bile pigments are present and urobilinogen absent in urine in

a. Hemolytic jaundice b. Hepatocellular jaundice
c. obstructive jaundice d. Crigler-NAjjar syndrome
619. Bile pigments are absent and urobilinogen increased in urine in

a. Haemolytic jaundice
b. Hepatocellular jaundice
c. Rotor’s syndrome
620. In obstructive jaundice, urine showns

a. Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
b. Present of bile pigments and urobilinogen
c. Absence of bile pigments and present of urobilinogen
d. Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen
498

621. In haemolytic jaundice, urine shows
a. Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
b. Present of bile pigments and urobilinogen
c. Absence of bile pigments and present of urobilinogen
d. Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen
622. Serum albumin may be decreased in

a. Haemolytic jaundice b. Hepatocellular jaundice
c. Obstrucive jaundice d. All of these
623. Normal range of serum albumin is

a. 2.0-3.6 hm/dl b. 2.0-3.6 mg/dl
c. 3.5-5.5 gm/dl d. 3.5-5.5 mg/dl
624. Normal range of serum globulin is

a. 2.0-3.6 hm/dl b.2.0-3.6 mg/dl
c. 3.5-5.5 gm/dl d.3.5-5.5 mg/dl
6.25. Serun albumin: globulin ratio is altered in

a. Gilbert’s disease b. Haemolytic jaundice
c. Viral hepatitis d. Stones in bile duct
626. Esterification of cholesterol occours mainly in

a. Adipose tissue b. Liver
c. Muscles d. Kidney
627. Galactose intolerance can occour in

a. Haemolytic jaundice b. Hepatocellular jaundice
c. Obstructive jaundice d. None of these
628. Pothrombin is synthesized in

a. Erythrocytes
b. Reticulo-endothelial cells
c. Liver
d. Kidneys
629. Prothrombin time remains prolonged even after parenterals administration of

vitamin K in
a. Haemolytic jaundice b. Liver damage
c. Billary obstruction d. Steatorrhoea
630. All the following statements about obstructive jaundice are true except
a. Conjugated billirubin in serum is normal
b. Total billirubin in serum is raised
c. Bile salts are present in urine
d. Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised
499

631. Normal fat content of liver is about _________gms %
a.5 b.8
c.10 d.15
632. Obesity is accumulation of ______________ in the body

a. Water b. NaCl
c. Fat d. Proteins
633. The first lipoprotein to be secreted by the liver is

a. VLDL b. Nascent VLDL
c. LDL d. IDL
634. This lipoprotein removes cholesterol from the body

a. HDL b. VLDL
c. IDL d. Chylomicrons
635. When the stired triacylglycerol is lipolysed in the adipose tissue blood levels
of_________ increased
a. FFA only
b. Glycerol only
c. Free fatty acids (FFA) and Glycerol
d. Triacyl glycerol
636. All long chain fatty acids with even number of carbon atoms are oxidized to pool
of_______________________ by-Oxidation
a. CO2 b. Propionic acid
c. Acetic acid d. Acetyl CoA
367. The level of free fatty acid in plasma is increased by

a.Insulin b.Caffeine
c.Glucose d.Niacin
638. Cholesterol is excreted as such into _______________

a.Urine b.Faeces c.Ble d.Tears
639. Brown adipose tissue is characterized by which of the following ?

a. Present in large quantities in adult humans
b. Mitochondrial content higher then white adipose tissue
c. Oxidation and phosphorylation are tightly coupled
d. Absent in hibernating animals
640. Ketosis in partly ascribed to

a. Over production and glucose
b. Under production of glucose
c. Increased carbohydrate utilization
d. Increased fat utilization
500

641. The free fatty acids in blood are
a. Stored in fat depots
b. Mainly bound to lipoproteins
c. Mainly bound to serum albumin
d. Metabolically most inactive
642. Carnitine is synthesized from

a. Lysine b.Serine
c.Choline d.Arginine
643. Milk sugar is known as

a.Fructose b.Glucose
c.Sucrose d.Lactose
644. The instrinisic Factor (HCI and mucoproteins) present in the gastric juice help in the
absorption of
a. Vitamin B2 b. Tocopherols
c. Folic acid d. Vitamin B12
645. Lipase can act only at pH

a. 2.5-4 b. 3.5-5
c. 4 -5 d. 5-7
646. Bile is produced by

a. Liver b.Gall-bladder
c. Pancreas d.Intestine
647. Non-protein part of rhdopsin is

a. Retinal b. Retinol
c. Carotene d. Repsin
648. A Pathway that requires NADPH as a cofactor is a

a. Extramitochondrial folic acid synthesis
b. Ketone body formation
c.Glycogenesis
d.Gluconeogenesis
649. LCAT activity is associated with which of the lipo-protein complex?

a.VLDL b.Chylomicrones
c.LDL d.HDL
650. In oxidation of fatty acids which of the following areutilized as co-enzymes?

a.NAD+and NADP+
b.FAD H2 and NADH + H+
c. FAD and FMN
d. FAD and NAD+
501

651. The lipoprotein with the fastest electrophoretic mobility and lowest TG conent are
a.VLDL b.LDL
c.HDL d.Chylomicrones
652. The essential fatty acid retard

a.Atherosclerosis b.Diabetes mellitus
c.Nephritis d.Edema
653. The majourity of absorbed fat appears in the form of

a.HDL b.Chylomicron
c.VLDL d.LDL
654. Daily output of urea in grams is

a. 10 to 20 b.15 to 25
c. 20 to 30 d. 35 to 45
655. Uremia occours in

a. Cirrhosis of liver b.Nephritis
c. Diabetes mellitus d.Coronary thrombosis
656. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed by

a. CO b.CO2
c. HC03 d.HCN
657. Methemoglobin is formed as a result of the oxidation of hemoglobin by oxidation

agent:
a. Oxygen of Air b.H2O@

c.K4Fe (CN) 6 d.KmnO4
658. Methemoglobin can be reduced to hemoglobin by

a. Removal of hydrogen b.Vitamin C
c.Glutathione d.Creatinine
659. Fats are solids at

a. 108˚C b. 20˚C
c.30˚C d.40˚C
660. All of the following substance have been used to estimate GFR except
a. Inulin b. Creatinine c. Phenol red d. Mannitol
661. Urine specific gravity of 1.054 indicates

a. Excellent renal function
b. Inappropriate secretion of ADH
c. Extreme dehydration
d. Presence of glucose or protein
502

662. In hemolytic jaundice, the urinary bilirubin is
a. Normal
b. Absent
c. More than normal
d. Small amount is present
663. In obstructive jaundice, urinary bilirubin is

a.Absent b.Increased
c.Presnt d. Present in small amount
664. In hemolytic jaundice, bilirubin in urine is

a. Usually absent b.Usually present
c. Increased very much d.Very low
665. The pH of gastric juice of infants is

a. 2.0 b. 4.0
c. 4.5 d. 5.0
666. The pH of blood is about 7.4 when the ratio between (NaHCO3) and (H2CO3) is
a. 10:1 b.20:1
c. 25:1 d. 30:1
667. The absorption of glucose is decreased by the deficiency of

a. Vitamin A b.Vitamin D
c. Thiamibne d.Vitamin B12
668. Which of the following are not essential fatty acids?

a. Oleic acid b.Linoleic acid
c. Arachidonic acid d.Linolenic acid
669. The caloric value of lipids is

a. 6.0 Kcal/g b. 9.0 Kcal/g
c. 15.0 Kcal/g d. 12.0 Kcal/g
670. The maximum number of double bonds present in essential fatty acid is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
671. Prostaglandin synthesis is increased by activating phospholipases by
a. Mepacrine b. Angiotensin II
c.Glucocorticoids d.Indomenthacin
672. Selwanof’s test is positive in

a. Glucose b.Fructose c.Galactose d.Mannose
673. Vitamins are

a. Accessory food factors b. Generally synthesized in the body
c. Produced in endocrine glands d. Proteins in nature
503

674. Vitamin A or retinal is a
a. Steroid
b. Polyisoprenoid compound containing a cyclohexenyl ring
c. Benzoquinone derivative
d. 6-Hydroxchromane
675. b Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is oxidatively cleaved by

a. b-Carotene, dioxygenase b.Oxygenase
c.hydroxylase d.Transferase
676. Retianal is reduced to retinol in intestinal mucosa by a specific retinaldehyde

Reductase utilizing
a. NADPH +H + b.FAD
c. NAD d. NADH +H+
677. Fat soluble vitamins are

a. Soluble in alcohol b. One or more Propene units
c. Stored in liver d. All these
678. The international unit of vitamin A is equivalent o the activity caused by

a. 0.3 ỉg of Vitamin A alcohol
b. 0.344 ỉg of Vitamin A alcohol
c. 0.6 ỉg of Vitamin A alcohol
d. 1.0 ỉg of Vitamin A alcohol
679. The normal serum concentration of vitamin A in mg? 100 ml is

a. 5-10 b. 15-60
c. 100-150 d. 0-5
680. One Manifestation of vitamin A deficeiency is

a. panifull joints b. Night Blindness
c. Loss of hair d. Thickening of long bones
681. Deficency of vitamin A causes

a. Xeropthalmia
b. Hypoprothrombinemia
c. Megaloblastic anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
682. An Important fuction of vitamin A is

a. To act as coenzyme for a few enzymes
b. To play an integral role in protein synthesis
c. To prevent hemorrhages
d. To maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue
504

684. Retinal is component of
a. Lodopsin b. Rhodopsin
c. Cardiolipin d. Glycoproteins
683. Vitamin D absorption is increased in

a. Acid pH of Intestine
b. Alkaline pH of intestine
c. Impaired fat absorption
d. Contents of diet
684. The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is

a. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
b. 1, 25-Dihdroxycholecaciferol
c. 24, 25- Dihdroxycholecaciferol
d. 7- Dihdroxycholecaciferol
685. Vitamin K is found in

a. Green leafy plants b. Meat
c. Fish d. Milk
686. Function of Vitamin A:

a. Healing epithelial tissues
b. Protein synthesis regulation
c. Ccell growth
d. All these
687. Vitamin K2 was originally isolated from

a. Soyabean b. Wheat gram
c. Alfa Alfa d. Putrid fish meal
688. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in the intestine is

a. A b. C
c. D d. K
689. Vitamin K is involved in posttranslational modification of the blood clotting factor by

acting as cofactor for the enzyme:
a. Carboxylase b. Decarboxylase
c. Hydroxylase d. Oxidase
690. Vitamin K is a Cofactor for

a. Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid residue b. a –Oxidation of fatty acid
c. Formation of a –amino butyrate d. Synthesis of tryptophan
691. Hypervitaminosis K in neonates may cause

a. Porphyria b. Jaundice
c. Pellagra d. Prolonged bleeding
505

692. Vitamin requires in conversion of folic acid to folinic acid is
A. Biotin b. Cobalamine
c. Ascorbic acid d. Niacin
693. Ascorbic acid can reduce

a. 2, 6-Dibromobenzene
b. 2, 6-Diiodoxypyridine
c. 2, 6-Dichlorophenol indophenols
d. 2, 4-Dinitrobenzene
694. Sterilized milk lacks in

a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C d. Thiamine
695. Scurvy is caused due to the deficienct of

c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin C
696. Riboflavin deficiency causes

a. Cheilosis b. Loss of weight
c. Mental deterioration d. Dermatitis
697. Megenta tongue is found in the deficiency of the vitamin

a. Riboflavin b. Thiamin
c. Nicotinic acid d. Pyridoxine
698. Corneal vascularisation is found in deficiency of the vitamin:

a. B1 b. B2
c. B3 d. B6
699. The Pellagra preventivr factor is

a. Riboflavin b. Panthothenic acid
c. Niacin d. Pyridoxine
700. Burning foot syndrome has been ascribed to the deficiency of

a. Pantothenic acid b. Thiamin
c. Cobalamin d. Pyridoxine
701. Pyridoxal phosphate is central to

a. Deamination b. Amidation
c. Carboxylation d. Transamination
702. The Vitamin required as coenzymes for the action of transaminases is

a. Niacin b. Pantothenic acid
c. Pyridoxal d. Riboflavin
506

703. Vitamin B6 deficiency may occour during therapy with
a. Isoniazid b. Terramycin
c. Sulpha drugs d. Asprin
704. Deficiency of vitamin B6 may occour in

a. Obese person b.T hiamin
c. Alcoholics d. Diabetics
705. Xanthurenic acid index is a reliable criterion for the deficiency of the vitamin
a. Pyridoxal b.Thin person
c. Pantothenic acid d.Cobalamine
706. Epileptiform convulsion in human infants have been attributed to the deficiency of
the vitamin
a. B1 b. B2
c. B6 d. B12
707. Biotin is a coenzyme of the

a. Carboxylase b. Hydroxylase
c. Decarboxylase d. Deaminase
708. A vdeficency of vitamin B12 causes

a. Beri-Beri b. Scurvy
c. Pernicius anemia d. Ricket
709. Vitamin B12 deficiency can be diagnosed by urinary excretion of

a. Pyruvate b. Methylmalonate
c. Malate d. Lactate
710. Subacte combined degeneration of cord is caused due to deficiency of

a. Niacine b. Cobalamine
c. Biotin d. Thiamine
711. Thiamin deficiency includes

a. Mental sepression b. Fatigue c. Beriberi d. All of these
712. Thiamin dephosphate is required for oxidative decarboxylation of

a. α –Keto acids b. α –Amino acids c. Fatty acids d. All of these
713. Loss ofthiamin can be decreased by using

a. Unpolished rice b. Parboiled rice
c. Whole wheat flour d. All of these
714. Daily requirement of thiamin is

a. 0.1 mg/1,000 Calories b. 0.5 mg/1,000 Calories
c. 08 mg/1,000 Calories d. 1.0 mg/1,000 Calories
507

715. Thiamin requirement is greater in
a. Non-Vegetarians b. Alcoholics
c. Pregnant women d. Both B and C
716. People consuming polished rice as their staplr foodare prone to

a. Beri beri b. Pellagra
717. Roboflavin is heat stable in

a. Acitic medium b. Alkaline medium
c. Netural medium d. Both (A) and (C)
718. Niacin contains a

a. Sulphydryl group b. Carboxyl group
c. Amide group d. All of these
719. NADP is required as a coenzyme in

a. Glycolysis b. Citric acid cycle
c. HMP shut d. Gluconeogenesis
720. NAD is required as a coenzyme for

a.Malate dehydrogenase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. HMG CoA reductae
721. NAD is required as a conenzyme in

a. Citric acid cycle
b. HMP shunt
c. β-Oxidation of fatty acids
d. Both (A) and (C)
722. Niacin can be synthesized in human beings from

a. Histidine b. Phenylalanine
c. Tyrosine d. Tryptophan
723. Daily requiremnent of niacin is

a. 5 mg b. 10 mg c. 20 mg d. 30 mg
724. Niacin deficiency is common in people whose staple food is

a. Wheat B. Polished Rice
c. Maize and /or sorghum d. None of these
725. In Pellagra, dermatitis usually affects

a. Exposed part of body b. Covered parts of body
c. Trunk Only d. All part of the body
508

726. Niacin deficiency can occour in
a. Hartnup disease B. Phenylketonuria
C. Alkaptonuria d. None of these
727. Panthothenic acid contains an amino acid which is

a. Aspartic acid b. Glutamic acid
c. β-Alanine d. β Aminoisobutyric acid
728. Vitamin B12 is

a. Not stored in the body b. Stored in bone marrow
c. Stored in liver d. Stored in RE cells
729. Vitamin B12 is transported in blood by

a. Alumin b. Transcortin
c. Transcobalamin I d. Transcbalamin II
730. Vitamin B12 is synthesized by

a. Bacteria only b. Plants only
c. Animals only d. Both (A) and (C)
731. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occour because of

a. Decrease intake of vitamin B12
b. Atrophy of gastric mucosa
c. Intestinal malasorption
d. All of these
732. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can be diagnosed by

a. Carr-Price reaction b. Ames assay
c. Watson-Schwartz d. Schilling test
733. Gastrectomy leads to megaloblastic anemia within a few

a. Days b. Weeks
c. Months d. Years
734. Ascorbic acid is required to synthesizw all of the following expert

a. Collagen b. Bile acids
c. Bile pigments d. Epinephrine
735. Vitamin C enhances the intestinal absorption of

a. Potassium b. Iodine
c. Iron d. None of these
736. Vitamin C activity is present in

a. D-Ascorbic acid b. D-Dehydroascorbic acid
c. L-Ascorbic acid d. Both (A) and (B)
509

737. Vitamin E Stored in
a. Mitochondria b.Microsomes
c. Both (A) (B) d.None of these
738. Vitamin E protects the polyunsaturated fatty acids from oxidation by molecular
oxygen in the formation of
A.Superoxide b.peroxide
c.Trioxide d.All of these
739. The tocopherols prevents the oxidation of

a. Vitamin A b.Vitamin D
c. Vitamin K d.Vitamin C
740. Vitamin E protects enzymes from destruction in

a. Muscles b.Nerves
c. Gonads d.All the these
741. Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factors:

a.VII b.IX
c. X d.All of these
742. Ascorbic acid can reduce

a. 2, 4-dinitro benzene
b. 2, 6-Dichlorophenol Indophenol
c. 2, 4-debromobenzene
d. 2, 6-dibromo benzene
743. A deficiency of folate leads to

a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Hypochromic microcytic anemia
744. A deficiency of iron leads to

b. Aplastic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Hypochromic microcytic anemia
745. Corninoid coenzymes are coenzymes of

c. Vitamin B2 d. VitaminB1
746. Symptoms of pellagra are

a. Dermatitis and diarrhea only b. Dermatitis and dementia only
c. Diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia d. Diarrhea and elements only
510

747. Pyridoxine deficiency leads to
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Hypochromic microcytic anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
748. The significant ocular lesion in arboflovinosis:

a. Keratomalacia
b. Bitot’s spots
c. Vascularisation of the cornea
d. lacrymal metaplasia
749. Irradiation of foods raises the contest of

c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K
750. An anti-vitamin for folic acid is a

a. Amethoptesin b. Dicoumarol
c. Pyrithoamine d. Isoniazid
751. Thyamine is
a. Water soluble vitamin b. Fat soluble vitamin
c. Purine base d. Pyrimidine base
752. Human most easily tolerate a lack of which of the following nutrients?
a. Protein b. lodine
c. Carbohydrate d. Lipid
753. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes

a. Cheliosis b. Beriberi
c. Pernicious anemia d. Scurvy
754. In adults a sever deficiency of vitamin Dcauses

a. Night Blindness b. Osteomalacia
c. Rickets d. Skin cancer
755. Which of the following vitamins would most likely become deficient in a person who
develops completely carnivorous life style?
a.Thiamine b.Niacin
c.Cobalamine d.Vitamin C
756. Which of the following statement regarding Vitamin A is true?

a. It is not an essential Vitamin
b. It is related to tocopherol
c. It is component of rhodopsin
d. It is also known as Opsin
511

757. Fully activated pyruvate carboxylase depends upon the presense of
a. Malate and Niacin
b. Acetyl CoA and biotin
c. Acetyl CoA and thiamine pyrophosphate
d. Oxalacetate and biotin
758. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of coenzyme

Involved in
a. Acetylation b. Decarboxylation
c. Dehydrogenation d. Oxidation
759. A deficeiency of folate leads to

b. Aplastic anemia
c. Pernicious amenia
d. Hypochromic microcytic amenia
760. Deficiency of Iron leads to

b. Aplastic anemia
c. Pernicious amenia
d. Hypochromic microcytic amenia
761. Corrinoid coenzymes are coenzymes of

c. Vitamin B2 d. Vitamin B1
762. Vitamin B12 initially binds to proteins known as

a. Transcobalamin I b. R-proteins
c. Transcobalamin II d. Intrinsic factor of castle
763. Extrinsic factor of castle is

a. Vitamin B12 b. Glycoprotein
c. R-proteins d. Sigma protein
764. Instrinsic factor of castle is

a. Vitamin B12 b. Glycoprotein
c. R-proteins d. Sigma protein
765. Pernicious means

a. Prolonged b. Dangerous
c. Intermittent d. Idopathic
766. Metal in vitamin B12 is

a. Copper b. Cobalt
c. Iron d. Zinc
512

767. Whole wheat is an excellent source of
a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin A d. Thiamine
768. Vitamin used in the treatment of homocystinuria is

a. B1 b. B5
c. B12 d. B6
769. Which of the following is not a component of coenzyme A?

a. Panthothenic acid b. Adenylic acid
c. Acetic acid d. Sulfhydryl group
770. The most active form of vitamin D is

a. 25-Hydroxycholecaciferol
b. 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
c. 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
d. None of these
771. The Important part in the structure of flavoprotein is

a.Vitamin B6 b.Vitamin B2
c.Vitamin B1 d.Vitamin A
772. Vitamin essential for transamination is

a. B1 b.B2
c. B6 d. B12
773. The action of Vitamin K in formation of clotting factor is though

a. Post transcription b. Post translation
c. Golgi complex d. Endoplasmic reticulum
774. The smallest immunoglobulin is

a. Ig G b. Ig E
c. Ig D d. Ig A
775. The Number of sub classes of Ig G is

a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 8
776. Most abundant Ig G subclass in the serum is

a. Ig G1 b. Ig G2
c. Ig G3 d. Ig G4
777. Immunoglobulin which can cross the placenta is

a. Ig A b.Ig M
c. Ig G d. Ig D
513

778. The immunoglobulin possessing lowest concentrating of carbohydrate is
a. Ig A b. Ig E
c. Ig M d. Ig G
779. The Normal serum level of Ig G is

a. 1200 mg% b.500 mg%
c. 300 mg% ` d.200 mg%
780. The Half Life of Ig G is

c. 19-24 days d. 6days
781. Most heat labile immunoglobulin is

a. IgG b. IgA
c.IgM d. IgD
782. The immunoglobulin possessing highest concentration of carbohydrate is

a. IgG b. IgM
c. IgA d. IgD
783. The normal serum level of IgD is

a. 1 mg% b. 2mg%
c. 3mg% d. 5mg%
784. The half life of IgD is

a. 1 day b. 2-8 days C. 10-15 days d. 22-24 days
785. The carbohydrate content of IgM is about

a. 2.8% b. 6.4% c. 8.0% d. 10.2%
786. The immunoglobulin having highest sedimentation coefficient is

a. IgG b. IgA
c. IgM d. IgD
787. The immunoglobulin having highest molecular weight is

a. IgG b. IgM
c. IgE d. IgD
788. The normal serum level of phosphorus in human adult is

a. 1-2 mg b. 2-3 mg
c. 3-4.5 mg/100 ml d. 5-7mg
789. An increase in carbohydrate metabolism is accompanied by temporary decrease in

serum
a. Calcium b. Phosphate
c.Iron d. Sodium
514

790. In rickets of the common low-phosphate variety, serum phosphate values may go as
low as
a. 1-2 mg/100 ml b. 2-3 mg/100 ml
c. 3-4 mg/100 ml d. 4-5 mg/100 ml
791. The normal serum level of phosphorus in children varies from

a. 1-2 mg/100 ml b.2-3 mg/100 ml
c. 3-4 mg/100 ml d.4-7 mg/100 ml
792. An inherited or acquired renal tubular defect in the reabsorption of phosphate (vit D
resistance ricket) is characterized with
a. Normal serum Phosphate b. High serum
c. A low blood phosphorous with elevated alkaline phosphate
d. A high blood phosphorous with decreased alkaline phosphatase
793. The total magnesium contant in gms of human body is about

a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 21
794. Iron is a component of

a.Hemogloblin b.ceruloplasmin
c.transferase d.transaminase
795. In iron deficiency anemia

a. The plasma bound is low b. The plasma bound is high
c. Total binding capacity is low
d. Both the plasma bounded iron and total capacities are low
796. The total iron contant of human body is

a. 400-500mg b. 1-2g c. 2-3g d. 4-5g
797. In hepatic diseases

a. Both the bound iron and total iron capacity of the plasma may be are low
b. Both the bound iron and total iron capacity of the plasma may be are high
c. Only bound iron may be high
d. Only the total iron binding capacity may be high
798. The recommended daily requirement of iron for women of 18-55yrs age is
a. 5mg b. 8mg
c. 10mg d. 15mg
799. The percent of total iron in body hemoglobin is

a. 10-20 b. 20-30 c. 30-40 d. 60-70
800. A hypochromic microcytic anemone with increased iron stores in the bone marrow
may be
a. Iron responsive b. Pyridoxine responsive
c.Vitamin B12 responsive d. Folate responsive
515

Bio Chemistry
801. A good source of iron is
a. Spinach b. Milk c. Tomato d. Potato
802. The best source of iron is

a. Organ meats b. Milk c. Tomate d. Potato
803. An increased serum iron and decreased iron binding capacity is found in
a. Fe deficiency anemia
b. Sideroblastic anemia
c. Folate deficiency anemia
d. Sickel cell anemia
804. The absorption of iron is increased 2-10 times of normal in

a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Pregnancy
c. Spherocytosis d. Sickle cell anemia
805. Iron is mainly absorbed from

a. Stomach and duodenum b. IIeum
c.Caecum d. Colon
806. The iromn containing nonporphyrin is

a. Hemosiderin b. Catalase
c. Cytochrome C d. Peroxidase
807. Molecular iron is

a. Stored primarily in the spleen
b. Exreted in the urine as Fe2+
c. Stored in the body in combination with ferritin
d. Absorbed in the ferri form
808. In hemo chromatosis, the liver is infiltrated with

a. Iron b. Copper
c. Molybdenum d. Fats
809. An acquired siderosis-Bantu siderosis is due to

a. Foods cooked in iron pots
b. Diet high in phosphorous
c. Diet high in calcium
d. High fat diet
810. The amount of copper in the human body is

a. 50-80 mg b. 100-150 mg
c. 400-500 mg d. 500-1000 mg
516

811. The amount of copper in muscles is about
a. 10 mg b. 30 mg
c. 64 mg d. 100 mg
812. The amount of copper in bones is about

a. 5 mg b. 10 mg
c. 15 mg d. 23mg
813. The normal serum of concentration of copper in mg/100 ml varies between

a. 0-5 b. 50-100
c. 100-200 d. 200-300
814. The normal serum of concentration of ceruoplasmin in mg/100 ml varies between

a. 5-10 b. 10-20
c. 25-43 d. 50-100
815. Recommended daily dietary requirement of copper for adults is

a. 0.5-1 mg b. 1.5-3.0 mg
c. 3.5-4.5 mg d. 4.5-5.5 mg
816. The richest source of copper is

a. Liver b. Milk
c. Legumes d. Green leafy vegetables
817. The cytosolic superoxide dismutase enzyme contains

a. Cu2+ b. Cu2+ and Zn2+
c. Zn2+ d. Mn2+
818. The deficiency of copper decreases the activity of the enzyme

a. Lysine oxdiase b. Lysine hydroxylase
c. Tyrisine oxdiase d. Proline hydroxylase
819. Wilson’s disease is a condition of toxicosis of

a. Iron b. Copper
c. Chromium d. Molybdenum
820. In Wilson’s disease

a. Copper fails to be excreted in the bile
b. Copper level in plasm is decreased
c. Ceruloplasmin level is increased
d. Intestinal absorption of copper is decreased
821. Menke’s disease is due to an abnormality in the metabolism of

a. Iron b. Manganese
c. Magnesium d. Copper
517

822. Menke’s disease (Kinky or steel hair disease) is a X-liked disease characterized by
a. High levels of plasma copper
b. High levels of ceruloplasmin
c. Low levels of plasma copper and of ceuloplasmin
d. High levels of hepatic copper
823. The trace element catalyzing hemoglobin synthesis is

a. Manganese b. Magnesium
c. Copper d. Selenium
824. The total body content of emanganes is about

a. 2 mg b. 4 mg
c. 8 mg d. 10 mg
825. In blood the values of emanganes in lg/100 ml varies between

a. 0-4 b. 2-4
c. 3-5 d. 4-20
826. The adequate dailey dietary requirement of manganese is

a. 1-2 mg b. 2-5 mg
c. 5-10 mg d. 10-20 mg
827. Mitochondrial superoxide dismutase contains

a. Zinc b. Copper
c. Magnesium d. Manganese
828. Mitochondrial pyruvate carboxylase contains

a. Zinc b. Copper
c. Manganese d. Magnesium
829. The adequate daily dietary requirement of molybdenum for normal human adult
a. 10-20 mg b. 25-50 mg
c. 50-70 mg d. 75-200 mg
830. In human beings molybdenum is mainly absorbed from

a. Liver b. Kidney
c. Intestine d. Pancreas
831. In human beings molybdenum is mainly excreted in

a. Feces b. Sweat
c. Urine d. Tears
832. Molybdenum is a constituent of

a. Hydroxylases b. Oxidases
c. Transaminases d. Transferases
518

833. Safe and adequate daily dietary intake of chromium in adults in mg is
a. 0.01-0.02 b. 0.02-0.03
c. 0.03-0.04 d. 0.05-0.2
834. Richest source of chromium is

a. Brewer’s yease b. Milk and milk products
c. Yellow vegetables d. Green vegetables
835. Metallic constituent of “Glucose tolerance factor” is

a. Sulphur b. Cobalt
c. Chromium d. Selenium
836. Intestinal absorption of chromium is shared with

a. Mn b. Mg
c. Ca d. Zn
837. Serum level of chromium in healthy adult is about

a. 2-5 mg/100 ml b. 6-20 mg/100 ml
c. 30-60 mg/100 ml d. 50-100 mg/100 ml
838. Chromium is potentiator of

a. Insulin b. Glucagon
c. Thyroxine d. Parathromone
839. Recommended daily dietary allowance of selenium for adult human in mg is

a. 20 b. 40
c. 50 d. 70
840. Total body content of selenium is about

a. 1-2 mg b. 2-4 mg
c. 4-10 mg d. 50-100 mg
841. Normal serum level of selenium is

a. 5 mg/100 ml b. 8mg/100 ml
c. 10 mg/100 ml d. 13 mg/100 ml
842. Selenium is a constituent of the enzyme:

a. Glutathione peroxidase
b. Homogentisate oxidase
c. Tyrosine hydroxylase
d. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
843. A nonspecific intracellular antioxidant is

a. Chromium b. Magnesium
c. Selenium d. Nickel
519

844. Cobalt forms an integral part of the vitamin:
a. B1 b. B6
c. B12 d. Folate
845. Cobalt may act as cofactor for the enzyme:

a. Glycl-glycine dipeptidase b. Elastase
c. Polynucleotidases d. Phosphatase
846. Excess intake of cobalt for longer periods leads to

a. Polycythemia b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia d. Microcytic anemia
847. Dental caries occur due to

a. Drinking water containing less 0.2 ppm of fluorine
b. Drinking water containing greater than 1.2 ppm of fluorine
c. Drinking water containing high calcium
d. Drinking water containing heavy meatls
848. Total zinc content of human body is about

a. 800 mg b.1200 mg c. 2000 mg d. 3200 mg
849. Metal required for polymerization of insulin is

a. Copper b. Chromium c. Cobalt d. Zinc
850. Metalloenzyme-retinene for polymerization of insulin is

a. Copper b. Zinc c. Cobalt d. Manganese
851. An important zinc containing enzyme is

a. Carboxypeptidase A b. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c. Cholinesterate d. Lipoprotein lipase
852. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to defective absorption of

a. Manganese b.Molybdenum c. Iodine d.Zinc
853. Hypogonadism develops due to deficiency of

a. Sulphur b. Cobalt c. Zinc d. Manganese
854. Psychotic symptoms and parkinsonism like symptoms develop due to inhalation
poisoning of
a. Manganese b.Phosphorous
c. Magnesium d.Zinc
855. One gram of carbohydrate on complete oxidation in the body yields about
a. 1 Kcal b. 4 Kcal
c. 6 Kcal d. 9 Kcal
520

856. Proteins have the SDA:
a. 5% b. 10%
c. 20% d. 30%
857. Human most easily tolerate a lack of the nutrient:

a. Protein b. Lipid
c. Iodine d. Carbohydrate
858. The basal metabolic rate (B.M.R.) is measurement of

a. Energy expenditure during sleep
b. Energy expenditure after 100 m walks
c. Energy expenditure after a meal
d. Energy expenditure under certain basal (Standard) conditions
859. B.M.R. is raised in

a. Polycythemia b.Starvation
c. Lipid nephrosis d.Hypothyroidism
860. B.M.R. is subnormal in

a. Hypothyroidism b. Leukemia
c. Cardiac failure d. Hyperthyroidisms
861. B.M.R is subnornmal in

a. Addison’s disease b.Adrenal tumor
c. Cardiac failure d.Hyperthyroidism
862. The percentage of nitrogen rentained in the body after absorption of diet represent
a. Digestibilty coefficient of proteins b. Biological value of proteins
c. Protein efficiency ratio d. Net protein utilization
863. In a person increase in weight in gms per gm of protein consumption represents

a. Protein efficiency ratio b. Digestibilty value of proteins
c. Biological value of proteins d. Net protein utilization
864. The percentage of food nitrogen that is retained in the body represents
a. Digestibilty coefficient of proteins b. Biological value of proteins
c. Protein efficiency ratio d. Net protein utilization
865. The chemical score of different proteins is calculated in terms of

a. Egg proteins b.Milk proteins c. Fish proteins d.Wheat proteins
866. Biological value of protein of cow’s milk is

a.95 b.60 c.71 d.67
867. Biological value of soyabean protein is

a.86 b.71 c.64 d.54
521

868. Plasma bicarbonate is decreased in
a. Respiratory alkalosis b.Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Metabolic acidosis
869. Plasma bicarbonate is increased in

a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic acidosis
870. Total CO2 is increased in

a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Both respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
871. Respiratory acidosis is caused by

a. Increase in carbonic acid relative to bicarbonate
b. Decrease in bicarbonate fraction
c. Increase in bicarbonate fraction
d. Decrease in the carbonic acid fraction
872. Respiratory alkalosis is caused by

a. An increase in carbonic acid fraction b. A decrease in bicarbonic fraction
c. Adecrease in the carbonic acid fraction d. An increase in bicarbonate fraction
873. Meningitis and encephalitis causes

a. Metabolic alkalosis b.Respiratory alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis d.Respiratory acidosis
874. Metabolic acidosis is caused in

a.Pneumonia b. Intestinal Obatrution c. Hepatic coma
875. Metabolic acidosis is caused in

a. Pneumonia b.Prolonged starvation
c. Intestinal Obatrution d.Bulbar polio
876. Respiratory acidosis occurs in

a. Any disease which impairs respiration like emphysema
b. Renal disease
c. Poisoning by an acid
d. Pyloric stenosis
877. Metabolic alkalosis occrs in

a. As consequence of high intestinal obstruction
b. In central nervous system disease
c. In diarrhea
d. In colitis
522

878. Respiratory alkalosis occurs in
a. Hysterical hyperventilation
b. Depression of respiratory centre
c. Renal diseases
d. Loss of intestinal fluids
879. Morphine poisoning causes

a. Metabolic acidosisn b.Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis d.Respiratory alkalosis
880. Salicylate poisoning in early stages causes

a. Metabolic acidosisn b.Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis d.Respiratory alkalosis
881. The compound having the lowest redox potential amongst the following is
a.Hydrogen b.NAD
c. Cytochrome b d.Cytochrome a
882. All the oxidases contain a metal which is

a.Copper b.FAD c.Manganses d.None of these
883. Isocitrate dehydrogenases is

a. Aerobic dehydrogenase b. Anaerobic dehydrogenase
c. Hydroperox dase d. Oxygenase
884. Tetany can occur in

a.Hypocalcaemia b.Hypercalcaemia
c.Alkalosis d. Hypocalcacmia and alkalosis
885. Intestinal absorption of calcium occurs by

a. Active take-up b.Simple diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion d.Endocytosis
886. Intestinal absorption of calcium is hampered by

a.Phosphatc b.Phytate c.Proteins d.Lactose
887. Calcitriol facilitates calcium absorption by increasing the synthesis of the following
in intestinal mucosa:
a. Calcium binding protein b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Calcium-dependont ATPase d. All of these
888. A high plasma calcium level decreases intestinal absorption of calcium by

a. Stimulating the secretion of parathormone
b. Inhibiting the secretion of parathormone
c. Decreasing the synthesis of cholecalciferol
d. Inhibiting the secretion thyrocalcitonin
523

889. The daily calcium requirement of an adult man is about
a. 400 mg b.600 mg
c. 800 mg d.1,000 mg
890. The daily calcium requirement in peregnancy and lactation is about

a. 600 mg b.800 mg
c.1, 200 mg d.1, 500 mg
891. Hypercalcaemia can occur in all the following except

a. Hyperparathyroidism b.Hypervitaminosis D
c. Milk alkali syndrome d.Nephrotic syndrome
892. Hypocalcaemia can occur in all the following except

a.Rickets b.Osteomalacia
c.Hyperparathyroidism d.Intestinal malabsorption
893. The major calcium salt in bones is

a. Calcium carbonate b.Calcium chloride
c. Calcium hydroxide d.Calcium phosphate
894. The correct statement about serum inorganic phosphorous concentration is

a. It is higher in men than in women
b. It is higher in women than in men
c. It is higher in adults than in children
d. It is higher in children than in adults
895. The product of serum calcium concentration (mg/dl) and serum inorganic
phosphorous concentration (mg/dl) in adults is about
a.30 b.40 c.50 d.60
phosphorous concentration (mg/dl) in children is about
a.30 b.40 c.50 d.60
phosphorous Concentration (mg/dl) is decrased in
a.Rickets b.Hypoparathyroidism
c.Hyperparathyroidism d.Renal failure
898. Serum potassium level decreased in

a. Familial periodic paralysis
b. Addison’s disease
c. Renal failure
d. All of these
524

899. Concentration of the following is higher in intracellular fluid than in extracellular
fluid:
a.Sodium b.Potassium
c.Chloride d.Bicarbonate
900. Normal range of serum potassium is

a. 2.1-3.4 mEq/L b.3.5-5.3 mEq/L
c. 5.4-7.4 mEq/L d.7.5-9.5 mEq/L
901. Normal range of serum chloride is

a. 24-27 mEq/L b.70-80 mEq/L
c. 100-106 mEq/L d.120-140 mEq/L
902. An extracellular fluid having a higher concentration of chloride than serum is

a.Bile b.Sweat
c.CSF d.Pancreatic juice
903. Total amount of iron in an adult man is about

a.1 – 2 mg b.2 – 3 mg
c.3 – 4 mg d.6 – 7 mg
904. Hemoglobine contains about

a.30% of the total body iron
b.50% of the total body iron
c.75% of the total body iron
d.90% of the total body iron
905. About 5% of the total body, iron is present in

a.Transferrin b.Myoglobin
c.Cytochromes d.Haemosiderin
906. Each hemoglobin molecule contains

a. One iron atoms b.Two iron atoms
c. Four iron atoms d.Six iron atoms
907. Each myoglobin molecule contains

a. One iron atoms b.Two iron atoms
c. Four iron atoms d.Six iron atoms
908. Daily iron requirement of an adult man is about

a. 1 mg b.5 mg
c. 10 mg d.18 mg
909. Daily iron requirement of a woman of reproductive age is about

a. 1 mg b.2 mg
c. 10 mg d.20 mg
525

910. All the following are good sources of iron except
a.Milk b.Meat
c.Liver d.Kidney
911. Relatively more iron is absorbed from

a. Green leafy vegetables b.Fruits
c. Whole grain cereals d.Organ meats
912. Iron absorption from a mixed diet is about

a.1 – 5 % b.5 – 10 %
c.20 – 25 % d.25 – 50 %
913. Iron deficiency causes

a. Normocytic anemia b.Microcytic anemia
c. Megaloblastic anemia d.Pernicious anemia
914. Prologed and severe iron deficiency can causes atrophy of epithelium of
(A) Oral cavity (B) Esophagus
(C) Stomach (D) All of these
915. All of the following statements about bronzed diabetes are true except
a. It is caused by excessive intake of copper
b. Skin becomes pigmented
c. There is damage to a cell of IsIets of Langerhans
d. Liver is damaged
916. The total amount of copper in the body of an average adult is

a. 1 mg b.500 mg
c. 100 mg d.10 mg
917. The normal range of plasma copper is

a.25 – 50 mg/dl b.50 – 100 mg/dl
c.100 – 200 mg/dl d.200 m- 400 mg/dl
918. Copper deficiency can cause

a.Polycythaemia b.Leukocytopenia
c.Thrombocytopeina d.Microcytic anemia
919. Daily requirement of copper in adults is about

a. 0.5 mg b.1 mg c. 2.5 mg d.5 mg
920. All the following statements about ceruloplasmin are correct except
a. It is a copper-containing protein
b. It possesses oxidase activity
c. It is synthesized in intestinal mucosa
d. Its plasma level is decreased in Wilson’s
526

921. The total amount of zinc in an average adult is
a.0.25 – 50 gm b.0.5 – 1.0 gm
c.1.5 – 2.0 gm d.2.5 – 5.0 gm
922. Plasma zinc level is

a.10 – 50 mg/dl b.50 – 150 mg/dl
c.150 – 250 mg/dl d.250 – 500 mg/dl
923. Zinc is a cofactor for

a. Acid phosphatase b.Alkaline phosphatase
c.Amylasen d.Lipase
924. Zinc is involved in storage and release of

a.Histamine b.Acetyholine
c.Epinephrine d.Insulin
925. Intestinal absorption of zinc is retarded by

a.Calcium b.Cadmium
c.Phytate d.All of these
926. The daily zinc requirement of an average adult is

a. 5 mg b.10 mg c. 15 mg d.25 mg
927. Zinc deficiency occurs commonly in

a. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Xeroderma pigmento
d. Menke’s disease
928. Selenium is a constituent of

a. Glutathionen reductase
b. Glutathione peroxidase
c. Catalase
d. Superoxide dismutase
929. Selenium decreases the requirement of

a.Cooper b.Zinc
c. Vitamin D d.Vitamin E
930. Upper safe limit of fluorine in water is

a. 0.4 ppm b.0.8 ppm
c. 1.2 ppm d.2 ppm
931. The daily fluoride intake should not exceed

a. 0.5 mg b.1 mg
c. 2 mg d.3 mg
527

932. In adults, water constitutes about
a.50% of body weight b.55% of body weight
c.60% of body weight d.75% of body weight
933. 1 kcal is roughly equal to

a. 4.2J b. 42J c. 4.2 J d. 42KJ
934. Calorific value of proteins as determined in a bomb calorimeter is

a. 4 kcal/gm b.4.8 kcal/gm
c. 5.4 kcal/gm d.5.8 kcal/gm
935. Calorific value of proteins in a living person is less than that in a bomb calorimeter
because
A. Digestion and absorbtion of proteins is less than 100%
b. Respiratoryquotient of proteins is less than 1
c. Specific dynamic action of proteins is high
d. Proteins are not completely oxidized in living persons
936. Calorifice value of alcohol is

A. 4 kcal/gm b. 5.4 kcal/gm
c. 7 kcal/gm d.9 kcal/gm
937. Energy expenditure of a person can be measured by

a. Bomb calorimertry b. Direct calorimetry
c. Indirect calorimetry d. Direct or indirect calorimetry
938. Respiratory quotient of carbohydrate is about

a.0.5 b.0.7 c.0.8 d.1.0
939. Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is about

a.0.5 b.0.7 c.0.8 d.1.0
940. Respiratory quotient of proteins is about

a.0.5 b.0.7 c.0.8 d.1.0
941. Respiratory quotient of an average mixed diet is about
a.0.65 b.0.7 c.0.75 d.0.85
942. At a respiratory quotient of 0.85, every litre of oxygen consumed repeesents an

energy expenditure of
a. 5.825 kcal b.4.825 kcal c. 3.825 kcal d.2.825 kcal
943. BMR of healthy adult men is about

a. 30 kcal/hour/square metre
b. 35 kcal/hour/square metre
c. 40 kcal/hour/square metre
d. 45 kcal/hour/square metre
528

945. BMR is higher in
a. Adults than in children
b. Men than in women
c. Vegetarians than in non-vegetarians
d. Warmer climate than in colder climate
946. BMR is decreased in

a.Pregnyancy b.Starvation
c.Anemia d.Fever
947. BMR is increased in

a.Starvation b.Hypothyroidism
c.addison’s disases d.Pregnancy
948. BMR is decreased in all of the following except

a.Fever b.Addison’s disease
c.Starvation d. Hypothyroidism
949. BMR is increased in all of the following except

a. Hypothyroidism b.Anemia
c.Addison’s disease d.Pregnancy
950. Specific dynamic action of carbohydrates is about

a.5% b.13% c.20% d.30%
951. Specific dynamic action of proyeins is about

a.5% b.13% c.20% d.30%
952. Average concentration of chloride ions in cerebrospinal fluid per 100 mml is
a. 40 mg b.440 mg c. 160 mg d.365 mg
953. Total iron content of the normal adult is

a. 1-2 gm b.3-4 gm
c. 4-5 gm d.7-10 gm
954. Absoration of phosphororus from diet is favored by

a.Moderate amount of fat b.Acidic environment
c. High calcium content d.High phytic acid
955. Daily intake of potassium for a normal person should be

a. 1 gm b.2 gm c. 3 gm d.4 gm
956. Absorption of calcium decreases if there is high concentration in the diet of

a.Copper b.Sodium
c.Magnesium d.Cadmium
529

957. Of the following highest concentration of calcium is seen in
a.Blood b.CSF
c.Muscle d.Nerve
958. Cobalt is essential component of

a.Vitamin b.Vitamin B6
c.Vitamin B12 d.All of these
959. Iodine is required in human body for

a. Formation of thyroxine
b. Formation of Glutathione
c. Formation of potassium iodide
d. Adrenaline
960. A hypochromic microcytic anemia with increase Fe stores in the bone marrow may
be
a. Folic acid responsive
b. Vitamimn B12 responsive
c. Pyridoxine responsive
d. Vitamin C responsive
961. A deficiency of copper effects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the
activity of which of the following enzyme?
a. Prolyl hydroxylase b. Lysyl oxdase
c. Lysyl hydroxylase d. Glucosyl transferase
962. Molecular iron (Fe) is

a. Stored primarily in spleen
b. Absorbed in the intestine
c. Absorbed in the ferric, Fe+++ form
d. Stored in the body in combination with ferritin
963. All the following statements regarding calcium are correct except
a. It diffuses as a divalent cation
b. It freely diffuses across the endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells
c. It can exist in the blood as ionic form and also protein bound
d. It is found in high concentration in bones
964. Iron is absorbed from

a.Stomach b.Duodenum and jejunum
c.IIeum d.None of the above
965. The normal eoute of calcium excretion is

a. Kidney b. Kidney and Liver c. Kidney and Intestine
d.Kidney, Intestine and Pancreas
530

966. Hypocalcaemia affects
a. Skeletal muscles
b. Smooth muscles
c. Cardiac muscles
d. Skeletal Muscles + smooth muscles + cardiac muscles
967. In vitamin D poisoning (hyper-vitaminosis)

a. Both serum and urinary “Ca”
b. The serum Ca is low and urinary calcium high normal
c. The serum Ca is increased and urinary Ca is normal
d. Both serum and urinary “Ca” are low
968. The % of ‘K’ in Extracellular fluid is about

a.1% b.2 to 3% c.10% d.15%
969. The Fe containing pigments is

a.Haematoidin b.Bilirubin
c.Hemasiderin d.Urobilinogen
970. All of the following are true of Wilson’s disease except

a. Low total plasma Cu b.Elevated urinary copper
c.Arthritis d.Aminoaciduria
971. An increased serum ‘Iron’ and decerased ‘Fe’ binding capacity are found in
a. Fe-deficiency anemia
b. Sideroblastic anemia
c. Thalassaemia
d. Anemia of chronic disorders
972. Iron therapy is ineffective in which of the following conditions:

a. Chronic blood loss
b. Inadequate Fe intake
c. Hypochromic anemia of pregnancy
d. Thalassaemia minor
973. In hoemochromatosis, the liver is infiltrated with

a.Copper b.Iron c.Manganese d.Chromium
974. What is the normal level of K+ in the serum?

a.137 – 148 mEq/L b.120 – 160 mEq/L c.3.9 – 5.0 mEq/L d.0.3 – 0.59 mEq/L
975. The general functions of minerals are

a. The structural components of body tissues
b. In the regulation of body fluids
c. In acid-base balance
d. All of these
531

976. What are the functions of potassium?
a. In muscle contraction b. Cell membrane function
c. Enzyme action d. All of these
977. The daily requirement of calcium is

a. 200 mg b.400 mg
c. 800 mg d.600 mg
978. The normal serum inorganic phosphorous level is

a.1.5 – 2.5 mg/100 ml b.2.5 – 4.5 mg/100 ml
c.4.5 – 6.5 mg/100 ml d.0.5 – 1.5 mg/100 ml
979. What is ceruloplasmin?

a. Plasma protein b.Stored form of copper
c. Both A and Bm d.None of these
980. The following are the functions of copper:

a. Constituent of cytochromes b.Catalase
c.Tyrosinase d. All of these
981. Zn is present as prosthetic group in this enzyme:

a. Carbonic anhydrase
b. Carboxy peptidase
c. Lactate dehydrogenase
d. All of these
982. Fluorosis is caused due to (a)

a. Excessive intake of fluorine
c. Discoloration of the teeth due to low intake
d. All of these
983. What is the state of iron in transferring?

a. Ferrous form b.Ferric form
c. Both A and B d.None of these
984. Hormones
a. Act as coenzyme
b. Act as enzyme
c. Influence synthesis of enzymes
d. Belong to B-complex group
985. Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor is

a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
b.Thyroxine
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d.Glucagon
532

986. Hormone that bind to cell surface receptor and require the second messenger camp
is
a. Antidiretic hormone b.Cholecystokinin
c.Calcitriol d.Gastrin
987. A hormone secreted from anterior pituitary is

a. Growth hormone b.Vasopressin
c.Oxytocin d.Epinephrine
988. A hormone secreted from posterior pituitary is

a.Vasopressin b.Thyrotropic hormone
c.Prolactin d.Adrenocorticotropic hormone
989. The number of amino acids in human growth hormone is

a.91 b.151 c.191 d.291
990. Growth hormone causes hyperglycemia,It is a result of

a. Decreased peripheral utilization of nglucose
b. Decreased hepatic production via gluconeogenesis
c. Increased glycolysis in muscle
d. Decreased lipolysis
991. Acromegaly results due to excessive release of

a.Thyroxine b.Growth hormone
c.Insulin d.Glucagon
992. Growth hormone is released by

a. Somatostatin
b. Growth hormone releasing hormone
c. Prolactin release onhibiting hormone
d. Luteinizing releasing hormone
993. The number of amino acids inprolactin is

a.134 b.146 c.172 d.199
994. Catecholamine hormones are

a. 3,4-Dihydroxy derivatives of phenyllethlamine
b. p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenylacetate
c. p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenylpyruvate
d. p-Hydroxy derivatives of phenyllactate
995. The sequential steps in the conversation of tyrosine to epinephrine are

a. Ring hydroxylation-decorboxilation-side chain hydroxylation-N-methylation
b. Side chain hydroxylation-decorboxilation-ring- hydroxylation-N-methylation
c. Decarboxylation-ring- hydroxylation-side chain hydroxylation-N-Methylation
d.N-methylation- decarbioxylation- ring and side chain hydroxylation
533

996. The hormone required for uterine muscle contraction for child birth is
a.Progestreone b.Estrogen
c.Oxytocin d.Vasopressin
997. The number of amino acids in the hormone oxytocin is

a.7 b.9 c.14 d.18
998. Vasopressin and oxytocin circulate unbound to proteins and have very short plasma
half lives, on the order of
a.1 – 2 minutes b.2 – 4 minutes
c.5 – 8 minutes d.10 – 12 minutes
999. Melanogenesis is stimulated by

a.MSH b.FSH
c.LH d.HCG
1000. The number of amino acids in antidiuretic hormone is

a.9 b.18 c.27 d.36

Bio Chemistry
1001. ADH
a. Reabsorb water from renal tubules
b. Excretes water from renal tubules
c. Excretes hypotonic urine
d. Causes low specific gravity of urine
1002. Epinephrine is derived from noepinephrine by

a. Decarbozylation b.Hydroxylation
c. Oxidation d.N-Methylation
1003.5 HIAA test is negative if patient is taking

a.Aspirin b.Colchicine
c.Phenothiazone d.Methotrexate
1004. Presenc of significant amount of 5-HIAA in urine indicates

a. Carcinoid in liver b. Carcinoid in appendic
c. Metastasis of carcinoma of liver d.Hepatoma
1005. The normal serum level of triiodothyronine (T3) is

a.0.2 – 0.5 ng/ml b.0.7 – b2.0 ng/ml
c.2.0 – 4.0 ng/ml d.5.0 – 8.0 ng ml
534

1006. The normal serum level of thyroxine (T4) is
a.2.0 – 4.0 ng/100 ml b.5.5 – 13.5 ng/100 ml
c.14.0 – 20.3 ng/100 ml d.20.0 – 25.0 ng/100 ml
1007. Excess secretion of thyroid hormones causes

a.Hyperthyroidism b.Myxoesema
c.Cretinism d.Cushing syndrome
1008. Insufficient free T3 and T4 results in

a.Grave’s disease b.Myxodedema
c. Cushing syndrome d. Gigantism
1009. Inprimary hypothyroidism the useful estimation is of

a. T3 b.T4
c.TBG d.Autoantibodies
1010. When iodine supplies are sufficient the T3 and T4 ratio in thyroglobulin is
a. 1:2 B. 1:4
C.1:7 d. 1:10
1011. A substance which competes with iodide uptake mechanism by thyroid gland is
a. Thiocynate b. Iodocetate
c. Fluoride d. Fluorocetate
1012. Thyroperoxidase enzyme contains

a. Haem b. Copper c. Zinc d. Magnesium
1013. Calcitonin causes

a. Calcinuria and phosphaturia b. Decrease in urinary calcium
c. Decrease in urinary phosphorous d. Increase in blood calcium level
1014. Insulin stimulates

a. Hepatic glycogenolysis b.Hepatic glycogenesis
c.Lipolysis d.Gluconeogenesis
1015. Action of inslin on lipid metabolism is

a. It increases lipolysis and increases triglyceride synthesis
b. It decrease lipolysis and increase triglyceride synthesis
c. It decrease lipolysis and decreases triglyceride synthesis
d. It increases synthesis of triglyceride and increased ketogenesis
1016. Insulin increases the activity of

a. Pyruvate kinase
b. Phosphorylase
c. Triacylglycerol kinase
d. Frutose 2, 6-bisphosphatase
535

1017. Insulin decreases the activity of
a. cAMP dependent protein kinase
b. HMG CoA-reductas
c. Phosphodiesterase
d. Actyl CoA-carboxylase
1018. The human insulin gene located on the short arm of chromosome:
a. 11 b. 12
c. 18 d. 20
1019. Normal serum insulin level varies between

a. 4-25U/ml b. 25-50U/ml
c. 70-90U/ml d.100-120U/ml
1020. Following is a normal overnight fast and a cup of black coffee,a diabetic women
feels slightly nauseous and decides to skip breakfast.However she does take her shot of
insulin.This may result in
a. Heightened glycogenolysis
b.Hypoglycemia
c. Increased lipolysis
d.Glycosuria
1021. Deficiency of insulin results in

a. Rapid uptake of sugar
b. Loww blood glucose level
c. Decrease urine output
d. Presence of glucose in urine
1022. The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is increased

a. Blood level of epinephrine
b. Blood level of glucagon
c. Blood level of glucose
d. Water intake
1023. The b-cells of pancreas islets produce

a. Insulin b. Glucagon
c.Somatostation d.Pancreatic polypeptide
1024. The number of amino acids in single chain polypeptide glucagons is

a.21 b.29
c.31 d.39
1025. The half life of glucagons is

a. 5 b. 7
c. 10 d.12
536

1026. Glucagon enhances
a. Hepatic glycogenolysis b. Muscle glycogenolysis
c. Hepatic glycogenesis d d. Lipogenesis
1027. Normal serum glucagons level in fasting state varies between

a. 0-10 pg/ml b. 20-100 pg/ml
c. 200-300 pg/ml d. 400-500 pg/ml
1028. Glucagon
a. Increase protein synthesis
b. Inhabits lipolysis in adipocytes
c. Increase gluconeogenesis in liver
d. Stimulates muscle glcogenolysis
1029. Normal serum free testosterone in adult men varies between

a. 1-5 ng/dl b. 6-9 ng/dl
c. 10-30 ng/dl d.50-100 ng/dl
1030. Serum progesterone level during pregnancy is

a. <12 ng/ml b. >12 ng/ml
c. <20 ng/ml d. >24 ng/ml
1031. Serum progesterone level during luteal phase is

a. 0.2-203 ng/ml b. 3.0-5.0 ng/ml
c. 6.0-30 ng/ml d.750 ng/ml
1032. Androgens are produced by

a. Cells of sertoli b.Leydig cells
c. Rete tetis d.Efferent ductules
1033. The leyding cell activity is controlled by

a. Intestitial cell stimulating hormone
b. Adrenocortex stimulating hormone
c. Thyroid stimulating hormone
d. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
1034. Stein-leventhal syndrome is due to over production of

a.Estrogens b.Androgens c.GAstogens d.Ethinyl estradiol
1035. The production of progestrones by corpus lureum cell is stimulated by

a. LH b.TSH c.ACTH d.MSh
1036. In the biosynthesis of testerone the rate limiting step is conversion of

a. Cholesterol to pregnenolone b. Pregnenolone to progesterone
c. Progestrone to progesterone d. 17-Hydroxy progesterone to androstenedione
537

1037. The enzyme catalyzing conversion of androstenedione to testosterone is a
a. Oxygenase b. Dehydrogenase
c. Isomerase d.Decrboxylase
1038. Conversion of testosterone to estradiol requries the exzyme:

a.Aromatase b.Dehydrogenase
c.Lyase d.Isomerase
1039. Regulation of ACTH secretion occours through

a. Corticotropin realasing hormone (CRH) and corticotrophin release inhibition hormone
(CRIH) of hypothalamus
b. Feedback inhabition by cortisol
c. CRH and feedback inhibition by cortisol
d. CRIH and feedback inhabition by cortisol
1040. ACTH is a polypeptide made up of

a. 39 amino acids b. 41 amino acids
c. 51 amino acids d. 84 amino acids
1041. CRH is a polypeptide made up of a

a. 39 amino acids b. 41 amino acids
c. 51 amino acids d. 84 amino acids
1042. Hormonal activity of ACTH is completely lost on removal of

a. 5 C-terminal amino acids b. 10 C-terminal amino acids
c. 15 C-terminal amino acids d. None of these
1043. All the following statements about TSH are true except
a. It is a glycoprotein b. It is made up
c. Receptor recognition involves both the subunits
d. Its subunit is identical with those of FSH and LH
1044. All the following statements about TSH are true axcepts
a. It is a tropic hormone
b. It acts on part-follicular cells of thyroid glands
c. Its receptors are membrane-bound
d. Its secong messenger is cyclic AMP
1045. In males,luteinizing hormone acts on

a. Leydig cells b.Sertoli cells c. Prostate gland d.All of these
1046. All the following statement about FSH are true except
a. It is a tropic hormone secreted by anterior pituitary
b. Its secreased by gonadotropin releasing hormone
c. It acts on sertolic cells
d. It increases the synthesis of testerone
538

1047. In males, secretion of luteinsing hormone is inhabited by
a. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
b.FSH
c. High blood level of testosterone
d. Inhibin
1048. Secretion of luteinizing hormone is increased by

a.GnRH b. FSH
c. Testosterone d. None of these
1049. In structure and function, HCG resembles

a. FSH b.LH
c.GnRH d.progesterone
1050. Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include

a. Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and tachycardia
b. Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and cold intolerance
c. Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss of appetite
d. Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and obesity
1051. All the following may occour in hyperthyroidism except

a. Goitre b. Increased appetite
c. Loss of weight d. Low BMR
1052. All the following may occour in myxoedema except

a. Cold intolerance b.Low BMR
c. Tachycardia d.Dry and coarse skin
1053. Mental retardation can occour in

a. Cretinism b. Juvenile myxoedema
c. Myxoeadema d. Juvenile thyroroxicosis
1054. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is synthesized in

a. Chief cells of parathyroid glands
b. Oxyphil cells of parathyroid glands
c. Para Follicular cells of thyroid glands
d. Follicular cells of thyroid gland
1055. The number of amino acid residues in PTH :

a.51 b.84 c.90 d.115
1056. Amino acid residues which are essential for the biological activity of PTH are
a. N-terminal 34 amino acids
b. N-terminal 50 amino acids
c. C-terminal 34 amino acids
d. C-terminal 50 amino acids
539

1057. Half-life of PTH is
a. A few seconds b.A few minutes
c. A few hours d.A few days
1058. The second messenger for PTH is

a. Cyclin AMP b.Cyclic GMP
c. Diacylglycerol d.Inositol triphosphate
1059. PTH causes all of the following except

a. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
b. Increased intestinal absorption of phosphate
c. Increased tubular reabsorption of calcium
d. Increased tubular reabsorption of phosphate
1060. Secretion of PTH is regulated by

a.Hypothalamus
b. Anterior pituitary
c. Feedback effect of plasma PTH
d. Feedback effect of plasma calcium
1061. A high concentration of PTH in bold causes

a. Increase in plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous
b. Decrease in plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorous
c. Increase in plasma calcium and decrease in plasma inorganic phosphorous
d. Decrease in plasma calcium and increase in plasma inorganic phosphorous
1062. Tetany can occur

a. In primary hyperparathyroidism
b. In secondary hyperparathyroidism
c. In idiopathic hypoparathyroidism
d. After accidental removal of parathyroid glands
1063. Crystallisation of insulin occurs in the presence of

a.Chromium b.Copper
c.Zinc d.Calcium
1064. Daily secretion of inculin is about

a.10 – 20 mg b.40 – 50 mg
c.10 – untis d.40 – 50 untis
1065. Insulin receptors are decreased in number in

a.Obestiy b.Starvation c.Hyperinsulinism d.Kwashiorkor
1066. Insulin receptor is made up of

a. One and one subunit b. Two and two subunit
c. Two, two and two subunit d. One one one and one subunit
540

1067. Insulin is recuired for the active uptake of glucose by most of the cells except
a.Muscle cells b.Renal tubular cells
c.Adipocytes d.Liver cells
1068. Insulin decreases

a.Glycogenesis b.Glyolysis
c.Gluconeogenesis d.Tubular reabsorption of glucose
1069. Insulin increases

a.Glycogenesis b. Gluconeogenesis
c.Lipolysis d.Blood glucose
1070. Insulin increases

a. Protein synthesis b. Fatty acid synthesis
c. Glycogen synthesis d. All of these
1071. Insulin decrease the synthesis of

a.Hexokinase b.Glucokinase
c. PEP carboxykinase d.Glycogen synthetase
1072. Diabetes mellitus can occur due to all of the following except
a. Deficient insulin secretion
b.Tumour
c. Decrease in number of insulin receptors
d. Formation of insulin antibodies
1073. Hypoglycaemic coma can occur

a. In untreated diabetes mellitus b. In starvation
c. After overdose of oral hypoglycaemic drugs d. After overdose of insulin
1074. Second messenger for glucagons is

a. Cyclic AMP b.Diacylglycerol
c. Cyclic GMP d.Inositol triphosphate
1075. Number of amino acid residues in glucagons is

a.29 b.34 c.51 c.84
1076. Glucagon secretion increases

a. After a carbohydrate-rich meal b. After a fat-rich meal
c. When blood glucose is high d. When blood glucose is low
1077. The maineffecting of glucagons is to increase

a. Glycolysis in muscles b. Glycogenolysis in muscles
c. Glycogenesis in liver
541

1078. Tyrosine is required for the synthesis of all of the following except
a.Melatonin b.Epinephrine
c.Norepinephrine d.Thyroxine
1079. Dopamine is synthesized from

a.Dihydroxyphenylalanine
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d.Metanephrine
1080. Blood brain barrier can be crossed by

a.Epinephrine b.Dopamine c.Dopa d.All orf these
1081. Epinephrine is synthesized in

a. Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla b. Sympathetic ganglia
c. Brain d. All of these
1082. Immediate precursor of epinephrine is

a.Metanephrine b.Norepinephrine
c.Dopa d.Dopamine
1083. The chief metabolite of catecholamines is

a. Metanephrine b. Normetanephrine
c.3, 4-Dihydroxymandelic acid d. Vanillylmandelic acid
1084. An enzyme involved in catabolism of catecholamines is

a. Dopa decarboxylase
b. Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
c. Monoamine oxidase
d. Catechol oxidase
1085. Norepinephrine binds mainly to

a. Adrenergic receptors
b. Muscarinic receptors
c. Nicotinic receptors
1086. Epinephrine decreases

a.Glycogenesis b.Glycogenolysis
c.Gluconeogenesis d.Lipolysis
1087. Epinephrine increases the concentration of fatty acids in plasma by increasing

a. Extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis
b. Mitochondrial fatty acid elongation
c. Microsomal fatty acid chain elongation
d. Lipolysis in adipose tissue
542

1088. Epinephrine increases all of the following except
a. Glycogennolysis in muscles
b. Lipolysis in adipose tissue
c. Gluconeogenesis in muscles
d. Glucagon secretion
1089. Secretion of catecholamines is increased in

a.Cushing’s syndrome b.Addison’s disease
c.Phaeochromocytoma d.Simmond’s disease
1090. Aspirin blocks the synthesis of

a. Prostaglandins only b.Prostacyclins only
c. Thromboxanes only b.All of these
1091. Retention of sodium in the body leads to a retention of

a. Potassium
b. Water
c. Potassium and water
d. Neither potassium nor water
1092. CAMP is so called because it is formed during

a. TCA cycle
b. Urea cycle
c. Rhodopsin cycle
d. It has a cyclic structure
1093. Protein bound iodine is _____________bound to protein

a. Iodine b. Thyroid hormones
c. Thyroxine d. Tri iodo thyronine
1094. In hypophysectonized animals, fasting produces

a. Severe hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia
c. No change in blood sugar d. Mild hyper glycemia
1095. Calcitomica is antagonist to

a. Secrotonin b. Thyroxine
c. Tri iodo thyronine d. Para thyroid hormone
1096. There is polyuria without glycosuria in this disorder

a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Bronze diabetes d. Juvenile diabetes
1097. In hyperparathyroidism there is

a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypophophatemia
c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperkalemia
543

1098. Insulin resistance is encountered in
a. Addison’s disease b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypopitutarism d. Acromegaly
1099. Richest source of prostagelandins in a human male is

a. Blood b. Urine
c. Semen d. C.S.F.
1100. One of the following is not used as a second messenger by hormones :

a. mRNA b. cAMP
c. Calcium ions d. Myoinisotol 1, 4, 5 triphosphate
1101. This pancreatic hormone increases the blood-sugar level:

a. Insulin b.Glucagon
c. Pancreozymin d. Pancreatic polypeptide
1102. Which one of the following statement is fully correct?

a. Hormones are needed in the diet
b. Hormones can be elaborated only by endocrine glands
c. All the hormones enter the cells and perform their function
d. Hormones are substance synthesized in the body in small quantities and control and
regulate metabolic events
1103. T3 is
a. Throxine
b. Triodo thyronine
c. Triodo trysine
d. Reverse tri iodo thyronine
1104. Which of the following hormone is a peptide of less than ten amino acids?
a. Insulin b.Growth hormone
c. Oxytocin d. Parathyroid hormone
1105. The blood sugar raising action of the hormone of suparennal cortex is due to
a. Glyconeogenesis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Glucagon like activity
d. Due to inhabition of glomerular filtration of glucose
1106. Hyper insulinism can cause come since

a. The chief nutrient for the brain is glucose
b. The chief nutrient for the heart is glucose
c. The glucostatic role of the liver is damaged
d. The kidney are damaged
544

1107. Which of the following property of prostaglandins has been utilized by clinician in
hospital for
a. Inducing fever
b. Causing inflammation
c. Effecting smooth muscle contraction
d. Disaggregation of spermatozoa
1108. A major structural difference between estrogens and androgens is the fact that
a. The androgens are usually C21 steroids
b. The estrogens are usually digitonin-precipitable
c. The androgen have an aromatic ring
d. The estrogen have an aromatic ring
1109. Alloxan can experimentally induce diabetes mellitus due to

a. Stimulation of cells of the islets of langerhans
b. necrosis of the islets
c. Potentiation of insulinase activity
d. Epinephrine like action
1110. Which of the following alleviates asthma?

a. PGE1 Only b. PGE1 and PGE2
c. PGF2 d. PGA
1111. Thyroxine is derived from

a. Tyrosine b. tyranine
c. Taurine d. Tryptaine
1112. Adrneal cortical response is poor in

a. Kwashiorkor b. Marasmus
c. Fatty liver d. Atherosclerosis
1113. Vasopressin is also known as

a. Antidiabetic hormone b. Antidiuretic hormone
c. Somatotropic hormone d. Pitoxin
1114. Which of the following is used for inducing labor?

a. Prostaglandins b. Prostacyclins
c. Vasopressin d. Thromboxanes
1115. Which of the following does not have disulphide bond?

a. Oxytocin b. Vasopressin
c. Insulin d. Glucagon
1116. Which is incorrect ? Epinephrin promotes the glycogenolysis in

a. Muscle b. Liver
c. Heart d. None of these
545

1117. Somatostatin is produced by
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pancreas
c. Hypothalamus and pancreas
d. Hypothalamus and Adrenals
1118. Insulin like growth hormones are produced by

a. hypophysis b. Liver
c. Pancreas d. Thyroid
1119. The chemical name of guanine is

a. 2, 4-Dioxy -5-methylpyrimidine
b. 2-Amino-6-oxypurine
c. 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine
d. 2,4-Dioxypyrimidine
1120. Genetic information flows from

a. DNA to DNA
b.DNA to RNA
c, RNA to cellular proteins
d. DNA to cellular proteins
1121. Genetic code is

a. Collection of codon
b. Collection of amino acids
c. Collection of purine nucleotide
d. Collection of pyrimidine nucleotide
1122. Degeneracy of genetic code implies that

A. Codons do not code for specific amino acid
b. Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids
c. No anticodon on tRNA molecule
d. Specific codon decodes many amino acids
1123. Genetic code is

a. Overlapping b. Non-Overlapping
c. Not universal d. Ambiguous
1124. mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide sequence of

a. Coading strand b.Ribosomal RNA
c.tRNA d. Template strand
1125. In DNA replication the enzyme required in the first step is

a. DNA directed polymerase b. Unwinding proteins
c. DNA polymerase d. DNA ligase
546

1126. The smallest unit of DNA capable of coading for the synthesis of a polypeptide is
a. OPeron b. Repressor gene
c. Cistron d. Replicon
1127. Presence of arginine can be detected by

a. Sakaguchi reaction b. Milliion –Nasse reaction
c. Hopkins-Cole reaction d. Gas chromatography
1128. Ultraviolet light can damage a DNA strand causing

a. Two adjacent purine residue to form a covalently bounded dimer
b. Two adjacent pyrimidine residues to form a covalently bounded dimer
c. Disruption of phosphodiesterase linkage
d. Disruption of non-covalent linkage
1129. Defective enzyme in Hueler’s syndrome is

a. L-diuronidase
b. Iduronate sulphatase
c. Arylsulphatase B
d. C-acteyl transferase
1130. Presence of arginine can be detected by

a. Sakaguchi reaction b. Milliion –Nasse reaction
c. Hopkins-Cole reaction d. Gas chromatography
1131. A nitrogrnous base that does not occour in mRNA is

a. Cytosine b. Thymine
c. Uracil d. All of these
1132. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached to sugar by

a. Salt bond b. Hydrogen bong c. Ester bond d. Glycosidic bond
1133. Cyclic AMP can be formed from

a. AMP b.ADP c. ATP d. All of these
1134. A substituted pyrimidine base of pharmacological value is

a. 5-lododeoxyuridine b. Cytisine arabinoside
c. 5-Fluorouracil d. All of these
1135. The tranforming factor discovered by Aveeery, McLeod and McCarty was later
found to be
a. mRNA b. tRNA
c. DNA D.None of these
1136. In DNA, the complementary base of adenine is

a. Guanine b.Cytosine
c. Uracil d. Thymine
547

1137. In DNA, three hydrogen bonds are formed between
a. Adenine and guanine b. Adenine and thymine
c. Guanine and cytosine d. Thymine and cytosine
1138. Hunter’s syndrome result from absence of

a. Hexosaminidase A b. Iduronate sulphatase
c. Neuraminidase d. Arylsulphatase B
1139. A cancer cell is characterized by

a. Uncontrolled cell division
b. Invasion of neighbouring cells
c. Spread to distant aites
d. All of these
1140. The total body water in various subjects is relatively constant when expressed as
percentage of the lean body mass and is about
a. 30% b. 40%
c. 50% d. 70%
1141. The percentage of water contained in the body of an individual is less because of
a. high fat content b.Low fat content
c. High protein content d. Low protein content
1142. In intercellular compartment the fluid present in ml/kg body weight is about
a.100 b. 200 c. 200 d. 330
1143. In extra cellular compartment, the fluid present in ml/kg of body weight is about
a. 120 b. 220 c. 270 d. 330
1144. Fluid present in dense connective tissue and cartilage in ml/kg body weight is
about
a. 10 b. 20 c. 45 d. 55
1145. The total body water ml/kg body weight in average normal young adult male is
about
a. 200 b. 400 c. 600 d. 1000
1146. The daily total body water derived from oxidation of food stuffs is about (b)
a. 100ml b. 300ml c. 600ml d. 1000ml
1147. The daily water allowance for normal infant is about

a. 100-200 ml b. 250-300 ml c. 330-1000 ml d. 1000-2000 ml
1148. The daily water allowance for normal adult (60 kg) is about
a. 200-600 ml b. 500-800 ml c. 800-1500 ml d. 1800-2500 ml
548

1149. Insensible loss of body water of normal adult is about
a. 50-100 ml b. 100-200 ml
c. 300-500 ml d. 600-1000 ml
1150. The predominant cation of plasma is

a. Na+ b.K+
c. Ca+ d. Mg++
1151. The predominant cation of plasma is

a. HCO3- b.CI-
c. HPO4-- d. SO4—
1152. Vasopressin (ADH)

a. Enhance facultative reaborption of water
b. Decrease reabsorption of water
c. Increase excretion of calcium
d. Decrease excretion of calcium
1153. Enhanced facultative reabsorption of water by vasopressin is mediated by

a. Cyclic AMP b. Ca++
c. Cyclic GMP d. Mg++
1154. Action of kinins is to

a. Increase salt excretion
b. Decrease salt retention
c. Decrease water retention
d. Increase both salt and water excretion
1155. The activity of kinins is modulated by

a. Prostaglandins b.Ca++
c. Increased cAMP level d. Increased cGMP level
1156. An important cause of water intoxication is

a. Nephrogrmic diabetes insipidus b. Renal failure
c. Gastroenteritis d. Fanconi syndrome
1157. Minimum excretory urinary volume for waste products elimination during 24hrs is
a. 200-300 ml b. 200-400 ml
c. 500-600 ml d. 800 ml
1158. In primary dehydration

a. Intracellular fluid volume is reduced
b. Intracellular fluid volume remains normal
c. Extracellular fluid volume is much reduced
d. Extracellular fluid volume is much increased
549

1159. An important cause of secondary dehydration is
a. Dysphagia b. Oesophageal varices
c. Oesophageal varices d. gastroenteritis
1160. Important finding of secondary dehydration is

a. Intracellular edema b.Cellular dehydration
c.Thirst d. Muscle cramps
1161. Urine examination in secondary dehydration shows

a. Ketonuria b. Low specific gravity
c. High specific gravity d. Albuminuria
1162. The total calcium for human body is about

a. 100-150 g b.200-300 g
c. 1-1.5 kg d.2-3 kg
1163. Daily requirement of calcium for normal adult human is

a. 100 mg b.800 mg
c. 2g d. 4g
1164. Normal total serum level varies between

a. 4-5 mg b. 9-11 mg
c.15-20 mg d. 50-100 mg
1165. The element needed in quantities greater than 100 mg for human beings is
a. Calcium b. Zinc
c. Selenium d. Cobalt
1166. The mineral present in the human body in larger amount than any other cation is
a.Sodium b.Calcium
c. Potassium d. Iron
1167.The percentage of the total body calcium present in bones is

a. 1 b. 11
c. 55 d. 99
1168. The percentage of calcium present in extracellular fluids is

a. 1 b. 5
c. 10 d. 50
1169. The physiologically active form of alcium is

a. Protein bond
b. Ionized
c. Complexed with citrate
d. Complexed with carbonate
550

1170. The normal concentration of calcium in C.S.F is
a. 1.5-2.5 mg/100ml b. 2.5-4 mg/100ml
c. 4.5-5 mg/100ml d. 9-10 mg/100ml
1171. Absorption of calcium is increased on a

a. High protein diet b. Low protein diet
c. High fat diet d. Low fat diet
1172. Calcium absorption is interfered by

a. Protein in diet b. Phytic acid in cereals
c. Alkaline intestinal pH d. Vitamin D
1173. Calcium absorption is increased by

a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin E
1174. In serum product of Ca x p (in mg/100ml) in children is normally

a. 20 b. 30
c. 50 d. 60
1175. In ricket, the product of Ca x p (in mg/100ml) in serum is below

a. 30 b. 50
c. 70 d. 100
1176. In man, the amount of calcium in gms filtered in 24 hrs period by the renal
glomeruli is
a. 5 b. 10
c. 15 d. 20
1177. The percentage of the calcium eliminated in feces is

a. 10-20 b. 30-40
c. 50-60 d. 70-90
1178. The maximal renal tubular reabsorptive capacity for calcium (Tmca) in mg/min is
about
a. 1.5 ± 0.1 b. 4.99 ± 0.21 c. 5.5 ± 1.2 d.10.2 ± 2.2
1179. Renal ricket is caused by renal tubular defect (usually inherited) which interferes
with reabsorption of
a. Calcium b. Phosphorous
c. Sodium d. Chloride
1180. After operative removal of the parathyroid glands resulting into

hypoparathyroidism the concentration of the serum calcium may drop below
a. 11 mg b. 10 mg
c. 9mg d. 7 mg
551

1181. One of the principal cations of soft tissue and body fluids is
a. Mg b. S
c. Mn d. Co
1182. The normal concentration of magnesium in whole blood is

a. 0-1 mg/100ml b. 1-2 mg/100ml
c. 2-4 mg/100ml d. 4-8 mg/100ml
1183. The normal concentration of magnesium in C.S.F is about

a. 1 mg/100ml b. 3 mg/100ml
c. 5 mg/100ml d.8 mg/100ml
1184. The magnesium cantent of muscle is about

a. 5 mg/100ml b.10 mg/100ml
c. 21 mg/100ml d. 50 mg/100ml
1185. Inntestinal absorption of magnesium is increased in

a. Calcium deficient diet b. High calcium diet
c. High oxalate diet d. High phytate diet
1186. Deficiency of magnesium may occour with

a. Alcoholism b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hypothyroidism d. Advanced renal failure
1187. Hypermagnesemia may be observed in

a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Kwashiorkar d. Primary aldosteronism
1188. Na+/K+-ATPase along with ATP requires

a. Ca b. Mn
c. Mg d. Cl
1189. The principal cation in extracellular fluid is

a. Sodium b. Potassium
c. Calcium d. Magnesium
1190. The normal concentration of sodium (in mg/100 ml)

of human plasma is
a.100 b.200
c.250 d.330
1191. A decrease in serum sodium may occour in

a. Adrenocortical insufficiency
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Thyrotoxicosis
552

1192. Hypernatremia may occour in
a. Diabetes insipidus b. Diuretic medication
c. Heavy sweating d. Kidney disease
1193. The metabolism of sodium is regulated by the hormone:

a. Insulin b. Aldosterone
c. PTH d. Somatostatin
1194. The principal cation in intracellular fluid is

c. Calcium d. Magnesium
1195. The normal concentration of potassium in whole blood is

a. 50 mg/100ml b. 100 mg/100ml
c. 150 mg/100ml d. 200 mg/100ml
1196. The normal concentration of potassium in human plasma in meq/l is about

a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 5
1197. The normal concentration of potassium in cells in ng/100 ml is about

a. 100 b. 200
c. 350 d. 440
1198. Potassium content of nerve tissue in mg/ 100ml is about

a. 200 b. 330 c. 400 d. 530
1199. Potassium content of muscle tissue in mg/100 ml is about

a. 50-100 b. 100-150
c. 250-400 d. 150-200
1200. One of the symptoms of low serum potassium concentration includes

a. Muscle weakness b. Confusion
c. Numbness d.Tingling of extremities

Bio Chemistry
1201. The exclusive function of iron in the body is confinedto the process of
a. Muscular contraction b. Nerve excitation
c. Cellular respiration d. Blood coagulation
1202. The normal pH of blood is

a. 7.0 b. 7.1 b. 7.2 d. 7.4
553

1203. The normal concentration of bicarbonate in blood is
a. 21 meq/L b. 24 meq/L
c. 26 meq/L d. 30 meq/L
1204. Of the total body water, intercellular compartment contains about

a.50% b. 60%
c.70% d. 80%
1205. Osmotically active substances in plasma are

a. Sodium b. Chloride
c. Proteins d. All of these
1206. Osmotic pressure of plasma is

a. 80-100 milliosmole/litre
b 180-200 milliosmole/litre
c. 280-300 milliosmole/litre
d. 380-400 milliosmole/litre
1207. Contribution of albumin to colloid osmotic preasssure of plasma is about

a.10% b.50%
c.80% d. 90%
1208. The highest concentration of proteins is present in

a. Plasma
b. Interstitial fluid
c. Transcellular fluid
1209. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to

a. Proteins b. Chloride
c. Sodium d. All of these
1210. Oncotic pressure of plasma is about

a. 10 mm of Hg b. 15 mm of Hg
c. 25 mm of Hg d. 50 mm of Hg
1211. Edema can occour when

a. Plasma Na and Cl are decreased
b. Plasma Na and Cl are increased
c. Plasma proteins are decreased
d. Plasma proteins are increased
1212. Colloid osmotic pressure of intracellular fluid is

a. Equal to that of plasma
b. More than that of plasma
c. More than that of plasma
d. Nearly zero
554

1213. Respiratory acidosis can occour in all of the following except
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Hysterical hyperventilation
c. Pneumothorax
d. Emphysema
1214. The initial event in respiratory acidosis is

a. Decrease in pH
b. Increase in pCO2
c. Increase in plasma bicarbonate
d. Decrease in plasma bicarbonate
1215. Respiratory alkalosis can occour in

a. Bronchial asthma
b. Collapse of lungs
c. Hysterical hyperventilation
d. Bronchial obstruction
1216. The primary event in respiratory alkalosis is

a. Rise in pH
b. Decrease in pCO2
c. Increase in plasma bicarbonate
d. Decrease in plasma chloride
1217. Anion gap is the difference in the plasma concentrations of

a. (Chloride) - (Bicarbonate)
b. (Sodium) – (Chloride)
c. (Sodium + Potassium) – (Chloride + Bicarbonate)
d. (Sum of cations) – (Sum of anions)
1218. Normal anion gap in plasma is about

a. 5 meq/L b. 15 meq/L
c. 25 meq/L d.40 meq/L
1219. Anion gap is normal in

a. Hyperchloraemin metabolic acidosis
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. Lactic acidosis
d. Uraemic acidosis
1220. Anion gap is increased in

a. Rrenal tubular acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis resulting from diarrhea
c. Metabolic acidosis resulting from inrestinal obstruction
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
555

1221. Anion gap in plasma is because
a. Of differential distribution of ions accorss cell membranes
b. Cations outnumber anions in plasma
c. Anions outnumber cations in plasma
d. Of unmeasured anions in plasma
1222. Salicylate poisoning can cause

a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
c. Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
d. Metabolic alkalosis
1223. Anion gap of plasma can be due to the presrnce of all the following except
a.Bicarbonate b.Lactate
c.Pyruvate d.Citrate
1224. All the following features are found in blood chemistry in uncompensated lactic
acidosis except
a. pH is decreased
b. Bicarbonate is decreased
c. pCO2 is normal
d. Anion gap is normal
1225. All the following statements about renal tubular acidosis are correct except
a. Renal tubules may be unable to reabsorb bicarbonate
b. Renal tubules may be unable to secrete hydrogen ions
c. Plasma chloride is elevated
d. Anion gap is decreased
1226. All the following changes in blood chemistry can occur in severe diarrhea except
a. Decreased pH
b. Decreased bicarbonate
c. Increased pCO2
d. Increased chloride
1227. During compensation of respiratory alkalopsis, all the following changes occur
expert
a. Decreased secretion of of hydrogen ions by renal tubules
b. Increased excretion of sodium in urine
c. Increased excretion of bicarbonate in urine
d. Increased excretion of ammonia in urine
1228. Blood chemistry shows the following changes in compensated respiratory

Acidosis:
a. Increased pCO2 b. Increased bicarbonate
c. Decreased chloride d. All of these
556

1229. Metabolic alkalosis can occur in
a. Severe diarrhea
b. Renal failure
c. Recurrent vomiting
d. Excessive use of carbonic anhyrase inhibitors
1230. Which of the following features are present in blood chemistry in uncompensated
metabolic alkalosis expert?
a. Increased pH b.Increased bicarbonate
c. Normal chloride d. Normal pCO2
1231. One joule is the energy required to

a. Raised the temperature of 1 gm of water by 1ºC
b. Raised the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1ºC
c. Move a mass of 1gm by 1 cm distance by a force of 1 Newton
d. Move a mass of 1kg by 1 m distance by a force of 1 Newton
1232. Organic compound of small molecular size is

c. Creatinine d. Phosphates
1233. Organic substance of large molecular size is

a. Starch b. Insulin
c. Lipids d. Proteins
1234. Body water is regulated by the hormone:

a. Oxytocin b. ACTH
c. FSH d.Epinephrine
1235. Calcium is required for the activation of the enzyme:

a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase b. Fumarase
c. Succinate thiokinase d. ATPase
1236. Cobalt is a constituent of

a. Follic acid b. vitamin B12 c. Niacin d. Biotin
1237. Calcium absorption is inferred by

a. Fatty acids b. Amino acids c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin B12
1238. The average of pH of urine is

a. 5.6 b. 6.0 c. 6.4 d. 7.0
1239. The tissues with the highest total glycogen content are
a. Muscle and kidneys b. Kidneys and liver
c. Liver and muscles d. Brain and Liver
557

Microbiology
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria?

a. are prokaryotes
b. Have peptidoglycan cell walls
c. Have the same shape
d. grow by binary fission
2. which of the following is the most important element of Koch’s germ theory of
disease? The animal shows disease symptom when.
a. The animal has been is contact with a sick animal
b. A microorganism is observed in the animal.
c. A microorganism is inoculated into the animal.
d. A microorganism can be cultured from the animal.
3. Which of the following is a beneficial activity of microoraganisms?

a. Some microoraganisms are used as food for humans
b. Some microoraganisms use carban dioxide
c. Some microoraganisms provide nitrogen for plant growth.
d. All of the above
4. Methanogens, extreme halophiles, and extreme thermophiles belong to the group

of microorganisms:
a. Bacteria b. Archaea
c. Fungi d. Protozoa
5. Which of the following is not the main domain of organisms as proposed by Carl
Woese (1978)
a. Prokarya b. Bacteria
c. Archea d. Eukarya
6. Study of the fungi is called:

a. Parasitology b. Mycology
c. Phycology d. Microbiology
7. One of the following does not match

a. Van Leeuwenhoek (1673): First observer of live microorganisms
b. Pasteur (1876): Proposed germ theory of disease
c. Koch (1882): Discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Fleming, Chain, Florey (1928): Discovered penicillin.
8. The largest group in classification of organisms is:

a. phylum b. kingdom
c. Domain d. Class
558

9. Which of the following is not the domain as proposed by Carl Woese?
a. Eukarya b. Prokarya
c. Bacteria d. Archaea
10. Three domain system is based on which of the following characters?

a. Cell type
b. Difference in rRNA
c. Membrane lipid structure and sensitivy to antibiotics
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following characteristics is not used in bacterial classification in

Bergey’s manual?
a. Gram Stain reaction
b. Cellular morphology
c. Biochemia\cal testing and serology
d. Oxygen requirements and nutritional properties.
12. Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenoviridae families belong to which of

the following group of viruses?
a. Double-stranded RNA
b. Single-stranded (-) RNA, multiple strand type
c. Single-stranded (-) RNA, one strand type
d. Single-stranded (+) RNA, nonenveloped
13. A tuft of flagella is present at one end of a bacterial cell; this condition is called
a. Monotrichous b. Amphitrichous
c. Lophotrichous d. Peritrichous
14. Which part of the flagellum is embedded in the cell envelope of a bacterium?
a. Filament b. Hook
c. Basal body d. Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
15. Which of the following is the function of mesosome is bacteria?

a. Respiration b. Cell division C
c. Sporulation d. All of the above
16. Which of the following chemical is not found in bacterial cell wall?
a. N – acetylgluosamine
b. N – acetylmuramic acid
c. Short chains of aminoacids (peptides)
d. Cellulose
17. Which of the following provides the passage of DNA from one bacterial cell to
another during their conjugation?
a. Flagella b. Pili
c. Fimbrae d. Both’b’ and ‘c’
559

18. Which of the following is the function of capsule in bacteria?
a. Protection against phagocytois
b. Enables adherence to surfaces
c. Prevents desiccation and provides nutrients
d. All the above
19. Spherical bacteria present in chains are called:

a. Streptococci b. Staphylococci C
c. Streptobacilli d. Sarcinae
20. Bacteria with filamentous and branched body are called :

a. Vibrios b. Spirilla
c. Spirochetes d. Actinomycetes
21. According to Pasteur statements which one of the following is true

a. Living organisms discriminate between stereoisomers
b. Fermentation is a aerobic process
c. Living organisms doesn’t discriminate between stereoisomers
d. Both a and b
22. The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and cyanbacteria
is
a. Chlorophyll a b. Chlorophyll b
c. Porphyrin d. Rhodapsin
23. During Bio Geo chemical cycle some amount of elemental carbon was utilized by
the microorganisms. The phenomenon is called as a
a. Dissimilation b.Immobilization
c. Decomposition d. Neutralization
24. Who demostted that open tubes of broth remained free of bacteria when air was
free of dust
a. Abbc Spallanzani b.John Tyndall
c. Francisco Redi d. Pasteur
25. Teverse isolation would be appropriated for

a. a patient with tuberculosis b. a patient who has had minor surgery
c. a patient with glaucoma d. a patient with leukemia
26. The symptom “general feeling of illness and discomfort” is called

a. Cystitis b. Malaise
c. Anaphylactic shock d. Arthritis
27. On soybean which of the following forms symbiotism

a. Azatobactro paspali b. Rhizobium
c. Nostoc d. Bradyrhizobium
560

28. Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage mucleic acid out not protein enters
the host cell during infection
a. Alfred D.Hershey & Leonard Tatum in 1951.
b. Alfred D.Hershey & Zindar Lederberg in 1951.
c. Alfred D.Hershey & Martha Chase in 1952.
d. Alfred D.Hershey & Macleod in 1952.
29. Spirulina belongs to

a. Xanthophyceae b. cyanophyceae
c. Rhodophyceae d. Pheophyceae
30. The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was

a. IgG b. IgM
c. IgA d. IgD
31. The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the enzyme

a. Coenzyme Q b. Luciferase
c. Lactose dehydrogenase d. Carboxylase reductase
32. Pick out the vector using in human Genome project

a. Phagemid vector
b. Yeast artificial chromosomes
c. Cosmid vectors
d. Yeast episomal plasmids
33. Salt and sugar preserve foods because they

a. Make them acid b. Produce a hypotonic environment
c. Deplete nutrient d. produce a hypertonic envirment
34. In a fluorescent microscope the objective lens is made of

a. Glass b. Quartz
c. Polythene d. None of these
35. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen is by means of

a. Bilogical process b. Lightining
c. Ultraviolet light d. All of the above
36. Which one of the following fungi is the most serious threat in a bone marrow
transplant unit?
a. Candida albicans b. Aspergillus
c. Blastomyces d. Cryptococus
37. Direct microscopic count can be done with the aid of

a. Neuberg chamber b. Anaerobic chamber
c. Mineral oil d. Olive oil
561

38. The image obtained in a compound microscope is
a. Real b. Virtual
c. Real inverted d. Virtual inverted
39. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation

a. Ketolase b. Zymase
c. Peroxidase d. Oxidase
40. Which type of spores are produced sexually?

a. Conidia b. Sporangiospores
c. Ascospores d. None of these
41. Baterial transformation was discovered by

a. Ederberg and Tatum b. Beadle and Tatum
c. Griffith d. None of theses
42. Father of microbiology is ©

a. Louis Pasteur b. Lister
c. A.V Leeuwenhock d. Robert Koch
43. The antiseptic method was first demonstrated by

a. Lwanowski b. Lord Lister
c. Edward Jenner d. Beijerinck
44. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by

a. Robert Koch b. Louis Paster
c. Lister d. Edward Jenner
45. The term mutation was coined by

a. Pasteur b. Darwin c. Hugo devries d. Lamark
46. Compound microscope was discovered by

a. Antony von b. Pasteur c. Johnson & Hans d. None of these
47. Father of medical microbiology is

a. Pasterur b. Jenner c. Koch d. A.L.Hock
48. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as

a. Sporadic b. Pandemic
c. Epidemic d. Endamic
49. Prophylasix of cholera is

a. Protected water supply
b. Environmental sanitation
c. Immunization with killed vaccines
d. All of these
562

50. In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective lense ?
a. Magnetic coils b. Superfine glass
c. Aluminium foils d. Electrons
51. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is

a. Absence of locomotion
b. Absence of nuclear envelope
c. Absence of nuclear material
d. Absence of protein synthesis
52. The stalked particles on the cristae of mitochondria are called

a. Glyoxysomes b. Peroxisomes
c. Oxysomes d. Spherosomes
53. Antiseptic methods were first introduced by

a. Lord Lister b. Iwanowski
c. Beijernick d. Edward Jenner
54. Kuru disease is Humans is caused by

a. Bacteria b. Viroides
c. Prions d. Mycoplasma
55. A mutation that produces termination codon is

a. Mis – sense mutation b. Neutral mutation
c. Non – sense mutation d. Reverse mutation
56. During conjunction the genetic material will be transferred through

a. Cell wall b. Medium
c. Pili d. Capsule
57. Antiseptic surgery was discovered by

a. Joseph Lister b. Ernest Abbe
c. Pasteur d. Beijerink
58. Tuberculosis is a
a. Water borne disease b. Air borne disease
c. Food borne disease d. Atthropod borne disease
59. Phagocytic phenomenon was discovered by

a. Louis Pasteur b. Alexander Fleming
c. Metchnikof d. Robert Koch
60. Meosomes are also known as

c. Plasmids d. Chondroids
563

61. Hybridoma technique was firch discovered by
a. Kohler and Milstein b. Robert Koch
c. ‘D’ Herelle d. Land Steiner
62. The minimum number of bacteria required to produce clinical evidence of death
in a susceptible animal under standard condition is called
a. LD50 b. ID
c. MLD d. All of these
63. In Electron Microscope source of electron is from

a. Mercury lamp b. Tungsten metal
c. both a and b d. None of these
64. Griffith (1928) reported the phenomenon of transformation first in

a. H. influenza b. Bacillus species
c. Pneumococci d. E.coli
65. The resolution power of the compound microscope is

a. 0.2 micron b. 0.2 millimeter
c. 0.2 Angstrom units d. 0.2 centimeter
66. The capacity of a given strain of microbial species to produce disease is known
as
a. Pathogen b. Virulence
c. Infection d. None of these
67. Lederberg and Tatum (1946) described the phenomena of

a. Conjuction b. Transfomation
c. Mutation d. Plasmids
68. Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced by
a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur
c. Jenner d. Leeuwenhock
68. Electron microscope gives magnification up to
a. 100 X b. 2000X
c. 50,000 X d. 2,00,000 X
69. Methanogens, extreme halophiles, and extreme thermophiles belong to the group
of microorganisms:
a. Bacteria b. Archaea
c. Fungi d. Protozoa
70. The inventor of Microscope is

a. Galileo b. Antony von
c. Pasteur d. Koch
564

71. First Pasteur conducted fermentation experiments in
a. Milk b.Food material
c. Fruit juices d. None of these
72. Modern concepts of chemotherapy was proposed by

a. Paul Ehrlich b. Joseph lister
c. Elie Metchnikoff d. None of these
73. The role of phagocytosis was discovered by

a. Paul Ehrlich b. Joseph lister
c. Elie Matchikoff d. Pasteur
74. L – Forms are discovered by

a. Klein Berger b. Louis Pasterur
c. Robert Koch d. Antony von Leeuwenhock
75. The causative organism of Rocky Mountain spotted fever was furst described by
a. Howard Ricketts b. da Rocha – lima
c. Both a and b d. Robert Koch
76. The term becteriophage was coined by

a. De’Herelle b. F.W. Twort
c. Beijernick d. Jwanosky
77. Viral infection of bacteria was discovered by

a. De’Herelle b. F.W. Twort
c. Beijernick d. Jwanosky
78. Eye cannot resolve any image less than

a. 1ìm b. 2ìm c. 7ìm d. 5ìm
79. Compound Microscope was discovered by

a. A.V Lewanhoek b. Pasteur
c. Janssen and Hans d. None of these
80. Electron Microscope was discovered by

a. Prof. Fritz b. Janssen and Hans
c. Knoll and Ruska d. None of these
81. Magnification range of light microscope is

a. 1000x – 5000x b. 1000x – 2000x
c. 500x – 1000x d. None of these
82. Condensation of light in light Microscope is by

a. Objective b. Condensor
c. Ocular d. All of these
565

83. Light gathering capacity of Microscope is called
a. Numerical aperture b. Angular aperture
c. Both a and b d. None of these
84. If 10x and 40x objectives are used ( air is medium), the numerical aperture is
a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 1.0 d . 1.8
85. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two separate objects, is
called
a. Resolving power b. Wave length
c. N.A d. None of these
86. Limit of resolution of compound microscope is

a. 0.018 Ao b. 0.1
c. 5ìm d. 1mm
87. Source of light in fluorescence microscopy is from

a. Mercury lamp b. Sunlight
88. Who perfected a magnetic lens in 1927

a. Gabor b. Broglie
c. Busch d. None of these
89. The magnification power of electron microscope developed by Knell and Ruska is
a. 10,000x b. 12,000x
c. 15,000x d. 20,000x
90. In electron microscope source of electrons is from

a. Mercury lamp b. Tungsten metal
91. The electron passed out from the specimen are called
a. Primary electrons b. Secondary electrons
c. Tertiary electrons d. None of these
92. Mycorrhiza was firsh observed by

a. Funk b. Frank
c. Fisher d. Crick
93. The transfer of genetic material during transformation is proved basing of

Griffith,s experiment by
a. Avery Macleod & Mc.Carthy
b. Lederberg & Taulum
c. Zinder & Lederberg
d. Watson & Crick
566

94. Phagocytic theory was proposed by
a. Louis Pasteur b. Elie Metchnikoff
c. Behring d. Widal
95. Anaphylaxia was first observed by

a. Parter & Richet b. Coombs
c. Gell d. None of these
96. Primary mediators in anaphylaxis

a. Histamine b. Seratonin
c. Heparin d. All of these
97. Arthus reaction was discovered by

a. Marrice Arthus b. Von Perquit
c. Richet d. Porter
98. Serum sickness reaction was discovered by

a. Marrice Arthus b. Von perquit
c. Richet d. Porter
99. Hybridoma technique was developed by

a. Kochler & Milston b. Niel’s Jerne
100. Disease that effects many people at different countries is termed as

a. Sporadic b. Pandemic
c. Epidemic d. Endemic
101. If the vectors transmit the infection mechanically they are called
a. Biological vectors b. Mechanical vectors
c. Biological reservoir d. Both a and b
102. If a person can be infected by direct contact with infected tissue of another
Person, it is termed as
a. Indirect contact transmission
b. Attachment
c. Direct contact transmission
d. None of these
103. Reduction of virulence is known as

a. Exaltation b. Attenuation
104. Enhancement of virulence is known as

a. Exaltation b. Attenuation
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105. The virulence of a pathogen is usually measured by
a. LD b. MLD
c. ID d. All of the above
106. Staphylococcus sureus was isolated by

a. Rosenbach b. Louis Pasteur
c. Passet d. Sir Alexander Ogston
107. Pseudomonas aeruginosa was first named

a. Schroeter and Gessard b. Robert Koch
c. Louis Pasteur d. Edward Jenner
108. T. pallidum was discovered by

a. Robert Koch b. Schaudinn and Hotfman
c. Louis Pasteur d. Edward Jenner
109. Neisseria gonorrhoeae was first described by

a. Neisser in 1879 b. Pasteur in 1878
c. Robert Koch d. None of these
110. Rh factor of the blood was discovered by scientist

a. Louis Pasteur b. Landsteiner and Weiner
c. Janskey d. Moss
111. Trepanema pallidum was discovered by

a. Schaudinn and Hoffman b. Louis Pasteur
c. Burgey d. Laennec e. None of these
112. Fluroscent substance used in fluorescent microscop are

a. Quinine sulphate b. Auramine
c. All of these d. None of these
113. Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria

a. Pseudomonas
b. E. coli
c. Haemophilus influenza
d. Haemo3philus streptococcu
114. In Streptococcus facalls, the conjugation takes place at

a. pili b. Cell membrane
c. Cell well d. Flagella
115. The infected mad dogs my contain

a. Nergi bodies b. Niagri bodies
c. Negri bodies d, Neisser bodies
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116. What disease the Nesser will produce?
a. Mumps b. Rubella
c. polio d. Measles
117. Rancidity is spoiled foods is due to

a. Lipolytic organisms b. Proteolytic organisms
c. Toxigenic organisms d. Saccharolytic microbes
118. The Bacterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is (

a. Escherichia b. Klebsiella
c. Proteius d. Serratia
119. The functions of plasmid are

a. DNA replication b. Protein synthesis
c. Cell wall synthesis d. None of the above.
120. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that

a. Fail to reproduce on artificial meida
b. Have a rigid cell wall
c. Are resistant to penicillin
d. Stain well with Gram’s stain
121. The etiologic agent of botulism is a

a. Neurotoxin b. Endotoxin
c. Enterotoxin d. All of the above
122. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during

a. Lag phase b. Log
c. Stationary d. Decline
123. Protein particles which can infect are called

a. Virons b. Prions
c. Nucleoida d. None of these
124. In most of purple bacteria, the light harvesting centers are

a. B 850 & Fe-S b. B 850 & B 875
c. B 845 & B 875 d. B 850 & B 830
125. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in

a. Peptidoglycan b. Lippolysacharido
c. Theichonic acid d. Inner membrane
126. Which one of the following was Gramnegative chemolithotrophic bacteria?

a. Siderococcus b. E coli
c. Spirellum d. Mycoplasms
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127. The mode of reproduction which occur in mycoplasms is
a. Budding b. Bursting
c. Binary fission d. Binary fission
128. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses

a. Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA
b. Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA
c. RNA, helical with envelope
d. ds DNA, brick shape
129. Which one of the following produce typical fried egg appearance colonies On
soild media?
a. Mycobacteria b. Mycoplasts
c. Mycoplasms d. Bacteroides
130. An organism that is osmophilic and has specific requirements for sodium
cholire resembles?
a. Halophile b. Basophile
c. Barophile d. Xerophile
131. A population of cells derived from a single cell are called

a. Monclonal cells b. Clones
c. Protoplasts d. Sub culture
132. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce

a. Lactic acid only
b. Lactic acid + H2O + CO2
c. Lactic acid + CO2
d. Lactic acid + alchohol + CO2
133. In which of the following microorganism, conjuction tube was not produced
during conjunction process?
a. Thiobaillus thiooxidence
b. T. ferroxidance
c. Tetrahymena thermophila
d. Cryptaporiclium
134. Which of the following is most similar to Rickettsia and Chlamydia?

a. Bdellovibrio b. Clostridium
c. Mycobacterium d. Mycoldaima
135. How would you distinguish pseudomonas species from E- coli?

a. Gram Staning
b. Morphology
c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration
d. All of the above
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136. Which of the following is pathogenic to humans?
a. Spirogyra b. Cephaleuros
c. Prototheca d. Both b and C
137. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively used in production of

a. Avirulent phases
b. Single cell proteins
c. Transgenic plants
d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
138. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are

a. Fungi b. Commensels
c. Bacteriophages d. None of these
139. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from

a. Cattle b. Sheeps
c. Rats d. Both a and b
140. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on Mac Conkey’s medium are

a. Purple colored b. Pink colored
c. Pale colored d. Green colored
141. Staining material of gram positive bacterium is

a. Fast green b. Haemotoxyion
c. Crystal violet d. Safranin
142. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is

a. Photosynthesis
b. Chemosysthesis
c. Breakdown of organic compounds
d. Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
143. Cenromere is that part of chromosome where

a. Nucleoli are formed
b. Crossing over takes places
c. Chromatids are attached
d. Naking occurs
144. Somatic cell of the adult body are haploid in many except
a. Vertebrates b. Invertebrates c. Fungi d. Vascular plants
145. Congenital diseases are

a. Diseases present at birth b. Deficiency diseases
c. Occur during life d. Spread from one individual to another
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146. The enzyme needed in biological system for joining two molecules is called
a. Lyases b. Diastaes
c. Polymerases d. Hydrolase
147. Meosomes are the part of

a. Plasma membrance b. ER
c. Lysosomes d. Golgi
148. All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except

a. Mycoplasms b. Sperochetes
c. Actinomycetes d. Methanogena
149. Asexual spores which are formed exoenously on peg like sterigmata in
chains are called:
a. Sporangiospores b. Conidia
c. Ascospores d. Basidiospore
150. Which of the following is not a sexual spore?

a. Zoospore b. Zygospore c. Scospore d. Basidiospore
151. Disayophase after the fusion of gametes or hyphae (plasmogamy ) is the

characteristic feature of class:
a. Zvgornvcetes b. Ascomycetes c. Basidiomycetes d. Both b and
c
152. Mushrooms produce which type of the following spores ?

a. Basidiospore b. Ascospores c. Zygospores d. Oospores
153. Pseudohuphae axe formed by:

a. Molds b. Yeasts c. Mushrooms d. Slime molds
154. Synthesis of L-lysine via the a – aminoadipate pathway in fungi is the feature
which the fungi share with:
a. Plants b. Animals c. Bacteria d. None of these
156. Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis?

a. Ringworm on scalp ( Mircosporwn)
b. Favus on scalp ( Trichophyton)
c. Athelete’s foot ( Epidermophyttm)
d. Sporotiidtosis of arms, hands ( Sporothrix)
157. Which of the following is not systemic mycosis?

a. Chromoblastomycosis of legs, feet (several fungal genera)
b. Condidiasis of oral cavity ( candida albicans)
c. Blastomycosis of lungs, skin (Blastomyces dermatidis)
d. Cryptococcosis of ungs, meninges (Cryptococcus neoformans) Axis. A
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158. Adenoviruss, Papillomaviruses, Herperviruses, Poxviruses, and
polyomaviruses belong to the group:
a. I (ds DNA) b. II (ss DNA)
c. ill (ds RNA) d. IV((+) ss RNA) Axis.a
159. Examples of group II viruses having as DNA (+) sense strand are:
a. Togaviruses b. Parvoviruses
c. Circoviruses d. Both b and c
160. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell well

a. Lysozome b. Reductase
c. Protease d. Lysozyme
161. Cows can digest straw because they contain

a. Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms
b. Portein hydrolyzing bacteria
c,. Lipid hgydrolyzing microorganisms
d. Amino acid degrading bacteria
162. The nucleus controls protein synthesis in the cytoplasm by sending

a. Chromatin b. A DNA template
c. m RNA molecule d. A specialized protein
163. The site of energy production in a cell

a. Micro body b. Chromosome
c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria
164. Thylakoid is present in

a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast
c. ER d. Golgi apparatus
165. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic
engineering work in plants ?
a. Clostridum septicum
b. Xanthomonas oriza
c. Bacillus coagulens
d. Agro bacterium tumefaciens
166. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the

production of
a. Insulin b. Interferons
c. Vaccines d. Edible proteins
167. ‘Nova Plantarum Genera’, the book on fungi, was written in 1729 by:
a. M.J Berkley b. G.D Porta
c. P.A Micheli d. C.H Person
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168. Extensively branched, filamentous body of a fungus is called:
a. Hypha b. Mycelium c. Mold d. Mushroom
169. One of the following is not the major group of true fungi:
a. Slime molds b. Molds
c. Yeasts d. Mushrooms
170. Fungi belong to which of the following categories?

a. Autotrophs b. Chemoautotrophs
c. Chemoorganotrophs d. Phagotrophs
171. The chyirid fungus Batrachochytrium dendrebatidis is responsible for a

worldwids decline in populations of which of the following animal groups?
a. Fish b. Amphibians
c. Turtles d. Crocodiles
172. About 80-90% of the fungal cell wall is made up of:

a. Cellulose b. Chitin
c. Proteins d. Lipids
173. Find out the mismatch between the virus family and the group to which it
belongs:
a. Reoviridae - Group III (ds RNA)
b. Picornaviridae – Group IV [ ss RNA(+) 1
c. Orthomyxoviridae – Group V [ ss RNA(-)1
d. Paramyxoviridae – Group IV [ ss RNA (+) 1
174.Which of the following viruses has double stranded RNA?

a. Rhinovirus b. Reovirus c. Rotovirus d. Both b and c
175. Bacteria that are unable to synthesize their own food materials are called:
a. Chemoautotrophs b. Heterotrophs
c. Saprotrophs C d. Parasites
176. Bacteria which grow best between 02C and 30C temperatures are called:
a. Psychromphilic b. Mesophilic
c. Thermophilic C d. Hyperthennophilic
177. One of the following bacteria does not belong to the phylum Actinobacteria:
A. Mycoplasma b. Micrococcus
c. Corynebacterium d. Mycobacterium
178. Which of the following cocci bacteria is Gram negatice?

a. Staphylococcus b. Sterptococcus
c, Enterococcus d. Niesseria
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179. Which of the following is not true about Streptococcus?
a. Gram-positive b, Non- sporing
c. Non – capsulated d. Non – motile
180. Which of the following isnot true about Pneumococcus?

a. Gram- positive, encapsulated, non- motile and non – sporing
b. Catalase and oxidase negative
c. Cannot ferment sugars and insulin
d. Causes pneumonia, sinusitis, meningitis, otitis media, peritonitis etc.
181. Which of the following is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

a. Urethritis, prostatitis, epididymitis, etc. in males.
b. Vaginitis, cervicitis, bartholinjtis, endometrjtjs, salping. Ifis in females.
c. Septic arthritis, ulcerative endocarditis, ophthalmia neonatorum.
d. All of the above
182. Which of the following diseases is not caused by Clostridia?

a. Tetanus and gas gangrene
b. Food poisoing/ gastroenteritis
c. Typhoid and paratyphoid
d. Necrotising eneteritis and antibiotic associated diarrhea and colitis.
183. Which of the following causes gas gangrene?

a. Clostridum tetani b. Clostridium perfringens C
c. C. botilinum d. All of the above
184. Which of the following is sporulating, non- motile, encapsulated and cause
food poisoning>
a. Clostridium tetani b. C.botulinum C
c. perfringens d. All of the above
185. Which of the following enterbacteria causes pneumonia, urinary track

infections, septicemia, ankylosing spondylitis and soft tissue infections?
a. Escherichia b. Klebsiella C
c. Salmonella d. Shigella
186. Which of Pseudomonads is an emerging opportunistic pathogen of

nosocomial infections?
a. P. aeruginosa b. P.c hlororaphis C
c. P. fragi C d. P. fluorescens
187. Which of the following vibnos causes 95% of seafood related deaths?
a. V. cholera b. V. parahaemolyticus c. V. vulnificus d. V. fischeri
188. Retroviruses belong to which of the following groups?

a. Group V b. Group VI c. Group VII d. both b and c
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190. A small independent RNA molecule with virus like properties is called
a. Virion b. Viroid c. Sateffite RNA d. Virusoid
191. Which of the following viral infection to mother in the past trimester of
pregnancy may cause stillbirth or congenital defects in the child?
a. Measles b. Mumps
c. Rubella d. Chickenpox
192. Common colds are caused by:

a. Rhinoviruses
b. Coronaviruses
c. Adenoviruses, Coxsackie viruses, Respiratory syncytial viruses (RSV) and
Orthomyxoviruses
d. All of the above
193. One of the following is not true about influenza viruses:

a. They are icosahedral ss DNA viruses (Group II)
b. They have an envelope of protein, a lipid bilayer, and external glycoproteins
c. Their genome is segmented into 8 distinct fragments
d. New starains are produced by genetic drift (causing epidemic) and by antigenic
shift (causing pandemics)
194. Which of the following Hepatitis viruses is a hepandnavirus (ds DNA –RT)?
a. HAV b. HBV
c. HCV d, HDV
195. Which of the following viruses is transmitted by rodents?

a. Norwalk like viruses b. Rabies virus
c. Hantaviruses d. Rotavirus
196. One of the following is not a waterborne or food borne virus?

a. Poliovirus b. Hepatits A
c. Norwalk – like virus d. Ebola virus
197. Amoebic dysentery is caused by:

a. Amoeba proteus
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Balantinium coil
d. Giardia lamblia
198. Find out a mismatch between the following protozoans and the disorders
caused by them
a. Balantinium coil- Diarrhea
b. Giarida lambilia- Diarrhea, abdominal pain, a chronic fatigue syndrome
c. Trypnosoma brucei – Toxoplasmosis
d. Plasmodium sp- Malaria
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199. Find out a mismatch betwwn the names of the following nematodes:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides – Roundworm
b. Enterobius vermicularis – Hookworm
c. Dirofilaria immitis – Heart worm
d. Trichuris trichuria – Whipworm
200. Which of the following flatworms is a tapeworm?

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Clonorchis sinensis
d. Fasciola hepatica

Microbiology
201. Which of the following is the beef tapeworm?

a. Taenia saginata b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum d. Dipylidium caninu
202. Physician induced infection from investigative, therapeutic or surgical

procedure is called:
a. A typical infection b. Acute infection
c. latrogenic infection d. Generalized infection
203. When a patient already suffering from an infection acquires another infection
from another patient/ source is called:
a. Chronic infection b. Cross infection
c. Contagious infection d. Latent infection
204. Hospital induced infecton acquired during the stay of a patient is called :
a. Localized infection b. Nosocomial infection
c. Secondary infection d. Reinfection
205. Presence of pathogenic bacteria in the blood is known as:

a. Bacteremia b. Septicemia
c. Toxemia d. All of the above
206. Health, according to W.H.O., definition is :

a. Physical well being b. Mental well being
c. Social well being d. All of the above
207. The interval between exposture to infection and the appearance of the first
symptoms is called:
a. Incubation b. Incubation period
c. Latent period d. All of the above
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208. Organisms that live in an intimate, non- parasitic relationship with the host are
called:
a. Parasites b. Saprophytes
c. Commensals d. Symbionts
209. The antibody produced in response to and capable of neutralizing a specific

substance of biological origin is called:
a. Antitoxin b. Endatoxin
c. Exotoxin d. Toxin
210. Find a mismatch between the infection and its

a. Plague – Rats b. Hvdatd – cats
c. Rabies – Dogs d. Zoophilic dermatophytes cats and dogs
211. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of

a. Protein and DNA b.Protein and mRNA
c. Protein and rRNa d.Protein and tRNA
212. The photorespiration involves

a. Calvin cycle b. Hatch – Slack cycle
c. Glycolate cycle d. Kreb’s Cycle
213. Bioleaching is done by

a. Protozoa b. Bacteria
c. Algae d, All of the above
214. Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are called

a. Elementary bodies b. Pascheur bodies
c. Negri bodies d. Guarnieri bodies
215. Which of the following genera is most likely to contain organisms capable of
surviving high temperature?
a. Vibrio b. Pseudomonas
c. Torula d. Coxiella
216. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as
a. Co – factors of enzymes b. Building block of important amino acids
c. Constituents of hormones d. Binder of cell structure
217. The apparatus used to maintain a continous culture

a. chemostat b, Autostat c. Thermostat d. Both a and C
218. The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acidsby bacteria
a. Nessler’s reagent test b. Proteolytic test
c. Lactose test d. Rose aindole reagent test
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219. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium b. Staphylococcus
c. Streptococcus d, None of these
220. Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is characteristic feature of the
dieases
a. Rubella b. Measles
c. Mumps d, Influenza
221. A bacterium containing prophage is called as

a. Lytic b. Lysogen
c. Lytogen d, None of these
222. The most infectious food borne diseases is

a. Tetanus b. Dysentery
c, Gas gangrene d. Botulism
223. An example for common air borne epidemic diseases

a. Influenza b. Typhoid
c. Encephalitis d. Metaphage
224. Viral genome can become integrated into the bacterial genemes are known as
a. Prophage b. Temperatephage
c. Bacteriophage d. Metaphage
225. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of

a. Toxigenic microbes b. Proteolytic microbes
c. Saccharolytic microbes d. Lipolytic microbes
226. Virion means

a. Infections virus particles b. Non – infections particles
c, Incomplete particles d, Defective virus particles
227. Virulence of the microorganisms can be reduced by

a. Attenuation b. A virulence c. Inactivation d. Freezing
228. The test used for detection of typhoid fever

a. WIDAL test b. ELISA
c. Rosewaller test d, Westernblotting
229. Bacteriophage capable of only lytic growth is called

a. Temperate b, Avirulent c. Virulent d, None of these
230. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as

a. Fried – Landers bacillus b. Kleb’s hofflers bacillus
c. Frchs bacillus d, Koch’s bacillus
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231. Acridine dyes are more effective against
a. Gram positive b. Gram negative
c. Ricke Hsia d. Mycoplasma
232. In bacteria pigment bearing structure are

a. Chloroplast b. Protoplast
c. Sphaeroplast d. Chromatophores
233. The procedure of differential staining of bacteria was developed by

a. A.H. Gram b. H.C Gram
c. N.C Gram d, H.A Gram
234. Intermediate group of pathogen between bacteria and viruses which ae

intracellular parasites are called
a. Mucoplasmas b. Rickettsias
c. Prions d. Virusoides
235. Bacillus is an example of

a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteria
c. virus d. Viroid
236. Ameobic dysentery in humans is caused by

a. Plasmodium b. Paramecium
c. Yeast d. Entamoeba histolytica
237. Viral genome that can become integrated into bacteria genome is called
a. Prophage b. Temperate phage
c. Bacteriophage d. Metaphage
238. Cytochromes are

a. Oxygen acceptors b. ATP acceptors
c. Electron acceptors d. Protein acceptors
239. The cell having F plasmid in the chromosomes were termed as

a. Hfr b. F- c. Hbr d,C+
240. Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are

a. Mesosomes b. Plasmids c. mitochondria d. Chromophores
241. Spirochete is
a. Gonococci b. Strphylococci
c. Treponema pallidum d. Streptococci
242. Histones are found in

a. Prokaryotes b. Eukaryotes
c. Viruses d, None of these
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243. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is
a. Thick
b. Lipids are present
c. Teichoic acids are absent
d. None of these
244. Cytoplasmic streaming is present in

a. Prokaryotes b, Animals
c, Eukaryotes d, Both a and b
245. The motile bacteria is

a. S. typhi b, K. pneumonia
c. B. anthracis d. shigella
246. The stain used to demonstrate fungus

a. Albert b, Nigerosin
c, Lactophenol cotton blue d. None of these
247. Exotoxina is
a. Heat labile b, Heat stable
c, Part of cell wall d. Polymerized complexes
248. The viruses that attack bacteria are

a. Bacterial viruses b, Bacterial pathogens
c. Bacteriophages d. Various
249. The size of virus particle may range

a. 0.02-0.2 im b. 0.5-10 im
c. 0.015-0.2im d, 0.1-100im
250. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by (d)

a. Mitosis b. Meiosis
c. Conjugation d. Plemorphic froms
251. Rod shaped bacteria are known as

a. Cocci b b. Comma forms
c. Bacilli d. Rickettsia
252. All the groups of bacteria have cell wall

a. Mycobacteria b. Mycoplasmas
c. Clostrida d, Rickettsia
253. Thickness of cell wall ranges from

a. 9-10 nm b. 12-13 nm
c, 10-25 nm d, 30-40 nm
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254. Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are found in
a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteria
c. Fungi d. None of these
256. Meosomes are

a. Kind of ribosomes
b, Formed during cell lysis
c, A part of cell wall
d. Principal sites of respiratoty enzymes
257. The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because of

a. Capsule b. Cell wall
c. Cell membrane d, Slime layer
258. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of

a. Polypeptide b. Polynucleotides
c, Polysaccharides d, polypeptides or polysaccharides
259. The cell wall deficient from of bacteria is

a. Mycoplasma b. ‘L’ form
c. Protoplast d. Spheroplast
260. Mesosomes are also known as

a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplasts
c. Golgi complex d. Chondroids
261. The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is shown to
reside in the
a. Cell wall b. Nucleus
c, Cell membrane d, Mesosomes
262. Capsule formation occurs in the presence of

a. Albumin b, Charcoal
c. Serum d. Starch
263. The virulence determining antigen of microorganisms may be

a. Proteins and polysaccharides
b. Carbohydrate – protein complexes
c, Polysaccharide – Phospholipid – Protein complexes
d. All of these
264. Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are a. Mitochondria b. Golgi complex

c, Lysosomes d. Ribosomes
265. Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by

a. Fimbria b. Flagella c. Cytoskeleton d. Both a and b
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266. Fimbriae are demonstrated by
a. Culture b. Gram Stain
c. Biochemical reactions d. Haemaggulation test
267. The motile bacteria is

a. Salmonella typhi b. Klebsiella pneumonia
c. Bacillus anthracis d, Shigella flexneri
268. Following cocci are non – motile except

a. Staphylococcus b. Meningococcus
c, Gonococcus d, Rhodococcus agilis
269. Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of

a. Lipids b, Proteins
c. Polymetaphosphates d, polysaccharide
270. Metachromatic granules can be stained with

a. Saffranine b. Methylene blue
c. Crystal violet d, Pienic acie
271. Bacteria multiply by

a. Spore formation b, Simple binary fission
c, Conjugation d. Gametes
272. Bacterial spores are

a. Weakly acid fast b. Strongly acid test
c. Alcohol fast d. Non acid fast
273. Endospores can be stained with

a. Safranine b. Crystal violet
c. Methylyne blue d. Malachite green
274. The following bacteria produce pigment, except

a. Pseudomonas pyocyaneus
b. Serratia marcescens
c, D. Pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus aureus
275. The order of stains in Gram – Staining procedure is

a. Crystal violet, lodine solution, Alcohol, Saffranine
b. Iodine solution, Crystal violet, Saffranine, Alcohol
c. Alcohol, Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine
d. All of these
276. The percentage of alcohol used in Gram Staining is

a. 75% b. 90% c. 60% d. 25%
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277. Gram Positive bacteria appear as
a. Pink b. Violet
c. both a & b d. None of these
278. Gram negative bacteria appear as

a. Pink b. Violet
c. Both a&b d, None of these
279. The action of alcohol during Gram staining is

a. Allows the color b. It adds color
c. Decolorises the cell d, None of these
280. Lipid contents is more in (a)

a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria
c. Same in both d. None of these
281. Cell- wall is

a. Thick in Gram positive that Gram negative
b. Thick in Gram negative that Gram positive
c. Equal in both
d. In Gram negative cell-wall is absent
282. The Lipid content present is Gram positive bacterial cell – wall si
a. 1-10% b. 1-5%
c. 2-8% d. none of these
283. Rickettsiae stained by this technique respond as

a. Gram positive
b. Gram negative
c. Between positive and negative
d. none of these
284. Chlamydiae occur in

a. Elementary bodies b. Reticulate bodies
c. Complex structure d, a and b
285. Chlamydiae can be stained better with

a. Ziehi neelsen staining
b. Castaneda & Machiavellostains
c, Giminez stains
d, Both a and c
286. Algae means

a. Fresh water organisms b. Sea weeds
c. Fresh water weeds d. None of these
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287. The study of algae is known as
a. Algalogy b. Phycology
c. Mycolody d. Bacteriology
288. The free floting algae are knowm as

a. Phytoplankins b, Benthons
c. Sea weeds d. None of these
289. Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by

a. Isogamy b. Anisogamy
c, Oogamy d. All the above
290. In algae, advanced type of sexual reproduction is

a. Isogamy b. Anisogamy
c, Oogamy d. None of these
291. Alginic acids and its salts are obtaines from the wall of
a. Red algae b, Brown algae
c, Green algae d. Red and brown algae
292. The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter which are called
a. Saphrophtes b. Parasites
c, Commensals d. None of these
293. Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range between
a. 0o – 25oC b. 0o – 35oC
c. 10o - 25oC d, 10o -35o C
294. Examples for actinomycetes

a. Streptomyces b. Spirillospora
c,Franka d. Dermatophillia
295. Pellicel is found in only

a. Algae b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Protozons
296. The Largest virus is

a. Parvo virus b. Pox virus
c. Rhabdo virus d. None of these
297. The smallest virus

a. Parvo virus b. Rhabdo virus
c. Pox virus d. adeno virus
298. The extra cellular infection virus particle is called

a. Capsid b. Nucleopsid
c. Virion d. None of these
585

299. Shape of bacteriophage is
a. Brick shape b, Bullet shape
c, Helical shape d. Tadpole shape
300. If only one stain is used for staining a specimen (

a. Simple staining b, Negative Staining
c. Differential Staining d. None of these
301. Other that the sample (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is
called
a. Simple staining b. Negative staining
c, Differential staining d. None of these
302. If more that one stain is used , such staining is called

a. Simple staining b, Negative staining
c. Differential staining d. None of these
303. ‘ Fluorescence’ was first observed by

a. Kohler b, Coons
c, Both a and b d. None of these
304. By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody technique was

developed by
a. Kohler b, Coons
305. During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which improves
contrast of specimen is
a. Positive staining b. Negative Staining
c, Shadow staining d, None of these
306. The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacteria are
a. Nitrates b. Nitrites
c. Ammonium salts d. All of these
307. Archaeo bacteria are known as

a. Halophiles b. Red extreme halophiles
c. Osmophiles d. Extreme thermophiles
308. Nitrire is converted into nitrate by the bacteria

a. Nitrosomonas b. Nitrosocytes
c. Nitrobacter d. Azatobacter
309. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is

a. Alcaligenes b. Pseudomonas
c. Thlobacillus d. None of these
586

310. Bacillus Schlegelli is
a. Hydrogen – Oxydising bacteria
b. Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria
c. Iron – Oxydizing bacteria
d. Nitrite oxidizing bacteria
311. The group of bacteria which depends on organic sources in nature for their
energy requirements. They are said to be
a. Chemotrophs b. Phototrophs
c. Heterotrophes d. Organotrophs
312. Majaority of bacteria are

a. Saprophytes b. Symbionts
c. Commensals d. Parasites
313. Symbionts are

a. Bacteria in symbiotic association
b. the group of fungi in symbiotic association
c. The groups participating in symbiotic association
d. All of these
314. The best example for symbiotic association is

a. E. coli in intentine of man
b. Lichens
c. Normal flora of skin
d. All of the above
315. The enzymes responsible of decomposition is

a. Lipolytic b. Proteolytic
c. Lysozyme d. Both a and b
316. Urea is decomposed by the species

a. Micrococcus sps. b, Nitrosomonas sps,
c, Proteus sps. d,Both a and b
317.Phycobiont is
a. The algal part in Liches b. The fungal part in lichens
c. Laustoria formation d. None of these
318. Parasitic form must contain

a. Capsules b. Cell – wall
c, Endospores d. Flagella
319. The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is

a. Genome b. Gene map
c. Gene pool d, None of these
587

320. Transformation was observed mainly in
a. Bacteriophages b. Temperate phages c, I – phages d. all of these
321. Capsulated forms of bacteria are

a. Virulent b. A virulent c. Useful d. Symbiotic
322. The bacterial cells lparticipating in conjugation are

a. Monocytes b. Fertile cells c. Exconjugants d. None of these
323. Phagocytes are

a. Monocytes b. Macrophages c. Basophils d. All of these
324.The microorganism engulfed by phagocyte resides in a vacuole is

known as
a. Phagosome b. Lysosome c. both a and b d. None of these
325. Toxic products in phagolysosome are

a. H2SO4 b. Singlet O2 c. Superoxide radicals d. All of these
326. During destruction of antigen particle in phagolysosome the product

formed in phagolysosome the product formed during formulation is
a. Acetic acid b. Lactic acid c. Citric acid d. None of these
327. Attenuation means

a. Killing of the bacteria (microorganism) b. Inactivation of bacteria c. More
activation the bacteria d. Both 1 and 2
328. Infection that results in pus formation arer called

a. Focal infection b. Acute infection c. Pyogenic infection d. Chronic infection
329. Presence of viable bacteria in the blood stream is called

a. Viraemia b. Stpticaemia c. Bacteraemia d. Bactericidal
330. Presence of viruses in the blood stream is known as

a. Viraemia b. Bacteraemia c. Serum component .d Pyemia
331. Opsonin is the

a. Cellwall component b. Plasma component c. Serum component d. Cytoplasm
component
332. a – haemolytic bacteria is

a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Str. Pneumonia c. Str. Viridians d. Str. Faecelis
333. The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is

a. Flies b. Horse c. Man d. None of these
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334. Main cause for Cholera is
a. Poverty and insanitation b. Mosquitoes c. Toxin produced by pesticides d. None of
these
335. Vibrio cholera differs from vibrio eltor by

a. It shares some Inaba, Ogawa subtypes with eltor b. Resistant to polymuxin c. Eltor is
non – motile d. Causes less subclinical infections as compared to eltor
336. Cholera vaccine gices protection for

a. 1-3 months b. 3-6 months c. 6-9 months d. 9-12 months
337. Prophylaxis of cholera is

a. protected water supply b. Environmental sanitation c. Immunization with killed
vaccines d. All of these
338. Sh. Dysenteriae is also known as

a. Sh.shiga b. Sh.schmitzi c. Both a and b d. Sh.para dysenteriae
339. Acid fast bacteria are

a. Neisseria b. Staphylococci c. Mycobacteria d. All of the above
340. Mycobacteria are stained with

a. Gram’s staining b. Simple Staining c. both a and b d. Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining
341. Niacin test is positive in case of

a. Corynebacterium b. M. tuberculosis c. M. bovis d. M. avium
342. Lepromin test

a. Is negative in tubercular leprosy b. Positive in lepromatous type
c. Indicated delayed hypersensitivity test d. Indicates infection
343. Streptococcus forms causes which type of infection?

a. Fever b. Zoonotic c. Pyogenic d. None of these
344. Streptococcus pyofenes classification is based on

a. Protein M b. Protein T c. Protein R d. Polysaccharide C
345. a- heamolytic streptococci are also known as

a. Str. Pyogenes b. Virlence group c. Viridans group d. None of these
346. Streptolysin O is inactivated by

a. CO2 b. Nitrogen c. Oxygen d. Serum
347. Streptolysin ‘S’ is

a. Oxygen unstable b. Thermostable c. Oxygen stable d. None of these
589

348. Influenza virus is identified by using
a. Haemoggulutinin inhibition test b. Tissue culture method c. Embroynated eggs d.
Plaque formation
349. Growth of influenza virus is identified by

a. Cytopathic effects b. Hela cells c. Both a and b d. None of these
350. Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species except

a. B. abortus b. B. melienasis c. B. suis d. B. canis
351. “ Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in

a. A typical mycobacteria b. Brucella c. Strptococcus d. Bordetella pertusis
352. Of the following, this a capsulated organism

a. Bacillus anthracis b. Escherichia-coli c. Corynebacterium d. Brucella
353. Anthrax is a
a. Vector borne b. Zoonotic infection c. Wound bone d. Soil borne
354. Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect

a. Bacillus anthracis b. Brucella c. Corybacterium d. None of these
355. Gasganagarene bacillus is

a. Facultative anaerobe b. Obligate anaerobe c. Facultative aerobe d. Obligate aerobe
356. Congulase test is used for

a. Salmonella b. Staphylococcus c. Bordetella d. Pneumococcus
357. Albert staining is a type of :

a. Simple staining b. Differential staining c. Special staining d. Both b and c
358. Which of the following is the purposes of bacterial culture?

a. Identification of pathogenic organisms b. Isolation for study and making viable counts
c. Determining antibiotic Sensitivity, preparation of antigens and vaccines d. All of the
above
359. A special medium inhibits self- destruction and multitification of microbes but
maintains ‘status que’ condition. These are the properties of:
a. Enrichment medium b. Differential medium c. Transport medium d. Selective medium
7. Which of the following method (solid medium is used for bacteriophage typing?
a. Streak method b. Lawn method c. Stroke method d. Stab method
360. Which of the following method of culture is used to make an estimate of viable
bacterial count?
a. Stab method b. Pour plate culture method c. Sweep plate mthod d. Both b and c
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361. Which of the following types of media would not be used to culture aerobes?
a. Selective media b. Reducing media c. Enrichment media d. Differential media
362. The trace elements refer to:

a. The elements nitrogen, phosphours, and sulfur b. Viramins c. ‘/small mineral
requirements d. Toxic substances
363. HIV is belonging to

a. Retro viridae b. Rhabdo viridae c. Toga Viridae d. Paramyxo viridea
364. Special feature of Retro viruses

a. Reverse transcriptase b. RNA directed DNA polymerases c. Noth a & b d. Boils
365. AIDS virus is

a. RNA virus b. DNA virus c. Retro virus d,. Entero virus
366. AIDS is caused by

a. HTLV- I b. Bunya virus c. HTVL-III d. All
367. Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with AIDS
pneumonia?
a. Klebsiella b. Str. Pneumonia c. Mycoplasma d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
368. Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in

a. 3 Weeks b. 6 Weeks c. 9 Weeks d. 12 Weeks
369.Following is the marker of HIV infection in blood

a. Reverse transcriptase b. DNA polymerase c. RNA polymerase d. None of these
370. Which of the following is the most specific in diagnosis of AIDS

a. IHA b. Western blot c. ELISA d, Immuno electrophoresis
371. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is
called
a. Intrinsic period b. Incubation period c. Window period d. None of these
372. Screening test for AIDS is

a. Western blot test b. ELISA test c. Both a and b d. VDRL test
373. Confiramatory test for AIDS is

a. Western blot test b. ELISA test c. Karpas test d.Fujerbio test
374. The most common infection in AIDS is

a.LGV b. CMV c. Pnemocystis carnii d. Syphilis
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375. During AIDS, HIV infects
a. CD3 lymphocytes b. CD4 lymphoctes c, CD2 lymphocytes d. blymphocytes
376. Lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis is done by

a. CFT b. Peripheral smear c.Blood culture d. All of these
377. Those fungi which do not have a sexual stage are classified as
a. Phycomycetes b. Ascomycetes c. Basidiomycetes d. Fungi imperfecti
378. Tinea capitis is

a. Ring worm of the foot b. Ring worm of scalp c. Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body
d. both a and c
379.Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by

a. Finding bacteria in kpathological fluids
b. Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates of blood
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
380. Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by

a. Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose
b. Liquification on gelatin due to production of gelatinase
c. Strains are catalase positive
d, All of above
381. Cholera occurs in________ Form

a. Endemic b. Epidemic c. Sporaidic d. all d. None of these
382.Endemic typhus is caused by

a. R. mooseri b. R.quintana c. R. Prowazekii d. None of these
383. A man is usually infected for tick typhus by _

a. Drinking milk of sick animals b. Tending cattle
c, Inhaling infected dust d. All of these
384. In Gram positive bacteria, ratio of RNA to DNA is

a. 8 : 1 b. 1 :2 c. Almost equal d. None of these
385. Ziehl – Neelson stain is a ________

a. Simple stain b,Counter stain c. Differential stain d. None of these
386. Wet mount slide preparations are used in microbiology as they allow to see
a. Size and shape of individual organisms
b. Characteristic arrangtement or grouping of cells
c. Motility of the organism
d. None of these
592

387. Fungi differs with bacteria in that it –
a. Contain no peptidiglycan
b. Are prokatyotic
c. Susceptible to griseofulvin
d. Have nuclear membrane e. All of these
388. A polysaccharide capsule is present on cryptococci which –

a. Inhibis phagocytosis b. Is an aid to diagnose
c. Cross reacts with rheumatoid factor d. All of these
390. The largest protozoa is –

a. Balantidium coli b. Entamoeba coli
c. Trichomonus vaginalis d. Toxoplsma gondii
391. Premunition is particularly seen in –

a. Ascaris b. Giardia
c. Plasmodium d. None of these
392. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of bacteria?

a. BCG b. TAB c. Polio d. Cholera
393. Which of the following is a mechanical vector infections?

a. Mosquitoes b. Ticks c. Fics d. Fleas
394. Source of infection of fungi like Histoplasma and Nocardia is :

a. Animal b. Insects c. Soil d. Water
395. Method of transmission of syphilis is:

a. Direct inoculation b. Contact
c. Congenital d. Both b and c
396. Chemical substance that destroys all microorganisms including spores is called:
a. Sterilant b. Disinfectant
c.Sarmotozer d. Ger,ocode
397. Which of the following is the most unreliable method of sterilization?

a. Sunlight b. Drying
c. Heat d. Filtration
398. Autoclaving (180ºC X one hour) is not done for sterilization in one of the following:
a. Glassware, Syringes, Flasks, Petridishes, test tubes
b. Dressings, aprons, gloves, catheters
c. Culture media
d. Suture materials except catgut.
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399. Sterilization by formaldehyde gas (50CC formjaliri+ 25g KMnO$ per 100Cu.ft. space)
is not done in one of the following:
a. Rubber, plastic disposable goods, disposable syringes adhesive dressing etc.
b. Operation theatre
c. Wards and labotory
d. Woolen blankets, wool and hides
400. The bacteria, which is motile at 22º C but non-motile at 37ºC is

a. Tranformation b. Transduction c. Conjugation d. cellfusion

Microbiology
401. Techoic acid is

a. Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria
b. Provide receptors for phages
c. Make up outer wall of Gram negative bacteria
d. Influence the permeability of the membrane
402. Cholera red reaction is identified by

a. Sulphuric acid b. Nitric acid c. Hydrochloric acid d. Carbolic acid
403. Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi may be shown by (d)
a. Fecal culture b. Bile culture c. Urine culture d. All of these
404. Daisy head colony is associated with

a. M. tuberculosis b. C. diphtheriae c. Cl, tetani d. None of these
405. Neil mooseri reactin is related to

a. Rikettsiae b. Chlamydiae
c. Spirochaetes d. Clostridium periringens
406. All of the following are DNA viruses except –

a. Parvo virus b. Patamyxo virus
c. Herpers virus d. Pix virus
407. The dengue fever virus is :

a. Arbo virus b. Echo virus c. Entero virus d. Orthomyxo virus
408. Dengue fever is caused by

a. Bcteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Rickettsia
409. Which of the following characters are related to viruses?

a. No growth on inanimate culture mdia b. Not sensitive to antibiotics
c. Entero virus .d. Insensitive to interferon
594

410. Main causative organism of chicken pox is
a. Fox virus b. Mumps Virus c. Measles virus d,None of these
411. Rickesia are stained with

a. Giesna and Castaneda Stains
b. Macchiavello and Gimenezstains
c. Both a and b
d. Malachite green PART – 3
412. The medium used in membrane filter technique was

a. EMB agar b. EMR-Vp medium c. Lactose broth d. Endo agar
413. Lysol is a
a. Sterilent b. Disinfectant c. Antiseptic d. Antifungal agent
414. Which of the following is a neutral stain

a. picric acid b. Gmiemsa c. Neutral red d. Malachite green
415. Peptone water medium is an example for

a. Synthetic medium b. Semisynthetic medium c. Differential medium d. None of these
416. The method is which the cells are frozen dehydrated is called
a. Pasteurization b. Dessication c. Disinfection d. Lypophilization
417. The technique used to avoid all microorganisms is accomplished by

a. Sterlization b. Disinfection c. Surgical sterilization d. Disinfection Sterilization
418. Thermal death time is

a. Time required killing all cells at a given temperature
b. Temperature that kills all cells in a given time
c. Time and temperature needed to kill all cells
d. All of the above
419. A culture medium the exact compostion of which is not known was called as
a. Simple b. Complez c. Defined d. Natural
420. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of

a. Tetani toxin b. Cholera toxin c. Diptheria toxin d. Toxoid
421. Temperature required for pasteurization is

a. Above 150oC b. Below 100oC c.110oC d. None of these
422. Separation of a single bacterial colony is called

a. Isolation b. Separation c, Pure culturing d. All of these
423. Which of the following is ionizing radiation?
a. U.V rays b. IR c. rays d. None of these
595

424. Which of the following includes dimerisation of thymine?
a. X –rays b. U.V rays c. a- rays d. None of these
425. When food material are preserved at a temperature just above freezing temperature,
the process is called
a. Freezing b. Pasteurisation c. Chilling d.Frosting
426. Which of the following method of sterilization has no effect on spores?

a. Drying b. Hot air oven c. Autoclave d. None of these
427. Treponema pallidum can be best indentified using

a. Flourescence microscope b. Bright field microscope c. Dark field microscope d.
Flourscence microscope
428. Autoclaving is carried at

a. Dry heat b. Atmospheric pressure c. 120oC d. All of these
429. Temperature in pasteurization is

a. 62.8OC b. 35.7OC c. 68.2oC d. 60.8oC
430.The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture method is

a. Inoculum b. Suspension c. Dilution d. None of these
431. Algae are rich in

a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Vitamins d. All of these
432. L-Lysine is produced from

a. Corynebacterium glutamicum
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Mycobacterium sps
d. Pseudomoas
433. The orderly increase in the quantity of all of the cellular components is known as
a. Reproduction b. Growth c. Binary fission d. None of these
434. Theobacillus thio oxidans grow at pH

a. 7.0 b. 1.0 c. 6.0 d. 9.5
435. Discontinuous heating is called

a. pasteurization b. Sterilzation c. Fermentation d. Tindalisation
436. Isolation is
a. Purification of culture
b. Introduction of inoculums
c. Separation of a single colony
d. To grow microorganisms on surfaces
596

437. The condition required for autoclave
a. 121oC temp. and 15 Ibs. Pressure for 20 min.
b. 120oC temp. and 20 Ibs. Pressure for 30 min.
c, 150oC temp. for 1 hr.
d. 130oC temp for 2 hr
438. Lysozyme is effective against

a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria c. Protozoa d. Helminthes
439. Blood agar medium is

a. Enrichment medium b. Enriched medium c. Selective medium d. Differential medium
440. Infrared radiation is a method of sterilization by

a. Dry heat b. Moist heat c. Chemical method d. Mechanical method.
441. Lyophilization means

a. Sterilization b. Freeze- drying c. Burning to ashes d. Exposure to formation
442.Temperature used for hot air oven is

a. 100oC for 1 hour b. 120oC for 1 hour c. 160oC for 1 hour d. 60oC for 1hor
443. Phenol coefficient indicates

a. Efficiency of a disinfectant
b. Dilution of a disinfectant
c. Purity of a disinfectant
d. Quantity of disinfectant
444. This is an agar plate method and is commonly used for estimation of the number of
bacteria in milk
a. Standard Plate Count (SPC) b. Spread plate c, Lawn culture d. Roll tube method
445. Agar is obtained form

a. Brown algae b. Red algae c. Green algae d. Blue - green algae
446. A gram positive organism which produces swarming on culture medium is

a. Salmonella b. Clostridum c. Staphylococci d, Proteus
447. Enhancement of virulence is bacteria is known as

a. Pathogenicity b. Attenuation c. Exaltaion d. Toxigenicity
448. For effective sterilization in an autoclave the temperature obtained is

a. 50oC b. 100oC c. 120oC d. 180oC
449. Spores are killed by

a. 70% alcohol b. Glutaraldehyde c. Autoclaving d, Both b and c
597

450. Glasswere are sterilized by
a. Autoclaving b. Hot air over c. Incineration d. None of these
451. Tydallisation was proposed by

a. Tyndall b. Pasteur c. Koch d. Jenner
452. Viruses can be cultivated in

a. Lab media b. Broth c. Living cells d. None of these
453. By pasteurization
a. All the microorganisms can be removed
b. Only pathogenic forms can be removed
c. Only non- pathogenic forms can be removed
d. All of these are correct
454. The temperature required for pasteurization is

a. Above 100oC b. Below 100oC c. 100oC d. None of these
455. In the medium other that nutrients, if any substance is used in excess, that medium
is
a. Enriched medium b. Special medium c. Enrichment d. None of these
456.Example for indicator medium is

a. Nutrient Agar b. Nutrient broth c. Wilson and Blair d. Czapeck- dox medium
457. Example of Anaerobic medium is

a. Robertson cooked – meat medium
b. Nutrient agar
c. Nutrient broth
d. Mac- Conkey’s agar
458. The differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors, the medium used is
a. Wilson & lair b. Blood Agar c, Tetra thionate broth d. Mac. Conkey’s Agar
459. Best method for getting pure culture is

a. Streak – plate b. Agar slant c. Both a and b d. None of these
460. To transfer cultures from one place to another, the devise used is
a. Slant b. Needle c. Inoculation loop d. Autoclave
461. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture is

a. Inoculum b. Suspension c. dilution d. None of these
462. Separation of a single colony is

a. Pure- culturing b. Isolation c. Separation d. Both a and b
598

463. Growth period of the culture is
a. Inoculation b. Incubation c. Incineration d. Isolation
464. At the temperature 160oC for one hour, complete sterilization occurs in
a. Autoclave b. Hot air oven c. Laminar flow d. Incubator
465. Tyndaflisation ( Steaming for 30 min each on 3 successive days)method of

sterilization is used for one of the following (b)
a. Antitoxic sera, serum, urine
b. Culture media containing egg, serum or sugar
c. Cystoscope and endoscope
d. Polythene tubing, fabrics, heart lung machine
466. Toxins , ascetic fluid, serum, sugar and antibiotic solutions are sterilized by which
of the following methods?
a. Jonising radiation
b. Filtration by Seitz filter/chamber land filter/ membrane filter.
c. Tyndallisation
d. Autoclaving (121ºC X 15 mm)
467. Which of the following are intermediate level disinfectants?

a. Glutaraldehdye and hydrogen peroxide
b. Chlorine dioxide an other chlorine compounds
c. Alcohol, iodophor compounds and phenolic compounds
d. Soaps and detergents.
468. Which of the following antibiotics produce adverse effects like liver and kidney
damage, tooth and bone damage, catabolic effect, diabetes insipidus, super infection and
vestibular toxicity?
a. Chloramphenicol b. Penicillin c. Tetracycline d. Sulphonamide
469. Which of following antibiotics is effective in UTI gonorrhea, chancroid, typhoid,

bacterial gastroenteritis, none and soft tissue infection?
a. Chloramphenicol b. Ciprofloxacin c. Sulfonamide d. Tetracycline
470. Which of the following is the type of biomedical waste?

a. Harmless b. Infectious
c. Non infectious hazardous d. All of the these
471. About 40% of hospital acquired infection occur in the

a. Urinary tract b. Respiratory tract.c. Gastrointestinal tract. d. Wounds/ burns
472. Which of the following does not require hand washing ?

a. Before invasive procedures b. Before and after touching wounds
c, Taking blood pressure d. After touching contaminated objected.
599

473. In autoclave, the principle involved is
a. Dry heat b. Moist heat c. Steam under pressure d. Both b and c
474. The spores of the bacteria which can with stand the moist heat effect also
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Coxiella burnetti
c. Bacillus stearothermophilus
d. Pseudomonas
475. Factors on which disinfectivity of a disinfectant depends

a. Concentration of the substance
b. Time of action
c. pH of the medium and temperature suitable for the chemical
d. All of the above
476. Aldehydes, which are most powerful disinfectants

a. Formaldehyde b. Acetaldehyde c. Glutamal aldehyde d. Both a and b
477. Accridine dyes are more effective against

a. Gram positive b. Gram negative c. Mycoplasmas d. Rickttsiae
478. The sterilizing agent is

a. Ethelene oxide b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. Carbon tetrachloride
479.Salts of heavy metals used as disinfectants are

a. Thiomersal b. Phenyl mercury nitrate c. Mercurochrome d. All of these
480. Cultures are prepared by penetrating the inoculation loop with suspension into the
medium, they are
a. Stock cultures b. Stabcultures c. Sub-cultures d. None of these
481. The priniclpel involved in the streak plate method is

a. Separation b. Streaking c. Isolation d. Dilution
482. Culture media for fungi are

a. Pototo dextrose agar (PDA)
b. Sabouraud’s agar
c. Czapekdox agar
d. All of the above
483. Spores of actinomycetes are very sensitive, killed at room temperature of

a. 52oC for 30 min. b. 65o/c for 30 min. c. 70oC for 30min. d. 43oC for 30 min.
484. The term that is used for the bacteria which can withstand pasteurization ut does
not grow at higher temperature
a. Thermophiles b. Extreme thermophiles c. Thermoduric d. Facultative thermophiles
600

485. A common laboratory method of cultivating anaerobic micro-organisms is
a. Gas pack system b. Brewer har system c. Pyogallic acid over the cotton d. None of
these
486. Alkaliphiles grow at pH value between

a. 1 to6 b. 6 to 9 c. 1 to 11 d. 7 to 12.
487. The micro-organisms grow at high salinity are

a. Osmophiles b. Halophiles c. Both a and b d d. None of these
488. Pfeiffer phenomenon is related to

a. Vibrio cholera b. B-anthrax c. Rickettsial pox d. All of these
489. Diagnostic test for the identification of primary syphilis

a. VDRL test
b. Treponema pallidum immobilization test
c. Kahn’s test d. Dark ground microscopic examination
490. Sporaidc summer diarrhea may be caused by

a. E.coli b. Hafnia d. Serratia
491.Biological false reaction in VDRL is related to

a. Lepra bacilli b. Corynebacterium diphtheria c. Cl. Welchi d. None of these
492. Non – lactose fermenting colonies seen of Mac Conkey’s medium are
a. Salmonella typhi b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pneumonia d. Shigella shigae
493. Wilson and Blair medium is used for isolation of

a. Staphylococci b. Salmonella typhosa c. Vibrio cholera d. Shigella shigae
494. Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever is based on

a. Blood culture b. Urine and stool culture c. Widal test d. All of the above
495. Shigella was first isolated by

a. Shiga b. Schmitz c. Sonnei d. Robert Koch
496. Which of the following are gas producing Salmonella?

a. S. typhi b. S. enteritidis c. E. Coli d. S. typhimurium
497. Kauffmann white scheme is used to detect

a. Salmonella spp. b. Shigella spp. c. E. coli d. None of these
498. On Mac Conkey’s medium Esch. Coli forms

a. Colorless colonies b. Greenish pigmentation c. Pink colored colonies d. Medusa
head appearance
601

499. C. diptheriae requires
a. LJ medium b. Mac Conkey’s medium c. Potassium tellurite medium d. PDA medium
500. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

a. L J medium b. Mac Conkey’s medium c. Wilson blair medium d. None of these
501. Lepra bacillus is best cultured on

a. Armadillo’s brain b. Foot pad of mice c. Liver of guinea pig d. Any of the above
502. Culture medium for clostridia spp

a. 76 Lower stein Jensen’s medium b. Mac Conkey’s medium c. Robertson’s cooked
meat medium d. None of these
503. Clsotridium welchii is positive for

a. Elek’s gel precipitation test b. Nagler’s test c. Weil felix test d. Bacitracin test
504.Negle’s reaction detects

a. Coagulase b. Hyaluronidase c. Lecithinase d. None of these
505. Incubation period of Cl. Welchii is

a. 8-12 hours b. 7-10 hours c. 5-7 hours d. 2-4 hours
506. The average incubation period of tetanus is

a. 2-3 days b. 7-10 days c. 14-21 days d. 3-4 weeks
507. Salt agar is used for

a. Sterptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. Vibrio d. Shigella
508. Culture medium of Leishmania is

a. Sabousand’s medium b. NNN medium c. Wilson Blair medium d. Czapek – dox
medium
509. A simple asexual spores which develops by budding is known as

a. Chlamydospore b, Blastospore c. Arthospore d. Conidia
510. Culture medium used for fungus is

a. Sabousand’s medium b. Nutrient agar c. Nutrient broth d. Minimal agar medium
511. For Sterilization of fermentation equipment the method followed is

a. Radiation b. Chemicals c. Heating d. All of these
512. D.pneumoniae can be cultivated in

a. Glucose broth b. Serum broth c. Agar and blood agar d. Chocolate agar
e. All of these
602

513. D.pneumoniae cab be identified by
a. Microscopic exam b. Culture of sputum/blood c. Animal inoculation d. All of these
e. None of these
514. The diagnosis of tuberculosis is carried out by

a. Emulator b. Antiformin method c. Petroff’s method d. Concentration method e. All of
these
515. The size of the virus can be determined by

a. Micrography b. Ultra – centrifugation at high speed c. Ultra- filtration d. All of these
516. Differential staining of bacteria spore is related to

a. Albert’s staining b. Lugol’s staining c. Moller’s staining d. Indian ink preparation
517. Electron microscope studies does not help in identifying the section of bacterial
spore
a. Core b. Spore cortex c. Capsule d. All of these
518. Wilson and Blair bismuth sulphite medium is used ofr the growth
a. Salmonella typhi b. Shigella dysenteriae c. Vibrio cholera d. E.coli
519. Which Rickettsia can be grown on blood agar media?

a. Lactobacilli b. Streptobacillu c. Bacillus anthrax d. Vibrio cholera
520. When a bacterial cell and mitochondria are treated with cyanide and carbon
monoxide what happens initially?
a. Respiration inhibits
b. Photosyntheis inhibits
c, Protein synthesis inhibits
d. No effect occurs
521. Which virus wan first observed?

a. Hepatitis virus b. TMV c. Cauliflower mosaic virus d. None of these
522. The most important energy – yielding reaction for a aerobic organism is
a. Glycosis b. EMP c. KDPG d. Both b and c
523. A disease that can be transmitted by an infectious agent from one individual to
another was called
a. Epidemic b. Pandamic c. Communicable d. Comma
524. Cell cycle regulated by

a. Cyclins b. Cdks c. Cycilns and C d. ks d. None of these
603

526. The proteinaceous compound are converted to ammonia by
a. Putrification bacteria b. Ammonifiaction bacteria c. Nitrification bacteria d.
Denitrifying bacteria
527. A cell becomes flaccied when placed in a

a. Isotonic solution b. Hypertonic solution c. Hypotonic solution d. Normal solution
528. A mutation causing a substitution of one amino acid is called

a. Point muturaion b. Silent mutation c. Missence mutation d. None of these
529. The formation spindle fibres in the process of celldivision is prevented by

a. Corchicine b. ATP c. Hydrazine d. All of these
530. Important class of repiratory enzymes :

a. NAD b. Cytochromes c. ATPase d. Hydrolases
531.The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis virus:

a. Flies b.milk c. Person to person d. Food and water
532. Genetic constitution of the cell is

a. Phenotype b. Genotype c. Cryptotype d.Histotype
533. The Primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis is

a. Oral route b. Blood c. Milk d. Person to person
534. Cerebral malaria is caused by

a. Plasmodium vivox b. P.ovale c. P.falsiparum d. P.malaria
535. Ergot diseases is caused by

a, Puccinia b. Rhizopus c. Claveceps d. Penicillium
536. Most bacteria require vitamins as

a. Growth Factors
b. Sources of energy
c. Sources of carbon
d. Sources of electron donars
537. Which of these is a trace element for bacteria?

a. Mg+2 b. Na+ c. Ca+2 d. Mn+2
538. Virulent factor in pneumococcus is

a. Cell wall b. Capsule c. Mesosomes d. Emdotoxins
539. The Bacteria move in response to magnetic field is

a. Spirochets b. Treponema c. Aquaspirillum Magnetotacticum d. None of these
604

540. Nagler reaction detects
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium botulinum
541. The following organisms lack definite cell wall

a. Mycoplasma b. L-forms c. Both a and b d. Bacteria
542. The following disease are caused by Mycoplasma except

a.Pneumonia in human beings
b. Little leat of Brinjal
c. Dwarf disease of Mulbery
d. Citrus canker
543. Mycotoxins are produced by

a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Algae d. Protozons
544. The main product of glycosis under serobic conditions is

a. Pyruvate b. Lactate c. None of these d. Both a and b
545. The protein moiety of an enzyme is known as

a. Hole enzyme b. Apo enzyme c. Co enzyme d. Enzyme
546. Yeast extract is an excellent source of

a. A Vitamin b.Proteins c. B Vitamins d. Carbohydrates
547. Example of anaerobic medium

a. Wilson blair medium b. Mac Conkey broth c. Robertson’s cooked meat medium d.
EMB agar
548. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of:

a. Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
b. Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds
c, Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
d. Amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night
549. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

a. Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
b. Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
c. Hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
d. Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
550. The following organisms have been proposed as sources of single cell protein
a. Bacteria b. Yeasts c. Algae d. All the these
605

551.Nitrites are oxided to nitrates by a microorganism
a. Nitrosomonas b. Nitrosococcus c. Nitrobacter d. Azatobacter
552. The major constituents in agar are

a. Fats b. Aminoacids c. Polysaccharides d. Polypeptides
553. Multiple antibiotic resistance is mediated by

a. Episome b. Plasmid c. Colplasmid d. Both b and c
554. “ Antogonism is seen in

a. Lag phase b. Plasmids c. Log phase d. None of these
555. The first phase of a growth curve is

a. Log phase b. Lag phase c. g phase d. Both a and b
556.In gram positive and gram negative bacteria the electron transport contains
a. Naphthquinone b. Plastoquinone c. Ubiquinone d. Both a and b
557. Growth in closed system, affected by nutrient limitation and waste product
accumulation is called
a. Batch culturing b. Ascus c. Fruiting body d. Sporangiosphore
558.Cell are active and synthesizing new protoplasm this stage of growth is called
a. Lag phase b. Stationary phase c. Log phase d. All of these
559. Which one of the following tissue can metabolize glucose, fatty acids and ketone
bodies for ATP production?
a. Liver b. Muscle c. Brain d. R.B.C
560. Which one of the following minerals elements play an important role in biological
nitrogen fixation
a. Copper b. Magnesium c. Zinc d. Molybdenum
561. Rapid bacterial growth phase is known as

a. Log b. Lag c. Lack d. None of these
562. Clostridium welchii spores formation can be induced only on specified media such
as
a. Wilson – Blair medium b. Macconkey medium c. Ellner medium d. Thayee-Martion
medium
562.Which of the following is not true about cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Antigen cause formation of 1gM am\nd IgG antibodies
b. Antibodies bind to target cells
c. Antibodies combine with complement and the complex destroys target cell
d. Clinical signs appear between 24-48 hours.
606

563.Densensitization to prevent an allergic response can be accomplished by injecting
small, repeated doses of
a. IgE antibodies b. The antigen (allergen) c. Histamine d. IgG antibodies
564. Which of the following is true about atopy?

a. It is a familial hypersensitivity
b. It is a genetic predisposition against certain allergens like pollen, dust
c. IgE is the primary antibody involved
d. All of the above
565.One of the following is not a live aftenuated vaccine?

a. Pertusis b. BCG c. Oral polio d. Measles
566. One of the following is a toxoid vaccine

a. Typhoid b. Influenza c. Diptheria d. Hepatitis B
567. Which of the following causes acquired or secondary immunodeficiency?
a. Drugs like steroid therapy b. Cancers c. Infections diseases
d. All of the above
568. Which of the following sample should be incubated at 37C during storage prior to
processing?
a. Urine sample b. Blood and bone marrow sample c. Stool sample d. Sputum sample
569. Which of the following method is used to observe the motility of a microbe?
a. Wet mount technique b. Hanging drop method c. Dry mounts lamination method
d. All of the above
570. The staining technique which gives different color to different bacteria is called
a. Simple staining b. Differential staining c. Special staining d. Both b and c
571. Mycotoxins are formed during the end of

a. Lag phase b. Log phase c. Death phase d. Stationary phase
572. Bacteria which need oxygen for growth are called

a. Thermophilic bacteria b. Microaerophilic bacteria c. Facultative anaerobic bacteria d.
Mycobacteria
573. pH required for the growth of bacteria is

a. 6.8 – 7.2 b. 5.6-8.2 c. 3.0- 6.0 d. 8.0-14.0
574. Drug resistance in bacteria is mainly determined by factor:

a. F b. R c. Col d. Lysogenic factor
575. The ion that is require in trace amounts for the growth of bacteria is
a. Calcium b. Magnesium c. Cobalt d. Sodium
607

576. The most important viramin for the growth of bacteria is
a. B- complex b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C
577. The principle in microbiological assays is

a. At certain range the concentration of growth factor will bear a linear relationship to the
amount of nutrients added
b. Concentration of growth factor have a linear relationship with the growth of the
organism
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
578. If the source of energy for bacteria is from chemical compounds they are said to be
a. Phototrophs b. Autotrophs c. Chemotrophs d. Cheolithotrophs
579. In the synthesis of cell components the major element required is

a. Nitrogen b. Sulphur c. Carbon d. Oxygen
580. For the formation of cell-components the elements required are

a. Nirogen b. Oxygen c. Sulphur d. All of these
581. For the synthesis of amino acids cysteine, cystine and methionine the element
required is
a. Sulphur b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. None of these
582. Sulphur can be utilized by bacteria in the form of

a. Organic compounds b. Inorganic compounds c. Elemental compounds d. All of these
583. Phosphorous is an essential component of

a. Nucleotides b. Nucleic acids c. Phospholipids and Heichoic acids d. All of the above
584. Trace elements are

a. Zn+2, Cu+2, Mn+2
b. MO6+, Ni2+, B3 + and CO2+
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
585. Most bacteria do not require the ion

a.Mg2+ b. Ca2+ c. Na+ d. Fe+2
586. Vitamin function as

a. Co – enzymes b. Co-melecules c. Building blocks of cell d. None of these
587. The vitamin required for Lactobacillus species is

a. Riboflavin b. Niacin c. Pyridoxine d. Folic acid
608

588. Vitamin K is necessary for the species
a. Lactobacillus spp.
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
d. All of these
589.The bacteria which are able to grow at 0ºC but which grow at 20ºC to 30º, are known
as
a. Psychrophiles b. Facultative psychrophiles c. Average psychrophiles d. Mesophiles
600. Radical shifts can be prevented by adding

a. Acids b. Alkali c. Buffer d. None of these

Microbiology
601. The orderly increase in the quantity of all the cellular components is known as
a. Reproduction b. Growth c. Binary fission d. None of these
602. The most common mods of cell division in bacteria is

a. Binary fission b. Transverse binary fission c. Longitudinal binary fission d. None of
these
603. How much time a bacterium take for the complete duplication?
a. 30 min. b. 10 min. c. 20 min. d. 25 min.
604. The generation time is

a. The time required for the cell to divide
b. The total division of the cell during its lifetime
c. The total no. of cells formed d. None of these
605. In bacteria, the increases in population is in the manner

a. Geometric progression b. Multiplication c. Doubling d. None of these
606. Physiologically the cells are active and are synthesizing new protoplasm in which
stage of the growth in bacteria
a. Log phase b. Lag phase c. Stationary phase d. None of these
607. The most active stage in the sigmoid curve of bacteria in which maximu growth is
attained
a. Lag phase b. Stationary phase c. Decline phase d. Log phase
608. Log-phase is also known as

a. Death phase b. Exponential phase c. Lag-phase d. None
609

609. The no.of generations per hour in bacteria is
a. Growth rate b. Feneration time c. Sigmoid curve d. None of these
610. In the sigmoid curve (or) growh curve of bacteria how many stages are there
a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 5
611. The reproduction rate is equal to death rate in which stage

a. Decline phase b. Stationary phase c. Lag phase d. Log phase
612.Minimum growth temperature is

a. The growth of organisms at lowest temperature
b. The lowest temperature at which is the microorganisms grow
c. The maximum temperature at which the growth is stable
d. None of these
613. Optimum growth temperature is greater that 45ºC is

a. Mesophiles b. Thermophiles c. Psychrophiles d. None of these
614. The organisms which can grow both in presence and absence of oxygen
a. Aerobes b. Anaerobes c. Faculative anaerobes d. Strict aerobes
615. The organisms whichcan grow best in the presence of a low concentration of
oxygen
a. Aerophilic b. Microaerophilic c. Aerobic d. Anaerobic
616. The compound that is added to the medium to absorb oxygen for the creation of
anaerobic conditions
a. Sodium Thioglycollate b. Nitrous acid c. Citrate d. None of these
617. The utilization fo light energy to drive the synthesis of ATP is called as
a. Photolysis b. Photophosphorlylation c. Photosynthesis d. Respiration
618. During cyclic phosphorylation NADP is formed or not

a. No NADP formation b. No NADP utilization c. NADP is converted into NADPH d. All
are correct
619. Cyclic phosphorylation is generally present in

a. Cyanobacteria b. Algae c. Bacteria d. Plants
620. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also known as

a. Oxygenic photosynthesis b. Photosynthesis c. Anoxygenic photosynthesis d.
Phototphosphorylation
621. The number of ATP molecules formed during cyclic phosphorylation are
a. One b. Two c. Four d. Six
610

622. Artificial transformation in laboratory is carried out by treating the cells with
a. MgCl2 b. Cacl2 c. NaCl d. HCl
623. The process of formation of mesozygotes is called

a. Meromixis b. Exozygote c. Mitosis d. Meiosis
634. Which of the following organisms requires tryptophan for growth?

a. H. influenza b. Vibrio c. Gonococci d. S.typhi
635. Tubercular bacilli grow best in

a. Absence of O2 b. Presence of CO2 c. Presence of O2 d. None of these
636. Mycotoxins are formed during the end of

a. Lag phase b. Log phase c. Death phase d. Stationary phase
637. The suitable temperature to transport viral culture is

a. 30ºC b. 5ºC c. 25ºC d. 45ºC
638. Growth curve does not include following phases of bacteria

639. Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which phase of growth curve?
640. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular
oxygen, what is it?
a. Cyt b b. Cyt c c. Cyt d d. Cyt d
641. The genetic material in HIV is

a. ds DNA b. ss DNA c, s RNA d. None of these
642. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicationg DNA?
a. Ethidium bromids b. Nitrosogeranidine c. Acridine orange d. None of these
643. Poly A tail is frequently found in

a. Histone in RNA b. Bacterial RNA c, eukaryotic RNA d. TRNA
644. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus?

a. SV 40 b. T4 phage c. Tobacco mosaic virus d. Adeno virus
645. Transgenic animals are produced when GH gene fused with

a. MT gene b. GH c. GRF d. FIX
646. In which medium the hydridoma cells grow selectively?

a. Polyethylene glycol b.Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine
c. Hypoxathing –guaning phosphoribosyl transferase d. Both b and c
611

647.The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineering are
a. Exonuclease and ligase
b. Restriction endounclease and polymerase
c. Ligass and polymerase
d. Restriction endonuclease and ligase
648. A successful hybridoma was produced by fusing

a. Plasma cells and plasmids
b. Plasma cells and myeloma cells
c. Myeloma cells and plasmids
d. Plasma cells and bacterial cells
649. The technique involved in comparing the DNA components of two samples is known
as
a. Monoclonal antibody techniques
b. Genetic finger priniting
c. Recombinant DNA technology
d. Polymerase chain reaction
650. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as

a. They can be multiplied by culturing
b. They can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
c. The can replicate freely outside the bacterial cell
d. They are self replicating within the bacterial cell
651. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How many autosomes would
be expected in a kidney cell?
a. 46 b.26 c. 47 d. 44
652. Pasteur effect is due to

a. Change from aerobic to anaerobic
b. Providing oxygen to anaerobically respiring structures
c. Rapid utilization of ATP
d. Nonsynthesis of ATP
653. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
a. Translocation b. Inversion c. Crossing over d. Duplication
654. The smallest unit of genetic material that can undergo utation is called
a. Gene b. Cistron c. Replicon d. Muton
655. The two chromatids of metaphase chrosome represent

a. Replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
b. Homelogous chromosomes of a diploid set
c. Non-homalogous chromosomes joined at the centromere
d. Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere
612

656. Malate dehydrogenase enzyme is a
a. Transferase b. Hydrolase c. Isomerase d. Oxide reductase
657. In E. coli att site is in between

a. Gal and biogenes b. Bio and niacin genes c. Gal and B genes d. None of these
658. The best vector for gene cloning

a. Relaxed control plasmid
b. Stringent control plasmid
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
659. A gene that takes part I the synthesis of polypeptide is

a. Structural gene b. Regulator gene c. Operator gene d. Promoter gene
660. DNA replicated during

a. G1 – phase b. S – phase c. G2 –phase d. M –phase
661. A human cell containing 22 autosome and a ‘Y’ chromosome in probably a

a. Male somatic cell b. Zygote c, Female somatic cell d. Sperm cell
662. Crossig –over most commonly occurs during

a. Prophase I b. Prophase II c. Anaphase I d. Telephase II
663. DNA- replication is by the mechanism of

a. Conservative b. Semiconservative c, Dispersive d. None of these
664. Production of RNA form DNA is called

a. Translation b. RNA splicing c. Transcription d. Transposition
665. Nucleic acids contain

a. Alanine b, Adenine c. Lysine d. Arginine
666. What are the structural units of nucleic acids?

a. N-bases b. Nucleosides c. Nucleotides d. Histones
661. The most important function of a gene is to synthesize

a. Enzymes b. Hormones c. RNA d. DNA
662. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans is concered
with
a.Baldness b. Red-green colour baldness c. Facial hair/moustache in males d. Night
blindness
663. Peptide linkages are formed in between

a. Nucleotides b. Amino acids c. Glucose molecules d. Sucrose
613

664. The nucleic acid of polio viruses is
a. DNA b. RNA- (+) type c. t-RNA d. m-RNA
665. Rabies virus is

a. Nake RNA virus b. Naked DNA virus c. Enveloped RNA virus d. Enveloped DNA virus
667. Example for DNA virus:

a. Polio virus b. Adeno virus c. Echo virus d. Poty virus
668. In genetic engineering breaks in DNA are formed by enzymes known as

a. Restriction enzymes b. Ligases c. Nucleases d. Hydralases
669. DNA transfer from one bacterium to another through phages is termed as
a. Tranduction b. Induction c. Transfection d. Infection
670. Microorganisms usually make acetyl CO-A by Oxidizing

A. Acetic acid b. Pyruvic acid c. a-ketoglutaric acid d. Fumaric acid
671.The method of DNA replication proposed by Watson and Crick is

a. Semi conservative b. Conservative c. Dispersive d. Rolling loop
672. The distance between each turn in the helical strand of DNA is
a. 20Ao b. 34Ao c. 28Ao d. 42Ao
673. Self-replicating, small circular DNA molecules present in bacterial cell are known
a. Plasmids b. Cosmids c. Plasmomerous d. Plastides
674. Western blotting is the technique used in the determination of

a. RNA b. DNA c. Proteins d. All of these
675. m RNA synthesis from DNA is termed

a. Transcription b. Transformation c. Translation d. Replication
676. Western blotting is the technique used in the determination of

a. DNA b. RNA c. Protein d. Polysaccharides
677. Building blocks of Nucleic acids are

a. Amino acids b. Nucleosides c. Nucleotides d. Nucleo proteins
678. DNA finger printing is based on

a. Repetitive sequences b. Unique sequences c. Amplified sequences
d. Non-coding sequences
679. The enzyme required for DNA from RNA template

a. RNA polymerase b. Reverse transcriptase c. DNA polymerase d, Terminal transferase
614

680. Double standared RNA is seen in
a. Reo virus b. Rhabdo virus c. Parvo virus d. Retro virus
681. Example for DNA viruses:

a. Adeno virus b. Bacteriophage T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6
c. Papova virus
d. Herpers virus and cauliflower moisaic
e. All of the above
682. The following are the RNA viruses, expect

a. Reo viruses
b. Retro viruses
c. Bacteriophage O C
d. Tmv and Bacteriophages Ms2, F2
e. 174, M12, M13
683. The two strands of DNA are joined noncovalently by

a. Ionic bonds
b. Covalent bonds
c. Hydrogen bonds between bases
d. Polar charges
684. The bases Adenine and Thymine are paired with

a. Double hydrogen bonds b. Single hydrogen bonds c. Triple hydrogen bonds d. Both
b and c
685. The no. of hydrogen bonds existing between Guanine and Cytosine are
a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. None of these
686. All of the following are true about agar except:

a. It is a source of nutrients in culture media b. It is a polysaccharide
c. It solidifies at about 4OC. d. It liquefies at 1002C b it is a polysaccharide
687. Find out a mismatch between a medium and its use:

a. Chocolate blood agar used for Haemophilus influenza, Neisseria sp.
b. Kanamycm-neomycin blood agar selective medium for anaerobes (Hemolytic)
c. Crystal violet blood agar selective medium for aerobes (hemolytic)
d. MacConkey agar for differentiating lactose-fermenting and non-lactose fermenting
688. Find out a mismatch between a medium and its use:

a. Deoxychocolate Citrate Agar (DCA) selective and differential medium for enteria
pathogens
b. Mannitol salt agar selective and differential medium for Staphylococcus aureus
c. Phenylalanine agar selective medium for Corynebacterium diptheriae (d) Thiosulfate
Citrate Bile Salt sucrose (TCBS) agar selective and differential medium for Vibrio cholera
615

689. Which of the following is used for cuitming Escherichia coli?
a. Tryptone soya broth b. Tryptone soya agar c, Tryptorie water d. All of the above
690. Which of the following biochemical test based on carbohydrate is used for
differentiation of enterobacteria?
a. Oxidation –fermentation (O-F) test
b. Voges-Proskauer (V-F) test
c. Methyl Red (MR) test
d. Both b and a
691. Which of the following biochemical tests based on proteins is used to identify
Pseudomonas and Vibrio cholera?
a. Indole test
b. Production of H2S
c. Phenylalanine deamination
d. Gelatin liquefaction
692. Which of the following enzyme test is used for differentiation of Staphylococcus
aureus from S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus?
a. Urease b. Oxidase c. Coagulase d . Catalase
693. Which of the following is a disc diffusion method for testing antibiotic sensitivity?
a. Bauer-Kirby method b. Stokes method c. Ericasan method d. All of the above
694. The length of each coil in DNA strand is

a. 15Ao b. 34Ao c. 30Ao d. 5Ao
695. Nucleic acids are highly charge polymers due to

a. There is phophodiester bond between 5’-hydroxyl of one ribose and 3’-hydroxyl of
next ribose
b. They have positive and negative ends
c. Nucleotides are charge structures
d. Nitrogenous bases are highly ionized compounds
696. The best studied example for specialized transduction is

a. P1 phage b. P22 phage c. e-phage d. Both a and c
697. The diagrammatic representation of the total no. of genes in DNA is

a. Genome b. Gene map c. Gene-structure d. Chromatin
698. During specialized transduction

a. Large amound of DNA is transferred
b. A few no. of genes are transferred
c. Whole DNA is transferred
d. None of these
616

699. The cell donating DNA during transformation is
a. Endogenate b. Exogenate c. Mesozygote d. Merosite
700. Genetic information transfer DNA to RNA is called

a. Transcriptase b. Transduction c. Transformation d. Recombination
701. The gene transfer occurs by

a. Transformation b. Transduction c. Conjugation d. Cell tusion
702. One of the following does not constitutue the first line of defences in non-specific
resistance:
a. Intack skin
b. Mucous membranes and their secreations
c, Phagocytic white blood cells
d. Normal microbiota
703. Which of the following is the part of third line defence (specific resistance)?
a. Inflammation b. Antibodies c. Fever d. Antimicrobial substance
704. One of the following methods is not used as defence strategy in respiratory tract?
a. Filtering of dust and microbes by nasal hair
b. Trapping of dust and microbes by mucous from epithelial layer.
c. Secretion of lysozyme to kill microbes
d. Propelling mucous laden foreign particles towards pharynx by cilia lining the
respiratory tract.
705. Which of the following is bactericidal in action?

a. Fatty acids in oil of skin glands
.b. Lysozymes in tears and sweat
c. Cerumen of ceruminous glands of ear
d. All of the above
706. Which of the following WBCs are workable in case of infections by helminthes
group?
a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Neutrophils d. Monocytes.
707. Which of the following have phagocytic action?

a. Basophils b. Neutrophils c. Monocytes d. Both b and c
708. Which of the following plays role in inflammatory reaction by relasing histamine?
a. Basophils b. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes
709. If person shows production of interferons is his body, the chances are that he has
got an infection of:
a. Measles b. Malaria c. Tetanus d. Typhoid
617

710. The substance which causes a rise in body temperature is called:
a. Allergen b. Pyrogen c. Pathogen d. All of the above
711.Which of the following organ is not involved in elicitation of immune response?

a. Brain b. Lymph nodes c. Spleen d. Thymus
712. T-cells are responsible for

a. Cellular immunity b. Humoral immunity c. Both of these d. None of these
713. The treatment of snakebite by antivenine is an example of:

a. Artificially acquired active immunity
b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired passive immunity
d. Specific natural immunity
714. Passive immunity is obstained by injecting

a. Antibiotics b. Antigens c. Antibodies d. Vaccines
715. Haptens are:

a. Complete antigens b. Partial antigens c. Antibodies d. Effectpr cells
716. Clinical signs of a hypersensitivity reaction appear before half an hour after injecting
the drug. It is an example of:
a. Type I reaction b. Anaphylactic shock c. Type II reaction d. Both b and c
717. In a hypersensitivity reaction, antibodies and antigens form complexes that cause
damaging inflammation within 3-8 hours; it is an example of :
a. Type IV reaction b. Type III reaction c. Cytotoxic reaction d. Both a and b
718. Which of the following is called serum Hepatitis?

a. HCV b. HAV c. HBV d. HIV
719. Which of the following was a non-neural vaccine for rabies?

a. HEPV b, Card vaccine c. BPL d. Simple
720. Which type of antibodies will associated in blood cell coagulation?

a. IgE b. IgA c. IgM d. IgG
721. In a antigen heptens are

a. Immunogenic b. Non-immunogenic c. Antigenic d. None of these
722. The antibody that is first formed after infecton is

a. IgG b. IgM c. IgD d. IgE
723. Antibodies in our body are produced by

a. B-lymphocytes b. T- lymphocytes c. Monocytes d. RBC’s
618

724. The points at which crossing over has taken place between homologus
chromosome are called
a. Chiasmata b. Synaptonemal complex c, Centromeres d. Proteis axes
725. How much of globulin is present in human serum?

a. 8% b. 12% c. 16% d. 4%
726. The substance which acts as Antimetabolites are called

a. Activators b. Substrates c. Inhibitor d. Cofactor
727. Enzymes are chemically

a. Lipids b. proteins c. Carbohydrates d. None of these
728. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by

a. Hybridoma technology b. Biotechnology c. Fermentation Technology d. None of
these
729. First line of body defense is

a. Antibody molecules b. Unbroken skin c. Antigen molecules d. Phagocytic cells
730. What is the strength of the bond between antigen and antibody?
a. Affinity b. Avidity c. Covalent d. None of these
731. Syphillis is caused by

a. Staphylococcus aureuss b. Yersinia psdtis c. Treponema pallidum d. Streptococcus
syphilitic
732. Nergibodies produced by rabies virus show characteristic_______ inner granues

a. Basophilic b. Eosinophilic c. Neutrophilic d. Acidophilic
733. The widely used yeast for the production of single cell protein is
a. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b. Rhizopus
c. Candida utilis d. All of the above
734. Analysis of protein antigen is by

a. Southern biot b. Northern blot c. Western blot d. None of these
735. Which of the following can provide naturally acquired passive immunity for the new
born
a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM
736.AIDS disease is caused by a virus which belongs to

a. Retro virus group b. Rhabdo virus group c. Hepatitis virus group d. Adeno virus
group
619

737. Complement based agglutination reaction is know as
a. Haem agglutination b. Coplement fixation c. Conglutination d. Schultz Dale
Phenomenon
738. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of

a. DNA b. Soluble RNA c. m-RNA from DNA d. Nucleotides
739. The cellular immune response is medicated by

a. B cells b. T cell c, BT cells d. Endothelial cells
740. The major immunoglobulin present in the human serum is

a. IgG b. IgA c. IgE d. IgG
741. Reagenic type antibody is

a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgE
742. Blood group antigens are

a. Species specific b. Isospecific c. Autospecific d. Organspecific
743. The reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is know by

a. Precipitation b. Flocculation c. Aggultination d. Complement fixation
744. Interferon is composed of

a. Lipids b. Lipoprotein c. Glycoprotein d. Nucleic acid
745. Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin

a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgD
746. The use of monoclonal antibodies is

a. Immunotherapy b. Gene therapy c. Blood transfusion d. Organ transfusion
747. Hybridoma technique is used for

a. Monoclonal antibodies b. Polyclonal antibodies c. Both a and b d. None of these
748. Test use for AIDS is

a. Widal test b. ELISA c. Aggluatination d. CFT
749. Antibody having high valency is

a.IgG b. IgA c. IgD d. IgM
750.Intensity of attraction between antigen and antibody molecule is known as

a. Affiniy b. Avidity c. Reaction d. None of these
751. Active immunity is induced by

a. Infection b. Placental transfer of antibodies c. Injection of antibodies d. Injection of
gamma-globulins
620

752. Pasteur developed the vaccines for
a. Anthrax b. Rabies c. Chicken cholera d. All of the above
753. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in

a. Penicillin allergy b. Contact dermatitis c.Arthus reaction d. Anaphylaxis
754. The following are used for the preservation of virus except
a. Freezing (-20C – 70C) b. Lyophilization c. Ether d. Formaldehyde
755. Antibody formation depends on

a. Age of the person b. Amount of antigen c. Well being of the person d. All of the above
756. Local immunity is important in

a. Inflenza b. Allergy c. Polio d. All of these
757. Role of magnesium in vaccine Is

a. Adjuvant b. Stablizer c. Conditioner d. All of these
758. Immunity is life long following

a. Diptheria b. Tetanus c. Measles d. Yellow fever
759. To prepare vaccine for small, pox the materialused by Edward jenner is
a. Small pox material b. Chicken pox material c. Cow-Pox material d. Measles material
760. During recombination, the Strain that donates genetic materials frequently with high
rate :
a.Hfr-Strain b.F+ -Strain c. F- Strain d. both a and b
761. The character acquired by the cell due to recombination is

a. Inheritable b. Syppressed c. Dominating d. Heritable
762. T-cells are produced from

a. Bonemarrow b. Thymus c. Spleen d. None of these
763. Antibodies are produced from

a. T-cells b. b-cells NK cells d, Eosinophils
764. Incomplete antigens are called

a. Immunogens b. Epitomes c. Haptens d.Paratope
765. To be antigen, the chemical molecule (protein ) needs

a. High molecular weight b. Chemical complexity c. Both a amd b d. None of these
766.The part which filter lymph are

a. Lymph nodes b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Bone marrow
621

761. The primary cells involved in immune response are
a. NK-cells b. K-cells c. Lymphocytes d. None of these
762. Plasma cells are the end cells of

a. T-cells b. b-cells c. Killer cells d. NK-cells
763. Basophils have receptros for antibodies

764. Because of denaturation, antigens become funtioniess, these are called

a. Cross-reactive antigen b. Epitopes c. Hidden epitopes d. Forssman antigen
765. Capacity of antigen to breakdown into small fragments each with a single epitopic
region is known as
a. Solubility b. Froeignness c. Denaturation d. None of these
766. Antigenic specificity is due to

a. Chemical complexity b. Solubility c. Steric configuration d. All of these
767. Antibodies are

a. Proteins b. Glycoproteins c. Phospholipids d. None of these
768.General purpose antibody is

a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. IgD
769.Antibody present in colostrums is

770. Which antibody is called millionaire molecule?

a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgD
771. IgE is discovered by

a. Ishizaka b. Porter c. Richet d. None of these
772. Antigen-antibody reactions are

a. Reversible b. Irreversible c. Specific d. Both a and b
773. Serological reactions are useful for

a. Detection of antigens b. Detection of antibodies c. Both a and b d. None of these
774. For the separation of antigens the method used is

a. Immunoelectrophoresis b. Flocculation c. Agglutination d. None of these
775. Counter immunoelectrophoresis is useful for detection of

a. One antigen/antibody b. Two antigens/antibody c. More than two d. None of these
622

776. When a particular antign is mixed with antibody in the presence of an electrolyte at
suitable temperature and pH the particles are clumped, this is called:
a. Precipitation b. Agglutination c. Electrophoresis d. CIE
778. Toxins and viruses can be detected by

a. Precipitation b. Agglutination c. Neutralisation d. None of these
779. Which is most antigenic?

a. Exotoxins b. Endotoxins c. Viruses d. All of these
780. Shick test is used for the detection of

a. Diptheria b. T.B. c. Cholera d. Typhoid
781. Secondary function of complements are

a. Haemolysis b. Phagocytosis c. Both a and b d. None of these
782. Very effective, less time consuming and at a time so many samples can be detected
by
a. ELISA b. CFT c. Neutralization d. Agglutination
783. a-cells are involved in

a. Humoral immunity b. Cell –mediated immunity c. Active immunity d. Passive
immunity
784. Innated immunity is

a.Specific b. Non-specific c. Active d. Passive
785. Innate immunity is developed by

a. Mechanical barriers b. Chemical barriers c. Both a and b d. None of these
786. Acquired immunity is

a. Natural b. Artificial c. Active &Passive d. All of these
787. Acquired immunity can be developed by

a. Natural means b. Artificial means c. Both a and b d. None of these
788. Immediate type hypersensitivity reactions are

a. T-cells b. b-cells c. Mast cells d. Macrophages
790. Example for cell-mediated immunity are

a. Tuberculin type b. Contact dermatitis c. Granulomatous d. All of these
791. Mountax reaction is used for detection of

a. T.B. b. Diphtheria c. Cholera d. None of these
623

792. All the antibodies produced from a a-cell are having
a. Similar specificity b. Different specificities c. Similar size d. None of these
793. Hybridoma formation in hybridoma technique is from

a. Spleen cell – Myeloma cell
b. Spleen cell -Spleen cell
c. Myeloma cell – Myeloma cell
d. None of these
794. Anthrax vaccine is prepared by

a. Attenuated bacilli b. Killing the bacilli c. Live bacilli d. None of these
795. Attenuated, oral poliomyelitis vaccine is

a. BCG b. Measles vaccine c. Sabin vaccine d. TAB vaccine
796. Killed, polio vaccine is

a. Sabin vaccine b. Salk c. BCG d. TAB
797. Measles vaccine is given to children at the age of

a. 1 year b. 7 months c. between 9 months and 10 years d. None of these
798. Pertussis vaccine is

a. Heat killed b. Formalin killed c. Attenuated d. live
799. DPT is
a. Triple vaccine b. Double vaccine c. Tetanus toxoid d. All of these
800. DPT, is used as vaccine for

a. Diptheria b. Pertussis vaccine c. Tetanus toxoid d. All of these

Microbiology
Multiple choice questions.
801. DPT is given to children at the age of 16-24 months as the does is
a. 0.5ml at intervels of 4 weeks b. A booster does of 0.5ml c. Both a and b d. None of
these
802. If more that one kind of immunizing agent is included in the vaccine, it is
a. Cellular vaccine b. Recombinant vaccine c. Mixed vaccine d. Toxoid vaccine
803. Vaccines used against virul infections are

a. Inactivated (killed ) vaccine b. Attenuated vaccine c. Autogenous vaccine d. None of
these
624

804. Vaccines used against virul infections are
a. Measles and Mumps vaccine b. Cholera vaccine c.Typhoid vaccine d. Anti-rickettsial
vaccine
805. If the microbes used in the vaccine are obtained from patient, they are
a. Anti viral vaccines b. Anti bacterial vaccines c. Autogenous vaccines d. None of
these
806. Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are

a. Cellular vaccines b. Sub-cellular vaccines c. Attenuated vaccines d. Heterologous
vaccine
807. Example for live vaccine is

a. Rubella & BCG b. Polio & TAB c, DIptheria & Tetanus .d. Hepatitis a & Rabies
808. DPT is given for the prevention of

a. Diphtheria, Tetanus b. Diphtheria, Pertusis c. Diphtheria&Tetanus & pertusis d. None
of these
809. The live vaccines are available against the following viruses, except:
a. Inflenza b. Measles c. Rabies d. Polio
810. HIV can be transmitted through

a. Blood b. Semen c. Vaginal fluid d. All of these
811. The immunity acquired by inoculation of living organism of attenuated virulence is

a. Artificial active immunity b. Passive immunity c. Natural active immunity d. Local
immunity
812. Organisms can be attenuated for inoculation by

a. Growing it at a temperature higher than opitimum
b. By passage through animals of different species which are less susceptible to it
c. By continous cultivation in presence of antagonistic substance
d. Any one of the above
e. None of these
813. Passive immunity lasts for the period of about

a. 10 days b. 2-3 months c. 10 years d. None of these
814. The markers helpful in detecting antiimmunity are

a., Hyper gamma globulinaemia b. Circulationg antibodies c. Response to cortisone d.
Lymphoid hyperplasia e. All of these
815. Following substance may act as an antigen

a. Egg albumin b. RBC and serum c. Vegatable protein d. Snake venom e. All of these
625

816. H antigen are present in
a. Motile organ b. Non-motile organ c. Both a &b d. None of these
817. Antitoxin is used for ____ immunization

a. Active b. Passive c. Both a & b d. None of these
818. The agglutinin test is used for _____

a. Identification of isolated bacteria
b. Typing of bacterial species
c. Study of antigenic structure of bacteria
d. All of these
e. None of these
819. In blood transfusion it is essential that

a. Blood of hologous group should always be same
b. Direct matching between patien’s serum and donor’s corpuscels be performed
c. Both a &b d. None of these
820. To be anaphylactic, the sensitizing substance should be

a. Protein in nature b. Should have a large molecular weight
c. Soluble in tissue fluids d. All of the above e. None of these
821. The basics of pathology in asthma, allergic rhinitis, urticaria are

a. Local vasodilation b. Increased capillary secretion
c. Excess eosiophils in tissue secretion and blood d. All of these
822. Which test used for dectecting susceptibility on an individual to diphtheria toxin?
a. Schick tests b. Dick test c.V-P test d. Precipitin test
823. Syndromes associated with Human T lymphotropic virus type I(HTLV-I) are
a. Adult T-cell lymphoma b. Hairy cell leukemia c. Adult T-cell leukemia d. All of these
824. Plague and Tularemia vaccine can be prepared from

a. Chemical fraction of the causative bacteria
b. Heat killed suspension of virulent bacteria
c. Formalin inactivated suspension of virulent bacteria
d. Avirulent live bactria
e. All of these
825. AIDS patients suffer from pneumonia due to

a. Pneumocystisis carinii b. Cryptospodidium c. S. pneumonia d. Toxoplasma
826. Statements applicable to human lice:

a. Cause pruritic skin lesions b. Are wingless
c. Transmid epidemic typhus, relapsing fever and Trench fever
d. Pediculus humans and phthirus pubis are two specied e. All of these
626

827. Natural killer cell
a. Belongs to B-cell lineage
b. Belongs to T-cell lineage
c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell
d. Requir previous antigen exposture for activation
828. Immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic delayed hypersensitivity reaction

(a)
a. IgE b. IgA c. IgD d. IgM e. IgG
829. The most abundant antibody found is serum is

a. IgA -1 b. IgG-1 c. IgG-2 d. IgG-3 e. IgA-4
830. Patients suffering from AIDs have following immune abnormalities

a. Decreased CD4 + T cells
b. Increased CD8 + T cells
c. Hypergammaglobulinemia
d. CD4 +/CD8 + ratio greater that 21
e. Both b & d
831. Immunoglobulin which cannot activate complement

a. IgM b. IgE c. IgA d. IgG
832. Hydatid disease is identified by

a. Schick test b. Dick test c. Casoni test d. Freis test
833. Prausnitz kustner reaction is generated by

a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgD
834. Immunoglobin which are found in asthma at elevated level:

a. IgA b. IgE c. IgM d. IgD
835. What is the similarity between IgM & IgG?

a. A compliment fixation b. Placental transport c. Heat stability at 56oC
d. Sedimentation coefficient
836. What is the technique for quantitative estimation of immunoglobulin ?

a. Single diffusion in one dimension
b. Single diffusion in two dimension
c. Double diffusion in one dimension
d. Double diffusion in two dimension
837. Cell mediated immunity can be identified by

a. Sheep bred blood corpuscles roasette formation b. Microphase inhibiting factor c. Skin
test for delayed hyper sensitivity d. All of these
627

838. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Clostridum tetani b. Clostridum Welchi c. Diptheria d. Clostridium botulinum
839. Koplic’s spots will develop in

a. HIV b. Measles c.Mumps d. Rubella
840. Virul DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
a. 5’- HMC b. 5’- HMA c. 5’- CHM d. 5’-MHC
841. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine ?

a. pertusis b. mumps c. cholera d. rabies
842. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against

a. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies b. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diptheria d. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B
843.Higher does of chlormphenicol affects the eukaryotic cell because

a. They have 30S ribosomes b. They have mitochondria c. They have 70S ribosomes
d. None of these
844. AIDS is caused by

a. Retrovirus b. Prion c. Rhabhovirus d. Retroprison
845. Penicillin is a
a. Primary metabolite b. Secondary metabolite c. Tertiary metabolite
d. None of these
846. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of

___ Hypersensitivity
a. Immediate b. Delayed c. Allergy d. None of these
847. Listeriosis was ____ disases

a. Food borme b. Water borne c. Milk borne d. Air borne
848. Pus-forming forms are called as

a. Pyoderm b. Pyogenic c. Pyrogen d. None of these
849. In Elisa techinique, the antibodies are labeled by

a. Acridine orange b Alkaline phosphate c. Neutral red d. Bromothymol blue
850. ________ is a genetic disease characterized by a total or partial inability to

synthesize globulins
a. Apitosois b. Agamma globulinemia c. Gammagloulinemma d. Sickle-cell anemia.
851. Astudy involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is

a. Genetic Engineering b. Genetic counseling c. Genetic drift d. Genetic equilibrium
628

852. Virul antigens are likely
a. Proteins b. Glyco proteins c. Lipo proteins d. Both a and b
853..The suitable assay method for antibiotics is

a. Enzyme assay b. Turbidometric assay c. End point determination assay d. Metabolic
assay
854. ELISA test is used for the identification of

a. Jauudice b. AIDS c. Cancer d. Diabetis
855. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease

a. 45-80 days b. 15-35 days c. 35-50 days d. 5-15days
856. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except

a. Bacitracin b. Chlormphenicol c. Novobiocin d. Tetracycline
857. Kinetosomes are observed in

a. Algae b. Fungi c. Protozoa d. Viruses
858. b- lactum ring is present in

a. Erythromycin .b. Penicillin c. Tetracyclins d. Chromphenical
859. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is

a. Streptomycin b. Penicillin c. Vancomycin d. Both a and b
860. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidisis is
a. Griseofulvin b. Amphoterein B c. Gentian violet d. Nystatin
861. Botulism means

a. Food adultration b. Food poisoning by streptococcus bacteria c. Chemical
contamination of food d. Food processing
862. Chlormphenicol is obtained from

a. Streptomyces griseus b. Sterptomyces venezuelae c. Streptomyces pyrogenes d.
None of these
863. Streptomycin is obtained from

a. Strptococcus species b. Strptomyces griseus c. Straphylococcus aureused d. None
of these
864. The treatment required form small bodies of water is

a. Disinfection b. Filtration c. Purification d. All of these
865. Surface ropiness is caused by

a. Alkaligenes viscolactis b. Streptococcus c. Both a and b d. None of these
629

866.Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood b. Toxin in blood c. Pus in blood d. Multiplication of bacteria and
toxins in blood
867. In AIDS. Kaposis sarcoma may respond to

a. Interleukin – 2 infusions b. Azathioprine c. Alpha interferon d. None of these
868. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting

a. Cell wall synthesis b. RNA synthesis c. Folate synthesis d. DNA gyrase
869. Lyme disease is caused by

a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Spirochaete d. Virus
870. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by

a. Steph. Albus b. Staph. Aureus c. Strep. Viridana d. None of these
871. Black water fever is caused by

a. P. vivax b. P. falciparum c. P . ovale d. None of these
872. Mantoux test detects

a. M. tuberculosis b. Cyanobacteria c. Clostridia d. Both a and b
873. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is

a. Bactracin b. Penicillin c. Cyclosporine d. All of these
874. Aflatoxin is produced by

a. Aspergillus sps. b. Penicillium sps c. Alternaria sps d. None of these
875. Penicillin is discovered by

a. Fleming b. Pasteur c. Koch d. None of these
876. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate

a. Synergism b. Antaginism c. both d. None of these
877. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is

a. Histamine b. Corticosteroid c. Epinephrine d. None of these
878. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:

a. Tetracyclines b. Erythromycin c. a and b d. Penicillins
879. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called

a. Bacteriophages b. Mycoplasma phages c. Virions d. Tiny strains
880. The following are true about Rickettsiae
a. Unicellular organisms b. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
c. Presence of 70 S ribosomes d. It causes hemolysis in human beings
e. Gram negative plemorphic rods
630

881. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a. R. Quinatana b. R. rickettssi c. R. orinetalis d. R. prowazekii
882. Lymphogranuioma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by

a. Copthalmia b. C. trachomatis c. C. pneumonias d. C. psittasi
883. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is

a. Frei test b. Mantoux test c. Schick test d. Dick test
884. Which algae is pathogenic to human?

a. Cephaloeuros b. Ulothrix c. Macrocystis d. Prototheca
885. Erythromycin is obtained form

a. S. griseus b. S. rimosus c. S. scabies d. S. erythraeus
886. Common cold is caused by

a. Adeno virus b. Corono virus c. Hepatitis virus d. Pox virus
887. The causative agent of conjunctivitis :

a. Adeno virus b. Corono virus c. Sterptomyciness d. None of these
888. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are

a. Tetracyclines b. Penicillins c. Streptomycines d. None of these
889. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of

a. Undulent fever b. Remittent fever c. Dengue fever d. Enteric fever
890. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in india?

a. A b. B c. C d. None of these
891. In enteric fever, the organ todging maximum number of the organism is
a. Liver b. Gall bladder c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
892. True about Enteric fever is

a. Bacteraemia in first week b. Carrier in 90% c, All serotypes cause the disease d. Rosy
spots on 18th day
893. Gastroenteritis is caused by

a. Shigella b. V. cholera c. V. cholera Parahaenolyticus .d. S. typhi
894. E. coli produces the following toxins:

a. Enterotoxins b. Endotoxins c. Verocytotoxins d. Hemolysins
895. The following infections caused by Esch. Coli, except

a. Urinary track infections b. Septic inections of wounds c. Diarrhoea d. Dysentery e.
Meningitis
631

896. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. C. Bovis c. C. Jeikeium d. C.equi
897. Causative organism of diphtheriawas first demonstrated by

a. Robert Koch b. Lois Pasteur c. Klebs and Loeffier d. Volhard and Fahr
898. Coryne bacterium is

a. Gram positive b. Resistant to penicillin c. Gram negative d. Resistant to
chloramphenicol
899. C. diphtheria consists of

a. Stratch granules b. Plolymeta phosphate granules c. Lipi granules d. None of these
900. The ncubation period of diphtheria is

a. Upto 2 weeks b. Upto 1 week c. 2-4 weeks d. None of these
901. Diphtheria virulence test is

a. Ascoli’s thermopreciptation test b. Eleck’s gel precipitation test c. C.R.P test d. M.R.T
test
902. Diphtheria toxoid is prepared by using

a. Aldehyde b. Formalin c. Phenois d. None of these
903. Diphtheria is an example of

a. Bacteraemia b. Pyaemia c. Septicemia d. Toxaemia
904. Main symptom of tuberculosis is

a. Tubercule formation b. Liquid formation c. Botha and b d. None of these
904. BCG vaccine is for the prevention

a. Brucellosis b. Diphtheria c. Botulism d. Tuberculosis
905. Dose of BCG vaccine is

a. 0.2-0.5ml b. 0.1 md c. 0.05ml d. 0.2 to 0.3ml
906. Negative Mantoux test is Important in

a. Pulmonary Koch’s Syndrome b. Sarcoidosis c. Carcinoma bronchus d. Lymphoma
907.Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of

a. Human tubercle bacilli b. Avian tubercle bacilli c. Bovine tubercle bacilli d. A typical
mycobacteria
908. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are

a. Refempicin, Isoniazed b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin c. Both a and b d. None of
these
632

909. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present is
a. Large sized tuberculomas b. Miliary tuberculosis c. Tuberculous lymphdinitis d.
Tuberculous cavity of the lung
910. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of

a. Tuberculoid Leprosy b. Borderline tuberculoid c. Borderline lepramatous d.
Leprometous leprosy
911. Sterptococcuspyogens produces all of the following lesions, exvept

a. Impetigo contagiosa b. Erysipeals c. Boil d. Paronchia
912. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:

a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus viridians c. Stre. Pyogens d. None of these
913. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by

a. Str. Viridians b. Str. Pyogenes c. Stph. Aures d. None of these
914. Penicilli is the frug of choice for

a. Scarlet fever b. Whooping cough c. Brucellosis d. Cholera
915. In human being str.pneumoniae causes

a. Speticaemia b. Paronychia c. Pneumomnia d. None of these
916. Virulence factor for Stre. Pneumoniae:

a. Capsular polysaccharide b. Specific soluble substance c. Vi- antigen d. Forsmann
antigen
917. Conjunctivitis is a new born is caused by

a. Streptococcus b. Pneumococcus c. Meningococci d. None of these
918. Influenza is belonging to

a. Orthomyxoviridae b. Retroviridae c. Both a and b d. None of these
920. Infleunza virus contains

a. Eight segments of RNA b. Two strands of RNA c. Single RNA d. None of these
921. ‘ Reye’s syndrome is caused by

a. St.pneumoniae b. St. pyogenes c. Influenza d. None of these
922. Geraman measles is also known as

a. Rubella/ 2-days measles b. Rubella / 3 days measles
c. Rubella / 4- days measles d. Rubella/1-days measles
923. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes

a. Congential rubella b. Post natal rubella c. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS) d. Both a
and c
633

924. Mumps virus is belonging go
a. Retroviriae b. Paramyxoviriae c. Orthomyxo viridae d. None of these
925. Measles is characterized by

a. Negribodies b. Babes- Ernest granules c. Koplik’s spots d. Fever
926. Brucella causes

a. Pertusis b. Plague c. Brucellosis d. None of these
927. Mediteranian fever is caused by

a. M.tuberculosis b. S. typhi c. C. neoformans d. Brucella
928. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?

a. Frei b. weil c. Castaneda strip d. Rose water
929. Malignant pustule is caused by

a. Anthrax b. Tetanus c. Diphtheria d. None of these
930. The commonest from of anthrax in man is

a. Alimentary b. Cutaneous c. Pulmonary d. Hepatic
931. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are

a. Sheep b. Cattle c. Goats d. All of these
932. Virus causing Rabies is

a. Orthromyxo virus b. Paramyxo virus c. Rhbdo virus d. Toga viruses
933. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:

a. Rhabdo viridae b.. Toga viruses c. Paramyxo viridea d. None of these
934. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
a. Street virus b. Fixed Virus c. Both a and b d. None of these
935. Rabies virus can multiply in

a. The central nervous system only b. The peripheral nerves c. Muscle tissues d. All of
above
936. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with

a. Chick embryo vaccine b. HDCS vaccine c. Semple vaccine d. BPL vaccine
937. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
a. Duck embryo vaccine b. HDCS vaccine c. Sheep brain vaccine d. BPL vaccine
938. The causative agent of tetanus is

a. Clostridium botulinum b. Cl. Tetani c. Cl. Welchii d. Cl. Perfringens
634

939. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
a. Via lymphaties b. Arterial blood c. Cranial nerves d. None of these
940.Tetanus is caused by spread of

a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system b. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system c. Endotoxin
in sympathetic sytem d. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system
941. The first symptom of tetanus is

a. Lock jaw b. Trismus c. Anorexia d. Dyspagia
942. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?

a. Cl. Teeani b. Cl. Welchii c. Cl. Botulism d. Cl. Septicum
943. Toxin produced by C. botulism is

a. Botulin b. Tetanospasmin c. Tetanolysin d. Cholaragen
944. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of

a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyoge c. Vibrio cholera d. Candida
945. Causative agent of syphilis

a. T. pallidum b. T. pertenue c. T. carateum d. T. endemicum
946. Spirochaelis are sensitive to

a. Penicillin b. Chlormaphenicols c. Erythromycin d. Tetracyclins
947. Specific test for syphilis is

a. VDRL test b. ELISA c. FTA d. None of these
948. VDRL test is a

a. AGGlutination test b. Slide flocculation test c. Precipitation test d. None of these
949. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
a. Gram- negative, aerobic bacteria b. Non-motile diplococcic c. Oxidase positive
organisms d. Air borne infection
950. Gonorrhoea is
a. Air borne disease b. Water borne disease c. Sexually transmitted veneral disease d.
Both a and c
951. Bartholin cyst is caused by

a. Candida b. Streptococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Gonococcus
952. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes

a. Urethritis b. Conjectivitis c. Arthritis d. All of the above
635

953. Virulence in gonococcusis due to
a. Pili b. Cell mmembrane c. Its cellular lacation d. Cyclic enzymes
954. Japanese encephalitis is caused by

a. Toga viruses b. Arbo viruses c. Para myxo viruses d. Ortho myxo viruses
955. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolatedfrom the mosquitoes of the
a. Culex tritaeriorhynchus b. Culex annulirostris c, Culex vishnui d. None of these
956. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the

a. Sand fly b. Ticks c. Aedes aegypti d. Culex
957. Yellow fever is caused by

a. Bunya virus b. Calci virus c. Arbo virus d. None of these
958. Vector for leishmaniasis is

a. Tick b. Mite c. Sand fly d. Tsetse fly
959. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of

a. kala-agar b. Typhoid c. Malaria d. All of these
960. Which of the following is most severely affected in kala-azar?

a. Liver b. Spleen c. Adrenal gland d. Bone marrow
961. In India, malaria most often spreads by

a. Anophels cucifacies b. Anopheles fluvatis c.Anopheles stephensi d. Anopheles
minimus
962. Man is intermediate host for

a. Guinea Worm b. Filaria c. Malaria d. Kala- azar
963. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?

a. P. ovale c. P. vivax c. P. falciparum d. P. malaria
964. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?

a. P. ovale b. P. vivax c. P. falcipuram d. P. malaria
965. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
a. Ring stage b. Schizont c. Gametocyte d. None of these
966.Sporozite vaccine in malaria has

a. Induces antibodies b. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction c. No effects on
clinical lines d. None of these
636

967. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria
due to
a. P. falciparum b. P. vivax c. P.ovale d. P malaria
968. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify

a. Plasmodium b. Gamatocytes c. Type of parasite d. Schizont
969. The radical treatment of malaria is to half

a. Gametocyte b. Exo-erythrocytic phase c. Erythrocytic phase d. All of these
970. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis

a. Osteogenic sarcoma b. Lymphatic leukemia c. Malaise & anorexia d. Both a and b
971. Most important penicillium toxins are

a. Citrinin b. Patulin c. Penicilli acid d. Yeasts
972.Penicillic acid is produced by

a. A. ochraceus b. P. puberulum c. Both a and b d. None of the above
973. Fungi producting mycelium re called

a. Moulds b. Filamentous fungi c. Both a and b d. Yeasts
974. Candidiasis is caused by

a. Candida albicans b. Aspergillus spp.c. E. floccosum d. M. audouinii
975. Candida albicans is capable to form

a. Single cells b. Pseudomonas c. Multicellular forms d. None of these
976. Aspergillus Fumigatus can infect

a. A. niger b. A. fumigates c. A. flavus d. A. oryzae
977. A. fumigates can produce

a. Endotoxins b.. Exotoxins c. Enterotoxins None of these
978. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin b. Amphotericin B c. Gentian violet d. Nystatin
979. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except

a. P.commune b. P. bicolor c. P. glaucum d. P. notatum
980. Tinea versicolor is caused by

a. Candida albicans b. Malassezia furfur c. Aspergillus niger d. None of these
981. Causative agent of Tinea nigra

a. Malassezia furfur b. Exophiala werenekii c. Candida albicans d. Aspergillus flavus
637

982. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Histoplasma duboissi c. Aspergillus niger d. Aspergillus
flavus
983. Sun ray fungus is

a. Actinomyces irraeli b. Chromoblastomycosis c. Streptomyces griseus d.
Cryptococcosis
984. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits it s growth and on removel the colony
regrows is ?
a. Bacteriostatic b. Bactericidal c. Antibiotic d. Antiseptic
985. Griseofluvin is obtained from

a.Penicillium notatum b. Streptomyces griseus c. Penicillium griseofluvin d. None of
these
986. b- lactum ring is present in

a. Erythromycin b. penicillin c. Tetracyclins d. Chloramphenicol
987. All fo the following drugs act on cell memnrane, except

a. Novobiocin b. Nystatin c. Chloromycetin d. colicins
988. Cycloserine related to the amino acid in structure

a. Serine b. Aspergine c. Alanine d. None of these
989. In Tuberculosis therapy mainly used antibiotic is

a. Penicillin b. Streptomycin c. Chloramphenol d. Cycloserine
990. The antibacterial action of penicillin is due to its effect on

a. Cell membrane permeability b. Cell wall synthesis c. DNA synthesis d. Protein
synthesis
991. The antibiotic produced from Bacillus subtillis is

a.. Vancomycin b. Bactriacin c. Both a and b d. None of these
992. Bacitracin sensitivity test is done for

a. Pneunocci b. Group’ A’ Streptococci c. Gonococci d. Staphylococci
993. The effect of antibiotics on micro organisms is mainly due to

a.Inhibition of cellwall synthesis b. Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane c. Inhibition
of nucleic acid and protein synthesis d. All of the above
994. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is

a. Penicillin b. Bacitracin c. Cyclosporin d. All of the above
638

995. Eruthromycin belongs to chemical class of antibiotics
a. a- lactose b. Tetracyclines c. Macrolides d. Aminoglycosides
996.Bacterial resistance ot antibiotics is transmitted by

a. Transduction b. Transformation c. Mutation d. Plasmids
997. Erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis by

a. Attaching to 30 S ribosome unit b. Attaching to 50 S unit of ribosome
c. By the attachment to t- RNA d. By the attachment to m- RNA
998. The functi(THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid coenzyme include

a. Amino acid synthesis b. Thymidine synthesis c. Protein synthesis d. Both a and b
999. Resistant to drugs in tuberculosis develops by

a. Transduction .b. Transformation c. Conjugation d. Mutation
1000. Virus causing mumps is also responsible for

a. Measles b. Hepatitis A c. Rabies d. Variola

1001. Epidemic pleurodynia and myocaidtis of new born infants are both caused by
a. Group Bcox sack virus b. Reovirus c. Polyomavirus d. Cytomegalovirus
1002. Human papillomavirus causes following tumors:

a. Hepatic carcinoma b. Cervical cancer c. Condyloma acuminatum
1003. Viral Infection is caused due to

a. Acute self limited illness b. No apparent symptoms c. Chronic infection with
persistent viral shedding d. All of these
1004. Viruses which do not carry enzymes for DNA synthesis as a part of their virion are
a. Hepatitis B virus b. Poxyviruses c. Heepes simplex virus d. Retroviruses
1005. Following virus known to establish latent infections:

a. Adeno virus b. Varicella-zoster virus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Hepes simplex virus
e. All of these
1006. Viruses which have teratogenic property are

a. Herpes simplex virus b. Cytomeglovirus c. Rubella virus d. All of these
1007. Kawasaki syndrome is

a. Most prevalent in Japan and Hawaii
b. Patients show rickettsia like bacteria in skin biopsies
c. Strain involved may be propionibacterium
d. All of these
639

1008. Mode of action of quinolone antibiotics on growing bacteria was thought to be
a. Inhibition of a lactamase b. Prevention o the cross linking of glycine
c. Inhibition of DNA gyrase d. Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
1009. The role that human play in the plague life cycle is
a. Secondary reservoir b. Primary transmission vector c. Primary host d. Accidental
intruderin rat flea cycle e. None of these
1010. Patient with presence of penile chancre should be advised by physician

a. To take rest at home b. To swab the chancre and culture on Thayer- Martin agar
c. To Gram stain the chancre fluid d. To repeat VDRL test in 10 hours e. Perform dark
field microscopy for treponemes
1011. Which organism is responsible for causing fever to a man dealing with goats?
a.Trepanema pallidum b. M. tuberculosis c. Clostridium novyl d. Brucellamelitensis
e. None of these
1012. Diphtheria toxins are produced from the strains of C. diphtheria, which are
a. Encapsulated b. Sucrose fermentors c. Of the mitis and stain d. Glucose fermentors
e. Lysogenic f, or a prophase
1013. Skin of the healthy person has normal microbial flora which includes
a. Enterobacteriaceae b. Aerobic diphtheria bacilli c. Anerobic diphtheria bacilli d. Non
hemolytic staphylococci e. All of these
1014. Which of the following organisms can infect humans if improperly cooked meat is
used?
a. TRichinella spiralis b. Taeniasaginata c. Taenia solium d. Diphyllobothrium latum e.
Both a and c
1015. The parasite related to ancylostoma duodenale is

a. Wuchereriabancrofti b. Necatur americanes c. Loa loa d. TRichinella spiralis
1016. Which of the following amoeba does not live in large intestine?
a. Entamoeba coli b. Entamoeda histolytica c. Endolimax nana d. Entamoebagingivatis
1017.Which of thef ollowing is not related to congenital syphilis?

a. Aneruysm b. Saddle nose c. Still birth d. Hutchiso’s Teeth
1018. Streptococus pyogens produce infection

a. Streptococcal sore throat b. Acute glomarulo nephirits c. Rheumatic fever d. None of
these
1019. Salmonella which can cause prolong septicaemia

a. Salmonella anetum b. Salmonella cholerasuis c. Salmonelle typhimurium d.
Salmonella entritidis
640

1020. E. Coli produces which type of toxins?
a. Exotoxins b. Endotoxins c. Leucocidin d. Both a and b
1021. Main causative organism of gas gangrene is

a. B. anthrax b. Clostridium tetani c. Cl. Deficile d. Cl. Perfringens
1022. Causative organism of whooping cough is

a. Bordetella pertussis b. Bordetella parapertussis c, Bordetella bronchi septica

Pathology

1. Frozen Section is used of the following except
a. Fat demonstration b. Amyloid c. Rapid diagnosis d. Enzymes
2. Who is the father of medicine ?

a. Hippocrates b. Shusruta c. Celsus d. Galen
3. Hippocrates is the father of medicine study of tissues removed from living body is
known as
a. Histopathology b. Cyto Pathology
c. Surgical Pathology d. Human pathology
4. The most common cause of cell injury

a. Hypoxia b. Trauma c. Drugs d. Chemicals
5. Which among the following is not seen in reversible cell injury?

a. Decreased cellular ATP b. Increased intracellular pH
c. Reduced Protein Synthesis d. none
6. The most important event in irreversible cell injury is

a. Damage to lysosomal membrances
b. Mitochondrial Dysfunction
c. Damage to plasma membrance
d. None
7. When the lschemia is for longer duration, reperfusion deteriorates the already injured
cell leading to
a. Free radial mediated cell injury b. Ischemic-reperfusion injury
c. Reversible cell injury d. Irreversible cell injury
8. ___________ Cell injury plays an important role in kills of exogenous biologic agents.
a. Free radical mediated cell injury b. ischemic-reperfusion injury
c. Reversible reperfusion injury d. Irreversible reperfusion injury
641

9. Antioxidants amongst the following
a. VitaminA b. VitaminE
c. Vitamin C d. All
10. Some chemicals combine with the components of the cell and produce direct
cytotoxicity, such type of pathogenesis is seen in ________ injury
a. Physical b. Chemical
c. Free radical mediated d. Irreversible cell injury
11. Commonest and earliest form of cell injury from almost all causes
a. Cellular swelling b. Hyaline change
c. Mucoidchange d. None
12. Accumulation of neutral fat within the parenchymal cells is called

a. Fatty liver b. Fatty change
c. Mucoid change d. Hyaline change
13. Which amongst the following is an endogenous pigment?

a. Haemosiderin b. Coal dust
c. Carbon d. None
14. The following characteristic features are seen in necrosis

a. Cell digestion by lytic enzymes
b. Denaturation of proteins
c. Both
d. None
15. Programmed and co-ordinated cell death is

a. Necrosis b. Apoptosis
c. Both d. None
16. Reduction of number and size of parenchymal cells of an organ

a. Atrophy b. Dystrophy
c. Hypertrophy d. Aplasia
17. Study of tissues and organs received at postmortem is known as

a. Histopathology b. Cyto pathology
c. Surgical pathology d. Forensic pathology
18. The icons present in urine is

c. Chloride d. All of the above
19. PAP’s smear is used for detection of

a. Oral cancer b. Cervical cancer
c. Ovarian Cancer d. Laryngeal cancer
642

20. Tissues in histopathology are carried out in
a. 10% buffered formation b. Normal saline
b. 4% glutaraldehyde d. Camay’s fixative
21. Bronchiectasis is of bronchi ________ of bronchi

a. Inflammation b. Dilatation
c. Cavitations d. All of the above
22. Causes of Rheumatic tever is

a. Staphylococcus aureus b. 3 Hemolytic streptococci
c. c Hemolytic streptococci d. Enterococcus
23. Reversible change of one type to another type of adult epithelial or mesenchymal
cells usually in response to abnormal stimulus and often reverts back to normal on
removal of stimulus.
a. Aplasia b. Hyperplasia
c. Metaplasia d. Dysplasia
24. Which amongst the following sign of inflammation is designated as heat?

a. Rubor b. Tumor
c. Calor d. Dolor
25. Frozen section is used for following except

a. Fat demonstration b. Amvloid
c. Rapid diagnosis d. Enzymes
26. Fluorescent microscopy is used for following purpose except

a. Glomerular diseases b. Bullous dermatosis
c. Tumor of uncertain origin d. Serum auto antibodies
27. Commonest site of peptic ulcer is

a. Antral portion of stomach b. Within a Barret’s esophagus
c. First portion of duodenum d. Meckel’s diverticulum
28. All are features of gastric ulcer except

a. No vomiting b. No night pain
c. Haematemesis occurs d. Loss of weight occurs
29. Causes of gastric ulcer include

a. Helicobacter pylon b. Chronic gastritis
c. Smoking and drugs d. All of the above
30. The ulcers in Typhoid fever are seen mostly in

a. Terminal part of ileum b. Antral portion of stomach
c. First part of duodenum d. Large intestine
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31. Cancer of oral cavity most commonly affects the
a. Tongue b. Floor of mouth
c. Lower lips d. Buccal mucosa
32. On histology the most common hostological picture seen in oral cancer is
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Transitional cell carcinoma
33. The patients of following blood group have highest tendency of gastric carcinoma
a. Blood group A b. Blood group O
c. AB blood group d. Blood group B
34. Linitus plastica is a variant of

a. Oral carcinoma b. Gastric carcinoma
c. Oesophageal carcinoma d. Pancreatic carcinoma
35. All is true about carcinoid tumors except

a. Arise from Neuroendocrine kulchitsky cells
b. Terminal ileum and appendix common site
c. Stain positively with silver salts
d. They produce local symptoms only
36. The features of colorectal carcinoma include

a. 60% of cases involve the rectum
b. 95% of them are adenocarcinomas
c. CEA is positive in 100% metastatic lesions
d. All of the above
37. Following are features of hepatitis

a. There are five main types of hepatotropic viruses
b. Incubation period of hepatitis A is 15-45 days
c. Hepatitis B and C are spread by parenteral route
d. All of the above
38. Serologic markers of Hepatitis B are all except

a. Anti HAV b. H 13s Ag
c. HBcAg d. Anti HBeAg
39. Most sensitive index of Hepatitis B infection

a. Anti HBe b. HBeAg
c. HBV DNA d. Anti HBC antibody
40. During hepatitis infection infectivity is highest during

a. Incubation period b. Preicteric phase
c. Icteric phase d. None of the above
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41. piecemeal necrosis is characteristic of
a. Acute hepatitis b. Chronic hepatitis
c. Carrier state d. Fulminant hepatitis
42. Anchovy sauce pus is seen in

a. Pyogenic liver abscess b. Amoebic liver abscess
c. Fungal abscess d. None of the above
43. Commonest type of cirrhosis is

a. Postnecrotic b. Alcoholic
c. Biliary d. Wilison’s disease
44. Commonest malignancy of small intestine is
a. Adenocarcmoma b. Lymphoma
c. Carcmoid d. Leiomyosarcoma
45. Commonest variety of carcinoma stomach is

a. Squamous carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Colloid carcinoma d. None
46. Typhoid ulcer is

a. Ulceration of payer’s patch
b. Longitudinal ulcer
c. May perforate
d. Stricture is rare
e. All of the above
47. Commonest site of tuberculosis of intestines

a. Stomach b. Ileum
c. JeJunum d. colon
48. Colorectal carcinoma is associated with

a. High fibre intake b. Low fibre intake
c. High fat intake d. Smoked fish
49. Most common type of cells in peritoneal fluid in tuberculosis peritonitis is

a. Eosinophils b. Polymorphs
c. Lymphocytes d. monocytes
50. Gastric ulcer is caused due to

a. Bile acid reflux b. Recurrent trauma
c. Hyperacidity d. Decreased mucosal resistance
51. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in

a. Alcoholic cirrhosis b. Wilson disease
c. Budd chiarii syndrome d. Post necrotic syndrome
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52. The characteristic feature of chronic alcoholic liver disease
a. Fatty liver b. Cirrhosis
c. Periportal fibrosis d. Hyaline sclerosis
53. A person is labeled as hepatitis carrier if HBsAg is positive after

54. Piece meal necrosis is seen in

a. Alcoholic b. Chronic pancreatitis
c. Indian childhood cirrhosis d. Chronic active hepatitis
55. Disruption of visceral epithelial cells is seen in

a. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
b. membrano proliferative glomeruloscierosis
c. Minimal change disease
d. membraneous glomerulonephritis
56. Symmetrically contracted kidneys are seen in

a. Chronic pyelonephritis
b. Benign nephosclerosis
c. Chronic glomerulonephritis
d. Both (b) and (c)
57. Duscrete yellowish raised abscesses are seen in

a. Acute pyelonephritis
b. Chonic glomerulonephritis
c. Acute glomerulonephritis
58. Causes of chronic pyleonephritis are

a. Obstruction b. Both
c. Vesicouretral d. None of the above
59. Most common type of stones seen in kidneys are

a. Calcium Stones b. struvite stones
c. Cystine stones d. Uric acid stones
60. Stones mostly associated with urine tract infections are

a. Calcium stones b. Mixed struvite stones
c. Uric acid stones d. Cystine stones
61. Causes of Ischemic Acute tubular necrosis are all except

a. Shock b. Dehydration
c. Crush injuries d. Drugs
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62. The most common histological pattern in renal carcinoma is
a. papillary type b. Granular type
c. Clear cell d. Chromophobe type
63. Most common clinical presentation of renal cell carcinoma is

a. pain abdomen b. Frequency of micturition
c. Haematuria d. None of the above
64. Splitting of glomerular basement membrane is seen in

a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Membraneous glomerulonephritis
c. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
d. Good Pasteur syndrome
65. All are decreased in nephritic syndrome except

a. Albumin b. Transterrin
c. Ceruloplasmin d. Fibrinogen
66. Basement membrane has type collagen

a. I b. II
c. III d. IV
67. Crescent in post streptococcal glomerulornephritis are

a. Epithelial cells
b. Mesangial cells
c. Epithelial cells, mesangial cells and macrophages
d. Macrophages
68. Microscopic picture of seminoma includes all of the following excepts

a. Gland formation
b. Monomorphic cells
c. Lymphocytic infiltration
d. Destruction of seminiferous tubules
69. In India acute hepatitis A mostly affects

a. Elderly diabetics
b. Children between 3-12 years
c. Pregnant women
d. newborn infants
70. All of the following predispose to gall stones except

a. Oral contraceptives
b. Inflamatory bowel disease
c. Intravenous hyperalimentation
d. Primary biliary cirrhosis
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71. Causes of acute nephritic syndrome Includes
a. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
b. SLE
c. Polyarteritis nodosa
d. All of the above
72. Immune complexes deposited as subendothelial and subepithelial humps are seen in
a. Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis
b. Repidy progressive glomerulonephritis
c. Focal glomerulonephritis
d. IgA nephropathy
73. Crescent formation is seen in

a. Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis
b. Membrane proliferative glomerulonephritis
c. Focal glomerulonephritis
d. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
74. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by

a. Massive proteinuria b. Generalized edema
c. Hypoalbuminemia d. Hyperlipidemia
e. All of above
75. Loss of epithelial foot processes is characteristic of

a. Focal sclerosis
d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
76. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome is adults is

a. Minimal change disease
b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
d. Focal sclerosis
77. In frozen section, tissue is frozen to ice at

a. -20’C b. -4’C
c. -30’C d. -25’C
78. Dark ground illumination is used for examining

a. Live Treponema pallidum b. Tubercule bacilli
c. Lepra bacilli d. Hepatitis B virus
79. Polarising microscope is used for demonstration of

a. Amyloid b. Hair
c. Foreign body d. All
648

80. Immunohistochemistry is used for detecting all except
a. Tumors of uncertain histogenesis
b. Prognostic Markers
c. Chromosomal abnormalities
d. Pnemnocystis carini infection
81. Cytogenetics is the study of

a. Chromosomal structure b. Localization of antigen
c. Infectious diseases d. All
82. Cell membrane structure is

a. Trilaminar b. Bilaminar
c. Urilaminar d. All of the above
83. Adaptation of cell to injury includes

a. Atrophy b. Hypertrophy
c. Hyperplasia d. All
84. Causes of cell injury are

a. Hypoxia
b. Microbiologic agent
c. All
85. Shrinkage in size of cell is known as

a. Atrophy b. Hypertrophy
c. Hyperplasia d. All
86. Total lack of differentiation is known as

a. Anaplasia b. Metaplasia
c. Dysplasia d. Hyperplasia
87. Primary causes of non inflammatory edema are all except

a. Increase intravascular pressure
b. Diminished plasma oncotic pressure
c. Increased vascular permeability
d. Lymphatic obstruction
88. Cells most sensitive to hypoxia are

a. Myocardial cells b. Neurones
c. Hepatocyles q d. Renal tubular epithelial cells
89. All are granulomatous diseases except

a. Tuberculosis b. Leprosy c. Amoebiasis d. Sarcod
90. The 4 classical features of inflammation were described by

a. Celsus b. Hippocrates c. Aristotle d. Galen
649

91. Granulation tissue appearance is due to
a. Thrombosed capillaries b. Chronic inflammatory cells
c. Buddingend of capillaries d. Densely packed collagen
92. Macrophages are seen in

a. Early inflammation c. wound repair
b. Late inflammation d. Healing
93. Commonest site for metastasis is

a. Lung b. brain
c. liver d. kidney
94. Process of engulfment of solid particulate material by the cells is called

a. Phagocytosis b. Pinocytosis
c. Exocytosis d. None
95. Which amongst the following are cell derived mediators of inflammation?
a. Histamine b. Serotonin
c. Prostaglandins d. All
96. Which amongst the following is not a plasma derived mediator ?

a. Leukotriences b. Fibrin split products
c. Bradykinin d. Anaphylotoxins
97. Macrophages of liver cells are called :

a. Histiocytes b. Microglial cells
c. Kupffer cells d. None
98. Causes of acute nephritic syndrome is

a. SLE
b. Polyarteritis nodosa
c. Post strep tococcal glomerulonephritis
d. All of the above
99. Which of the following is the characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?

a. generalized edema b. Hypoalbuminia
c. Massive proteinura d. All of the above
100. The Primary agranuloma formed in TB is known as

a. Ghon’s-focus b. Caseous focus
c. Gobletcells d. Reid cells
101. In chronic bronchitis reid’s index is

a. 1:3 b. 1:2
c. 1:4 d. 1:6
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102. All is correct about transudative pieural effusion:
a. Specific gravity more than 1.012
b. protein content below 1 gin
c. Diagnosed by obliterated chest cavity shadow on X-ray
d. Causes include CHF, renal failure
103. causes of lung abscess are

a. Aspiration of infective material
b. Aspiration of gastric contents
c. complication of pneumonia
d. All the above
104. Causes of lung tumor are

a. Cigarette smoking b. Atmosphrric pollution
c. Radiation exposure d. All the above
105. In asthma
a. Extrinsic and intrinsic triggering factors responsible
b. Sputum contains eosinophils, and Charcot layden crystal
c. Treatment includes bronchodilators and corticosteroids
d. All of the above
106. Entry of air into connective tissue frame work of lung is known as
a. interstitial emphysema
b. Senile hyperflation
c. Compensatory overinflation
d. Bronchiectasis
107. Commonest tumor of lungs is

a. Non small cell lung carcinoma
b. Small cell lung carcinoma
c. mixed patterns
108. In grey hepatisation

a. WBC’s fill the alveoli b. RBC’s fill the alveoli
c. Organisms fill the alveoli d. Accumulation of fibrin
109. Lung abscess is common following ____ pneumonia

a. Streptococcal b. Staphylococcal
c. Viral d. Pneumococcal
110. A antitrypsin deficiency occurs in

a. Emphysema b. Bronchiectsis
c. Empyema d. Bronchogenic carcinoma
651

111. Normal blood urea level is
a. 10-12 Mg % b. 14-40 Mg %
c. 40-60 MG % d. None of the above
112. Normal Creatinine level is

a. 0.6-1.2 Mg/l b. 1.5-2.5 Mg/l
c. 4.5-5.5 Mg/l d. 10-12 Mg/l
113. Normal value of uric acid is

a. 1.5-2.4 Mg/dl b. 2.5-3.5 Mg/dl
c. 3.7-7.0 Mg/dl d. More than 10.0 Mg/dl
114. Elevated bilirubin level is seen in following diseases

a. Liver diseases b. Obstruction of biliary tract
c. Excessive haemolysis d. All of the above
115. Which of the following is a commonest complication of TB meningitis?

a. Cerebral infarction b. Hydrocephalus
c. Hemorrhage d. Tuberculoma
116. What is the CSF cell count in tubercular meningitis?

a. 0-99 b. 100-499
c. 500-999 d. 1000-1500
117. Which of the following is not true about pyogenic meningitis?

a. Pleocytosis
b. Markedly decreased CSF glucose
c. Decreased CSF c-reaction protein
d. Increased CSF protein
118. One of the following substances is toxic to the neurons

a. Bile salt b. Unconjugated bilirubin
c. Melanin d. Hemoglobin
119. Most common termination of lobar pneumonia is

a. Consolidation b. Resolution
c. Abscess formation d. Empyema
120. Bronchiectasis means __________ of bronchi

a. Inflammation b. Dilation
c. Cavitation d. All the above
121. Emphysema pathologically involves beyond the

a. Bronchi b. Terminal bronchiole
c. Respiratory bronchiole d. Alveolar sac
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122. Reid’s index used in diagnosis of
a. Chronic bronchitis b. Bronchiectasis
c. Pneumonia d. Bronchial asthma
123. Smoking causes all except

a. Chronic bronchtitis b. Emphysema
c. Bronchogenic cancer d. Bronchiectastis
124. The alveoll are filled with exudates; the air is displaced converting lung into solid
organ. These shows
a. Chronic bronchitis b. Acute bronchitis
c. Pneumonia d. Bronchiectasis
125. Sputum from an asthma patient may show ________

a. Numerous eosinophils b. Curschmann’s spirals
c. Charcot laydencrystals d. All the above
126. Neurocandeine hormone is released by

a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Squamous cell membrance
c. Small cell carcinoma
d. Large cell carcinoma
127. Tuberculosis infection spreads through the following modes excepts

a. Direct extension b. Lymphatics
c. Nerves d. Blood stream
128. Cause of rheumatic fever is

a. Beta haemolytic streptococci
b. Alpha haemolytic streptococci
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Enterococcus
129. Fish mouth or button hole stenosis of mitral valve is seen in

a. Chronic rheumatic endocarditis
b. Infections endocarditis
d. Pericarditis
130. In the initial stage the atherosclerosis known as

a. Fatty streak b. Atheromatous plaque
c. Complicated plaques d. None of the above
131. Complication of MI include

a. Cardiogenic shock b. Arrhythmias
c. CHF d. All the above
653

132. Painful tender nodules in finger of hands and feet are known as
a. Osler’s nodes b. Heberden nodes
c. Erythema margenotom d. None of the above
133. The major revised jones criteria for diagnosing of rheumatic fever are all Except
_________
a. Carditis b. Polyarthritis
c. Chorea d. Fever
134. The vegetation of infective endocarditis are

a. Friable bulky
b. irregular microbe laden
c. Occur near lines of closure
d. All the above
135. The clinical effects of aneurysm include

a. Erosion of neighboring structure
b. Compression
c. Thrombosis
d. Rupture
e. All the above
136. Syphilis affects most commonly

a. Proximal aorta b. Descending aorta
c. Ascending aorta d. Both b & c
137. At what age an appreciable intima appears in human aorta

c. 1-3 years d. 3-5 years
138. Characteristic Cardiovascular lesion in syphilis is

a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aneurysm of arch of aorta
c. Aortic stenosis d. Medial necrosis
139. Most accepted theory of atherosclerosis is _________

a. Lipid infiltration of intima b. Reaction of endothelial injury
c. Due to smoking d. Hyperlipidaemia
140. The characteristic feature in histology of atherosclerosis is

a. Vasculitis b. Intimal fibrosis
c. Median necrosis d. Deposition of fat in intimae
141. The commonest type of pericarditis in acute rheumatic fever is

a. Serous b. fibrinous
c. Seroflbrinous d. Purulent
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142. The characteristic feature of rheumatic heart disease is
a. Microthrombi in coronary vessel
b. Septic emboli
c. Valvular involvement
d. Subendocardial fibrosis
143. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of acute rheumatic fever?
a. Pancarditis b. Endocarditis
c. Myocarditis d. Pericarditis
144. The predominant cells 72 hours after MI are known

a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes
c. Macrophages d. Mast cells
145. Diagnostic histological features of rheumatic carditis

a. Aschoff nodule b. Bread-butter Pericarditis
c. Eosinophilicinfiltration d. Patchy infarction
146. The most characteristic histological finding of acute rheumatic carditis is

a. Fibrinous pericarditis
b. Vegetation on mitral valve leaflets
c. Aschoff bodies in myocardium
d. Increased vascularity values
147. Stones mostly associated with urinary tract infections are

a. Uric acid stone b. Calcium stone
c. Cystine stone d. Mixed struvite stone
148. Which of the following is not decreased in nephritic syndrome?

a. Albumin c. Transferin
b. Ceruloplasmin d. Fibrinogen
149. Which of the following is a risk factor for carcinoma cervix?

a. Too many children
b. Sexual intercourse at early age
c. Low socio-economic status
d. All of the above
150. Which of the following is not a signs of carcinoma cervix?

a. Bleeds on touch b. Haematemesis
c. Indurations d. Fixity
151. Which of the following is an etiology of carcinoma cervix?

a. STD’s b. Nulliparity
c. Genetic factors d. DM
655

152. Normal bleeding time is
a. 2-1 mm b. 1-5 mm
c. 10-15 mm d. -3 mm
153. Which of the following cancer is most common among women in developing
countries ? (b)
a. Oral cancer b. Ca-cervix
c. Ca-endometrium d. Choriocarcinoma
154. Abbreviation ESR stands for

a. Erythrocyte sedation rate
b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation ratio
155. Which of the following is the risk factor for breast cancer?
a. Nulliparous
b. Avoid breast feeding
c. First child after age of 35 years
d. All of the above
156. Serial HCG test is used to diagnose the following condition

a. Ca cervix b. Ca vagina
c. Ca endometrium d. Choriocarcinoma
157. Which of the following is most common germ cell tumor ?

a. Yolk sac tumor b. Sominoma
c. Teratoma d. Choriocarcinoma
158. The specific gravity of normal urine is

a. 1.003-1.030 b. 1.050-1.060
c. 1.51-1.161 d. 1.016-1.166
159. Which of the following test is used to detect ketone bodies?

a. Rothera’s test b. Benedict test
c. Sulphar test d. All of the above
160.Most sensitive and specific investigation for diagnosing breast cancer is

a. CT scan b. MRI
c. X-ray d. Mammography
161. Normal clotting time is

a. 2-1 mm b. 4-7 mm c. 10-15 mm d. 1-3 mm
162. The average pH of semen is

a. Less than 7 b. 7-7.7 c. More than 8 d. Neutral
656

163. Loss of strength in one half of body with or without face is known as
a. Hemiplagia b. Quadriplegia
c. Paraplegia d. Facial palsy
164. Content of protein in normal urine is

a. Less than 50mg b. 50-100mg
c. 100-200 mg d. 200-250 mg
165. Paralysis lf all four limbs is known as

a. Hemiplagia b. Quardriplegia
c. Paraplegia d. Facial palsy
166. CSF cell count in tubercular meningitis varies between

a. 0-99 b. 100-499
c. 500-999 d. 1000-5000
167. Normal RBC count is

a. 2-3 million b. 4.2-6 million
c. 7-10 million d. 10-15 million
168. Pott’s disease is also known as

a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Tuberculosis spine
c. Osteoarthritis d. None of the above
169. Which of the following factor is responsible for osteoporosis?

a. Heparin b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. All of the above
170. Best indication of testicular biopsy is

a. Necrospermia b. Pyospermia c. Oligospermia d. Azoospermia
171. Commonest histological type of carcinoma testis is

a. Seminoma b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Yolk sac tumor d. Teratoma
172. Carcinoma penis is rarest among

a. Americans b. Indians
c. Swedes d. Normal sertoli cell
173. All are true about atrophic testis except

a. Leydig cell hypoplasia b. Lymphocyte infiltration
c. Small size d. Normal sertoli cell
174. Testicular involvement without epiditymitis is a feature of

a. Gonorrhoea b. Syphilis
c. Tuberculosis d. Granuloma inguinale
657

175. The prostate growth in benign prostate hypertrophy is due to
a. Testostcrone b. 17 estradiol
c. Dihydrotestosterone d. Oestrogen
176. Microscopic picture of seminoma testis is

a. glandular with papillary growth
b. Dermoid elements
c. Hyper chromatic nuclei in eosinophllicc cytoplasm
d. Sheets of lymphocytes in homogenous background
177. True about cryptorchidism is

a. 75% cases lie at inguinal ring
b. Also known as undescended testis
c. Testis is small and fibrous
d. All of the above
178. Causes of testicular atrophy are all except:

a. End stage orchitis
b. Benign prostratic hyperplasia
c. Cirrhosis
d. Malnutrition
179. The apparatus used to measure hemoglobin in blood is known as

a. Hematometer b. Haemocytometer
c. Haemoglobinometer d. Albuminometer
180. The primary granuloma formed in T.B is known as

a. Ghon’s focus b. Caseous focus
c. Goblet cells d. Reid’s cells
181. In chronic Bronchitis Reid’s index is

a. 1:3 b. 1:2 c. 1:4 d. 1:6
182. All is correct about transudative pleural effusion

a. Specific gravity more than 1.012
b. Protein content below 1 gm
c. Diagnosed by obliterated chest cavity shadow on x-ray
d. Causes include CHF, Renal failure
183. In grey, hepatisation

a. WBC’s fill the alveoli b. RBC’s fill the alveoli
c. Organisms fill the alveoli d. Accumulation of fibrin
184. Lung abscess is common following pneumonia

a. Streptococcal b. Staphylococcal
c. Viral d. Pneumococcus
658

185. Alpha antitrypsin deficiency occurs in
a. Emphysema b. Bronchiectasis
c. Empyema d. Bronchogenic carcinoma
186. The most common termination of lobar pneumonia is

a. Consolidation b. Resolution
c. Abscess formation d. Empyema
187. Bronchiectasis means of bronchi

a. Inflammation b. Dilatation
c. Cavitation d. All
188. Emphysema pathologically involves beyond the

a. Bronchi b. Terminal bronchiole
c. Respiratory bronchiole d. Alveolar sac
189. Reid’s index is used in diagnosis of

a. Chronic bronchitis b. Broinchiectasis
c. Pneumonia d. Bronchial asthma
190. Smoking causes all except

a. Chronic bronchitis b. Emphyseema
c. Bronchogenic cancer d. Bronchectasis
191. The alveoliare filled with exudates, the air is displaced converting lung into solid
organ, these shows
a. Chronic bronchitis b. Bronchiolitis
c. Pneumonia d. Bronchiectasis
192. Sputum from an asthma patient may show

a. Numerous esinophils b. Curschmann’s spirals
c. Characot, laydencrystals d. All of the above
193. Neuroconderine hormones are released by

a. Adenocaranoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. small cell carcinomia
d. Large cell carcinoma
194. The major revised jones criteria for diagnosing Rheumatic fever are all except
a. Carditis b. Polyarthritis
c. Chorea d. Fever
195. The vegetations of Infective endocarditis are

a. Friable Bulky b. Irregular Microbe Laden
d. Rupture c. Occur near lines of closure (d) All of the above
659

196. The clinical effects of aneurysm include
a. Erosion of neighboring structure
b. Compression
c. Thrombosis
d. All of the above
197. Syphylis affects most commonly

a. Proximal aorta b. Ascending aorta
c. Decending aorta d. Abdominal aorta
198. At what age an appreciable intima appears in human aorta

c. 1-3 years d. -5 years
199. Characteristic cardiovascular lesion in syphilis is

a. Aortic regurgitation
b. Aneurysm of arch of aorta
c. Aorticstenosis
d. Medical necrosis
200. Most accepted theory of atheroscierosis is

a. Lipid infiltration of intima
b. Reaction to endothelial injury
c. Due to smoking
d. Hyperlipedemia


Obstetrical & gynecological nursing
1. Weight of the nonpregnan0074 uterus is about:

a. 40-60 gm b. 60-80 gm c . 80-100 gm d. 1 kg
2. The position of the uterus is: (b)
a. Retroverted and retroflexed
b. Anteverted and anteflexed
c. Anteverted and retroflexed
3. The ovary is present:
a. At birth b. At puberty
c. After marriage d. During pregnancy
4. The weight of ovary is about:
a. 60gm b. 3gm c. 10gm d. None of the above
5. The color of the ovary is: (c)
a. pale b. red c. white d. all of the above
660

6. Levator ani is composed of:
a. Pubococcygeal, iliococcygeal and ischiococcygeal muscles
b. Pubococcygeal, sacrococcygeal and iliococcygeal
c. Serotuborous, pubococcygeal muscles
d. All of the above
7. The length of the uterine tube is approximately:
a. 5cmb. 10cm c. 15cm d. All of the above
8. The gland which opens on either side of the vaginal orifice and lie in the posterior
part of the Labia majors called as:
a. Bartholin's gland b. Mucus gland c.
Secretory gland, d. None of the above
9. The perineum is supplied by the nerve named as:
a. Peroneal nerve b. Pudendal nerve
c. Both A and B d. None of the above
10. The muscle responsible for bladder control is: (b)
a. Iliococcygeus muscle b. Pubococcygeus muscle
c. Ischiocerygeus muscle d. All of the above
11. What is the normal position of uterus in the female body?
a. Anteverted b. Ante flexed c. A and b d. Ante extended
12. Which embryonic structure fused to form uterus in human being (b)
a. Fused vertical part of the two cystic duct
b. Fused vertical part of the mullerian
c. Fused vertical part of Biliarty duct
d. Pounch of douglas
13. The ovarian cycle is initiated by
a. FSH b. Estrogen c. LH d. Progesterane
14. The corpus luteum secretes
a. Oestrogen b. Progesterone c. Testosterone d. Both a & b
15. Life of a sperm for fertilization is
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 96 hours
16. What is epoophoron?
a. Vestigeal structure of urogenital sinus b. Remnants of wolfian duct
c. Unfused portion of mullerian duct d. Urogenital sinus
17. Uterine - cervix ratio up to 10 yrs of age
a. 3:2 b. 2:1 c.. 3:1 d. 1:2
18. All are related to lateral vaginal fornix except
a. Ureters b. Mackenrodt's c. Inferior vesical artery d. Uterine artery
19. The epithelial lining of cervical canal is
a. Low columnar b. high columnar
c. Stratified squamous d. Ciliated columnar
20. With reference to vagina which of the folly statement is not correct
a. It has mucus secreting gland b. It is supplied by uterine artery
c. It is lined by stratified squamous epithelium
d. Its posterior wall is covered, by peritoneum
661

21. The probable source of relaxin is
a. Ovary b. Adrenal cortex c. Liver
d. Bartholins gland e. Anterior pituitary
23. Following are the features of inhibit except
a. Non steroidal w ater soluble protein
b. Secreted by Graffin follicle
c . S ti m u la t es F S H s e c re t i o n
d . Increased secretion of inhibin occurs in polycystic disease
24. Feming of cervical mucus depends on
a. Estrogen b. Progestrone c. LH d. FSH
25. The main source of physiological secretion found in the vagina is (d)
a. Fallopian tubes b. Gartner’s duct c. Vagina
d. Cervix
26. Normal PH of cervix is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 8 d. 11
27. Which of the following about lymphatics of vulva is true?
a. Do not cross the labiocrural fold
b. Traverse labia from medial to lateral
c. Drain directly into deep femoral glands
d. Do not freely communicate with each other
28. The hormone responsible for lactation is
a. Prolactin b. FSH c. LH d. Progestrone
29. The size of ovum is (a)
a. 0.133mm b. 0.144mm c. 0.2mm d. None of the above
30. Gonadotrophins are
a. Proteins b. Glycoprotein
c. Phospholipids d. Polysaccharides ovulation occurs on
31. In a 25 day cycle (c) ovulation occurson
a. 14th day b. 11th day c. 13th day d. 12th day
32. Implantation of ovum occurs on the (d)
a. 4th day b. 6th day c. 3rd day d. 8th day
33. The length of the female urethra is
a. 20mm b. 40mm c. 45mm d. 60mm
34. What is the normal length of the uterine cavity?
a. Usually 5-5.5cm b. 6-6.65cm c. 78.5cm d. 6.5-7cm
35. Corpus is a term which is used to name
a. Body of the uterus b. Body of the bladder
c. Part of uterine tube d. aan4lb
36. Nature of vaginal secretion from puberty to menopause is usually (a)
a. Acidic b. Alkaline c. Neutra d. a and b
37. Which bacilli is responsible for the acidic medium in vaginal secretion
a. Doderlein’s bacilli b. Staphylococci
c. Proteus d. E-coli
38. The part of the uterus which is situated between the body and the cervix is termed
as
a. Isthmus b. Corpus c. Ovary d. Vagina
662

39. The Process involved in the maturation of the two highly specialized cells,
spermatozoon in male and ovum in female before they unite to form zygote
is called
a. Gametogenesis b. Oogenesis c.
Spermatogenesis d. Fertilization
40. How much time is required for the spermatozonium to develop into a mature
spermatozoon
41. What is the name of the outer transparent mucoprotein enveloping of Ovum.
a. Zona pellucida b. Corona radiate
c. Vitelline membrane d. a and b
42. Zona pllicide is penetrated by
a. Acrosome sperm b. Corona sperm
c. a and b d. Name of the above
43. The Process of fusion of the spermatozoon with the mature Ovum is termed as
a. Fertilization b. Ovulation c. Implantation d.
Name of the above
44. All of the following pelvic structures support the vagina, except
a. Perineal body b. Pelvic diaphragm
c. Levator ani muscle d. Infundibulopelvic ligament
45. Lymphatics from clitoris drain into
a. Superficial inguinal LNs b. Deep inguinal LNs
c. Lymphnode of cloquet d. All the above
46. All of the following are classified as primary supports of uterus except
a. Transcervical ligament b. Pubocervical ligament
c. Uterosacral ligament d. Broad ligament
47. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
a. 3-5 days b. 7-9 days c. 10-I2days d. 13-15days
48. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is
a. Enhanced by progesterone
b. Enhanced by estrogen
c. Inhibited by estrogen
d. Enhanced by estrogen and inhibited by progesterone
49. Chromosomal number of primary spermatocyte is
a. 46XY b. 22XY c. 22XX d. 46XX
50. Primary oocytes
a. Is formed after single meiotic division
b. Maximum in number in 5 month fetus
c. Is formed after mitotic division
d. Alsocalled as blastocyst
51. On antenatal palpation the following determines the engagement of head
a. Fundal grip b. Ballottment of head in pelvic grip
c. Lateral grip d. All the above
52. Naturally occurring estrogen are
a. Estrone b. EstradioI c. Estriol d. All the above
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53. Contraindication for an oxytocin challenge test (CST) would include- (a)
a. Prematurity b. Post maturity
c. Hypertension d. Hypotension
54. After ovulation has occurred the ovum is viable for-
a. 24 to 36 hours b. 36 to 46 hours
c. 4 to 7 days d. 6 hours
55. The favorable female pelvis for normal delivery is-
a. Android b. Gynecoid
c. Anthropoid d. Platepelloid
56. The small rudimentary organ in females corresponding to the male penis-
a. Vagina b. Cervix
c. Clitoris d. labia minora
57. The amount of sperm present in seminal fiuid is-
a. 100 million/ml b. 1 million /ml
c. 20 million/ml d. 60 million /ml
58. Progesterone is normally secreted in high amount by-
a. ovum b. Corpus luteum
c. Pituitary gland d. Thymus gland
59. The uterus rises out of the pelvis and become an abdominal organ about-
a. At 6 weeks b. at 9 weeks
c. At 12 weeks d. at 16 weeks
60. The name given to endometrium during the pregnancy is-
a. Corpus luteum b. Decidua
c. Perimetrium d. Myometrium
61. The urine of a pregnant lady is expected to contain which of the following in early
pregnancy? (a)
a. Chorionic gonadotropin b. Oxytocin
c. Luteinizing hormone d. Prolactin
62. The umbilical cord consists of- (a)
a. Two arteries and one vein b. Two veins and one artery
c. Two artery and two veins d. None of them
63. Craving for unnatural substance is termed as-
(a) Tic syndrome (b) Picca
(c) Anorexia nervosa (d) Anorexia bulimia
64. Pigmented line running from the pubis to the umbilicus is termed as-
(a) Linea nigra (b) Chloasma
(c) Striae gravidarum (d) None of the
65. Basal metabolic rate is increased in pregnancy due to
(a) Increased oxygen consumption by the fetus
(b) increased weight of the mother
(c) Increase appetite of the mother
(d) None of them
66. Increased pulsation felt in the lateral vaginal fornices in pregnancy is known as
(a) Jacquemiers sign (b) Osiander sign
(c) Hegars sign (d) Chadwick sign
664

67. The pituitary hormone that stimulates the secretion of
milk from the mammary gland is
(a) Chorionic gonadotropin (b) Oxytocin
(c) Prolactin (d) Leutinizing
68. Meconium stained amniotic fluid color is
(a) Green color (b) Golden color
(c) Colourless (d) Yellow color
69. One of the most common causes of hypotonic t uterine dystocia is-
(a) Cephalopelvic disproportion (b) Twin gestation
(c) Hydro amnion (d) Meconium stained liquor
70. The birth hazard associated with breech delivery is
(a) Compression of cord (b) Respiratory distress
(c) Injury to head (d) Caput succedaneum
71. A condition in which placenta remains morbidly adherent
(a) Placenta accuminata (b) placental bed
(c) Placenta accreata (d) Placenta previa
72. Induction of labour is contraindicated in-
(a) Placenta previa (b) Cephalopelvic disproportion
(c) Multigravida (d) Prolonged pregnancy
73. Artificial rupture of fetal membrane is called-
(a) Amnioplasty (b) Amniotomy
(c) Vaginally induced (d) Amniocentesis
74. Discharge from the uterus during the puerperium is known as
(a) Leucorrhoea (b) Gonorrhea
(c) Lochia (d) Amniotic fluid
75. Infants whose mother contacted rubella in the first trimester are frequently born with
(a)Tetany (b)Opthalamic neonatorum
(c)Cardiac abnormalities (d)Respiratory distress
76.Fungal infection of the mouth and throat in neonates is

(a)Monilial (b) Oral thrush
(c) Cleft plate (d) Cleft lip
77. In a normal neonate the ductus arteriosus functionally closes by about(c)
(a) 2 hours of age (b) 6 hours of age
(c) 12 hours of age (d) 24 hours of age
78. The drug most commonly used in the treatment of convulsion
(a)Phenobarbitone (b) Morphine sulphate
(c) Opium derivatives (d) Methyl dopa
79. The client is on magnesium sulphate therapy for severe preeclampsia. the first sign
of an excessive blood magnesium level is-
(a) Increased heart rate (b) Increased urine output
(c) Increased pulse rate (d) Disappearing of knee jerk reflex
80. At birth the fetus is covered with white sticky substance called ()
(a) Lanugo (b) Amnion
(c) Chorion (d) Vernix caseosa
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81. At the fetus have fine browny hair which is called (
(a) Lanugo (b) Vernix caseosa
(c) Amnion (d) Chorion
82. Pregnancy induced hypertension usually occurs after the (
(a) 24 week (b) 28 weeks
(c) 32 week (d) 36 weeks
83. Braxton hick contraction start at
(a) 2nd week of gestation (b) 4th week of gestation
(c) 8th week of gestation (d) 12th week of gestation
84. Fertilization occurs in which part of the fallopian tube
(a) Infundibulum (b) Ampulla
(c) Isthmus (d) Filliform
85. The production of cervical mucus is stimulated by
a. Progesterone b. Estradiol
c. Estriol d. Pregnenolone
86. Ovary develop from
a. Mullerian duct b. Genital ridge c. Genital tubercle
d. Mesonephric duct e. Sinovaginal bulbs
87. In 40 days of menstrual cycle the ovulation occurs at
a. 14th day b. 20th day c. 26th day d. 30th day
88. Bartholin's duct opens into (b)
a. Labia majora and Minora b. A
groove between labia minora & hymen
c. The lower vagina
d. The upper vagina
89. The process involved in the development of a mature, Ovum is called a. Ogenesis
b. Spermatogenesis
c. Ovulation d. None of these
90. The Ovum is surrounded by a cell membrane called
a. Vitelline membrance b. Doderline membrane
c. Pseudomembrane d. all of the above
91. In sitting position our body's weight bear by:
a. Symphysis pubis, b. Ischial tuberosities,
c Sacral promontory, d. None of the above
92. Which of the following male structures are homologous with the labia majors? )
a. Glans penis b. Scrotum
c. Testis d. Corpora cavemosa
93. Which of the following male structures are homologous with the clitoris?
a. Penis, b. Scrotum,
c. Testis, d. Corpora cavernosa
94. What is the principal erogenous organ in women? )
a. Vagina, b. Clitoris,
c Labia minora, d. Labia majora
95. The prepuce of the clitoris is formed from tissues of which of the following? a.
Urethra, b. Mons pubis,
c. Labia minora, d Labia majora
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96. From which embryonic structure does the vestibule arises?
a. Genital ridge, b. Urogenital sinus,
c. Mullerian ducts, d. Mesonephric ducts
97. Which of the following not open onto the vestibule? (

a. Urethra, b. Skene ducts,
c. Bartholin ducts, d. Mullerian ducts
98. Hymen consists of what type of epithelial tissues?

a. Simple epithelium b. Stratified epithelium,
c. Covered by stratified squamous epithelium d. Columnar epithelium
99. The upper vagina arises from:
100. The lower vagina arises from:
101. The vagina is lined most with what type of epithelium?
a. Cuboidal epithelium,
b. Glandular epithelium,
c. Stratified squamous epithelium,
d. Non stratified epithelium
102. During pregnancy, which of the following bacteria is
predominant in the vagina? )
a. Lactobacillus sp, b. Peptostreptococcus sp,
c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae
103. Which of the following lymph nodes primarily involved in case of locally invasive
vaginal cancer? a. Aortic, b. Inguinal,
c. Hypogastric, d. Internal iliac
104. Which muscle is not included for the physical support of the perineum? (
a. Coccygeus, b. Iliococcygeus,
c. Ischiococcygeus, d. Deep transverse perineal
105. During pregnancy the part of the uterus becomes the lower uterine segment is? (
a. Cervix, b. Cornua, c. Corpus, d. Isthmus
106. Which of the following findings suggested that the women had previous vaginal
delivery?
a. Closely apposed labia majora,
b. Cervix length equaling corporal length
c. Labia minora projecting past the labia majora,
d. Small, smooth oval shaped external cervical os
107. Which of the following process leads to uterine enlargement during pregnancy?
a. Hypertrophy, b. Hyperplasia,
c. Decidualization, d. Collagen dissociation
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108. Ovarian vessels are found in which of the following ligaments?
a. Broad, b. Round,
c. Uterosacral, d. Infundibulopelvic
109. What is the name given to the thick medial portion on the broad ligament which
connected with supravaginal portion of the cervix?
a. Round ligament, b. Uterosacral ligament,
c. Mackenrodt's ligament, d. Infundibulopelvic ligament
110. Uterine artery is the branch of: (
a. Aorta, b. internal iliac artery
c. External iliac artery, d. Common iliac artery
111. The right ovarian vein empties into which of the following veins?
a. Vena cava, b. Renal vein
c. Internal iliac vein d. External iliac vein
112. Lymphatic drainage from the cervix empties mainly into which group of nodes? )
a. Iliac, b. Inguinal, c Hypogastric, d. Internal iliac
113. Which of the following nerve roots provide sensory fibres from the uterus that are
associated with the painful stimuli of the uterine contractions?
a. T-9 and T-10, b. T-11 and T-12,
c. L1 and L2 d. S2, S3, and S4
114. The parts of the fallopian tube from most medial to most lateral aspect are?
a. Interstitial, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum,
b. Infundibulum, interstitial, isthmus, ampulla,
c. interstitial, ampulla, isthmus, inluiidibulum,
d. Infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, interstitial
115. From which of the following parts, the uterus and fallopian tubes arises? )
a. Mullerian ducts, b. Wolffian ducts,
c Mesonephric ducts, d. Urogenital sinus
116. What is the estimated number of oocytes present at puberty?
a. 50, 000 to 100, 000, b. 200, 000 to 400,
c. 750, 000 to 1 million d. 3 to 5 million
117. Which of the following is not a part of the innominate bone?

a. Ilium, b. lschium, c. Pubis, d. Sacrum
118. Which of the following serve as a landmark during decent of the fetal head?
a. Ischial spine, b. Symphysis pubis
c Ischial tuberosities, d. Sacral promontory
119. Which is the narrowest diameter of the pelvic inlet through which the fetal head
must pass? (
a. True conjugate, b. Diagonal conjugate
c. Transverse diameter, d. Obstetrical conjugate
120. The amount of blood loss during each menstrual period is about
a. 10cc b. 35cc c. 50cc d. 100cc
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121. Metrorrhagia is produced by the following except
a. Fibroid polyp b. Cancer of endometrium .
c. IUD d. Intramural fibroid
122. Cause of post menopausal bleeding )
a. Arrhenoblastoma b. Cystadenoma
c. Granulosa cell tumor d. Hilus cell tumor
123. Swiss cheese pattern in a. Carcinoma endometrium b. Metropathic
hemorrhagia
c. Hydatidiform mole d. Halban's disease
124. In cystic glandular hyperplasia what is seen
a. Normal menstrual bleeding b. Amenorrhea and bleeding
c. Hypomenorrhea d None of the above
125. Cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea
a. One horn of malformed uterus
b. Endometriosis with unilateral distribution
c. Small fibriod at the utero tubal junction
d. All the above
126. Cryptomenorrhea occurs due to
a. Imperforate hymen b. Asherman's syndrome
c. Mullerian agenesis d. All the above
127. DUB is due to
a. Endometriosis b. Fibroid
c. Endometrial carcinoma d. Irregular shedding of endometrium
128. Treatment of DUB in a young female
a. Hormones b. RT c. PLC d. Hysterectomy
129. Asherman's syndrome is characterized by
a. Amenorrhoea b. Dysmenorrhoea
c. Leukorrhoea d. Metrorrhagia
130. Normal crown- Rump length at birth is
a. 2G- 25 cm b. 38- 50 cm c. BO-72 cm d. 78- 85 cm
131. Non hormonal drug to prevent post menopausal osteoporosis is (a)
a. Alendronate b. Estrogen c. Raloxifene d. Parathyroid
132. Clomiphene citrate is
a. Anti - androgen b. Synthetic steroid
c. Anti estrogen d. Gn RH analogue
133. The most serious complication of clomiphene therapy for induction of ovulationis
a. Bone marrow depression b. Hyperstimulation syndrome
a. Secondary amenorrhea d. Multiple pregnancies
134. GnRH analogues are useful in all except
a. Endometriosis b. Hyperprolactinemia
c. Precocious puberty d. Menstrual disturbances
135. Danazol is used in all except
a. Hirsutism b. Endometriosis
c. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding d. Fibroid
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136. Which of the following determines the fetal survival by the mother?
a. Fetal heart sounds b. Quickening
c. Fixation d. Engagement
137. Tamoxifene can cause
a. Endometrial carcinoma b. Ovarian carcinoma
c. Breast carcinoma d. Cervical carcinoma
138. Danazolisa
a. Androgen derivative b. Oestrogen
c. Progesterone d. FSH derivative
139. The incidence of stump carcinoma is
a. 6% b. 10 % c. 16% d. None of the above.
140. False statement regarding carcinoma of fallopian tubes
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Very rare
c. Occurs in multiparous women (60-6oyrs)
d. All the above
141. What is the average measurement of the obstetrical conjugate?
a. 9cm, b. 10cm, c. 11cm, d.12cm
142. What is the pelvis type with, a small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent
sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
a. Android, b. Gynaecoid,
c. Anthropoid, d. Platypelloid
143. What is the pelvis type with, a round inlet, straight sidewalls nonprominent spines
and a wide pubic arch?
a. Android, b. Gynaecoid,
c Anthropoid, d. Platypelloid
144. The diagonal conjugate is the distance measured between:
a. Coccyx and inner margin of symphysis,
b. Tip of the sacrum and inner margin of symphysis pubis,
c. Ischial spine and external margin of symphysis pubis,
d. Sacral promontory and inferior point of symphysis pubis
145. Engagement occurs when the biparietal diameter of the fetal head decends below
the level of which of the following?
a. Midpelvis, b. Pelvic inlet,
c Pelvic floor, d. Ischial tuberosities
146. Breast is a type of:
a. Lymphatic gland, b. Mammary gland,
c. Areolar gland, d. All of the above
147. Breast is situated at the junction of:
a. 2nd to 6th rib b. 3rd to 7th rib,
c. 1st to 6th rib, d. None of the above
148. The length breath and thickness of the testes is:
a. 4.5 cm long, 2.5 cm wide and 3 cm thick,
b. 5 cm long, 3 cm wide and 4 cm thick,
c Both A and B,
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149. The outer layer of the testes is called as:
a. Tunica vasculosa, b. Tunica albuginea,
c Tunica vaginalis, d. None of the above
150. Suprapubic arch in male pelvis is about:

a. 65-75 degree, b. 75-85 degree,
c 85-95 degree, d. All of the above
151. Vulva carcinoma metastasizes to which lymph group
a. Para aortic nodes b. Superficial inguinal nodes
c. Internal iliac nodes d. External iliac nodes
152. HCG is a tumor marker for
a. Choriocarcinoma b. Colon carcinoma
c. Serous cystadenoma d. Teratoma
153. TNM classification is used for
a. Cancer of cervix b. Cancer of endometriurn
c. Cancer of vagina d. Vulvar carcinoma
154. Return of fertility is delayed after cessation of oral contraception by
a. 2 weeks b. 3 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 6 weeks
155. During pomeroy's method of female sterilization, which portion of the tube is
ligated?
a. Isthmus b. Ampullary
c. Isthmo-ampullary d. Cornua
156. Copper- T is preferably inserted postnatally
a. After 2 weeks b. After 4 weeks
c. After 8 weeks d. After 5 weeks
157. To avoid contraception DMPA is given
a. Monthly b. 3 monthly c. 6 monthly d. Yearly
158. Contraceptive pill with least failure rate
a. Sequentialpill b. Minipil
c. Combined pill d. None of the above
159. Nonoxynol -9 (marked as TODAY) is an
a. Hormonal contraceptive b. IUCD
e. Barrier contraceptive d. Postcoital contraceptive
160. Billing's method of contraception refers to
a. Monitoring BBT b. Cervical mucus method
c. Rhythm method d. Coitus interruptus method
161. All are contraindications of diaphragm except
a. Multiple sex partners b. Recurrent UTI
c. Uterine prolapse d. Herpes vaginitis
162. Not a barrier contraceptive
a. Diaphragm b. Centoehroman
c. Condom d. Today
163. Amount of oestrogen in Mala – D is
a. 30mg b. 50mg c. 10mg d. 80mg
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164. Which one of the following is the most common problem associated with the use of
condom
a. Increased monilial infection of vagina
b. Premature ejaculation
c. Contact Dermatitis
d. Retention of urine
165. Which of the following has least pregnancy failure rate
a. OCP b. IUCD c. Diaphragm d. Condom
166. Safe period in menstrual cycle is (d)
c. 16-20 days d. 21-28 days
167. Suprapubic arch in female pelvis is about
a. 65-75 degree b. 75-85 degree
c. 85-95 degree d. All of the above
168. Which of the following is not included in the landmarks of the pelvic brim? (d)
a. Sacral promontory b. Lliopectineal line
c. Symphysis pubis d. Obturator foramen
169. What is the name of endometrium in pregnant stage?
a. Amniotic sac b. Chorionic sac
c. Decidua d. Sphincter ani
170. Average weight of placenta is?
a. 500 gm b. 250 gm c. 750 gm d. 1000 gm
171. After birth placenta is separated from which surface
a. Decidua basalis b. Decidua capsularis
c. Decidua spongiosa d. Decidua vera
172. The function of placenta is
a. To provide nutrition b. To help in respiration
c. To help in excretion d. All of above
173. Today sponge contains which of the following
a. Nonoxynol b. Deflon
c. Fernshield d. Desogestrel
174. RJCD with shortest life span
a. Lippes loop b. Copper – T
c. Multiloacl device d. Progestasert
175. Protective bacterium in normal vagina is
a. Peptostreptococcus b. Lactobacillus
c. Gardenella vaginalis d. E.Coli
176. Nabothian follicles occur in
a. Erosion of cervix b. Cancer of endometrium
c. Cancer of cervix d. Cancer of vagina
177. The treatment of leukoplakia of vulva is (
a. Irradiation b. Simple vulvectomy
c. Radical vulvectomy d. Estrogen cream
e. Both b & d
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178. The condition where glistening spots are found in tubal serosa
a. Walthard cells nests b. Metastases from ovary
c. Paraovarian cysts d. Tubal fibrosis
179. Which of the following is not be given in menorrhagia
a. Evening primrose oil b. Danazol
c. Tamoxifen d. Estrogen
180. The volume pregnancy
a. 5000 ml b. 750 ml c. 1000 ml d. 1550 ml
181. If the color of amniotic fluid is green it point out the
a. Fetal distress b. Hypertension
c. Post maturity d. Pre maturity
182. If the color of amniotic fluid is yellow green it predict the
a. Fetal distress b. Hypertension
c. Post maturity d. Pre maturity
183. What is the ideal menarche age in female?
a. 10 year b. 11 year
c. 13 year d. 18 year
184. The maternal antibody which easily cross the maternal placenta
a. lgG b. lgA c. lgM d. lgE
185. Osianders sign refers to
a. Ripening of cervix b. Softening of cervix
c. Increased pulsation of vagina d. Bluish discolouration of vagina
186. The common situation of fetus in uterus is
a. Vertical b. Longitudinal
c. Oblique d. Transverse
187. If anterior fontanels are depressed it indicates
a. Anemia b. Dehydration
c. Genital abnormality d. Hydrocephalus
188. When does the closure of posterior fontanels take place after birth
a. After 1 month b. After 9 month
c. After 1 month 15 days d. After 9 month 15 days
189. When does the closure of anterior fontanels take place after birth?
(a) 1 month (b) 9 month (c) 18 month (d) 2 year
190. Menorrhagia refers to-
(a) Prolonged and increased blood flow
(b) First time menses
(c) Cessation of menses
(d) Decreased menstrual flow
191. The normal rate of uterus involution is-
(a) 1.2 cm /day (d) 2 cm/day (c) 2.5 cm/day (d) 3.5 cm/day
192. Breast feeding is contraindicated in mothers who have-
(a) HI V infection (b) Opthalmia neonatorum
(c) Jaundice (d) Galacosemia
193. Which drug causes the side effect referred as grey baby in neonates?
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Amikacin
(c) MgSo4 (d) Oxytocin
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194. Leiomyoma refers to-
(a) Fibroid of lungs (b) Fibroid of uterus
(c) Fibroid of ovum (d) Fibroid of stomach
195. To prevent neural tube defect in fetus which nutrient is necessary?
(a) Iron (b) Calcium (c) folic acid (d) Magnesium
196. To prevent magnesium toxicity after dose of magnesium sulphate which medic ne
is used?
(a) Calcium gluconate (b) Phenytoin
(c) Prostodin (d) Adrenalin
197. Which hormone is responsible for hyperemesis gravid arum?
(a) Progesterone (b) Estrogen
(c) Oxytocin (d) Human chorionic gonadotropin
198. The commonest site of implantation in ectopic pregnancy-
(a) Uterus (b) Cervix
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Ovary
199. The common cause of urinary tract infection in female is-
(a) Helicobector pylon (b) Escherichia coli
(c) Streptococci (d) Staphylococci
200. The midwives Act was passed in the year of:
a. 1902, b. 1905,
c. 1915, d. None of the above

201. Morbidity could be measured in terms of:

a. Persons who are ill,
b. The illness that these persons experienced,
c. Duration of this illness,
d. All of the above
202. Morbidity rate is defined as:
a. Number of new cases of specific diseases during a given
period/population at risk x 10GG,
b. Number of deaths during the year/mid year population x 1000
c. Number of new cases and old cases during a given period! Population at risk x
1GGG
d. Number of old cases specific diseases during a given period/population at risk
x 1GG
203. Neonatal mortality is called as:
a. Death of the baby within a year of birth,
b. Death of the baby within a month (28 days) of birth,
c. Death of the baby within 7 days of birth,
d. All of the above
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204. The main causes for perinatal mortality are:
a. Low birth weight, b. Hypoxia and asphyxia,
c. congenital malformation d. All of the above
205. Registration of birth and deaths Act came into force in
A 1920, b. 1930, c. 1937, d. 1940
206. The national health programmes related to mother and child is: (d)
a. Maternal and child health programme,
b. Child survival and safe motherhood programme (CSSM),
c. Reproductive and child health programme (RCH),
d. All of the above
207. The objectives of MCH Programme are:
a. To reduce maternal, infant and childhood mortality and morbidity,
b. To promote reproductive health,
c. To promote physical and psychological development of children and
adolescent,
d. All of the above
208. CSSM Programme initiated in the year:
a. 1990, b. 1992, c 1980, d. None of the above
209. The normal supplement of IFA during antenatal period is for
a. One tab throughout the period,
b. Only one tab for 100 days,
c. 2 tab for 100 days,
210. Rch programme launched during the
a. 5th five year plan b. 7th five year plan
c. 9th five year plan d. None of the above
211. RCH programme initiated in the year of
a. 1990 b. 1995 c. 1997 d. None of the above
212. ICDS programme initiated in india by (b)
213. Special nutrition programme was launched in
214. SNP provides supplementary nutrition
a. Children below age of 6 years b. Pregnant and lactating mothers.
215. The supplementary food provides
a. 30 Kcal and 10-12 gm of protein to a child per day
b. 500 kcal and 25 gm of protein per day to the mothers
c. It is provided for 300 days in a year
d. All of the above
216. According to the National Anemia control programme the IFA tab given to the
mother and child contains
a. 60 gm iron and 100 mg folic acid for a mother
b. 20 mg iron and 100 mg folic acid for a mother
c. Both A and B
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217. The IFA tab given when
a. The Hb level is below 10 gm% of a mother
b. The Hb level below 8 gm % of a child
c. Both A and B
218. National Goitre control programme launched in
219. Supply of iodized salt in place of common salt to the entire country by
220. National programme for prophylaxis against blindness due to vitamin A deficiency
was launched in
221. Balwadi Nutrition Programme was started in
a. 1970-71 b. 1972-73 c. 1974-75 d. None of the above
222. Mid-day meal programme started in:
a. 1920 in Delhi b. 1925 in Chennai
c 1930 in Bombay d. All of the above
223. Nutrition supplement providing by Balwadi Nutrition Porgramme to pre-school
children are:
a. 300 calories and 10 gm of protein for 270 days
b. 300 calories and 10 gm of protein for 300 days
c.Both A and B
224. MDMP provides supplementary food for:
a. 6-11 years in primary school
b. 12-17 years in high school
c. To all age group of children
225. Through mid-day meal programme the food is provided for
a. 150 days b. 200 days c. 250 days d. All of the above
226. Applied Nutrition Programme started in India in:
a. 1 950 b. 1960 c. 1970 d. None of the above
227. ANP first started in the state of:
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Rajasthan
c. Orissa and Andhra Pradesh d. All of the above
228. The main objectives of ANP are:
a. To make people conscious
b. To increase production of nutrition foods and their consumptions
c. To provide supplementary nutrition to vulnerable groups
through locally produced foods
d. All of the above
229. The activities of ANP are:
a. Set up- kitchen garden, school and community garden
b. Providing better seeds as well as well -breed cattle
c. Supplementary feeding
d. All of the above
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230. Which of the following are the presumptive symptoms in early months of
pregnancy?
a. Morning sickness, b. Frequency of micturation,
c. Amenorrhoea, d. All of the above
231. In between-weeks the breast changes are evident:
a. 2 weeks, b. 6 to 8 weeks,
c. 20 weeks, d. 24 weeks
232. Thick yellowish secretion colostrum can be expressed as early as:
a. 12 weeks, b. 20 weeks,
c. 24 weeks, d. 30 weeks
233. Bluish discolouration of the vagina is called as:
a. Heger's sign, b. Goodell's sign,
c. Chadwick's sign, d. Mc Donald's sign
234. There is increased pulsation felt, through the lateral fornices at 8th week, called as:
a. Osiander's sign, b. Jacquemier's sign,
C. Hegar’ s sign, d. Piskacek's sign
235. Softening of the cervix at 6th week is called as:
a. Piskacek's sign b. Goodell's sign
c. Vaginal sign d. Uterine sign
236. Asymmetrical enlargement of the uterus when there is lateral implantation, is
called as:
a. Fernwald's sign b. Piskacek's sign
c. Heger's sign d. Goodell's sign
237. Heger's sign can be demonstrated at what weeks of gestation?
a. 4-6 weeks b. 6-10 weeks
c. 30-12 weeks d. 12-20 weeks
238. Regular rhythm uterine contraction can be felt during bimanual examination (4 to 8
weeks) is called as:
a. Palmer's sign b. Heger's sign
c. Uterine suffle d. None of the above
239. By the 7th week the uterus sizes like:
a. Apple b. Orange c .Hen's egg d. None
240. By 10th week the uterus size like:
a. Orange b. Grape ruit
c. Hen's egg d. None of the above
241. By 12th week the size of the uterus is like a:
a. Grape fruit b. Lemon c. Ball d. None
242. Confirmation of pregnancy test is:
a. Urinary immunological test b. ELISA
c. Blood test d. None
243. The flutering sensation felt by the mother for the first time is called:
a. External ballottement b. Quickening
c. Internal ballottement d. None of the above
244. ln primigravida quickening present at - week:
a. 16th week b. 18thweek c. 20th week d. None
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245. In multigravida quickening present at ----- weeks of gestation
a. 9th month b. 16th week
c. 18th week d. None of the above
246. Pigmentation on the cheeks and forehead in the shape of butterfly is called as:
a. Linea niagra b. Chlosma
c. Striae gravidarum d. None of the above
247. At 24th week the height of fundus is at the level of:
a. Above symphysis pubes b. Below umbilicus
c. Umbilicus d. None of the above
248. Intermittent painless contraction can be elicited by placing palm on uterus is celled:
a. Uterine souffle b. Braxton hicks
c. Lightening d. None
249. Early pregnancy (first trimester) is called up to-weeks of gestation
a. Conception to 12 weeks b. 13 to 28 weeks
c. 29 to 40 weeks d. All of the above
250. Mid-pregnancy (second trimester) is called up to-weeks of gestation
a. Conception to 12 weeks b. l3 to 28 week
251. Late pregnancy (third trimester) between -- weeks
a. Conception to 12 weeks b. 13 to 28 weeks
252. The sound is synchronous to the maternal pulse and is free to blood flow through
the detected uterine vessels is called
a. Uterine souffle b. Funic souffle
c. internal ballottement d. None
253. It is a soft flowing murmur synchronous of the fetal heart sounds is called:
a. Lightening b. External ballottement
c Funic souffle d. None
254. Uterine enlargement in pregnancy is primarily due to what process involving
myocytes?
a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypertrophy and stretching
c Atrophy with replacement with collagen
d. Hyperplasia and hypertrophy play equal role
255. The normal heart rate of the infant, after birth may range between
(a) 100 and 180 (b) 130 and 170
(c) 120 and 160 (d) 100 and 130
256. Morning sickness usually disappears by the end of
(a) 1 month (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) 4 months
257. Nutritional planning for a pregnant woman should include-
(a) A decrease to 1000 calories per day
(b) A decrease in fat and protein consumption
(c) A decrease in a carb consumption
(d) An increase to 1800 to 2200 calories per day
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258. Closure of the foramen ovale after birth is caused by
(a) A decrease in the aortic blood flow
(b) A decrease in pressure in the left atrium
(c) An increase in the pulmonary blood flow
(d) An increase in the pressure in the right atrium
259. A new mother is concerned because her baby has jaundice. The nurse understand
that jaundice is a-
(a) Normal condition that appears. At 2 to 3 days of life
(b) Normal condition that appears 8 to 24 hours after birth
(c) Abnormal condition that appears within the first 24 hours of life
(d) Abnormal condition that appears at 2 to 3 days of life
260. A true labour contraction will
(a) Bring about progressive cervical dilation
(b) Occur immediately after membrane rupture
(c) Stop when the client is encouraged to walk around
(d) Be less uncomfortable if client is in a side lying position
261. Pregnant ladies should stop smoking because new born of such mother's are-
(a) Premature and have respiratory distress syndrome
(b) Small for gestational age
(c) Large for gestational age
(d) Born with congenital anomalies
262. During pregnancy the purplish discoloration of vaginal mucosa is known
(a) Hegars sign b. Ladin’s sign
c. Chadwick’s sign d. Goodel’s sign
263. The nausea and vomiting commonly during the first trimester of pregnancy is due
to increase in the level of
(a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone
(c) Luteinising hormone (d) Chorionic gonadotropin hormone
264. Normal amniotic fluid is
a) Clear almost colorless containing little white specks
(b) Milky, dark colored black specks
(c) Yellow color, blood stained
(d) Greenish color with thick patches
265. Which of the following is recognized as a known teratogen?
(a) Scarlet fever (b) Rubella
(c) Fever d. Coronary artery disease
266. The term dizygotic refers to twins who have-
(a) Developed from two separate ova and sperm
(b) Been born several hours apart from each other
(c) Developed physically at different rates from each other
(d) Developed in one amnion and have one Chorion
267. The ingestion of drugs during pregnancy is most likely to cause structuk damage to
as the fetus during the
a. 1st trimester b. 2nd trimester
rd
c. 3 trimester d. Whole pregnancy
679

268. An expected sign or symptoms in a client with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy are
a. Elevated blood glucose level
b. External bleeding
c. Elevated blood sodium level
d. Suddne excruciating pain in lower abdomen
269. Which of the following is not present in bottle formula for new born
a. Amino acid b. Complex carbohydrate
c. Electrolytes d. Immunoglobulin
270. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is
a. Physical trauma b. Congenital deformity
c. Unresolved stress d. Germ plasm defect
271. Small for gestational age (SGA) infants are more likely to develop
a. Hyperthermia b. Hyperglycemia
c. Congenital defect d. Hypothermia
272. Most common site for endometriosis is
a. Peritoneum b. Ovary
c. Urinary bladder d. Appendix
273. Laparoscopy is used in the diagnosis of
a. Endometriosis b. Cancer of uterus
c. Cancer of cervix d. Cancer of rectum
274. Which is not used in the treatment of endometriosis?
a. Danazol b. Tamoxifen
c. Medroxyprogesterone d. GNRH analogues
275. Which of the following is true regarding endometriosis?
a. Always associated with tubal blood b. Painful
c. Amenorrhea d. Surgery is curative
276. In endometriosis cause of infertility is
a. Immobility of tubes b. Anovulation c. Tubal block
277. Endometriosis women
a. Multiparous b. Yong
b. Post menopausal d. Nulliparous
278. Endometriosis is common in
a. Multiple b. Perimenopausal age
c. Nullipara d. Virgins
279. Symptoms of adenomyosis is
a. Menorrhagia b. Dysmenorrhea
c. Both a & b d. Infertility
280. Treatment of adenomyosis
a. Estrogens b. Estrogens & progesterones
c. Total hysterectomy d. Laser
281. Investigation of choice in pelvic endometriosis is
a. CT - scan b. Transvaginal
c. ultrasound d. MRI
e. Laproscopy
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282. Treatment of endometriosis in an infertile female
a. Danazol b. Clomiphene
c. Gn RH analogue d. Progesterone
283. Halban's disease is due to
a. Perisistance corpus Luteum b. Deficient corpus luteum
c. Persistent trophoblast d. Deficient trophoblast
284. Metropathica hemorrhagica is best treated by
a. Curettage of uterus b. Progesterone
C. Estrogen d. Clomiphene
285. In DUD, there is
a. Increased estrogen
b. Decreased receptors of progesterone
c. Decreased receptors of estrogen
d. Pituitary imbalance of hormones
286. The largest part of weight gain during pregnancy is because of-
(a) The fetus (b) Fluid retention
(c) Metabolic retention (d) Increased blood volume
287. Physiologic anemia that occur during pregnancy is the result of-
(a) Decreased dietary intake of iron
(b) increased plasma volume of mother
(c) Decreased erythropoiesis after the first trimester
(d) increased detoxification demands on the mother's liver
288. An infant's intestine is sterile at birth. Therefore the infant lacks the bacteria
necessary for the synthesis of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin K (d) Bilirubin
289. During pregnancy the client will have an increased need for-
(a) Potassium (c) Sodium (b) Iron (d) Carbohydrate
290. A possible complication in infant delivered by caesarean section is-
(a) Respiratory distress (b) Hypothermia
(c) Hyperthermia (d) Anemia
291. Immunity transferred to fetus from mother through the placenta is-
(a) Passive natural immunity (b) Passive artificial immunity
(c) Active natural immunity (d) Passive natural immunity
292. First trimester morning sickness can be overcome by-
(a) Eating protein before sleep
(b) Eating fat before sleep
(c) Taking heavy food at bed time
(d) Eating nothing until the nausea subsides
293. A normal cardiopulmonary symptom experienced by most of the pregnant women is
(a) Bradycardia (b) Tachycardia
(c) Shortness of breath on exertion (d) Dyspnoea at rest
294. Hyperemesis gravid arum is associated with-
(a) High level of chorionic gonadotropin (b) High level of progesterone
(c) Excessive amniotic fluid (d) Weight gain
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295. Premature infants are more susceptible to infection than full term infants because
(a) Their liver enzymes are immature
(b) They may receive steroid drug, which affect the immune system
(c) They receive very few antibiotics from the mother, which
pass across the placenta during the last month of pregnancy
(d) Surfactant is decreased in premature infants
296. The best nursing advice that can be given to pregnant women in her first trimester
is to-
(a) Cut down on drug, alcohol, and cigarettes
(b) Avoid all drugs and refrain from smoking and ingesting alcohol
(c) Avoid smoking, limit alcohol consumption, and do not take any aspirin
(d) Take only prescription drugs, especially in the second and third trimester
297. The procedure the nurse would use to suction a new born baby would be-
(a) First suction the nose
(b) First suction the mouth
(c) Simultaneously nose and mouth
(d) None of them
298. "Peg cells" are seen in
a. Vagina b. Vulva c. Ovary d. Tubes
299. Size of uterus in inches is
a. 5x4x2 b. 4x2x1 b. 3x2x1 d. 4x2x1
300. Inhibin is secreted by
a. Graffian follicle b. Corpus luteum c. Endmetrium d. Placenta
301. Progesterone is produced by
a. Granulosa luteal cells b. Stroma of the ovary
c. Theca cells d. Sertoli cells
302. FSH is secreted by
a. Ovary b. Hypothalamus
c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary
303. Size of graffian follicle is
a. 2mm b. 3 mm C. 4mm d. 6 mm
304. LH surge preceedes ovulation by
a. 12hrs b. 24hrs c. 36hrs d. 48hrs
305. Feature of post ovulatory endometrium on ultrasound is
a. Single hyperechoic thin line
b. Three line sign
c. Prominent halo
d. Prominent posterior enhancement
306. All of the following are indications of doing PAP smear except
a. >40 years b. Pregnant female
c. Sexually active female d. Menorrhagia
307. Fractional curettage is done in all except

a. Endometrical carcinoma b. CA cervix
c. Fibroid uterus d. As part of MTP
682

308. The maturation index on vaginal cytology is a diagnostic method for evaluating the
a. Adequacy of cytotoxic drug therapy
b. Gender of an anatomically abnormal child
c. Malignant change at squamocolumnar junction of cervix
d. Endocrine status of cervix
309. Laparoscopy is best avoided in patients with
a. Hypertension b. Diabetes c. Obesity d. COPD
310. HSG is done in the following situations
a. Between menstruation and ovulation
b. Just after menstruation
c. Just before ovualtion
d. At any time
311. Gas commonly used in laparoscopy is
a. Air b. Pure CQ2 c. N20 d. CO2
312. Best tubal function test is
a. Laproscopy b. Hysterosalpingography
c. Rubin’s test d. X – ray pelvis
313. Laproscopy detects
a. Endometriosis b. Cancer of uterus
c. Cancer of cervix d. Cancer of rectum
314. Best diagnosis of ovulation is by
a. Ultrasound b. Laproscopy
c. Endometrial biopsy d. Chrommotubation
315. Pap smear in pregnancy is
a. Contraindicated b. Not useful
b. Routine as a part of screening d. Done in every patient
316. Sonosalpingography is done for
a. Measuring basal body temperature
b. To detect pregnancy
c. Testing tubal patency
d. Determining anovulatory cycle
317. The best predictor of ovulation in
a. Estrogen peak
b. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) surge
c. Onset of the LH surge
d. Preovulatory rise in progesterone
318. Which of the following is used in colposcopy?
a. Acetic acid d. Povidone iodine
c. Methylene blue d. Gention violet
319. HSG is performed
a. Just before menstruation
d. During menstruation
c. 14th day of cycle
d. Between end of menstruation and ovulation
683

320. To diagnose uterus dideiphys procedure of choice is
a. Laparoscopy b. IVP
d. HSG d. USG
321. Ideal age for repair of vaginal agenesis is
a. 6 months b. 3 years
c. At puberty d. Before marriage
322. Diethystilbesterol causes the following defects except
a. Renal anomalies b. Perifimbrial cysts
c. T shaped uterus d. Vaginal adenosis
323. Complete failure of mullerian duct fusion will result in
a. Uterus didelphys b. Bicornuate uterus
c. Subseptate uterus d. Unicornuate uterus
324. All are seen in Rokitansky hauser syndrome except
a. Absent uterus b. Anovulation
c. Absent vagina d. 46 xx karyotype
325. Commonest congenital anomaly of uterus
a. Uterus bicornis unicollis b. Uterus unicornis
c. Uterus bicornis bicollis d. Uterus didelphys
326. Most common uterine anomaly is
a. Uterus didephys b. Uterus pseudodidelphys
c. Subseptate d. Bi – cornuate
327. Commonest reason of adherent labia minora in a newborn is
a. Female pseudohermaphroditism
b. Testicular ferminisation
c. Vaginal atresia
d. Agglutination of labia
328. Cornuate uterus is
a. Acute antiflexion b. Acute retroflexion
c. Acute retroversion of uterus d. None of the above
329. The commonest fistula in female is-
(a) vesico-vaginal fistula (b) Anal fistula
(c) Trachea esophageal fistula (d) recto-vaginal fistula
330. Amenorrhoea refers to-
(a) Excess menstrual bleeding
(b) Absence of menstrual cycle
(c) Irregular menses cycle
(d) Permanent cessation of menstrual cycle
331. Following vasectomy, a person is instructed to use condom as precaution for
(a) For 1 month (b) For 2 month
(c) For 3 month (d) For 15 days
332. Culdocentesis refers to-
(a) Aspiration of pouch of Douglas fluid
(b) To visualize the cervix area
(c) To take biopsy from uterus
(d) Aspiration of pleural fluid
684

333. Prostaglandin is used for induction of labour because
(a) It dilate the cervix (b) It ripen the cervix
(c) It increase contraction (d) It helps to maintain haemostasis
334. The drug of choice for eclampsia patient is-
(a) MgSo4 (b) Prostodin
(c) TimoIoI (d) Beta adrenergic blocker
335. A nurse use the Z technique while giving the injection jectofer because of-
(a) This protect skin from allergic reaction
(b) This protect skin from dark staining
(c) This protect superficial tissue necrosis
(d) All of above
336. ARH negative female deliver a baby, she should receive anti gamma globulin within
(a) 72 hours (b) 48 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 1 hours
337. After birth foramen ovale is closed due to-
(a) Decrease in pulmonary blood flow
(b) Increase in pulmonary blood flow
(c) Decrease cardiac output
(d) Increase cardiac output
338. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is
(a) Trauma (b) Germ plasma defect
(c) Infection (d) Uterine cause
339. NSV is one of the methods of birth control where NSV stands for
(a) Non-steroidal vasectomy
(b) Non-surgical vasectomy
(c) Non scalpel vasectomy
(d) Non-surgical vasectomy bleeding
340. Drug which is used to suppress the lactation is
(a) Prolactin (d) Pethidine (c) Bromocriptine (d) NSAID
341. The commonest cause of post-partum hemorrhage is-
(a) Instrumental trauma (b) Post mature pregnancy
(c) Pre mature pregnancy (c) Atonic uterus
342. Which bacteria is responsible for optharmia neonetorum
(a) Corynebecterium diphtheria
(b) E.Coii
(c) Neisseria gonorrhoea
(d) Pneumococcus
343. The cause of Down syndrome is
(a) An absence of 21 chromosomes
(b) An absence of 23 chromosomes
(c) An additional chromosome chromosome
344. Which type of incision is given in classical caesarean section?
(a) Vertical in lower uterine segment
(b) Transverse in lower uterine segment
(c) Longitudinal in upper uterine segment
(d) Transverse in upper uterine segment
685

345. The commonest type of episiotomy
(a) J shape episiotomy (b) Medio lateral episiotomy
(c) Lateral episiotomy (d) Left lateral episiotomy
346. Drug of choice for induction of abortion is-
(a) Prostaglandin (b) Ergometrine
(c) Methtrexate (d) Clomiphene citrate
347. Klinefelter syndrome means-
(a) An excess of chromosome 47 XXY
(b) An absence of chromosome 21
(c) An absence of chromosome 23
(d) An excess of chromosome 21
348. Kartagner syndrome is
a An absence of sperm
b Excess amount of sperm at 21 at 23
c. immortail sperm
d. highly motile sperm
349. Bicornuate uterus is associated with
a. Normal delivery
b. Infertility
c. Precipitate labor
d. Recurrent breech presentation
350. Turner's syndrome is associated with
a. 45 chromosomes b. Presence of barr bodies
c. Low FSH levels d. All of the above
351. During sexual differentiation in males
a. Leydig cells produce Mullerian inhibiting substance
b. Primitive Gonads differentiate into testis due to the presence of
SRY gene
c. Androgen binding protein is responsible for the development of
male external genitalia
d. Wolffianduct regresses
352. In testicular feminization syndrome gonadectomy is indicated
a. As soon as it is diagnosed
b. At puberty
c. Only when malignancy develops in it
d. When hirsutism is evident
353. First sign of puberty in females is
a. Pubarche . b. Menarche. c. Thelarche d. All the above
354. All of the following cause hirsutism except
a. Addison's disease b. Arrhenoblastoma
c. Acromegaly d. None of the above
355. Female sex chromatin is
a. XX b. XO c. XY d. XXX
356. Barr bodies are not present in
a. XO b. XXY c. XX c. XXX
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357. Sexual is associated with
a. Pituitary tumor b. Gonadal aplasia
b. Dwarfism d. All of the above
358. The chromosomal complement in persons with Klinefelter's syndrome is
a. 45, XO b. 47, XXX c. 46, XY d. 47, XXY
359. Characteristic of XO chromosomal defect is
a. Short stature b. Webbed necked
c. Infertility d. Widely spaced nipple
e. All the above
360. Herpes genitalis causes
a. Koilocytosis in smear b. Atypical cells
c. Carcinoma cervix d. Sterility
361. Perforation of the uterus while doing endometrial biopsy in a case of suspected
genital tuberculosis needs
a. Laparoscopy b. Observation
c. Immediate laparotomy d. Anti TRtherapy
e. Both a & b
362. Gonococcal vaginitis occurs in
a. Adults b. Children
c. Infants d. Adolescents
363. Senile vaginitis is due to
a. Gonococcal infection b. Cancer cervix
c. Diabetes d. Oestrogen deficiency
364. Drug of choice in sensile vaginitis
a. Oxytocin b. Estrogen
c. Prostaglandin d. Progesterone
365. Gonococcal infection spreads by
a. Ascending route b. Hematogenous route
c. Involvement of adjacent structures
366. Mycotic vulvovaginitis is due to
a. Candida b. Aspergillus
c. Cryptococcus d. Pseudomonas
367. In gardenella infection which of the following is seen
a. pH <4.5 b. Amine test positive
c. Discharge per vaginum d. All the above
368. Whiff test is used to detect
a. Trichomoniasis b. Candidial cervicitis
c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Gonococcal cervictis
369. Trichomoniasis is a
a. Bacteria b. Fungus
c. Virus d. Protozoa
370. Strawberry spot vagina is seen in
a. Candida b. Trichomonas
c. CMV d. Herpes simplex
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371. Treatment of choice in pelvic abscess
a. Antibiotics b. Posterior colpotomy
c. Both a and b d. None of the above
372. Which of the following is not seen by wet film?
a. Candidasis b. Trichomoniasis
c. Chlamydia d. Bacterial vaginosis
373. Treatment for trichomonas vaginalis is (a)
a. Metronidazole b. Penicilin
c. Tetracycline d. Sulfa drug
374. Streptococcal vaginitis in a child is treated with
a. Systemic penicillin b. Local gentian violet
c. Estrogens d. Penicillin and estrogen
375. Post partum VVF is best repaired after
376. Chassar moil technique is used in
a. Vesico vaginal fistula b. Stress incontinence
c. Urethrocoele d. Enterocoele
377. In women with ureterovaginal fistula the following statements are true except
a. Produces fluid in abdominal cavity
b. 40% heals spontaneously
c. It is associated with hydronephpsis on affected side
d. Should be repaired as soon as diagnosed on IVP
378. Urethral carbuncle is best treated by
a. Administration of antibiotics
b. Excision followed by repeated dilation
c. Resection and end to end anastomosis
d. Chemical cauterization
379. Ureter is identified at operation by
a. Rich arterial plexus
b. Peristallic movement
c. Relation to lumoar plexus
d. Accompanied by renal vein.
380. Most common type of urinary fistula is
a. Uterovaginal b. Vesicccov ginal
c. Urethrovaginal d. None of above
381. Bonney’s test is used to demonstrate
a. Stress incontinence b. Urge incontinence
c. fibroids d. True incontinence
382. Which causes stress incontinence?
a. VVF b. RVF
c. Ureterovaginal fistula d. Procidentia
383. Boari’s operation is
a. Renal pelvic flap b. Urinary diversion
c. Bladder flap d. Uretero rectal anastomosis
688

384. Fundal height is more than period of gestation in all except
a. Hydramnios b. Intra uterine death
c. Uterine myoma d. Hydatidiform mole
385. Kelly’s suture is done in
a. Stress incontinence b. Cervical incontinence
c. Genito urinary prolapsed d. Vaginoplasty
386. Strees incontinence is a common symptom in
a. Prolapse uterus b. Fibroid
c. Adenomyosis d. VVF
387. Commonest cause of genital fistula in india is
a. Obstructed labor b. Operation therapy
c. Radio therapy d. Lapamscopic injuries
388. Vesicovaginal fistula repair surgery the bladder drainage should be done for
389. Which of the following is not seen in ureteric fistulas?
a. Pyelonephritis b. Amenorrhea
c. Repair is done by fascial split d. Hydronephrosis
390. In azoospermia the diagnostic test which can distinguish between testicular failure
and obstruction of vas deferens is
a. Estimation of FSH level
b. Estimation of testosterone level
c. Karyotyping
d. FNAC of testes
391. Post coital test showing non motile sperms in the cervical smear and motile
sperms from the posterior fornix suggests
a. Faulty coital practice b. Immunological defect
c. Hypospadias d. Azoospermia
392. Best investigation to assess tubal patency
a. Rubins test b. HSG
c. Laparotomy d. Laparoscopic chromtubation
393. In semen banks semen is preserved at low temperature using
a. Dry ice b. Deep freeze
c. Liquid nitrogen d. Liquid air
394. Which is not an assisted reproduction technique?
a. GIFT b. ZIFT
c. 1VF and ET d. Artificial insemination
395. Fern test is due to
a. Presence of NaCI under progesterone effect
b. Presence of NaCI under estrogenic effect
c. LH / FSH
d. Mucus secretion by glands
396. Treatment for cervical infertility includes the following except
a. Condom for 3 month
b. IUT
c. Gamete intrafallopian transfer
d. Clomiphene citrate
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397. In which case homologus artificial insemination is used in females
a. Hormonal disturbance b. Tubal block
c. Cervical factors d. All the above
398. Asherman syndrome is due to
a. Overdose drugs b. Postabortion curettage
c. Septicemia d. Contraceptal pills
399. Barr body is seen in
a. Turners syndrome b. Klinefelters syndrome
c. Testicular feminization syndrome d. 46XY
400. Gonadal sex of the fetus is determined by
a. Secretion of testosterone
b. Secretion of antimullerian hormones
c. Sex determining region on the Y chromosome
d. Secretion of estrogen


401. Ferning of cervical mucus depends on
a. Estrogen b Progesterone
c. FSH d. LH
402. Post coital test issued to assess (
a. Cervical factor b. Vaginal factor
c. Uterine factor d. Nose
403. PESA/MESA is helpful in
a. Pre testicular azoospermia b. Testicular azoospermia
c. Post testicular azoospermia d. Asthenospermia
404. The effective sperm count normally is
a. 20million/mi b. 30million/mi
c. 40 million/mi d. 50million/mi
405. Most reversible form of infertility
a. Anovulation b. Endometrosis
c. Oligospermia d. Tubal factor
406. Tube testing is done under
a. Ketamine b. General anesthesia
c. No anesthesia d. Local anesthesia
407. Calcareous degeneration occurs most commonly in which type of fibroids (b)
a. Submucous b. Subserous
c. Interstitial d. Cervical
408. Uterine sarcomas constitute about _% of all malignant growth of uterus
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
409. Fundal myomas commonly present as
a. Inversion of uterus b. Dysmenorrhoea
c. Urinary retention d. Menorrhagia
690

410. Malignant prevalence in fibroid is
a. 0.5% b. 1% c. 5% d. 10%
411. Red degeneration most commonly occurs at (b)
a. 1 st trimester b. Second trimester of pregnancy
c. Third trimester of pregnancy d. Puerperium
412. Pressure symptom is due to which fibroid
a. Submucous b. Subserous
c. Both a & b d. Intramural
413. Commonest site for fibroid is
a. Submucous b. Intramural
c. Subserous d. Cervical
414. The uncommon change to occur in a myomas
a. Calcification b. Red degeneration
c. Malignant change d. Hyaline change
415. Red degeneration of fibroid is due to
a. Thrombosis of the veins b. Infection
c. Gangrene d. Rupture of capsules
416. The percentage of myomas undergoing malignant transformation
a. 10% b. 5 % c. 1% d. 0.5%
417. All of the following is used for hirsutism in female except
a. Spironolactone b. Oxynandrolone
c. Fmasteride d. flutamide
418. Increased LH : FSH ratio is found in
a. Premature menopause b. Sheehan's syndrome
c. Polycystic ovary syndrome d. turner's syndrome
419. A 20 year lady came to OPD with complaint of oligomenorrhea, obesity, and
hirusitem
a. PCOD b. cancer of endometrium
c. Prolactinoma d. Choriocarcinoma
420. A hirsuite lady with PCOD treatment is
a. Ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel b. Ethinyl estradiol
c. Levonorgestrel d. None
421. Birth trauma is a risk factor for
a. Prolaspe uterus b. Endometriosis
c. PID d. Abortions
422. Most important structure preventing uterine prolapsed is
a. Round ligament b. Broad ligament
c. Cardinal ligament d. Uterosacral ligament
e. Both c & d
423. Which of the following is not a complication of prolapsed uterus?
a. Cancer of cervix b. Elongation of cervix
b. Cystocele d. Decubitus ulcer
424. Purandare's cervicopexy is done in
a. Incompetent cervix b. Elongated cervix
c. Missed IUO d. Congenital prolapse of uterus
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425. Forthergill's repair is also known as
a. Khanna's sling operation b. Manchester operation
c. Le.fort's repair d. Shirodkar's abdominal sling operation
426. Ward Mayo's operation is indicated in

a. Carcinoma uterus b. Nullipara prolapse
c. Procidentia d. Carcinoma cervix
427. Following operation are used for genital prolapsed except

a. Fothergill's b. Fenton's
c. Ward Mayo d. Le Forte structure
428. Most important uterine prolapse is
a. Round ligament b. Broad ligament
c. Cardinal ligament d. Uterosacral ligament
429 Cystocele is formed by _______ of the bladder
a. Base b. Superior surface
c. Trigone d. Posterior
430. Purandre's cervicopexy done in (d)
a Incompetent cervix b. Elongated cervix
c. Missed intrauterine device d. Congenital prolapse of uterus
431. Presence of decubitus ulcer in prolapse indicates

a. Infection b. Malignancy
c. Circulatory disturbances d. Mechanical trauma
432. Sacral colpopexy is done in
a. Nulliparous prolapse b. Vault prolapse
c. Fixed retroversion d. All the above
433. The best way to treat decubitus ulcer in

a. case, of genital prolapse is by b. Bed rest b. Antibiotics
c. Antiseptic dressing d. Reduction with tampoon
434. Treatment for young unmarried nulliparous prolapsed is

a. Vaginal hysterectomy b. Le Fort's operation
c. Shirodkar's abdominal sling operation d. Fother gill's repair
435. Scar endometriosis can occur in the following
a. Classical caesarean section b. Hysterotomy
c. Episiotomy d. All the above
436. Treatment of a cause of endometriosis at a younger age group
a. Progestin b. Danazol
c. GnRH analogues d. Hysterectomy with aphorectomy
437. Endometriosis is explained by
a. Sampson's implantation theory b. Metastatic epithelium
c. Histogenesis by induction d. Coelomic metaplasia theory
e. All the above
692

438. The following statement is true about fibroid uterus
a. Usually increases after menopause
b. Usually regresses after menopause
c. Usually remains the same after menopause
439. Asymptomatic myomas
a. Needs follow up b. Doea net needs removal if it is small
c. Both a a b d. Hysteroscopy
440. Endometrial polyp treatment is done by
a. Hysteroscopy b. Dilatation and curettage
c. Endometrial biospy d. Suction evacuation
441. Retention of urine is most likely to be caused by
a. Subserous fibromyoma b. Interstitial fibromyoma
c. Submucous fibromyoma d. Posterior cervical fibromyoma
442. Treatment for uterine fibroid include the following except
a. ocpills b. RU 486
c. Danazol d. GnRH analogues
443. Poly cystic ovarian disease is associated with
a. Ovarian cancer b. Endometrial carcinoma
c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. Vaginal carcinoma
444. Not a feature of stein leventhal syndrome

a. Increased androgens b. Increased or normal estrogen
c. Galactorrhoea d. Increased LH
445. In polycystic ovarian disease, which is not a feature
a. Hirsutism b. Polymenorrhea
c. Obesity d. Infertility in polycystic ovary
446. Hormal changes disease is
a. Low progesterone b. Normal LH, FSH and estradiol
c. High LH, Low FSH and low estradiol d. Low LH, FSH and estradiol
447. The contraction waves present in a non-pregnant uterus are
a. "A" waves due to oestrogen effect
b. "B" waves due to progesterone effect
c. Both "A" and "B" waves
448. The type of wave continues to exist during pregnancy is
a. “A” wave b. "B" wave
c. "B" wave called as Braxton Hicks contractions d. None
449. The characteristics of Braxton Hicks contractions are:

a. Spasmodic b. irregular
c. Infrequent d. All of above
450. Which nerve gets hypertrophy during last trimester of pregnancy?

a. Autonomic b. Central nervous system fibers
c. Gergtion d. All of the above which supply to uterus and cervix
693

451. The artery supplies blood to the uterus is:
a. Spiral artery b. Carotid artery
c. Coronary artery d. None of the above
452. At term the uterine blood flow is

a. 100-200 ml b. 300-400 ml
c. 500-700 ml d. 800-1000 ml
453. In nulliparous women, the shape of the uterus is:

a. Empirical shaped b. Pear shaped
c. Hallow shaped d. None of the above
454. The appropriate weight and length of uterus of a nullipara is

a. 30 gm and 10cm b. 35 pre and 10.5 cm
c. 40gm and 6.5cm d. 45 gm and 5.5 cm
455. Total calorie requirement during pregnancy is

a. 1000 to 1500 kcal b. 2000 to 2500 kcal
c. 2500 to 2700 kcal d. None of the above
456. First fetal movement felt by the mother called as

a. Ballottement b. Lightening
c. Quickening d. All of the above
457. Anemia during pregnancy called as:

a. Physiological anemia b. Pathological anemia
c. Sickle cell anemia d. Megaloblastic anemia
458. At term the appropriate weight of uterus is approximately

a. 100gm b. 500gm c. 1000gm d.1500gm
459. Falling forward of fundus happens in: (a)
a. Few weeks before term b. Few weeks before third trimester
c. Few weeks after first trimester d. None of the above
460. At what weeks of gestation the uterus grows out of pelvis?
a. 12th week b. 16th week c. 18th week d. 20th week
461. Softening and ripening of cervix occurs nearing the term, because of:
a. Loosened cervical stroma b. Decreased collagen
c. Decreased hydroxyl protuine d. All of the above
462. What are the following features seen in fallopian tube during pregnancy?
a. Stretched out and more vascular b. Uterine end closed
c. Fimbriated extremity remains open d. AII of the above
463. Pearly white or silvery bright lines, headed after delivery is called as:
a. Linea albicantes b. Linea nigra
c. Striae gravidarum d. None of the above
694

464. Alfa fetoprotein is synthesized in
a. Fetal liver b. Yolk sac
c Fetal liver and yolk sac d. None of the above
465. The weekly weight gain by a pregnant mother is:
a. 0.25 kg b. 0.5 kg
c. 2.5 kg d. None of the above
466. What is the pigmentation of the midline, anterior abdominal skin during pregnancy
called? (b)
a. Striae gravidarum c. Linea nigra
c. Chloasma d. Melasma
467. What are the hypertrophic sebaceous glands visible on the breast areolae in
pregnancy called? (b)
a. Glands of montogomery b. Mammary vesicles
468. What happens to the total maternal serum levels of calcium and magnesium in
pregnancy? (a)
a. Decrease b. Increase throughout pregnancy
c. Increase during the third trimester d. Remain unchanged
469. What is the approximate uteroplacental blood flow at term?
a. 100 ml/mm b. 250 ml/mm
c. 550 ml/mm d. 800 ml/mm
470. Which of the following coagulation factor is not increased during pregnancy? (d)
a. Factor Vll b. Factor Vlll
c. Factor IX d. Factor Xl
471. What is the only characteristic ECG finding in normal pregnancy?
a. Shortening of the QRS complex
b. Shortening of the ST segment
c. Slight depression of the ST segment
d. Slight left axis deviation
472. Which of the following changes in cardiac sounds is commonly found during
pregnancy?
a. Systolic murmur
b. Diastolic murmur
c. Wide splitting of the second heart sound
d. Muffling of the first heart sound
473. ln which of the following position cardiac output mostly increased during
pregnancy?
a. Left lateral b. Right lateral c. Supine d. Prone
474. What is the average change in elevation of the diaphragm during normal
pregnancy?
a. 0-1cm b. 2cm c. 3cm d. 4cm
475. Which of the following is excreated in the urine of pregnant mother in large
amount?
a. Amino acids b. Glucose c. Hemoglobin d. Protein
476. At what level does compression of the ureters by the gravid uterus occurs?
a. Bladder trigone b. Pelvic brim
c. Sacrospinous ligament d. Uterovesicle junction
695

477. What alterations in bladder function characterize term pregnancy?
a. Increased bladder pressure b. Reduced bladder capacity
c. Increased in functional urethral length d. All of the above
478. Which of the following shows an increased incidence during pregnancy?

a. Epulis b. Haemorrhoid
c. Pyrosis d. All of the above
479. Which of the following CNS and cognitive changes has been observed in late
pregnancy?
a. Concentration deficit b. Increased irritability
c. Memory decline d. Sleep quality improvement
480. Which of the following denotes the pregnant status both present and past?
a. Parity b. Gravida
c. Nullipara d. None of the above
481. Which of the following denotes a state of previous pregnancy beyond the period of
viability?
a. Gravida b. Parity
c. Nulligravida d. None of the above
482. _______ is the one, who has never completed a pregnancy to the stage of viability
a. Nullipara b. Gravida
c Primipara d. None of the above
483. _________ is the one, who never has been pregnant?
a. Nullipara b. Primigravida
c. NuIligravida d. All of the above
484. __________ is the one, who has delivered one viable child?
a. Primigravida b. Primipara
c. Parity d. All of the above
485. __________ is the one, who is pregnant for the first time
a. primigravida b. Nullipara
c. primipara d. None of the above
486. __________ is the one, who has previously been pregnant
a. Multipara b. Multigravida
c. Parturient d. None of the above
487. One who has delivered two or more children, known as:
a. Multipara b. Parturient
c. Primipara d. None of the above
488. Which of the following is necessary to calculate the expected date of delivery?
a. Past medical history b. Naegele's formula
c. Family history d. Past surgical history
489. Which of the following is one that causes physiological edema during pregnancy?
a. Arterial pressure of inferior extremities
b. Venous pressure of inferior extremities
c. Arterial pressure of superior extremities
d. None
696

490. The features of physiological edema are:
a. Edema all over the body
b. Slight degree of edema only in the eyes
c. Slight degree edema in the ankles
d. All of the above
491. Which of the following position has to maintain during vaginal examination?
a. Dorsal position b. Lithotomy
c. Fowlers d. All of the above
492. The calorie requirement during pregnancy is
a. 2000 kcal b. 1200 kcal c. 2500 kcal d. 3000 kcal
493. The requirement of protein during pregnancy is (c)
a. 20mg b. 40mg c. 60mg d. 80 mg
494. Total requirement of sleeping hour for mother during pregnancy is about
a. 2 hours b. 5 hours c. 10 hours d. 14 hours
495. In which trimester there is restriction for coitus?
a. 1st and 2nd trimester b. 1st and 3rd trimester
c. 2nd trimester d. Through pregnancy
496. During the second-half of pregnancy the average weight gain is:
a. 1/2 kg in a fortnight b. 1 kg in a fortnight
c. 2 kg in a fortnight d. ½ kg in a month
497. Measurement of girth of abdomen in last trimester of pregnancy should be
measured at
a. Lower border of the umbilicus b. Upper border of the umbilicus
c. Exactly at the umbilicus d. None of the above
498. If the girth gradually diminishes beyond term or earlier it arouses suspicion of
a. Multiple pregnancies b. hydraminios
c. Placenta insufficiency d. Abortion
499. Which of the following weeks of gestation the mother advised to go for ultrasound
scanning to detect congenital abnormalities?
500. The normal AFP concentration in liquor amni at the 16th week is about – mg/liter
a. 16 b. 20 C. 22 d. 24
501. If AFP concentration in liquor amni is increase indicates that the fetus has:
a. Open neural tube defects b. Imperforate anus
c. Undecended testes d. Down syndrome
502. Pregnancy above the age of 35 years has increased incidence of:
a. Down syndrome b. Petters syndrome
c. Pierre Robin syndrome d. None of the above
503. Chorionic villus biopsy is done to detect:
a. Abnormalities of placenta b. Chromosomal abnormalities
c. Abnormalities in the sex organs d. None of the above
504. Complications of chorionic villus biopsy is:
a. Abortion b. Infection
c. Preterm labour d. All of the above
697

505. Aspiration of fetal blood or fetal tissues is made for detecting all except:
a. Diabetes rnellitus b. Haemoglobinopathies
c. Thrombocytopenia d. Haemophilia
506. Oestriol is synthesized in the
a. Amnion b. Chorion
c. Placenta d. Decidua
507. Oestriol estimation is useful to detect:
a. Post hank pregnancy b. Diabetes
c. Multiple pregnancies d. Rh-Isoimmunization
508. At term oestriol level is about ________ mg in 24 hours urine:
a. 20 to 25 b. 40 to 45
c. 10 to l5 D. 5 to 10
509. Estimation of HPL is useful in all except:
a. Pregnancy induced hypertension b. Post-term pregnancy
c. Intrauterine growth retardation d. Diabetes mellitus
510. Pregnant mother urine contains:
a. HCG hormone b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen d. None of the above
511. L: S ratio is the test done:
a. To detect lungs maturity b. To detect fetal well-being
c.To detect open neural tube defect d. All of the above
512. Lecithin: sphingomyelin ratio should be:
a. Less than 2 b. Greater than 2
c. Equalto2 d. None of the above
513. Foetal cord blood sampling is also called as:
a. Amniocentesis b. Cordocentesis
c. Placentosis d. All of the above
514. During labour, fetal well-being detected by:
a. NST b. CST
c. Biophysical test d. Biochemical test
515. Meconium mixed with liquor amni indicates:

a. Fetal distress b. Chromosomal anomalies
c. Congenital anomalies d. None of the above
516. Presence of a complete ring of bubbles at the meniscus in shake test indicates:
a. Maturity of fetal lungs b. Congenital anomalies
c. Fetal well-being d. All of the above
517. Failure in placental function indicates when the number of kicks is less than ----- in
12 hours
a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20
518. Depression of FHR associated with fetal movements is observed in all except:
a. Narcotic drug usage by mother b. Fetal acidosis
c. Uteroplacental insufficiency d. Anemia
519. A continuous electronic monitoring of FHR along with recording of foetal
movements is called as:
a. NST b. CST c. CTG d. DFMC
698

520. After 32 weeks the FHR is also related to:
a. Pelvic activity b. Placental activity
c. Uterine activity d. All of the above
521. CTG result is affected by:
a. Pethidine/ diazepam b. Paracetamol
c. Septran d. Dulcolax
522. OCT is a ------ type of test:
a. Noninvasive b. Invasive
c. Both d. None
523. Level I care is given at ------ level
a. Medical college b. Village
c. PHC d. All the above
524. In medical college hospitals it constitutes ------- % of all cases
a. 5 b. 20 c 75 d. None
525. All are high risk pregnancy except:
a. Maternal height above 150 cm b. Malpresentations
c. IUGR d. Hemorrhage
526. Low risk obstetrics cases are all except:
a. Normal labour in stage 1 and 2 b. Contraceptive education
c Healthy newborns d. PIH
527. Total weight gain of mother in pregnancy is:
a. 10 to 12kg b. 18 to 10kg
c. l2 to l4kg d. 9 to lo kg
528. Pruritus gravidarum is caused by elevated tissue levels of which of the following?
a. Bile salts b. Bile acids
c. Bilirubin, direct d. Bilirubin, indirect
529. Labour is the process of
a. Giving birth to the baby b. Giving birth to the placenta
c. Giving birth to both baby and the placenta d. All of the above
530. Normal labour is called:
a. Eutocia b. Dystocia
c. Spurious labour d. False labour
531. 'Show' is the sign of:
a. True labour pain b. False labour pain
c. Sign of abnormal labour d. Sign of placenta praevia
532. Bag of membrane can be found:
a. Before the onset of labour b. During 1st stage
c .During 2nd stage d. All of the above
533. During P/V examination you feel:
a. Hind water b. Fore water
c. Both A and B d. Bag of membrane
534. During uterine contraction fetal heart rate will:
a. Decrease and comes to normal b. Increase and comes to normal
c. Unchanged d. Not audible at all
699

535. What is the right time to perform episiotomy?
a. Before on set of labour pain b. After onset of labour pain
c. During crowning of the head d. Anytime during delivery of the baby
536. Episiotomy is to be given:
a. To reduce the 2nd stage of labour b. To increase the vulval outlet
c. To prevent injury to the baby d. All of the above
537. After delivery the immediate care given to the baby is
a. To clear the airway b. To clamping the cord
c. Clean the cord d. Initiate the feeding
538. What is the total time period for the 3rd stage of labour for both primi and multi?
a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes
c. 45 minutes d. 1 hour
539. The normal diameter for engagement in vertex presentation is:
a. Suboccipitobregmatic diameter b. Occipitobregmatic diameter
c. Submentobregmatic diameter d. Mentobregmatic
540. Which are of the following movements comes first in all mechanism of normal
labour?
a. Extension b. Flexion c. Restitution d. External rotation
541. Bishops score consists of all except one the following
a. Station of the head b. Position of the cervix
c. Size of the pelvis d. Dilatation of the cervix
542. In fully flexed cephalic presentation we feel:
a. Occiput of the fetus b. Sinciput of the fetus
c. Brow of the fetus d. Oral cavity of the fetus
543. The normal foetal heart rate is:
a. 120-140/mm b. 140- l 60/mm
c. 160-180/mm d. All of the above
544. Overlapping of the parietal bone during birth called as:
a. Caput b. Moulding
c. Haematoma d. All of the above
545. Which of the following drug given to increase uterine contraction?
a. Methargine b. Oxytocin
c. Pethidine d. Phenergan
546. Labour is called normal when it is:
a. Spontaneous b. Vertex presentation
c. Natural termination without complication d. All of the above
547. Abnormal labour is called
a. Preterm b. Small for gestation c. Dystocia d. Futncia
548. Hormone is responsible for initiation of labour
a. Prolactin b. Androsteron c. Prostaglandin d. None of the above
549. The characteristics of false labour pains are:
a. Continuous, tolerable, radiates abdomen to groin relieved by enema
b. Intermittent, intolerable, radiates abdomen to thigh, not relieved by enema
c. Tolerable and is continuous
d. All of the above
700

550. False pain occurs in primi how many weeks before the onset of true labour?
551. The stage begins 2 to 3 weeks before labour in primigravida is known as:
a. Dilatation stage b. Premonitory stage
c. Propulsive stage d. First stage
552. Stretching of the cervix of lower uterine segment is called as:
a. Dilatation b. Effacement
c. Elasticity of the cervix d. None of the above
553. Which sign shows that there is no cephalopelvic disproportion?
a. Quickening b. Homan's sign
c. Lightening d. Goodel's sign
554. Infrequent irregular spasmodic contraction painless with no cervical dilation is
called as
a. True labour b. Spurious labour
c. Braxton Hick’s contractions d. All of the above
555. The stage starts from the maternal bearing down efforts and ending up with the
delivery of the baby is
a. Dilatation stage b. Expulsive stage
c. Propulsive stage d. Forth
556. Second stage of labour extends from the complete dilation of cervix to:
a. Expulsion of fetus b. Expulsion of membranes
c. Expulsion of placenta d. All of the above
557. The presenting part comes and fix under the symphysis pubis is called as:
a. Show b. Crowing of the head
c. Descent d. Engagement of the head
558. Which of the following is called "coul" ?
a. Baby born with amniotic fluid b. Baby born with membrane
c. Baby born without membrane d. All of the above
559. After the labour the mother will have a rigor which is called as
a. Pathological chill b. Infection
c. Physiological chill d. Rigor
560. What is the average amount of blood loss during the normal delivery?
a. 150 ml b. 250 ml
c. 350 ml d. 500 ml
561. In which of the following stage FHR should be noted every half an hour?
a. First stage of labour b. Second stage of labour
c. Third stage of labour d. Fourth stage of labour
562. In normal labour the greater diameter of the head has passed through the brim of
the pelvis is known as:
a. Mentovertical (14 cm) b. Biparietal diameter (9.5 cm)
c. Submentobregmatic diameter (9.5 cm) d. Bitemporal diameter (8.4 cm)
563. Engagement of the head in multigravida occurs most probably
a. During 36 weeks of gestation b. During 38 weeks of gestation
c. During the time of onset of labour d. All of the above
701

564. The location of presenting part of fetus in pelvic canal in relation to ischial spine is
a. Station b. Position
c .Location d. Presentation
565. False labour is also called as:
a. Dystocia b. Spurious labour
c. Eutocia d. Precipitate labour
566. Expulsion of cervical mucus plug, mixed in blood is called:
a. Vemix b. Show
c. Lie d. None of the above
567. "Bag of waters" is formed in
a. False labour pain b. Show
c. True labour pain d. All of the above
568. First stage of labour is also called as:
a. Cervical stage b. Vaginal stage
c. Uterine stage d. Tubal stage
569. First stage in prime mothers' duration is:
a. 14-16 hours b. 16-18 hours
c. 18-20 hours d. 20-22 hours
570. In multi mothers, the first stage last for:
a. 2-6 hours b. 6-12 hours
571. What is the normal dilatation of cervix?
a. 20cm b. 50cm c. 7cm d. 10crn
572. The characteristics of labour pain in early first stage are
a. Pain starts in every 3 to 5 minutes interval and lasts for 30 seconds
b. Pain starts in every 5 to 10 minutes interval and lasts for 45 seconds
c. Pain starts in every 10 to 15 minutes interval and lasts for 60 seconds
d. Pain starts in every 15 to 30 minutes interval and lasts for 15 seconds
573. The characteristics of late first stage pain is
a. It starts every 3-5 mm interval and lasts for 50 sec
b. It starts every 3-5 mm interval and lasts for 45 sec
c. It starts every 3-5 mm interval and lasts for 30 sec
d. It starts e cry 3 5 mm interval and lasts for 10 sec
574. The characteristics of labour pain in second stage of labour are:

a. Starts in every 2-3 mm interval and lasts for 5 mm
b. Starts in every 2-3 min interval and lasts for 2 mins
c. Starts in every 2-3 min interval and lasts for 3 mins
d. Starts in every 2-3 mm interval and lasts for 3.5 mins
575. Immediately following delivery, the uterus measures about:
a. 20 cm x 20 cmx7.Scm b. 20 cm x l2 cmx7.5cm
c. 10 cm x 20 cmX7.Scm d. 10 cm x 10 crnX7.5cm
576. Separation of placenta starts from the margin is called as:
a. Mathews Duncan method b. Schultz method
c. Decidual separation d. All of the above
702

577. The process of expulsion of fetus, placenta and membrane is called as:
a. Puerperium b. Labour
c. Pregnancy d. All of the above
578. The process of giving birth is called as:
a. Parturition b. Postpartum
c. Lightening d. Labour
579. The duration of 2nd stage in multigravida mothers is about:

a. 30 minutes b. 1-2 hours
580. At term the length of uterus measures about:
a. 25c m b. 35cm c. 45cm d. 55cm
581. _____ is used for recording progress of labors:
a. Cervicograph b. Partograph
c. CTG d. Cardiotocograph
582. Active phase starts when the dilation of the cervix is about:
a. 1 -1.5 cm/hour b. 3-4 cm/hour
c. 5-6 cm/hour d. 7-8 cm/hour
583. The maximum diameter streches the vulval outlet during birth is called as:
a. Mentovertical b. Biparietal
c. Occipitofrontal d. All of the above
584. Membranes may rupture any time after the onset of labour but before full dilation of
cervix is known as:
a. PROM b. Early rupture
c. APH d. PPH
585. The membranes rupture before the onset of the labour and before full dilatation of
the cervix is called as-----
a. Preterm labour b. Premature rupture of the membrane
c. Induction of labour d. All of the above
586. The types of incision in episiotomy usually practiced are:
a. Mediolateral and median b. Lateral
c. Bilateral d. all of the above
587. The normal volume of blood flow through placental is

a. 100-300 ml b. 300 - 500 ml
c. 500-800ml d. 1000 ml
588. Post-term pregnancy is called when the pregnancy extends
a. 34-37 weeks b. 37- 42 weeks
c . >42 weeks d. All of the above
589. CTG is also known as:
a. Stress test b. Cardiotocograph
c. Non-stress test d. Cervicograph
590. The commonly used definition of the puerperium described which of the following
time periods?
a. 2 weeks following delivery b. 4 weeks following delivery
c. 6 weeks following delivery d. 12 weeks following delivery
703

591. Typical permanent anatomical characteristics of the cervix following delivery
include which of the following?
a. Wider external os
b. Scarred, narrowed external os
c. Cervical length is doubled from prepregnancy
d. Cervical length is halved from prepregnancy
592. The duration of puerperial period is:
a. From delivery to 1 week b. Delivery to 4 weeks
c. Delivery to 6 weeks d. Delivery to 16 weeks
593. The weight of the uterus during nonpregnant and at term approximately:
a. 25 gm or 500gm b. 60 or lOOOgm
c. 100 QR 1500gm d. All of the above
594. The vaginal discharge during the first fortnight during puerperium is known as:
a. Show b. Lochia
c. Effacement d. Leucorrhoea
595. Lochia rubra is ____ color for ____ days
a. Red color and 1-4 days b. Green and 5-9 days
c. Yellowish and 10-15 days d. Pale yellow and 10-15 days
596. Which of the following term is used to formally describe the process by which the
uterus returns to its nonpregnant size?
a. Decompression b. Contracture
c. Reparation d. Involution
597. You may correctly counsel your puerperal patient in regard to lochia with which of
the following statements?
a. Lochia will remain red through its duration
b. Breastfeeding will lessen the duration of lochial flow
c. Lochial flow may last up to 8 weeks during the puerperium
d. Fetal macrosomia will lengthen the duration of lochial flow
598. A common cause of subinvolution includes which of the following?
a. Puerperal pelvic infection b. Fetal macrosomia
c. Antenatal polyhydramnios d. Cessation of breastfeeding
599. Subinvolutional bleeding may be treated by any of the following except
a. Ergonovine b. Tetracycline
c. Oral estrogen d. Methylergonovine
600. Which of the following statements correctly defines the use of curettage in the
treatment of late puerperal hemorrhage?
a. Should be used as a first-line treatment
b. Should be used after pharmacological agents fail to halt bleeding
c. Should be used as an effective tool to remove retained placental tissue
d. Should be used for both light and heavy puerperal bleeding
704

600. Which of the following statements correctly defines the use of curettage in the
treatment of late puerperal hemorrhage?
a. Should be used as a first-line treatment
b. Should be used after pharmacological agents fail to halt bleeding
c. Should be used as an effective tool to remove retained placental tissue
d. Should be used for both light and heavy puerperal bleeding
601. Which of the following are characteristic of the puerperal bladder?
a. Undistention complete emptying b. Undistention; incomplete emptying
c. Over distention; complete emptying d. Over distention; incomplete emptying
602. Which of the following is the most commonly associated with urinary retention?
a. Forceps delivery
b. Precipitous delivery
c Nitrous oxide analgesia use during second stage of labour
d. Puerperal hemorrhage
603. Which of the following is not typically associated with puerperal stress urinary
incontinence?
a. Prolonged second stage b. Size of the infant's head
c. Cesarean delivery d. Episiotomy
604. Which of the following time period is after delivery the heart rate and cardiac output
typically have returned to normal levels?
605. What is the time period the most women return to their prepregnancy weight?
a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 8 months d. 12 months
606. Compared to breast milk, colostrums contains more of which of the following?
a. Fat b. Minerals
c. Sugar d. lmmunoglobulin M
607. Which of the following has not been identified in human breast milk?
a. lnterleukin b. Prolactin
c. Epidermal growth factor d. Vitamin K
608. Essential hormonal changes during the puerperium necessary for breastfeeding
include all of the following except
a. Decreases in progesterone levels b. Increases in prolactin levels
c. Increase in estrogen levels d. Increase in oxytocins levels
609. Which of the following maternal infections the breastfeeding is contradicted?
a. Hepatitis C b. Hepatitis B
c. Active, untreated tuberculosis d. Cytomegalovirus infection
610. The most common etiological agent for mastitis is
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Enterococci d. Group A Streptococcus
705

611. Immunoglobulin A, found in breast milk, is to lower the risk of which of the following
conditions in breast-fed infants as compared with bottle-fed infants?
a. Enteric infections b. Respiratory infections
c. Otitis media d. Asthma
612. The correct statements regarding contraception in breastfeeding women include
a. Depo-medroxyprogesterone lowers the quality of breast milk
b. Progectin-only birth control pill do riot affect the quantity of breast milk
c. Estrogen-progestin birth control pills do not affect the quality of breast milk
d. Estrogen-progestin birth control pills do not affect the quantity of breast milk
613. Bromocriptine use for lactation inhibition is not recommended by the FDA because
of its association with:
a. Hepatitis b. Renal failure
c. Valvular heart disease d. Stroke
614. Agents that should avoid in breast feeding include all of the following except:
a. Radioactive isotopes b. Varicella-zoster vaccinations
c. Cytotoxic agents d. Ergot alkaloids
615. Which of the following is a typical clinical finding regarding mastitis?
a. Severe breast pain b. Bilateral breast involvement
c. Progression to abscess formation d. Breast skin ulceration
616. Which of the following includes for treatment of mastitis?
a. Intravenous antimicrobial therapy b. Cessation of breast pumping
c. Cessation of breastfeeding d. Antimicrobial therapy for 10 to 14 days
617. Which of the following is a confirmed benefit to ambulation early in the
puerperium?
a. Hastens episiotomy repair b. Lessens severity of postpartum
blues
c. Decreases constipation d. Lessens duration of lochia
618. Suppose a patient is now 6 hours postpartum. Her vital signs are within normal
range. Her uterus is palpated above the level of the umbilicus. The patient
has not voided. The next management step for this patient would include which
of the following?
a. Encourage fluid consumption b. Urinary catheter placement
c. Uterine massage d. lce pack to perineum
619. Severe pain due to episiotomy within the first 24 hours after delivery may be due to
(c)
a. Episiotomy infection problem b. Urinary retention problem
c. Perineal hematoma problem d. Constipation problem
620. When a mother becomes tearful during early puerperiuin and not taking care of her
baby, but there is no history of mental illness, then what is the condition? (a)
a. Puerperal blue b. Puerperal mood disorder
c. Puerperal depression d. All of the above
621. Which of the following immunizations should not be given at postpartum?
a. Diphtheria-tetanus b. Anti- D lmmunoglobulin
c. Measles mumps-rubella vaccination d. No restrictions for any of these
706

622. At what point postpartum (weeks) does menstruation normally return in a non-
breast-feeding woman?
a. 4 to 6 b. 6 to 8 c. 12 to14 d. 16 to18
623. One typical clinical characteristic of uterine after pains includes which of the
following?
a. Resolve after the 7th day of the puerperium
b. Require analgesic use
c. Relieved by uterine massage
d. Aggravated by breastfeeding
624. Lochia serosa color and duration is:
a. Red color discharge occurs from into 4 days after delivery
b. Yellowish and pink or pale brownish discharge from 5 to 9 days
c. Brownish discharge on 5 to 9 days
d. White discharge from10 to 15 days
625. The color and duration of lochia alba is

a. Red and 1-4days b. Yellowish and 4-9 days
c. Pale white and 10 – 15 days d. Bright red color after 15 days
626. The odor of lochia is
a. Offensive smell b. Fishy smell
c. Offensive-fishy smell d. No odor
627. Following delivery, the fundus of uterus lies about:
a. 10 cm above the symphysis pubis
b. 13.5 cm above the symphysis pubis
c. 16 cm above the symphysis pubis
d. 20 cm above the symphysis pubis
628. What is the change in the milk of ovulating women versus non-ovulating lactating
women?
a. No difference b. Lactose is more in ovulating women milk
c. K and glucose is more d. Na and CI are more
629. Which change can be seen in puerperium?
a. Maternal heart beat is increased 2 days after delivery
b. Endometrial repair is resumed three weeks after delivery
c. Ureters will return to non pregnant state after 8 weeks
d. Vaginal rugae appear after 3 months from delivery
630. Which is true about puerperal changes?
a. Total number of uterine muscular cells is not reduced
b. Vaginal rugae occur in the third month from delivery
c. Uterine connective tissue won't change
d. Uterine is re-epithelial zed totally in the first week pregnancy
631. Which organism is the least responsible in puerperal infection?
a. Peptostreptococcus b. Enterococcus
c. Chlamydia trochomatous d. Mycoplasma
707

632. What is your management in a lactating mother who is a candidate for radioactive
iodine administration
a. Lactation after two weeks from iodine exposure is safe
b. Lactating during iodine administration is safe because iodine is not secreted in
the milk
c. Lactation during the first 15 hours is contraindicated
d. Lactation is contraindicated
633. A patient comes to the clinic because of fever 4 days after C/S which persists 72
hours from antibiotic administration. What is the most likely reason of antibiotic
failure?
a. Wound infection b. Pelvic thrombophlebitis
c. Pyelonephritis d. Adnexal infection
634. What is wrong about puerperal immunization?
a. Tetanus and diphtheria vaccine before discharge from hospital is advocated
b. A woman already injected measles vaccine does not need a booster' dose
c. Rh negative women with an Rh positive newborn should take Anti gamma
globulins
d. Women who have never taken rubella vaccine should be vaccinated
635. Which is not a contraindication to lactation?
a. Alcoholics and drug abusers
b. HSV and HBV patients whose infants have taken IG against these viruses
c. AIDS and active TB
d. Women under breast cancer treatment
636. Which is wrong about infection after CIS?
a. There is no definite relationship between anemia and infection
b. Sexual practices definitely play a role in infection
c. Young age and pimigravidity is a risk factor
d. Three or more doses of betamethasone in preterm labour is a risk factor
637. Which is wrong about human lactation?
a. A normal milk secretion is more than 60 cc per day
b. Milk is isotonic to plasma and more than 50% of its osmotic pressure is due to
its lactose
c. Milk lactose can leak to blood and urine and this may be mistaken as
glucosuria
d. Iron reserve affects milk iron content
638. What is wrong about weight loss after delivery?
a. 5-6 kg weight loss after delivery is due to uterine evacuation and blood
loss
b. 2-3 kg is lost because of diuresis
c. 2 kg is lost because of third space volume reduction
d. Most women reach to pre-pregnancy weight by the second month after
delivery
639. On average what percent of drug can be secreted in human milk?
a. 1% b. 10% c. 30% d. 50%
708

640. Which is wrong about fever after delivery?
a. Fever more than 39 C in the first 24 hours after delivery is a sign of severe
infection
b. Fever in bacterial mastitis usually is late and persistent
c. Pulmonary infection usually occurs in the first 24 hours mostly after C/S
d. Pyelonephritis is one of the most common reason of infection and is most
often mistaken for pelvic infection
641. Who can lactate?
a. Mother of a galactosemic newborn b. Mother with HBV
c. Mother with active untreated TB d. Mother with breast herpetic lesions
642. How to manage breast engorgement in women who does not choose
breastfeeding her newborn:
a. Oral analgesics b. Warm compress
c. Broad-spectrum antibiotic d. Bromocriptine
643. A week after NVD +episiotomy dehiscence occurs. When the dehiscence should
be repaired?
a. Immediately b. 3 months later
c. 6 months later d. 9 months later
644. A 28-yr-old G2 P1 woman decides on contraception during lactation after the first
week from delivery. What is the best choice?
a. Oral progesterone 2-3 weeks after delivery
b. Depo-Provera 2 weeks after delivery
c. Implants after 4 weeks from delivery
d. Oral OCP 4 weeks from delivery
645. What is true about lactation period mastitis?
a. It occurs in the last days of the first week
b. Most of the time it is bilateral
c. Nose and throat of the newborn is the source of infection
d. It is mostly a result of coagulase-negative Staph
646. Postnatal exercise includes:
a. Pelvic flour exercise b. Abdominal muscle exercise
c. Back muscle exercise d. All of the above
647. Which of the following are the advantages of postpartum exercise?
a. Minimize the risk of venous thrombosis and stasis b. Prevent backache
c. Prevent genital prolapsed d. All of the above
648. Which of the following exercise the mother is asked to contract the pelvic muscle in
a manner to withhold the act of defecation?
a. Abdominal muscle exercise b. Back mucscles exercise
c. Pelvic floor exercise d. All of the above
649. In which type of Exercise the mother has to lie in dorsal position and the knees
bent and feet flat on the bed:
a. Back muscle exercises b. Abdominal muscle exercise
c. Pelvic tilting d. None of the above
709

650. The newborn regains weight by:
a. 3 to 4days b. 4 to 5 day
651. Which of the following tissue is avascular?
a. Deciduous b. Placenta
c. Trophoblast d. Amnion
652. The factor most responsible for the decline in maternal deaths from puerperal
infection is
a. Expanded number of intensive care units
b. Extensive use of bacterial cultures to identify puerperal Infection
c. Development of antimicrobials
d. Improved sterile technique at the time of delivery and wound closure
653. The most common cause of persistent puerperal fever is:
a. Atelectasis b. Genital tract infection
c. Pyelonephritis d. Breast engorgement
654. How can atelectasis be prevented?
a. Coughing and deep breathing
b. Deep breathing and aspirin administration
c. Avoiding Opioids for postoperative analgesia
d. Prophylactic theophylline administration
655. Fever due to breast engorgement is commonly characterized when:
a. Exeeds 39.0'C b. Lasts < 24 hr
c. Onset within the first 24 hr of the puerperium d. Lasts > 48 hr
656. What is the single most significant risk factor for puerperal metritis?
a. Number of pelvic exams b. Duration of labour
c. Duration of membrane rupture d. Route of delivery
657. Which of the following is associated with the greatest risk of puerperal metritis after
vaginal delivery?
a. Prolonged rupture of membranes b. Prolonged labour
c. lntrapartum chorioamnionitis d. Multiple cervical examinations
658. Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for postpartum metritis after
cesarean delivery?
a. Multiple cervical examinations b. Internal fetal monitoring
c. Cephalo- pelvic disproportion d. Labour <8 hr duration
659. Which of the following factors have been linked to a higher risk of puerperal
metritis after caesarean delivery?
a. Poor nutrition b. Maternal anemia
c. Obesity d. Higher socioeconomic status
660. Heavy colonization of the vaginal tract with which of the following bacteria is
associated with puerperal infection?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Gardnerella vaginalis
710

661. Which of the following microbiological characteristics are typical of puerperal
metritis?
a. Bacteria are indigenous to the female genital tract
b. Bacteria from a single species are isolated
c. Bacteria isolated are typically considered to be of high virulence
d. Bacteria from an aerobic species are solely isolated
662. Which of the following lower genital tract organism is not associated with increased
puerperal infections?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Group B Streptococcus
c. Mycoplasma bominis
663. Which of the following has been associated with toxic shock- like syndrome?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Escherichia coli
c. Group A B-hemolytic Streptococcus d. Klebsiella pneumonia
664. Which of the following organisms is implicated as a cause of late puerperal
infection?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Bacteroides bivius
665. In addition to fever, which of the clinical findings are commonly associated with
puerperal metritis?
a. Nausea and vomiting b. Parametrial tenderness
c. Positive blood cultures d. Vulvar edema
666. How Iong should women with puerperal metritis be treated with antimicrobials?
a. Until afebrile for 24 hr b. 5-day course
c. 10-day course d. 14 day course
667. Complications of puerperal metritis that commonly cause persistent fever include
which of the following?
a. Antimicrobial-resistant bacteria b. Drug fever
c. Pelvic abscess d. Atelectasis
668. Which of the following clinical markers is the most commonly used to monitor the
improvement of puerperal metritis?
a. Temperature b. Leukocyte count
c. Abdominal pain d. Odor of lochia
669. Within 72 hours what is the percentage of a patient with puerperal metritis will
respond to antimicrobials?
a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 90
670. Which of the following is not a risk factor for wound infection?
a. Hematoma formation b. Anemia c. Hyperthyroidism d. Diabetes
671. What is the most common etiology of fascial dehiscence?
a. Poor surgical b. Infection c. Obesity d. Coughing
672. Which of the following is a common clinical finding associated with fascial
dehiscence?
a. Manifestation on the second postoperative day
b. Concurrent atelectasis
c. Serosanguineous drainage from the wound
d. Feculent drainage from the wound
711

673. Which of the following is not a risk factor for necrotizing fasciitis?
a. Obesity b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes d. Young maternal age
674. Which of the following is commonly seen with puerperal peritonitis?
a. Prominent abdominal rigidity b. Minimal bowel distention
c. Adynamic ileus d. Minimal pain
675. Puerperal septic pelvic thrombophiebitis commonly extends to involve:
a. Femoral vein b. Ovarian vein
c. Inferior vena cava d. Renal vein
676. Which of the following is the clinical pathognomohic feature of a woman with
puerperal septic pelvic thrombophiebitis?
a. Enigmatic fever b. Lower abdominal pain
c. Pelvic mass d. Abdominal distention
677. What is the most common etiology of episiotomy dehiscence?
a. Postpartum anemia b. Poor nutrition
c. Infection d. Faulty episiotomy repair
678. What is not a predisposing factor for episiotomy breakdown?
a. Human papilloma virus b. Smoking
c. Coagulation disorders d. Gonorrhoea
679. Which of the following is not a common clinical component of episiotomy
dehiscence?
a. Pain b. Hematochezia
c. Dysuria d. Fever
680. Recommended treatment of the episiotomy defect following dehiscence currently
includes
a. Rectal flap repair approximately 1 week following dehiscence
b. Wound healing through secondary intention
c. Reapproximation repair approximately 1 week following dehiscence
d. Rectal flap repair approximately 3 months following dehiscence
681. Which of the following clinical characteristics are typically associated with
necrotizing fasciitis that complicates a perineal laceration?
a. Possesses clinical qualities that are distinct from superficial perineal
infection
b. May extend to the thighs
c. Possesses up to a 35% mortality rate despite aggressive treatment
d. Symptoms progress rapidly within the first 24 to 48 hours following
delivery
682. Which of the following bacterial is responsible for toxic shock syndrome?
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Staphylococcus toxi
683. Clinical finding of toxic shock syndrome in its early stages may include:
a. Erythrematous b. Conjunctivitis
c Vertigo d. Herpetiform skin eruptions
684. Recovery from toxic shock syndrome classically includes:
a. Hypothermia b. Skin desquamation
c. Watery diarrhea d. Tinnitus
712

685. The sign of neonatal hypothermia is
a. Rectal temperature below 35'C b. Respiration slow
c. Reluctance to feed d. High pitch cries
686. The immediate nursing care needed to a asphyxia baby is:

a. initiate early feeding b. Administer oxygen
c. Gentle handling of the baby d. Maintain clear airway
687. A healthy newborn is:
a. Born at term cries later b. Born at term cries immediately
c Born before the EDD and cries immediately d. All of the above
688. The average crown-heal length of term infant is:
a. 40cm b. 50cm c. 60cm d. 80cm
689. Anterior fontanelle is usually of ____ shape and _____ an in area:
a. Diamond shaped 5 cm b. Square shape 5 cm
c. Triangular 10 cm area d. All of the above
690. Depressed fontanelle indicates:
a. Over hydration b. Dehydration
c Acidosis d. Alkalosis
691. The rate of respiration of newborn in resting state varies from:
a. 20 to 30/mt b. 20 to 40/mt
c. 20-60/mt d. 20-80/mt
692. The newborn heart rate varies from
a. 80 to 100/mt b. 100 to 120/mt
c. 120 to 140/mt d. 140-160/mt
693. The newborn blood pressure ranges from:
a. 50 to 60 systolic and diastolic below 40 mm of Hg
b. 60 to 80 systolic and diastolic below 50 mm of Hg
c. 80 to 100 systolic and diastolic below 60 mm of Hg
694. The blood hemoglobin of newborn is
a. 12 gm% b. 4.1 gm%
c 18.4 gm% d. 22 gm%
695. Bathing the newborn is restricted because of
a. Cross infection b. Lack of rooming
c. To maintain warmth d. To prevent infection
696. When a baby cries immediately at birth, the APGAR score is considered as
a. 4 to 6 b. 6 to 8
c. 8 to 10 d. All fo the above
697. During the first week of life the amount of urine output by newborn is:
a. 60 ml/24 hours b. 100 ml/24hours
c. 150 ml/24 hours d. 200 ml/24 hours
698. The slightly enlarged breasts may show milky secretion commonly known as:
a. Colostrums b. Witch's milk
c. Breast milk d. None of the above
713

699. A baby weighing less than 2.5 kg at birth, irrespective of gestational age is
a. Term baby b. Preterm baby
c. Low birth weight baby d. All of the above
700. Baby weighing less than 2.5 kg and born before 37 weeks of gestation is called as
a. Term baby b. Preterm baby
c. Post-term baby d. IUGR baby
701. What is the crown-rump length in preterm baby?

a. <37cm b. <47cm
c. <57cm d. >57uti
702. Preterm baby is highly prone to infection because of
a. Cold environment
b. Low level of IgG and inefficient cellular immunity
c. Poor sucking and swallowing reflex
d. All of the above
703. Complications of preterm baby include all except:
a. Infections b. Aspiration pneumonia
c. Seizure d. Respiratory distress syndrome
704. The characteristics of caput succedaneum are

a. Soft, pits on pressure b. Hard, no pitting
c. No pitting but soft and elastic edema d. Hard and pits on pressure
705. Which of the following is not a complication of meconium aspiration?
a. Hyper bilirubinaenma b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Pneumothorax d. Difficulty in breathing
706. Pressure edema on scalp occurring during birth is
a. Cephalohaematoma b. Caput succedaneum
c. Moulding d. None of the above
707. Failure of efficient pulmonary respiration at birth is called as:
a. Asphyxia neonatorum b. Meconium aspiration
c Caput suuedaneuin d. Respiratory distress syndrome
708. Average birth weight of baby in India is approximately
a. 2.5 kg b. 2.8 kg c 3kg d. 3.2kg
709. Low birth weight baby is by definition:
a. Less than 10th percentile of expected weight
b. Less than 15th percentile of expected weight
c. Less than 5th percentile of expected weight
d. Less than 20th percentile of expected weight
710. Small for date baby has weight below the- percentile for gestational age
a. 1st b. 5th c. 10th d. 20th
711. Neonatal period extends up to- days of life (b)
712. Gestational age of preterm baby is:
a. Less than 28 weeks b. Less than 30 weeks
c. Less than 35 weeks d. Less than 37 weeks
714

713. Perinatal period of growth include:
a. Period from conception to birth
b. Period from 28 weeks of gestation to 1 month after birth
c. Period from 28 weeks of gestation to birth
d. Period form 28 weeks of gestation to 7 days after birth
714. The best resuscitation methods for a child with Apgar score 4 are
a. lV fluid b. Gentle massage
c. Mouth to mouth respiration d. Endotracheal intubation
715. Which of the following first needed to perform in neonatal resuscitation?
a. Wipe with wet towel b. Place the baby on back
c. Suction nose then mouth d. All of the above
716. A child born by LSCS, stained with meconium, had apnoea, diminished breath
sound, what to be done at first?
a. Bath b. Aspiration and throat clearing
c. Steroid injection d. Breastfeeding
717. What is primary aim of neonatal resuscitation?
a. To maintain breathing b. To retain color
c. To induce spontaneous cry d. To restore heart rate
718. Bag and mask ventilation in newborn resuscitation is contraindicated in:
a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Pulmonary hypoplasia
c. Tracheo-oesophageal fistula d. Laryngomalacia
719. During intubation of a child, what type of endotracheal tube and blade of
laryngoscope is used?
a. Straight blade with cuffed tube b. Straight blade with uncuffed tube
c. Curved blade with cuffed tube d. Curved blade with uncuffed tube
720. What is the normal level of insertion of the endotracheal tube?
a. 5 cm above xiphisternum b. 4 cm above carina
c. 1 cm above carina d. At carina
721. Single umbilical artery is associated with
a. Polyhydramnios b. Advanced maternal age
c. Fetal growth retardation d. Increased incidence of fetal malformation
722. Which of the following is not a component of Apgar scoring in newborn?
a. Heartrate b. Muscle tone
c. Respiration effort d. Body temperature
723. All are parameters of Apgar score except:
a. BP b. Pulse rate
c. Activity d. Cyanosis
724. A newborn has HR.<80/min, week respiratory effort, no response to nasal catheter
has central cyanosis, Apgar score is:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
725. In term neonate, sitting height is
a. 55 % of total length b. 60% of total length
c. 65 % of total length d. 70% of total length
715

726. A full-term baby, exclusively breastfeed, at the end of 1 week was passing golden
yellow stool and found to have adequate hydration with normal systematic examination.
The weight of the body was just same it was at birth, the pediatrician should now
advice:
a. Give oral solution with breastfeeding
b. Start feeding
c. Investigate for lactic acidosis
d. Reassure the mother that nothing is abnormal
727. Pulse rate of a neonate varies between:
a. I20-140/min b. 140-160/mm
c. I60-180/min d. 70-90/min
728. 99% of neonate void within:
a. 24 hrs b. 48 hrs c. 8hrs d. 32 hrs
729. Absence of Moro's reflex at birth indicates
a. Limb paralysis b. Premature baby of 32 week old
c. Cerebral damage d. IUGT
730. Tonic neck reflex disappears at___ weeks
a. 18 b. 24 c. 32 d. 36
731. Persistent Moro's reflex at 12 week indicates:

a. Normal child b. Brain damage
c. Irritable child d. Hungry child
732. Moro's reflex disappears by
a. 6wk b. 9wk c l2wk d. I6wk
733. Umbilical cord usually falls after:
a. 5 to 10 days b. Ito5days
c. 15 to 20 days d. None of the above
734. Transplacental crossing is not seen in:
a. Isoimmune hemolytic anemia b. Rh-hemolytic anemia
c. Toxoplasmosis d. Toxic erythema
735. Antibodies of the following conditions may be transmitted from mother to fetus
except:
a. Rh-incompatibility b. Isoimmune thrombocytopenia
c. Toxic erythema d. Myasthenia gravis
736. Mongolian spot over buttocks and back are seen in case of:
a. Mongols b. Peurpura
c. Scabies d. Normal new born
737. Breast engorgement in neonates is:
a. Due to fat b. Due to mastitis
c. Require antibiotic and OCP d. Normal
738. Epstein pearls are seen in:
a. Abdomen b. Behind ears
c. Eye d. Palate
739. Epstein pearls (epithelial pearls) are seen in palate in:
a. Congenital syphilis b. Normal infant
c. Mature child d. Pemphigus
716

740. The appropriate approach to a neonate presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4
of life is
a. Administration of vit K
b. Investigation for bleeding disorder
c. No specific therapy
d. Administration of 10 mi/kg of fresh frozen plasma over 4 hours
741. Which of the following is incorrect about cephalohematoma?
a. Does not cross suture b. Fluctuation is seen
c. Present during birth d. Presents few hours after birth
742. What is the common treatment of cephalohematoma
a. Steroids b. Incision and drainage
c. Needle aspiration d. None of the above
743. What is the amino acid of breast milk helps to promote neurological development in
infants?
a. Tyrosine b. Taurine
c. Leucine d. All of the above
744. Which of the following immunoglobulin is maximum in breast milk?
a. IgA b. IgG
c. IgE d. Ig D
745. Breastfeeding is good for mother because it:
a. Develops an obese child
b. Decreases the chances of carcinoma breast
c. Decreases chances of endometrial carcinoma
d. Increases maternal nutritional status
746. The most important factor for milk secretion is:
a. Suckling b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin d. Size of baby
747. Milk ejections is caused by:
a. Oxytocin b. ADH
c Bromocriptine d. Prolactin
748. Oxytocin causes all except:
a. Lactogenesis b. Milk ejection
c. Contraction of uterine muscle d. Myoepithelial contraction
749. A mother is preparing to breastfeed her infant, it would be of value to her, if she
were acquainted with:
a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex
c. Clasp reflex d Cough reflex
750. Human colostrum contains more of the following than mature human milk except:
a. Lactose b. Minerals c. Proteins d. Vit.A
751. During breastfeeding, hind milk portion is richer in
a. Fat b. Lactose c. Vitamin d. Protein
752. Which of the following signs indicates good attachment during breastfeed rig?
a. Baby's mouth is wide-open b. Baby's cheeks are hollow
c. Baby's chin touches the breast d. Baby's lips curled inward
717

753. How long the breast milk can be stored in freezer?
a. 6 to 8 hours b. 24 hours
c. 1 week d. 1 month
754. Which is not true of breast milk?
a. Poor maternal diet is not the main cause of inadequacy of breast milk
b. Breast milk takes more time to come in if prelacteal feeds are given to the
baby
c. Expressed breast milk cannot be stored at room temperature for more than 2
hours
d. For an LBW baby, ideal milk is mother's own milk
755. Breast milk at room temperature stored for:
756. Which of the following processes leads to heat loss form?
a. Conduction b. Convection
c. Radiation d. All of the above
757. Incubators for neonates transfer energy by:
a. Radiation b. Convection
c. Conduction d. All of the above
758. All are seen during hypothermia in early neonates except
a. Bradycardia b. Sclerema
c. Excess shivering d. Metabolic acidosis
759. Hypothermia in neonates is characterized by:
a. Hyperactivity b. Hypoglycemia
C. Apnea d. increased urinary out
760. Small for dates in comparison to premature birth has
a. LBW b. More congenital anomalies
c. More chance of mental retardation d. Less survival chance
761. Low birth weight babies are at higher risk of dying in 1st week of life is due to:
a. Congenital anomalies, birth injury, infection
b. Birth injury, convulsion, and asphyxia
c. Convulsion, congenital anomalies and hypothermia
d. Hypothermia asphyxia, infection
762. All are commonly observed in post mature infant except
a. Long nails b. Increased alertness
c. Abundance of lanugos d. Abundance of scalp hair
763. Which of the following are not the characteristics of premature infant?
a. Hypotonic muscles b. Thin extremities
c. Minimal subcutaneous fat d. Breast engorgement
764. ______ is one where the labour starts before 37th completed week (259 days),
counting from the first day of last menstrual period is called:
a. Premature labour b. Full-term labour
c. Incomplete labour d. All of the above
765. The incidence rate for premature labour ranges between:
a. 2-5 % b. 5- 10 % c. 10-20% d. 15-20 %
718

766. The causes which increases incidence of preterm labor are:
a. Previous history of abortion or preterm delivery
b. Smoking habits
c. Low socioeconomic and nutritional status
d. All of the above
767. Maternal complication that leads to preterm labour are:
a. APH b. Cervical incompetence
c. Polyhydramnios d. All of the above
768. In preterm labour the survival rate of the baby weight 2000 to 2500 gram is
a. 70-80% b. 80-90% c. 90-100% d. 100%
769. The medical condition that leads to preterm labour are-:
a.. Acute fever b. Pylonephritis
c. Acute appendicitis d. All of the above
770. The fetal condition that leads to preterm labour except
a. Multiple pregnancy b. Breech presentation
c. Congenital malformation d. IUGR
771. Presence of fibronectin in the cervicovaginal discharge during 24-34 weeks of
gestation is sign of
a. Fetal distress b. Blood coagulopathy disorder
c. Abruptioplacenta d. Preterm labour
772. What type of drug administered to prevent preterm labour?
a. Antihypertensive drugs b. Antiepileptic drugs
c. Tocolytic drugs d. None of the above
773. What is the therapy given to the mother during preterm labour for fetal lung
maturation?
a. Glucocorticoid therapy b. Photo therapy
c. Physiotherapy d. None of the above
774. In preterm baby the cord is clamped immediately after birth to prevent:
a. Hypervolaemia b. Hypovolaemia
c. ABO incompatibility d. All of the above
775. When the membrane ruptured before the delivery for more than 24 hours, it is called
as:
a. Preterm rupture of the membrane b. Early rupture of the membrane
c. Prolonged rupture of the membrane d. Prelabour rupture of the membrane
776. The condition where periodic watery discharge occurs before the delivery is called
as: (d)
a. Hyperemesis gravidarum b. Polyhydramnios
c. Oligohydramnios d. Hydrorrhoea gravidarum
777. Infection of the liquoramni is known as
a. Amnionitis b. Chorionitis
c. Chorioamnionitis d. All of the above
778. Post-term pregnancy is called when:
a. Pregnancy continue beyond 2 Weeks of EDD (more than 294 days)
b. Pregnancy continued beyond 3 weeks of EDD (more than 301 days)
c. Pregnancy continued beyond 4 weeks of EDD (more than 298 days)
d. All of the above
719

779. The uterus feels "Full of foetus" is a condition found ln case of
a. Prematurity b. Preterm labour
c. Postmaturity d. None of the above
780. The death of fetus beyond 28 weeks and before delivery is called as:
a. Abortion b. Intrauterine death
c. Stillbirth d. All of the above
781. How are small-for-gestational-age newborn defined?
a. Below 2000 g
b. Below 2500 g
c. Below the 10th percentile for gestational age
d. Below the 20th percentile for gestational age
782. At 34 weeks, the fetus will gain how many grams per day?
a. 5 to10 b. 15 to 20 c. 30 to 35 d. 45 to50
783. Symmetrical IUGR seen in:
a. Chromosomal anomalies b. Malnutrition
c. Chronic placental insufficiency d. All of the above
784. Full term small for dates babies are at high-risk of:
a. Hypoglycemia b. Intraventricular hemorrhage
c Bronchopulmonary dysplasia d. Hyperthermia
785. All are complications of small for gestational age except:
a. Meconium aspiration b. Polycythemia
c Hypoglycemia d. Intraventricular hemorrhage
786.The Guideline under the CSSM Programme recommend that LBW baby with good
sucking and without any signs of illness can managed at home with special care
even if birth weight is as low as:
a. 1500gm b. 1800gm c. 2000 gm d. 2200 gm
787. How is symmetrical growth restriction characterized?
a. Reduction in head size b. Reduction in body size
c. Reduction in both head and body size d. Reduction in body and femur length
788. Usually full term small fordates babies are predisposed to:
a. Hypoglycemia b. CNS infection
c. Hypercalcernia d. FDA
789. Which of the following test is more sensitive to fetal acidosis?

a. NST b. BPP
c QCT d. Doppler velocimetry of umbilical artery
790. What is the most important reason for hypoglycaemia of a SGA fetus?
a. Increased fetal consumption
b. Decreased endogenous glucose production
c. Hyperinsulinemia
d. Reduced supply
791. What is the chromosomal defect in a newborn with horse shoe kidneys, prominent
occiput, imperforated anus, VSD?
a. Trisomy 13 b. Turner
c. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 21
720

792. The latent phase indicates abnormal if it exceeds
a. 18 hours in primi and 18 hours in multi
b. 20 hours in primi and 14 hours in multi
c. 18 hours in primi and 16 hours in multi
d. 20 hours in primi and 16 hours in multi
793. The cause for prolonged latent phase is
a. Unripe cervix and CPD
b. Mal position mal presentation
c. Premature administration of excessive sedation
d. All of the above
794. The cause of prolonged labour during first stage is
a. Failure to dilate the cervix
b. Non descent of the presenting part
c. Fault in the power passage and passenger
d. All of the above
795. Which of the following are needs to determine the fetal station and position as well
as pelvic shape and size?
a. X-ray b. Sonography
c. Intranatal radiography d. All of the above
796. The normal cervical dilation rate is
a. Less than 0.5 cm/hr in nulli para and less than 1 cm/hr in multipara
b. Less than 1 cm/hr in nulli para and less than 1.5 cm/hr in multipara
c. <1 cm/hr in nulli para and less than 1cm/hr in multipara
797. The second stage is considered prolonged if it lasts for more than
a. 1 hour in primi and 30 minutes in multi
b. 1.5 hours in primi and 1 hour in multi
c. 2 hours in primi and 1 hour in multi
798. Failure of the head descent within an hour is called
a. Obstructed emergency b. Failure of cervix to dilatation
c. Arrest d. All of the above
799. Sluggish or non descent of the presenting part even after full dilatation of the cervix
is classified under
a. First stage of obstructed labour b. Second stage of obstructed labour
800. The enlargement of fetal abdomen sufficient to produce dystocia may be due to
a. Ascites
b. Distended bladder
c. Enlargement of kidney by a tumor or an unmbilical hernia
d. All of the above

721

801. Shoulder dystocia should be managed by

a. Craniotomy b. Cledotomy
c. Zavanelli manoeuvre d. All of the above
802. Fetal macrosomia indicates
a. Enlargement of fetal abdomen b. Enlargement of fetal skull
c. Generalized fetal enlargement d. All of the above
803. The (DON’TS) kept to be mind during delivery of shoulder dystocia is
a. Panicky b. Traction
c. Application of fundal pressure d. All of the above
804. The fetal head is flexed and is replaced within the uterus and baby delivered by
emergency C/S is known as (a)
a. Zavanelli manoeuvre b. Cleidotomy
c. Mr Robert’s manoeuvre d. None of the above
805. In case of hydrocephalus the FHS is obtained antenatally at
a. Above the umbilicus b. Before the umbilicus
c. At the point of umbilicus d. Lateral side of the continuous fetal back
806. Which of the following procedure carried out in case of established obstruction due
to outlet contraction with vertex presentation during good FHS?
a. Caesarean b. Symphysiotomy
807. The disparity in the relation between the head and the pelvis is called
a. cephalopelvic disproportion b. Obstructed labour
808. Which of the following method is followed for the removal of conceptual during 2nd
trimester?
a. Dilatation b. Evacuation
c. Dilatation and evacuation d. None of the above
809. What are the indications of vacuum aspiration?
a. MTP b. Inevitable abortion
c. Hydiatidiform mole d. All of the above
810. Which of the following is the most common complication of vacuum aspiration?
a. Uterine perforation b. Nausea
c. Bleeding d. Infection
811. Which is an operative procedure of extracting the products of conception out of the
womb before 28th week by cutting through the anterior wall of the uterus?
a. Episiotomy b. Hysterotomy
c. Vaccum aspiration d. Menstrual regulation
812. Which of the following is the indication of hysterotomy?
a. MTP b. Fetal interest
c. Big baby d. Breech
722

813. What are the complications of hysterotomy?
a. Bleeding b. Peritonitis
c. Scar endometriosis d. All of the above
814. A surgically planned incision on the perineum and the posterior vaginal wall during
the second stage of labour is called
a. Hysterotomy b. Episiotomy
c. Dilatation d. None of the above
815. What are the indications of episiotomy?
a. Perineal tear b. In-elastic perineum
c. Fetal interest d. All of the above
816. Which of the following types of episiotomy is usually practiced?
a. Lateral b. Median
c. J-shaped d. All of the above
817. The incision common from the centre of the fourchet and extends posteriarly along
the mid line for
a. 3.5 cm b. 2.5 cm
c. 1.5 cm d. 4.5cm
818. Which of the following type of epislotomy has many drawbacks including chance of
injury to the Bartholin’s duct? (b)
a. Median episiotomy b. Lateral episiotomy
c. J-shapped episiotomy d. Mediolateral episiotomy
819. Bulging thinned perineum during uterine contraction prior to crowning of the foetal
head is the ideal time for
a. To give enema b. Episiotomy
c. Receiving the baby d. None of the above
820. What are the complications of episiotomy?
a. Vulval haematoma b. Infection
b. Dyspareunia d. All of the above
821. Which of the following instrument specially designed to assist extraction of the
foetal head and thereby accomplishment delivery of the fetus?
a. Obstetrical forceps b. Pelvimetry
c. Ventouse cup d. None of the above
822. What are the varieties of obstetrical forceps?
a. Long curved forceps b. Short curved forceps
c. Outlet forceps d. All of the above
823. What are the indications of forceps delivery?
a. Pre-eclampsia b. Heart disease
c. cord prolapsed d. All of the above
824. Which of the following device designed to assist delivery by creating a vacuum
between it and the fetal scalp?
a. Ventouse b. Forceps
c. Suction apparatus d. All of the above
825. Which of the following manipulative procedure carried out to change the lie of the
fetus in case of transverse lie?
a. Palpation b. Bimanual palpation
c. version d. None of the above
723

826. The operation consists of reduction in the back of the shoulder girdle by division of
one or both the clavicles known as
a. Cleidotomy b. Evisceration
c. Decapitation d. MTP
827. Which of the following operation carried out to make a perforation on the fetal head
to evacuate the contents followed by extraction of the foetus?
a. Evisceration b. Decapitation
c. Craniotomv d. All of the above
828. Which of the following conditions where craniotomy is indicated?
a. Hydrocephalus b. Interlocking head of twins
c. Obstructed labour with dead foetus d. All of the above
829. Which of the following is contraindication for craniotomy?
a. Peritonitis b. Rupture of the uterus
c. Hydramnio d. All of the above
830. The sites of perforation during craniotomy are
a. On the parietal bone either side of the sagittal suture
b. Through the orbit or hard palate
c. Through the frontal bone
d. All of the above
831. A self retaining (Foley’s) catheter is put inside specially following craniotomy for a
period of
832. What are the complications of destructive operations ?
a. Injury b. Shock
c. Puerperal sepsis d. All of the above
833. _________ is an operative procedure whereby the fetuses after the end of 28th
week are delivered through an incision on the abdominal and uterine walls ?
a. Caesarean section b. Episiotomy
c. Hysterotomy d. None of the above
834. The operation derives its name from the notification of
a. Evisceration b. Lexcesarea
c. Cleidotomy d. All of the above
835. What are the indications of caesarean section?
a.Fetal distress b. Central placenta praevia
c. Obstructed labour d. All of the above
836. Contraindications of caesarean section are
a. Dead fetus b. Premature to survive ex-utero
c. Presence of blood coagulation d. All of the above
837. What are the complications of caesarean sections ?
a. PPH b. Shock
c. Thrombosis d. All of the above
838. The placenta is formed by the fusion of the chorionic villi and the
a. Deciduous vera b. Chorion leave
c. Deciduous basalis d. Chorion frondosum
724

839. Which are of the following movements come first of all in mechanism of normal
labour? (b)
a. Extension b. Flexion
c. Restitution d. External rotation
840. The technique used to detect Bacteriuria in pregnancy is
a. Titration b. Seida smear
c. Dip slide d. None
841. The primary virus which causes mental retardation in baby is
a. Rubella b. Herpes simplex
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Cytomegalovirus
842. Tpallidum enters the fetal circulation by
843. Which of the following is the suggestive complication of isoimmunization
a. An abortion after 12 weeks b. ICT positive blood transfusion
c. An infant died due to infection d. An infant who died of neonatal
jaundice
844. The main objective of nursing care in asphyxia baby is
a. Initiate early breathing b. Administer oxygen
c. Gentle handling of the baby d. Maintain clear airway
845. The presenting diameter in a face presentation is
a. Occipitofrontal b. Submentobregmatic
c. Submentovertical d. Mentovertical
846. Up to what the AF production increase then slowly starts decreasing?
a. 38 weeks of gestation b. 40 weeks of gestation
c. 42 weeks of gestation d. None of the above
847. Cyanosis in preterm babies is due to
a. Jaundice b. Congenital heart disease
c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Intracranial injury
848. The usual position maintained in cord presentation is
a. Knee-chest b. Fowler’s c. Prone d. Lithotomy
849. Polyhydramnios is defined as being a quantity of amniotic fluid which exceeds (c)
a. 500 ml b. 800 ml c. 1500 ml d. 2500 ml
850. The outcome of trial labour depends on the
a. Effectiveness of uterine contraction
b. Bearing down effort of the mother
c. Degree of moulding of fetal head
d. All of the above
851. Which of the following is not a cause of contracted pelvis?
a. Accident during pregnancy b. Short stature
c. Rickets d. Tb spine/Hip
852. Premature separation of normally situated placenta occurring after the 28th week of
pregnancy is known as
a. Complete abortion b. Placenta praevia
c. Blood coagulation failure d. Placenta abruption
725

853. Placenta development takes place from the
a. Chorionic frondosum b. chorionic villi
c. Nutritive villi d. All of the above
854. Weight of the mature placenta is about
a. 500 gm b. 250 gm
c. 750 gm d. None of the above
855. Normal position of the uterus is
a. Anteverted anteflexed b. Retnovented anteflexed
c. Both d. None of the above
856. Total antenatal period is about
c. 380 days d. None of the above
857. The largest diameter of the foetal skull is (b)
a. Occipitobregmatic diameter b. Mentovertical diameter
c. Submentovertical d. None of the above
858. Rh-ve incompatibility takes place in case of
a. Mother +ve and father –ve group
b. Father +ve and mother –ve group
c. Both mother and father –ve group
d. Mother and father +ve group
859. Anterior fontanelle is the shape of a
a. Triangle b. Diamond
c. Rectangle d. None of the above
860. Bregma closed by the month of (b)
a. 12 b. 18
c. 16 d. None of the above
861. Antenatal mother takes immunizations are
a. 2 dose of TT b. 1 dose of TF
c. C both is correct d. None of the above
862. Normally the mother feels quickening about
c. C both d. None of the above
863. Montogomery tubercule found in the
a. Breast b. Vagina
c. Cervix d. None of the above
864. Blue discoloration of the vagina is called as
a. Jacquemieer’s sign b. Palmar’s sign
c. C Heger’s Sign d. None of the above
865. Pulsation of the uterus is called
a. Uterine pulse b. Uterine soufflé
c. C both d. None of the above
866. A normal pelvis is called as
a. Gynacoid pelvis b. Anthropoid pelvis
c. Android pelvis d. None of the above
726

867. Spermatogenesis is the
a. Maturation of the sperm b. Maturation of the ovum
c. C both d. Production of the sperm
868. Spermatogenesis takes place in
a. Seminiferous tubule b. Scroturm
c. C Testes d. All of the above
869. Ovulation is the process of
a. Liberation of the sperm b. Liberation of the ovum
c. C Both d. None of the above
870. Fertilized ovum is called as
a. Zygote b. Morula
c. Blastula b. All of the above
871. Full fluid cavity is called as
a. Blastocele b. Blastocyst
c. Blastomene d. All of the above
872. Zygote is having
a. Single cell and single nucleus
b. Single cell and double nucleus
c. Double cell and single nucleus
d. All of the above
873. After the delivery the time period is called as
a. Antenatal b. Postnatal c. Intranatal d. None
874. Hormones responsible for spermatogenesis
a. FSH and testosterone b. Progesterone and FSH
c. LH and FSH d. None of the above
875. The normal motility speed of a sperm is
a. 2 to 3 mm/min b. 3 to 4 mm/min
c. 1 to 2 mm/min d. All of the above
876. The sperm contains an enzyme is known as
a. Hyaluronidase b. Lactin c. None of the above
877. Desidua is the name given to
a. Perimetrium b. MYometrium c. Endometrium d. All of the above
878. The cord inserted into the membranes some distance from edge of the placenta is
called as
a. Velamentous insertion b. Battledore
c. Vasapraevia d. All of the above
879. Amniotic fluid measures about
a. 50 ml at 12 weeks b. 400 ml at 20 weeks
c. 800 to 1000 ml at 36 to 38 weeks d. All of the above
880. Placental sites are
a. Maternal and foetal site b. Only maternal site
c. Only foetal site d. All of the above
881. The normal diameter for engagement is
a. Suboccipitobregmatic diameter b. Occipitobregmatic diameter
c. Mentodiameter d. All of the above
727

882. In fully-flexed cephalic presentation we feel
a. Occipit of the fetus b. Sinciput of the fetus
c. Both d. None
883. Antenatal period is considered as
a. During pregnancy b. After the delivery
c. During the birth d. All of the above
884. Amenorrhoea during pregnancy occurs
a. Only up to 1st trimester b. Only up to 2nd trimester
rd
c. Only during the 3 trimester d. Throughout the pregnancy
885. Uterine souffle is the
a. Pulse of the uterus b. Pulse of the foetus
c. Pulse of the ovary d. All of the above
886. Implantation takes place usually in
a. Upper part of the uterus b. Lower part of the uterus
c. In the fundus d. In the cervix
887. Colostrums is the milk
a. 1st few days after the delivery b. Throughout the lactation period
c. Both d. None of the above
888. The vulva includes
a. Mons veneris, labia majora, labia minora
b. Clitoris, versatile, vagina
c. Mons veneris perineum
d. All of the above
889. Fallopian tube is otherwise known as
a. Body or corpus b. Isthmus
c. Uterine tube oviduct d. None of the above
890. The pelvic floor muscles are collectively known as
a. Levator ani b. Lesser lips
c. Hratus rectalis d. Pelvic fascin
891. The urinary bladder can hold urine capacity of
a. 350 ml b. 550 ml
c. 410 ml d. 450 ml
892. The dark circular pigment of the breast is called as
a. Areola b. Nipple
c. Lobulme d. Ampulla
893. The process involved in the development of mature of ovum is called
a. Gametogenesis b. Oogenesis
c. Spermatogenesis d. All of the above
894. Ovulation occurs soon after the formation of the
a. Primary oocyte b. Secondary oocyte
c. Tertiary oocyte d. None of the above
895. The ovum is surrounded by a cell called
a. Vitalline b. Peritoneum
c. Zona pellucid d. Perivitelline membrane
728

896. Duration of spermatogonium to develop to mature spermatozoon is about
897. Mensturation is related with
a. Fertilization b. Ovulation
b. Spermatogenesis d. All of the above
898. Fertilization occurs in the (b)
a. Fallopian tube b. Ampula of the fallopian tube
` c. Tubal fimbriae d. None
899. Life span of oocyte ranges from
a. 12 to 22 hours b. 12 to 23 hours
c. 12 to 24 hours d. 12 to 28 hours
900. Sex of the child is determined by the pattern of the sex chromosome supplied by
a. Oocyte b. Spermatozoon
c. Morula d. Blactocyst
901. Lysis of zona and escape of embryo is called
a. Blastocyst b. Zona hatching
c. C Morula d. All of the above
902. Implantation occurs in the
a. Mesometrium b. Ectoderm
c. Endometrium d. None of the above
903. The deeper penetration of human blactocyst is called
a. Interstitial implantation b. Interstitial extrasilles
c. C syscytion trophoblast d. None of the above
904. The deciduas of the pregnant uterus is
a. Modified layer of perimetrium
b. Modified layer of myometrium
c. Modified layer of endometrium
d. All of the above
905. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the fetal membranes?
a. Chorion b. Chorionic villi
c. C tertiary villi d. Amriion
906. Vascularised villai otherwise known as
a. Primary villi b. secondary villi
c. C Teritiary villi d. None
907. The care is given to a woman from the time that conception is confirmed until the
beginning of labour is
a. Antenatal care b. Postnatal care
c. Perinatal care d. All of the above
908. Expected date of delivery is calculated by
a. Last menstrual period + 10 calendar months + 6 days
b. Last menstrual period + 9 calendar months + 7 days
c. Last menstrual period + 9 calendar months + 8 days
d. Last menstrual period + 9 calendar months + 9 days
729

909. Based on Naegele’s Rule the duration of pregnancy is suggested as
c. 265 days d. None
910. To reduce the risk of spina bifida what should be taken before conception and for
the first 12 weeks of pregnancy?
a. Protein supplements b. Vitamin supplements
c. Folic acid d. All of the above
911. The normal dark line of pigmentation running longitudinally in the centre of the
abdomen below and sometimes above the umbilicus is called as
a. Pendulous abdomen b. Iscar
c. Abdominal striae d. Linea nigra
912. Lax abdominal muscles in the multiparous woman may allow the uterus to sag
forwards this is known as
a. Pendulous abdomen b. Abdominal striae
c. Linea nigra d. None
913. Height of the fundus is measured from
a. Xiphisternum to umbilicus b. Fundus to umbilicus
c. Funds to symphysis pubis d. All of the above
914. The instrument used to monitor fetal heart rate is called as
a. Fetoscope b. Protoscope
c. Stethoscope d. None
915. In a primigravida woman the head normally engages at any time from about (
a. 32 weeks of the pregnancy
b. 36 weeks of pregnancy
c. 34 weeks of pregnancy
d. 28 weeks of pregnancy
916. Funds reaches the umbilicus at
a. 24 weeks of pregnancy
b. 28 weeks of pregnancy
c. 32 weeks of pregnancy
d. 36 weeks of pregnancy
917. The additional calorie requirement during pregnancy is
a. +500 b. +500 c. +600 d. None
918. Cyanosis in pre-term babies is due to
a. Jaundice b. congenital heart diseases
c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Introcrariial injury
919. What type of anesthesia is most commonly employed for nonobstetrical surgeries
during pregnancy?
a. Epidural b. Local infiltration
c. General d. Regional nerve blocks
920. Which of the following neonatal outcomes is significantly increased by
nonobstetrical surgery ?
a. Birth weight < 1500 gm b. Cerebral palsy
c. Congenital malformations d. Stillbirths
730

921. Generally what is the optimal approach to medical and surgical care of the
pregnant woman?
a. Doing what is the best for fetal well-being should dictate care
b. Conditions are treated without regard to a woman’s pregnant status
c. The medical needs of the mother and fetus should be weighed equally
d. Care needed by the woman should not be compromised because she is
pregnant
922. At what time are most nonobstetrical surgical procedures performed when required
during pregnancy?
a. First trimester b. second trimester
c. Third trimester d. Postpartum
923. Which surgical procedures is most commonly performed in the first trimester?
a. Appendicetomy b. Laparoscopy
c. Ovarian cystectomy d. Tonsillectomy
924. What appears to be the upper limit of gestational age for performing successful
laparoscopic procedures?
925. What is the effect of laparoscopy on the human fetus?
a. Increased congenital anomalies
b. Increased spontaneous abortions
c. Fetal growth restriction
d. Currently unknown
926. Compared to X-rays which of the following characterizes ultrasound?
a. Short wavelength low energy b. Long wavelength high energy
c. Long wavelength low energy d. Short wavelength high energy
927. During what period of animal development is ionizing radiation most likely to cause
a lethal effect?
a. Preimplantation b. First trimester
c. Second trimester d. Third trimester
928. During what period of gestation does high-dose lionizing radiation exposure pose
the most serious risk of mental retardation?
c. 20 to 26 weeks d. 28 to the term
929. What is the risk of congenital malformations growth retardation or abortion from
exposure to less than 5 rads of ionizing radiation at 8 to 15 weeks of gestation?
a. 1 to 2% b. 5%
c. 8% d. Not increased
930. Computed tomography is useful during pregnancy for evaluation of which of the
following conditions?
a. Abdominal trauma b. Breech presentation in labour
c. Eclampsia d. All of the above
931. What are the potential tissue effects of ultrasonography at outputs of greater than
those used clinically?
a. Agitation b. Cavitation c. Regurgitation d. Vaporization
731

932. Advantages of magnetic resonance imaging include all except which of the
following?
a. Ability to characterize tissue b. Acquisition of images in any plane
c. High soft-tissue contrast d. Temporality immobilizes the fetus
933. The protons of which element are used for magnetic resonance imaging?
a. Carbon b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen d. Nitrogen
934. Harmful fetal effects of magnetic resonance imaging include which of the
following?
a. Fetal heart rate pattern changes
b. Increased spontaneous abortion risk
c. Malformations
d. No adverse effects have been demonstrated
935. For which of the following suspected maternal conditions would magnetic
resonance imaging be preferable to computed tomography?
a. Bladder flap hematoma after cesarean delivery
b. Brain tumor
c. Venous thrombosis of pelvic vessels
d. All of the above
936. What is the most common fetal indication for magnetic resonance imaging?
a. Suspected brain abnormalities b. Malpresentation
c. Oligohydraminos d. Genetic screening
937. Which of the following is the pathophysiology of type of 2 diabetes?
a. Absence of the islet cells b. Destruction of the islet cells
c. Insulin resistance in target tissues d. Develops ketoacidosis if untreated
938. What is the likely etiology of insulin resistance in childhood?
a. Maternal hyperglycemia b. Fetal hypoinsulinemia
c. decreased fetal fat cells d. Maternal detonuria
939. Which of the following is the most common medical complication in pregnancy?
a. Hypertension b. Diabetes
c. Deep venous thrombosis d. Asthma
940. How is overt diabetes diagnosed during pregnancy?
a. Random plasma glucose >200 mg/ dl
b. Polydipsia polyuria unexplained weight loss with glucose>200 mg/dl
c. Fasting glucose > 125 mg/dl
d. All of the above
941. What is the most common etiology of glycosuria in pregnancy?
a. False positive from lactose
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Augmented glomerular filtration of glucose
d. Insuline resistance
942. Which of the following is not a risk factor for gestational diabetes?
a. Age < 25 b. Prior macrosomic infant
c. Prior stillborn infant d. Sister with diabetes
732

943. Screening for diabetes is recommended for all except (d)
a. Age > 30 b. Obesity
c. Hispanic ethnicity d. Prior post-term pregnancy
944. How is gestational diabetes diagnosed? (d)
a. 1 hr value after a SO-g glucose load exceeds 140 mg/ dl
b. Elevated fasting value after a 100-g glucose load
c. Elevated 1-hr value after a 100-g glucose load
d. Two abnormal values after a 100-g glucose load
945. What lower limit for the 50-g glucose screen would improve its sensitivity to >90%
for detection of gestational diabetes?
a. 130 mg/dl b. 135 mg/dl
c. 14 mg/dl d. 145 mg/dl
946. In diabetes which fetal organ is unaffected by fetal macrosomia?
a. Heart b. Kidney
c. Liver d. Brain
947. Which of the following factors is increased in large for gestational age infants?
a. Insulin like growth factor I and II b. Leptin
c. Peptide insulin d. All of the above
948. What is the daily caloric recommendation for a nonobese woman with gestational
diabetes?
a. 20 kcal/kg b. 30 kcal/kg
c. 40 kcal/kg d. 50 kcal/kg
949. What are the benefits of postprandial glucose surveillance?
a. better glucose control b. Less neonatal hypoglycemia
c. Less macrosomia d. All of the above
950. What is the prevalence of preeclampsia or eclampsia in type I diabetic pregnancies
as compared with normal pregnancies?
a. Not increased b. Increased twofold
c. Increased threefold d. Increased fourfold
951. With overt diabetes what fetal malformation is the most strongly associated with
diabetes?
a. Congenital heart defects b. Neural-tube defects
c. Caudal regression d. Renal agenesis
952. In general what is true of unexplained fetal demise in overt diabetics?
a. Usually occurs before 30 weeks gestation
b. Fetus usually small for gestational age
c. Oligohydramnios is usually present
d. Suspected due to chronic metabolic aberrations
953. For which diabetic complication may pregnancy have a detrimental effect?
a. Proliferate retinopathy b. Nephropathy
b. Hypertension d. Neuropathy
954. Which of the following is true concerning priconceptional glycemic control in overtly
diabetic women?
a. May reduce congenital anomalies b. May reduce spontaneous abortions
c. Does not reduce the congenital anomaly rate to that of those who do not have
diabetes d. All of the above
733

955. What is the most attractive method of contraception for overtly diabetic patients
who do not desire future pregnancy?
a. Abstinence b. Oral contraceptives
c. Intrauterine device d. Puerperal sterilization
956. Which of the following is true regarding the evaluation of neurological symptoms
during pregnancy?
a. Postpone until puerperium
b. Avoid magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. Avoid computed tomographic (CT) scanning
d. Comparable to that of a nonpregnant patient
957. The true statement for cranial CT scanning during pregnancy is
a. Safe during pregnancy
b. Should be replaced by MRI
c. Unsafe amount of radiation exposure to the fetus
d. Inferior to MRI for diagnosis of hemorrhagic lesions
958. Which of the following may be used safely during pregnancy?
a. MRI b. CT scanning
c. Cerebral angiography d. All of the above
959. Risk of stroke in migraine sufferes is increased by which of the following? (b)
a. Obesity b. Smoking
c. Erogotamine use d. None of the above
960. What is the usual course of migraine headaches during pregnancy?
a. Slight improvement b. Dramatic improvement
c. Slight worsening d. Dramatic worsening
961. Drugs should be used for the treatment of migraine headaches during pregnancy
are
a. Meperidine b. Propranolol
c. Ergonovine d. Amitriptyline
962. During pregnancy which of the following may be used for the successful treatment
of migraine headaches?
a. Atenolol b. Acupuncture
c. Sumatriptan d. All of the above
963. Which of the following is true of new onset migraine headaches during pregnancy?
a. Associated with an aura
b. Develop in the third trimester
c. Associated with fetal growth restriction
d. Should receive through evaluation postpartum
964. Seizure frequency during pregnancy in epileptic women most commonly follows
which pattern of change?
a. Decreases b. Does not change
c. Slightly increases d. Markedly increases
734

965. Your patient is brought to the emergency room awake and alert by members of her
family. They describe jerking muscle movements of her right arm and right leg.
She did not lose consciousness. This neuromuscular activity is best described
by which of the following seizure categories?
a. Absence b. Petit mal
c. Generalized d. Simple motor
966. Neonates born to epileptic mothers not taking medication are at increased for
a. Perinatal death b. Seizure disorder
c. Fetal growth restriction d. Congenital malformation
967. Epileptic pregnant women are at increased risk for which of the following?
a. Cesarean delivery b. Placental abruption
c. First-trimester abortion d. None of the above
968. Optimal initial management of epileptic drugs during pregnancy should include
a. Attempts with to newer anticonvulsants
b. Attempt switch to anticonvulsant monotherapy
c. Add anticonvulsants to ensure seizure control
d. Avoid medication changes if seizures are well controlled
969. Which of the following should be supplemented during pregnancy particularly if a
woman is taking anticonvulsants?
a. Zinc b. Cobalt
c. Folic acid d. Pyridoxine
970. Parenteral administration of which of the following vitamins may be needed for
newborns whose mothers take anticonvulsants?
a. A b. D c. E d. K
971. Which of the following is the most strongly associated with peripartum stroke? (a)
a. Hypertension b. Chorioanmionitis
c. Sickle-cell disease d. Placental abruption
972. Which of the following time periods has the higher risk of pregnancy associated
stroke?
a. Labour b. Puerperium
c. Third trimester d. Second trimester
973. Evaluation of a patient suspected of having suffered a stroke does not include
a. Echocardiography
b. Serum lipid profile
c. Serum antiphospholipid antibody screen
d. Peripheral venous Doppler ultrasonography
974. Patients who suffer ischemic stroke without a persistent cause during pregnancy
what is the magnitude of risk of recurrent stroke in future pregnancies ?
a. Low b. Proportionate with parity
c. Proportionate with maternal age d. proportionate with socioeconomic level
975. What is the most common source of cerebral emboli?
a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Mitral valve prolapsed
c. Infective endocarditis d. Peripheral deep venous thrombosis
735

976. Cerebral venous thrombosis is not associated with
a. Sepsis b. Preeclampsia
c. Thrombophilias d. Hemorrhage with shock
977. The true statement regarding arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) and pregnancy
a. Bleeding risk is increased by pregnancy
b. Bleeding risk is increased by advanced maternal age
c. Route of delivery is based on obstetrical indications
d. Pregnancy delivery or termination should promptly follow bleeding from an
AVM
978. Which of the following is true of multiple sclerosis demographics?
a. Symptoms begin in the third and fourth decades
b. Men are affected more commonly than women
c. Disproportionately affects those of African descent
d. No increased incidence in offspring of affected individuals
979. All of the following are common presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis except
a. Diplopia b. Hyperreflexia
c. Bladder dysfunction d. Simple motor seizure
980. Myasthenia gravis results from the lgG-medicated destruction which of the
following?
a. Actin filaments b. Myosin heavy chain
c. Calcium ATPase pumps d. Acetylcholine receptors
981. The following may be used in the successful treatment of myasthenia gravis except
a. Azathioprine B. Thymectomy
c. Mitoxantrone d. pyridostigmine
982. Which of the following is true regarding the incidence of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
a. Increase during pregnancy
b. Increase during puerperium
c. Majority of cases follows viral vaccination
d. Majority of cases follows surgical procedures
983. Which of the following is an indicator of poor prognosis for Bell palsy during
pregnancy?
a. Bilateral disease
b. Recurrence in subsequent pregnancy
c. Electromyographic evidence of denervation extends beyond 10 days
d. All of the above
984. Which of the following is not a complication of pregnancy in patients with spinal
cord injury?
a. Constipation b. Urinary tract infection
c. Low-birth weight neonate d. Hypotonic labour
985. Which of the following is not typically associated with autonomic hyperreflexia?
a. Headache b. Hypertension
c. Facial flushing d. Loss of consciousness
986. Which of the following is used to decrease the frequency of autonomic
hyperreflexia during labour?
a. Nifedipine b. Propranolol
c. General Anesthesia d. Epidural anesthesia
736

987. The most common potential long-term sequel of benign intracranial hypertension is
a. Seizure b. Loss of vision
c. Intracranial tumor d. Facial muscle paralysis
988. Management of pregnancy in women with benign intracranial hypertension
includes
a. Serial visual-field testing
b. Mandatory cesarean delivery
c. Avoidance of epidural anesthesia
d. prompt pregnancy termination or delivery
989. Chorea gravidarum is more commonly associated with which of the following
conditions?
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hydrocephalus
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Benign intracranial hypertension
990. During which of the following time periods do women most frequently suffer
depression?
a. First trimester b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester d. Puerperium
991. Treatment of postpartum blues primarily involves
a. Reassurance b. Psychological consultation
c. Serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. Child protective Service consultation
992. What percentage of women after delivery will develop postpartum blues?
a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70
993. All except which of the following are adverse neonatal outcomes attributable to
psychiatric diagnoses?
a. Infanticide b. Low-birth weight
c. Insecure maternal attachment d. Breast feeding related sertraline toxicity
994. What is currently considered the primary treatment for postpartum depression?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Electroconvulsant therapy
c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
995. Counseling your patient regarding electroconvulsive therapy and pregnancy should
include (c)
a. Should not be used in pregnancy b. Carries significant fetal risk
c. Carries a 10% complication risk d. Carries a 25% preterm labour risk
996. Hyperpigmentation of pregnancy is related to
a. Cortisol b. Aldosterone
c. Melanocyte stimulating hormone d. Unknown cause
997. what percentage of pregnant women demonstrates some skin darkening?
a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 90
998. Which of the following terms describe the nonpalpable brown to blue-gray patches
of skin containing spindle-shaped melanocytes often seen in pregnancy?
a. Pruritic papules of pregnancy b. Linea nigra
c. Acquired dermal melanocytes d. Cholasma
999. Severe or persistent cholasma can be treated postpartum with
a. Hydrocortisone b. oral contraceptive pills
c. Tretinoin ointment d. Ultraviolet light
737

1000. Cholestasis of pregnancy is caused by the dermal deposition
a. Bile acids b. Bile salts
c. Bilirubin d. Biliverdin

1001. Which of the following dermatological conditions is characterized by bite like

papules on the forearm and trunk?
a. Prurigo
b. Herpes gestatonis
c. Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy
d. Cholasma
1002. Which of the following is characteristic of prurigo of pregnancy?
a. Adversely affects perinatal outcome
b. Develops early in pregnancy
c. Involves the lower legs and feet
d. Treated with antihistamine and topical steroids
1003. Herpes gestationis is occasionally associated with which of the following?
a. Chorioangioma b. Trophoblastic disease
c. Preeclampsia d. Herpes zoster
1004. Herpes gestationis is typically showing which of the following behaviors in
subsequent pregnancies ?
a. Always recurs b. Milder course
c. Never recurs d. Presents later in gestation
1005. What is the pathophysiology of herpes gestationis?
a. Allergic b. Autoimmune
c. Infectious d. unknown
1006. Of the following which is the most strongly associated with Graves disease?
a. Pruritus gravidarum
b. Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy
c. Herpes gestationis
d. Impetigo herpetiformis
1007. Herpes gestationis usually responds to therapies?
a. Antihistamines b. High-dose oral steroids
c. Topical steroids d. Ultraviolet light therapy
1008. What is the hallmark lesion of impetigo herpetiformis?
a. Sterile pustules with margins of erythematous patches
b. Infected pustules surrounded by erythema
c. Erythematous dry lesions
d. Infected apocrine gland plugging
1009. Which of the following is accompanied by constitutional symptoms?
a. Hidradentis suppurativa b. Impetigo herpetifomis
c. Melanosis gravidarum d. Pruitus gravidarum
738

1010. Which of the following is thought to pose no teratogenic risk to the fetus? (d)
a. Isotretinoin b. Etretinate
c. Oral tretinoin d. Benzoyl peroxide
1011. The most common malignancy diagnosed in pregnancy is
a. Breast b. Cervix
c. Lymphoma d. melanoma
1012. The approximate incidence of cancer in pregnancy is
a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 1000 c. 1 in 10,000 d. 1 in 100,000
1013. The optimal timing of therapeutic surgeries for non-ovarian cancers in pregnancy
is
a. Second trimester b. Third trimester
c. Postpartum d. As indicated regardless of gestational age
1014. What are the characteristic adverse fetal effects of high dose radiation in
pregnancy?
a. Leukemia and cardiac defects
b. Radiation nephritis and anal atresia
c. Microcephaly and mental retardation
d. Fetal cardiac defects and hydrocephalus
1015. What is the earliest gestational age at which the ovaries may be removed safely
because placental progesterone production is adequate to maintain the pregnancy?
1016. Which of the following radiation-dose thresholds poses a negligible risk for major
fetal malformations?
a. <5cGy b. <10cGy c. <15cGy d. <20 cGy
1017. During what gestational period are antineoplastic drugs most harmful to the fetus?
(a)
c. Late third trimester d. Postpartum if breastfeeding
1018. Embryonic exposure to cytotoxic drugs causes major malformations in
percentage of cases?
a. 0 to 5 b. 10 to 20
c. 30 to 40 d. 50 to 60
1019. What is the major potential reproductive sequel subsequent to multi-drug therapy
for a Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. Ovarian fibrosis b. Incompetent cervix
c. Recurrent abortion d. Preterm delivery
1020. Low birth weight has been associated with in utero exposure to which
chemotherapeutic agent?
a. 5-fluorouracil b. Chiorambucil
c. Doxorubicin d. Methotrexate
1021. Which of the following are the risk factors for the diagnosis of breast cancer
during pregnancy?
a. BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes
b. Breast feeding after previous pregnancy
c. Chemotherapy in past for other maligncncy
d. Prior induced abortions
739

1022. Pregnant women with breast cancer are more likely to present with what stage
disease?
a. Stage 0 b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 3 and 4
1023. What is the false negative rate of mammography performed during pregnancy?
a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 35%
1024. Metastatic work up for breast cancer during pregnancy may include all of the
following except
a. Chest X-ray b. Radionuclide liver scan
c. CMRI d. Ultrasonography
1025. Which of the following is not a recommended therapy for breast cancer during
pregnancy?
a. Mastectomy with lymph node dissection
b. Adjuvant chemotherapy
c. Radiotherapy
d. Wide local excision
1026. What apparent effect do future pregnancy and lactation have on the course of
previously treated breast cancer?
a. Do not affect prognosis b. Improve long-term survival
c. Increase local recurrence rate d. Worsen long-term prognosis
1027. What is the recommended delay for future pregnancy following treatment of breast
cancer?
a. 6 months to 1 year b. 2 to 3 year
c. 5 to 6 year d. 7 to 8 year
1028. What is not a common presenting finding of Hodgkin disease in pregnancy?
a. Fever b. Peripheral adenopathy
c. Seizures d. Weight loss
1029. What is the incidence of lymphoma in a woman with human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV)?
a. Equal to that of the general population b. 1%
c. 5 to 10% d. 15 to 20
1030. What is the reported incidence of leukemia in pregnancy? (c)
a. 1 per 1000 b. 1 per 10,000
c. 1 per 100,000 d. 1 per 1000,000
1031. What percentage of pregnant women with acute leukemia will have a remission
with chemotherapy?
a. 10 b. 25 c. 40 d. 75
1032. Which is not increased in the presence of maternal leukemia?
a. Eclampsia b. Hemorrhage
c. Preterm delivery d. Stillbirth
1033. Which of the following is true of melanoma in pregnant women?
a. Disease diagnosis tends to occur at a later stage than in nonpregnant women
b. Future pregnancies increase future recurrence risk
c. stage for stage prognosis is worse than for nonpregnant women
d. Therapeutic abortion improves survival
740

1034. How long should pregnancy be avoided following treatment for melanoma?
a. 1 yr to 2 yr b. 3 to 5yr
c. 8 to 10 yr d. Should not become pregnant
1035. A 32 year old woman at 14 weeks gestation has abnormal cervical cytology and
unsatisfactory colposcopy during initial evaluation. What is the most appropriate
plan? (d)
a. Cervical cone biopsy b. Endocervical curettage
c. Loop excision d. Repeat colposcopy in 6 to 12 weeks
1036. What is the complication rate of colposcopy with biopsies during pregnancy? (a)
a. <1% b. 10% c. 20% d. 50%
1037. Which of the following is not a complication of conization and loop excision during
pregnancy?
a. Cervical stenosis b. Incomplete excision of neoplasia
c. Hemorrhage d. Preterm delivery
1038. In general how does pregnancy affect the survival rate for invasive carcinoma of
the cervix?
a. Increases b. Decreases
c. No effect d. Varies with route of delivery
1039. What is the most important prognostic feature of stage 1 melanoma measured by
both the clark classification and Bresslow scale?
a. Cellular atypia b. Color-tone irregularity
c. Lateral spread d. Thickness
1040. Where are 80% of colorectal cancers located when diagnosed during pregnancy?
a. Appendix b. Descending colon
c. Transverse colon d. Rectum
1041. What is the most common presenting symptom in a pregnant woman with renal
cell carcinoma? (d)
a. Hematuria b. Pain
c. Fever d. Abdominal mass
1042. What is the most common site of genital tract cancer diagnosis in pregnancy?
a. Cervix b. Endometrium
c. Ovary d. Vulva/vagina
1043. Which is the most common cancer involving the ovary associated with
pregnancy?
a. Epithelial b. Germ cell
c. Stromal d. Metastatic from distnt primary
1044. The autoimmune component of endocrinopathies may be initiated by
a. Environmental factors b. Genetic predisposition
c. Viral infection d. All of the above
1045. What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism in prenatal patients
undergoing screening?
a. 1 to 3% b. 3 to 5% c. 5 to 7% d. 9 to 11%
1046. The thyroid undergoes which of the following structural changes during
pregnancy?
a. Enlarges b. Decreases in size
c. Remains the same size d. Becomes nodular
741

1047. Which of the following levels increases markedly during pregnancy?
a. Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG)
b. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
c. Thyrotropin
1048. Which of the following is the most useful in screening for thyroid disorders?
a. Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG)
b. Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
c. Thyrotropin
d. None of the above.
1049. Which autoantibody is strongly associated with thyroid failure as well as with
down syndrome and miscarriage in pregnancy?
a. Thyroid antinuclear antibodies
b. Thyroid peroxidase antibodies
c. Thyroid-stimulating blocking antibodies
d. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
1050. What is the primary treatment approach for thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy?
a. Medical b. Surgical
c. Combination medical and surgical d. No treatment necessary
1051. Use of the following medications early in pregnancy is associated with congenital
esophageal atresia and aplasia cutis
a. Propylthiouracil b. Methimazole
c. Verapamil d. Captopril
1052. Which of the following is a rare but potentially serious maternal complication of
thioamide therapy
a. Agranulocytosis b. Gastrointestinal bleeding
c. Polycythemia d. Seizzures
1053. Which of the following complications is not increased with untreated maternal
thyrotoxicosis?
a. Adverse perinatal outcome b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Heart failure d. Pre-eclampsia
1054. Which of the following fetal complication is not increased with uncontrolled
maternal thyrotoxicosis?
a. Growth restriction b. Preterm delivery
c. Post-term pregnancy d. Stillbirth
1055. Drugs useful in the treatment of thyrotoxic storm include all the following except
a. Dexamethasone b. Magnesium sulfate
c. Propylthiouracil d. Potassium iodide
1056. Treatment of maternal hyperthyroidism with porpylthiouracil rarely can lead to
what neonatal abnormality?
a. Hearing b. Hypocalcemia
c. Goiter d. Seizures
1057. Which of the following is not associated with elevated serum levels of thyroxine?
a. Gestational trophoblastic disease b. Graves disease
c. Hyperemesis gravidarum d. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
742

1058. Which of the following complication is not increased in pregnant women with
hypothyroidism?
a. Cardiac dysfunction b. Macrosomia
c. Abruption placenta d. Pre-eclampsia
1059. Serum levels of which marker are monitored to assess thyroxine therapy for
maternal hypothyroidism?
a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone or thyrotropin (TSH)
b. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
c. Total T4 plus T3
d. Thyroid antibodies
1060. Untreated maternal subclinical hypothyroidism increases the risk of:
a. Abnormal psychomotor development in child
b. Placental abruption
c Preterrn delivery
d. All of the above
1061. Which of the following is the current recommendation regarding prenatal
screening for subclinical hypothyroidism?
a. Screen all women preconceptually
b. Screen al pregnant women at initial prenatal visit
c. Screen women with a history of a child with unexplained neuropsychomotor
delay
d. Screening not recommended pending further studies
1062. Endemic cretinism is seen in countries with high incidences of which dietary
problem?
a. Low protein intake b. Iodide deficiency
c. Elevated lithium levels in water supply d. Manganese deficiency
1063. What is the frequency of congenital hypothyroidism?
a. 1 in 40 to 70 infants b. 1 in 400 to 700 infants
c. 1 in 4000 to 7000 infants d. 1 in 40, 000 to 70, 000 infants
1064. What is the most common etiology of congenital hypothyroidism?
a. Idiopathic b. Thyroid agenesis
c. Therapeutic radioiodine d. Transient hypothyroidism
1065. What medical condition most strongly predisposes a woman to postpartum
thyroid dysfunction?
a. Diabetes type I b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Psoriasis d. Renal insufficiency
1066. Transient postpartum thyroiditis is associated with which of the following
nonspecific symptoms?
a. Depression b. Fatigue
c. Palpitations d. All of the above
1067. What percentage of women with postpartum thyroiditis will develop permanent
hypothyroidism?
a. 10 b. 30 c. 60 d.. 90
743

1068. What is the most common histological diagnosis to thyroid nodules biopsied
during pregnancy?
a. Carcinoma b. Cystic degeneration
c. Granulomatous disease d. Nodular hyperplasia
1069. What is the physiological role of calcitonin?
a. Increases serum calcium levels b. Decreases serum calcium levels
c. Maintains steady calcium levels d. Has no effect on calcium levels
1070. What happens to parathyroid hormone levels during pregnancy?
a. Increase b. Decrease
c. Remain unchanged d. Vary widely
1071. Which of the following is not a complication of hyperparathyroidism in pregnancy?
a. Generalized weakness b. Hyperemesis
c. Pancreatitis d. Thyrotoxicosis
1072. Which of the following is generally not used for the treatment of hypercalcemic
crisis in pregnancy?
a. Calcium gluconate b. Furosemide
c. Intravenous normal saline d. Mithramycin
1073. What is the preferred treatment of hypoparathyroidism during pregnancy?
a. Calcitrol (1, 25 dihydroxyvitamin D) b. Vitamin K
c. Phosphorus d. Calcitonin
1074. What is the most common etiology of pregnancy-associated osteoporosis?
a. Bed rest b. Corticosteroids
c. Heparin therapy d. Idiopathic
1075. Which of the following hormone levels increase during pregnancy?
a. Cortisol b. Rennin
c. Aldosterone d. All of the above
1076. Primary aldosteronism presents with {b}
a. Hypotension b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Tetany
1077. Enlargement of the pituitary in pregnancy is due primarily to what process?
a. Generalized pituitary edema b. Lactotrophic cellular hyperplasia
c. Thyrotrophic cellular hypertrophy d. Increased vascular supply
1078. Bromocnptine has proven efficacy for which of the following conditions during
pregnancy?
a. Graves disease b. Addison disease
c. Primary aldosteronism d. Pituitary prolactinoma
1079. Bromocriptine increases which of the following fetal effects?
a. Stillbirth b. Growth restriction
c. Microcephaly d. No adverse effects
1080. Transient diabetes insipidus is the most likely encountered in pregnant women
with which of the following complications?
a. Acute fatty liver b. Preeclampsia
c. Prolactin-secretin macroadenoma d. Hemorrhage
1081. What syndrome is caused by pituitary ischemia and necrosis secondary to
obstetrical blood loss?
a. Kallmann's syndrome b. Hing syndrome
c. Morris syndrome d. Sheehan's syndrome
744

1082. What is the specific drug used to treat diabetes insipidus during pregnancy?
a. Angiotensin b. Desmopressin
c. Oxytocin d. Rennin
1083. The goiter that occurs during pregnancy is:
a. Simple goiter b. Hypothyroidism
c. Simple colloid goiter d. Hyperthyroidism
1084. The most commonest causes of jaundice in pregnancy is:
a. Hepatic chiestarin b. STD infection
c. Viral hepatitis d. Cytomegaloviral infection
1085. Which of the following may increase in pregnancies complicated by anemia in the
second trimester? (c)
a. Pregnancy-induced hypertension b. Gestational diabetes
c. Preterm birth d. Urinary-tract infection
1086. What are the most common causes of anemia during pregnancy?
a. Iron deficiency; acute blood loss
b. Iron deficiency; sickle cell disease
c. Folate deficiency; acute blood loss
d. Folate deficiency; sickle cell disease
1087. What are the total iron requirements for the mother and fetus during a normal
pregnancy?
a. 100mg b. 300m g c 1000mg d. 3000 mg
1088. What are the classical morphological features of iron- deficiency anemia?
a. Hyperchromia, macrocytosis b. Hypochromia, microcytosis
c. Macrocytosis, teardrop cells d.. Spherocytosis, red cell fragments
1089. Which of the following has the most influence on iron stores in the newborn?
a. Maternal iron status b. Timing of cord clamping
c. Maternal vitamin C intake d. Blood loss at time of delivery
1090. Which of the following excludes iron deficiency as a cause of anemia? (b}
a. Elevated serum iron-binding capacity b. Normal serum ferritin
c. Bone marrow normoblastic hyperplasia d. Positive sickle-cell preparation
1091. Which of the following is not associated with anemia? (c}
a. Inflammatory bowel disease b. Chronic renal disease
c. Essential hypertension d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
1092. Women with chronic renal disease, which of the following characterizes the
degree of red cell mass expansion during pregnancy? (c)
a. Same as women with normal renal function
b. Increased compared with normal pregnancy
c. Decreased by the corresponding degree of renal impairement compared with
normal pregnancy
d. Does not occur because of low levels of ferritin
1093. What is the cause of anemia in women with acute antepartum pyelonephritis?
a. Decreased erythropoietin production
b. Increased red cell destruction due to endotoxemia
c. Dilution secondary to intravenous hydration
d. Decreased iron stores
745

1094. What is the worrisome side effect of recombinant erythropoietin to treat chronic
anemia?
a. Hypertension b. Expanded red cell mass
c. Placenta previa d. Allergic reaction
1095. What is the earliest morphological evidence of folic acid deficiency? (a)
a. Hypersegmentation of neutrophils b. Microcytosis
c. Erythrocytes d. Nucleated red blood cells
1096. In which of the following circumstances is folic acid 4 mg/ day indicated?
a. Multifetal pregnancy b. Crohn’s disease
c. Iron-deficiency anemia d. Previous infant with neural-tube defect
1097. Serum vitamin B12 levels are decreased in pregnancy secondary to
a. Increased fibrinogen b. Decreased fibrinogen
c. Increased transcobalamins d. Decreased transcobalamins
1098. What is the most common cause of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
a. Drug-induced cold autoantibodies
b. Chronic inflammatory disease
c. Warm. Active autoantibodies
d. Connective tissue disease
1099. Which of the following may induce cold agglutinin disease?
a. Chlamydia trochomatous b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Myco plasma pneumonia
1100. Which of the following drugs may induce antierythrocyte antibodies?
a. Ibrprofen b. Erythromycin
c. Rifampin d. Acetaminophen
1101. Which of the following is the mutated gene responsible for paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria?
a. PNH-I b. PIG-A c. URE-3 d. XPN-F
1102. What is the treatment for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
a. Iron b. Corticosteroids
c. Heparin d. Bone marrow transplantation
1103. Which of the following is a hemopoietic stem cell disorder characterized by
formation of defective platelets granulocytes and erythrocytes?
a. Pregnancy-induced hemolytic anemia
b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d. Diamond-blackfan syndrome
1104. How is glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency inherited?
a. Autosomal recessive b. Autosomal dominant
c. X-linked recessive d. X-linked dominant
1105. What is the most common cause of aplastic anemia?
a. Drug-induced b. Infection c. Immunological disorder d. Idiopathic
1106. What is the major risk to a pregnant woman with aplastic anemia?
a. Hemorrhage and infection
b. Preterrn labour and fetal growth restriction
c. Pregnancy-induced hypertension and fetal growth restriction
d. Anemia and infection
746

1107. Hemoglobin S is caused by a substitution of:
a. Valine for glutamic acid at position 6
b. Glutamic acid for valine at position 6
c. Lysine for glutamic acid at position 6
d. Glutamic acid for leucine at position 6
1108. Which of the following is not associated with hemoglobin SC disease in
pregnancy?
a. Severe bone pain b. Pulmonary infarction
c. Placental abruption d. Adult chest syndrome
1109. Which of the following is not considered effective in the management of pain from
intravascular sickling?
a. Intravenous hydration b. Morphine
c. Prophylactic red cell transfusions d. Therapeutic red cell transfusions
1110. Which of the following is increased in pregnancies complicated by sickle-cell trait?
a. Perinatal mortality b. Abortion (spontaneous)
c. Low-birth weight d. Urinary tract infection
1111. What is the mechanism of action of corticosteroids in the therapy of
immunological thrombocytopenia purpura?
a. Suppress phagocytic activity in the spleen
b. Increase platelet membrane stability
c. Cause short-term reticuloendothelial blockags and diminish platelet
sequestration
d. Increase platelet production
1112. What is the fetal or neonatal risk of maternal immune thrombocytopenia purpura?
a. Increased abortion rate b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Necrotizing enterocolitis d. No risk
1113. Which of the following findings in women with immune thrombocytopenia purpura
correlate closely with fetal platelet counts?
a. Maternal platelet count b. Circulating antiplatelet antibodies
c. Indirect platelet antiglobulin d. No correlation with maternal status
1114. What is the pathogenesis of thrombotic microangiopathies?
a. Unknown
b. Microthrombi of hyaline material platelets producing fluctuating ischemia
c. Microthrombi (multiple) of erythrocyte clumps causing multiple infarctions
d. Intravascular neutrophil aggregation stimulating cytokine production
leading to end organ failure
1115. What is the most common presenting symptom in women with thrombotic
thrombocytopenic syndrome?
a. Fever b. Fatigue
c. Hemorrhage d. Neurological abnormalities
1116. What is the most common laboratory finding in women with thrombotic
thrombocytopenic syndrome?
a. Mild anemia b. Erythrocyte fragmentation
c. Decreased Ieukocytes d. Fibrin-split products
747

1117. What is the treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopenic syndromes? (d)
a. Heparin b. Aspirin and dipyridamole c. Glucocorticoids
d. Exchange transfusion with donor plasma and plasmapheresis
1118. Which factor is deficient in individuals with hemophilia A?
a. von Willebrand's factor b. Antithrombin- III
c. Factor VllI-C d. Factor I X
1119. Which of the following stimulates factor VIll:C release?
a. Prednisone b. Gamma-globulin
c. Desmopressin d. Plasmapheresis
1120. What is the most commonly inherited bleeding disorder?
a. von Willebrand disease b. Antithrombin III deficiency
c. Factor IX deficiency d. Factor VIll: C deficiency
1121. What is the site of synthesis of von Willebrand's factor?

a. Liver b. Endothelium and megakaryocytes
c. Megakaryocytes only d. Kideney
1122. Control of the synthesis of von Willebrand's factor is on autosomal genes on
which chromosome?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. I2
1123. The commonest hematological disorder that occur in pregnancy is:
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hematuria
c. Anemia d. None
1124. The fall in hemoglobin concentration during pregnancy is due to:
a. Hemoconcentration and negative iron balance
b. Hemoconcentration and positive iron balance
c Hemodilution and FL ion balance
d. Hemodilution and negative iron balance
1125. The essential vitamin which helps for conversion of folic acid is:
a. 1 0- 11 g m/100ml b. 11-I2gm/100ml
c. 12-13g m/100ml d. 13-14 gm/100 ml
1126. The hemoglobin level in severe anemia is:
a. Less than 7.5-8 gm% b. Less than 6.5-7 gm%
c. Less than 5.5-6 gm% d. Less than 4.5-5 gm%
1127. The total iron binding capacity in iron deficiency anemia is:
a. Beyond 30mg/IOU ml b. Beyond 100 mg/100
c. Below 100 mg/100 ml d. Beyond 400 mg/100
1128. What are the complications of anemia during pregnancy?
a. Pre-term b. Intercurrent infection
c. Heart failure d. All of the above
1129. During antenatal period a woman needs how many check up to detect anemia?
a. 3 checkup-at first visit, at 30th week, at 36th week
b. 3 checkup- at first visit, at 38th week, at delivery
c. 3 check up- when ever felt necessary
d. All of the above
748

1130. The total elemental iron required in anemic patient weighing 100 lb with Hb 50%
is:
a. 2000 mg c. 2250 mg d. 1000mg
1131. Iron requirement during pregnancy is:
a. 20m g b. I8mg c. 40mg d. None
1132. In folic acid deficiency, the serum folate level is less than:
a. 1. 5ng/ml b. 2.5ng/ml c. 3.5ng/ml d. 4ng/ml
1133. What is the incidence of exploratory laparoscopy or laparotomy during
pregnancy?
a. 1 in 240 b. 1 in 500 c. 1 in 1000 d. 1 in 5000
1134. Why does total parenteral nutrition require catheterization of the jugular or
subclavian vein?
a. Thromboembolism occurs if given in a smaller vein
b. The solution is hypersomolar and needs to be diluted in a high-flow
system
c Essential fatty acids block smaller veins
d. The potassium content causes sclerosis of smaller veins
1135. What is the most common complication associated with peripherally inserted
central catheters for hyperalimentation?
a. Osmotic dieresis b. Thrombosis
c. Electrolyte imbalance d. Infection
1136. Which of the following complications in pregnancy are increased in women with a
female fetus?
a. Cholelithiasis b. Hepatitis
c. Reflux esophagitis d. Hyperemesis gravidarum
1137. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is associated with hyperemesis
gravidarum?
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin K
1138. What is the etiology of reflux esophagitis 1 in pregnancy?
a. Constriction of upper esophageal sphincter
b. Relaxation of upper esophageal sphincter
c. Constriction of lower esophageal sphincter
d. Relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter
1139. Diaphragmatic hernias are herniations of abdominal contents through which
foramen?
a. Morgagni b. Ovale c. Magnum
1140. Which of the following is a motor disorder of esophageal smooth muscle?
a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Hiatal hernia
c. Reflux esophagitis d. Achalasia
1141. Which of the following treatment is not indicated in the management of achalasia?
a. Soft foods b. Hyperlimentation
c. Anticholinergic drugs d. Pneumatic dilatation
1142. What organism is associated with peptic ulcer disease?
a. Helicobacter stomachi b. Helicobacter pylon
c. Helicobacter acidi d. Helicobacter gastrecti
749

1143. Which of the following is associated with normal pregnancy?
a. Decreased mucus secretion
b. Increased gastric secretion
c. Decreased gastric motility
d. Constriction of lower esophageal sphincter
1144. The majority of pregnancies with upper gastrointestinal bleeding have
a. Boerhaave syndrome b. Stomach cancer
c. Mallory-Weiss tears d. Peptic ulceration
1145. Which of the following is a dangerous complication associated with ulcerative
colitis?
a. Toxic megacolon b. Bloody diarrhea
c. Arthritis d. Erythema nodosum
1146. Which of the following surgical procedures is protective against the development
of ulcerative colitis?
a. Tonsillectomy b. Adenectomy
c. Appendectomy d. Cholecystectomy
1147. What is the cardinal presenting finding in ulcerative colitis?
a. Lower abdominal pain b. Bloody diarrhea
c. Intractable nausea d. Projectile vomiting
1148. Which active metabolite of sulfasalazine inhibits prostaglandin synthase?
a. Sulfazine b. Sulfazine-b
c. 2-aminosalicylic acid d. 5-aminosalicylic acid
1149. What is the most likely course for ulcerative colitis that is quiescent at the
beginning of gestation?
a. Minimal activation of disease during pregnancy
b. Active disease during pregnancy in 33%
c. Active disease during pregnancy in 67%
d. Active disease during pregnancy in nearly 100%
1150. What is a common long-term complication in a woman who has had a colectomy
with mucosal proctectomy and ileal pouch-anal anastomosis?
a. Pouchitis b. Large bowel obstruction
c. Proctitis d. Fistula formation
1151. What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in pregnancy?
a. Infection b. Adhesions
c. Cancer d. Mechanical compression from the uterus
1152. What is the most common symptom associated with bowel obstruction?
a. Nausea b. Vomiting
c Abdominal pain d. Diarrhea
1153. What is the cause of pseudo-obstruction of the colon (Ogilvie's syndrome)?
a. Pelvic adhesions b. Impacted stool
c. Adynamic colonic ileus d. Medications used postpartum
1154. Which of the following is not in the differential diagnosis of appendicitis in
pregnancy?
a. Crohn disease b. Placental abruption
c. Pyelonephritis d. Pneumonia
750

1155. Which of the following complications is associated with ruptured appendix and
peritonitis?
a. Fetal growth restriction b. Oligohydramnios
c. Chorioamnjonitis d. Preterm birth
1156. During pregnancy, effective renal plasma flow is increased by what percentage?
a. 5 to 10 b. 20 to 30 c. 40 to 65 d. 80 to 90
1157. Which of the following is not a change observed in the urinary tract during
pregnancy?
a. Dilatation of renal calyces, pelves, and ureters
b. Increased predisposition to infection
c. Increased vesicoureteral reflux
d. All of the above are observed
1158. What is the average daily excretion of albumin during pregnancy?
a. <50m g b. 100 mg
c. 200 mg d. 500 mg
1159. Idiopathic hematuria prior to 20 weeks gestation is associated with a twofold
increase in the development of:
a. Chronic renal disease b. Preterm labour
c Preeclampsia d. Pyelonephritis
1160. Postural (orthostatic) proteinuria is defined as proteinuria in which of the following
circumstances?
a. When ambulatory
b. Secondary to mild renal disease
c. Due to bacteriuria
d. At night time in a patient with hypertension
1161. Which of the following enhances the virulence of Escherichia coli?
a. Glycoprotein receptors b. P-fimbriae
c. Endotoxins d. Nuclear pili
1162. What is the prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?
a. 4% b. 2 to 7% c 10 to 12% d. 20%
1163. Which of the following is true of asymptomatic bacteriuria during pregnancy?
a. It has its highest incidence among affluent Caucasian of low parity
b. If not treated, it will develop into an acute symptomatic infection during
pregnancy in 25% of women
c. It has not been associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes
d. It is diagnosed by catheterized specimen containing >100 organisms/mi in
asymptomatic women
1164. Which of the following is the most likely to be associated with covert bacteriuria?
a. Age <20 years b. Hypertension
c. Sickle-cell trait d. Lupus
1165. What is the best time to screen for bacteriuria?
a. Preconceptualiy b. At the first prenatal visit
c. During the second trimester d. At 36 weeks gestation
751

1166. Using multivariate analysis, what are the adverse pregnancy outcomes
associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria?
a. Escherichia coli cystitis
b. Group B streptococcus cystitis
c. Chiamydia trachomatis urethritis
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis
1167. What is the most common serious medical complication of pregnancy?
a. Thrombophlebitis b. Pneumonia
c. Pancreatitis d. Pyelonephritis
1168. Which of the following cause alveolar injury and hence respiratory insufficiency, in
women with pyelonephritis?
a. Prostaglandins b. Cytokines
c. Interferons d. Endotoxins
1169. Anemia in women with pyelonephritis is due to:
a. Hemolysis induced by endotoxin
b. Dilution due to hydration
c. Increased erythropoietin production
d. Cytokine-induced thrombocytopenia
1170. When can a pregnant woman be discharged home on oral antibiotics following
parenteral antibiotic therapy for pyelonephritis?
a. When she is no longer symptomatic
b. When she becomes afebrile
c When 10 full days if inpatient therapy is completed
d. When pyuria resolves
1171. What percentage of renal stones are identified by a plain abdominal radiograph?
a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90
1172. What is the composition of the majority of renal stones?
a. Struvite b. Calcium salt
c. Uric acid d. Magnesium salt
1173. What is the most common presenting symptom of renal stones in pregnant
women?
a. Flank pain b. Abdominal discomfort
c. Hematuria d. Infection
1174. Which of the following is not one of the five major glomerulopathic syndromes?
a. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
b. Chronic pyelonephritis
c. Nephritic syndrome
d. Acute nephritic syndrome
1175. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis?
a. Hematuria, proteinuria, edema, and hypertension
b. Proteinuria and hypertension without edema
c. Hematuria, hypotension and proteinuria
d. Proteinuria, hypotension and edema
1176. Which of the following is not a fetal effect of glomerulonephrrritis?
a. Fetal loss b. Fetal growth retardation
c. Preterm birth d. Fetal intraventricular hemorrhage
752

1177. What is the incidence of hypertension in pregnancy in women with
glomerulonephritis?
a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%
1178. Which of the foIIowing is not strongly associated with a poor perinatal prognosis
in parturients with glomerulonephritis?
a. Impaired renal function b. Severe hypertension
c. Anemia d. Proteinuria >3 g/24 hr
1179. What are the characteristics of nephrotic syndrome?
a. Proteinuria >3000 mg/d, hyperlipidemia and edema
b. Proteinuria >3000 mg/d, hypolipidemia
c Proteinuria >300 mg/d, hyperlipidemia and edema
d. Proteinuria >300 mg/d, and hypolipidemia
1180. The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome?
a. Membranous glomerulopathy b. Minimal change disease
c. Postsreptococcal glomerulonephritis d. Amyloidosis
1181. Successful pregnancy outcome can be anticipated despite maternal nephrosis in
which of the following circumstances?
a. The patient is normotensive
b. Renal insufficiency is moderate
c. Proteinuria is <5 g/d
d. Hypertension is controlled with blood pressure medications
1182. What is the significance of proteinuria that antedates pregnancy?
a. Benign in most cases
b. Associated with persistent anemia in 25%
c. Chronic hypertension in70%
d. Preterm delivery in 10%
1183. What is the mechanism of inheritance in adult polysystic kidney disease? (d)
a. Sporadic b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive d. Autosomal dominant
1184. Which of the following is a symptom of polycystic kidney disease?
a. Flank pain b. Nocturia c Hematuria d. Malaise
1185. Which of the following is associated with polycystic kidneys?
a. Hepatic cysts b. Mitral stenosis
c. Diverticulosis d. Uterine anomalies
1186. What is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease?
a. Diabetes b. Hypertension .
c Glomerulonephritids d. Polysystic kidney disease
1187. What is the effect of norinotensive maternal polycystic kidney disease on
perinatal outcome when compared with normal control pregnancy?
a. Increased spontaneous abortions
b. Increased stillbirths
c. Increased neonatal liver failure
d. No adverse effects
1188. The average blood volume expansion in pregnant women with mild renal
insufficiency?
a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 70%
753

1189. The average blood volume expansion in pregnant women with severe renal
insufficiency?
a. 10% b. 25% c. 35% d. 45%
1190. Which of the following pregnancy complications is most common in women with
chronic renal insufficiency?
a. Anemia b. Fetal growth restriction
c. Preeclampsia d. Preterm delivery
1191. What is the major side effect from recombinant erythropoietin use in pregnancy?
a. Hyperviscosity
b. Hypertension
c. Human immunodeficiency viral transmission
d. Worsening renal function
1192. What is the effect of pregnancy on the natural history of renal insufficiency (in the
absence of superimposed preeclampsia or severe obstetrical hemorrhage)?
a. Accelerated renal insufficiency
b. Complete resolution of renal insufficiency
c. Partial improvement of renal insufficiency
d. No appreciable effect on progression
1193. Which of the following is not induced in the differential diagnosis of renal
transplant rejection during pregnancy?
a. Pyelonephritis b. Preeclampsia
c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. Recurrent glomerulonephropathy
1194. Which of the following is the most helpful in making the diagnosis of renal
transplant rejection during pregnancy?
a. Renal biopsy b. Clinical symptoms
c. Urinanalysis d. Renal vein laboratory studies
1195. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure in pregnancy?
a. Drug abuse b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Preeclampsia or eclampsia d. Sickle-cell disease
1196. Which of the following is not a part of Virchow's traid?

a. Infection (local) b. Trauma (local)
c. Stasis d. Hypercoagulability
1197. Which of the following risk factors is associated with an increased likelihood of
pulmonary embolism during the puerperium?
a. Cesarean delivery b. Severe preeclampsia
c. Diabetes d. All of the above
1198. Which thrombophilia is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?
a. Factor V Leiden mutation b. Antithrombin deficiency
c Protein C deficiency d. Hyperhomocysteinemia
1199. Which of the following is the most important inhibitor of thrombin in clot
formation?
a. Antithrombin b. Thrombomodulin
c Protein C d. Protein S
754

1200. The circulating anticoagulant protein S is activated by:
a. Protein C b. Protein M
c Antithrombin d. Thrombomodulin

1201. Purpura fulminans is caused by:

a. Heterozygous protein C deficiency
b. Homozygous protein C deficiency
c Heterozygous protein S deficiency
d. Combination of protein C and protein S deficiency
1202. What is the most prevalent known thrombophilia?
a. Protein S deficiency b. Protein C deficiency
c. Factor V Leiden mutation d. Antithrombin deficiency
1203. What happens to resistance to activated protein C during pregnancy?
a. Increases after the first trimester
b. increases after the second trimester
c. Decreases after the first trimester
d. Decreases after the second trimester
1204. Management of gravidas who are homozygous for the factor V Leiden mutation
should include:
a. Adjusted-dose heparin prophylaxis
b. Full anticoagulation with heparin
c. Low-dose aspirin
d. Full anticoagulation with warfarin
1205. Phlegmasia alba dolens is clinically suspected in which of the following
situations?
a. Abrupt onset of leg pain and edema
b. Edema of both lower extremities exists
c. Red, hot lower extremity is noted
1206. What is the procedure of choice to diagnose deep venous thrombosis?
a. Impedance plethysmography
b. Real-time ultrasonography
c Venography
d. Compression ultrasonography plus color Dopper
1207. Where does thrombosis associated with pulmonary embolism in pregnant women
frequently originate?
a. Popliteal veins b. Femoral veins c. lliac veins d. Vena cava
1208. When is the peak antifactor Xa activity in a woman taking enoxaparin sodium
(Lovenox)?
a. 1 hour prior to dosing b. 1 hour after dosing
c 3.5 hour prior to dosing d D. 3.5hour after to dosing
755

1209. Low-molecular-weight heparin should not be used in patients with which of the
following conditions?
a. Mitral valve prolapse b. Ventricle septal defect
c. Atrial septal defect d. Prosthetic heart valve
1210. What is the most serious complication with heparin?
a. Hemorrhage b. Thrombosis
c. Osteoporosis d. Thrombocytopenia
1211. A major side effect of heparin is osteoporosis. This is more likely to occur in which
of the following situations?
a. Less than 20, 000 units is given per day for a shout time
b. Treatment exceeds 7 weeks
c. More than 20,000 units per day are given for 3 months
d. More than 20, 000 units per day are given for 6 months
1212. Which of the following is given to reverse the anticoagulation effects of heparin?
a. Protamine sulfate b. Vitamin D
c Vitamin D d. Vitamin K10 mg intravenously
1213. What is the treatment for superficial thrombophiebitis?
a. Analgesia and coumarin b. Analgesia and rest
c. "mini-dose" heparin d. Full anticoagulation
1214. How should a woman with deep venous thrombosis in a previous pregnancy be
managed in a current pregnancy?
a. Careful observation b. Mini-dose subcutaneous heparin
c. Full prophylactic dose subcutaneous heparin d. low-dose aspirin
1215. What is the incidence of chronic asthma in pregnancy?
a. 1 to 4% b. 6 to 10% c. 12 to 16% d. 18 to 20%
1216. Which of the following cannot be measured directly?
a. Tidal volume b. Residual volume
c. Minute ventilation d. Expiratory reserve volume
1217. Which of the following characterizes functional residual capacity during
pregnancy?
a. Decreases by approximately 500 ml
b. Stays unchanged compared with nonpregnancy values
c. Increases by approximately 500 ml d. Increases by approximately 1 L
1218. How much dose the tidal volume increases during pregnancy?
a. 200 ml b. 300 ml c. 400 ml d. 500 ml
1219. Which of the following is a risk factor for using colonization with legionella?
a. Smoking b. Diabetes c. Asthma d. Alcohol
1220. What is the incidence of pneumonia complication in pregnancy? (c)
a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 300 c. 1 in 600 d. 1 in 1000
1221. A 27 year old woman at 32 weeks of gestation presents complaining of cough
fever chest pain and dyspnea. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in
making a diagnosis?
a. Complete blood cell count b. Mycoplasma specific immunoglobulin G
c. Urinalysis for pneumococcal antigen
d. Chest X-ray
756

1222. Which of the following factor is not an indication for hospitalization of a woman
with pneumonia?
a. Altered mental status b. Hypertension
c. Hypothermia d. Respiratory rate .30 per minute
1223. What is the first line therapy in a pregnant woman with uncomplicated community
acquired pneumonia?
a. Dicloxicilin b. Clindamycin
c. Ampicillin d. Erythromycin
1224. Which of the following perinatal complications is associated with bacterial
pneumonia?
a. Fetal growth retardation b. Preterm labour
c. Persistent fetal circulation d. Cerebral palsy
1225. Pneumococcal vaccine should be given for which of the following condition?
a. Sickle-cell disease b. Gestational diabetes
c Pregnancy-induced hypertension d. All pregnancies
1226. A pregnant woman with which condition should be vaccinated against influenza
no matter what stage of pregnancy?
a. Allergic rhinitis b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Insulin-dependent diabetes d. All pregnancies
1227. What are the current Centres for Disease control and prevention
recommendations for influenza vaccine (not Flumist) in pregnancy?
a. Vaccinate only high-risk women
b. Vaccinate only if epidemic is expected
c. Vaccinate only if a new virus is expected
d. All should be vaccinated
1228. What is the treatment of choice for chemoprophylaxis and treatment of influenza in
pregnancy?
a. Oseltamivir b. Amantadine
c Acyclovir d. Ganciclovir
1229. Which of the following may be associated with in utero exposure to influenza A
infection at mid pregnancy?
a. Hallucinations b. Bipolar disorder
c. Schizophrenia d. Depression
1230. What is the risk factor for varicella pneumonia in pregnancy?

a. > 100 skin lesions b. Smoking
c. No prior infection d. All of the above
1231. Which of the following agents lowers the incidence and severity of varicella
pneumonia?
a. Amantadine b. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin
c. Gamma-globulin d. All of the above
1232. What is the best management for a susceptible pregnant woman within 96 hours
of exposure to varicella?
a. Varicella isoimmunization TM b. Varivax
c Varicella-zoster immune globulin d. Expectant management or observation
757

1233. Airway responsiveness and inflammation in persons with asthma are linked to
which of the following chromosomes?
a. 11 b. 5 c. 14 d. All of the above
1234. What proportion of asthmatics can expect worsening of disease during
pregnancy?
a. None b. One-fourth c. One-third d. One-half
1235. Which of the following pregnancy complications is not increased in those with
asthma?
a. Preterm labour b. Perinatal mortality
c Low-birth weight infants d. Congenital anomalies
1236. What are the signs most strongly pointed to a potentially fatal asthamatic attack?
a. Use of accessory muscles, laboured breathing

b. Central cyanosis, laboured breathing
c. Use of accessory muscles, proIonged expiration
d. Central cyanosis, altered consciousness
1237. What is the first-line therapy for mild asthma?
a. Antibiotics B. b. Adrenergic agonists
c. Methylxanthines d. Cromolyn sodium
1238. Which of the following agents is used to stabilize mast cell membranes?
a. Theophyline b. Cromolyn sulfate
c Corticosteroids d. Epinephrine
1239. Which of the following analgesis is a nonhistamine- releasing narcotic and

therefore should be used for asthmatics?
a. Morphine b. Meperidine c. Fentanyl d. Codeine
1240. Which of the following groups is not at particular risk for tuberculosis?
a. Pregnant women b. The elderly
c. Urban poor d. Ethnic minorities
1241. What percentage of tuberculosis is resistant to at least one drug?
a. 3 b. 6 c 12 d. 18
1242. Which of the following antituberculosis agents is associated with severe
congenital deafness if given during pregnancy'?
a. Streptomycin b. Isoniazid c. Rifampin d. Ethambutol
1243. Which of the following chest X-ray findings is the hallmark of sarcoidosis?
a. Mediastinal widening b. Diffuse infiltrates
c. Patchy infiltrates d. Interstitial pneumonitis
1244. Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning in pregnancy includes:
a. Supportive measures b. 100% oxygen
c. Hyperbaric oxygen d. All of the above
1245. The risk factor for the development of chronic hypertension includes:
a. Heredity b. Smoking
c Parity >3 d. Prior molar pregnancy
758

1246. In nonpregnant women, antihypertensive therapy for mild to moderate
hypertension has been shown to decrease the incidence of:
a. Infertility b. Mortality
c Diabetes d. Endometrial cancer
1247. Nonpharmacological interventions to treat hypertension include all except:
a. Weight loss b. High-fat diet
c Physical activity d. Smoking cessation
1248. What is the mechanism of alphamethyldopa?
a. Relaxes arterial smooth muscles
b. Increased sodium and water diuresis
c. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
d. Acts centrally to decrease vascular tone
1249. A nonpregnant patient's blood pressure measures 164/98 mmhg on two separate
visits. The most effective treatment for this patient typically requires
a. Sodium-lowering diet plus thiazide-type diuretic
b. Sodium-lowering diet plus B-adrenergic receptor blocker
c Thiazide-type diuretic plus angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
d. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor plus angiotensinreceptor
blocker
1250. Evaluation of uncomplicated, long-standing chronic hypertension early in
pregnancy includes all except:
a. Echocardiography
b. Serum creatinine level
c. Ophthalmological evaluation
d. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone level
1251. In hypertensive women, adverse pregnancy outcomes most commonly occur when
which of the following is also present?
a. Parity >3 b. Renal dysfunction
c Prior molar pregnancy d. Prior deep venous thrombosis
1252. Pregnant women with chronic hypertension are at greatest risk compared with
nonhypertensive controls for which of the following adverse events?
a. Placental abruption b. Deep venous thrombosis
c. First-trimester abortion d. Postpartum cardiomyopathy
1253. The development of superimposed preeclampsia in a chronic hypertensive
patient is increased proportionately with
a. Severity of baseline obesity
b. Severity of base line hypertension
c. Number of family members with hypertension
d. Number of family members with prior preeclampsia
1254. Low-dose aspirin therapy during pregnancy in women with chronic hypertension
has been shown in some studies to decrease the incidence of which the following?
a. Eclampsia b. Preterm labour
c. Oligohydramnios d. Cesarean delivery
759

1255. Which adverse pregnancy outcome is not increased in pregnancies completed by
chronic hypertension?
a. Preterm birth b. Perinatal death
c. Fetal-growth restriction d. Spontaneous preterm rupture of membranes
1256. In chronically hypertensive women which of the following is most commonly
associated with fetal growth ressstriction?
a. Maternal obesity b. Increased maternal age
c. Maternal hyperthyroidism d. Increased maternal parity
1257. A pregnant patient persistently displays blood pressure readings of 150/104
mmHg. The most appropriate first-line therapy for this patient includes
a. Thiazide-type diuretics
b. Calcium-channel blocker
c. Central-acting anti-adrenergic agents
d. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
1258. Angiotensincoverting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy due to
what fetal effects?
a. Cardiac defects b. Fetal renal defects
c. Thrombocytopenja d. Patent ductus arteriosus
1259. Beta-blockers in particular atenolol, are associated with which of the following
perinatal morbidities?
a. Preterm birth b. Hyperglycemia
c. Fetal-growth distress syndrome d. Respiratory distress
syndrome
1260. The criteria that support the diagnosis of superimposed preeclampsia in women
with underlying chronic hypertension include all of the following except
a: Severe headache b. Thrombocytopepia
c. New-onset proteinuria d. Iron-deficiency anemia
1261. What is the risk of superimposed pregnancy induce hypertension in women with
chronic hypertension?
a. <1% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%
1262. Regarding delivery of chronically hypertensive patients with superimposed severe
preeclampsia, all of the following are acceptable except:
a. Induction of labour b. Epidural anesthesia
c. Await delivery at term d. Vaginal route of delivery
1263. In the puerperium, women with severe chronic hypertension are at greatest risk
for which of the following? (
a. Pulmonary edema b. Deep venous thrombosis
c Ovarian vein thrombosis d. Postpartum hemorrhage
1264. In late pregnancy, which of the following contributes to the normal increase in
cardiac output?
a. Increased stroke volume
b. Increased to the normal increased resting pulse rate
c. Expanded blood volume
d. All of the above
760

1265. When is heart failure and cardiac-relaced maternal death most common'?
c Third trimester d. Peripartum
1266. Which of the following symptoms is the most likely indicator of heart disease in a
pregnant patient?
a. Nocturia b. Chest ain
c Tachycardia d. Peripheral edema
1267. Which of the following cardiac signs is not a normal finding in pregnancy?
a. Pericardial friction rub
b. 2/6 midsystolic murmur
c. Brisk and diffuse cardiac apex pulsation
d. Supraclavicular continuous venous hum
1268. Which of the following is not an electrocardiographic change seen in normal
pregnancy?
a. Atrial premature beats b. 15-degree left-axis deviation
c. P-wave voltage increase of 50'>
d. Mild ST changes in the inferior leads
1269. Using echocardiography, which of the following is a common pregnancy-induced
finding?
a. Aortic insufficiency b. Mitral valve prolapse
c. Tricuspid regurgitation d. Right atrial enlargement
1270. Which is the preferred intrapartum analgesia in most situations involving maternal
heart disease?
a. Paracervical block b. Intravenous analgesics
c Continuous epidural analgesia d. Spinal analgesia (saddle block)
1271. Which of the following forms of analgesia is contraindicated in women with
pulmonary hypertension?
a. Spinal block b. Pudendal block
c. General Anesthesia d. Intravenous analgesics
1272. In general, which of the following is true of pregnancy complicated by maternal
mechanical valve prosthesis?
a. Fetal loss is rare
b. Anticoagulation is mandatory
c. Cesarean delivery is recommended for most
d. All of the above are true
1273. Compared with heparin, warfarin use is associated with high rates of:
a. Stillbirth b. Spontaneous abortion
c Congenital malformation d. All of the above
1274. Disadvantages associated with porcine heart valves include:
a. Lower durability b. Mandatory anticoagulation
c. High rates of thromboembolism d. None of the above
1275. With respect to heparin anticoagulation during pregnancy, which of the following
laboratory parameters should be maintained at a level of 1.5 to 2.5 times the baseline
value?
a. Bleeding time b. Thrombin time
c. Prothrombin time d. Partial thromboplastin time
761

1276. How many hours following vaginal delivery should anticoagulation therapy for a
mechanical prosthetic valve be reinstated?
a. 6 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36
1277. Which of the following surgical treatment for symptomatic mitral stenosis in
pregnancy is associated with the lowest maternal and fetal morbidity?
a. Open mitral valvotomy
b. Closed mitral valvotomy
c. Mitral valve replacement
d. Percutaneous ballon mitral valvuloplasty
1278. What is the approximate surface area (2 cm) of a normal adult mitral valve?
a. 1 b2 c. 3 d. 4
1279. Which of the following is not a common symptom of mitral stenosis?
a. Dyspnea b. Syncope
c Palpitations d. Hemoptysis
1280. Suggested management decisions regarding the labour and delivery of a woman
with mitral stenosis and an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy include which of the
following?
a. Epidural analgesia
b. Mandatory cesarean delivery
c. Aggressive hydration prior to epidural analgesia
d. Mandatory antimicrobial bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis
1281. What is the primary hemodynamic problem associated with severe aortic
stenosis?
a. Fixed cardiac output
b. Fixed cardiac preload
c. Ineffectual ventricular contractility
d. Hyperdynamic ventricular contractility
1282. Which of the following pregnancy-related hemodynamic changes is thought
responsible for the negligible effects of aortic and mitral insufficiency during
pregnancy'?
a. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased resting heart rate
c. Decreased vascular resistance d.. Increased ventricular contractility
1283. Which of the following is the most common form of atrial septal defect (ASD)?
a. Ovale type b. Ostiumprimum
c. Ostium secundum d. Sinus venous
1284. Which of the following factors most adversely affects the maternal cardiac risk
related to atrial septal defect (ASD) and pregnancy?
a. Childhood repair of lesion
b. Concurrent pulmonary hypertension
c Presence of sinus venosus type ASD
d.. Presence of ostium secundum type ASD
1285. Which of the following is a possible complication of unrepaired ventricular septal
defect?
a. Bacterial endocarditis b. Eisenmenger syndrome
c. Pulmonary hypertension d. All of the above
762

1286. What is the incidence of fetal atrial or ventricular septal defect if the mother has
such a defect?
a. 5 to15% b. 15 to 30% c 30 to 45% d. 45 to 60%
1287. Which of the following maternal conditions would most likely prompt the
recommendation for pregnancy termination?
a. Atrial septal defect b. Aortic regurgitation
c. Bacterial endocarditis d. Eisenmenger syndrome
1288. Which of the following cardiac lesions is not associated with cyanosis?.
a. Mitral stenosis b. Fallot tetralogy
c Ebstein anomaly d. Coarctation of the aorta
1289. Which of the following is an associated finding in Fallot tetralogy?
a. Overriding aorta b. Pulmonary stenosis
c. Bicuspid aortic valve d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
1290. Which of the following is the preferred mode of delivery a woman with a cyanotic
heart lesion?
a. Vaginal delivery with spinal analgesia
b. Vaginal delivery with epidural analgesia
c. Elective cesarean delivery with epidural analgesia
d. Elective cesarean delivery with general anesthesia
1291. Eisenmenger syndrome may result from which of the following lesions?
a. Atrial septal defect b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Ventricular septal defect d. All of the above
1292. Which of the following is the LEAST common underlying cause of pulmonary
hypertension?
a. Atrial septal defect b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Ventricular septal defect d. Idiopathic primary pulmonary hypertension
1293. Mitral, valve prolapse most commonly presents with which of the following?
a. Syncope b. Chest pain c. Palpitations d. No symptoms
1294. Which of the following statements is true of rnitral valve prolapse?
a. It has a general population incidence of 12 to 15%
b. It is commonly associated with other cardiac lesions
c. It typically presents with palpitations and syncope
d. None of the above are true
1295. Which of the following etiological factors has been identified in women with
peripartum cardiomyopathy? (d)
a. Mitral stenosis b. Viral myocarditis
c. Chronic hypertension d. All of the above
1296. Myocardial biopsy in women with presumed idiopathic cardiomyopathy most
commonly reveals:
a. Gummas b. Myocarditis c. Caseting granulomas d. Myxomatous
1297. Which of the following conditions carries the highest risk for bacterial
endocarditis?
a. Mitral valve prolapse without valvar regurgitation
b. Cardiac pacemaker in place
c. Prior coronary bypass graft surgery
d. Porcine prosthetic cardiac valve in place
763

1298. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis, both
acute and subacute forms?
a. Streptococcus viridans b. Strephoccus aureus
c Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Streptococus pneumonia
1299. Which of the following is a nearly universal characteristic of endocarditis?
a. Fever b. Syncope
c. Headache d. Scleral petechiae
1300. Which of the following antimicrobial combinations is recommended for bacterial
endocarditis prophylaxis?
a. Ampicillin plus gentamicin b. Ampicillin plus doxycycline
c. Penicillin G plus doxycycline d. Vancomycin plus clindamycin
1301. Which of the following is contraindicated for the treatment of arrhythmias in
pregnancy?
a. Digoxin b. Cardiac pacemaker
c. Electrical cardioversion d. None of the above
1302. Which of the following is the most commonly seen cardiac arrhythmia?
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Complete heart block
d. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
1303. Which of the following, if chronic during pregnancy, requires heparin
anticoagulation therapy?
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c First-degree heart block
d. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
1304. Women are at increased risk for cardiovascular complications during pregnancy
with an aortic root diameter greater than:
a. 20mm b. 30 mm c. 40mm d. 50mm
1305. Which is the most commonly associated complication of aortic coarctation?
a. Aortic rupture b. Atrial fibrillation
c Tricuspid regurgitation d. Pulmonary hypertension
1306. Women are at the greatest mortality risk if a myocardial infarction occurs during
which of the following periods?
a. Early first trimester b. Early second trimester
c. Late second trimester d. Late third trimester
1307. The most common cause of nonfamilial left ventricular hypertrophy is which of the
following?
a. Diabetes b. Mitral stenosis
c Pulmonic stenosis d. Chronic systemic hypertension
1308. What is the most common cause of death in women with hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy?
a. Stroke b. Arrhythmia
c. Aortic dissection d.. Vascular occlusion
1309. What is the normal BMI?
a. 18.5 to 24.9 b. 25 to 29.9 c. 30.5 to 35.9 d. 50 to 55.9
764

1310. What BMI defines obesity?
a. Greater than equal to 30 b. Greater than equal to 35
c. Greater than equal to 40 d. Greater than equal to 50
1311. According to a recent report, which of the following is the most predictive of
hypertension in women?
a. BMl>30
b. History of sleep apnea
c. Thigh to waist (circumference) ratio <0.25
d. Waist circumference >88 cm
1312. The National Institute of Health defined the metabolic syndrome by all of the
following except:
a. Abdominal obesity b. Elevated high density lipoprotein (HDL)
c. Hypertension d. Hypertriglyceridemia
1313. What is the approximate overall prevalence of the metabolic syndrome?
a. 1% b. 5% c 10% d. 25%
1314. Which of the following shows increased mortality rates with increasing obesity?
a. All causes of death combined b. Cancer
c. Cardiovascular disease d. All of the above
1315. What is the current weight-related recommendation for pregnant women who are
obese?
a. Limit weight gain to less than 15 lb
b. Laparoscopic stomach banding procedure in first trimester
c Program to attempt weight loss of up to 30 Ib
d. No specific recommendations
1316. Obesity increases the risk of which obstetrical outcome?
a. Failed vaginal delivery after prior caesarean b. Gestational diabetes
c. Post-cesarean infection
d. All of the above
1317. Maternal obesity is a risk factor for all of the following fetal complications except:
a. Dizygotic twinning b. Fetal macrosomia
c. Neural-tube defects d. Stillbirth
1318. Successful bariatric surgery with resultant weight loss decreases the incidence of
which of the following in future pregnancies?
a. Gestational diabetes b. Hypertensive disorders
c. Fetal macrosomia d. All of the above
1319. What are the most common reasons for admission to an obstetrical intensive care
unit?
a. Gestational diabetes and severe hypertension
b. Obstetrical hemorrhage and severe hypertension
c. Obstetrical hemorrhage and gestational diabetes
d. Sepsis and severe hypertension
1320. Which of the following conditions is the least likely indication for invasive
hemodynamic monitoring?
a. Unexplained pulmonary edema b. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
c. Peripartum coronary artery disease d. Asthma
765

1321. What is the incidence of acute pulmonary edema complicating pregnancy?
a. 1 in 50 deliveries b. 1 in 100 deliveries
c 1 in 500 deliveries d. 1 in 1000 deliveries
1322. Which of the following colloid oncotic pressures is characteristic of severe
preeclampsia during the antepartum period?
a. 32mm H g b. 24mm Hg c. 16 mm Hg d. 4mm hg
1323. How much oxygen is carried by each gram of hemoglobin at 90% saturation?
a. 0.5mp b. 1.25mp c. 2.5mp d. 5mp
1324. Possible therapy for adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) includes all of
the following except
a. Artificial surfactant b. Nitric oxide
c Lipid mediator antagonist d. Interleukin antibodies
1325. Which of the following is most commonly associated with septic shock?
a. Enterobacteriaceae b. Anaerobic streptococci
c. Bacteroides species d. Clostridiuin species
1326. Which of the following produces an endotoxin as opposed to an exotoxin?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Group A streptococcus d. Escherichia coli
1327. Which of the following is directly released upon lysis of the cell wall of gram-
negetive bacteria?
a. Complement b. Kinins
c Lipopolysaccharide d. Tumor necrosis factor
1328. Of the following, what is not characteristics of the "warm phase of septic shock"
when treating with intravenous crystalloid?
a. Pulmonary hypotension b. Hypovolumia
c High cardiac output d. Low systemic vascular resistance
1329. What is the incidence of physical trauma in pregnancy?
a. 1 to 2% b. 5 to 7% c 10 to 20% d. 30 to 40%
1330. What percentage of" minor" maternal injuries are associated with traumatic
placental abruptions?
a. 1 to 6 b. 10 to 16 c. 20 to 26 d. 30 to 36
1331. Which of the following signs are most useful in predicting the absence of a
placental abruption following trauma?
a. Absence of uterine contractions b. Absence of bleeding
c. Presence of normal fetal heart tones
d. Absence of a tense painful uterus
1332. A 27-year-old woman is involved in a motor vehicle accident during her 7th month
of pregnancy. She denies contractions. What is the next step in management?
a. Deflect uterus away from pelvic vessels
b. Administer Rhogam if mother is Rh-negative
c. Fetal heart rate monitoring
d. All of the above
766

1333. What is the best management of a pregnant woman at 38 weeks gestation with
burns over 60% of her body?
a. Continuous electronic monitoring of the fetus b. Weekly biophysical profiles
c. Immediate delivery
d.Twice weekly contraction stress tests
1334. What percentage of infants delivered 12 minutes after maternal cardiopulmonary
arrest will be neurologically intact?
a. 10 b. 33 c. 83 d. 98
1335. Increased rates of maternal syphilis are linked to which of the following?
a. Substance abuse
b. Inadequate prenatal care
c. Human immunodeficiency virus(HIV)infection
d. All of the above
1336. Which of the following factors is not associated with Antenatal syphilis?
a. Fetal death b. Preterm labour
c. Neonatal infection d. Placental abruption
1337. At what gestational age does the fetus first manifest clinical disease if infected by
syphilis?
a. 6 weeks b. 8 to 10 weeks
c.12 weeks d. 18 weeks or more
1338. What is the gross appearance of the placenta in syphilitic infection?
a. Congested and small b. Congested and large
c. Pale and small d. Pale and large
1339. Which of the following is the most specific test for syphilis?
a. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test(FTA-ABS)
b. Gram stain of lesion exudates c. Rapid plasma regain test(RPR)
d. Venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL)
1340. What is the best test for diagnosis of neonatal syphilis?
a. Cord blood VDRL b. Motile spirochetes in amniotic fluid
c. Amniotic fluid polymerase chain reaction
d. Sonographic evidence of an enlarged placenta
1341. Which of the following is NOT typical of congenital syphilis?
a. Ascites b. Cerebral calcifications
c. Lymphadenopathy d. Rhinitis
1342. What is the treatment of choice for syphilis during pregnancy?
a. Tetracycline b. Doxycycline c. Erythromycin d. Penicillin
1343. Penicillin G cures what percentage of maternal and neonatal syphilis infections?
a. 70 b. 80 c. 90 d. 98
1344. Which of the following is the best treatment for syphilis in more than 1-year
duration?
a. Penicillin V, 250 mg qid x 1 0 days
b. Benzathine pencillin G, 2.4 million units TM x 1 dose
c. Benzathine pencillin C, 2.4 million units TM weekly x 3 doses
d. Aqueous pencillin G, 4 million units every 4 hrs for 30 days
767

1345. What is the best treatment of syphilis in pregnant women who are allergic to
pencillin?
a. Ceftriaxone b. Erythromycin
c. Tetracycline d. Pencillin desensitization
1346. Which of the following antibiotics may be curative of syphilis in the mother but
may not prevent congenital syphilis?
c.Tetracycline d. Penicillin
1347. Which of the following treatment protocols is appropriate for the asymptomatic
infant whose mother was treated with erythromycin for syphilis?
a. Pencillin C, IV or TM for 10 days b. Erythromycin, 500 mg p0 for 4 doses
c. Treat only if stigmata are present d. No treatment necessary
1348. Which of the following is a risk factor for gonorrhea?
a. Married b. Age>35yrs
c. High socioeconomic status d. Lack of prenatal care
1349. Pregnant women with gonorrhea frequently have concurrent infection with which
of the following'?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Haemophilus ducreyi
1350. What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated gonorrhoea in pregnancy?
c. Tetracycline d. Penicillin
1351. Which of the following is used to treat gonorrhea in pregnant women allergic to B
lactum drugs?
a. Ciprofloxacin b. Cefixime
c. Doxycycline d. Spectinomycin
1352. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation sign of disseminated gonococcal
infection in adults?
a. Blindness b. Pustular skin lesions
c. Arthralgia d. Endocarditis
1353. Which of the following is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease
in women?
a. Gonorrhea b. Herpes simplex virus infection
c. Chancroid d. Chlamydial infection
1354. Which of the following is the most common presentation of chlamydial infection in
pregnancy?
a. Asymptomatic infection b. Complaint of vaginal discharge
c. Septic abortion d. Fetal growth restriction
1355. Vertical transmission of chlamydia is associated with which of the following
neonatal infections?
a. Sepsis b. Conjunctivitis c. Urinary tract infection d. Dermatitis
1356. Infants who develop C. trachomatis pneumonitis are LEAST likely to demonstrate
which of the following clinical features?
a. Chronic cough b. Fever
c Poor weight gain d. Pulmonary Infiltrates
768

1357. Lymphogranuloma venereum is most difficult to differentiate from which of the
following?
a. Chancroid b. Granuloma inguinale
c. Herpes virus vulvitis d. Syphilis
1358. Nongenital herpesvirus infectons are generally caused by which of the following?
a. HSV-1 b. HSV-2 c. HSV-6 d. HSV-11
1359. How long it takes for all signs and symptoms primary herpes virus infection to
resolve?
a. 3-5 days b. 7-10 days c. 14-28 days d. 35-50 days
1360. Which of the following is the "gold standard" for the diagnosis of genital herpes
virus infection in adults? (a)
a. Tissue culture b. ELlSA
c. DNA probes d. Cervical smear cytological examination
1361. During which period neonatal herpes virus infection occurs most frequently?
a. Antenatal b. Across intact foetal membrane
c. Peripartom d. Postnatally
1362. What is the most common mode of transmission of HIV?
a. Fecal-orally b. Parentrally
c. Sexually d Perinatally
1363. What is the screening test for HIY?
a. Viral p24 antigen assay
b. HIV antibody enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
c. H1V antibody western blot
d. HIV antibody immunofluorescence assay(IFA)
1364. What is the rate of perinatal transmission of the HIV virus in untreated women?
a. 5 to 10% b. 1 5 to 40% c. 50 to 60% d 80 to 90%
1365. Which of the following increases the risk of perinatal HIV transmission?
a. High maternal plasma HIV RNA level
b. Premature delivery
c. Prolonged rupture of membranes
d. All of the above
1366. What is the rate of perinatal transmission in women given HAART (highly active
antiretroviral therapy)?
a. <2% b. 8% c. 15% d. 25%
1367. How is the HIV transmission risk-affected by breastfeeding?
a. Increased b. Decreased
c. Unaffected d. Unknown
1368. What is the etiology of mucocutaneous external genital warts?
a. Treponema pallidum b. Human papillomavirus
c. Parvovirus d. Haemophilus ducreyi
1369. What is a useful modality for treatment of condylomata acuminata during
pregnancy? (c)
a. Podophvllin resin b. Interferon
c. Trichloroacetic acid d. 5-fluorouracil
769

1370. What is the etiology of soft chancres?
a. Treponema pallidum b. Human papillomavirus
c. Parvovirus d. Haemophilus ducreyi
1371. What is the drug of choice for chancroid in pregnancy?
a. Ceftriaxone, 125mg TM once b. Erythromycin, 250 mg bid for 3 days
c. Azithromycin, 1 g once d. Metronidazole, 2g once
1372. What is the average incubation time for primary herpesvirus infection?
1373. The early stages of neonatal infection may be associated with all of the following
clinical signs except:
a. Jaundice b. Respiratory depression
c. Hypothermia d. Hyperthermia
1374. The most common pathogens of ascending infection leading to neonatal sepsis
and still birth do not include which of the following?
a. Escherichia coli b. Ureaplasma urealyticum
c. Bacteroides fragilis d. Group B streptococcus
1375. Varicella-zoster infection is typically most severe in which of the fallowing?
a. Adolescents b. Children
c. Nonpregnant adults d. Pregnant women
1376. During 22 weeks of gestation a woman developes varicellazoster infection, what
is the risk congenital varicella infection?
a. Highest after 20 weeks gestation
b. Highest between 13 and 20 weeks gestation
c. The same regardless of gestational age
d. Highest prior to 13 weeks gestation
1377. When should varicella-zoster immunoglobulin be administered to the newborn in
the presence of maternal chickenpox?
a. Delivery within 5 days of maternal disease
b. Delivery within 10 days of maternal disease
c. Delivery within 15 days of maternal disease
d. Delivery within 20 days of maternal disease
1378. What associated pregnancy complications are increased in women with measles?
a. Preeclampsia b. Abortion
c. Fetal anomalies d. Abruptio a placenta
1379. Which of the following adverse fetal effects has been reported to be caused by
maternal parvovirus?
a. Microcephaly b. Hydlocephaly
c Hydrops d. Cardiac defects
1380. In addition to a maculopapular rash, maternal rubella infection commonly resents
with which of the following?
a. Pneumonitis b. Arthritis
c Esophagitis d. Encephalitis
1381. Congenital rubella syndrome is most commonly acquired during which weeks of
gestation?
a. 8- I 0 b. 12-14 c. 16-18 d. 36-38
770

PHARMACOLOGY
1. Pharmacokinetics is
a. The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c. The study of mechanism of drug action
d. The study of methods of new drug development
2. What does “pharmacokinetics” include ?

a. Complications of drug therapy
b. Drug biotransformation in the organism
c. Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d. Influence of drugs on genes
3. What does “Pharmacokinetics” include ?

a. Pharmacological effects of drugs
b. Unwanted effects of drugs
c. Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d. Distribution of drugs in the organism
4. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

a. Localization of drug action
b. Mechanisms of drug action
c. Excretion of substances
d. Interaction of substances
5. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is

a. Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b. Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c. Endocytosis and exocytosis
d. Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
6. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

a. Lipid-soluble
b. Non-ionized substances
c. Hydrophobic substances
d. Hydrophilic substances
7. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

a. Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
b. Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
c. Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
d. High reabsorption in renal tubules
771

8. What is implied by <<active transport
a. Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b. Transport without energy consumption
c. Engulf of drugs by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation
d. Transport against concentration gradient
9. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

a. Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c. Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route
administration
d. Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
10. The reasons determing bioavailability are:

a. Rheological parameters of blood
b. Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
c. Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
d. Glomerular filtration rate
11. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs
through liver is minimized:
a. Oral b. Transdermal
c. Rectal d. Intraduodenal
12. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect? (b)
a. Sublingual b. oral
c. intravenous d. intramuscular
13. What is characteristic of the oral route?

a. Fast onset of effect
b. Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
c. A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d. The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
14. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

a. Pretty fast absorption
b. A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c. A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d. A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
15. Parenteral administration:

a. Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
b. Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
c. Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d. Is too slow for emergency use
772

16. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a. Only water solutions can be injected b. Oily solutions can be injected
c. Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
d. The action develops slower, than at oral administration
17. Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug administration

include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Intravenous administration provides a rapid response
b. Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique
c. Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation
d. Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation
18. Biological barriers include except:

a. Renal tubules b. Cell membranes
c. Capillary walls d. Placenta
19. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood
barrier?
a. High lipid solubility of a drug
b. Meningitis
c. Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d. High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
20. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:

a. Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b. An administrated dose to a body weight
c. An Uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d. The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
21. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a. Concentration of a substance in plasma
b. Concentration of substance in urine
c. Therapeutical width of drug action
d. A daily dose of drug
22. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:

a. Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b. Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c. Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d. Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
23. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:

a. Less ionized
b. More pharmacologically active
c. More lipid soluble
d. Less lipid soluble
773

24. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a. Lipid soluble
b. Water soluble
c. Low molecular weight
d. High molecular weight
25. Pick out the right statement:

a. Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b. Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c. Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
d. Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus its
excretion from the organism is facilitate
26. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:

a. Require the dose increase of some drugs
b. Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c. Prolong the duration of the action of a drug
d. Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
27. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is :

a. Acetylation and methylation of substances
b. Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c. Glucuronide formation
d. Binding to plasma proteins
28. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results

a. Faster urinary excretion
b. Slower urinary excretion
c. Easier distribution in organism
d. Higher binding to membranes
29. Conjugation is :
a. Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b. Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c. Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d. Solubilization in liqids
30. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation
? (a)
a. Acetylation b. Reduction
c. Oxidation d. Hydrolysis
31. Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:

a. Glucoronidation b. Sulfate formation
c. Hydrolysis d. Methylation
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32. In case of liver disorder accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the
duration of action of some drugs is : (b)
a. Decreased b. Enlarged
c. Remained unchanged d. Changed insignificantly
33. Half life (t ½) is the time required to

a. Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b. Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c. Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d. Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
34. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on :

a. Biotransformation
b. Time of drug absorption
c. Concentration of a drug in plasma
d. Rate of drug dlimination
35. Elimination is expressed as follows :

a. Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
b. Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance
c. Time required to decrease the amount of drug in plasma by one-half
d. Clearance of an organism from a xenobiotic
36. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the following parameter :

a. Rate of absorption b. Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
c. Highest single dose d. Half life (t ½)
37. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related with :

a. Only the concentration of substances in plasma
b. Only the elimination rate constant
c. Volume of distribution, half life and elimination rate constant
d. Bioavailability and half life
38. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT :

a. Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b. Absorption and distribution of drugs
c. Mechanisms of drug action
d. Drug interactions
39. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

a. Mechanisms of drug action
b. Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c. Distribution of drugs in the organism
d. Excretion of drug from the organism
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40. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a. Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b. Information about unwanted effects
c. Information about biological barriers
d. Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
41. What does “affinity” mean ?

a. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c. A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d. A measure of bioavailability of a drug
42. Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are :

a. Only receptors b. Only ion channels
c. Only carriers d. All of the above
43. An agonist is a substance that :

a. Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b. Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various
effects.
c. Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
44. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called
a. Partial agonist b. Antagonist c. Agonist-antagonist d. Full agonist
45. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called :
a. Partial agonist b. Antagonist c. Agonist-antagonist d. Full agonist
46. An antagonist is a substance that :

a. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect
b. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal
effect
c. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
d. Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions
47. A Competitive antagonist is a substance that :

a. Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b. Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c. Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d. Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
48. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an
antagonist is called :
a. Competitive antagonist b. Irreversible antagonist
c. Agonist-antagonist d. Partial agonist
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49. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to :
a. Ionic bonds b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Covalent bonds d. All of the above
50. Mechanisms of the transmembrane signaling are the following EXCEPT :

a. Transmembrane receptors that bind and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
b. Gene replacement by the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic effect
c. Ligandgated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by binding a ligand
d. Transmembrance receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal transducer
protein (Gprotein) which in turngenerates an intracellular second messenger
51. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor :

a. Adenylyl cyclase b. Sodium icons
c. Phospholipase C d. CAMP
52. Tick the substance which changes the activity of an effector element but doesn’t
belong to second messengers :
a. cAMP b. cGMP
c. G-protein d. Calcium ions
53. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+, etc.) concentration leads to
:
a. Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b. Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c. Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d. Antagonism with endogenous ligands
54. Tick the substances whose mechanisms are based on interaction with ion channels
a. Sodium channel blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Potassium channels activators
d. All of the above
55. All of the following statement about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT :
a. Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b. Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c. Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are
needed to produce the same effect
d. The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy
56. Give the definition for a therapeutical dose :

a. The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b. The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c. The amount of a substance to produce the accelerate an increase of concentration of
medicine in an organism
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57. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose :
a. The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b. The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c. The amount of a substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d. The amount of a substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an
organism
58. Which effect may lead to toxic reaction when a drug is taken continuously or
repeatedly ?
a. Refractoriness
b. Cumulative effect
c. Tolerance
d. Tachyphylaxis
59. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug,
taking days a weeks to develop ?
a. Refractoriness b. Cumulative effect
c. Tolerance d. Tachyphylaxis
60. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which

develops in a few minutes ?
a. Refractoriness b. Cumulative effect
c. Tolerance d. Tachyphylaxis
61. Tachyphylaxis is :
a. A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b. Very rapidy developing tolerance
c. A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
62. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of

a. Drug dependence
b. Increased metabolic degradation
c. Depressed renal drug excretion
d. Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
63. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of :

a. Change of receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators
b. Increased receptor sensitivity
c. Decreased metabolic degradation
d. Decreased renal tubular secretion
64. Tolerance develops because of :

a. Diminished absorption b. Rapid excretion of a drug
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65. The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious
psychological and somatic disturbances is called ?
a. Tachyphylaxis
b. Sensibilization
c. Abstinence syndrome
d. Idiosyncrasy
66. What is the type of drug-to drug interaction which is connected with processes of
absorption, biotransformation, distribution and excretion ?
a. Pharmacodynamic interaction
b. Physical and chemical interaction
c. Pharmaceutical interaction
d. Pharmacokinetic interaction
67. What is the type of drug-to drug interaction which is the result of interaction at
receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level ?
a. Pharmocodynamic interaction
b. Physical and chemical interaction
c. Pharmaceutical interaction
d. Pharmacokinetic interaction
68.What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs ?

a. Tolerance b. Tachyphylaxis
c. Accumlation d. Synergism
69. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in
magnitude to the sum of the effects of the drugs given individually, it is called us :
a. Antagonism b. Potentiation
c. Additive effect d. None of the above
70. What does the term “potentiation” mean ?

a. Cumulative ability of a drug
b. Hypersensitivity to a drug
c. Fast tolerance developing
d. Intensive increase of drug effects due to their combination
71. The types of antagonism are :

a. Summarized b. Potentiated
c. Additive d. Competitive
72. The term “chemical antagonism” means that :

a. two drugs combine with one another to form an inactive compound
b. two drugs combine with one another to form a more active compound
c. two drugs combine with one another to form a more water soluble compound
d. two drugs combine with one another to form a more fat soluble compound
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73. A teratogenic action is :
a. Toxic action on the liver
b. Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c. Toxic action on blood system
d. Toxic action on kidneys
74. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t related to a dose or to a

pharmacodynamic property of a drug is called :
a. Idiosyncrasy b. Hypersensitivity
c. Tolerance d. Teratogenic action
75. Idiosyncratin reaction of a drug is :

a. A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b. A type of drug antagonism
c. Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug
d. Quantitatively exaggerated response
76. Therapeutic index (TI) is :

a. A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug for indication
b. A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
c. A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
d. A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a drug
77. Local anesthetics produce :

a. Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness
b. Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness
c. Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness
d. A stupor or somnolent state
78. A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause :

a. Local irritation and tissue damage
b. Systemic toxicity
c. Fast onset and long duration of action
d. Vasodilatation
79. Most local anesthetic agents consist of :

a. Lipophylic group (frequently an aromatic ring)
b. Intermediate chain (commonly including an ester or amide)
c. Amino group
d. All of the above
80. Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local
anesthetic action ?
a. Intermediate chain b. Lipophylic group
c. lonizable group d. All of the above
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81. Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action :
a. Lidocaine b. Procaine
c. Bupivacaine d. Ropivacaine
82. Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of
local anesthetics?
a. lonizable group b. Intermediate chain
c. Lipophylic group d. All of the above
83. Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action :
a. Lidocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Procaine d. Mepivacaine
84. lonizable group is responsible for :

a. The potency and the toxicity
b. The duration of action
c. The ability to diffuse to the site of action
d. All of the above
85. Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid ?
a. Lidocaine b. Procaine
c. Ropivacaine d. Cocaine
86. Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid :

a. Mepivacaine b. Cocaine
c. Procaine d. Lidocaine
87. Which of the following local anesthetics is an acetanilide derivative ?

a. Tetracaine b. Lidocaine c. Cocaine d. Procaine
88. Indicate the local anesthetic, which is a toluidine derivative :

a. Lidocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Prilocaine d. Procaine
89. Which of the following local anesthetics is a thiophene derivative :

a. Procaine b. Ultracaine c. Lidocaine d. Mepivacaine
90. Local anesthetics are :

a. Weak bases b. Weak acids c. Salts d. None of the
above
91. For therapeutic application local anesthetics are usually made available as salts for
the reasons of :
a. Less toxically and higher potency
b. Higher stability and greater lipid solubility
c. Less local tissue damage and more potency
d. More stability and greater water solubility
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92. Which of the following statements is not correct for local anesthetics?
a. in a tissue they exist either as an uncharged base or as a cation
b. A charged cationic form penetrates biologic membranes more readily than an
uncharged form
c. Local anesthetics are much less effective in inflamed tissues
d. Low ph in inflamed tissues decreases the dissociation of nonionized molecules
93. Which one of the following statements about the metabolism of local anesthetics in
incorrect ?
a. Metabolism of local anesthetics occurs at the site of administration
b. Metabolism occurs in the plasma or liver but not at the site of administration
c. Ester group of anesthetics like procaine, are metabolized systemically by
pseudocholinesterase
d. Amides such as lidocaine, are metabolized in the liver by microsomal mixed function
oxidases
94. Indicate the anesthetic agent of choice in patient with a liver disease:
a. Lidocaine b. Bupivacaine
c. Procaine d. Etidocaine
95. Which of the following local anesthetics is preferable in patient with

pseudocholinesterase deficiency?
a. Procaine b. Ropivacaine
c. Tetracaine d. Benzocaine
96. The primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics is :

a. Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels
b. Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
c. Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels
d. Blockade the GABA-gated chloride channels
97. Which of the following local anesthetics is more water-soluble ?

a. Tetracaine b. Etidocaine
c. Procaine d. Bupivacaine
98. Indicate the local anesthetic, which is more lipid-soluble:

a. Bupivacaine b. Lidocaine
c. Mepivacaine d. Procaine
99. The more lipophylic drugs :

a. Are more potent
b. Have longer duration of action
c. Bind more extensively to proteins
d. All of the above
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100. Which of the following fibers is the first to be blocked
a. Type A alpha fibers b. B and C fibers
c. Type A beta fibers d. Type A gamma fibers
101. Indicate the function, which the last to be blocked :

a. Pain, temperature
b. Muscle spindles
c. Motor function
d. Touch, pressure
102. Which of the following fibers participates in high-frequency pain transmission ?

a. Type A delta and C fibers
b. Type A alpha fibers
c. Type B fibers
d. Type A beta fibers
103. Which of the following local anesthetics is an useful antiarrhythmic agent?

a. Cocaine b. Lodocaine
104. Indicate the route of local anesthetic administration, which is associated with
instillation within epidural or subarachnoidspaces :
a. Topical anesthesia b. Infiltrative anesthesia
c. Regional anesthesia d. Spinal anesthesia
105. The choice of a local anesthetic for specific procedure is usually based on :
a. The duration of action
b. Water solubility
c. Capability of rapid penetration through the skin or mucosa with limited tendency to
diffuse away from the site of application
d. All of the above
106. Which of the following local anesthetics is a short-acting drug ?

a. Procaine b. Bupivacaine
107. Indicate the local anesthetic, which is a long-acting agent :

c. procaine d. Mepivacaine
108. The anesthetic effect of the agents of short and intermediate duration of action can
not be prolonged by adding :
a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine d. Phenylephrine
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109. A vasoconstrictor does not :
a. Retard the removal of drug from the injection site
b. Hence the chance of toxicity
c. Decrease the blood level
d. Reduce a local anesthetic uptake by the nerve
110. Vasoconstrictors are less effective in prolonging anesthetic properties of:

c. Lidocaine d. Mepivacaine
111. Which of the following local anesthetics is only used for surface or topical
anesthesia?
a. Cocaine b. Tetracaine
c. Procaine d. Bupivacaine
112. Indicate the local anesthetic, which is mainly used for regional nerve block
anesthesia:
a. Dibucaine b. Bupivacaine
c. Tetracaine d. Cocaine
113. Which of the following local anesthetics is used for infiltrative and regional
anesthesia?
a. Procaine b. Lidocaine
c. Mepivacaine d. All of the above
114. Indicate the local anesthetic, which is used for spinal anesthetic:
a. Tetracaine b. Cocaine c. Dibucaine d. Bupivacaine
115. Which of the following local anesthetics is called a universal anesthetic?

a. Procaine b. Ropivacaine c. Lidocaine d. Bupivacaine
116. Most serious toxic reation to local anesthetics is: (d)

a. Seizure b. Cardiovascular collapse
c. Respiratory failure d. All of the above
117. Correct statements concerning cocaine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Cocaine is often used for nose and throat procedures
b. Limited use because of abuse potential
c. Myocardial depression and peripheral vasodilatation
d. Causes sympathetically mediated tachycardia and vasoconstriction
118. Which of the following local anesthetics is more cardiotoxic?

c. Lidocaine d. Mepivacaine
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119. Most local anesthetics can cause:
a. Depression of abnormal cardiac pacemaker activity, excitability, conduction
b. Depression of the strength of cardiac contraction
c. Cardiovascular collapse
d. All of the above
120. Which one of the following local anesthetics causes methemoglobinemia?

a. Prilocaine b. Procaine
c. Lidocaine d. Ropivacaine
121. Procaine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a. It has ester linkage
b. Its metabolic product can inhibit the action of sulfonamides
c. It readily penetrates the skin and mucosa
d. It is relatively short-acting
122. Correct statements concerning lidocaine all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It is an universal anesthetic
b. It has esteratic linkage
c. It widely used as an antiarrhythmic agent
d. It is metabolized in liver
123. Which of the following local anesthetics is more likely to cause allergic reactions? ©
c. Procaine d. Ropivacaine
124. Tetracaine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a. Slow onset b. Low potency
c. Long duration d. High toxicity
125. Correct statements concerning bupivacaine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It has low cardiotoxicity
b. It has amide linkage
c. It is a long-acting drug
d. An intravenous injection can lead to seizures
126. Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

a. Sympathetic ganglia
b. Sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
c. Parasympathetic ganglia
d. Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
127. Muscarinic receptors are located in:

a. Autonomic ganglia b. Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions
c. Autonomic effector cells d. Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone
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128. Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:
a. Heart b. Glands
c. Smooth muscle d. Endothelium
129. The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting
b. Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia, hallucination
c. Headache, abdominal colic
d. Bradycardia, hypotension and shock
130. Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic
receptors?
a. Lobeline b. pilocarpine
c. Nicotine d. Bethanechol
131. Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

a. Edrophonium b. Physostigmine
c. Carbachol d. Isoflurophate
132. Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It decreases intraocular pressure
b. It causes mydriasis
c. It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects
d. It is resistant to acethylcholiesterase
133. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

a. It is very toxic
b. The doses required are very high
c. It is very rapidly hydrolyzed
d. It is very costly
134. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

a. Bronchodilation b. Mydriasis
c. Bradycardia d. Constipation
135. Which of the following directacting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of
action?
a. Bethanechol b. Carbachol
c. Acetylcholine d. None of the above
136. Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics has the shortest duration of
action?
a. Acetylcholine b. Methacholine
c. Carbachol d. Bethanechol
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137. Bethanechol has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a. It is extremely resistant to hydrolysis
b. Purely muscarinic in its action
c. It is used for abdominal urinary bladder distention
d. It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects
138. A M-cholinimimetic agent is:

a. Carbachol b. Pilocarpine
c. Acetylcholine d. Bethanechol
139. Characteristics of pilocarpine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It is a tertiary amine alkaloid
b. It causes miosis and a decrease in intraocular pressure
c. Causes a decrease in secretory and motor activity of gut
d. It is useful in the treatment of glaucoma
140. Which of the following cholinomimetics is a plant derivative with lower potency than
nicotine but with a similar spectrumof action?
a. Lobeline b. Pilocarpine
c. Carbochol d. Acetylcholine
141. Which of the following cholinomimetics is indirect-acting?

a. Lobeline b. Edrophonium
c. Pilocarpin d. Carbachol
142. The mechanism of action of indirect acting cholinomimetic agents is:

a. Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
b. Inhibition of the bydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
c. Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase
d. Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites
143. Indicate a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:

a. Isoflurophate b. Carbochol
c. Physostigmine d. Parathion
144. Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible?

a. Physostigmine b. Edrophonium
c. Neostigmine d. Isoflurophate
145. Indicate cholinesterase activator:

a. Pralindoxime b. Edrophonium
c. Pilocarpine d. Isoflurophate
146. Isoflurophate increases all of the following effects except:

a. Lacrimation b. Bronchodilation
c. Muscle twitching d. Salivation
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147. Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist
effect: ©
a. Edrophonium b. Carbochol
c. Neostigmin d. Lobeline
148. Cholinesterase inhibitors do not produce:

a. Bradycardia, no change or modest fall in blood pressure
b. Increased strength of muscle contraction, especially in muscles weakened by
myasthenia gravis
c. Miosis and reduction of intraocular pressure
d. Dramatic hypertension and tachycardia
149. Which of the following cholinomimetics is commonly used in the treatment of
glaucoma?
a. Pilacarpine b. Lobeline
c. Acethylcholine d. Neostigmine
150. Indicate the organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor, which can be made up in an

aqueous solution for ophthalmic useand retains its activity within a week :
c. Echothiophate d. Neostigmine
151. Which of the following cholinomimetics is most widely used for paralytic ileus and
atony of the urinary bladder?
a. Lobeline b. Neostigmine
c. Pilocarpine d. Echothiophate
152. Chronic long-time therapy of myasthenia is usually accomplished with :

a. Edrophonium b. Neostigmine
c. Echothiophat d. Carbachol
153. Which of the following cholinomimetics is a drug of choice for reversing the effects
of nondepolarizing neuromuscular relaxants?
a. Echothiophate b. Physostigmine
c. Edrophonium d. Pilocarpine
154. Indicate the reversible cholinesterase inhibitor, which pernetrates the blood-brain
barrier :
c. Neostigmine d. Piridostigmine
155. Which of the following cholinomimetics is used in the treatment of atropine

intoxication?
a. Neostigmine b. Carbochol
c. Physostigmine d. Lobeline
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156. The symptoms of excessive stimulation of muscarinic receptors include all of the
following EXCEPT :
a. Abdominal cramps, diarrhea
b. Increased salivation, excessive bronchial secretion
c. Miosis, bradycardia
d. Weakness of all skeletal muscles
157. The excessive stimulation of muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine and choline esters
is blocked competitively by :
a. Edrophonium b. Atropine
c. Pralidoxime d. Echothiophate
158. The toxic effects of a large dose of nicotine include all of the following EXCEPT :
a. Hypotension and bradycardia
b. Convulsions, coma and respiratory arrest
c. Skeletal muscle depolarization blockade and respiratory paralysis
d. Hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias
159. The dominant initial sights of acute cholinesterase inhibitors intoxication include all
of the following except :
a. Salivation, sweating b. Mydriasis
c. Bronchial constriction d. Vomiting and diarrhea
160. Which of the following drugs is used for acute toxic effects of organohphosphate
cholinesterase inhibitors?
a. Atropine b. Pilocarpine
c. Pralidoxime d. Edrophonium
161. The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of :

a. Ganglion-blockers
b. Atropine-similar drugs
c. Neuromuscular junction blockers
d. Both a and c
162. M3 receptor subtype is located

a. In the myocardium
b. In sympathetic postganglionic neurons
c. On effector cell membrances of glandular and smooth muscle cells
d. On the motor end plates
163. Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?
a. Atropine b. Benztropine
c. Hexamethonium d. Succinylcholine
164. Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

a. Scopolamine b. Pipecuronium c. Trimethaphan d. Pilocarpine
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165. Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?
a. Homatropine b. Hexamethonium
c. Rapacuronium d. Edrophonium
166. Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent :

a. Vencuronium b. Scopolamine
c. Succinylcholine d. Hexamethonium
167. Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

a. Pancuronium b. Succinylcholine
c. Hexamethonium d. Scopolamine
168. Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater
effect than most other antimuscarinicagents?
a. Atropine b. Scopolamine
c. Homatropine d. Ipratropium
169. The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs
EXCEPT :
a. Eye b. Heart
c. Smooth muscle organs d. Glands
170. The mechanism of atropine action is :

a. Competitive ganglion blockade
b. Competitive muscarinic blockade
c. Competitive neuromuscular blockade
d. Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockade
171. The tissues most sensitive to atropine are

a. The salivary, bronchial and sweat glands b. The gastric parietal cells
c. Smooth muscle and autonomic effectors d. The heart
172. Atropine is highly selective for:

a. M1 receptor subtype b. M2 receptor subtype
c. M3 receptor subtype d. All of the above
173. Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is often effective in preventing or

reversing vestibular disturbances, especially motion sickness?
a. Atropine b. Ipratropium c. Scopolamine d. Homatropine
174. Atropine causes:

a. Miosis, a reduction in intraocular pressure and cyclospasm
b. Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia
c. Miosis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia
d. Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular pressure and cycloplegia
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175. Patients complain of dry or “sandy” eyes when receiving large dose of:
a. Atropine b. Hexamethonium
c. Pilocarpine d. Carbachol
176. All of the following parts of the heart are very sensitive to muscarinic receptor
blockade except:
a. Atria b. Sinoatrial node
c. Atrioventricular d. Ventricle

a. Bradycardia, hypotension and bronchoconstriction
b. Tachycardia, little effect on blood pressure and bronchodilation
c. Decrease in contractile strength, conduction velocity through the AV node
d. Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and bronchodilation
178. Atropine is frequently used prior to administration of inhalant anesthetics to reduce:

a. Muscle tone b. Secretions
c. Nausea and vomiting d. All of the above
179. Atropine is now rarely used for the treatment of peptic ulcer because of:
a. Slow gastric empting and prolongation of the exposure of the ulcer bed to acid
b. Low efficiency and necessity of large doses
c. Adverse effects
d. All of the above
180. Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is a selective M1 blocker?

a. Atropine b. Scopolamine
c. Pirenzepine d. Homatropine

a. Spasmolitic activity
b. Intestinal hypermotility
c. Stimulation of contraction in the gut
d. Stimulation of secretory activity
182. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of uterine spasms?
a. Carbachol b. Vecuronium
c. Atropine d. Edrophonium
183. Atropine may cause a rise in body temperature (atropine fever)

a. In adults b. In pregnant women
c. In infants and children d. All of the above
184. The pharmacologic actions of scopolamine most closely resemble those of:
a. Hexamethonium b. Atropine c. Succinylcholine d. Pilocarpine
791

185. Compared with atropine, scopoilamine has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a. More marked central effect
b. Less potent in decreasing bronchial, salivary and sweat gland secretion
c. More potent in producing mydriasis and cycloplegia
d. Lower effects on the heart, bronchial muscle and intestines
186. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease?
a. Benztropine b. Edrophonium
c. Succinylcholine d. Hexamethonium
187. Indicate the antimuscarinic drug, which is used as a mydriatic:

a. Pilocarpine b. Neostigmine
c. Homatropine d. Ipratropium
188. Which of the following agents is used as an inhalation drug in asthma?

a. Atropine b. Ipratropium
c. Lobeline d. Homatropine
189. Which of the following agents is most effective in regenerating cholinesterase

associated with skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions?
a. Suscinilcholine b. pralidoxime
c. Pirenzepine d. Propiverine
190. Indicate an antimuscarinic drug, which is effective in the treatment of mushroom

poising:
a. Pralidoxime b. Pilocarpine
c. Homatropine d. Atropine
191. Antimuscarincs are used in the treatment of the following disorders EXCEPT:
a. Motion sickness b. Glaucoma
c. Hyperhidrosis d. Asthma
192. The atropine poisoning includes all of the following symptoms EXCEPT:
a. Mydriasis, cycloplegia
b. Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin
c. Agitation and delirium
d. Bradicardia, orthostatic hypotension
193. The treatment of the antimuscarinic effects can be carried out with:
a. Neostigmine b. Hexametonium
c. Homatropine d. Acetylcholine
194. Contraindications to the use of antimuscarinic drugs are all of the following except:
a. Glaucoma b. Myasthenia
c. Bronchial asthma d. Paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary bladder
792

195. Hexanethonium blocks the action of acethylcholine and similar agonists at:
a. Muscarinic receptor site b. Neuromuscular junction
c. Autonomic ganglia d. Axonal transmission
196. The applications of the ganglion blockers have disappeared because of all of the
following reasons EXCEPT:
a. Orthostatic hypotension
b. Lack of selectivity
c. Homeostatic reflexes block
d. Respiratory depression
197. Which of the following agents is a short-acting ganglion blocker?

a. Homatropine b. Trimethaphane
c. Hexaxethonium d. Pancuronium
198. Indicate the ganglionblocking drug, which can be taken orally for the treatment of
hypertension?
a. Mecamylamine b. Scopolamine
c. Trimethaphane d. Vecocuronium
199. The systemic effects of hexamethonium include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Reduction of both peripheral vascular resistance and venous return
b. Partial mydriasis and loss of accommodation
c. Constipation and urinary retention
d. Stimulation of thermoregulatory sweating
200. Ganglion blocking drugs are used for the following emergencies EXCEPT:
a. Hypertensive crises b. Controlled hypotension
c. Cardiovascular collapse d. Pulmonary edema

PHARMACOLOGY
201. Agents that produce neuromuscular blockade act by inhibiting:

a. Interaction of acetylcholine with cholinergic receptors
b. Release of acetylcholine from prejunctional membrane
c. Packaging of acetylcholine into synaptic vesicles
d. Reuptake of acetylcholine into the nerve ending
793

202. Skeletal muscle relaxation and paralysis can occur from interruption of functions at
several sites, including all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
b. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
c. The motor end plate
d. Contractile apparatus
203. Nondepolarisation neuromuscular blocking agents:

a. Block acetylcholine reuptake
b. Prevent access of the transmitter to its receptor and depolarization
c. Block transmission by an excess of a depolarizing agonist
d. All of the above
204. Which of the following drugs has “double-acetylcholine” structure?

a. Rocuronium b. Carbachol
c. Atracurium d. Succylcholine
205. Indicate the long-acting neuromuscular blocking agent:

a. Rapacuronium b. Mivacurium
c. Tubocurarine d. Rocuronium
206. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs is an intermediate-duration

muscle relaxant?
a. Vecuronium b. Tubocurarine
c. Pancuronium d. Rapacuronium
207. Indicate the nondepolarizing agent, which has the fastest onset of effect?
a. Succinylcholine b. Rapacuronium
c. Pancuronium d. Tubocurarine
208. Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, whose breakdown product readily crosses the
blood –brain barrier and may cause seizures:
a. Pancuronium b. Succinylcholine
c. Tubocurarine d. Atracurium
209. Which competitive neuromuscular blocking agent could be used in patients with
renal failure?
a. Atracurium b. succinylcholine
c. Pipecuronium d. Doxacurium
210. Indicate the nondeploarizing agent, which has short duration of action:
a. Succinylcholine b. Tubocurarine c. Mivacurium d. Pancuronium
211. Which depolarizing agent has the extremely brief duration of action?
a. Mivacurium b. Rapacuronium
c. Rocuronium d. Succinylcholine
794

212. Neuromuscular blockade by both succinylcholine and mivacurium may be
prolonged in patients with:
a. Renal failure
b. An abnormal variant of plasma cholinesterase
c. Hepatic disease
d. Both b and c
213. Depolarizing agents include all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a. Interact with nicotinic receptor to compete with acetylcholine without receptor
activation
b. React with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarization of the
end plate
c. Cause desensitization, noncompetive block manifested by flaccid paralysis
d. Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have the ability to reverse the blockade
214. Which of the following neuromuscular blockers causes transient muscle

fasciculations?
a. Mivacurium b. Pancuronium
c. Succinylcholine d. Tubocurarine
215. Indicate muscles, which are more resistant to block and recover more rapidly:
a. Hand b. Leg
c. Neck d. Diaphragm
216. Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the potential to cause the greatest release
of histamine?
a. Succylcholine b. Tubocurarine
c. Pancuronium d. Rocuronium
217. Which of the following muscular relaxants causes hypotension and broncospasm?
a. Vecuronium b. Succinylcholine
c. Tubocurarine d. Rapacuronium
218. Indicate the neuromuscular blocker, which causes tachycardia:

a. Tubocurarine b. Atracurium
c. Pancuronium d. Succinylcholine
219. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents cause cardiac arrhythmias?
a. Vecurronium b. Tubocurarine c. Rapacuraonium d. Sucinylcholine
220. Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hypercaliemia b. A decrease in intraocular pressure
c. Emesis d. Muscle pain
221. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?

a. Tubocurarine b. Succinylcholine
c. Pancuronium d. Gallamine
795

222. Indicate the following neuromuscular blocker, which would be contraindicated in
patients with renal failure:
a. Pipecuronium b. Succinylcholine
c. Atracurium d. Rapacuonium
223. All of the following drugs increase the effects of depolarizing neuromuscular
blocking agents EXCEPT:
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Antiarrhythmic drugs
c. Nondepolarizing blockers
d. Local anesthetics
224. Which of the following disease can augment the neuromuscular blockade produced
by nondepolarizing muscle relaxants?
a. Myasthenia gravis b. Burns
c. Asthma d. Parkinsonism
225. Indicate the agent, which effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade
caused by nondepolarizing drugs:
a. Atropine b. Neostigmine
c. Acetylcholine d. Pralidoxime
226. Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by:

a. Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminals
b. Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sites
c. Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
d. All of the above
227. Characteristics of epinephrine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It is synthesized into the adrenal medulla
b. It is synthesized into the nerve ending
c. It is transported in the blood to target tissues
d. It directly interacts with and activates adrenoreceptors
228. Which of the following sympahomimetics acts indirectly?

c. Ephedrine d. Methoxamine
229. Indirect action includes all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a. Displacement of stored catecholamines from the adrenergic nerve ending
b. Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released
c. Interaction with adrenoreceptors
d. Inhibition of the release of endogenous catecholamines from peripheral adrenergic
neurons
796

230. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. ALFA receptors increase arterial resistence, whereas beta2 receptor promote smooth
muscle relaxation
b. The skin and splanchic vessels have predominantly alfa receptors
c. Vessels in a skeletal muscle may constrict or dilate depending on whether alfa or beta2
receptors are activated
d. Skeletal muscle vessels have predominantly alfa receptors and constrict in the
presence of epinephrine and norepinephrine
231. Direct effects on the heart are determined largely by:

a. Alfa 1 receptor b. Alfa 2 receptor c. Beta 1 receptor d. Beta 2 receptor
232. Which of the following effects is related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation?

a. Bronchodilation b. Vasodilatation c. Tachycardia d. Bradyca dia
233. Distribution of alfa adrenoreceptor subtypes is associated with all of the following
tissues except those of:
a. Heart b. Blood vessels
c. Prostate d. Pupillary dilator muscle
234. Beta adrenoreceptor sybtypes is contained in all of the following Tissues EXCEPT:
a. Bronchial muscles b. Heart
c. Pupillary dilator muscle d. Fat cell
235. In which of the following tissues both alfa and beta1 adrenergic stimulation
produces the same effect?
a. Blood vessels b. Intestine b. Uterus d. Bronchial muscles
236. The effects of sympathomimetics on blood pressure are associated with their effects
on :
a. The heart b. The peripheral resistance
c. The venous return d. All of the above
237. A relatively pure alfa agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT :
a. Increase peripheral arterial resistance b. Increase venous return
c. Has no effect on blood vessels d. Reflex bradycardia
238. A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT :
a. Increase cardiac output b. Increase peripheral arterial resistance
c. Decrease peripheral arterial resitance d. Decrease the mean pressure
239. Which of the following statement is not correct?

a. Alfa agonists cause miosis
b. Alfa agonists cause mydriasis
c. Beta antagonists decrease the production of aqueous humor
d. Alfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye
797

240. A bronchial smooth muscle contains :
a. Alfa 1 receptor b. Alfa 2 receptor
c. Beta 1 receptor d. Beta 2 receptor
241. All of the following agents are beta receptor agonists EXCEPT :
a. Epinephrine b. Isoproterenol
c. Methoxamine d. Dobutamine
242. Which of the following drugs causes bronchodilation without significant cardiac
stimulation?
a. Isoprenaline b. Terbutaline
c. Xylometazoline d. Methoxamine
243. Alfa-receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT :

a. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
b. Contraction of bladder base, uterus and prostate
c. Stimulation of insulin secretion
d. Stimulation of platelet aggregation
244. Beta1 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT :
a. Increase in contractility
b. Bronchodilation
c. Tachycardia
d. Increase in conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node
245. Beta2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT :
a. Stimulation of renin secretion
b. Fall of potassium concentration in plasma
c. Relaxation of bladder, uterus
d. Tachycardia
246. Hyperglycemia induced by epinephrine is due to :

a. Gluconeogenesis (beta2)
b. Inhibition of insulin secretion (alfa)
c. Stimulation of glycogenolysis (beta2)
d. All of the above
247. Which of the following effects is associated with beta3-receptor stimulation?

a. Lipolysis b. Decrease in platelet aggregation
c. Bronchodilation d. Tachycardia
248. Which of the following statement is not correct?

a. Epinephrine acts on both alfa-and beta-receptors
b. Norepinephrine has a predominantly beta action
c. Methoxamine has predominantly alfa action
d. Isoprenaline has a predominantly beta action
798

249. Indicate the drug, which is a direct-acting both alfa-and beta-receptor agonist :
a. Norepinephrine b. Methoxamine c. Isoproterenol d. Ephedrine
250. Which of the following agents is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2 receptor agonist?
a. Methoxamine b. Albuterol c. Epinephrine d. Norepinephrine
251. Indicate the directacting sympathomimetic, which is an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 receptor
agonist:
a. Isoproterenol b. Ephedrine c. Dobutamine d. Ephedrine
252. Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist?

a. Norepinephrine b. Epinephrine c. Ritodrine d. Ephedrine
253. Indicate the alfa2-selective agonist :

a. Xylometazoline b. Epinephrine c. Dobutamine d. Methoxamine
254. Which of the following agents is a nonselective beta receptor agonist?

a. Norepinephrine b. Terbutaline
c. Isoproterenol d. Dobutamine
255. Indicate the beta1-selective agonist:

a. Isoproterenol b. Dobutamine
c. Metaproterenol d. Epinephrine
256. Which of the following sympathomimetics is a beta2-selective agonist?

a. Terbutaline b. Xylometazoline
257. Indicate the indirect-acting sympathomimetic agent:

a. Epinephrine b. Phenylephrine
c. Ephedrine d. Isoproterenol
258. Epinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT :

a. Positive inotropic and chronotropic actions on the heart (beta1 receptor)
b. Increase peripheral resistance (alfa receptor)
c. Predominance of alfa effects at low concentration
d. Skeletal muscle blood vessel dilatation (beta2 receptor)
259. Epinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a. Decrease in oxygen consumption
b. Bronchodilation
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Mydriasis
260. Epinephrine is used in the treatment of all of the following disorders EXCEPT :
a. Bronchospasm b. Anaphylactic shock
c. Cardiac arrhythmias d. Open-angle glaucoma
799

261. Compared with epinephrine, norepinephrine produces all of the following effects
EXCEPT :
a. Similar effects on beta1 receptors in the heart and similar potency at an alfa receptor
b. Decrease the mean pressure below normal before returning to the control value
c. Significant tissue necrosis if injected subcutaneously
d. Increase both diastolic and systolic blood pressure
262. Norepinephrine produces:

a. Vasoconstruction
b. Vasodilatation
c. Bronchodilation
d. Decresed potassium concentration in the plasma
263. Which of the following directacting drugs is a relatively pure alfa agonist, an
effective mydriatic and decongestant and can be used to raise blood pressure?
c. Phenylephrine d. Ephedrine
264. Characteristics of methoxamine include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. It is a direct-acting alfa1-receptor agonist
b. It increases heart rate, contractility and cardiac output
c. It causes reflex bradycardia
d. It increases total peripheral resistance
265. Which of the following agents is an alfa2-selective agonist with ability to promote
constriction of the nasal mucosa?
a. Xylometazoline b. Phenylephrine
c. Methoxamine d. Epinephrine
266. Indicate the sympathomimetic, which may cause hypotension, presumably because
of a clonidine-like effect :
a. Methoxamine b. Phenylephrine
c. Xylometazoline d. Isoproterenol
267. Isoproterenol is :
a. Both an alfa-and beta-receptor agonist
b. beta1 selective agonist
c. beta2 selective agonist
d. Nonselective beta receptor agonist
268. Isoproterenol produces all of the following effects EXCEPT :

a. Increase is cardiac output
b. Fall in diastolic and mean arterial pressure
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Tachycardia
800

269. Characteristic of dobutamine include all of the following EXCEPT :
a. It is a relatively beta1-selective synthetic catecholamine
b. It is used to treat bronchospasm
c. It increases atrioventricular conduction
d. It causes minimal changes in heart rate and systolic pressure
270. Characteristics of salmeterol include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. It is a potent selective beta2 agonist
b. It causes uterine relaxation
c. Is stimulates heart rate, contractility and cardiac output
d. It is used in the therapy of asthma
271. Characteristics of ephedrine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. It acts primarily through the release of stored cathecholamines
b. It is a mild CNS stimulant
c. It causes tachyphylaxis with repeated administration
d. It decreases arterial pressure
272. Ephedrine causes :

a. Miosis b. Bronchodilation
c. Hypotension d. Bradycardia
273. Compared with epinephrine, ephedrine produces all of the following features
EXCEPT:
a. It is a direct-acting sympathomimetic
b. It has oral activity
c. It is resistant to MAO and has much longer duration of action
d. Its effects are similar, but it is less potent
274. Which of the following sympathomimetics is preferable for the treatment of chronic
orthostatic hypotension?
c. Ephedrine d. Salmeterol
275. Indicate the sympathomimetic drug, which is used in a hypotensive emergency :

a. Xylometazoline b. Ephedrine
c. Terbutaline d. Phenylephrine
276. Which of the following sympathomimetics is preferable for the emergency therapy of
cardiogenic shock?
a. Epinephrine b. Dobutamine c. Isoproterenol d. Methoxamine
277. Indicate the sympathomimetic agent, which is combined with a local anesthetic to
prolong the duration of infiltration nerve block :
a. Epinephrine b. Xylometazoline
801

278. Which of the following sympathomimetics is related to short acting topical
decongestant agents?
a. Xylometazoline b. Terbutaline
c. Phenylephrine d. Norepinephrine
279. Indicate the long-acting topical decongestant agents:

c. Phenylephrine d. Xylometazoline
280. Which of the following topical decongestant agents is an alfa2-selective agonist? (b)
a. Phenylephrine b. Xylometazoline
c. Ephedrine d. Epinephrine
281. Indicate the sympathomimetic, which may be useful in the emergency management
of cardiac arrest :
a. Methoxamine b. Phenylephrine
c. Epinephrine d. Xylometazoline
282. Which of the following sympathomimetics is used in the therapy of bronchial

asthma?
a. Formoterol b. Norepinephrine
c. Methoxamine d. Dobutamine
283. Indicate the agent of choice in the emergency therapy of anaphylactic shock
a. Methoxamine b. Terbutaline
c. Dobutamine d. Norepinephrine
284. Which of the following sympathomimetics is an effective mydriatic?

a. Salmeterol b. Phenylephrine
c. Dobutamine d. Norepinephrine
285. The adverse effects of sympathomimetics include all of the following EXCEPT :
a. Drug-induced parkinsonism
b. Cerebral hemorrhage or pulmonary edema
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Ventricular arrhythmias
286. Which of the following drugs is a nonselective alfa receptor antagonist?

a. Prazosin b. Phentolamine
c. Metoprotol d. Reserpine
287. Indicate the alfa1-selective antagonist:

a. Phentolamine b. Dihydroergotamine
c. Prazosin d. Labetalol
802

288. Which of the following agents is an alfa2-selective antagonist?
a. Yohimbin b. Tamsulosin
c. Tolazoline d. Prazosin
289. Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist :

a. Tolazoline b. Labetalol
c. Prazosin d. Penoxybenzamine
290. Which of the following drugs is an nonselective beta receptor antagonist?

a. Metoprotol b. Atenolol
c. Propranolol d. Acebutolol
291. Indicate the beta1-selective antagonist:

a. Propranolol b. Metoprolol
c. Carvedilol d. Sotalol
292. Which of the following agents is a beta2-selective antagonist?

a. Tolazolin b. Pindolol
c. Ergotamin d. Butoxamine
293. Indicate the beta adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has partial beta-agonist activity:
c. Pindolol d. Betaxolol
294. which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alfa, beta antagonist?
a. Labetalol b. phentolamine
c. metaprolol d. propranolol
295. indicate the indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug;

a. Tolazoline b. Reserpine
c. Carvedilol d. Prazosin
296. The principal mechanism of action of adrenoreceptor antagonists is:

a. Reversible or irreversible interaction with adrenoreceptors
b. Depletion of the storage of catecholamines
c. Blockade of the amine reuptake pumps
d. Nonselective MAO inhibition
297. Characteristics of alfa-receptor antagonists include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. They cause a fall in peripheral resistance and blood pressure
b. They cause epinephrine reversal (convert a pressor response to a depressor
response)
c. Bronchospasm
d. They may cause postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia
803

298. Which of the following drugs is an imidazoline derivative and a potent competitive
antagonists at both alfa1 and alfa2 receptors?
a. Prazosin b. Labetalol
c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Phentolamine
299. Characteristics of phentolamine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Reduction in peripheral resistance
b. Stimulatioin of responses to serotonin
c. Tachycardia
d. Stinulation of muscarinic, H1 and H2 histamine receptors
300. The principal mechanism of phentolamine-include tachycardia is:

a. Antagonism of presynaptic alfa2 receptors enhances norepinephrine release, which
causes cardiac stimulation via unblocked beta receptors
b. Baroreflex mechanism
c. Direct effect on the heart by stimulation of beta1 receptors
d. Inhibiton of transmitter reuptake at noradrenergic synapses
301. Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonists are most useful in the treatment of:
a. Asthma b. Cardiac arrhythmias
c. Pheochromocytoma d. Chronic hypertention
302. The main reason for using alfa-receptor antagonists in the management of
pheochromocytoma is:
a. Inhibition of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
b. Blockade of alfa2 receptors on vascular smooth muscle results in epinephrine
stimulation of unblocked alfa2 receptors
c. Direct interaction with and inhibition of beta2 adrenoreceptors
d. Antagonism to the release of renin
303. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of pheochromocytoma?

a. Phenylephrine b. Propranolol
c. Phentolamine d. Epinephrine
304. Indicate adrenoreceptor antagonist agents, which are use for management of
pheochromocytoma:
a. Selective beta2-receptor antagonists
b. Nonselective beta-receptor antagonists
c. Indirect-acting adrenoreceptor antagonist drugs
d. Alfa-receptor antagonists
305. The principal adverse effects of phentolamine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Diarrhea b. Bradycardia
c. Arrhythmias d. Myocardial ischemia
804

306. Indicate the reversible nonselective alfareceptor antagonist, which is an ergot
derivative: (a)
a. Ergotamine b. Prazosin
c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Carvedilol
307. Indicate an alfareceptor antagonist, which binds convalently to alfa receptors,

causing irreversible blockade of long duration (14-48 hours or longer) :
a. Phentolamine b. Phenoxybenzamine
c. Ergotamine d. Prazosin
308. Compared with phentolamine, prazosin has all of the following features EXCEPT :
a. Irreversible blockade of alfa receptors
b. Highly selective absence of tachycardia
c. The relative absence of tachycardia
d. Persistent block of alfa1 receptors
309. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. There are at least three subtypes of alfa1 receptors, designated alfa1a, alfa 1b and alfa
1d
b. ALFA 1a subtype mediates vascular smooth muscle contraction
c. ALFA 1b subtype mediates vascular smooth muscle contraction
d. ALFA 1a subtype mediates both vascular and prostate smooth muscle contraction
310. Indicate an alfa 1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has great selectivity for alfa 1a
subtype :
a. Prazosin b. Tamsulosin
c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Phentolamine
311. Subtype selective alfa 1 receptor antagonists such as tamsulosin, terazosin,

alfusosin are efficacious in :
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Cardiac arrhythmias
c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
d. Asthma
312. Indicate an alfa receptor antagonist, which is an efficacious drug in the treatment of
mild to moderate systemic hypertension:
a. Phentolamine b. Tolazoline
c. Ergotamine d. Prazosin
313. Which of the following alfa receptor antagonists is useful in reversing the intense
local vasoconstriction caused byinadvertent infiltration of norepinephrine into
subcutaneous tissue during intravenous administration?
a. Propranolol b. Phentolamine
c. Tamsulosin d. Ergotamine
805

314. Betablocking drugs induced chronically lower blood pressure may be associated
with their effects on :
a. The heart
b. The blood vessels
c. The renin-angiotension system
d. All of the above
315. Characteristics of betablocking agents include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. They occupy beta receptors and competitively reduce receptor occupancy by
catecholamines of other beta agonists
b. They do not cause hypotension individuals with normal blood pressure
c. They induce depression and depleted stores of catecholamines
d. They can cause blockade in the atrioventricular node
316. Beta-receptor antagonists cause :

a. Stimulation of lipolysis
b. Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
c. Inhibition of glycogenolysis
d. Stimulation of insulin secretion
317. Propranolol has all of the following cardiovascular effects EXCEPT :

a. It decreases cardiac work and oxygen demand
b. It reduces blood flow to the brain
c. It inhabits the renin secretion
d. It increases the atrioventricular nodal refractory period
318. Propranolol-induced adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. Bronchoconstriction
b. “supersensitivity” of beta-adrenergic receptors (rapid withdrawal)
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Sedation, sleep disturbances, depression and sexual dysfunction
319. Propranolol is used in the treatment all of the following diseases EXCEPT :
a. Cardiovascular diseases b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Migraine headache d. Bronchial asthma
320. Metoprolol and atenolol :

a. Are members of the beta1-selective group
b. Are nonselective beta antagonists
c. Have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
d. Have an anesthetic action
321. Which of the following beta receptor antagonists is preferable in patients with
asthma, diabetes or peripheral vascular diseases?
c. Nadolol d. Timolol
806

322. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of action :
a. Metoprolol b. Propranolol
c. Nadolol d. Pindolol
323. Indicate a beta1 selective receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of
action :
a. Betaxolol b. Sotalol
c. Nadolol d. Metoprolol
324. Which of the following drugs is a nonselective betablocker without intrinsic

sympathomimetic or local anesthetic activity and used for the treatment of life
threatening ventricular arrhythmias?
a. Propranolol b. Oxprenolol
c. Sotalol d. Atenolol
325. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity :

a. Propranolol b. Oxpernolol
c. Metoprolol d. Carvedilol
326. Pindolol, oxprrenolol have all of the following properties EXCEPT :

a. They are nonselective beta antagonists
b. They have no partial agonist activity
c. They are less likely to cause bradycardia and abnormalities in plasma lipids
d. They are effective in hypertension and angina
327. Which of the following drugs has both alfa1-selective and beta-blocking effects?
a. Labetalol b. Betaxolol
c. Propranolol d. Timolol
328. Characteristics of carvedilol include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. It is a beta1-selective antagonist
b. It has both alfa1-selective and beta-blocking effects
c. It attenuates oxygen free radical-initiated lipid peroxidation
d. It inhibits vascular smooth muscle miltogenesis
329. Indicates the adrenoreceptor antagonist drug, which is a rauwolfia alkaloid :

a. Prazosin b. Propranolol
c. Reserpine d. Phentolamine
330. Characteristics of reserpine include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. It inhibits the uptake of norepinephrine into vesicles and MAO
b. It decreases cardiac output, peripheral resistance and inhibits pressor reflexes
c. It may cause a transient sympathomimetic effect
d. It depletes stores of catecholamines and serotonin in the brain
807

331. Indicate a beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid storm :
a. Pindolol b. Sotalol
c. Phentolamine d. Propranolol
332. Betareceptor blocking drugs are used in the treatment all of the following diseases
EXCEPT:
a. Hypertension, ischemic heart disease, cardiac arrhythmias
b. Glaucoma
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Hyperthyroidism
333. Beta-blocker-induced adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Depression of myocardial contractility and excitability
c. “supersensitivity” of beta-receptors associated with rapid withdrawal of drugs
d. Hyperglycemia
334. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat :

a. Psychosis b. Sleep disorders
c. Narcolepsy d. Parkinsonian disorders
335. Hypnotic drugs should :

a. Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
b. Induce absence of sensation
c. Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and maintenance of sleep
d. Prevent mood swings in patients with bipolar affective disorders
336. Which of the following chemical agents are used in the treatment of insomnia?
a. Benzodiazepines b. Imidazopyridines
c. Barbiturates d. All of the above
337. Select a hypnotic drug, which is a benzodiazepine derivative:

a. Zolpidem b. Flurazepam
c. Secobarbital d. Phenobarbitone
338. Select a hypnotic drug, which is an imidazopyridine derivative:

a. Phenobarbital b. Temazepam
c. Zolpidem d. Chloral hydrate
339. Which of the following hypnotic agents is absorbed slowly?

a. Phenobarbital b. Flurazepam
c. Triazolam d. Temazepam
340. Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short-acting drug?

a. Secobarbital b. Amobarbital
c. Thiopental d. Phenobarbital
808

341. Indicate the barbituric and derivative, which has 4-5 days elimination half-life:
a. Secobarbital b. Thiopental
c. Phenobarbital d. Amobarbital
342. Indicate the hypnotic benzodiazepine, which has the shortest elimination half-life :
a. Temazepam b. Triazolam
c. Flurazepam d. Diazepam
343. Which of the following hypnotic drugs is more likely to causes cumulative and
residual effects?
a. Zolpidem b. Temazepam
c. Phenobarbital d. Triazolam
344. Which of the following hypnotic drugs increase the activity of hepatic drug-
metabolizing enzyme systems?
a. Phenobarbital b. Zolpidem
c. Flurazepam d. Zalepton
345. Hepatic microsomal drug-metabolizing enzyme induction leads to:

a. Barbiturate tolerance
b. Cumulative effects
c. Development of Physical dependence
d. “Hangover” effects
346. Hypnotic benzodiazepines are more powerful enzyme inducers than barbiturates
a. True b. False
347. Indicate the hypnotic drug, which does not change hepatic drug-metabolizing
enzyme activity?
a. Flurazepam b. Zaleplon
c. Triazolam d. All of the above
348. Brabiturates increase the rate of metabolism of :

a. Anticoagulants b. Digitalis compounds
c. Glucocorticoids d. All of the above
349. Which of the following agents inhibits hepatic metabolism of hypnotics?

a. Flumasenil b. Cimetidin
c. Phenytoin d. Theophyline
350. Which of the following factors can influence the biodispostion of hypnotic agents? (
a. Alterations in the hepatic function resulting from a disease
b. Old age
c. Drug –induced increases or decreases in microsomal enzyme activities
d. All of the above
809

351. Which of the following hypnotic drugs is used intravenously as anesthesia?
a. Thiopental b. Phenobarbital
c. Flurazepam d. Zolpidem
352. Indicate the usual cause of death due to overdose of hypnotics:

a. Depression of the medullar respiratory center
b. Hypothermia
c. Cerebral edema
d. Status epilepticus
353. Toxic doses of hypnotics may cause a circulatory collapse as a result of:
a. Blocking alfa adrenergic receptors
b. Increasing vagal tone
c. Action on the medullar vasomotor center
d. All of the above
354. The mechanism of action of antiseizure drug is:
a. Enhancement of GABAergic (Inhibitory) transmission
b. Diminution of excitatory (usually glutamatergic) transmission
c. Modification of ionic conductance
d. All of the above mechanisms
355. Which of the following antisieizure drugs produces enhancement of GABA-mediated

inhibition?
a. Ethosuximide b. Carbamazepine
c. Phenobarbital d. Lamotrigine
356. Indicate an antiseizure drug, which has an impotent effect on the T-type calcium
channels in thalamic neurons?
a. Carbamazepin b. Lamotrigine
c.Ethosuximide d. Phenytoin
357. Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation

of sodium channels?
a. Lamotrigine b. Carbamazepin
c. Phenytoin d. All of the above
358. Indicate an antiseizure drug, inhibiting central effects of excitatory amino acids:
a. Ethosuximide b. Lamotrigine
c. Diazepam d. Tiagabine
359. The drug for partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures is:
a. Carbamazepine b. Valporate
c. Phenytoin d. All of the above
360. Indicate an anti-absence drug:

a. Valproate b. Phenobarbital c. Carbamazepin d. Phenytoin
810

361. The drug against myoclonic seizures is:
a.Primidone b. Carbamazepine c. Clonazepam d. Phenytoin
362. The drug of choice for partial seizures is:

a. Carbamazepin b. Ethosuximide c. Diazepam d. Lomotrigine
363. The mechanism of action of carbamazepine appears to be similar to that of :

a. Benzodiazepines b. Valproate c. Phenytoin d. Ethosuximide
364. Which of the following antiseizure drugs is also effective in treating trigeminal
neuralgia?
a. Primidone b. Topiramat c. Carbamazepine d. Lamotrigine
365. The most common dose-related adverse effects of carbamazepine are:

a. Diplopia, ataxia, and nausea
b. Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism
c. Sedation, physical and psychological dependence
d. Hemeralopia, myasthenic syndrome
366. Indicate the drug of choice for status epilepticus in infants and children:
a. Phenobarbital b. Clonazepam
c. Ethosuximide d. Phenytoin
367. Barbiturates are used in the emergency treatment of status epilepticus in infants
and children because of:
a. They significantly decrease of oxygen utilization by the brain, protecting cerebral
edema and ischemia
b. Short onset and duration of action
c. They do not have effect on sleep architecture
d. All of the above
368. Which of the following antiseizure drugs binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the
GABA-BZ receptor, increases the duration of the CI-channels openings:
a. Diazepam b. Valproate c. Phenobarbital d. Topiramate
369. Advance effect caused by Phenobarbital is:

a. Physical and phychological dependence b. Exacerbated petit mal epilepsy
c. Sedation d. All of the above
370. Which of the following antiseizure drug is a prodrug, metabolized to phenobarbital?

a. Phenytoin b. Primidone c. Felbamate d. Vigabatrin
371. Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a phenyltriazine derivative:

a. Phenobarbital b. Clonazepam c. Lamotrigine d. Carbamazepin
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372. Lamotrigine can be used in the treatment of:
a. Partial seizures b. Absence
c. Myoclonic seizures d. All the above
373. The mechanism of vigabatrin’s acition is:

a. Direct action on the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex
b. Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase
c. NMDA receptor blockade via the glycine binding site
d. Inhibition of GABA neuronal reuptake from synapses
374. Indicate an irreversible inhibitor of GABA aminotransferase (GABA-T):

a. Diazepam b. Phenobarbital
c. Vigabatrin d. Felbamate
375. Tiagabine:
a. Blocks neuronal and glial reuptake of GABA from synapses
b. Inhibits GABA-T, which catalyzed the breakdown of GABA
c. Blocks the T-type ca2+ channels
d. Inhibition glutamate transmission at AMPA/kainite receptors
376. The mechanism of both topiramate and felbamate action:

a. Redution of excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission
b. Inhibition of voltage sensitive Na+ channels
c. Potentiation of GABAergic neuronal transmission
d. All the above
377. Indicate the antiseizure drug – a benzodiazepine receptor agonist:

a. Phenobarbital b. Phenytoin
c. Carbamazepine d. Lorazepam
378. Which of the following antiseizure drugs acts directly on the GABA receptor –
chloride channel complex?
a. Vigabatrin b. Diazepam
c. Gabapentin d. Valproate
379. Benzodiazepine’s usefulness is limited by:

a. Tolerance b. Atropine-like symptoms
c. Psychotic episodes d. Myasthenic syndrome
380. A long-acting drug against both absence and myoclonic seizures is

a. Primidone b. Carbamazepine
c. Clonazepam d. Phenytoin
381. Which of the following antiseizure drugs may produce teratogenicity?

a. Phenytoin b. Valproate
c. Topiramate d. All of the above
812

382. The most dangerous effect of antiseizure drugs after large overdoses is :
a. Respiratory depression b. Gastrointestinal irritation
c. Alopecia d. Sedation
383. Which neurons are involved in Parkinsonism?

a. Cholinergic neurons b. GABAergic neurons
c. Dopaminergic neurons d. All of the above
384. The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is :

a. A selective loss of depaminergic neurons
b. The loss of some cholinergic neurons
c. The loss of the GABAergic cells
d. The loss of glutamatergic neurons
385. Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in parkinson’s disease?

a. Acetylcholine b. Glutamate
c. Dopamine d. All of the above
386. Principal aim for treatment of parkinsonian disorders is :

a. To restore the normal balance of cholinergic and dopaminergic influences on the basal
ganglia with antimuscarinic drugs
b. To restore dopaminergic activity with levodopa and dopamine agonists
c. To decrease glutamatergic activity with glutamate antagonists
387. Indicate the drug that induces parkinsonian syndromes :

a. Chlorpromazine b. Diazepam c. Triazolam d. CArbamazepine
388. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of parkinsonian disorders?
a. Phenytoin b. Selegiline c. Haloperidol d. Fluoxetine
389. Select the agent, which is preferred in the treatment of the drug-induced form of
parkinsonism :
a. Levodopa b. Bromocriptine c. Benztropine d. Dopamin
390. Which of the following agents is the precursor of dopamine?

a. Bromocriptine b. Levodopa c. Selegiline d. Amantadine
391. The main reason for given levodopa, the precursor of dopamine, instead of
dopamine is :
a. Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier
b. Dopamine may induce acute psychotic reactions
c. Dopamine is intensively metabolized in humans
d. All of the above
392. Indicate a peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibitor:

a. Tolcapone b. Clozapine c. Carbidopa d. Selegiline
813

393. The mechanism of carbidopa’s action is :
a. Stimulating the synthesis, release, or reuptake of dopamine
b. Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase
c. Stimulating dopamine receptors
d. Selective inhibition of catecol-O-methyltransferase
394. When carbidopa and levodopa are given concomitantly:

a. Levodopa blood levels are increased, and drug half-life is lengthened
b. The dose of levodopa can be significantly reduced (by 75%) also reducing toxic side
effects
c. A shorter latency period precedes the occurrence of beneficial effects
d. All of the above
395. Which of the following preparations combines carbidopa and levodopa in a fixed
proportion?
a. Selegiline b. Sinement
c. Tolkapone d. Biperiden
396.Which of the following statement is correct for levodopa?

a. Tolerance to both beneficial and adverse effects develops gradually
b. Levodopa is most effective in the first 2-5 years of treatment
c. After 5 years of therapy, patients have dose-related dyskinesias, inadequate response
or toxicity
d. All of the above
397. Gastrointestinal irritation, cardiovascular effects, including tachycardia,

arrhythmias, and orthostatic hypotension, mental disturbances, and withdrawal are
possible adverse effects of :
a. Amantadine b. Benztropine
c. Levodopa d. Selegiline
398. Which of the following agents is the most helpful in counteracting the behavioral
complications of levodopa?
a. Tolkapone b. Clozapine
c. Carbidopa d. pergolide
399. Which of the following vitamins reduces the beneficial effects of levodopa by
enhancing its exteacerebral metabolism?
a. Pyridoxine b. Thiamine
c. Tocopherol d. Riboflavin
400. Which of the following drugs antagonizes the effects of levodopa because it leads to
a juctional blockade of dopamine action?
a. Reserpine b. Haloperidol
c. Chlorpromazine d. All of the above
814

PHARMACOLOGY
401. Levodopa should not be given to patients taking :
a. Bromocriptine
b. Monoamine oxydase A inhibitors
c. Carbidopa
d. Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonists
402. Alcohal may cause :

a. CNS depression b. Vasodilatation
c. Hypoglycemia d. All of the above
403. Alcohol :
a. Increases body temperature
b. Decreases body heat loss
c. Increases body heat loss
d. Does not affect body temperature
404. The most common medical complication of alcohol abuse is :

a. Liver failure including liver cirrhosis
b. Tolerances and physical dependence
c. Generalized symmetric peripheral nerve injury, ataxia and dementia
d. All of the above
405. Effect of moderate consumption of alcohol on plasma lipoproteins is :

a. Raising serum levels of high-density lipoproteins
b. Increasing serum concentration of low-density lipoproteins
c. Decreasing the concentration of high-density lipoproteins
d. Raising serum levels of very low-density lipoproteins
406. Which of the following metabolic alterations may be associated with chronic alcohol
abuse?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Increased serum concentration of phosphate
c. Severe loss of potassium and magnesium
d. Decreased serum
407. Alcohol potentiates:

a. SNS depressants b. Vasodilatators
c. Hypoglycemic agents d. All of the above
408. Which of the following drugs is most commonly used for causing a noxious
reaction to alcohol by blocking its metabolism?
a. Naltrexone b. Disulfiram
c. Diazepam d. Morphine
815

409. Which of the following agents is an inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase?
a. Fomepizole b. Ethanol c. Disulfiram d. Naltrexone
410. Indicate the drug, which alters brain responses to alcohol :

a. Naltrexone b. Disulfiram c. Amphetamine d. Chlorpromazine
411. Which of the following agents is an opioid antagonist?

a. Amphetamine b. Naltrexone c. Morphine d. Disulfiram
412. Alcohol causes an acute increase in the local concentrations of :

a. Dopamine b. Opioid c. Serotonine d. All of the above
413. Management of alcohol withdrawal syndrome contains:

a. Restoration of potassium, magnesium and phosphate balance
b. Thiamine therapy
c. Substituting a long-acting sedative-hypnotic drug for alcohol
d. All of the above
414. The symptoms resulting from the combination of disulfiram and alcohol are :
a. Hypertensive crisis leading to cerebral ischemia and edema
b. Nausea, vomiting
c. Respiratory depression and seizures
d. Acute psychotic reactions
415. The combination of disulfiram and ethanol leads to accumulation of :

a. Formaldehyde b. Acetate c. Formic acid d. Acetaldehyde
416. Indicate the “specific” modality of treatment for severe methonal poisoning :
a. Diaysis to enhance removal of methanol
b. Alkalinization to counteract metabolic acidosis
c. Suppression of metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase to toxic products
d. All of the above
417. Which of the following agents may be used as an antidote for ethylene glycol and
methanol poisoning?
a. Disulfiram b. Fomepizol c. Naltrexone d. Amphetamine
418. The principal mechanism of fomepizol action is associated with inhibition of

a. Aldehyde dehydrogenase b. Acethylholinesterase
c. Alcohol dehydrogenase d. Monoamine oxidase
419. Narcotics analgesics should :

a. Relieve severe pain b. Induce loss of sensation
c. Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect d. Induce a stupor or somnolent state
816

420. Second-order pain is :
a. Sharp, well-localized pain
b. Dull, Burning pain
c. Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers
d. Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics
421. Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Enkephalins b. Kinnis c. Prostaglandins d. Substance P
422. Indicate the chemical mediator in the antinociceptive descending pathways:

a. BETA-endorphin b. Met- and leu-enkephalin c. Dynorphin d. All of above
423. Which of the following mediators is found mainly in long descending pathways from
the midbrain to the dorsal horn?
a. Prostaglandin E b. Dynorphin c. Enkephalin d. Glutamte
424. Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are involved in the transmission of
pain?
a. The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus and the hypothalamus
b. The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus
c. The substantia gelatinosa
d. All of the above
425. Mu (i) receptors are associated with:

a. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence
b. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical dependence
c. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor
d. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence
426. Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor
stimulation:
a. Kappa-receptors b. Delta-receptors c. Mu-receptors d. All of the above
427. Kappa and delta agonists:

a. Inhibit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels
b. Close a voltage-gated Ca2+ channels on presynaptic nerve terminals
c. Both a and b
d. Inhibit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS
428. Morphine causes the following effects EXCEPT:

a. Constipation b. Dilatation of the biliary duct
c. Urinary retention d. Bronchiolar constriction
429. Therapeutic doses of the opioid analgesics:

a. Decrease body temperature b. Increase body temperature
c. Decrease body heat loss d. Do not affect body temperature
817

430. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in obstetric labor?
a. Fentanyl b. Pentazocine c. Meperidine d. Buprenorphine
431. Indicate the opioid analgesic, which is used for relieving the acute, severe pain of
renal colic:
a. Morphine b. Naloxone c. Methadone d. Meperidine
432. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in the treatment of acute
pulmonary edema?
a. Morphine b. Codeine c. Fentanyl d. Loperamide
433. The relief produced by intravenous morphine in dyspnea from pulmonary edema is
associated with reduced:
a. Perception of shortness of breath
b. Patient anxiety
c. Cardiac preload (reduced venous tone) and after load (decreased peripheral
resistance)
d. All of the above
434. Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, chills, gooseflesh, hyperventilation, hyperthermia,

mydriasis, muscular aches, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, and hostility are effects of:
a. Tolerance
b. Opioid over dosage
c. Drug interactions between opioid analgesics and sedative-hypnotics
d. Abstinence syndrome
435. The diagnostic triad of opioid over dosage is:

a. Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
b. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
c. Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps
d. Miosis, tremor and vomiting
436. Which of the following opioid agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid
overdose?
a. Pentazocine b. Methadone c. Naloxone d. Remifentanyl
437. Indicate the pure opioid antagonist, which has a half-life of 10 hours:
a. Naloxone b. Nalotrexone c. Tramadol d. Pentazocine
438. In contrast to morphine, methadone:

a. Causes tolerance and physical dependence more slowly
b. Is more effective orally
c. Withdrawal is less severe, although more prolonged
d. All of the above
818

439. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a partial mu receptor agonist?
a. Morphine b. Methadone c. Buprenorphine d. Sufentanyl
440. Indicate a partial mu receptor agonist, which has 20-60 times analgesic potency of
morphine, and a longer duration of action:
a. Pentazocine b. Buprenorphine c. Nalbuphine d. Naltrexone
441. Which of the following drugs has weak mu agonist effects and inhibitory action on
norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in the CNS?
a. Loperamide b. Tramadol c. Fluoxetine d. Buterophanol
442. Which of the following drugs has weak mu agonist effects and inhibitory action on
norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in the CNS?
a. Loperamide b. Tramadol c. Fluoxetine d. Buterophanol
443. Non-narcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:
a. Inflammation or tissue damage b. Trauma
c. Myocardial infarction d. Surgery
444. Non-narcotic agents cause

a. Respiratory b. Antipyretic effect
c. Euphoria d. physical dependence
445. Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

a. Paracetamol b. Acetylsalicylic acid
c. Butorphanol d. Ketorolac
446. Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a paraaminophenol derivative:

a. Analgin b. Aspirin
c. Baclophen d. Paracetamol
447. Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative

a. Phenylbutazone b. Ketamine
c. Aspirin d. Tramadol
448. Tick pirazolone derivative:

a. Methylsalicylate b. Analgin c. Paracetamol d. Ketoralac
449. Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase
(COX) in CNS?
a. Paracetamol b. Ketorolac
c. Acetylsalicylic acid d. Ibuprofen
450. Most of non-narcotic analgetics have:

a. Anti-inflammatory effect b. Analgesic effect
c. Antipyretic effect d. All of the above
819

451. Indicate the non-narcotic analgetics, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:
a. Naloxone b. Paracetamol
c. Metamizole d. Aspirin
452. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It inhibits mainly peripheral COX
b. It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect
c. It inhibits platelet aggregation
d. It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center
453. For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?
a. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
b. Peptic ulcers
c. Thromboembolism
d. Metabolic acidosis
454. All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

a. Gastritis with focal erosions
b. Tolerance and physical addiction
c. Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation
d. Reversible renal insufficiency
455. Characteristic findings of salicylism include:

a. Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness
b. Tinnitus and difficulty in hearing
c. Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea
d. All of the above
456. Analgin usefulness is limited by:

a. Agranulocytosis
b. Erosions andn gastric bleeding
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. Hearing impairment
457. Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

a. Aspirin b. Paracetamol
c. Analgin d. Ketorolac
458. Correct the statements concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It inhibits COX
b. It is as effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain
c. It has a dhigh potential for physical dependence and abuse
d. It does not produce respiratory depression
820

459. Indicate the nonopioid agent of central effect with analgesic activity:
a. Reserpine b. propranolol c. Clopheline d. Prazosin
460. Select the antiseizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

a. Carbamazepine b. Ethosuximide c. Phenytoin d. Clonazepam
461. Which of the following nonopioid agents is an antidepressant with analgesic

activity?
a. Fluoxetin b. Moclobemide c. Tranylcypramin d. Amitriptyline
462. Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:

a. Paracetamol b. Tramadol c. Sodium valproate d. Butorphanol
463. Neuroleptics are used to treat:

a. Neurosis b. Psychosis c. Narcolepsy d. Parkinsonian disorders
464. Most antipsychotic drugs:

a. Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor b. Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
c. Block NMDA receptor d. Stimulates 5-HT2 receptor
465. Which of the following dopaminergic systems is most closely related to behavior?
a. The hypothalamic –pituitary system b. The extrapyramidal system
c. The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
d. The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
466. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by blockade of dopamine in:

a. The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b. The pituitary
c. The extrapiramidal system
d. The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
467. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused by blockade dopamine
in:
a. The nigrostriatal system
b. The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
c. The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
d. The tuberoinfundibular system
468. Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by:

a. Levodopa b. Benztropine mesylate c. Bromocriptine d. Dopamine
469. Which of the following statements is true?

a. D1 postsynaptic receptors are located in striatum
b. D2 pre- and postsynaptic receptors are located in striatum and limbic areas
c. D4 postsynaptic receptors are located in frontal cortex, mesolimbic system
d. All of the above
821

470. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is typical?
a. Clozapine b. Quetiapine
c. Haloperidol d. Olanzapine
471. Indicate the atypical antipsychotic drug:

a. Haloperidol b. Clozapine
c. Thioridazine d. Thiothixene
472. Atypical antipsychotic agents (such as clozapine) differ from typical ones: (d)
a. In reduced risks of extrapyramidal system dysfunction and tardive dyscinesia
b. In having low affinity for D1 and D2 dopamine receptors
c. In having high affinity for D4 dopamine receptors
d. All of the above
473. Tardive dyskinesia is the result of:
a. Degeneration of dopaminergic and cholinergic fibers
b. Hyperactive dopaminergic state in the presence of dopamine blockers
c. Degeneration of histaminergic fibers
d. Supersensitivity of cholinergic receptors in the caudate putamen
474. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has high affinity for D4 and 5-HT2
receptors?
a. Clozapine b. Fluphenazine
c. Thioridazine d. Haloperidole
475. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a phenothiazine aliphatic derivative:

a. Thiothixene b. Risperidone
c. Chlorpromazine d. Clozapine
476. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a butyrophenone derivative:

a. Droperidol b. Thioridazine
c. Sertindole d. Fluphenazine
477. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a thioxanthene derivative:

a. Haloperido b. Clozapine
c. Chlorpromazine d.Thiothixene
478. Indicate the antipsychotic agent-a dibenzodiazepine derivative:

a. Fluphenazine b. Clozapine
c. Risperidone d. Droperidol
479. The strong antiemetic effect of the phenothiazine derivatives is due to dopamine
receptor blockade:
a. In the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b. Of the receptor in the stomach
c. The medullar vomiting centre
d. All the above
822

480. Phenothiazine derivatives are able to:
a. Alter temperature-regulating mechanism producing hypothermia
b. Decrease tevels of prolactin
c. Increase corticotrophin release and secretion of pituitary growth hormone
d. Decrease appetite and weight
481. Most phenothiazine derivative have:

a. Antihistaminic b. Anticholinergic activity
c. Antidopaminergic d. All of the above
482. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having significant peripheral alpha-adrenergic

blocking activity:
a. Haloperidol b. Chlorpromazine
c. Clozapine d Risperidone
483. The mechanism of haloperidol antipsychotic action is:

a. Blocking D2 receptor
b. Central alpha-adrenergic blocking
c. Inhibition of norepinerphrine uptake mechanisms
d. All the above
484. Which of the following statements is correct for clozapine?

a. Has potent anticholinergic activity
b. Has high affinity for D1 and D2 dopamine receptors
c. Produces singinificant extrapyramidal toxicity
d. All of the above
485. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has the high risd of potentially fatal
agranulocytosis and risk of seizures at high doses?
a. Haloperidol b. Risperidone
c. Clozapine d. Chlorpromazine
486. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs has high affinity for D2 and 5-HT2
receptor? (d)
a. Droperidol b. Clozapine
c. Thiothixene d. Risperidone
487. Lithium carbonate is useful in the treatment of:

a. Petit mal seizures b. Bipolar disorder
c. Neurosis d. Trigeminal neuralgia
488. The drug of choice for manic-depressive psychosis is:

a. Imipramine b. Chlordiazepoxide
c. Isocarboxazid d. Lithium carbonate
823

489. The lithium mode of action is:
a. Effect on electrolytes and ion transport
b. Effect on neurotransmitters
c. Effect on second messengers
d. All of the above
490. Which of the following statements is correct for lithium?

a. Stimulate dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors
b. Decrease catecholamine-related activity
c. Stimulate the development of dopamine receptor supersensitivity
d. Decrease cholinergic activity
491. Which of the following adverse effects is associated with lithium treatment ?
a. Cardiovascular anomalies in the newborn
b. Thyroid enlargement
c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d. All of the above
492. The principal mechanism of action of antidepressant agents is:

a. Stabilization of dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors
b. Inhibition of the storage of serotonin and epinephrine in the vesicles of presynaptic
nerve endings
c. Blocking epinephrine or serotonin reuptake pumps
d. Stimulation of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors
493. Which of the following agents is related to tricyclic antidepressants?

a. Nefazodon b. Amitriptyline
c. Fluoxetine d. Isocarboxazid
494. Indicate the second-generation heterocyclic drug:

a. Maprotilion b. Imipramine
c. Phenelzine d. Fluoxetine
495. Which of the following agents is related to the third-generation heterocyclic

antidepressants?
a. Amitriptyline b. Maprotiline
c. Nefazodone d. Tranylcypromine
496. Which of the following antidepressants is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

a. Phenelzine b. Desipramine
c. Maprotiline d. Fluoxetine
497. Which of the following antidepressant agents is a selective inhibitor of

norepinephrine reuptake?
a. Fluvoxamine b. Maprotiline
c. Amitirptyline d. Tranylcypromine
824

498. Indicate the antidepressant, which blocks the reuptake pumps for serotonin and
norepinephrine:
a. Amitirptyline b. Fluoxetine c. Maprotiline d. Phenelzine
499. Which of the following antidepressants is an unselective MAO blocker and

produces extremely long-lasting inhibition of the enzyme?
a. Moclobemide b. Tranylcypramine c. Selegiline d. Fluoxetine
500. Indicate the irreversible MAO inhibitor, which is a hydrazide derivative:

a. Moclobemide b. Selegiline c. Tranylcypramine d. Phenelzine
501. Which of the following MAO inhibitors has amphetamine-like activity and is related
to nonhydrazide derivatives?
a. phenelzine b. Moclobemide c. Tranylcypramine d. All of the above
502. Which of the following antidepressants is a selective short-acting MAO-A inhibitor?

©
a. Maprotiline b. Amitriptyline c. Moclobemide d. Selegiline
503. Manoamine Oxydase A :

a. Is responsible for norepinephrine, serotonin, and tyramine metabolism
b. Is more selective for dopamine
c. Metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine
d. Deaminates dopamine and serotonin
504. Which synapses are involved in depression?

a. Dopaminergic synapses b. Serotoninergic synapses
c. Cholinergic synapses d. All of the above
505. Block of which type of monoamine oxydase might be more selective for
depression?
a. MAO-A b. MAO-B
c. Both MAO-A and MAO-B d. MAO-c
506. The principal mechanism of MAO inhibitor action is :

a. Blocking the amine reuptake pumps, which permits to increase the concentration of
the neurotransmitter at the receptor site
b. Blocking a major degradative pathway for the amine neurotransmitters, this permits
more amines to accumulate in presynaptic stores
c. Inhibition the storage of amine neurotransmitters in the vesicles of presynaptic nerve
endings
d. Antagonism of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors
825

507. The irreversible MAO inhibitors have a very high risk of developing :
a. Respiratory depression
b. Cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression
c. Hypertensive reactions to tyramine ingested in fold
d. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
508. The most dangerous pharmacodynamic interaction is between MAO inhibitors and :
a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b. Tricyclics
c. Sympathomimetics
d. All of the above
509. Serotonin syndrome is a result of :

a. Increased stores of monoamine
b. Significant accumulation of amine neurotransmitters in the synapses
c. Both a and b
d. Depleted stores of biogenic amines
510. The therapeutic response to antidepressant drugs is usually over a period of :

a. 2-3 days b. 2-3 weeks c. 24 hours d. 2-3 month
511. Which of the following antidepressants may have latency period as short as 48
hours? (a)
a. Tranylcypromine b. Imipramine
c. Fluoxetine d. Amitrityline
512. Which of the following features do MAO inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants
have in common?
a. Act postsynaptically to produce their effect
b. Can precipitate hypotensive crises it certain foods are ingested
c. Increase levels of biogenic amines
d. Are useful for the manic phase of dipolar disorder
513. Tricyclic antidepressants are :

a. Highly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b. Monoamine oxides inhibitors
c. Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

d. Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors
514. Which of the following autonomic nervous system effects is common for tricyclic
antidepressants?
a. Antimuscarinic action
b. Antihistaminic action
c. Alfa adrenoreceptor-blocking action
d. All of the above
826

515. Fluoxetine has fewer adverse effects because of :
a. Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibition
b. Depleted stores of amine neurotransmitters
c. Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and alfa-adrenergic receptors
d. All of the above
516. Which of the following tricyclic and heterocyclic antidepressants has the greatest
sedation?
a. Doxepin b. Amitriptyline
c. Trazodone d. All of the above
517. Which of the following tricyclic and heterocyclic agents has the least sedation? (a)
a. Protriptyline b. Trazodone
c. Amitriptyline d. Mitrazapine
518. Indicate a tricyclic or a heterocyclic antidepressant having greatest antimuscarinic

effects:
a. Desipramine b. Amitriptyline
c. Trazodone d. Mirtazapine
519. Indicate a tricyclic or heterocyclic antidepressant having a least antimuscarinic

effects: (d)
a. Trazodone b. Buprorion
c. Mirtazapine d. All of the above
520. Which of the following antidepresseants has significant alfa2-adrenoreceptor

antagonism?
a. Amitriptyline b. Nefazodone
c. Mirtazapine d. Doxepin
521. Indicate the main claim for an ideal antidepressant agent :

a. A faster onset of action
b. Fewer adverse sedative and autonomic effects
c. Fewer toxicity when overdoses are taken
d. All of the above
522. Sedation, peripheral atropine-like toxicity (e.g. Cycloplegia, tachycardia, urinary

retention, and constipation), orthostatic hypotension, arrhythmias, weight gain and
sexual disturbances are possible adverse effects of :
a. Sertaline b. Amitriptyline
c. Phenelsine d. Bupropion
523. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be prescribed to patients with
prostatic hypertrophy, glaucoma, coronarg and cerebrovascular disease?
a. Amitriptyline b. Paroxetine c. Bupropion d. Fluoxetine
827

524. Indicate the antidepressant agent, which is a phenyltolylpropylamine derivative :
a. Paroxetine b. Maprotiline
c. Fluoxetine d. Amitriptyline
525. The mechanism of fluoxetine action includes:

a. Selective inhibition of serotonine uptake in the CNS
b. Little effect on central norepinephrine or dopamine function
c. Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and alfa-adrenergic receptors
d. All of the above
526. Which of the following antidepresseants is used for treatment of eating disorders,
especially buliemia?
a. Amitriptyline b. Fluoxetine
c. Imipramine d. Tranylcypromine
527. A highly selective serotonine reuptake inhibitor is :

a. Sertaline b. Paroxetine
c. Fluoxetine d. All of the above
528. Anxiolytics are used to treat:

a. Neurosis b. Psychosis
b. Narcolepsy d. Bipolar disorders
529. Anxiolytic agents should:

a. Relieve pain
b. Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
c. Improve mood and behavior in patient with psychotic symptoms
d. Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and maintenance of a state of sleep
530. Anxiolytics are also useful for :

a. Treatment of epilepsy and seizures b. Insomnia
c. Muscle relaxion in specific neuromuscular disorders d. All of the above
531. Indicate the agents of choice in the treatment of most anxiety states:
a. Barbiturates b. Benzodiazepines
c. Lithium salts d. Phenothiazines
532. The choice of benzodiazepines for anxiety is based on :

a. A relatively high therapeutic index
b. Availability of flumazenil for treatment of overdose
c. A low risk of physiologic-dependence
d. All of the above
533. Which of the following anxiolitics is a benzodiazepine derivative?

a. Buspirone b. Clordiazepoxide
c. Meprobamate d. Chloral hydrate
828

534. Indicate the benzodiazepine, which has the shortest elimination half-life:
a. Quazepam b. Triazolam
c. Diazepam d. Clorazepate
535. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest duration of action?
a. Triazolam b. Clorazepate
c. Prazepam d. Clordiazepoxide
536. Which of the following benzodiazepines is less likely to cause cumulative and
residual effects with multiple doses?
a. Clorazepate b. Quazepam
c. Lorazepam d. Prazepam
537. Anxiolytic dosage reduction is recommended:

a. In patients taking cimetidine
b. In patients with hepatic dysfunction
c. In elderly patients
d. All of the above
538. Which of the following benzodiazepines is preferred for elderly patients?

a. Clorazepate b. Clordiazepoxide
c. Triazolam d. Prazepam
539. Which of the following anxiolystics is preferred in patient with limited hepatic
function?
a. Buspirone b. Quazepam
c. Diazepam d. Chlordiazepoxide
540. Indicate the mechanism of hypnotic benzodiazepine action:

a. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated CI-channel openings
b. Directly activating the chloride channels
c. Increasing the frequency of CI-channel opening events
d. All of the above
541. Which of the following anxiolytics is a partial agonist of brain 5-HT1A receptors?
a. Buspirone b. Alprozolam
c. Chlorazepat d. Lorazepam
542. Indicate the competitive antagonist of BZ receptors:

a. Flumazenil b. Buspirone
c. Picrotoxin d. Diazepam
543. Indicate the agent, which interferes with GABA binding:

a. Chlordiazepoxide b. Bicuculline
c. Thiopental d. Picrotoxin
829

544. Antianxiety agents have :
a. Sedative and hypnotic activity
b. Muscle relaxing and anticonvulsant effects
c. Amnesic properties
d. All of the above
545. Which of the following disadvantages does not limit using benzodiazepines as
antianxiety agents?
a. Tendency to develop psychologic dependence
b. A high risk of drug interactions based on liver enzyme induction
c. Synergic CNS depression with concomitant use of other drugs
d. The formation of active metabolites
546. Indicate the anxiolytic agent, which relieves anxiety without causing marked
sedative effects
a. Diazepam b. Chlordiazepoxid
c. Buspirone d. Clorazepate
547. Which of the following anxiolytics has minimal abuse liability?

a. Oxazepam b. Buspirone
c. Flumazenil d. Alprazolam
548. Agents, stimulating CNS are all of the following except:
a. Fluoxetine b. Clozapine
c. Nootropil d. Sydnocarb
549. Which of the following CNS stimulants are the agents of selective effect?
a. Analeptics b. General tonics
c. Psychostimulants d. Actoprotectors
550. Indicate CNC stimulating drugs, which are the agents of general action :
a. Nootropic agents b. Analeptics
c. Psychostimulants d. Antidepressants
551. Which of the following agents belongs to psychostimulants?

a. Meridil b. Camphor
c. Piracetam d. Pantocrin
552. Indicate the nootropic agent:

a. Sydnocar b. Eleuterococci extract c. Fluoxetin d. Piracetam
553. Which of the following agents is a respiratory analeptic?

a. Piracetam b. Sydnocarb c. Bemegride d. Pantocrin
554. Indicate the CNC stimulating drug, which belongs to adaptogens:

a. Amphetamine b. Eleuterococci extract
c. Caffeine d. Sydnocarb
830

555. Actoprotectors are :
a. Stimulators, improving physical efficiency
b. Cognition enhancers, improving the highest integrative brain function
c. Stimulation, raising non-specific resistance towards stresses
d. Agents, stimulating the bulbar respiratory and vasomotor centers
556. Adaptogens cause:

a. Improvement of efficiency using physical loads and acceleration of recovery after the
load
b. Stimulation of respiratory and vasomotor centers
c. Temporary relief of the feeling of tiredness, facilitating the professional work and
fighting somnolence
d. Increased resistance towards stress situations and adaptation to extreme conditions
557. Indicate the CNS stimulants, which mitigate conditions of weakness or lack of tone
within the entire organism or in particular organs?
a. Psychostimulants b. Analeptics
c. General tonics d. Antidepressants
558. Indicate a general tone-increasing drug, which is an agent of animal origin?

a. Pantocrin b. Amphetamine
c. Sydnocarb d. Camphor
559. Amphetamine:
a. Is a powerful stimulant of the CNS
b. Stimulates the medullar respiratory center and has an analeptic action
c. Increases motor and speech activity, mood, decreases a sense of fatigue
d. All of the above
560. The mechanism of amphetamine action is related to:

a. Direct catecholamiergic agoinst action
b. Inhibition of monoamine oxydase
c. Increasing a release of catecholaminergic neurotransmitters
d. All of the above
561. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is a piperidine derivative:

a. Meridil b. Amphetamine
c. Caffeine d. Sydnophen
562. Which of the following CNS psychostimulants is a sydnonymine derivative?

a. Caffeine
b. Sydnocarb
c. Meridil (methylphenidate hydrochloride)
d. Amphetamine
831

563. Sydnocarb causes:
a. Decreased sense of fatigue, it facilitates the professional work and fights somnolence
b. The feeling of prosperity, relaxation and euphoria
c. Influx of physical and mental forces, locomotive and speech excitation
d. Peripheral sympathomimetic action
564. Indicate the psychostimulant, which is a mehtylxantine derivative:

a. Caffeine b. Sydnocarb
c. Amphetamine d. Meridil
565. Which of the following psychostimulants acts centrally mainly by blocking

adenosine receptors?
a. Meridil b. Caffeine
c. Amphetamine d. Sydnophen
566. Principal properties of caffeine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Cardiac analeptic (increase the rate and the force of the cardiac contraction)
b. Adaptogenic (rise non-specific resistance towards stresses and adapt to extraordinary
challenges)
c. Psychoanaleptic (decrease the feeling of tiredness, facilitates the professional work
and fights somnolence)
d. Respiratory analeptic (stimulate the bulbar respiratory center)
567. Caffeine can produce all of the following effects except :

a. Coronary vasodialation
b. Relaxation of bronchial and biliary tract smooth muscles
c. Vasodialation of cerebral vessels
d. Reinforcement of the contractions and increase of the striated muscle work
568. Caffeine does not cause :

a. Inhibition of gastric secretion
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Moderate diuretic action
d. Increase in free fatty acids
569. Therapeutic uses of caffeine include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. Cardiovascular collapse and respiratory insufficiency b. Migraine
c. Somnolence d. Gastric ulceration
570. Adverse effects of caffeine include all of the following EXCEPT :

a. Arrhythmias b. Insomnia
c. Hypotension d. Psychomotor excitation
571. Principal properties of cordiamine include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Cardiac analeptic b. Respiratory analeptic
c. Coronamy dilator d. Significant abuse potential
832

572. Characteristics of cordiamine include all of the following EXCEPT :
a. It stimulates the CNS and facilitates the movement coordination
b. It is a respiratory analeptic of mixed action (stimulates both the medullar respiratory
center and chemoreceptor of carotid sinus zone)
c. It decreases the aortic and coronary flow
d. It counteracts the central depression produced by other drugs (barbiturates)
573. Cordiamine is useful in the treatment of :

a. Hypotension b. Coronary insufficiency
c. Respiratory insufficiency d. All of the above
574. Respiratory and cardiac analeptics are all of the following agents EXCEPT :
a. Cordiamine b. Bemegride
c. Caffeine d. Camphor
575. Bemegride :
a. Stimulates the medullar respiratory center (central effect)
b. Stimulates hemoreceptors of carotid sinus zone (reflector action)
c. Is a mixed agent (both central and reflector effects)
d. Is a spinal analeptic
576. Which of the following CNS stimulants belongs to nootropics?

a. Camphor b. Pantocrin
c. Sydnocarb d. Piracetam
577. Psychological dependence is :

a. Decreased responsiveness to a drug following repeated exposure
b. A combination of certain drug-specific symptoms that occur on sudden
discontinuation of a drug
c. Compulsive drug-seeking behavior
d. All of the above
578. Tolerance is associated with :

a. An ability to compensate for the drug effect
b. Increased disposition of the drug after chronic use
c. Compensatory changes in receptors, effector enzymes, or membrance actions of the

drug
d. All of the above
579. Addiction is associated with the existence of :

a. Psychological dependence
b. Physiological dependence
c. Tolerance
d. All of the above
833

580. Substances causing narco-and glue sniffings are all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Stimulants b. Antipsychotic drugs
c. Psychedelics d. Sedative drugs
581. Which of the following abused drugs do not belongs to sedative agents?
a. Barbiturates
b. Tranquilizers
c. Cannabinoids
d. Opioids
582. Psychedelics are all of following agents EXCEPT:

a. Cocaine
b. LSD
c. Cannabinoids
d. Opioids
583. Incontrast to morphine, heroin is :

a. Used clinically
b. More addictive and fast-acting
c. More effective orally
d. Less potent and long-acting
584. Symptoms of opioid withdrawal being 8-10 hours after the last dose
a. True b. False
585. The acute course of opioid withdrawal may last :

a. 3-4 days b. 7-10 days c. 3-4 weeks d. 26-30 weeks
586. Indicate the sedative-hypnotic agent, which has the highest abuse potential:
a. Buspirone b. Diazepam
c. Phenobarbital d. Zolpidem
587. Characteristics of barbiturate intoxication (2-3 dose) include all of the following
EXCEPT :
a. Pleasant feelings of the “blow” in the head, vertigo, myasthenia, stupor
b. Perceptual distortion of surroundings, disorders of thinking, behavior
c. Locomotive, speech excitation, sharp swings from a cheerful mood to an aggressive
state
d. Sleep with the subsequent weakness and headaches
588. Barbiturate abstinent syndrome is shown by:

a. Crisis by 3 day of abstention
b. Anxiety, mydriasis, myasthenia, muscular convulsions, vomiting, diarrhea
c. Psychosis as delirium (color visual and auditory hallucinations)
d. All of the above
834

589. Which one of the following tranquilizers belongs to strong euphorizing agents? ©
a. Mebicarum b. Buspirone
c. Diazepam d. Chlordiazepoxide
590. Tranquilizers intoxication (5-10 tablets) features include:

a. Euphoria, burst of energy, increase in motor activity, wave warmth all over the body
b. Visual hallucinations, a distorted feeling of time and space
c. Physical bliss, body lightness, a wish to fly, motionlessness
d. Synaesthesia (the sounds can be tensed, the colors can be heard)
591. Which of the following abused drugs is related to stimulants?

a. Cocaine b. Amphetamine
c. Caffeine d. All of the above
592. Cocaine exerts its central action by :

a. Inhibiting phosphodiesterase
b. Increasing a release of catecholaminergic neurotransmitters, including dopamine
c. Inhibiting dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake
d. Altering serotonin turnover
593. “Crack” is a derivative of :

a. Opium b. LSD
c. Cocaine d. Cannabis
594. Cocaine intoxication appears by :

a. Short clouding of consciousness, lightness of body and a feeling of flight
b. Wave warmth all over the body, physical bliss motionlessness
c. Clear consciousness, improved mood, influx of physical and spiritual forces,

locomotive and speech excitation, reappraisal of personality
d. All of the above
595. Which of the following stimulants is related to psychedelics?

a. “Ecstasy” (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
b. Cocaine
c. “Crack” (cocaine free base)
d. Caffeine
596. Cocaine may cause:

a. Powerful vasoconstrictive reactions resulting in myocardial infarctions
b. The multiple brain perfusion defects
c. Spontaneous abortion during pregnancy
d. All of the above
835

597. Characteristics of cocaine abstinent syndrome include all of the following phases
EXCEPT:
a. Feeling of depression, irritability, confusion, insomnia (the first 3 days)
b. Depression, apathy, excessive appetite, a wish to sleep (the subsequent 1-2 days)
c. Psychosis as color visual and auditory hallucinations (for 3 day)
d. New attack of depression, anxiety, irritability, dullness, intense thirst for cocaine (after
1-5 days improvement)
598. Overdoses of cocaine are usually rapidly fatal from :

a. Respiratory depression b. Arrhythmias
c. Seizures d. All of the above
599. Which of the following agents is related to ahllucinogens?

a. Heroin b. LSD
c. Cocaine d. Opium
600. LSD produces: (d)

a. Mood swings
b. Impaired memory difficulty in thinking, poor judgment
c. Perceptual distortion
d. All of the above

PHARMACOLOGY

601. LSD decreases in brain:
a. 5-HT2 receptor densities
b. GABAA-benzodiazepine receptor densities
c. Adrenergic receptor densities
d. D2 receptor densities
602. Which of the following agents is related to cannabis?

a. Heroin b. Ecstasy
c. Hashish d. Crack
603. The early stage of cannabis intoxication is characterized by:

a. Euphoria uncontrolled laugher
b. Alteration of time sense depersonalization
c. Sharpened vision d. All of the above
604. Which of the following physiologic signs is a characteristic of cannabis

intoxication?
a. Bradycardia b. Reddening of the conjunctiva c. Miosis d. Nausea and
vomiting
836

605. Industrial solvent inhalation causes:
a. Quick intoxication, lasting only 5-15 minutes
b. Euphoria, relaxed “drunk” feeling
c. Disorientation, slow passage of time and possible hallucinations
d. All of the above
606. The state of “general anesthesia” usually includes:

a. Analgesia
b. Loss of consciousness, inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
c. Amnesia
d. All of the above
607. Inhaled anesthetics and intravenous agents having general anesthetic properties:
a. Directly activate GABAA receptors
b. Facilitate GABA action but have no direct action on GABAA receptors
c. Reduce the excitatory glutamatergic neurotransmission
d. Increase the duration of opening of nicotine-activated potassium channels
608. Indicate the anesthetic which is an inhibitor of NMDA glutamate receptors: ©

a. Thiopental b. Halothane
c. Ketaminc d. sevoflurane
609. An ideal anesthetic drug would:

a. Induces anesthesia smoothly and rapidly and secure rapid recovery
b. Posses a wide margin of safety
c. Be devoid of adverse effects
d. All of the above
610. Which of the following general anesthetics belongs to inhalants?

a. Thiopental b. Desfluran
c. Ketamine d. Propofol
611. Indicate the anesthetic, which is used intravenously:

a. Propofol b. Haiothane
c. Desflurane d. Nitrous oxide
612. Which of the following inhalnts is a gas anesthetic?

a. Halothan b. Isoflurane
c. Nitrous oxide d. Desflurane
613. Sevoflurane has largely replaced halothane and isoflurane as an inhalation

anesthetic of choice because:
a. Induction of anesthesia is achieved more rapidly and smoothly
b. Recovery is more rapid
c. It has low post-anesthetic organ toxitcity
d. All of the above
837

614. The limitation of sevoflurane is:
a. High incidence of coughing and laryngospasm
b. Chemically unstable
c. Centrally mediated sympathetic activation leading to a rise of BP and HR
d. Hepatotoxicity
615. Which of the following inhalants lacks sufficient potency to produce surgical
anesthesia by itself and therefore is commonly used with another inhaled or
intravenous anesthetic?
a. Halothane b. Sevoflurane
c. Nitrous oxide d. Desflurane
616. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has rapid onset and recovery?
a. Nitrous oxide b. Desflurane
c. Sevoflurane d. All of the above
617. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic. Which reduces arterial pressure and heart rate:
a. Isoflurane b. Halothane
c. Desflurane d. Nitrous oxide
618. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics causes centrally mediated sympathetic
activation leading to a reise in blood pressure and heart rate?
a. Desflurane b. Sevoflurane
c. Nitrous oxide d. Isofurane
619. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which decreases the ventilatory response to
hypoxia:
a. Sevoflurane b. Nitrous oxide
c. Desflurane d. Halothane
620. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is an induction agent of choice in patient
with airway problems?
a. Desfurane b. Nitrous oxide
c. Halothane d. None of the above
621. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which causes the airway irritation:
a. Nitrous oxide b. Sevoflurane
c. Halothane d. Desflurane
622. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics increases cerebral blood flow least of all?
a. Sevoflurane b. Nitrous oxide c. Isoflurane d. Desflurane
623. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic which should be avoided in patients with a history of
seizure disorders:
a. Enfluane b. Nitrous oxide
c. Sevoflurane d. Desflurane
838

624. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics can produce hepatic necrosis? ©
a. Soveflurane b. Desflurane
c. Halothane d. Nitrous oxide
625. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, which may causes nephrotoxicity:

a. Halothane b. Soveflurane
c. Nitrous oxide d. diethyl ether
626. Which of the following anesthetics decreases metheonine synthase activity and
causes megaloblastic anemia?
a. Desflurane b. Halothane
c. Nitrous oxide d. Soveflurane
627. Unlike inhaled anesthetics, intravenous agents such as thiopental, etomiate, and
propofol:
a. Have a faster onset and rate of recovery
b. Provide a state of conscious sedation
c. Are commonly used for induction of anesthesia
d. All of the above
628. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate:

a. Fentanyl b. Thiopental
c. Midazolam d. Ketamine
629. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which is a benzodiazepine derivative:

a. Midazolam b. Thiopental
c. Keamin d. propofol
630. Which of the following agents is used to accelerate recovery from the sedative
actions of intravenous benzodiazepines?
a. Naloxone b. Flumazenil
c. Ketamine d. Fomepizole
631. Neuoleptanalgesia has all of the following properties EXCEPT:

a. Doperidol and fentanyl are commonly used
b. It can be used with nitrous oxide to provide neuroleptanesthesia
c. Hypertension is a common consequence
d. Confusion and mental depression can occur as adverse effects
632. Which of the following intravenous anesthetics has antiemetic actions?

a. Thiopental b. Propofol c. Ketamine d. Fentanyl
633. Indicate tehintravenous anesthetic, which causes minimal cardiovascular and

respiratory depressant effects:
a. Propofol b. Thiopental c. Etomidate d. Midazolam
839

634. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which produces dissociative anesthesia:
a. Midazolam b. Ketamine c. Fentanyl d. Thiopental
635. Ketamine anesthesia is associated with:

a. Cardivascular stimulation
b. Increased cerebral blood flow oxygen consumption and Intracranial pressure
c. Disorientation sensory and perceptual illusions and vivid dreams following anesthesia
d. All of the above
636. Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center EXCEPT:

a. Bemegride b. Caffenine c. Aethymizole d. Cytiton
637. The mechanism of Cytiton action is:

a. Direct activation of the respiratory center b. The reflex mechanism
c. The mixed mechanism d. None of the above
638. Indicate the drug belonging to antitussives of narcotic type of action:

a. Glaucine hydrochloride b. Aethylmorphine hydrochloride
c. Tusuprex d. Libexine
639. Tick out the drug belonging to non-narcotic antitussives:

a. Libexine b. Tusuprex
c. Codeine d. Aethylmorphine hydrochloride
640. Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism:

a. Sodium benzoate
b. Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis
c. Trypsin
d. Ambroxol
641. Tick the antitussive agent with a peripheral effect:

a. Codeine b. Tusuprex
c. Libexine d. Glaucine hydrochloride
642. All of these drugs contain free sulfhydryl groups EXCEPT:

a. Acetylcysteine b. Ambroxol
c. Bromhexin d. Trypsin
643. Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme?

a. Potassium iodide b. Desoxyribonuclease
c. Carbocysteine d. Acetylcysteine
644. All of the following drugs destroy disulfide bonds of proteoglycans, which causes
depolymerization and reduction of viscosity of sputum, EXCEPT:
a. Acetylcysteine b. Ambroxol
c. Carbocysteine d. Acetylcysteine
840

645. Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment?
a. Methylxanthines b. M-cholinoblocking agents
c. Beta2- stimulants d. All of the above
646. Tick the drug belonging to non-selective beta2-adrenomimics:

a. Salbutamol b. Isoprenaline
c. Salmeterol d. Terbutaline
647. Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta2-adrenomimics:

a. Depression of the breathing centre
b. Tachycardia
c. Peripheral vasoconstriction
d. Dry mouth
648. Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine:

a. Atropine b. Orciprenaline
c. Adrenaline d. Theophyline
649. Pick out the bronchodilator drug belonging to sympathomimics:

a. Isoprenaline b. Ephedrine
c. Atropine d. Salbutamol
650. The property of prolonged theophylines is the prevention of night asthmatic attack.
It’s:
a. True b. False
651. The mechanism of methylxanthines action is:

a. Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase
b. Beta2-aderenorecptor stimulation
c. Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines
d. Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors
652. Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used especially as an anti-

asthmatic?
a. Atropine b. Ipratropium
c. Platiphyline d. Metacin
653. Indicate the side effect of Theophyline:

a. Bradycardia
b. Increased myocardial demands for oxygen
c. Depression of respiratory centre
d. Elevation of the arterial blood pressure
654. All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids EXCEPT:

a. Triamcinolone b. Beclometazone
c. Sodium cromoglycate d. Budesonide
841

655. Choose the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents:
a. Zileutin b. Sodium cromoglycate
c. Zafirlucast d. Montelucast
656. Tick the drug which is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor:

a. Budesonide b. Sodium cromoglycate
c. Zileutin d. Beclometazone
657. Zileutin prevents the production of leukotrienes. This statement is:

a. True b. False
658. Indicate the drug which is a leucotriene receptor antagonist:

a. Sodium cromoglycate b. Zafirlucast
c. Zileutin d. Traimcinotone
659. Tick the main approach of peptic ulcer treatment:

a. Neutralization of gastric acid
b. Eradication of Helicobacter pylori
c. Inhibition of gastric and secretion
d. All of the above
660. Gastric acid secretion is under the control of the following agents EXCEPT:
a. Histamine b. Acetylcholine
c. Serotonin d. Gastric
661. Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors:
a. Pirenzepine b. Ranitidine
c. Omeprazole d. Trimethaphan
662. All of the following agents intensify the secretion of gastric glands EXCEPT:
a. Pepsin b. Gastrin
c. Histamine d. Carbonate mineral waters
663. Which of the following drugs is an agent of substitution therapy?

a. Gastrin b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Hystamine d. Carbonate mineral waters
664. Choose the drug which is a H2-receptor antagonist:

a. Omeprazole b. pirenzepine c. Carbenoxolone d. Ranitidine
665. All of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors EXCEPT:
a. Pantoprozole b. Omeprazole c. Famotidine d. Raberprazole
666. Indicate the drug belonging to m1-cholinoblockers:

a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine
c. Pirenzepin d. Omeprazole
842

667. Which of the following drug may cause reversinle gynecomastia?
a. Omeprazole b. Pirenzepine
c. Cimetidine d. Sucralfate
668. Tick the drug forming a physical barrier to HCL and pepsin:
a. Ranitidine b. Sucralfate
c. Omeprazole d. Pirenzepine
669. Select the drug stimulating the protective function of the mucous barrier and the
stability of the mucous membrane against damaging factors:
a. De-nol b. Sucralfate
c. Misoprostol d. Omeprazole
670. Most of drugs are antacids EXCEPT:

a. Misoprostol b. Maalox
c. Mylanta d. Almagel
671. Indicate the drug that causes metabolic alkalosis:

a. Sodium bicarbonate b. Cimetidine
c. Pepto-Bismol d. Carbenoxolone
672. Choose the drug that causes constipation:

a. Sodium bicarbonate b. Cimetidine
c. Calcium carbonate d. Magnesium oxide
673. All of the following drugs stimulate appetite EXPECT:

a. Vitamins b. Bitters c. Fepranone d. Insulin
674. Select an anorexigenic agent affecting serotoninergic system:

a. Fenfluramine b. Fepranone
c. Desopimone d. Masindole
675. All of the following drugs intensify gastrointestinal motility EXPECTL:

a. Papaverine b. Metoclopramide
c. Domperidone d. Cisapride
676. Choose an emetic drug of central action:

a. Ipecacuanha derivatives b. Promethazine
c. Tropisetron d. Apomorphine hydrochloride
677. Tick the mechanism of Metoclopramide antiemetic action:

a. H1 and H2-receptor blocking effect
b. M-cholinoreceptor stimulating effect
c. D2-dopamine and 5-HT3-serotonin receptor blocking effect
d. M-cholinoblocking effect
843

678. Select the emetic agent having a reflex action:
a. Ipecacuanha derivatives b. Apomorphine hydroclorid
c. Chlorpromazine d. Metoclopramide
679. All of the following drugs are antiemetics EXPECT:

a. Metoclopramide b. Ondansetron
c. Chlorpromazine d. Apomorphine hydrochloride
680. Indicate an antiemetic agent which is related to neuroleptics:

a. Metoclopramide b. Nabilone
c. Tropisetron d. Prochlorperazine
681. Following drugs stimulate erythrogenesis:

a. Iron dextran b. Vitamine B12
c. Methotrexate d. Folic acid
682. Choose the drug depressing erythrogenesis:

a. Radioactive phosphorus 32 b. Ferrous sulfate
c. Molgramostim d. Folic acid
683. Which drug does not influence leucopoiesis?

a. Filgrastim b. Erythropoetin c. Doxorubicin d. Methotrexate
684. All of the following drugs used for iron deficiency anemia EXPECT:
a. Ferrous sulfate b. Folic acid
c. Ferrous gluconate d. Ferrous fumarate
685. Tick the drug for parenteral iron therapy:

a. Ferrous sulfate b. Fercoven
c. Ferrous lactate d. Ferrous fumarate
686. Indicate the drug which increases absorption of iron from intestine:
a. Cyanocobalamin b. Folic acid c. Ascorbic acid d. Erythropoetin
687. The drugs used for oral administration EXCKYDE:

a. Ferrous sulfate b. Fercoven
c. Ferrous lactate d. Ferrous fumarate
688. Pernicious anemia is developed due to deficiency of:

a. Erythropoetin b. Vitamine B12
c. Iron d. Vitamine B6
689. Select the drug used for pernicious anemia:

a. Ferrous lactate b. Cyanocobalamin
c. Iron dextran d. Ferrous gluconate
844

690. An adverse effect of oral iron therapy is:
a. Anemia b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Headache d. Constipation
691. Choose the drug which contains cobalt atom:

a. Folic acid b. Iron dextran
c. Cyanocobalamine d. Ferrous gluconate
692. Tick the drug used in aplastic anemia:

a. Fercoven b. Cyanocoblamine
c. Epoetin alpha d. Folic acid
693. Select the drug of granulocyte colony-stimulating factor:

a. Filgrastim b. Methotrexate
c. Erythropoetin d. Doxorubicin
694. All of the following physiological reactions are involved in the control of bleeding
EXCEPT:
a. Platelet adhesion reaction
b. Platelet release reaction
c. Activation of the antifibrinolytic system
d. Triggering of the coagulation process
695. Which of the following substances is synthesized within vessel walls and inhibits
thrombogenesis?
a. Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) b. prostacyclin (PG12)
c. Prostaglandin (PGE) d. None of the above
696. All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT:
a. Anticoagulant drugs b. Antifibrinolitic drugs
c. Fibrinolitic drugs d. Antiplatelet drugs
697. Pick out the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action:

a. Aspirin b. Heparin
c. Dicumarol d. Phenprocoumon
698. Which of the following drugs has low-molecular weight?

a. Dicumarol b. Enoxaparin c. Phenprocoumon d. Heparin
699. Indicate the drug belonging to antagonists of heparin:

a. Aspirin b. Dicumarol
c. Dalteparin d. Protamine sulfate
700. Tick the drug used as an oral anticoagulant:

a. Heparin b. Daltreparin
c. Dicumarol d. Enoxaparin
845

701. All of the following drugs are indirect acting anticoagulants EXPECT:
a. Dicumarol b. Warfarin
c. Dalteparin d. Phenindione
702. Which of the following drugs belongs to coumarin derivatives?

a. Heparin b. Enoxaparin
c. Dalteparin d. Warfarin
703. All of these drugs are antiplatelet agents EXPECT:

a. Aspirin b. Urokinase
c. Toclopidine d. Clopidogrel
704. Mechanism of aspirin action is:

a. Converts inactive plasminogen into active plasmin
b. Inhibits COX and thus thromboxane synthesis
c. Enhances the interaction between antitrombin III and both thrombin and factors
involved in the intrinsic clotting cascade
d. Inhibits the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex
705. Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors?
a. Aspirin b. Clopidogrel
c. Ticlopidine d. Abciximab
706. All of the following are normally involved in the pathogenesis of heart failure
EXPECT:
a. A cardiac lesion that impairs cardiac output
b. An increase in peripheral vascular resistance
c. A decrease in preload
d. An increase in sodium and water retention
707. All of the following are compensatory mechanisms that occur during the
pathogenesis of congestive heart failure EXCEPT:
a. An increase in ventricular end-diastolic volume
b. An increase in the concentration of plasma catecholamines
c. An increase in vagal tone
d. Increased activity of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
708. All of the following are recommended at the initial stages of treating patients with
heart failure EXPECT:
a. Reduced salt intake b. Verapamil
c. ACE inhibitors d. Diuretics
709. All of the following agents belong to cardiac glycosides EXCEPT:

a. Digoxin b. Strophantin K
c. Amrinone d. Digitoxin
846

710. The non-glycoside positive intropic drug is:
a. Digoxin b. Strophantin K c. Dobutamine d. Digitoxin
711. Sugar molecules in the structure of glycosides influence:

a. Cardiotonic action b. Pharmacokinetic properties
c. Toxic properties d. All of the above
712. Aglycone is essential for:

a. Plasma protein binding b. Half-life
c. Cardiotonic action d. Metabolism
713. choose the derivative of the plant foxglove (Digitalis):

a. Digoxin b. Stophantin K
c. Dobutamine d. Amrinone
714. All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true EXPECT:
a. They inhibit the Na/K+-ATpase and thereby increase intracellular ca++ in myocard al
cells
b. They causes a decrease in vagal tone
c. Children tolerate higher doses of digitals than do adults
d. The most frequent cause of digitalis into cation is concurrent administration of
diuretics that deplete K+
715. All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true EXCEPT:
a. They inhibit the activity of the Na/k+-AtPase
b. They decrease intracellular concentration of calcium in myocytes
c. They increase vagal tone
d. They have a very low therapeutic index.
716. All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true EXCEPT:
a. Digoxin is a mild inotrope
b. Digoxin increases vagal tone
c. Digoxin has a longer half-life than digitoxin
d. Digoxin acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase
717. The most cardiac manifestation of glycosides intoxication is:

a. Atrioventricular junctional rhythm
b. Second-degree atrioventrcular blockade
d. All of the above
718. The manifestations of glycosides intoxication are:

a. Visual changes
b. Ventricular tachyarrhythmias
c. Gastrointestinal disturbances
d. All of the above
847

719. For digitalis-induced arrhythmias the following drug is favored
a. Verapamil b. Amicdarone
c. Lidocaine d. Propanolol
720. In very severe digitalis intoxication the best choice is to use:

a. Lidocaine
b. Digibind (Digoxin immune fab)
c. Oral potassium supplementation
d. Reducing the dose of the drug
721. All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycoside-induced ventricular

tachyarrhythmias are true EXCEPT:
a. Lidocaine is drug of choice in treatment
b. Digbind should be used in life-threatening cases
c. They occur more frequently in patients with hyperkalemia than in those with
hypokalemia
d. They are more likely to occur in patients with a severely damaged heart
722. This drug is a selective beta1 agonist:

a. Digoxin b. Dobutamine
c. Amrinone d. Dopamine
723. Tolerance to this inotropic drug develops after a few days:

a. Amrinone b. Amiodarone
c. Dobutamine d. Adenosine
724. This drug inhibits breakdown of cAMP in vascular smooth muscle:

a. Digoxin b. Dobutamine
c. Amrinone d. Dopamine
725. This drug is useful for treating heart failure because it increases the inotropic state
and reduces after load:
a. Amiodarone b. Amrinona
c. Propanolol d. Enalapri
726. This drug acts by ihhibiting type III cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase
a. Amiodarone b. Milrinone
c. Propanolol d. Enalapril
727. All of the following statements regarding inhibitors of type III phosphodiesterase are
true EXCEPT: ©
a. They raise cAMP concentrations in cardiac myocytes
b. They reduce after load
c. They show significant cross-tolerance with beta-receptor agonists
d. They are associated with a significant risk for cardiac arrhythmias
848

728. All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of severe congestive heart
failure EXCEPT:
a. Verapamil b. Digoxin
c. Dobutamine d. Dopamine
729. Drugs most commonly used in chronic heart failure are :

a. Cardiac glycosides b. Diuretics
c. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
d. All of the above
730. All of the following statements concerning angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
inhibitors are true EXCEPT:
a. They act by inhibiting the ability of renin to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
b. Enalapril is a prodrug that is converted to an active metabolite
c. They reduce secretion of aldosterone
d. They can produce hyperkalemia in combination with a potassium-sparing diuretic.
731. All of the following effects of ACE inhibitors may be useful in treating heart failure
EXCEPT:
a. They decrease afterload
b. They increase circulating catecholamine levels
c. They reduce reactive myocardial hypertrophy
d. They increase myocardial beta-1 adrenergic receptor density
732. All of the following statements concerning the use of angiotensin-converting

enzyme (ACE) inhinitors in the treatment of heart failure are true EXCEPT:
a. They improve hemodynamics by decreasing afterload
b. They can increase plasma cholesterol levels
c. They may slow the progression of heart failure by preventing myocardial and vascular
remodeling
d. They are effective first-line agents in the treatment of chronic heart failure
733. This drug is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug:

a. Sotalol b. proparanolol c. Verapamil d. Quinidine
734. This drug is a class IC antiarrhythmic drug:

a. Flecainide b. Sotalol c. Lidocaine d. Verapamil
735. This drug is a class IC antiarrhythmic drug:

736. This drug is a class II antiarrhythmic drug:

737. This drug is a class III antiarrhythmic drug:

849

738. This drug prolongs repolarization:
739. This drug is a class IV antiarrhythmic drug:

740. This drug is used in treating supraventricular tachycardias:

a. DIgoxin b. Donutamine c. Amrinone d. Dopamine
741. This drug is associated with torsades de pointes

742. This drug has beta-adrenergic blocking activity:

743. This drug is useful in terminating atrial but not ventricular tachycardias:
744. This is a drug of choice for acute treatment ofventricular tachycardias:

745. This drug is contraindicated in patients with moderate to severe heart failure:
a. Nifedipine b. Verapamil c. Both of the above d. None of the above
746. This drug is an effective bronchodilator:

747. This drug is used intravenously to terminate supraventricular tachycardias:

748. This drug has a little or no direct effect on chronotropy and dromotropy at normal
doses
a. Nifedipine b. Diltiazem
c. Verapamil d. All of the above
749. This drug acts by inhibiting slow calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes:
a. Quinidine b. Adenosine
c. Flecainide d. Diltiazem
750. All of the following statements regarding verapamil are true EXCEPT:
a. It blocks L-type calcium channels
b. It increases heart rate
c. It relaxes coronary artery smooth muscle
d. It depresses cardiac contractility
850

751. All of the following calcium channel blockers are useful in the treatment of cardiac
arrhythmias EXCEPT:
a. Bepridil b. Diltiazem
c. Verapamil d. Nifedipine
752. All of the following are common adverse effects of calcium channel blockers
EXCEPT:
a. Skeletal muscle weakness
b. Dizziness
c. Headache
d. Flushing
753. Tick the adverse reactions characteristic for lidocaine:

a. Agranulocytosis, leucopenia
b. Extrapyramidal disorders
c. Hypotension, paresthesias, convulsions
d. Bronchospasm, dyspepsia
754. Angina pectoris is:

a. Severe constricting chest pain, often radiating from the precordium to the left shoulder
and down the arm, due to insufficient blood supply to the heart that is usually caused
by coronary disease
b. An often fatal from of arrhythmia characterized by rapid, irregular fibrillar twitching of
the ventricles of the heart instead of normal contractions, resulting in a loss of pulse
c. The cardiovascular condition in which the heart ability to pump blood weakens
d. All of the above
755. All these drug groups useful in angina both decrease myocardial oxygen
requirement (by decreasing the determinations of oxygen demand) and increase
myocardial oxygen demand) and increase myocardial oxygen delivery (by reversing
coronary arterial spasm), EXCEPT:
a. Nitrates and nitrite drugs (Nitroglycerin, Isosorbide dinitrate)
b. Calcium channel blockers (Nifedipine, Nimodipine)
c. Beta-adrenoseceptor-blocking drugs (Atenolol, Metoprolol)
d. Potassium channel openers (Minoxidil)
756. This drug group useful in angina decreases myocardial oxygen requirement (by
decreasing the determinations of oxygen demand) and does not increase
myocardial oxygen delivery (by reversing coronary arterial spasm):
a. Nitrates and nitrite drugs (Nitroglycerin, Isosorbide dinitrate)
b. Myotropic coronary dilators (Dipyridamole)
c. Potassium channel openers (Minoxidil)
d. Beta-adrencoceptor-blocking drugs (Atenolo, Mtoprolol)
851

757. This drug group useful in angina increase myocardial oxygen delivery (by reversing
coronary arterial spasm) and does not decease myocardial oxygen requirement (by
decreasing the determinations of oxygen demand):
a. Beta-adrencoceptor-blocking drugs (Atenolol, Metoprolol)
b. Myotropic coronary dilators (Dipyridamole)
c. Calcium channel blockers (Nifedipine, Nimodipine)
d. Potassium channel openers (Minoxidil)
758. Which of the following statements concerning nitrate mechanism of action is True?
a. Therapeutically active aagents in this group are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO)
in to vascular smooth muscle target tissues
b. Nitric oxide (NO) is an effective activator of soluble guanylyl cyclase and probably acts
mainly through this mechanism
c. Nitrates useful in angina decrease myocardial oxygen requirement (by decreasing the
determinations of oxygen demand) and increase myocardial oxygen delivery (by
reversing coronary arterial spasm)
d. All of the above
759. Which of the following nitrates and nitrite drugs is a short-acting drug?
a. Nitrioglycerin, 2% ointment (Nitrol)
b. Nitroglycerin, oral sustained-release (Nitrong)
c. Amyl nitrite, inhalant (Aspirols, Vaporole)
d. Sustac
760. Which of the following nitrates and nitrite drugs is used for prevention of angina
attack?
a. Nitroglycerin, 2% ointment (Nitrol)
b. Nitroglycerin, oral sustained-release (Nitrong)
c. Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMO)
d. All of the above
761. Duration of nitroglycerin action (sublingual) is:

a. 10-30 minutes b. 6-8 hours
c. 3-5 minutes d. 1.5-2 hours
762. The following statements concerning mechanism of nitrate beneficial clinical effect
are true, EXCEPT:
a. Decreased myocardial oxygen requirement
b. Relief of coronary artry spasm
c. Improved perfusion to ischemic myocardium
d. Increased myocardial oxygen consumption
763. Side effect of nitrates and nitrite drugs are, EXCEPT:

a. Orthostatic hypotension, taqchycardia
b. GI disturbance
c. Throbbing headache
d. Tolerance
852

764. The following statements concerning mechanism of calcium channel blockers’
action are true, EXCEPT:
a. Therapeutically active agents in this group are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in
vascular smooth muscle target tissues
b. Calcium channel blockers bind to L-type calcium channel sites
c. Calcium channel blockers useful in angina decrease myocardial oxygen requirement
(by decreasing the detereminations of oxygen demand) and increase myocardial
oxygen delivery (by reversing coronary arterial spasm)
d. Calcium channel blockers decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in
smooth muscle with long-lasting relaxation and in a cardiac muscle with a reduction in
contractility
765. Which of the following antianginal agents is a calcium channel blocker?

a. Nitroglycerin b. Dipyridamole
c. Minoxidil d. Nifedipine
766. Which of the following cardiovascular system effects refers to a calcium channel
blocker?
a. The reduction of peripheral vascular resistance
b. The reduction of cardiac contractility and, in some cases, cardiac output
c. Relief of coronary artery spasm
d. All of the above
767. Main clinical use of calcium channel blockers is:

a. Angina pectoris
b. Hypertension
c. Supraventricular
d. All of the above
768. Which of the following antianginal agents is a myotropic coronary dilator:

a. Dipyridamole b. Validol c. Atenolol d. Alinidine
769. This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on vasomotor centers in the CNS:
a. Labetalol b. Clonidine c. Enalapril d. Nifedipine
770. All of the following are central acting antibypertensive drugs EXCEPT:
a. Methyldopa b. Clonidine
c. Moxonidine d. Minoxidil
771. A ganglioblocking drug for hypertension treatment is:

a. Hydralazine b. Tubocurarine
c. Trimethaphan d. Metoprolol
772. Pick out the sympatholythic drug:

a. Labetalol b. Prazosin
c. Guanethidine d. Clonidine
853

773. Tick the drug with nonselective beta-adrenoblocking activity:
a. Atenolol b. Propranolol
c. Metoprolol d. Nebivolol
774. Choose the selective blocker of beta-1 adrenoreceptors:

a. Labetalol b. Prazosin
c. Atenolol d. Propranolol
775. Pick out the drug-an alpha and beta adrenoreceptors blocker:
a. Labetalol b. Verapamil
c. Nifedipine d. Metoprolol
776. This drug inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme:

a. Captopril b. Enalapril
c. Ramipril d. All of the above
777. This drug is a directly acting vasodilator:

a. Labetalol b. Clonidine
c. Enalapril d. Nifedipine
778. Pick out the diuretic agent for hypertension treatment:

a. Losartan b. Dichlothiazide
c. Captopril d. Prazosin
779. This drug blocks alpha-1 adrenergic receptors:

a. Prazosin b. Clonidine
c. Enalapril d. Nifedipine
780. This drug activates alpha-2 adrengic receptors:

a. Labetalol b. Phentolamine
c. Clonidine d. Enalaapril
781. This drug us ab ubgubutir if rebub synthesis:

a. Propranolol b. Enalapril c. Diazoxide d. Losartan
782. This drug is a non-peptide angiotensin II receptor antagonist:

a. Clonidine b. Captopril c. Losartan d. Diazoxide
783. This drug is a potassium channel activator
a. Nifedipine b. Saralasin
c. Diazoxide d. Losartan
784. All of the following statements regarding angiotensin II are true EXCEPT:
a. It is a peptide hormone
b. It stimulates the secretion of aldosterone
c. Angiotensin I is almost as potent as angiotensin II
d. It is a potent vasoconstrictor
854

785. This drug is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma:
a. Propranolol b. Clonidine c. Enalapril d. Nifedipine
786. This drug is converted to an active metabolite after absorption:

a. Labetalol b. Clpmodine c. Enalapril d. Nifedipine
787. This drug routinely produces some tachycardia:

a. Propranolol b. Clonidine c. Enalapril d. Nifedipine
788. All of the following statements regarding vasodilators are true EXCEPT:
a. Hydralazine causes tachycardia
b. Nifedipine is a dopamine receptor antagonist
c. Nitroprusside dilates both arteroles and veins
d. Minoxidil can cause hypertrichosis
789. All of the following statements regarding verapamil are true EXCEPT:
a. It blocks L-type calcium channels
b. It increases heart rate
c. It relaxes coronary artery smooth muscle
d. It depresses cardic contractility
790. Choose the unwanted effects of clonidine:

a. Parkinson’s syndrome
b. Sedative and hypnotic effects
c. Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia
d. Dry cough and respiratory depression
791. The reason of beta-blockers administration for hypertension treatment is:

a. Peripheral vasodilatation
b. Diminishing of blood volume
c. Decreasing of heart work
d. Depression of vasomotor center
792. An endogenous vasoconstrictor that can stimulate aldosterone release from

suprarenal glands:
a. Angiotensinogen
b. Angiotensin I
c. Angiotensin II
d. Angiotensin-converting enzyme
793. Choose the group of antithypertensive drugs which diminishes the metabolism of
bradykinin:
a. Ganglioblockers
b. Alfa-adrenoblockers
c. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
d. Diuretics
855

794. Hydralazine (a vasodilator) can produce:
a. Seizures, extrapyramidal disturbances
b. Tachycardia, lupus erhythromatosis
c. Acute hepatitis
d. Aplastic anemia
795. Choose the vasodilator which releases NO :

a. Nifedipine b. Hydralazine
c. Minoxidil d. Sodium nitroprusside
796. The main principle of shock treatment is :

a. To increase the aterial pressure
b. To increase the peripheral vascular resistance
c. To increase the cardiac output
d. To improve the peripheral blood flow
797. Pick out the drug which increases cardiac output:

a. Noradrenalin b. Methyldopa
c. Phenylephrine d. Angiotensinamide
798. Tick the synthetic vasocaonstrictor having an adrenomimic effect:

a. Noradrenalin b. Adrenalin
c. Phenylephrine d. Angiotensinamide
799. Indicate the vasoconstrictor of endogenous origin:

a. Ephedrine b. Phenylephrine
c. Xylomethazoline d. Angiotensinamide
800. Which type of receptors can be activated by angiotensinamide:

a. Adrenergic receptors b. Cholinergic receptors
c. Dopaminergic receptors d. Angiotensin’s receptors

PHARMACOLOGY
801. General unwanted effects of vasoconstrictors is :

a. Increase of arterial pressure
b. Increase of cardiac output
c. Decrease of peripheral blood flow
d. Increase of blood volume
856

802. For increasing blood pressure in case of low cardiac output the following agents
must be used :
a. Ganglioblockers b. Vasoconstrictors
c. Positive inotropic drugs d. Diuretics
803. Tick the positive inotropic drug of glycoside structure :

a. Dopamine b. Digoxin
c. Dobutamine d. Adrenalin
804. Tick the positive inotropic drug of non-glycoside structure :

a. Digitoxin b. Digoxin
c. Dobutamine d. Strophanthin
805. Dopamine at low doses influences mainly:

a. Alfa-adrenoreceptors (leads to peripheral vasoconstriction)
b. Dopamine receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal and mesenterial vessels)
c. Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhanced cardiac output)
d. All of the above
806. Dopamine at medium doses influences mainly:

b. Dopamine receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal and mesenterial vessels)
c. Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhanced cardiac output)
d. All of the above
807. Dopamine in high doses influences mainly the :

b. Dopamine’s receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal and mesenterial vessels)
c. Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhancing of cardiac output)
d. All of the above
793. Tick the group of drugs for treatment of shock with hypovolaemia (reduced
circulating blood volume):
a. Positive inotropic drugs b. Vasoconstrictors
c. Plasmoexpanders d. Analeptics and tonics
794. Tick the group of drugs for chronic hypotension treatment:

a. Positive inotropic drugs b. Vasoconstrictors
c. Plasmoexpanders d. Analeptics and tonics
795. Indicate the group of drugs influencing the cerebral flow:

a. Ca-channel blockers
b. Derivatives of GABA
c. Derivatives of Vinca minor plant
d. All of the above
857

796. Tick the drug influencing the blood flow which is related to antiplatelet agents:
a. Heparin b. Aspirin
c. Pyracetam d. Tanakan
797. Hormones are:

a. Products of endocrine gland secretion
b. Mediators of inflammatory process
c. By-products of tissue metabolism
d. Product of exocrine gland secretion
798. Select an endocrine drug which is an amino acid derivative:

a. Insulin b. Hydrocortisone
c. Calcitonin d. Thyroxine
799. Select an endocrine drug which is a peptide derivative:

a. Oxitocin b. Prednisolone
c. Nandrolone d. Progesterone
800. Select an endocrine drug which is a steroidal derivative:

a. Gonadorelin b. Insulin
c. Levothyroxine d. Hydrocortisone
801. Hormone analogues are:

a. Naturally occurring substances but slightly different from hormones
b. Naturally occurring substances but less efficacious than hormones
c. Naturally occurring substances having the same structure but different
pharmacological properties than hormones
d. Synthetic compounds, which resemble the naturally occurring hormones
802. Regarding the mechanism of action of hormones, indicate the FALSE statement:
a. Hormones interact with the specific receptors in the wall of the cells
b. Cyclic AMP acts as a second messenger system
c. They stimulate adenylcyclase enzyme
d. Many hormones owe their effect to primary actions on subcellular membrane
803. Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones (and their synthetic analogs) have
pharmacologic applications in three areas, EXCEPT the following:
a. As replacement therapy for hormone deficiency states
b. As drug theraphy for a variety of disorders using pharmacologic doses to elicit a
hormonal effect that is not present at physiologic a blood levels
c. As a diagnostic tool for performing stimulation tests to diagnose hypo-or
hyperfunctional endocrine states
d. As food supplements
858

804. Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamic gland?
a. Growth hormone- releasing hormone (GHRH)
b. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c. Aldosterone
d. Estradiol
805. Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary?
a. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
c. Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH)
d. Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
806. The posterior pituitary does NOT secret:

a. Vasopressin b. Oxytocin
c. Growth hormone d. All of the above
807. Which of the following organs is a target for prolactin?

a. Liver b. Adrenal cortex
c. Thyroid d. Mammary gland
808. Which of the following organ hormones is a target for growth hormone
(somatotropine, GH)?
a. Glucocorticoids
b. Insulin-like growth factors (IGF, somatomedins)
c. Triiodthyronine
d. Testosterone
809. All of the following statements about growth hormone are true, EXCEPT:
a. It may stimulate the synthesis or release of somatomedins
b. Low levels of insulin-like growth factors (IGF)-1 are associated with dwarfism
c. Hypersecretion can result in acromegaly
d. It is contraindicated in subjects with closed epiphyses
810. Correct statements about adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Endogenous ACTH is also called corticotrophin
b. ACTH stimulates the synthesis of corticosteroids
c. ACTH is most useful clinically as a diagnostic tool in adrenal insufficiency
d. The oral route is the preferred rout of administration
811. Indications of bromocriptine are following, EXCEPT:

a. Prolactin-secreting adenomas
b. Amenorrhea- Galactorrhea
c. Prolactin deficiency
d. Acromegaly
859

812. Currently used dopamine agonists decreasing pituitary prolactin secretion are
following:
a. Bromocriptine b. Cabergoline
c. Pergolide d. All of the above
813. Indications of oxytocin are following:

a. Labor and augment dysfunctional labor for conditions requiring early vaginal delivery
b. Incompleted abortion
c. For control of postpartum uterine hemorrhage
d. All of the above
814. Indications of vasopressin are following:

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hypertension
c. Pituitary diabetes insipidus
d. Incompleted abortion
815. Vasopressin possesses the following:

a. Antidiuretic property
b. Vasodilatation property
c. Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma
d. Diuretic property
816. Oxytocin produces the following effects:

a. It causes contraction of the uterus
b. It assists the progress of spermatozoa into the uterine cavity
c. It brings about milk ejection form the lactating mammary gland
d. All of the above
817. Vasopressin causes a pressor effect by :

a. Releasing noradrenaling from the nerve terminals
b. Releasing and activating renin-angiotensin system
c. A direct acton on smooth muscles of the blood vessels
d. All of the above mechanisms
818. Secretory products of pancreatic a-cells are :

a. Glucagon, proglucagon
b. Insulin, C-peptide, proinsulin, islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP)
c. Somatostatin
d. Pancreatic polypeptide (PP)
819. Insulin is :
a. A glycoprotein with a molecular weight of 6000
b. A small protein with a molecular weight of 5808 having disulphide linkage
c. A oligosaccharide
d. A catecholamine
860

820. Insulin is a polypeptide henced :
a. It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice
b. It is destroyed by gastric juice
c. It is not a polypeptide
d. It is metabolized immediately by cellular enzymes
821. Insulin causes reduction in blood sugar level by the following mechanisms, EXCEPT
:
a. Increased glucose uptake in the peripheral tissue
b. Reduction of breakdown of glycogen
c. Diminished gluconeogenesis
d. Decreased glucose absorption from the gut
822. Which of the following is true for glucagons?

a. Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
b. Stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta cells
c. Inhibits glucose utilization by skeletal muscle
d. Inhibits uptake of amino acids by cells.
823. Insulin cannot be administered by :

a. Oral route b. Intravenous route
c. Subcutaneous route d. Intramuscular route
824. Sources of human insulin production are :

a. Recombinant DNA techniques by inserting the proinsulin gene into E.Coli or yeast
b. Posmortem insulin extraction from human autopsy pancreas
c. All of the above
825. The primary reason for a physician to prescribe human insulin is that :
a. It has a faster onset of action than other insulins
b. It has a shorter duration of action than other insulins
c. It can be given to patients who have an latergy to animal insulins
d. It is more effective in preventing the complications of diabetes than animal insulins
826. Correct Statements about crystalline zinc (regular) insulin include all of the
following, EXCEPT :
a. It can serve as replacement therapy for juvenile-onset diabetes
b. It can be administered intravenously
c. It is short-acting insulin
d. It can be administered orally
827. Diabetic coma is treated by the administration of :

a. Lente insulin b. Glucose
c. Crystalline insulin d. Oral anti-diabetic drugs
861

828. Sulphonylureas act by :
a. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
b. Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral tissues
c. Reducting the hepatic gluconeogenesis
d. Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
829. Currently used second-generation sulfonylureas include the following, EXCEPT :

a. Glyburide (Glibenclamide)
b. Glipizide (Glydiazinamide)
c. Glimepiride (Amaril)
d. Tolbutamide (Orinase)
830. Currently used oral hypoglycemic thiazolidinediones include the following , EXCEPT
a. Pioglitazone (Actors) b. Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
c. Troglitazone (Rezulin) d. All of the above
831. Thiazolidinediones act by :

a. Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in
muscle and adipose tissues
b. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
c. Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
d. All of the above
832. Currently used alpha-glucosidase inhibitors include the following, EXCEPT : (a)
a. Pioglitazone (Actos) b. Acarbose (Precose)
c. Miglitol (Glyset) d. All of the above
833. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by :

a. Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in
muscle and adipose tissues
b. Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-ghucosidases and modulating the
postprandial digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides
c. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
d. Stimulating the beta islet cells to pancreas to produce insulin
834. Potency of action of

a. Miglitol is six times higher than that of acarbose
b. Acarbose is more than that of miglitol
c. MIglitol and acarbose is equal
d. Oral hypoglycemic agents depend on the severity of hyperglycemia
835. Which of the following oral hypoglycaemic drugs stimulates both synthesis and
release of insulin from beta islet cells :
a. Glibenclamide b. Phenformin
c. Buformine d. Metformin
862

836. Currently used oral hypoglycemic biguanides include the following, EXCEPT :
a. Repaglinide (Prandin) b. Glucagon
c. Biguanides d. None of the above
837. The action of insulin is potentiated by :

a. Sulphonylureas b. Glucagon
c. Biguanides d. None of the above
838. Duration of action of :

a. Tolbutamide is more than that of chlorpropamide
b. Chlorpropamide is more than that of tolbutamide
c. Tolbutamide and chlorpropamide is equal
d. Oral hypoglycemic agents depend on the severity of hyperglycemia
839. Biguanides are used in the following conditions, EXCEPT:

a. As a supplement to sulphonylurea, where it is insufficient to give good results
b. In over weight diabetics
c. To reduce insulin requirements
d. In case of hyperglycemic shock
840. Which of the following agents is/are important hormonal antagonists of insulin in
the body?
a. Glucagon b. Adrenal steroids
c. Adrenaline d. All of the above
841. Glucagon is :
a. A glycoprotein with a molecular weight of 6000
b. A Peptide – identical in all mammals – consisting of a single chain of 29 amino acids
c. A a fructoolygosaccharide
d. A small protein with a molecular weight of 5808 having disulphide linkage
842. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a. Glucagon is synthesized in the A cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
b. Glucagon is a peptide – identical in all mammals – consisting of a single chain of 29
amino acids
c. Glucagon is extensively degraded in the liver and kidney as well as in plasma, and at
its tissue receptor sites.
d. Half-life of glucagon is between 6 and 8 hours, which is similar to that of insulin
843. Glucagon can be used in the following situations, EXCEPT :

a. Severe hypoglycemia b. Severe hyperglycemia
c. Endocrine diagnosis d. Beta-blocker poisoning
844. Main complications of insulin therapy include the following :

a. Hypoglycemia b. Insulin allergy
c. Lipodystrophy at an injection site d. All of the above
863

845. The major natural estrogens produced by women are following, EXCEPT:
a. Estradiol (Estradiol-17a, E2)
b. Estron (E1)
c. Ethinyl estradiol
d. Estriol (E3)
846. Which of the following statements about estrogens are true:

a. Estrogens are required for normal sexual maturation and growth of the female
b. Estrogens decrease the rate of resorption of bone
c. Estrogens enhance the coagulability of blood
d. All of the above
847. The major synthetic estrogens are following, EXCEPT:

a. Dienestrol b. Diethylstilbestrol c. Benzestrol d. Estradiol
848. Glucocorticoids are hormonal steroids:

a. Having an important effect on intermediary metabolism, cardiovascular function,
growth, and immunity b. Having principally salt-retaining activity
c. Having androgenic or estrogenic activity d. All of the above
849. Infammation is :
a. A localized protective reaction of a tissue to irritation, injury, or infection,
characterized by pain, redness, swelling, and sometimes loss of function
b. A deficiency of the normal immune response
c. A reaction resulting from an immune reaction produced by an individual’s white blood
cells or antibodies acting on the body’s own tissues or extracellular proteins.
d. All of the above
850. An acute, transient phase, of inflammation is characterized by :

a. Local vasodilatation and increased capillary permeability (phase of damage)
b. Infiltration of leucocytes and phagocytic cells (phase of exudation)
c. Tissue degeneration and fibrosis occurrence (Phase of proliferation)
d. All of the above
851. A delayed, subacute phase, of inflammation is characterized by :

d. All of the above
852. A chronic, proliferative phase, of inflammation is characterized by :

d. All of the above
864

853. The following substances are considered to be referred to as eicosanoids:
a. Prostaglandins
b. Leukotrienes
c. Tromboxanes
d. All of the above
854. Correct statements about cortisol (hydrocortisone) include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Cortisol is synthesized from cholesterol
b. ACTH governs cortisol secretion
c. Most cortisol is inactivated in the liver
d. The half-life of cortisol in the circulations is normally about 60-90 hours.
855. Correct statements about glucocorticoids include all of th following, EXCEPT:

a. Effects of glucocorticoids are mediated by widely distributed glucocorticoid receptors
that are members of the superfamily of nuclear receptor
b. Glucocorticoids have dose-related metabolic effects on carbohydrate, protein, and fat
metabolism
c. Glucocorticoids have pro-inflammatory effects
d. Glucocorticoids have catabolic effects in lymphoid and connective tissue, muscle, fat,
and skin
856. Physiological doses of glucocorticoid can result in:

a. Increased liver glycogen stores, gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
b. Maintenance of cardiovascular function (by potentiation of norepinephrine) and
skeletal muscle
c. Increased hemoglobin synthesis, resulting in elevated of red blood cell count
d. All of the above
857. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short-to medium-acting drug?

a. Prednisolon b. Dexamethasone
c. Triamcinolone d. All of the above
858. Which of the following glucocorticoids is an intermediate-acting drug?

a. Cortisone b. Triamcinolone
c. Butamethasone d. All of the above
859. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug?

a. Prednisolon b. Dexamethasone
860. Which of the following glucocorticoids have one fluoride atom in its chemical
structure?
a. Prednisolon b. Fluocinolone
865

861. Which of the following glucocorticoids have two fluoride atoms in its chemical
structure?
a. Prednisolon b. Dexamethasone c. Flucinolone d. Triamcinolone
862. Which of the following glucocorticoids has no fluoride atoms in its chemical
structure?
a. Prednisolon b. Dexamethasone c. Flucinolone d. Triamcinolone
863. Mineralocorticoid effects cause:

a. Increased catabolism
b. Increased Na retension and E excretion
c. Increased gluconeogenesis
d. Deposition of fat on shoulders, face and abdomen
864. Which of the following synthetic steroids shows predominantly mineralocorticoid

action?
a. Hydrocortisone b. Spironolactone
c. Dexamethasone d. Fludrocortisone
865. The major mineralocorticoids are the following, EXCEPT:

a. Aldosterone b. Deoxycorticosterone
c. Fludrocortisone d. Hydrocortisone
866. Which of the following statement about spironolactone is TRUE?

a. Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronism
b. Spironilactone is also an androgen antagonist and as such is used in the treatment of
hirsutism in women
c. Spironolactone is useful as a diuretic
d. All of the above
867. All of the following statement regarding diuretics are true, EXCEPT :
a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCo3
b. Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henble by competing for the
CI- site on the NAa+/k+/ 2 Clcotransporter
c. In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubule
d. Hydrochlorothiazide decrease urinary calcium excretion
868. The drug inhibits the ubiquitous enzyme carbonic anhydrase:

a. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
869. The drug acts by competitively blocking Nacl cotransporters in the distal tubule:
a. Acetazolamide (Diamox) b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
866

870. The drug acts at the proximal tubule :
871. The drug acts by competing with aldosterone for its cytosolic receptors:
872. The drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks Na+ channels in the collecting
tubules :
b. Amiloride (Midamor)
873. Chronic use of this drug can lead to distal tubular hypertrophy, which may reduce
its diuretic effect :
b. Amiloride (Midamor)
874. The drug has a steroid-like structure which is responsible for its anti-androgenic
effect :
a. Amiloride (Midamor) b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
875. Sustained use of this drug results in increased plasma urate concentrations :
a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
c. Both of the above d. Neither of the above
876. The drug can be used to treat glaucoma :

877. The drug can cause ototoxicity :

878. The drug acts only on the lumenal side of renal tubules:
867

879. The drug can promote sodium loss in patients with low (e.g., 40 ml/min) glomerular
filtration rates:
c. Both of the above d. Neither of the above3
880. The drug needs aldosterone present in order to be effective :

a. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril) b. Amiloride (Midamor)
881. The drug can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:

882. The drug is sometimes part of fixed-dose combinations used to treat essential
hypertension:
883. The drug should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements:
c. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Neither of the above
884. The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:

c. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Neither of the above
885. The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/k+/2cl-cotransporter :

a. Loop diuretics b. Thiazide diuretics
c. Potassium-sparing diuretics d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
886. The drug acts in the collecting tubules:

887. The drug is the most potent diuretic:

888. What does the term “antibiotics” mean :

a. Non-organic or synthetic substances that selectively kill or inhibit the growth of other
microorganisms
b. Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that
selectively kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms
c. Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that
inhibit the growth of organism cells
d. Synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes
868

889. General principles of anti-infective therapy are:
a. Clinical judgment of microbiological factors
b. Definitive identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism’s susceptibility
c. Optimal route of administration, dose, dosing frequency and duration of treatment
d. All of the above
890. Minimal duration of antibacterial treatment usually is :

a. Not less than 1 day
b. Not less than 5 days
c. Not less than 10-14 days
d. Not less than 3 weeks
891. Rational anti-microbial combination is used to :

a. Provide synergism when microorganisms are not effectively eradicated with a single
agent alone
b. Provide broad coverage
c. Prevent the emergence of resistance
d. All of the above
892. Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following,

EXCEPT:
a. Active transport out of a microorganism or/and hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes
produced by a microorganism
b. Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism
c. Modification of a drug’s target
d. Reduced uptake by a microorganism
893. All of the following drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT :

a. Streptomycin b. Penicillin
c. Co-trimoxazole d. Chloramphenicol
894. Bactericidal effect is :

a. Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b. Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth
c. Destroying of bacterial cells
d. Formation of bacterial L-form
895. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect?

a. Tetracyclines b. Macrolides
c. Penicillins d. All of the above
896. Bacteristatic effect is :

a. Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b. Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth
c. Destroying of bacterial cells
d. Formation of bacterial L-form
869

897. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effects?
a. Carbapenems b. Macrolides
c. Aminoglycosides d. Cephalosporins
898. Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical
structure?
a. Penicillins
b. Cephalosporins
c. Carbapenems and monobactams
d. All groups
899. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides :

a. Neomycin b. Doxycycline
c. Erythromycin d. Cefotaxime
900. Tick the drug belonging to antibiltics-carbappenems:

a. Aztreonam b. Amoxacillin
c. Imipinem d. Clarithromycin
901. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-monobactams:

a. Ampicillin b. Bicillin-5
c. Aztreonam d. Imipinem
902. Tick the drug belongs to antibiotics-cephalosporins:

a. Streptomycin b. Cefaclor
c. Phenoxymethilpeniclillin d. Erythromycin
903. Tick the drug belonging to lincozamides:

a. Erythromycin b. Lincomycin
c. Azithromycin d.Aztreonam
904. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:

a. Doxycycline b. Streptomycin
c. Clarithtomycin d. Amoxicillin
905. All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:

a. Gentamycin b. Streptomycin
c. Clindamycin d. Neomycin
906. Tick the drug belonging to nitrobenzene derivative:

a. Clindamycin b. Streptomycin
c. Azithromycin d. Chloramphenicol
907. Tick the drug belonging to glycopeptides:

a. Vancomycin b. Lincomycin
c. Neomycin d. Carbenicillin
870

908. Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are:
a. Beta-lactam antibiotics b. Tetracyclines
c. Aminoglycosides d. Macrolides
909. Antibiotic inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis is:

a. Erythromycin b. Rifampin
c. Chloramphenicol d. Imipinem
910. Antibiotics altering permeability of cell membranes are:

a. Glycopeptides b. Polymyxins
c. Tetracyclines d. Cephalosporins
911. All of the following antibiotics inhibit the protein synthesis in bacterial cells,
EXCEPT:
a. Macrolides b. Aminoglycosides
c. Glycopeptides d. Tetracyclines
912. Biosynthetic penicillins are effective against:

a. Gram-positive and gram-negative cocci, corynebacterium diphtheria, spirochetes,
Clostridium gangrene
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria, mycobacteries
c. Gram positive cocci, viruses
d. Gram negative cocci, Rickettsia, mycotic infections
913. Which of the following drugs is a gastric acid resistant:

a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V
c. Carbenicillin d. Procain penicillin
914. Which of the following drugs is penicillinase resistant?

a. Oxacillin b. Amoxacillin
c. Bicillin-5 d. Penicillin G
915. All of the following drugs demonstrate a prolonged effect, EXCEPT:

a. Penicillin G b. procain penicillin
c.Bicillin-1 d. Bicillin-5
916. Mechanism of penicillins’ antibacterial effect is:

a. Inhibition of transpeptidation in the bacterial cell wall
b. Inhibition of beta-lactamase in the bacterial cell
c. Activation of endogenous proteases that destroy bacterial cell wall
d. Activation of endogenous phospholipases, which leads to alteration of cell membrane
permeability
917. Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins:
a. Clavulanic acid b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam d. All of the above
871

918. Cephalosporines are drugs of choice for treatment of:
a. Gram-positve microorganism infections
b. Gram-negative microorganism infections
c. Gram-negative and gram-positive microorganism infections, if penicillins have no
effect
d. Only bacteriocide infections
919. Carbapenems are effective against:

a. Gram-positive microorganisms
b. Gram-negative microorganisms
c.Only bacteroide infections
d. Broad-spectum
920. All of the following antibiotics are macrolides, EXCEPT

a. Erythromycin b. Clarithromycin
c. Lincomycin d. Roxythromycin
921. Tetracyclins have following unwanted effects:

a. Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa, phototoxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity, anti-anabolic effect
c. Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
d. All of the above
922. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-aminoglycosides:

a. Erythromycin b. Gentamycin
c. Vancomycin d. Polymyxin
923. Aminoglycosides are effective against:

a. Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes
b. Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms
d. Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses
924. Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects:

a. Pancytopenia b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity d. Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa
925. Choose the characteristics of chloramphernicol:

a. Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect
b. Influences the Gram-positve microorganisms. Denibstrates a bactericidal effect
c. Influences the Gram-negative microoraganisms. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect
d. Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect
926. Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects:

a. Nephrotoxicity b. Pancytopenia
c. Hepatotoxicity d. Ototoxicity
872

927. Choose the characteristics of lincozamides:
a. Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bactericidal effect.
b. Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram negative cocci
c. Broad-spectum. Demonstrates a bacteristatic effect
d. Influence mainly the anaerobic organisms, Gram positive cocci
928. Lincozamides have the following unwanted effect:

a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Cancerogenity
c. Pseudomembranous colitis
d. Irritation of respiratory organs
929. Choose the characteristics of vancomicin:

a. It is a glycopeptide, inhibits cell wall synthesis active only against Gram-negative
bacteria
b. It is a glycopeptide that alters permeability of cell membrane and is active against
anaerobic bacteria
c. It is a beta-lactam antibiotic, inhibits cell wall synthesis active only against
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. It is a glycopeptide, inhibits cell wall synthesis and is active only against Gram-
positive bacteria
930. Vacomicin has the following unwanted effects:

a. Pseudomembranous colitis
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. “Red neck” syndrome, phlebitis
d. All of the above
931. Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections
treatment?
a. Co-trimoxazol b. Griseofulvin
c. Amphotericin B d. Nitrofungin
932. Which of the following drugs is used for dermatomycosis treatment?

a. Nystatin b. Griseofulvin
c. Amphotericin B d. Vancomycin
933. Which of the following drugs is used for candidiasis treatment?

a. Griseofulvin b. Nitrofungin
c. Myconazol d. Streptomycin
934. All of the following antifungal drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:

a. Amphotericin b. Nystatin
c. Myconazol d. Griseofulvin
873

935. Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is:
a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibition of fungal protein sysnthesis
c. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d. Alteration of cell membrane permeability
936. Azoles have an antifungal effect because of:

a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
c. Reduction of ergosterol synthesis
d. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
937. Which of the following drugs alters permeability of Candida cell membranes?
a. Amphotericin B b. Ketoconazole
c. Nystatin d. Terbinafine
938. Amphotericin B has the following unwanted effects:

a. Psychosis
b. Renal impairment, anemia
c. Hypertenstion, cardiac arrhythamia
d. Bone marrow toxicity
939. Tick thedrug belonging to antibiotics having a polyene structure:

a. Nystatin b. Ketaconazole c. Griseofulvin d. All of the above
940. All of the following drugs demonstrate a fungicidal effect, EXCEPT:

a. Terbinafin b. Amphotericin B
c. ketoconazole d. Myconazol
941. Characteristic of polyenes are following, except:

a. Alter the structure and functions of cell membranes
b. Broad-spectrum c. Fungicidal effect d. Nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity
942. Characteristic of Amphotericin B are following EXCEPT:

a. Used for systemic mycosis treatment
b. Poor absorption from the gastro-intestinal tract
c. Does not demonstrate nephrotoxicity
d. Influences the permeability of fungus cell membrane

924. Sulfonamides are effective against:
a. Bacteria and Clamidia b. Actinomyces
c. Protozoa d. All of the above
925. Tick the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment:
a. Chloroquine b. Quinidine
c. Quinine d. Sulfonamides
874

926. Tick the drug used for amoebiasis treatment:
a. Nitrofurantoin b. Iodoquinol
c. Pyrazinamide d. Mefloquine
927. Tick the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment:

a. Metronidazole b. Suramin
c. Pyrimethamine d. Tetracycline
928. Tick the drug used for toxoplasmosis treatment:

a. Chloroquine b. Tetracyclin
c. Suramin d. Pyrimethamine
929. Tick the drug used for balantidiasis treatment:

a. Azitromycin b. Tetracyclin
c. Quinine d. Trimethoprim
930. Tick the drug used for leishmaniasis treatment:

a. Pyrimethamine b. Albendazole
c. Sodium stibogluconate d. Tinidazole
931. Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to 8-aminoquinoline derivatives:

a. Doxycycline b. Quinidine
c. Primaquine d. Chloroquine
932. All of the following antimalarial drugs are 4-quinoline derivatives, EXCEPT:
a. Chloroquine b. Mefloquine
c. Primaquine d. Amodiaquine
933. Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to pyrimidine derivatives:

a. Mefloquine b. Pyrimethamine
c. Quinidine d. Chloroquine
934. Tick the drug used for trypanosomosis treatment:

a. Melarsoprol b. Metronidazole
c. Tetracyclin d. Quinidine
935. Tick the antimalarial drug having a gametocidal effect:

a. Melarsoprol b. primaquine
c. Doxycycline d. Sulfonamides
936. All of the following antimalarial drugs influence blood schizonts, EXCEPT:
a. Mefloquine b. Chloroquine c. Primaquine d. Quinidine
937. Tick the antimalarial drug influencing tissue schisonts:

a. Mefloquine b. Chloroquine
c. Quinidine d. Primaquine
875

938. Tick the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:
a. Aminoglycosides b. Tetracyclins
c. Carbapenems d. Penicillins
939. Tick the amoebicide drug for the treatment of an asymptomatic intestinal form of
amebiasis:
a. Chloroquine b. Diloxanide
c. Emetine d. Doxycycline
940. Tick the drugs for the treatment of an intestinal form of amebiasis:
a. Metronidazole and diloxanide
b. Diloxanide and streptomycin
c. Diloxanide and lodoquinol
d. Emetine and metronidazole
941. Tick the drug for the treatment of a hepatic form of amebiasis:
a. Diloxanide or iodoquinol
b. Tetracycline or doxycycline
c. Metronidazote or emetine
d. Erythromycin or azitromycin
942. Tick the luminal amoebicide drug:

a. Metronidazole b. Emetine
c. Doxycycline d. Diloxanide
943. Tick the drug of choice for the treatment of extraluminal amebiasis:
a. Iodoquinol b. Metronidazole
c. Diloxanide d. Tetracycline
944. All of the following antiviral drugs are the analogs of nucleosides, EXCEPT:
a. Acyclovir b. Zidovudine c. Saquinavir d. Didanozine
945. Tick the drug, a derivative of adamantane:

a. didanozine b. Rimantadine c. Gancyclovir d. Foscarnet
946. Tick the drug, a derivative of pyrophosphate:

a. Foscarnet b. Zidovudine c. Vidarabine d. Acyclovir
947. Tick the drug, inhibiting viral DNA synthesis:

a. Interferon b. Saquinavir c. Amantadine d. Acyclovir
948. Tick the drug, inhibiting uncoating of the viral RNA:

a. Vidarabine b. Rimantadine c. Acyclovir d. Didanozine
949. Tick the drug, inhibiting viral reverse transcriptase:

a. Zidovudine b. Vidarabine c. Rimantadine d. Gancyclovir
876

950. Tick the drug, inhibiting viral proteases:
a. Rimantadine b. Acyclovir
c. Saquinavir d. Zalcitabine
951. Tick the drug of choice for herpes and cytomegalovirus infection treatment:
a. Saquinavir b. Interferon alfa
c. Didanozine d. Acyclovir
952. Tick the drug which belongs to nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
a. Zidovudine b. Viderabine
c. Nevirapine d. Gancyclovir
953. All of the following antiviral drugs are antiretroviral agents, EXCEPT:
a. Acyclovir b. Zidovudine
c. Zalcitabine d. Didanozine
954. Tick the drug used for influenza A prevention:

a. Acyclovir b. Rimantadine
c. Saquinavir d. Foscarnet
955. Tick the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative of nucleosides:
a. Acyclovir b. Zidovudine
c. Gancyclovir d. Trifluridine
956. Tick the antiviral drug which belongs to endogenous proteins:

a. Amantadine b. Saquinavir
c. Interferon alfa d. Pencyclovir
957. Tick the drug which belongs to nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
a. Didanosine b. Gancyclovir
c. Nevirapine d. Vidarabine
958. All of the following antiviral drugs are anti-influenza agents, EXCEPT:
a. Acyclovir b. Amantadine c. Interferons d. Rimantadine
959. Tick the unwanted effects of zidovudine:

a. hallucinations, dizziness
b. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia
c. Hypertension, vomiting
d. Peripheral neuropathy
960. Tick the unwanted effects of intravenous acyclovir infusion:

a. Renal insufficiency, tremors, delirium
b. Rash, diarrhea, nausea
c. Neuropathy, abdominal pain
d. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia
877

961. Tick the drug that can include peripheral neuropathy and oral ulceration:
a. Acyclovire b. Zalcitabine
c. Zidovudine d. Saquinavir
962. Tick the unwanted effects of didanozine:

a. Hallucinations, dizziness, insomnia
b. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea
c. Hypertension, vomiting, diarrhea
d. Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, diarrhea, hyperuricemia
963. Tick the unwanted effects of indinavir:

a. Hypotension, vomiting, dizziness
b. Nephrolithiasis, nausea, hepatotoxicity
c. Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, hyperuricemia
d. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea
964. Tick the drug that can induce nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain and rhinitis:
a. Acyclovire b. Zalcitabine
c. Zidovudineq d. Saquinavir
965. All of the following effects are disadvantages of anticancer drugs, EXCEPT:
a. Low selectivity to cancer cells
b. Depression of bone marrow
c. Depression of angiogenesis
d. Depression of immune system
966. Rational combination of anticancer drugs is used to:

a. Provide synergism resulting from the use of anticancer drugs with different
mechanisms combination
b. Provide synergism resulting from the use of anticancer drugs with the same
mechanisms combination
c. Provide stimulation of immune system.
d. Provide stimulation of cell proliferation
967. Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivation of ethylenimine:

a. Methotrexate b. Cisplatin c. Cyclophosphamide d. Carmustine
968. Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of ethylenimine:

a. Mercaptopurine b. Thiotepa c. Chlorambucil d. Procarbazine
969. Tick the group of hormonal drugs used for cancer treatment:
a. Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
b. Glucocorticoids and gonadal hormones
c. Gonadal hormones and somatotropin
d. Insulin
878

970. Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of alkysulfonate:
a. Fluorouracil b. Carboplatin c. Vinblastine d. Busulfan
971. Tick the anticancer drug of plant origin:

a. Dactinomycin b. Vincristine c. Methotrexate d. Procarbazine
972. Action mechanism of alkylating agents is:

a. Producing carbonium ions altering protein structure
b. Producing carbonium ions altering DNA structure
c. Structural antagonism against purine and pyrimidine
d. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis
973. Tick the anticancer drug, a pyrimidine antagonist:

a. Fluorouracil b. Mercaptopurine
c. Thioguanine d. Methotrexate
974. Methotrexate is:

a. A purine antagonist b. A folic acid antagonist
c. An antibiotic d. An alkylating agent
975. Tick the antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy:

a. Cytarabine b. Doxorubicin
c. Gentamycin d. Etoposide
976. Fluorouracil belongs to:

a. Antibiotics b. Antimetabolites
c. Plant alkaloids d. Bone marrow growth factor
977. Tick the action mechanism of anticancer drugs belonging to plant alkaloids:
a. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis
b. Cross-linking of DNA
c. Mitotic arrest at a metaphase
d. Nonselective inhibition of aromatases
978. General contraindications for anticancer drugs are:

a. Depression of bone marrow
b. Acute infections
c. Serve hepatic and/or renal insufficiency
d. All of the above
979. Action mechanism of methotrexate is:

a. Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
b. Activation of cell differentiation
c. Catabolic depletion of serum asparagines
d. All of the above
879

980. Tick the anticancer drug belonging to inoraganic metal complexes:
a. Dacarbazine b. Cisplatin
c. Methotrexate d. Vincristine
981. Tick the indication for estrogens in oncological practice:

a. Leukemia b. Cancer of prostate
c. Endometrial cancer d. Brain tumors
982. Enzyme drug used for acute leukemia treatment:

a. Dihydrofolate b. Asparaginase
c. Aromataseq d. DNA gyrase
983. All of the following drugs are derivatives of nitrosoureas, EXCEPT: (b)
a. Carmustine b. Vincristine
c. Lomustine d. Semustine
984. Tick the group of drugs used as subsidiary medicines in cancer treatment:
a. Cytoprotectors
b. Bone marrow growth factors
c. Antimetastatic agents
d. All of the above

Pathology
201. The characteristic feature in histology of atheroscierosis is

a. Vasculitis b. Intimal fibrosis
c. Median necrosis d. Deposition of fat in intima
202. The commonest type of pericarditis in acute rheumatic fever

a. Serous b. Fibrinous
c. Serofibrinous d. Purulent
203. The characteristic feature of rheumatic heart disease is

a. Microthrombi in coronary vessel
b. Septic emboli
c. Valvular involvement
d. Subendocardial fibrosis
204. Characteristic of acute Rheumatic fever

a. Pancarditis b. Endocarditis
c. Myocarditis d. Pericarditis
205. The predominant cells 72 hours after MI are

a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes
c. Macrophages d. Mast cells
880

206. Diagnostic histological feature of rheumatic carditis
a. Aschoff nodule
b. Bread-butter pericarditis
c. Eosinophiic infiltration
d. Patchy infarction
207. The most characteristic histologic finding of acute rheumatic carditis is

a. Fibrinous pericarditis
b. Vegetations on mitral value leaflets
c. Aschoff bodies in myocardium
d. Increased vascularity of valves.
208. The reagent used in sahil’s heamometer tube is

a. N/10 HCL b. N/20 HCL
c. N/30 HCL d. N/40 HCL
209. The term tylectomy refers to

a. Excision of skin b. Excision of breast
c. Excision of lump d. Excision of lymph nodes
210. Diluting fluid used for RBC’s count is

a. Haymen’s fluid b. Formal citrate
c. Turk’s fluid d. All of the above
211. How much is the normal RBC count?

a. 1.5 to 2.5 million b. 2-3 million
c. 4.2 to 6.0 million d. 8-10 million
212. Who has discovered blood ABO system?

a. Waldayer b. Karl Landsteiner
c. Karl correns d. Mayer
213. Who can be considered as universal recepient with following blood group?
a. A b. B
c. O d. AB
214. The average pH of semen is

a. Less than 7 b. 7
c. More than 8 d. Neutral
215. Which of the following site is most common for peptic ulcer ?
a. Mecke’s diverticulunn
b. First portion of duodenum
c. Anterior portion of stomach
d. Within barrels esophaaus
881

216. Who can be considered as universal donor with following blood group?
a. A b. B
c. O d. AB
217. Which of the following disease is ruled out in screening of blood?
a. HIV b. Syphilis
c. Hepatitis B d. All of the above
218. Normal blood sugar level is

a. 30-50 Mg % b. 60-90 Mg %
c. 160-180 Mg % d. 180-200 mg %
219. The patients of following blood group have highest tendency of gastric carcinoma (a
a. Blood groupA b. Blood group O
c. AB Blood group d. Blood group B
220. Linitus plastica is a variant of

a. Oral carcinoma b. Gastric carcinoma
c. Esophageal carcinoma d. Pancreatic carcinoma
221. In the following all are true about carcinoid tumors except
a. Arise from neuroendocrine kulchitsley
b. Terminal ileum and appendix common sites
c. Stain positively with silver salts
d. They produce local symptoms only
222. The features of colorectal carcinoma include

a. 60% of cases involve the rectum
b. 95% of them are adenocarcinomas
c. CEA is positive in 100% metastatic lesions
d. All the above
223. Following are features of hepatitis

a. There are five main types of hepatotropic viruses
b. Incubation period of hepatitis A is 15-45 days
c. Hepatitis B and C are spread by parenteral route
d. All the above
224. Serologic markers of hepatitis B are all except

a. Anti HIV b. HbsAg- c. HBcAG- d. Anti HBcAG
225. Most sensitive index of hepatitis B injection

a. Anti HBcAG b. Hbs AG c. HBV DNA d. Anti HBC-
226. During hepatitis infection infectivity is highest during

a. Incubation period b. preicteric phase
c. Icteric Phase d. None of the above
882

227. Anchovy sauce pus is seen in (b)
a. Pyogenic liver abscess b. Amoebic liver abscess
c. Fungal – abscess d. None of the above
228. Commonest malignancy of small intestine is

a. Adenocarcinoma b. Lymphoma
c. Cardinoid d. Lymphomyosarcoma
229. Commonest variety of carcinoma stomach is

a. Squamous carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Colloid carcinoma d. None
230. Colorectal carcinoma is associated with

a. High fibre intake b. Low fibre intake
c. High fat intake d. Smoked fish
231. Most common type of cells in peritoneal fluid in tuberculosis peritonitis are
a. Eosinophils
b. Polymorphs
c. Lymphocytes
d. Monocytes
232. Gastric ulcer is caused due to

a. Bileacidiylux b. Recurrent trauma
c. Hyperacidity d. Decreased mucosal resistance
233. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in

a. Alcoholic cirrhosis b. Wilson disease
c. Budd chiarii syndrome d. Post necrotic syndrome
234. Onion skin appearance on X-ray is seen in

a. Ewing’s sarcoma b. Osteosarcoma c. Osteociastoma d. Chondroma
235. Non union of a fracture can be due to

a. Injury to nerve supply of concerned muscle
b. Periosteal injury with loss of bone
c. Systemic disease
d. All of the above.
236. Which malignancy produces osteoblastic secondaries?

a. Carcjnojd b. Ca prostrate
c. Ca thyroid d. Multiple myeloma
237. Which bone tumor arises from epiphysis ?

a. Ostrogenic sarcoma b. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. Osteoclastoma d. Osteoid osteoma
883

238. Osteomalacia is
a. Normal osteoid and defective mineralization
b. Abnormal osteoid with normal mineralization
c. Abnormal osteoid with abnormal mineralization
d. Abnormal bone deposition
239. Loss of mineral mass is seen in all except
a. Post menopausal women
b. Gluucocorticoid therapy
c. Hypoparathyroidism
d. Immobilization
240. The characteristic feature of chronic alcoholic liver disease is

a. Fatty liver b. Cirrhosis
c. Periportal fibrosis d. Hyaline scelrosis
241. A person is labeled as hepatitis carrier in HbsAg is positive after

a. 2wks b. 2 months
242. Piece meal necrosis is seen in

a. Alcoholic cirrhosis b. Chronic pancreatitis
c. Indian childhood cirrhosis d. Chronic active hepatitis
243. All of the following predispose to gallstones except (e)

a. Oral contraceptives b. Inflammatory bowel disease
c. Intravenous hyper alimentation d. Primary biliary cirrhosis
244. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by

a. Massive proteinuria b. Generalized edema
c. Hypoalbuminaemia d. Hyperlipidemia
e. All the above
245. Loss of epithelial foot process is characteristic of

a. Focal sclerosis b. Membraneous glomerulonephritis
c. Minimal change disease d. Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis
246. Most common cause of nephritic syndrome in adult is

a. Minimal change disease b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
c. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis d. Focal sclerosis
247. Disruption of visceral epithelial cells is seen

a. Focal segmental glcmerulonephritis
b. Metnbrano proliferate glomerulonephritis
d. Membraneous glomerulonephritis
884

248. Increased Creatinine levels are found in :
a. Renal dysfunction b. Reduced renal blood flow
c. Muscular dystrophy d. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
249. Increased uric acid levels are found in :

a. Gout b. Wilson disease
c. Fanconi syndrome d. Yellow atrophy of liver
250. Normal blood cholesterol levels are

a. 15-30 Mg % b. 3.4-7 Mg %
c. 60-90 Mg % d. 150-250 Mg %
251. Regarding widal test for typhoid fever

a. Rising titre of both H and 0 agglutinogens is diagnostic
b. H antibodies persist for long time
c. Infection with non-salmonella organisms may give anamenestic response
d. All of the above.
252. All are clinical symptoms is a patient of fibroid uterus except

a. Menorrhagia b. Polymenorrhoea
c. Metrorrhagia d. Amenorrhoea
253. The histological picture of carcinoma cervix is that of

a. Clear cell carcinoma b. Squamous cellcarcinoma
c. Transitional carcinoma d. Mucoid cell carcinoma
254. Methods used for diagnosis of carcinoma cervix are

a. Cervical biopsy b. Pap’s smear
c. Colposcopy d. All of the above answer
255. Kruken berg tumor is

a. Metastatic tumor b. Shows signet ring cells
c. Is usually bilateral d. All of the above
256. Etiology of carcinoma cervix includes

a. Nulliparity
b. Sexually transmitted diseases
c. Diabetes
d. Genetic
257. Squomodcolumnar junction is usually located at distance from cervical tip

a. 2.5 mm b. 8-13 mm c. 20-30 mm d. 40-50 mm
258. Carcinosarcoma may arise in

a. Uterus b. Cervix c. Vagina d. Ovary
885

259. Schiller diuval bodies are seen in
a. Chriocarcinoma b. Embryonal cellcarcinoma
c. Endodermal sinus tumor d. Medullary carcinoma
260. Hydatids of morgagni are

a. Hydatid cysts of brain
b. Hydatid cyst of thorax
c. Subcutaneous hydatid cysts
261. Most common germ cell tumor is

a. Teratoma b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Sominoma d. Choriocarcnoma
262. The following ovarian tumors arise from surface epithelium except
a. Mucinous cystadenoma b. Endometroid carcinoma
c. Brenner tumor d. Benign cystic teratoma
263. follicular ovarian cysts are seen in

a. Molar pregnancy b. Tubal pregnancy
c. Fibroid uterus d. Threatened abortion
264. Red degeneration is related with

a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Fibroid uterus
c. Vesicular mole d. Carcinoma cervix
265. Coffee bean nuclei are seen in

a. Brenner tumor b. Teratoma c. Seminoma d. Choriocarcinoma
266. Fractional currettage is used in diagnosis of

a. Ca cervix b. Ca endometrium c. Choriocarcinoma d. Ca vagina
267. Serial HCG titres are helpful in diagnosis of

a. Ca cervix b. Ca endometrium c. Choriocarcinoma d. Ca vagina
268. Following is true about fibroid except

a. Commonest uterine tumors b. Malignant transformation is rare
c. Cause menorrhagia d. All of the above
269. Risk factors for carcinoma cervix are

a. Early sexual intercourse b. Too many childbirths
c. Low socioeconomic status d. All of the above
270. Most common spread of choriocarcinoma occurs to

a. Lungs b. Brain
c. Adrenals d. Vagina
886

271. All are signs of carcinoma cervix except
a. Bleedson touch b. Friability
c. Fixity d. Induration
e. Haematemesis
272. Signs of inoperability of carcinoma include all except

a. Edema of skin of breast
b. Satelite tumor nodules in skin breast
c. SupraclaVicUlar distant metastasis
d. None
273. Tylectomy literally means:

a. Excision of lump b. Excision of breast
c. Excision of lymph nodes d. Excision of skin
274. Commonest Types of carcinoma breast is

a. Lobular carcinoma b. Infiltrating intracluctal
c. Scirhous carcinoma d. Colloid carcinoma
275. The incidence of carcinoma of breast is increased in women who

a. Have early menarche and late menopause
b. Have first child after age of 35 years
c. Avoid breast feeding
d. Nulliparous
e. All of the above
276. Most sensitive and specific investigation for carcinoma breast is

a. CT scan b. Thermograph
c. USG d. Mammnography
277. Commonest cause of primary hydrocephalus is

a. Overproduction of CSF
b. Obstruction to flow of CSF
c. Deficient reabsorption of CSF
278. Purulent meningitis is characterized by

a. Mononuclear pleocytosis
b. Reduced sugar content
c. Increased protein content
d. Both (b) and (c)
279. Cerebral embolism mainly is seen in territory of

a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Posterior cerebral artery
c. Middle cerebral artery d. None of the above
887

280. Loss of strength in one half of body with or without face is known as
a. Paraplegia b. Quardriplegia
c. Hemiplegia d. Craninal nerve plasy
281. Commonest complication of TB meningitis is

a. Tuberculoma b. Brain abscess
c. Hemorrhage d. Cerebral infarction
282. All are true about pyogenic meningitis except

a. Increased CSF protein
b. Pleocytosis
c. Markedly decreased CSF glucose
d. Decreased CSF C-reactive protein
283. Which of the following substance is toxic to neurons?

a. Unconjugated bilirubin b. Bile salt
c. Haemoglobin d. Melanin
284. Commonest cause of intracerebral bleeds

a. Berry aneurysm b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes d. Thrombocytopenia
285. Following are CSF findings in aseptic meningitis except

a. Increased proteins b. Increased sugar
c. Neutrophilia d. Decreased chloride
286. The macrophage in brain is

a. Schawn cells b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Astrocytes d. Microglia
287. Commonest cause of cerebral infarction is

a. Arterial thrombosis b. Arteritis
c. Venous thrombosis d. Embolism
288. Commonest type of intracranical tumor is

a. Astrocytoma b. Medulloblastoma
c. Meningoma d. Neurofibroma
e. Secondaries
289. The following cell type does not participate in repair after brain infarction
a. Microglia b. Fibroblast
c. Endothelium d. Astrocytes
290. Which of the following is a primary neurogenic tumor?

a. Meningioma b. Glioblastoma
c. Acoustic neuroma d. Neuroblastoma
888

291. The causative agent of pyogenic osteomyelitis is
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Klebsjejla
c. E. coli d. All of the above
292. Codman’s triangle is seen in

a. Osteosarcomas b. Osteomas
c. Ewing’s sarcoma d. Osteochondroma
293. Sequestrun and involucrum are seen in

a. Pyogenic Osteo myelitis
b. Tuberculous osteomyelitls
c. Osteosarcor
d. Ewing’s Saroma
294. Heberden Nodes are characteristic of

a. Osteoarthitis b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Suppurative arthritis d. Gouty arthritis
295. Osteophyte or spur formation on X-ray is seen in

a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthrits
c. Suppurative arthritis d. Gouty arthritis
296. Normal blood calcium levels are :

a. 8.4-10.4 mg/dl b. 2-4 mg/dl
c. 20-30 mg/dl d. 100-120 mg/dl
297. Symmetrically contracted kidney are seen

a. Chronic pyelonephritis
b. Benign nephroscierosis
c. Chronic glomerulonephritis
d. Both a & b
298. Discrete yellowish raised abscess are seen

a. Acute pyelonephritis
b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
c. Acute glomerulonephritis
299. Causes of chronic pyelonephritis are

a. Obstruction b. Vesicourethral reflux
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
300. Causes of ischemic acute tubular necrosis are all except

a. Shock b. Dehydration
c. Crush injuries d. drugs
889

301. The most common histological pattern in renal carcinoma is
a. Papillary type b. Granular type
c. Clear cell d. Chromophobe type
302. Most common clinical presentation or renal cell carcinoma is

a. Pain abdomen b. Frequency of micturiton
c. Haematuria d. None of the above
303. Splitting of glomerular basement membrance is seen in

a. Acute glomerulonepbritis
d. Good Pasteur syndrome
304. Basement membrane has type ________ collagen

a. I b. II
c. III d. IV
305. Cresent in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis are

a. Epithelial cells
b. Mesangial cells
c. Epithelial cells mesangial cells and macrophages
d. Macrophages
306. In pyelonephritis the diagnostic urinary finding is

a. Pus, cell cast b. RBC cast
c. Pus cells d. RBC’s
307. Microscopic picture of scminoma includes all of the following except

a. Gland formation
b. Monomorphic cells
c. Lymphocytic infiltration
d. Destruction of seminferous tubules
308. Best indication of testicular biopsy is

a. Necrospermia b. Pyospermia
c. Oligospermia d. Azoospermia
309. Commonest histological type of carcinoma test is

a. Seminoma b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Yolk sac tumor d. Teratone
310. All are true about atrophic testis except

a. Leydig cell hypolasia b. Lymphocyte infiltration
c. Smalisize d. Normal sertoiucell
890

311. Testicular involvement without epididymis is a feature of
a. Gonorrhea b. Syphilis
c. Tuberculosis d. Granuloma inguinale
312. Microscopic picture of seminoma testis is

a. Glandular with papillary growth
b. Dermoid elements
c. Hyper chromatic nuclei
d. Sheets of lymphocytes in homogenous background
313. True about cryptorchidism is

a. 75% cases lie at inguinal ring
b. Also known as undescended testis
c. Testis is small and fibr6us
d. All the above
314. Causes of testicular atrophy are all except ________

a. End stage orchitis b. Benign prostate
c. Cirrhosis d. Malnutrition
315. Imvolucrum means

a. Dead bone b. New living bone
c. Previous living bone d. None of the above
316. Paget’s disease involves which bone

a. Ritins b. Vertebra
c. Skull d. All of the above

c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Rheumatoid arthritis
318. The apparatus used to measure haemoglobin in blood is known as :

a. Haemocytometer b. Haemoglobinometer
c. Albuminometer d. Urinometer
319. The reagent used in haemometer tube is :

a. N/10 HCl b. N/20 HCl c. N/15 HCl d. N/30 HCl
320. Diluting fluid used for RBC’s count :

a. Turk’s fluid b. Hayem’s fluid c. Formal citrate d. None of the above
321. The RBc counting on haemoctyometer is done in :

a. Central chamber b. Side chambers
891

322. All are clinical symptoms in a patient of fibroid uterus except
a. Menorrhagia b. Polyrnenorrhoea
c. Metrorrhagia d. Amenorrhoea
323. The histological picture of carcinoma cervix is that of

a. Clear cell carcinoma b. Squamous cellcarcinoma
c. Transitional carcinoma d. Mucoid carcinoma
324. Methods used for diagnosis of carcinoma cervix are

a. Cervical biopsy b. Paps smear
c. Colostomy d. All the above
325. Krunkenberg tumor is

a. Metastatic tumor b. Shows signet ring cells
c. Is usually bilateral d. All the above
326. Squamo columnar junction is usually located at distance from cervical tip
a. 2.5mm b. 8-13 mm
c. 20-30 mm d. 40-50 mm
327. Careinosareoma may rise in

a. Uterus b. Cervix c. Vagina d. Ovary
328. Schiller diunal bodies are seen in

a. Choriocarcinoma b. Embryonal cell carcinoma
c. Endodemal sinus tumor d. Medullary carcinoma
329. Hydatids of mergagni are

a. Flydatid cysts of brain b. Hydatid cyst of thorax
c. Subcutaneous hydatid cysts d. None of the above
330. The following ovarian tumors arise from surface epithellum except
a. Mucinous Cystadenoma b. Endometroid carcinoma
c. Brunner tumor d. Benign cystic teratoma
331. Follicular ovarian cysts are seen in

a. Molar pregnancy b. Tubal pregnancy
c. Fibroid uterus d. Threatened abortion
332. Red degeneration is related with

a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Fibroid uterus
c. Vesicular mole d. Carcinoma cervix
333. Fractional curettage is used in diagnosis of

a. Cancer of cervix b. Cancer of endometrium
c. Choriocarinoma d. Cancer of stomach
892

334. Serial HCG titres are helpful in diagnosis of
a. Cancer of cervix b. Cancer of endometrium
c. Choriocarinoma d. Cancer of vagina
335. Following is true about fibroid except

a. Commonest uterine tumors
b. Malignant transformation is rare
c. Cause menorrhagia
d. All the above
336. Risk factors for carcinoma cervix are

a. Early sexual intercourse
b. Too many child births
c. Low socio-economic status
d. All the above
337. Most common spread of choriocarcinoma occurs to

a. Lungs b. Brain
c. Adrenals d. Vagina
338. All are signs of carcinoma cervix except

a. Bleedson touch b. Friability
c. Induration d. Fixity
e. Flaejnaturesis
339. Signs of inoperability of carcinoma include all except

a. Edema of skin of breast
b. Satellite tumor nodules in skin breast
c. Supraclavicular distant metastasis
340. Commonest type of carcinoma breast is

a. Lobular carciiioma b. Infiltrating intraductal
c. Scirrhous carcinoma d. Colloid carcinoma
341. The incidence of carcinoma of breast is measured in women who

a. Have early menarche and late b. Have first child after age of 35 years
c. Avoid breast feeding d. Niliparous
e. All of the above
342. Most sensitive and specific investigation for carcinoma breast is

a. CT scan b. Thermography c. USG d. Mammography
343. Purulent meningitis is characterized by

a. Mononuclear pleocytosis b. Reduced sugar content
c. Increased protein content d. Both b and c
893

344. Cerebral embolism mainly seen in territory of
a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Posterior cerebral artery
c. Middle cerebral artery d. None of the above
345. All are true about pyogenic meningitis except

a. Increased CSF protein
b. Pleocytosis
c. Markedly decreased CSF glucose
d. Decreased CSF C-reactive protein
346. CSF cell count in tubercular meningitis varies between

a. 0-99 b. 100-499
c. 500-999 d. 1000-5000
347. Study of tissues and organs received at postmortem is known as

a. Molecular pathology b. Cytopathology
c. Histopathology d. Forensic pathology
348. Which of the following is a cause of intracerebral bleeding?

a. Hypotension b. Hypertension
c. Thrombocytopenia d. Diabtes
349. Which of the following is a commonest type of intracranial tumor?

a. Nuerofibroma b. Meningioma
c. Secondaries d. All of the above
350. Hydrocephalus leads to

a. Dilatation of ventricles b. Contaction of ventricles
351. Which of the following can be a cause of nonunion of a fracture?

a. Systemic disease
b. Injury to concerned nerve supply
c. Periosteal injury with loss 01 bone
d. All of the above
352. Which of the following term is used for undescended testis?

a. Hypospadiasis b. Epispadiasis
c. Cryptorchidism d. None of the above
353. Which of the following substance is toxic to neurons?

a. Unconjugated bilirubih b. Bile salt c. Hemoglobin d. Melanin
354. Commonest cause of intracerebral bleed

a. Berry aneurysm b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes d. Thrombocytopenia
894

355. Following are CSF findings in aseptic meningitis except
a. Increased proteins b. Increased sugar
c. Neutrophilia d. Decreased chloride
356. The macrophage in brain is

a. Schwan cells b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Astrocytes d. Microglia
357. Commonest cause of cerebral infarction is

a. Arterial thrombosis b. Arteritis
c. Venous d. Embolism
358. Commonest types of intracranial tumor is

a. Astrocytoma b. Medullablastoma
c. Meningoma d. NeurofThroma
e. Secondaries
359. The following cell type does not participate in repair after brain infarction
a. Microglia b. Fibroblast
c. Endothelium d. Astrocytes 1
360. Which of the following is a primary neurogenic tumor?

a. Meningimo b. Glioblastoma
c. Acoustic neuroma d. Neuroblastoma
361. The causative agent of pyogenic osteomyelitis are

a. Staphyloccus aureus b. Klebsiella
c. E.cloli d. All of the above
362. Codmans triangle is seen in

a. Osteosarcoma b. Osteomas
c. Ewing’s sarcoma d. Osteochondroma
363.Sequestrtim and involucruni are seen in

a. Pyogenic osteomyclitis
b. Tuberculosis osteomyelitis
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Ewing’s sarcoma
364. Heberden nodes are characteristic of

a. Osteoarthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Suppurative arthritis d. Gonty arthritis
365. Osteophyte or spur formation on X-ray is seen in

a. Rheumatoid artris b. Osteoarthritis
c. Suppurative artris d. Gonty arthritis
895

366. Non union of a fracture can be due to
a. Injury to nerve supply of concerned muscle
b. Periosteal injury with loss of bone
c. Systemic disease
d. All of the above
367. Which malignancy produces osteoblastic secondaries?

a. Carcinoid b. Caxcer of prostate
c. Cancer of thyroid d. Multiple myelorna
368. Which bone tumor arises from epiphysis ?

a. Oestrogenic sarcoma b. Ewings sarcoma
c. Osteoblastoma d. Osteoid ostema
369. Loss of mineral mass is seen in all except

a. Post menopausal women
b. Glucocorticoid therapy
c. Hypoparathyroidism
d. Immobilization
370. Involuorum means

a. Dead bone b. New living bone
c. Previous living bone d. None of the above

c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Rheumatoid arthritis
372. The apparatus used to measure haemoglobin in blood is known as

a. Haemocytometer b. Haemoglobinometer
c. Albuminometer d. Urinometer
373. The reagent used in haemometer tube is

a. N/1OHCL b. N/2OHCL c. N/1SHCL d. N/3OHCL
374. Diluting fluid used for RBC’s count

a. Turks fluid b. Hayeni’s fluid
c. Formal citrate d. None of the above
375. The RBC counting on haemocytometer is done in

a. Central chamber b. Side chamber
c. Upper chamber d. None of the above
376. CSF pressure is increased in:

c. Hydrocephalus d. All of the above
896

377. When the amount of free HC1 in any specimen is more than 60 ml NPO HCL/100 ml,
it is known as:
a. Hypochiorhydria b.Hyperchlorhydria
c. Achlorhydria d. All of the above
378. For aspirating gastric contents the Ryle’s tube is passed up to:
a. 50cm b. 100cm c. 150cm d. 200cm
379. Normal sperm count is: (a)

a. Between 60-150 million/mi b. More than 200 million/mi
c. More than 350 million/mi d. Less than 60 million/ mi
380. Sperm counts less than 20 million/ml are known as:

a. Polyspermia b. Teratospermia c. Oligoserpmi d. Azoospermia
381. Sputum with greenish tinge is seen in:

a. Anaerobic b. Tuberculosis c. Pseucmonas infection d. E-coli infection
382. Charcot layden crystals are seen in :

a. Bronchial asthma b. Pneumoconiosis c. Tuberculosis d. Pneumonia
383. Prothrombin time is a screening test for defects of

a. Extrinsic and common coagulation path way. b. Intrinsic pathway
c. Extrinsic and Intrinsic pathways d. None of the above
384. For screening blood the following diseases should be ruled out
a. Syphilis b. Hepatitis c. TB d. HIV e. All the above
385. Causes of thrombocytopenia are

a. Polycythernia vera b. Aplastic anemia
c. Dengue haemorrhagic fever d. Bothbandc
386. The method used for blood sugar estimation are

a. Glucose oxidase method b. Transaminase test
c. Biuret test d. Ehrlich’s method
387. Hypoglycemia is found in

a. Insulinoma b. Hypothyroidism c. Hypopitutarism d. Liver disease
e. All the above
388. Which of the following term is also known as wilms tumor?

a. Nephritic syndrome b. Nephritis
c. Nephroscierosis d. Nephroblastoma
389. Which of the following is an osteomalacia ?

a. Normal osteoid and defecuve mineralization
897

b. Abnormal osteoid and defece mineralization
c. Abnormal osteoid and nrma1 mineralization
d. Abnormal bone desposition
390. Which of the following does not leads to loss of mineral mass ?
a. Hypoparathyroidism b. post menopausal women
c. Immobilization d. Clucocorticoid therapy
391. Renal glycosuria is seen when blood sugar level is

a. More than 100 mg % b. More than 200 mg %
c. Less than 100 mg % d. More than 180 mg %
392. Which of the following procedure is used to obtain CSF ?

a. Thoracenthesis b. Lumbar puncture
c. Pleural effusion d. All of the above
393. Which of the following term is also known as wilm’s tumor ?

a. Nephritic syndrome b. Nephritis
c. Nephroscierosis d. Nephroblastoma 00ml
394. Prothrombin time is a screening test for defects of:

a. Extrinsic and common coagulation pathway b. Intrinsic pathway
c. None of the above d. Both of the above
395. For screening blood the following diseases should be ruled out
a. Syphilis b. Hepatitis B c. Tuberculosis d. HIV e. All of the above
396. Causes of thrombocytopenia are :

a. Polycythemia vera b. Aplastic anemia
c. Dengue Haemorhagic fever d. Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
397. The method used for blood sugar estimation is :

a. Glucose oxidase method b. Transaminase test
c. Biuret test d. Ehriich’s method
398. Hypoglycemia is found in :
a. Insulinoma b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypopitutarism d. Liver disease
e. All of the above.
399. Renal glycosuria is seen when blood sugar levels are:

c. More than 100 mg % d. Less than 100 mg %
400. Renal glycosuria is seen when blood sugar levels are :

c. More than 100 mg % d. Less than 100 mg %
898

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MODEL QUESTIONS FOR SEMINAR - 1

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

1. Which of the following system of medicine is of Indian origin-?

2. The system of medicine practiced in Tamil speaking areas of India is

3. The principle of a risk approach is

4. Epidemiology of cholera was first studied by

5. Sulivan’s index refers to

6. Prevention of emergence of risk factors is

7. Which of the following is tertiary protection-?

8. Epidemiology involves study of

9. The aspect of epidemiology which deals with distribution of disease is

12. From case control study one can drive

13. Keeping the frequency of disease within acceptable limit is called

14. Individual suffering from an impairment and disability is called as

15. Restoration of family and social relationship is

16. Restoration of the capacity to earn livelihood

17. Restoration of personal dignity and confidence is

19. Hygiene is a word which derived from

20. Social medicine was first introduced by

21. Epidemiology is derived from the word

22. Branch of science which deals with treats of epidemics is

24. Epidemiological tool of measurement

25. Mortality means

26. Disease frequency is measurement by

29. The first phase of an epidemiological investigation is

30. Unusual occurrence of disease in a particulars region

31. An outbreak of disease is termed as

32. An infection transmitted through animals tomanis

33. Experimental epidemiology deals with

34. Epidemiological triad includes all expect

35. The first person becoming sick in an epidemic is called

37. Disease which are amenable to eradication are all except

38. Latent infection is seen in all expect

40. Health promotion is the process to achieve health by

41. Which of the following is not a pre-requisite of health promotion?

42. Health promotion includes all except

43. Health promotional activities include

44. Health promotional activities include

45. For maintaining health, individuals reed to take

47. Hygiene aspect of health maintenance includes

48. Which of the following is the characteristic of community?

49. According to Holistic concept, health is considered as

50. Identify the factors which are responsible for health

51. Which of the following is not the pre-requisite of health promotion?

52. Who is the father of germ theory of disease?

53. __________ is the physiological or psychological dysfunction?

54. 7 April, 1948 is celebrated every year as _________

55. The concept Disease agent man disease is known as

56. Dimensions of health

60. The concept of social Medicine was first introduced by

61. Prophylactic administration of vitamin A in a child is

62. The restoration of body function is known

63. False about primary prevention is

64. About community diagnosis all are true except

65. Administration of oral polio vaccine to the children is a measure of

66. Which of the following constitutes specific protection?

68. Screening for Carcinoma cervix is

69. Iron and folic acid supplementation is type of

71. The best method of promoting healthy lifestyle in children

72. All are health promotion activities except