Fundamentals of Nursing Test Ii

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II
CONTENT OUTLINE
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in.
Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes
epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict

B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and
the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or

spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is
wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The
person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be
validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition

B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or

accident
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin
around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable
anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with
the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in
man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal
response to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the
client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases
person’s susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3
consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?
A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
29. The following are concept of health:

1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an
absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk
factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within
his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but
not the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs
and symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to
another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after
exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of
infectious process does this man belongs?
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to
prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission
of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission

B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the
following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually
projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel
asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying
Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity

B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway.
She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha
asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg
provides

51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and
infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing
A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….
A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand

B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?
A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean

B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer
time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for
sterilization
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You
correctly answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes

B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree
Celsius
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are
required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where
he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact

B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
63. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose

B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and
every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a
nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container

B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the
cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where
supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers

B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are
reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries

B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the
tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As
a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube

B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces

B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it
rather than reaching for it
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the
bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing
and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand

B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to
the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field

B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical
procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
79. Which gloves should you remove first?
A. The glove of the non dominant hand

B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed
below
1. Eye wear or goggles

2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the
nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in
the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle

B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis.
Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth

2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s
secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required
to prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish

2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first

B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses

B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific
response of the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress
Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy

B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress

B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
A. Stage of Alarm
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue
unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis

B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at
the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode

B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French.
He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy
experiencing?

100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his
house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?

ANSWER KEY
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II
CONTENT OUTLINE
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in.
Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes
epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict

B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
* To better understand the concept : The autonomic nervous system is composed of

SYMPATHETIC and PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is called AUTONOMIC Because it
is Involuntary and stimuli based. You cannot tell your heart to kindly beat for 60 per
minute, Nor, Tell your blood vessels, Please constrict, because you need to wear skirt today
and your varicosities are bulging. Sympathetic Nervous system is the FIGHT or FLIGHT
mechanism. When people FIGHT or RUN, we tend to stimulate the ANS and dominate over
SNS. Just Imagine a person FIGHTING and RUNNING to get the idea on the signs of SNS
Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting person to get a picture of PNS Domination. A
person RUNNING or FIGHTING Needs to bronchodilate, because the oxygen need is
increased due to higher demand of the body. Pupils will DILATE to be able to see the enemy
clearly. Client will be fully alert to dodge attacks and leap through obstacles during running.
The client's gastric motility will DECREASE Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate
during fighting nor running.
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and
the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
* If vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but decrease. It is true that Blood
pressure increases during SNS Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to
circulate during the FIGHT or FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased,
but this is facilitated by vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all correct. The
liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen store utilization due to a heightened demand
for energy. Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of
digestion that is controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS
dominates.
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or

spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
* Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory, standards, diagnosis and clinical
feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective state of not feeling well based on subjective appraisal,
previous experience, peer advice etc.
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is
wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
* A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a person starts to believe
something is wrong, that person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The
patient will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick role where the
patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some activities. Since the client only ASSUMES
his illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is experiencing is a disease, This
is now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional advice for
validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of the symptoms he is experiencing.
client will then start his dependent patient role of receiving care from the health care
providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where the patient gives up the
sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The
person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
* In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs professionals for help. They have a
choice either to accept or reject the professional's decisions but patients are usually passive
and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
* Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role phase of illness.
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be
validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
* At this stage, The patient seeks for validation of his symptom experience. He wants to find
out if what he feels are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why is he
feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the probable outcome of this
experience.
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition

B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
* The nurse should not judge the patient and not view the patient as the cause or someone
responsible for his illness. A sick client is excused from his societal roles, Oblige to get well
as soon as possible and Obliged to seek competent help.
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or

accident
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
* Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen considering that person has an

INTACT IMMUNITY while susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of resistance
means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and repel infection or invasion
of these disease causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone who has a very low
degree of resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is someone that can easily
repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person is IMMUNE
[ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be impaired in cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc.
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
* Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain disease. For example, In Tourette

syndrome, patient will manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the patient
as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means COLLECTION of these
symptoms that occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia,
echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE
SYNDROME.
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin
around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
* Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted from treatment of a certain disease. For
example, A child frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness and partial
thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant diseases cause by
proliferation of abnormally growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like Motor
vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the hospital. Example is
UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly caused by E.Coli.
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
* Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as IDIOPATHIC because the cause is
UNKNOWN.
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic
* A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by periods of remissions and

exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases occurs too
short to manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months that is why
remissions and exacerbation are observable.
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable
anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
* As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure
of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases
wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of
the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to
abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are
anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT
IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure
which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic
alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident
organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the
organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC
PSYCHOSES.
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with
the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
* Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in
the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is
simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of
controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in
man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
* Refer to number 17.
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal
response to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
* Refer to number 16.
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the
client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
* Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLE. Primary refers to
preventions that aims in preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good
nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those that deals with
early diagnostics, case finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam,
Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc.
Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the
impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body functioning. Examples are
prosthetis fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose among
diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc.
The confusing part is between the treatment in secondary and treatment in tertiary. To best
differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA that is being treated with ferrous sulfate is
considered being in the SECONDARY PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move
the client on PRE ILLNESS STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in cases of
stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA
therapy is done in order to prevent coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus
formation and a another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as
ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to TINNITUS or ringing of
the ears.
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases
person’s susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
* The nurse never increases the person's susceptibility to illness but rather, LESSEN the
person's susceptibility to illness.
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
* Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, The

person feels signs and symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to prevent
deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are required to MAINTAIN
our health by monthly check ups, Physical examinations, Diagnostics etc.
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
* PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the workes in a hazardous

environment to protect them from injuries and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY
prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3
consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
* An actual board question, The best way to disseminate information to the public is by
TELEVISION followed by RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs other than
publising posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging new way to disseminate is through
the internet.
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
* The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but the parts and subparts are
Betty Neuman's. She stated that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an
individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined health as an
EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just used that to help
you remember her theory of health.
29. The following are concept of health:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an
absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
* All of the following are correct statement about health. The first one is the definition by
WHO, The second one is from Walter Cannon's homeostasis theory. Third one is from
Claude Bernard's concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is Neuman's Theory.
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
* Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the ability to maintain dynamic

equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard defined
health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as Wellness that
is influenced by individual's culture.
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk
factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
* Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE while Medical Asepsis is

synonymous with CLEAN TECHNIQUE.
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within
his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but
not the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
* Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while Antiseptics are intended for use on
persons and other living things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but
cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under pressure gets in,
Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including their spores.
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
* Both A and B are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a form of Sterilization. Medical
Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also
known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of removing pathogens but
not their spores.
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs
and symptoms
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
* In incubation period, The disease has been introduced to the body but no sign and
symptom appear because the pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still
need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when the appearance
of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms starts to
appear. Illness period is characterized by the appearance of specific signs and symptoms or
refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the PEAK of illness intensity
while the convalescent period is characterized by the abatement of the disease process or
it's gradual disappearance.
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to
another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
* To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the specific signs of Fever, Koplik's
Spot and Rashes must appear. In the situation above, Only general signs and symptoms
appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to appear, therefore, the illness is still
in the Prodromal period. Signs and symptoms of measles during the prodromal phase are
Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik's spot heralds the Illness period
and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of this processes take place in 10 days that
is why, Measles is also known as 10 day measles.
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after
exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of
infectious process does this man belongs?
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
* Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days with an average of 48 hours.
Since the question stated exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the
incubation period.
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to
prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
* Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of infection. It is easily manipulated
by the Nurses using the tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission based
precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
* Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The etiologic agent itself. It will first
proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef
using a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way to understand the
process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting to build her colony.
Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT. She first need to build a
COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to produce
her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and sustain the new colony. They
need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE OF TRANSMISSION] in
search of foods by ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE
HOST]. By imagining the Ant's life cycle, we can easily arrange the chain of infection.
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission
of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission

B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
* Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is transmitted by a TICK BITE.
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the
following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
* To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a TARGET ORGAN/S. The

pathogen should be specific to these organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is
NON SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to humans but deadly to birds.
An immunocompromised individual, specially AIDS Patient, could be infected with these
NON SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune system.
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
* The hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause of cross contamination in
hospital setting. That is why HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to
prevent the occurence of cross contamination and nosocomial infection. D refers to
Nosocomial infection and UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the hospital caused
by urinary catheterization. E.Coli seems to be the major cause of this incident. B best fits
Cross Contamination, It is the spread of microogranisms from patient o patient.
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually
projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
* Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our first line of defense against
infection.
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
* Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person's susceptibility to illness. Medication
like corticosteroids could supress a person's immune system that will lead to increase
susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person's susceptibility to certain skin diseases. A
dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person. Fair skinned
person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel
asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying
Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an

* TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to TT5 are the booster dose. A
woman with completed immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2. Tetanus toxoid
is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It
is Artificial because it did not occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it is Active
because what has been passed is an actual toxin and not a ready made immunoglobulin.
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway.
She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha
asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg
provides

* In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has injuries. Giving the toxin [TT
Vaccine] itself would not help Agatha because it will take time before the immune system
produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made anti toxin in the form of ATS or
TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of agatha did not produce it. It is passive because
her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a ready made Immune globulin is given to
immediately supress the invasion.
51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and
infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
* When you see the word HANDWASHING as one of the options, 90% Chance it is the
correct answer in the local board. Or should I say, 100% because I have yet to see question
from 1988 to 2005 board questions that has option HANDWASHING on it but is not the
correct answer.
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing
A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
* The most important aspect of handwashing is FRICTION. The rest, will just enhance
friction. The use of soap lowers the surface tension thereby increasing the effectiveness of
friction. Water helps remove transient bacteria by working with soap to create the lather
that reduces surface tension. Time is of essence but friction is the most essential aspect of
handwashing.
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
* Hands are held BELOW the elbow in medical asepsis in contrast with surgical asepsis,
wherein, nurses are required to keep the hands above the waist. The rationale is because in
medical asepsis, Hands are considered dirtier than the elbow and therefore, to limit
contamination of the lower arm, The hands should always be below the elbow.
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand

B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
* Each hands requires atleast 15 to 30 seconds of handwashing to effectively remove

transient microorganisms.
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
* According to Kozier, The minimum time required for watching each hands is 10 seconds
and should not be lower than that. The recommended time, again, is 15 to 30 seconds.
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?
A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
* If a liquid soap is to be used, 1 tsp [ 5ml ] of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing
procedure.
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean

B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer
time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for
sterilization
* Equipments with LARGE LUMEN are easier to clean than those with small lumen. B C and
D are all correct.
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You
correctly answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes

B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree
Celsius
* Boiling is the most common and least expensive method of sterilization used in home. For
it to be effective, you should boil articles for atleast 15 minutes.
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are
required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
* Imagine foods and drugs that are being sterilized by a boiling water, ethylene oxide gas
and autoclave or steam under pressure, They will be inactivated by these methods. Ethylene
oxide gas used in gas sterlization is TOXIC to humans. Boiling the food will alter its
consistency and nutrients. Autoclaving the food is never performed. Radiation using
microwave oven or Ionizing radiation penetrates to foods and drugs thus, sterilizing them.
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where
he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
* Terminal disinfection refers to practices to remove pathogens that stayed in the

belongings or immediate environemnt of an infected client who has been discharged. An
example would be Killing airborne TB Bacilli using UV Light. Concurrent disinfection refers to
ongoing efforts implented during the client's stay to remove or limit pathogens in his
supplies, belongings, immediate environment in order to control the spread of the disease.
An example is cleaning the bedside commode of a client with radium implant on her cervix
with a bleach disinfectant after each voiding.
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
* NEVER shake the linens. Once soiled, fold it inwards clean surface out. Shaking the linen
will further spread pathogens that has been harbored by the fabric.
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the
autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
* Only C is correct. Metals with locks, like clamps and scissors should be UNLOCKED in
order to minimize stiffening caused by autoclave to the hinges of these metals. NOT ALL
microorganism are destroyed by autoclaving. There are recently discovered microorganism
that is invulnarable to extreme heat. Autoclaved instruments are to be used within 2 weeks.
Only the same type of metals should be autoclaved as this will alteration in plating of these
metals.
63. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose

B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and
every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
* only D is correct. Mask should cover both nose and mouth. Masks will not function
optimally when wet. Masks should be worn not greater than 4 hours, as it will lose
effectiveness after 4 hours. N95 mask or particulate mask can filter organism as small as 1
micromillimeter.
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
* Infectious waste like blood and blood products, wet diapers and dressings are thrown in
yellow trashcans.
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a
nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container

B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
* Needles, scalpels and other sharps are to be disposed in a puncture proof container.
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the
cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where
supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
* A dislodged radioactive cervical implant in brachytherapy are to be picked by a LONG

FORCEP and stored in a LEAD CONTAINER in order to prevent damage on the client's normal
tissue. Calling the physician is the second most appropriate action among the choices. A
nurse should never attempt to put it back nor, touch it with her bare hands.
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers

B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are
reusable
* Leeches, in leech therapy or LEECH PHLEBOTOMY are to be disposed on a BIO HAZARD

container. They are never re used as this could cause transfer of infection. These leeches
are hospital grown and not the usual leeches found in swamps.
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries

B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
* Never recap needles. They are directly disposed in a puncture proof container after used.
Recapping the needles could cause injury to the nurse and spread of infection. B C and D
are all appropriate. Standard precaution is sufficient for an HIV patient. A client with
neutropenia are not given fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables for even the non
infective organisms found in these foods could cause severe infection on an
immunocompromised patients.
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
* TB patients should have a private room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 to 12 air
exhanges per hour. Negative pressure room will prevent air inside the room from escaping.
Air exchanges are necessary since the client's room do not allow air to get out of the room.
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
* Droplet precaution is sufficient on client's with RUBELLA or german measles.
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
* Measles is highly communicable and more contagious than Rubella, It requires airborne
precaution as it is spread by small particle droplets that remains suspended in air and
disperesed by air movements.
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
* Impetigo causes blisters or sores in the skin. It is generally caused by GABS or Staph
Aureaus. It is spread by skin to skin contact or by scratching the lesions and touching
another person's skin.
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the
tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As
a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube

B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
* The digestive tract is not sterile, and therefore, simple errors like this would not cause
harm to the patient. NGT tube need not be sterile, and so is colostomy and rectal tubes.
Clean technique is sufficient during NGT and colostomy care.
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces

B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it
rather than reaching for it
* Human skin is impossible to be sterilized. It contains normal flora of microorganism. A B

and D are all correct.
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the
bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing
and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
* Sterile conscience, or the moral imperative of a nurse to be honest in practicing sterile

technique, is the best method to enhance sterile technique. Autoclaved linens are
considered sterile only within 2 weeks even if the bagging is intact. Surgical technique is a
team effort of each nurse. If a scrubbed person leave the sterile field and area, he must do
the process all over again.
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand

B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
* Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first and then, the dominant hand. The
rationale is simply because humans tend to use the dominant hand first before the non
dominant hand. Out of 10 humans that will put on their sterile gloves, 8 of them will put the
gloves on their non dominant hands first.
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to
the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field

B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
* The nurse should put his goggles, cap and mask prior to washing the hands. If he wash
his hands prior to putting all these equipments, he must wash his hands again as these
equipments are said to be UNSTERILE.
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical
procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
* The nurse should only adjust fitting of the gloves when they are both on the hands. Not
doing so will break the sterile technique. Only 4 gingers are slipped when picking up the
second gloves. You cannot slip all of your fingers as the cuff is limited and the thumb would
not be able to enter the cuff. The first glove is grasp by simply picking it up with the first 2
fingers and a thumb in a pinching motion. Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first.
79. Which gloves should you remove first?
A. The glove of the non dominant hand

B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
* Gloves are worn in the non dominant hand first, and is removed also from the non
dominant hand first. Rationale is simply because in 10 people removing gloves, 8 of them
will use the dominant hand first and remove the gloves of the non dominant hand.
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed
below

2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
* The nurse should use CaMEy Hand and Body Lotion in moisturizing his hand before
surgical procedure and after handwashing. Ca stands for CAP, M stands for MASK, Ey
stands for eye goggles. The nurse will do handwashing and then [HAND], Don the gloves
first and wear the Gown [BODY]. I created this mnemonic and I advise you use it because
you can never forget Camey hand and body lotion. [ Yes, I know it is spelled as CAMAY ]]
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
* When the nurse is about to remove his protective devices, The nurse will remove the
GLOVES first followed by the MASK and GOWN then, other devices like cap, shoe cover, etc.
This is to prevent contamination of hair, neck and face area.
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the
nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
* Even if you do not know the answer to this question, you can answer it correctly by
imagining. If you pour the NSS into a receptacle 1 to 3 inch above it, Chances are, The
mouth of the NSS bottle would dip into the receptacle as you fill it, making it contaminated.
If you pour the NSS bottle into a receptacle 10 inches above it, that is too high, chances
are, as you pour the NSS, most will spill out because the force will be too much for the
buoyant force to handle. It will also be difficult to pour something precisely into a receptacle
as the height increases between the receptacle and the bottle. 6 inches is the correct
answer. It is not to low nor too high.
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in
the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle

B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
* A sterile forcep is usually dipped into a disinfectant or germicidal solution. Imagine, if the
tip is HIGHER than the handle, the solution will go into the handle and into your hands and
as you use the forcep, you will eventually lower its tip making the solution in your hand go
BACK into the tip thus contaminating the sterile area of the forcep. To prevent this, the tip
should always be lower than the handle. In situation questions like this, IMAGINATION is
very important.
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis.
Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth

2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s
secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
* All soiled equipments use in an infectious client are disposed INSIDE the client's room to
prevent contamination outside the client's room. The nurse is correct in using Mask the
covers both nose and mouth. Hands are washed before and after removing the gloves and
before and after you enter the client's room. Gloves and contaminated suction tip are
thrown in trashcan found in the clients room.
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required
to prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish

2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
* Cap, mask and shoe cover are worn BEFORE scrubbing.
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first

B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
* Gloves are the dirtiest protective item nurses are wearing and therefore, the first to be
removed to prevent spread of microorganism as you remove the mask and gown.
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses

B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
* All stressors evoke common adaptive response. A psychologic fear like nightmare and a
real fear or real perceive threat evokes common manifestation like tachycardia, tachypnea,
sweating, increase muscle tension etc. ALL diseases and illness causes stress. Stress can be
both REAL or IMAGINARY. Hemostasis refers to the ARREST of blood flowing abnormally
through a damage vessel. Homeostasis is the one that refers to dynamic state of equilibrium
according to Walter Cannon.
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific
response of the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
* Hans Selye is the only theorist who proposed an intriguing theory about stress that has
been widely used and accepted by professionals today. He conceptualized two types of
human response to stress, The GAS or general adaptation syndrome which is characterized
by stages of ALARM, RESISTANCE and EXHAUSTION. The Local adaptation syndrome
controls stress through a particular body part. Example is when you have been wounded in
your finger, it will produce PAIN to let you know that you should protect that particular
damaged area, it will also produce inflammation to limit and control the spread of injury and
facilitate healing process. Another example is when you are frequently lifting heavy objects,
eventually, you arm, back and leg muscles hypertorphies to adapt to the stress of heavy
lifting.
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress
Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy

B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
* Man, do not always adapt to stress. Sometimes, stress can lead to exhaustion and
eventually, death. A,C and D are all correct.
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
* Stress is ESSENTIAL. No man can live normally without stress. It is essential because it is
evoked by the body's normal pattern of response and leads to a favorable adaptive
mechanism that are utilized in the future when more stressors are encountered by the body.
Man can encounter stress even while asleep, example is nightmare. Disease are
multifactorial, No diseases are caused by a single stressors. Stress are sometimes favorable
and are not always a cause for distress. An example of favorable stress is when a carpenter
meets the demand and stress of everyday work. He then develops calluses on the hand to
lessen the pressure of the hammer against the tissues of his hand. He also develop larger
muscle and more dense bones in the arm, thus, a stress will lead to adaptations to decrease
that particular stress.
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress

B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
* Death can ensue as early as the stage of alarm. Exhaustion results to a prolonged
exposure to stress. Resistance is when the levels of resistance increases and characterized
by being able to adapt.
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

A. Stage of Alarm
* Adaptation mechanisms begin in the stage of alarm. This is when the adaptive mechanism
are mobilized. When someone shouts SUNOG!!! your heart will begin to beat faster, you
vessels constricted and bp increased.
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
A. Stage of Alarm
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
* Resistance are decreased in the stage of alarm. Resistance is absent in the stage of
exhaustion. Resistance is increased in the stage of resistance.
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue
unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis

B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
* Aside from having limits that leads to exhaustion. Adaptive response requires time for it
to act. It requires energy, physical and psychological taxes that needs time for our body to
mobilize and utilize.
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at
the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?

99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French.
He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy
experiencing?

* Sociocultural adaptive modes include language, communication, dressing, acting and

socializing in line with the social and cultural standard of the people around the adapting
individual.
100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his
house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?

* Andy uses a defense mechanism called DISPLACEMENT. All DMs are categorized as
PSYCHOLOGIC ADAPTIVE RESPONSE to stressors.

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FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II

A. Pupils will constrict

3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or

6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.

A. One should be held responsible for his condition

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as

15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.

24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

29. The following are concept of health:

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. Direct contact transmission

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

A. Natural active immunity

A. Natural active immunity

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean

A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes

61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis

A. Wash hand before and after patient contact

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the nose

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Puncture proof container

A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers

A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries

A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?

A. The dominant hand

A. Immediately after entering the sterile field

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non dominant hand

1. Eye wear or goggles

81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

1. Eye wear or goggles

A. The tip should always be lower than the handle

1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth

1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish

A. Wash gloved hand first

87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?

A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses

A. Stress is not a nervous energy

A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased