BIOCHEMISTRY

BIOCHEMISTRY

1. Patient AA is confined in a hospital following a severe malaria attack. While recovering, it was
noted that she became weak and pale since taking a drug she needs to fully rid her body of
Plasmodium organisms. Patient AA experiences the adverse effect due to what reason?

a. She lacks vitamin B12 due to drug therapy even though drug therapy is known to deplete
B12 levels
b. She was given insufficient fluids and electrolytes caused by drug therapy, and was not noted
by the doctor
c. She possesses an antibody against the drug used, resulting to autoimmune dermolytic
conditions
d. She lacks NADPH, which is required to prevent the drug’s potential toxicity
- Drug for malaria is most likely PRIMAQUINE (knwn ADR: causes rbcs to burst)
- Nicontinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) is an electron donor which
allows it to reduce oxide radicals by donating electrons and thus, combating oxidative
stress by neutralizing the charge
2. A series of qualitative tests were performed on a certain bioactive compound isolated from a
bacterial specie:

Alpha-naphthol test (+) – biochemical indicator of the presence of carbs in a solution; + result = violet
ring in the presence of H2SO4
- Aka MOLISCH test
Osmic acid test (-) – used to visualize unsaturated LIPIDS. + result= part of lpid Is immediately
blackened (due to the C=C double bond of the unsaturated fatty acid)
Biuret test (+) - The biuret test, also known as Piotrowski's test, is a chemical testused for
detecting the presence of peptide bonds. In the presence of peptides, a copper(II) ion
forms mauve-colored coordination complexes in an alkaline solution.
Acrolein test (-) - used to detect the presence of glycerol or fat. When fat is treated strongly in the
presence of a dehydrating agent like potassium bisulphate (KHSO4); + result = unsaturated
aldehyde, acrolein that has a pungent irritating odour.

The nature of the isolated compound is most likely

a. Protein
b. Lipid
c. Carbohydrate
d. Glycoprotein any of a class of proteins that have carbohydrate groups attached
to the polypeptide chain. Also called glycopeptide.
e. Lipoprotein

3. Which of the following immunoglobulins are dimeric?

a. IgE monomer
b. IgM pentamer
 c. IgA biological secretions, including milk, saliva, tears and mucus
d. A and C
e. AOTA
IgD- found also in blood and lymphatic fluid; antiallergy?; MONOMER

4. The bond that connects the two monomers of nucleic acid is the:
a. N-beta glycosidic bond -a glycosidic bond or glycosidic linkage is a type of
covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate (sugar) molecule to another group, which
may or may not be another carbohydrate.
b. Peptide bond The chemical bond formed between amino acids, constituting the
primary linkagein all protein structures. In a peptide bond, the carboxyl group
(COOH) of one amino acid bonds with the amino group (NH2) of another, forming
the sequence CONH and releasing water (H2O).
c. Phosphodiester bond
d. Hydrogen bond - a weak bond between two molecules resulting from an electrostatic
attraction between a proton in one molecule and an electronegative atom in the
other.

5. Given the pKa values of 1.78, 8.97, and 5.97 for histidine, what is its charge at pH 7?
a. -1
b. 0
c. +1
d. +2
6. The enzyme with the EC number 1.2.1.3 CHECK PHONE
a. Pyruvate kinase
b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase- CATALYZES THE OXIDATION OF ALDEHYDES; OXIDOREDUCTASE
c. DOPA decarboxylase LYASE (4)
d. Ornithine transcarbamylase

7. The enzyme with EC number 3.1.1.7

a. Acetylcholinesterase – Hydrolases – Acetylcholine + H2O <-> choline + acetate
b. Aldolase
c. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
d. Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase

8. What is the maximum negative charge of aspartic acid?

a. -1
b. -2
c. -3
d. 0

9. Enzymes, as with all catalysts

a. Speed up a reaction at equilibrium
b. Slow down a reaction at equilibrium
 c. Does not affect a reaction at equilibrium

10. Which of the following is true about monosaccharides?

I. By convention, the carbonyl carbon for ketoses is C2.
II. Whether the monosaccharide in question is D- or L- depends on the placement of the
OH on the last carbon -> second penultimate carbon
III. Fructose usually forms a pyranose when closing in to form a ring CHANGE TO
FURANOSE
IV. Glucose usually forms a pyranose when closing in to form a ring

a. I, II, III, & IV

b. I, II & IV
c. I, III, & IV
d. II, III, & IV

11. Which is true about replication?

I. It is semiconservative
II. It occurs in the 3’ to 5’ direction SHOULD BE OTHERWAY !
III. Replication results to one daughter strand –should be two
a. I only
b. I & II
c. II & III
d. I, II, & III

12. Maltose is composed of discuss diff of mono, di, and polysaccharides!

a. Glucose + glucose
b. Fructose + glucose SUCROSE (TABLE SUGAR)
c. Glucose + glucose, alpha glycosidic bond
d. Glucose + galactose beta 1,4 glycosidic bond CHANGE THIS!!!  ANS: LACTOSE

13. In the Liebermann-burchard test, what reagent is used alongside sulphuric acid, differentiating
it from the Salkowski test?
a. Acetic anhydride -> USED TO DETECTION OF CHOLESTEROL; + RESULT = GREEN OR GREEN-
BLUE COLOR FORMATION; this is due to the OH group of cholesterol reacting with rgts
(acetic anhydride + H2SO4)
b. Acetic acid
c. Acetylsalicylic acid
d. Acetaldehyde
e. Acetylene
 - Salkowski test is used to detect cholesterol and the rgts are: chloroform solution added
with conc sulfuric acid

14. Which alkaloid is used as an alcohol denaturant?

a. Denatonium benzoate- Denatonium benzoate gets its name from "denatured alcohol",
and that is where it is often used. It is the bitterest tasting substance known. (makes
sweet but highly toxic products such as antifreeze and detergents taste foul.)
b. Sucrose octa-acetate - used commercially and industrially in a variety of applications. It
is used as an inert ingredient in pesticides and herbicides.
c. Brucine - Brucine is one of the many chemicals used as adenaturant to
make alcohol unfit for human consumption.
d. Strychnine- Today, strychnine is used primarily as a pesticide, particularly to kill rats.
Uncommonly, strychnine is found mixed with “street” drugs such as LSD, heroin,
and cocaine.; CAUSES MUSCULAR CONVULSIONS (Strychnine is a
competitive antagonist of the inhibitory neurotransmitter
glycine,88 resulting in disinhibition of motor neurons in the
spinal cord.)
e. All except for A & B

15. How many high energy bonds are in ADP?

a. 1
b. 2 – Adenosine triphosphate bond is a nucleotide with adenine and a ribose linked t three
sequential phosphoryl grps via phosphoester bond and TWO PHOSPHOANHYDRIDE BONDS
(THE HIGH ENERGY BOND OF A PHOSPHATE GROUP)
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

16. An example of globular protein

a. Silk
b. Fibrin
c. Collagen
 d. Albumin

17. Supercoiling of DNA aligns it to what level of organization?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary

18. The anticodon is found in the

a. tRNA
b. rRNA - associates with a set of proteins to form ribosomes. These complex structures,
which physically move along an mRNA molecule, catalyze the assembly of amino
acids into protein chains. They also bind tRNAs and various accessory molecules
necessary for protein synthesis.
c. snRNA A small nuclear RNA (snRNA) is one of many small RNA species confined to
the nucleus; several of the snRNAs are involved in splicing or other RNA processing
reactions
d. mRNA: carries the genetic information copied from DNA in the form of a series of
three-base code “words,” each of which specifies a particular amino acid.
e. siRNA - Small interfering RNA (siRNA) mediated inhibition of gene expression has
rapidly become a major tool for in vitro analysis of protein function. In vivo gene
silencing by siRNAs will play an important role for target validation and is the first
step towards the development of siRNA-based therapeutics.
---- A protocol describing siRNA-based gene silencing in tumor models can serve as guide for
the design of individual in vivo RNA interference experiments.

19. the R group of amino acid D?

a. hydroxyethyl
b. hydroxymethyl
c. carboxyethyl – glutamic acid
d. carboxymethyl
e. methyl

20. which of the following are acidic AA?

a. Asp and Asn
b. Glu and Gln
c. Asp and Glu aspartic and glutamic acid
d. Asn and Gln

21. A bell shape is achieved in plotting enzyme activity

a. Temperature
b. pH
c. enzyme
 d. substrate

22. Which pair is true for vitamin sources of cofactors?

a. NAD came from vitamin B1 – NICOTINAMIDE ADENINE DINUCLEOTIDE & NICOTINAMIDE
ADENINE DINUCLEOTIDE PHOSPHATRE NADP+IS FROM VIT B3
b. TPP came from B2 – THIAMINE PYROPHOSPHATE (TPP) IS ESSENTIAL COENZYME IN
ENERGY EXTRACTION AND CELLULAR PROCESS IN CATABOLISM OF SUGAR AND AA – CAM
FRM VIT B1
c. FAD came from B3- FAD(FLAVINE ADENINE DINUCLEOTIDE FROM B2 (B2 FOR CELLULAR
PROCESSES TRANSFERRING O2 FROM PLASMA TO TISSUES; PLAYS ROLE IN ENERGY
METAB AND METAB OF FATS, KETONE BODS, CARBS AND CHONS
d. CoA came from B5 CORRECT !!! (plays a critical role in the utilization of fats and carbs in
energy prodxn and in the prod of adrenal hormones)
e. THF came from B12
- B6-> PYRIDOXAL PHOSPHATE OR PLP

23. Which are 18 carbon fatty acids?

I. Oleic acid
II. Linoleic acid
III. Lauric acid
IV. Octadecanoic acid SAME NAME AS STEARIC WHICH HAS 18 CARBON FAs
a. I, II, and III
b. I, II,, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. I, III, and IV
http://www.foodtestingindia.com/list-saturated-fatty-acids-unsaturated-fatty-acids-3/

24. The end product of purine metabolism in humans is

a. Urea
b. Uric acid – for birds
c. Ammonia
d. Lactic acid
e. Allantoin
 25. Pantothenic acid
a. B1 THIAMINE
b. B2 RIBOFLAVIN
c. B3 NIACIN
d. B4
e. B5
B6 IS PYRIDOXINE
B12 CYANOCOBALAMIN

26. The aglycone released from arbutin is

a. Acrinylisothiocyanate
b. Salicyl alcohol
c. Hydroquinone
d. Allylisothiocyanate
e. Mandelonitrile

The sugar group is then known as the glycone and the non-sugar group as theaglycone or
genin part of the glycoside.
27. A brick red color will most likely result in which test/s?
a. Fehling’s test test the presence of aldehydes but not ketones is detected by reduction
of the deep blue solution of copper(II) to a red precipitate of insoluble copper oxide.
The test is commonly used for reducing sugars but is known to be NOT specific for
aldehydes.
b. Tollen’s test SILVER MIRROR IN TEST TUBE
c. Benedict’s test
d. A and C
e. AOTA
f. NOTA

28. The enzyme that catalyzes the release of isothiocyanate aglycone is

a. Myrosin
b. Emulsin
c. Zyamase
d. Collagenase

29. An enzyme catalysing the hydrolysis of fats

a. Alpha-amylase
b. Lipase
c. Trypsin
d. Alkaline phosphatase
e. Lactate dehydrogenase
30. The following are the properties of the genetic code except
a. Non-overlapping
b. Comma less
c. Period less
d. Universal
e. AOTA except b

31. Missense mutation refers to

a. Change in codon to one that encodes the same amino acid
b. Change in codon to one that encodes a different amino acid
c. Change an amino-acid-coding codon to a ‘stop’ codon
d. Change an amino acid without sensing the start codon

32. Chromosome mutation includes the following except

a. Duplication
b. Substitution
c. Inversion
d. Translocation

33. These are substances, conditions, and forms of energy that significantly increases the frequency
of mutations
a. Mutating agents
b. Mutagens
c. Mutagenic agents
d. AOTA

34 - 40 Match the following:

a. Triose
b. Tetrose
c. Pentose
d. Hexose
e. Heptose
ab. Nonose

34. Erythrose B
35. Sedoheptulose E
36. Neuraminic acid AB
37. Sialic acid AB
 38. Xylulose C
39. Ribulose C
40. Glyceraldehyde A

41 to 43 Match the following monosaccharide structures

a. Haworth Projection 42
b. Chair conformation 41
c. Cyclic Fischer 43

41. 43.
42.

44. It is a highly branched homopolysaccharide joined by alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 linkage

a. amylopectin – BRANCHED, JOINED BY ALPHA 1,4 AND ALPHA 1,6 INKAGES

b. amylase LINERA, JOINED BY ALPHA 1,4 LINKAGE WATER INSOL PORTION

c. starch. RESERVED FOOD FOR PLANTS COMPOSED OF AMYLOPECTIN AND AMYLOASE

d. glycogen

e. A and D

45. Fatty acid that has 14 Carbons

a. Palmitic acid 16:0

b. palmitoleic acid 16:1 (DOUBLE BONDS)

c. stearic acid 18

d. myristic acid

46. How many lipases are involved in the hydrolysis of a triacylglyceride?

a. 5

b.2
c. 3

d. too many to count

47. It is a derivative of lysine and is found in red meats and dairy products

a. carmustine

b. carnitine (also transports long FA to mitochondria)

c. beta-lysine

d. glucolysine

48. This is an energy requiring stage of glycolysis, where phosphofructokinase-1 is produced

a. fructose 1-6 bisphosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

b. glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate

c. fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

d. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate

49. This is a two-step reaction in the Kreb’s cycle (dehydration-hydration)

a. OAA to citrate

b. alpha-ketoglutarate to Succinyl-CoA

c. Citrate to isocitrate

d. Succinate to fumarate

50. During the carbohydrate metabolism, this enzyme converts starch and dextrin to maltose

a. salivary amylase

b. lactase

c. sucrase

d. pancreatic amylase

e. B and C

51 to 55.

I. Hartnup Disease
 II. Von Gierke Disease
III. McArdle Disease
IV. Pompe Disease
V. Andersen Disease

51. Autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting the absorption of nonpolar amino acids.
a. II c. I
b. III d. IV
52. Genetic disease resulting from deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase.
e. IV g. III
f. V h. II
53. Metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of myophosphorylase.
a. III c. I
b. II d. IV
54. A disease caused by a mutation of acid maltase/alpha glucosidase.
a. II c. IV
b. I d. V
55. Disease caused by deficiency of glycogen-branching enzyme resulting in accumulation
of abnormal glycogen in the liver, muscle and/or other tissues.
a. V c. III
b. I d. IV

SITUATION II
I. Lipolysis
II. Gluconeogenesis
III. Glycogenolysis
IV. Glycogenesis
V. Glycolysis

56. Conversion of lipid to glycerol and fatty acid.

a. IV c. I
b. III d. II
57. Conversion of lactate to glucose.
a. III c. V
b. II d. I
58. Conversion of glycogen to glucose.
a. II c. V
b. III d. IV
59. Conversion of glucose to glycogen.
a. III b. IV
 c. V d. I
60. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate.
a. V c. III
b. IV d. II
61. Product inhibited when activating alpha-methyl-p-tyrosine
a. Epinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Norepinephrine
d. AOTA
62. RNA that is not found in prokaryotic organisms
EDIT THIS QUESTION
a. rRNA c. tRNA
b. mRNA d. SnRNA

63. Simple proteins except:

I. Albumin
II. Globulin
III. Metalloprotein
IV. Histones
a. I c. III
b. II d. IV
64. Simple proteins except:
I. Glutelin
II. Albuminoid
III. Chromoprotein
IV. Protamine
V. Histone
a. II c. III
b. IV d. V
65. Enzyme which converts sucrose
a. Invertase c. Lactase
b. Maltase
66. Enzyme which converts lactose to galactose and glucose
a. Invertase c. Lactase
b. Maltase
67. Competitive antagonism
a. Km increases, Vmax decreases
b. Km decreases, same Vmax
c. Km increases, same Vmax
d. Km decreases, Vmax increases
68. Which enzyme is needed to phosphorylate glucose-6-phosphate?
a. Hexokinase
b. PFK
c. G6P dehydrogenase
69. The substance responsible for the emulsion of fats
a. Bile Acids
b. HCl
c. Pepsin
d. Trypsin
70. IUPAC name of acrolein
a. Pentenal
b. Propenal
c. Hexanal
d. Acetone
71. Cerebrosides are positive in the following tests, except:
a. Molisch
b. Biuret
c. Lassaigne’s
d. NOTA
72. What is the end product of the electron transport chain?
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Carbon monoxide
73. What vitamin causes pellagra?
a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamine
c. Pantothenic acid
d. Nicotinic acid
74. This vitamin easily undergoes oxidation
a. Retinoic acid
b. Alpha-tocopherol
c. Cevitamic acid (VIT C)
d. Cyanocobalamin
75. The inactive form of an enzyme is sometimes called:
a. Holoenzyme
b. Apoenzyme
c. Zymogen
d. Coenzyme
76. An apoenzyme together with its cofactor.
a. Holoenzyme
b. Apoenzyme
c. Zymogen
d. Coenzyme
77. Which of the following enzymes are of enzyme classification number 4?
I. Pancrelipase
 II. DOPA Decarboxylase
III. Carbonic anhydrase
IV. Fumarase
a. I, II and III
b. I, II, and IV
c. I, III, and IV
d. II, III, and IV
78. Which is not an essential amino acid?
a. Tryptophan
b. Lysine
c. Tyrosine
d. Two of the choices
e. All of the above
79. Isoelectric pH is the pH where:
a. The amino acid has no charge at all
b. The amino acid has a net charge of 0
c. The amino acid has charges but cancel out
d. A and B
e. B and C
80. Reduction of Vmax without affecting the Michaelis-Menten constant
a. Competitive inhibition
b. Non-competitive inhibition
c. Uncompetitive inhibition
d. a and b
e. b and c

80. The first amino acid translated in prokaryotic mRNA

a. Trp
b. Met
c. N-fmet
d. Arg
81. A  G
a. Invesiom
b. Transition
c. Deletion
d. Transversion (EDIT THIS)
CHECK PHONE FOR MEANING OF THESE
82. Krebs cycle is
a. Catabolic
b. Anabolic
c. Amphibolic
d. NOTA
83. The main genetically encoded amino acid involved in the urea cycle?
a. Proline
b. Glutamine
c. Arginine
d. Lysine

84. The committed step in glycolysis involves what enzyme?

a. Hexokinase
b. Pyruvate kinase
c. Aldolase
d. Phosphofructokinase

85. Before urea is produced, what waste product is formed?

a. Uric acid
b. Ammonia
c. Acetone
d. Carbon dioxide
86. These are discontinuous stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synethsized
during DNA replicatiom
a. Enhancer
b. Operon
c. Okazaki fragments
d. Primer
87. Nucleic acids are acidic because of their
a. Base
b. Sugar
 c. Phosphate
d. Hydrogen bonds
88. Carl was constantly pale and lethargic, and was perceived as obviously anemic. His
parents brought ferrous sulphate and B-complex tablets in an attempt to treat him, but his
condition does not improve. He is not G6PD deficient nor taking other medications.
With other pssible conditions ruled out, which is the best possible type of anemia for
Carl in the choices?
a. Megaloblastic anemia an acquired deficiency of B12 and folic acid due to
inadequate dietary intake or poor absorption
b. Iron-deficiency anemia
c. Pernicious anemia – type of megaloblastic anemia in which thebody isn’t
able to absorb VB12 due to lack of IF in stomach secretions (IF is needed
by body to absorb VB12)
d. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
- PERNICIOUS ANEMIA Your body also needs a type of protein called intrinsic factor (IF) to absorb vitamin B-12. IF
is a protein produced by cells in the stomach. After you consume vitamin B-12, it travels to your stomach where it
binds with IF. The two are then absorbed in the last part of your small intestine.In most cases of pernicious
anemia, the body’s immune system attacks and destroys the cells that produce IF in the stomach. If these cells are
destroyed, the body can’t make IF and can’t absorb vitamin B-12 found in foods such as those listed above.

89. Xanthoproteic test is for

a. Free amino groups
b. Histidine
c. Tyrosine
d. Cysteine
90. Which of the following is/are true regarding the central dogma of molecular biology?
a. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from DNA
b. The process of replication produces new RNA
c. Reverse transcription is impossible
d. AOTA
91. Which of the following amino acid is coded by a single codon?
a. K - lysine
b. R - arginine
c. W tyrptophan
d. F - phenylalanine
92. Which of the following branched-chain amino acids are responsible for the characteristic
‘sweet smell’ of the urine of patients with Maple syrup urine disease?
a. Leu, Ala, Val
b. Leu, Asp, Val
c. Leu, Ile, Val (leusine, isoleucine, valine)
d. Lys, Ile, Val
93. All of the following amino acids are optically active except:
a. Valine
 b. Glycine
c. Alanine
d. Isoleucine

no R group
94. The precursor of vitamin D3:
a. Ergosterol
b. Stigmasterol
c. Cholecalciferol
d. 7-Dehydrocholesterol
95. Normal pH of blood:
a. 7.3-7.35
b. 7.4-7.45
c. 7.5-7.55
d. 7.6-7.65
96. Dietary precursor of prostaglandins except:
a. Linolenic acid
b. Linoleic acid
c. Palmitic acid
d. Arachidonic acid
97. Vitamin needed in the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA
a. Thiamine
b. Biotin
c. Pantothenic acid
d. Pyridoxine
98. Linoleic acid
a. Saturated omega-6 fatty acid
b. Unsaturated omega-6 fatty acid
c. Unsaturated omega-3 fatty acid
d. Omega-9 fatty acid
99. Test for cysteine and cysteine amino acids
a. Nitroprusside test
b. Heller’s test
c. Millon’s test
d. Sakaguchi test
100. Cyanocobalamin deficiency can cause which of the following?
a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Macrocytic anemia
d. AOTA
e. A and B only