Jimma University Institute of Health Faculty of Medical Sciences Biochemistry Final Exam

for PC-1 Medical students Health Science Students, 2023G.C

Time Allowed: 3:00hr

Name_________________________________ ID___________ Sign_____

Instructions:
This exam booklet has TWO parts; part-I Multiple choice questions, part-II essay questions.
Hence, read the questions carefully and try to address all questions accordingly.

Any kind of cheating or trial will let you be dismissed from the exam room!

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PART-I: MULTIPLE CHOOSE QUESTIONS
Choose the best answer and write it at the space provided at the back of the booklet (1pt each)
1. If a chemical reaction releases energy, that reaction can be described as____________

A. An exergonic reaction. C. A coupled reaction.

B. An endergonic reaction. D. A metabolic reaction

2. Which of the following enzyme is involved in generating NADPH?

A. Glucose-6-P oxidase C. Glucose-6-P reductase

B. Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase D. Glucose-6-P synthetase

3. In enzyme kinetics Vmax reflects

A. Substrate concentration C. Amount of active enzyme

B. Half the substrate conc. D. Enzyme substrate complex

4. Glucose -6-Phosphate dehydrogenase is allosterically activated by

A. NADPH C. NAD +
B. NADH D. NADP +

5. In some individuals, ingesting fava beans leads to hemolyticanemia.

Which of the following enzyme may be deficient in these individuals?

A. Glucose-6-P- dehydrogenase C. Gluc -6-Phosphate Isomerase

B. Glucose-6-Phosphatase D. Glycogen phosphorylase

6. Transaldolase enzyme catalyzes the transfer of how many carbon units from
sedoheptulose-7-phosphate?

A. 2 units C. 4 units
B. 3 units D. 5 units

7. What is the function of ribulose-5-phosphate epimerase?

A. Epimerization of glucose-6-phosphate
B. Epimerization of ribulose-5-phosphate
C. epimerization of xylulose-5-phosphate
D. epimerization of fructose -4-phosphate
8. Which form of energy is used by the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme?

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 A. ATP C. GTP
B. AMP D. NADPH

9. Kreb Cycle is ___________ in nature.

A. Anabolic C. Amphibolic
B. Catabolic D. None

10. Synthesis of 2, 3-bisphosphoglycerate occurs in---.

A. Liver C. Erythrocytes
B. Kidney D. Brain

11. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

A. Lysosomes C. Mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus D. Endoplasmic reticulum

12. In calculations involving ATP yields in metabolic processes, why is an ATP AMP +
PPi considered to be a "-2"?
A. It really requires 2ATP 2ADP + 2Pi
B. This is a historical bookkeeping process
C. It should be counted as only one ATP
D. ATP has two "high energy bonds" and they are both "lost" in the formation of AMP
13. ATPase belongs to the class of enzymes

A. Transferase D. Ligase
B. Hydrolase E. Oxido-reductase
C. Isomerase

14. Which of the following are the components of DNA?

A. Purines, pyrimidines, ribose, phosphate
B. Purines, pyrimidines, deoxyribose, phosphate
C. Purines, pyridine, deoxyribose, phosphate
D. Purines, pyrimidines, aldohexose, phosphate
E. Purines, pyrimidines, ketohexose, phosphate
15. The reaction catalysed by pyruvate dehydrogenase is best described as a(n):

A. Phosphorylation C. Isomerization
B. Dehydration D. Hydration

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 E. Oxidation

16. A patient has increased her dietary fiber intake in an effort to decrease constipation. She
has recently noticed abdominal cramping and bloating as well as increased flatulence.
Which one of the following best explains why this is happening?
A. Human enzymes in the SI break down the fiber & produce H2, CO2, and CH4
B. Bacteria in the small intestine can convert fiber to H2, CO2, and methane.
C. Viruses in the unwashed vegetables convert fiber to H2, CO2, and methane.
D. Bacteria in the colon can convert fiber to H2, CO2, and methane.
E. Human enzymes in the colon can convert fiber to H2, O2, and methane.
17. Because glucose has several metabolic routes it might take once it arrives in the
cytoplasm, which one of the following reactions would commit the glucose to following
the glycolytic pathway?
A. Glucose to glucose 1 -P
B. Glucose to glucose 6-P
C. Fructose 6-P to fructose 1,6-bisP
D. Fructose 1,6-bisP to DHAP & Glyceraldehyde 3-P
E. Glucose 1 -P to glucose 6-P
18. Inherited defects in the pentose phosphate shunt pathway could lead to which one of the
following?
A. Ineffective oxidative phosphorylation caused by dysfunctional mitochondria
B. An inability to carry out reductive detoxification
C. An inability to produce Fruc-6-P & glyceraldehyde 3-P for 5C sugar
biosynthesis
D. An inability to generate NADH for biosynthetic reactions
E. An inability to generate NADH to protect cells from ROS
19. ATP is the cells' major chemical form of energy, and often it is converted to ADP during
reactions, thereby releasing energy to allow the reaction to proceed in the forward
direction. The highest energy phosphate bond in ATP is located between which of the
following groups?
A. Adenosine and phosphate D. Two OH-groups in ribose ring
B. Ribose and phosphate E. Two phosphate group
C. Ribose and adenine
20. In essential pentosuria, urine contains

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 A. D-Ribose B. D-Xylulose C. L-Xylulose D. D-Xylose
21. Two examples of substrate level phosphorylation in EM pathway of glucose metabolism
are in the reactions of
A. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate and phosphoenol pyruvate
B. Glucose-6 phosphate and Fructo-6-phosphate
C. 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde and phosphoenolpyruvate
D. 1,3diphosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycerate E. All
22. Which of the following enzymes in the Glycolytic pathway is inhibited by fluoride?
A. Glyceraldehyde-3-P-DHase C. Enolase
B. Aconitase D. Succinate dehydrogenase
23. The Primaquin sensitivity types of haemolytic anemia has been found to relate to reduced
R.B.C activity of which enzyme?
A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
C. Glucose-6-p dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Hexokinase deficiency E. None
24. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The reaction tends to go in the forward direction if ∆G is large and positive

B. The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and
negative
C. The system is at equilibrium if ∆G = 0
D. The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and
positive
25. Which of the following metabolites negatively regulates pyruvate kinase?
A. Citrate D. Fructose-1, 6-Bisphosphate
B. Alanine E. All

26. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is allosterically activated by

A. NADPH D. NADP+

B. NADH E.All

C. NAD+

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27. What is the cause of hemolyticanemia in Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
deficiency?

A. Decreased ATP in erythrocytes

B. Decreased free radicals in erythrocytes

C. Increased sodium concentration in erythrocytes

D. Increased free radicals in erythrocytes

E. None

28. The products of oxidative phase of pentose phosphate pathway are

A. NADPH, Xylulose 5-phosphate and Ribose 5-phosphate

B. CO2, NADPH and Ribulose 5- phosphate

C. CO2, NADH and Ribulose 5- phosphate

D. NADPH, Glyceraldehydes 3-phosphate, and Ribose 5-phosphate

E. All

29. Which of the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor?

A. Disulfiram B.Oseltamivir C. Protease inhibitors D. DIPFE. All

30. A 64-year-old man complains of acute onset of unilateral eye pain and reduction in visual
acuity. On physical examination a conjunctival injection (redness of eye), a mild-dilated
and non-reactive pupil is observed. Fundoscopic examination reveals the cupping of the
optic disc. Recognizing the signs and symptoms, Acetazolamide medication is prescribed
to reduce the production of aqueous fluid and lower the intraocular pressure.
Acetazolamide is a non-competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase, and therefore will
cause

A. An increase in Km D. A decrease in Vmax

B. A decrease in Km E. A decrease in both Km and Vmax

C. An increase in Vmax

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31. The energy yield from complete oxidation of products generated by second reaction cycle
of β-oxidation of palmitoyl-CoA will be: (Hint 1mol NADH+H= 3ATP, 1mol of
FADH2=2ATP)
A. 131ATP C. 17 ATP
B. 12 ATP D. 34 ATP
E. 42 ATP
32. Type III hyperlipidemia can be caused by a deficiency of apoE. Analysis of the serum of
patients with this disorder would exhibit which one of the following?
A. An absence of Nascent chylomicrons after eating
B. Above-normal levels of VLDL after eating
C. Normal triglyceride levels
D. Elevated chylomicron and VLDL remnants
E. Below-normal triglyceride levels
33. Which one of the following couple enzyme, they become active whenever
dephosphorylated?
A. Glycogen phosphorylase: Glycogen synthase
B. Glycogen synthase: Acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. Phosphofruktokinase-2: Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Phosphofruktokinase-2:Glycogen synthase
34. Fatty acids cannot be converted intocarbohydrates in the body as thefollowing reaction is
not possible.
A. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose
B. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
C. Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate
D. Formation of acetyl CoA from fatty acids
35. Glycogen is the storage form of glucose, and its synthesis and degradation is carefully
regulated. Which one statement below correctly describes glycogen synthesis and/or
degradation?
A. UDP-glucose is produced in both the synthesis and degradation of glycogen.
B. Synthesis requires the formation of α- 1, 4 branches every 8 to 10 residues.
C. Energy, in the form of ATP, is used to produce UDP-glucose
D. Glycogen is both formed from and degrades to glucose 1 -P.
E. The synthesis and degradation of glycogen use the same enzymes, so they are
reversible processes

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36. Which one of the following activity doesn’tcried out by Glucagon
A. Increase of gluconeogenesis in the liver through phosphorylation of
phosphofructokinase-2/fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase through protein kinase A
B. Increasing of lipolysis in the adipose tissue phosphorylation of perilipin and hormone
sensitive lipase through protein kinase A
C. Increases glycogenolysis in the muscle through phosphorylation of glycogen
phosphorylase through protein kinase A
D. Decreasing glycolysis in the liver through decreasing the concentration of fructose-
2,6-bisphosphate
37. Consider a person with type 1 diabetes who has neglected to take insulin for the past 72
hours and also has not eaten much. Which one of the following best describes the activity
level of hepatic enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism under these conditions?
Glycogen Synthase Phosphorylase Kinase Glycogen Phosphorylase
A Active Active Active
.
B. Active Active Inactive
C. Inactive Active Active
D Active Inactive Inactive
.
E. Inactive Inactive Inactive

38. Almost all tissues and cell types, with the exception of _____and _____ are able to use
ketone bodies as fuel.

A. Brain and Liver C. Red blood cells and Liver

B. Intestinal mucosa & Liver D. Adipocytes and Liver

39. If you are looking for ways to increase the reverse transport of cholesterol from peripheral
tissues to the liver, the best bet would be a drug that
A. Inhibits the synthesis of LDL receptors
B. Inhibits hepatic lipase
C. Inhibits lipoprotein lipase
D. Stimulates the transcription of the apoB gene
E. Stimulates the transcription of the gene for the ABCA1 protein

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40. A patient with diabetes in ketoacidosis has a specific odor to the breath. Which one of the
following compounds is responsible for this odor?
A. Acetoacetate D. Acetyl-CoA
B. β-Hydroxybutyrate E. CO2
C. Acetone
41. Which one of the following is involved in the synthesis of triacylglycerols in adipose
tissue?
A. Fatty acids obtained from chylomicrons and VLDL
B. Glycerol 3-P derived from blood glycerol
C. 2-Monoacylglycerol as an obligatory intermediate
D. LPL to catalyze the formation of ester bonds
E. Acetoacetyl-CoA as an obligatory intermediate
42. A patient with hyperlipoproteinemia would be most likely to benefit from a low-
carbohydrate diet if the lipoproteins that are elevated in blood are which of the following?
A. Chylomicrons D. LDL
B. VLDL E. IDL
C. HDL
43. A molecule of long chain fatty acid, attached to carbons of the glycerol moiety of a
triacylglycerol, is ingested and digested. Choose the molecular complex in which the long
chain fatty acid residue is carried from the lumen of the gut to the surface of the gut
epithelial cell to be absorbed.
A. VLDL C. Fatty acid-albumin complex
B. Chylomicron D. Bile salt micelle
E. LDL

44. In order for the lipids in chylomicrons to be used by the tissues of the body, the nascent
chylomicrons need to be converted to mature chylomicrons. This conversion requires Apo
protein E and C-II,which one of the following is the sources of these Apo proteins?
A. Bile salts D. HDL
B. 2-Monoacylglycerol E. Liver
C. LPL
45. A patient has been taking an experimental drug to reduce weight. The drug leads to
significant steatorrhea and some night-blindness. A potential target of this drug is
inhibitingwhich one of the following?

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 A. LPL activity D. Insulin release
B. Albumin synthesis E. Cholecystokinin release
C. Glucagon release
46. The oxidation of fatty acids is best described by which of the following sets of reactions?
A. Oxidation, hydration, oxidation, carbon-carbon bond breaking
B. Oxidation, dehydration, oxidation, carbon-carbon bond breaking
C. Oxidation, hydration, reduction, carbon-carbon bond breaking
D. Oxidation, dehydration, reduction, oxidation, carbon-carbon bond breaking
E. Reduction, hydration, oxidation, carbon-carbon bond breaking
47. A patient has large deposits of liver glycogen, which, after an overnight fast, had shorter
than normal branches. This abnormalitycould be caused by a defective form of which of
the following proteins or activities?

A.Glycogen phosphorylase D.Amylo 1,6glucosidase

B.Glucagon receptor E. Amylo 4,6transferase

C. Glycogenin

48. A patient presented with a bacterial infection that produced an endotoxin that inhibits
phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase. In this patient, then, under these conditions, glucose
production from which of the following precursors would be inhibited?
A. Alanine D.Phosphoenolpyruvate
B. Glycerol E. Galactose
C. Even-chain-number fatty acids
49. A common intermediate in the conversion of glycerol & lactate to glucose is___
A. Pyruvate D.Glucose 6-phosphate
B. Oxaloacetate E.Phosphoenolpyruvate
C. Malate
50. Which of the following is a characteristic of sphingosine?
A. It is converted to ceramide by reacting with a UDP-sugar.
B. It contains a glycerol moiety.
C. It is synthesized from palmitoyl CoA and serine.
D. It is a precursor of cardiolipin.
E. It is only synthesized in neuronal cells.

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51.Newly synthesized fatty acids are not immediately degraded because of which of the
following?
A.Tissues that synthesize fatty acids do not contain the enzymes that degrade fatty acids.
B.High NADPH levels inhibit -oxidation.
C.In the presence of insulin, the key fatty acid degrading enzyme is not induced.
D.Newly synthesized fatty acids cannot be converted to their CoA derivatives.
E.Transport of fatty acids into mitochondria is inhibited under conditions in which fatty
acids are being synthesized
52. Certain patients with abetalipoproteinemia frequently have difficulties in maintaining
bloodvolume; their blood has trouble clotting. This symptom is attributable to which of the
following?
A.Inability to produce chylomicrons
B. Inability to produce VLDL
C.Inability to synthesize clotting factors
D.Inability to synthesize fatty acids
E.Inability to absorb short-chain fatty acids
53. Which one of the following apoproteins acts as a cofactor activator of the enzyme
lipoproteinlipase (LPL)?
A. ApoC-III D.ApoB-48
B. ApoC-II E.ApoE
C. ApoB-100

54. LDL receptor is specific for

A. Apo B-48 and Apo B-100 C. Apo B-100 and Apo E
B. Apo B-48 and Apo E D. Apo B-100 and apo D
55.In humans, desaturation of fatty acids:
A. Occurs primarily in mitochondria.
B. Introduces double bonds primarily of trans configuration.
C. Can occur only after palmitate has been elongated to stearic acid.
D. Introduces the first double bond at the methyl end of the molecule.
E. Is catalyzed by an enzyme system that uses NADPH and a cytochrome.
56. Which of the following is not a manifestation of the hall mark of metabolic syndrome?
A. Elevation of plasma level of apo-b100
B. Enhancement of expression of apo-b48 genes
C. More flux of fatty acids into the liver

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 D. Expression of CETP genes is enhanced
57. The protease that is expressed by numerous organs and used as a predictor of cancer is

A. Pepsinogen- C C. Karlikrein
B. Cathepsin-E D. Pepsinogen-A

58. The main cause of depletion of plasma level of HDL in dyslipidemia is --

A. Blockages of ABCA1 C.Exploitation of more CE from HDL

B. Defect of LCAT gene
D. Tangiers Disease

59. In which of the following condition/s unwanted intraorgan bleeding is inevitable (likely to
occur)?

A. Deficiency of t-PA D. B&C

B. Deficiency of a2-antiplasmin E. A&B
C. Defect of gene of PAI

60. Deadly quartet is a cluster of interdependent metabolic a bnormalities with the possible
dependence sequence of
A. Insulin Resistance obesityhypertensiondyslipidemia
B. Dyslipidemiahypertension Insulin Resistanceobesity
C. Obesitydyslipidemia hypertension Insulin Resistance
D. Obesity Insulin Resistance dyslipidemia hypertension
61. Small dense LDLsare unusually more atherogenic. This is because--
A. They do stay longer in the circulation that makes them prone to be oxidized
B. They do have the capability to infiltrate into the sub endothelial surface of the
vasculatures
C. They are prone to be engulfed by macrophages
D. All
E. All except c
62. Which of the following factor is considered as the immediate cause for the elevation of
plasma level of small LDL as well as for the depletion of plasma HDL level?

A. Hyperlipoproteinemia-B C. Insulin Resistance

B. Hypertriglyceridemia D. Hyperchylomicronemia

63. Cysteine proteinases that mediate the catalysis of programmed cell death are

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 A. Cathepsin –D & cathepsin-E C. Chymosin & Chymotrypsin
B. Calpain & Caspases D. Trypsin & Calpain

64. Fluoroacetate is the active ingredient in rat poison that is designed to evade the enzyme
_______________in TCA cycle.

A. Citrate Synthase C. Succinyl –COA synthetase

B. Aconitase D. Fumarate Hydratase

65. In Proteasomal protein degradation pathway, the protein to be degraded will be tagged by
Ubiquitin protein. The binding between the target protein and the tag protein is----
A. The COOH of C-terminal glycine of the target protein and the a-amino group of
the N-terminal leucine of ubiquitin
B. The COOH of C-terminal Lysine of the target protein and the a-amino group of
the N-terminal leucine of ubiquitin
C. The COOH of C-terminal glycine of the target protein and the ε-amino group of
the N-terminal leucine of ubiquitin
D. The COOH of C-terminal glycine of ubiquitin and the ε-amino group of the N-
terminal lysine of the target protein
66. Which of the following keto acid is responsible for the urine of the victim to have a
pleasant odour like maple syrup?

A. Alpha ketoglutarate C. α-ketoisovalerate

B. Phenylpyruvate D. Isovaleryl-COA

67. Amblyopia(lazy eye) is one of the manifestations of the defect of the expression of the
gene of _____

A. Phenylalanine Hydroxylase C. Homogentisate Oxidase

B. Tyrosinase D. All

68. Transamination does occur in Muscle, intestine, liver and kidney while deamination
occurs mainly inliver and kidney and urea synthesis in liver but failed to be completed in
kidney due to the lack of the protein_____.

A. CPS-I C. ArgininosuccinateLyase
B. ArgininosuccinateSynthetase D. Arginase

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69. Which of the following defect in urea cycle is associated with
A. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
Hyperornithinemia,Hyperammonemia&Homocitrullinuria(3H)?C. Ornithine shuttle
B. Ornithine transporter D. NAG synthetase

70. The amino acid derivative that is released in excess when a drugs like Cocaine are used
which then inturn increases the sexual derive is

A. Serotonin C. Epinephrine
B. Dopamine D. Melanin

71. Histamine is processed and excreted in urine in the form of----

A. β-imidazole acetaldehyde C. β-imidazole Acetylribose

B. β-imidazole acetate D. β-imidazole Acetyl glutamate

72. The form of vitamin-A that is used in treatment of dermatological problems like severe
acne is____

A. Retinal C. Retinol
B. Retinoic acid D. Ribitol

73. ______is the form of vitamin-B12 that is used as a supplement (commercial form).

A. Methyl cobalamin C. 5-Deoxyadenosyl Cobalamin

B. Cyanocobalamin D. All

74. Warfarin is the known anticoagulant that avoids unwanted blood clotting when prescribed
by physicians’ works by inhibiting the enzyme _____in vitamin-K metabolism.

A. Vitamin K epoxidase D. Vitamin-K dependent

B. Vitamin K epoxide Reductase carboxylase
C. Quinone Reductase

75. Which of the following are major anaplerotic metabolites of the TCA cycle that connect
oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids?

A. Citrate C. Oxaloacetate
B. α-Ketoglutarate D. Succinyl CoA

76. Which of the following vitamins is needed for the synthesis of a cofactor required for the
conversion of succinate to fumarate?

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 A. Vitamin C C. Thiamine

B. Niacin D. Riboflavin

77. In the synthesis of cysteine, the carbon skeleton is provided by

A. Serine C. Glutamate
B. Methionine D. Alanine

78. All of the following amino acids participate in transamination process except

A. Lysine C. Alanine
B. Glutamate D. Tryptophan

79. A 2-year-old child with convulsions was rushed to the pediatric emergency. The child
was diagnosed with ammonia toxicity due to a urea cycle problem. GABA deficiency is
regarded to be the most common cause of convulsions. Which of the following TCA
cycle intermediates is involved in the formation of this neurotransmitter?

A. Isocitrate C. Succinyl CoA

D. Fumarate
B. α-Ketoglutarate

80. Which of the following represents the major compound of the circulation responsible for
transport of nitrogen?

A. Alanine C. Glutamate

D. Glutamine
B. Aspartate

81. Which out of the following amino acids is a precursor for a mediator of allergies and
inflammation?

A. Histidine C. Phenyl Alanine

B. Tyrosine D. Tryptophan

82. Which of the following vitamins is critically important in the overall process of nitrogen
transfer from a-amino acids to a-keto acids?

A. Riboflavin B. Thiamine

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 C. Vitamin B 6 D. Vitamin B 12

83. A woman brings her 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician, indicating that the youngster is
sluggish, has poor suckling, and appears uninterested in feeding. Additionally, the mother
observes that the baby's diapers frequently smell like burnt sugar. Which of the following
enzymes is likely to be defective in this infant?

A. Cystathionine synthase C. Branched-chain α-KDH

B. Homogentisate oxidase D. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

84. Due to the absence of glutathione, the erythrocytes in the patient with moderate hemolytic
anemia are extremely vulnerable to oxidative stress. This indicates a lack of one of the
following enzymes:

A. Cystathionine synthase C. γ-glutamylcysteinesynthetase

B. Glutathione dehydrogenase D. Glutathione synthase

85. The most common enzyme deficient and cause congenital hyperammonemia is?

A. Argininosuccinatelyase

B. CPS-I

C. Ornithine transcarbamoylase

D. Argininosuccinate synthase

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86. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease is caused by the deficiency in which of the
following enzyme?
a) AMP deaminase c) PRPP synthetase
b) Adenosine deaminase d) None of the above
87. A ten year old child with aggressive behavior and poor concentration is brought with
presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Which of the following
enzymes is likely to be deficient in this child?
a) HGPRTase c) APRTase
b) Adenosine deaminase d) None of the above
88. What is an activator of the enzyme “Glutamine: Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
amidotransferase” a committed step of de novo biosynthesis of purines?
a) Adenosine Monophosphate c) Inosine Monophosphate
b) Guanosine Monophosphate d) PhosphoribosylPyrophate
89. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS-II) is the committed step in the formation of
carbamoyl phosphate is:
a) Activated by PRPP c) Activated by ATP
b) Inhibited by UMP d) All of the above

90. Which of the following cofactor is used during the conversion of uracil to thymine?
a) S-Adenosyl Methionine c) Tetrahydrobiopterin
b) Tetrahydrofolate d) Biotin
92. Which of the following steps of pyrimidine biosynthesis occurs in mitochondria?
a) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate catalyzed by CPS II
b) Conversion of carbamoyl phosphate to carbamoyl aspartate catalyzed by aspartate
transcarbamoylase
c) Synthesis of dihydroorotate catalyzed by dihydroorotase
d) Formation of orotic acid catalyzed by dihydroorotase dehydrogenase

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 93. Oroticaciduria is an inherited genetic disorder caused by a deficiency in which of the
following enzyme?
a) CPS II c) Dihydroorotase dehydrogenase

b) Aspartate transcarbamoylase d) UMP synthase

94. Fluorouracil is an anti-tumor agent that binds and irreversibly inhibits which of the following
enzyme?

a) ribonucleotidereductase c) dihydrofolatereductase

b) thymidylate synthase d) PRPP amidotransferas

95. An amino group donated by glutamine is attached at C-1 of PRPP, this results in
____________
a) 5-phosphoribosylamine c) 3-phosphoribosylamine
b) 4-phosphoribosylamine d) 2-phosphoribosylam

96. The activity of which of the following enzyme is inhibited by the chemotherapeutic agent
during deoxyribonucleotide synthesis?
a) Dihydrofolatereductase c) Thymidylate synthase

b) Ribonucleotidereductase d) CTP synthetase

97. The process by which a foreign DNA is introduced into bacteria is called ______

a) amplification b) transformation c) infection d) Digestion

98. Amino acyl –tRNAsynthetases must be capable of recognizing which of

the following?
A. A specific amino acid and 40S ribosomal subunit
B. A specific amino acid and 60S ribosomal subunit
C.Aspecific ribosomal RNA ( rRNA) and a specific amino acid
D. A specific tRNA and a specific amino acid

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Part-II : Essay questions (10 Points)
1. The deficiency ofGlucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) is an opportunity to against
malaria infection, how? Explain briefly. And how glycolysis is help for the oxygenation of blood

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2. Oxidations of fatty acid take place inside of mitochondrial matrix. However due to highly
selective permeability of inner mitochondria membrane, the long chain fatty acid (LCFA) cannot
permitted to entry matrix. So please elaborate how LCFA entry into mitochondrial matrix from
cytosol & write the mechanism of β-oxidation and bioenergetics of stearic acid (18:0) (10 pts).

3. Discuss in detail how Nitrogen as a waste is removed by ureotelic animals.(10pts)

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Name __________________________ ID____________ Signature ________
Answers sheet
S/no S/no S/no
1 38 75
2 39 76
3 40 77
4 41 78
5 42 79
6 43 80
7 44 81
8 45 82
9 46 83
10 47 84
11 48 85
12 49 86
13 50 87
14 51 88
15 52 89
16 53 90
17 54 91
18 55 92
19 56 93
20 57 94
21 58 95
22 59 96

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23 60 97
24 61 98
25 62 99
26 63 100
27 64 101
28 65 102
29 66 103
30 67 104
31 68 105
32 69 106
33 70 107
34 71 108
35 72 109
36 73 110
37 74

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