MBR 2019 - Physiology Handouts PDF
MBR 2019 - Physiology Handouts PDF
MBR 2019 - Physiology Handouts PDF
The stability of the red cell membrane and the 2. Intravascular hemolysis
solubility of the intracellular hemoglobin depend on - only 5-10% of normal RBC destruction occurs
4 glucose-supported metabolic pathways. through intravascular hemolysis
Rh negative - absence of D antigen, though other Endothelial surface of the blood vessel
Rh antigens can still cause transfusion reactions. - usually inert to coagulation factors and
platelets due to the ff:
Formation of anti-Rh agglutinins 1. Smoothness of the endothelial surface
- spontaneous agglutinins almost never occur 2. Layer of glycocalyx on the endothelium
- Anti Rh agglutinins develop slowly, the which repels clotting factors and platelets
maximum concentrations occurring about 2- 3. Contain an ecto-ADPase, CD 39, which
4 months after an Rh negative person was destroys ADP and limits platelet activation
exposed to the Rh factor. 4. Produce 2 potent anti-platelet compounds,
prostacyclin and nitric acid.
Erythroblastosis fetalis – (hemolytic Disease of the
NB) Endothelial cells also modulate the coagulation
- Set-up: The mother is Rh (-) and the father system and life span of fibrin clots by the ff ways:
is Rh (+) with the baby inheriting the Rh (+) 1. Binds, inactivates and cleaves thrombin
antigen from the father. 2. Expresses thrombomodulin, which is a thrombin-
- The mother develops anti-Rh agglutinins binding glycoprotein. Thrombin-thrombomodulin
from the fetus Rh antigens, which diffuse complex activates Protein C, the latter degrades
through the placenta into the fetus causing Factor Va & VIIIa.
red cell agglutination 3. Expresses heparin SO4 which catalyzes binding
- 1st born usually not affected, about 3% of of antithrombin III & heparin cofactor II to
the 2nd and 10% of the 3rd Rh (+) babies thrombin thereby inactivating thrombin.
exhibit the disease 4. Releases tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), the
- Clinical picture: jaundice, usually anemia at major intravascular activator of the fibrinolytic
birth, hepatosplenomegaly, many circulating system.
nucleated red cells
- Treatment and prevention: Exchange B. FORMATION OF PLATELET PLUG
transfusion; the use of Rh immunoglobulin
to the expectant mother Platelet Function in Hemostasis
1. Maintenance of vascular integrity - platelets are
Transfusion reactions after mismatched blood types incorporated into the vessel wall, releasing
- Hemolysis of the donor’s red cells – platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) that
immediate intravascular hemolysis or nurtures EC, maintaining normal vascular
delayed integrity and promoting vascular healing
2. Initial arrest of bleeding by platelet plug
HEMOSTASIS AND BLOOD COAGULATION formation
3. Stabilization of hemostatic plug by contributing
Systems Involved in Maintaining Hemostasis to fibrin formation
Sequence of events in primary hemostasis In both the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways,
a series of different plasma proteins called
blood-clotting factors play major roles. Most of
these are inactive forms of proteolytic enzymes.
When converted to the active forms, their
enzymatic actions cause successive, cascading
reactions to the clotting process.
Hemostatic Tests:
KININ SYSTEM Bleeding time – tests the integrity of platelets/blood
- important in inflammation, vascular permeability, vessel
and chemotaxis Platelet Count
- activated by both the coagulation and fibrinolytic Prothrombin time - reflects overall efficiency of
system extrinsic system; useful in monitoring effect of
- HMWK is important in both the fibrin-forming and coumarin-type agents (warfarin); screening for
fibrin-lysing systems Vit. K deficiency
- Kalllikrein can act on kininogens, both low and Partial thromboplastin time - screening test of the
high MWK, and convert them to kinins like kallidin intrinsic system; prolonged in deficiency of
and bradykinins common pathways (def in FV, FX and FII; lesser
extent fibrinogen) and in the presence of
SERINE PROTEASE INHIBITORS inhibitors incl heparin and FDPs
Two major mechanisms are responsible for
preventing the generation of thrombin and fibrin
from extending beyond the site of injury:
1. neutralization of activated coagulation proteases
by circulating and endothelial cell bound
antiproteases.
a. Antithrombin III – also called heparin
cofactor or FXa inhibitor
- major inactivator of thrombin and FXa
- considered the most important physiologic
anticoagulant because possibly more than
90% of the antithrombin activity of normal
human plasma is derived from AT-III.
b. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor – inhibits
FXa and TF-FVIIa complex
c. Alpha-2-antiplasmin – rapid inhibitor of
plasmin
d. Alpha-2-macroglobulin – slower inhibitor of
plasmin
e. Alpha-1-antitrypsin – inhibits FXa, FXIa,
thrombin, and plasmin
f. C1 esterase inhibitor – inhibits FXIa, FXIIa,
Kellikrein, and plasmin
COMPLEMENT SYSTEM
- Plasmin activates complement by cleaving C3
into C3a and C3b
- C1 esterase inhibitor inactivates complement
_____3. Of the above, for the most part of fetal life, _____14. The platelet glycoprotein that initially
which is the major site of blood formation? attaches to the vWF at the start of adhesion
A. GP IIb/IIIa
_____4. Which is in early-acting hematopoietic B. GP Ib
growth factor? C. GP IV
A. Stem cell factor D. GP Ia/IIa
B. IL2
C. GCSF _____15. Platelet agonist or activator generated
D. GMCSF from arachidonic acid
A. Thromboxane A2
_____5. Conditions that can stimulate erythropoietin B. Thrombospondin
production C. Epinephrine
A. ↓Ph D. Prostacyclin
B. COPD
C. Renal failure _____16. True of the extrinsic pathway of
D. Decreased temperature coagulation EXCEPT
A. Results in generation of thrombin
_____6. Vitamin B12 is required for formation of B. Initiates the clotting cascade by way
which DNA base? of the tissue factor
A. Thymidine C. Able to generate significant amounts
B. Cytosine of thrombin for adequate coagulation
C. Adenine D. Uses Vitamin K-dependent clotting
D. Guanine factors
_____7. Major oxygen carrying protein in _____17. Intrinsic pathway of coagulation involves
erythropoietin the ff clotting factors EXCEPT
A. Haptoglobulin A. VIII
B. Hemoglobin B. XI
C. Hemosiderin C. VII
D. Methemoglobin D. IX
_____8. Most sensitive and specific test for iron _____18. Which of the following stabilizes the fibrin
deficiency: clot?
A. Serum protophorphyrin A. FVIII
B. Ferritin B. Vw
C. Serum iron C. FXIII
D. TIBC D. Fibrinogen
_____9. The basic structure of adult hemoglobin: _____19. Which is a powerful initiator of clot lysis?
A. α2β2 A. tPA
B. α2δ2 B. Plasminogen
C. α2ϒ2 C. Protein C
D. α2ε2 D. Protein S
_____10. How many oxygen molecules does each _____20. The following prevents extension of clot
hemoglobin molecule contain? formation EXCEPT:
A. 2 C. 6 A. Protein C
B. 4 D. 8 B. TFPI
C. Plasmin
_____11. Insoluble storage form of iron
D. Anti-thrombin III
A. Hemosiderin
B. Ferritin
C. Apoferritin
D. Apotransferrin
Differences Between a Slow Wave from adjacent muscle in the distal end of the
and a Spike Potential esophagus and proximal portion of the stomach
• Primary Functions of the LES:
SLOW WAVE SPIKE POTENTIAL a. permit coordinated movement of ingested
Not an action potential food into the stomach from the esophagus
slow undulating changes in True action potential after swallowing or deglutition
the RMP b. prevent reflux of gastric contents into the
Basic electrical rhythm
esophagus
excited by slow wave
caused by interstitial cells potential when it reaches 3. Pyloric Sphincter
of Cajal (intestinal the RMP threshold (more • a ring of smooth muscle and connective tissue
pacemaker) positive than -40mv) between the antrum and the duodenum
NV: -50 to -60 mv • The pressure of the pyloric sphincter regulates,
does not elicit contractions causes muscle
in part, gastric emptying and prevents duodenal
contractions
gastric reflux.
Intensity: 5-15 mv
Frequency: • quite short and is a relatively poor barrier (i.e.
Stomach: 3/min it can resist only a small pressure gradient).
Duodenum: 10-13/min • The stomach, duodenum, biliary tract, and
Ileum: 8-9/min pancreas – which are closely related
Colon: 6-8/min embryologically -- function as a unit.
Depolarization by: • Coordinated contraction and relaxation of the
stretch antrum, pylorus, and duodenum (referred to as
acetylcholine “antroduodenal cluster unit”) are probably more
parasympathetic NS
important than simply the pressure produced by
Hyperpolarization by:
the pyloric smooth muscle per se.
Norepinephrine 4. Sphincter of Oddi
Sympathetic NS • regulates the movement of the contents of
the common bile duct into the duodenum
GI SPHINCTERS
5. Ileocecal Sphincter
specialized circular muscles that separate • separates the ileum and the cecum
segments of the GI tract through which food • distention of the ileum results in relaxation of
products pass the sphincter, whereas, distention of the
function as barriers to flow by maintaining a proximal (ascending) colon causes
positive resting pressure that serves to separate contraction of the ileocecal sphincter.
the two adjacent organs, in which lower Consequently, ileal flow into the colon is
pressures prevail. Thus, they regulate both regulated by luminal contents and pressure,
antegrade (forward) and retrograde (reverse) both proximal and distal to the ileocecal
movement. sphincter.
As a general rule, stimuli proximal to a sphincter
cause sphincteric relaxation, whereas, stimuli 6. Internal Anal Sphincter
distal to a sphincter induce sphincteric • both circular and longitudinal smooth muscle.
contraction. • under involuntary control.
effectively serve as one-way valves • The high resting pressure of the overall anal
The location of a sphincter determines its sphincter predominantly reflects the resting
function. tone of the internal anal sphincter. It
Changes in sphincter pressure are coordinated contributes 70-80 of anal tone at rest.
with the smooth muscle contractions in the • Distention of the rectum initiates the
organs on either side. rectosphincteric reflex by relaxing the internal
This coordination depends on both the anal sphincter.
Intrinsic properties of sphincteric smooth 7. External Anal Sphincter
muscle and neurohumoral stimuli. • encircles the rectum
All GI sphincters are under the control of the • contains only striated muscles
enteric nervous system, vagus nerve, and • controlled by both voluntary and involuntary
sympathetic nerves. mechanisms
• produces 20-30% of anal tone at rest
1. Upper Esophageal Sphincter (UES)
• separates the pharynx from the upper part of MASTICATION (CHEWING)
the esophagus a voluntary and but more frequently, a reflex
• striated muscle behavior
• has the highest resting pressure of all the GI controlled by the somatic nerves to the skeletal
sphincters muscles of the mouth and jaw
4. Amino acids and peptides in the duodenum - effectively mixes chyme with digestive
release: secretions.
a. gastrin - increases the strength of antral regulated by neural pathways (ENS) and
contractions + constriction of pyloric hormonal mediators (CCK)
sphincter
b. CCK - constrict pyloric sphincter
c. GIP - constrict pyloric sphincter
Segmentation
2. Peristalsis
progressive contraction of successive
sections of circular smooth muscle.
moves along the GI tract in an orthograde
direction.
occurs in the small intestines but usually
Control of Gastric Emptying involves only a short length of small
intestines.
SMALL INTESTINAL MOTILITY regulated by neural and hormonal controls:
(a) released orad to a site of intestinal
Functions of Small Intestinal (SI) Motility distention - stimulatory
Acetylcholine
1. serves to mix chyme with digestive secretions. Substance P
2. brings chyme into contact with the absorptive (b) released caudad to a site of
surface of the microvilli, intestinal distention; inhibitory:
3. propels chyme toward the colon. VIP
Nitric oxide
Basic Electrical Rhythm of the Duodenal Bulb
MIGRATING MYOELECTRIC COMPLEX
10-13 slow waves /minute
The basic electrical rhythm (BER) of the In the fasting state, the small intestine is
duodenal bulb is influenced by the BER of relatively quiescent but exhibits synchronized,
both the stomach and the postbulbar rhythmic changes in both electrical and motor
duodenum. activity.
The duodenal bulb contracts irregularly. The consists of bursts of intense electrical and
contractions of the antrum and duodenum contractile activity of the stomach and small
are coordinated: when the antrum intestine in the fasting state
contracts, the duodenal bulb relaxes. more propulsive than in the fed state
repeats every 75-90 minutes unless a meal is
Electrophysiology of the SI Muscle ingested, in which case the migarting
myoelectric comples (MMC) is suspended
The BER of the smooth muscles of the small housekeeper of the small intestines
intestines occurs regularly.
It is highest in the duodenum and declines Phases of MMC
along the length of the small intestines.
Duodenum - 10-13 slow waves/minute 1. Prolonged quiescent period
Terminal ileum –8-9 slow waves/minute 2. Period of increasing action potential frequency
Regulation: The BER of the small intestinal and contractility
smooth muscle is entirely intrinsic but the 3. Period of peak electrical and mechanical activity
autonomic nervous system modulates lasts about 10 minutes
contractile activity. large contractions that propagate along the
length of the intestines are stimulated by
Types of Movement of the Small Intestine motilin and sweep any remaining gastric
and intestinal contents out into the colon
1. Segmentation pylorus and ileocecal valve open fully during
most frequent type this phase, so even large undigested items
characterized by closely spaced contraction of can eventually pass.
the circular muscle layer. 4. Period of declining activity that merges into the
divides the small intestines into small next quiescent period
neighboring segments.
Evacuation is preceded by deep breath which increased blood flow, increased metabolism (both
moves the diaphragm downward. The glottis are proportional to saliva formation)
then closes, and contractions of the respiratory
muscles on full lungs elevate both intrathoracic Neural Control of Salivary Secretion
and intrabdominal pressures.
1. Parasympathetic NS
primary neural control
Contractions of abdominal wall muscles further
salivatory nuclei CN 7 & 9
increase intraabdominal pressure. The increase in
stronger, long-lasting effects
pressure helps to force feces through the relaxed
affects both acinus and ducts
sphincters.
Effects:
Adoption of a sitting or squatting position alters a. ↑ synthesis of amylase & mucins
the relative orientation of the intestines and b. contraction of myoepithelial cells
surrounding muscular structures by straightening c. enhances transport activities of ductular
the path for the exit of feces. epithelium
d. ↑ blood flow (ACH and VIP cause
After voluntary relaxation of the external anal vasodilatation)
sphincter, rectal contractions move the feces out e. stimulates metabolism & growth
of the body,
2. Sympathetic NS
superior cervical ganglion
If a delay in defecation is needed or desired,
travels along the surfaces of blood vessel wall
voluntary contraction of the external anal
to the salivary glands
sphincter is usually sufficient to override the
slight increase in salivary secretions
series of reflexes initiated by rectal distention.
STOMACH
Composition of Saliva
1. Proteins/Enzymes (amylase/lipase) Functional Parts of the Stomach
2. Glycoproteins (mucin)
3. Lysozymes Ionic Composition of Gastric Juice
4. Electrolytes (Na, K, HCO3, Ca, Mg, Cl-, Flouride)
5. Water the higher the rate of secretion, the higher the
[H+]
Metabolism & Blood Flow of Salivary Glands at high flow rates, Na decreases H increases
maximal rate of saliva production 1 mL/min/g of at high flow rates, approaches isotonic HCl
gland K+ always > than in plasma
PANCREATIC JUICE
MUCUS Components of Pancreatic Juice
secretion that contains the glycoprotein mucin. 1. Aqueous component
a tetramer linked together by disulfide bonds, It secreted by the epithelial cells of the ducts
is 80% carbohydrates. of the pancreas.
subject to proteolysis by pepsins. nearly isotonic to plasma at all flow rates
secreted by mucus neck cells located in the necks Na+ and K+ - similar to those in plasma
of gastric glands and surface epithelial cells of HCO3- - above those in plasma major
the stomach. anions
secretion is stimulated by acetylcholine. Cl- - vary reciprocally w/ HCO3-
protects gastric mucosa: serves to buffer HCl-
lubricating property HCO3- in the blood is the major source of
inhibits pepsin the HCO3- secreted into the lumen of the
alkalinity protects against self-digestion extralobular duct.
Stimulated by secretin
BICARBONATE
The gastric epithelial cells secrete a
watery fluid that contains HCO3- that is
higher in amount than plasma making the
mucus layer alkaline
Stimulus : acetylcholine
PANCREAS
The pancreas weighs < 100 grams , secretes 1
kg/day of pancreatic juice.
b. Pancreatic amylase
most significant contributor to the
luminal digestion of starch
Both salivary and pancreatic amylase
hydrolyze internal α1,4 bonds in both Absorption of Glucose, Galactose, and Fructose
amylose and amylopectin but not in the Small Intestine
external bonds nor the α 1,6 bonds that
form the branch points in the
amylopectin molecule PROTEIN ASSIMILATION
A. D segmentation
Proteins are water soluble polymers that must be
igestion of starch by amylase is
digested into their smaller constituents before
incomplete and results in glucose
absorption is possible.
oligomers including dimers (maltose),
Their absorption is more complicated than that of
trimers (maltotriose), and α limit
carbohydrates because they contain 20 different
dextrins, the simplest branching structure
amino acids and short oligomers of these amino
to allow absorption of its constituent
acids (dipeptides, tripeptides, and perhaps even
monosaccharides, starch must also
tetrapepides) can also be transported by
undergo brush border digestion
enterocytes.
The liver has substantial ability to interconvert their C-terminal and thus are resistant to
various amino acids subject to the body’s needs. carboxypeptidase A or B.
Essential amino acids – amino acids that cannot
be synthesized by the body either de novo or 3RD PHASE
from other amino acids and thus must be takes place at the brush border.
obtained from the diet. mature enterocytes express a variety of
peptidases on their brush borders including both
DIGESTION OF PROTEINS aminopeptidases and carboxypeptidase that
Proteins can be hydrolyzed to long peptides generate products suitable for uptake across the
simply by virtue of the acidic pH that exists in the apical membrane.
gastric lumen. SI can take up not only single amino acids
but also peptides.
Phases of Protein Assimilation peptides that are taken up into the enterocytes in
their intact form are then subjected to a final
1ST PHASE stage of digestion in the cytosol of the
occurs in the gastric lumen, mediated by pepsin. enterocyte to liberate their constituent amino
pepsinogen - in acidic pH, is autocatalytically acids for use in the cell or elsewhere in the body.
cleaved to pepsin.
pepsin cleaves proteins at sites of neutral ABSORPTION OF PROTEINS
amino acids, with preference for aromatic or Peptide transporter 1 (PepT1) – primary
large aliphatic side chains. transporter responsible for uptake of products
pepsin is not capable of digesting protein fully of protein digestion. It is a proton-coupled
into a form that can be absorbed by the symporter that carries peptides in conjunction
intestines with proteins.
yields a mixture of intact protein, large peptides Peptides taken up into enterocytes are then
and a limited number of free amino acids. immediately hydrolyzed by a series of cytosolic
peptidases into their constituent amino acids.
Amino acids not required by the enterocyte are
2ND PHASE in turn exported across the basolateral
occurs in the lumen of the small intestine, membrane and enter blood capillaries to be
mediated by proteases of pancreatic juice. transported to the liver via the portal system.
these enzymes are secreted in the inactive forms.
Their activation is delayed until they are in the
lumen by virtue of the localized presence of an
activating enzyme, enterokinase, only on the
brush border of small intestinal epithelial cells.
EMULSIFICATION AND SOLUBILIZATION OF the portal circulation, the products of lipolysis are
LIPIDS reesterified in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) of
When a fatty meal is ingested, the lipid enterocyte to form triglycerides, phospholipids,
becomes liquefied at body temperature and and cholesterol esters.
floats on the surface of the gastric contents. Concurrently, the enterocyte synthesizes a series
an early stage in the assimilation of lipids is of proteins known as apolipoproteins in the rough
emulsification. The mixing action of the ER. These proteins are then combined with the
stomach churns the dietary lipid into a re-synthesized lipids to form chylomicrons
suspension of fine droplets, which vastly chylomicrons consist of a lipid core
increases the surface area of the lipid phase. (predominantly triglyceride, much less
cholesterol, phospholipid, and fat-soluble
DIGESTION OF LIPIDS vitamins) coated by apolipoproteins.
It begins in the stomach via the action of chylomicrons are then exported from the
gastric lipase. enterocyte through exocytosis then taken up into
Gastric lipase is released in large quantities the lymphatics and bloodstream.
from gastric chief cells. It adsorbs to the
surface of fat droplets dispersed in the gastric
contents and hydrolyzes component
triglycerides to diglycerides and free fatty acids
(FFAs).
Little lipid assimilation takes place in the
stomach because of acidic pH
Majority of lipolysis occurs in the small
intestines.
Pancreatic lipolytic enzymes:
1. Pancreatic lipase -
capable of hydrolyzing both 1 and 2
positions of triglyceride to yield large
quantities of FFAs and monoglycerides.
lipase activity is sustained by a cofactor,
colipase, which is a bridging molecule
that binds to both bile acids and to
lipase. It anchors lipase to the oil droplet Products of Fat Digestion by Lipase are held in
even in the presence of bile acids Solution in the Micellar State
2. Phospholipase A2 - hydrolyzes phospholipids
secreted as an inactive pro-form that is
activated only when it reaches the small
intestines.
3. Cholesterol esterases – break down esters
of cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins and
triglycerides.
this enzyme requires bile acids for
activity and is related to an enzyme
produced in breast milk that plays an
important role in lipolysis in neonates.
as lipolysis proceeds, the products are abstracted
from the lipid droplet, first into a lamellar or
membrane phase and subsequently into mixed
micelles composed of lipolytic products and bile
acids.
the amphiphatic (both having a hydrophobic and
hydrophilic face) bile acids serve to shield the
hydrophobic regions of lipolytic products from Fat Absorption Across Walls of Small Intestine
water while presenting their own hydrophilic
faces to the aqueous environment.
Micelles increase the solubility of lipid in the WATER AND ELECTROLYTE
intestinal contents. They increase the rate at SECRETION AND ABSORPTION
which molecules such as fatty acids can diffuse
to the absorptive epithelial surface. The fluidity of intestinal contents, especially in
the small intestine, is important in allowing the
ABSORPTION OF LIPIDS meal to be propelled along the length of the
The products of fat digestion are capable of intestine and to permit digested nutrients to
crossing cell membrane readily because of their diffuse to thie site of absorption.
lipophilicity.
Unlike monosaccharides and amino acids, which
leave the enterocyte in molecular form and enter
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 17 | PHYSIOLOGY
GASTROINTESTINAL PHYSIOLOGY
REMEDIOS DEE-CHAN, M.D. MHPEd
ANITA Q. SANGALANG, MD, MHPEd
Lumen Blood
Lumen Blood
Hepatic Sinusoids
B. Detoxification
First Pass Metabolism
This is a process where absorbed
substances in intestines are metabolized by
liver before making it to systemic circulation.
Little or none of absorbed substances make
it to the systemic circulation.
Liver limit entry of toxic substances into the
bloodstream.
It has unusual blood supply. Majority of
blood draining into liver is venous in nature
via portal vein from the intestines. Thus,
liver absorbs not only nutrients but
Zones of the Liver
potentially harmful absorbed molecules ex:
drugs and toxins
Functions of the Liver
1. Metabolic
Levels of Detoxification
2. Detoxification
1. Physical - involves the Kupffer cells, which are
3. Excretion of protein-bound lipid-soluble waste
phagocytic cells
products
2. Biochemical
Hepatocytes are endowed with a broad array
A. Metabolic Functions
of enzymes that metabolize and modify both
1. Carbohydrate Metabolism
endogenous and exogenous toxins so that the
a. Storage of large amount of glycogen
products are more soluble and less
b. Conversion of galactose and fructose to
susceptible to reuptake by the intestines.
glucose
c. Gluconeogenesis
Metabolic reactions:
d. Formation of many chemical compounds from
a. Phase I reactions
intermediate products of carbohydrate
oxidation, hydroxylation, other reactions
metabolism
catalyzed by cytochrome p450 enzymes
2. Fat Metabolism
b. Phase II reactions
a. Oxidation of fatty acids to supply energy for
conjugate the resulting products with
other body functions
another molecule such as glucoronic acid,
b. Synthesis of large quantities of cholesterol,
sulfate, amino acids, or glutathione to
phospholipids, and most lipoproteins
promote their excretion.
c. Synthesis of fat from proteins and
carbohydrates
C. Excretion
3. Protein Metabolism
Small water-soluble catabolites are excreted
a. Deamination of amino acids
by the kidneys.
b. Formation of urea for removal of ammonia
Larger water-soluble catabolites and
from the body fluids
molecules bound to plasma proteins (lipophilic
c. Formation of plasma proteins
metabolites, xenobiotics, steroid homones,
d. Interconversion of the various amino acids
and heavy metals) cannot be filtered by the
and synthesis of other compounds from amino
process of glomerular filtration.
acids
These substances are taken up by basolateral
membrane transporters that will metabolize
them at the level of microsomes and in the
cytosol.
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 20 | PHYSIOLOGY
GASTROINTESTINAL PHYSIOLOGY
REMEDIOS DEE-CHAN, M.D. MHPEd
ANITA Q. SANGALANG, MD, MHPEd
Composition of Bile
1. bile acids
2. phosphatidylcholine
3. cholesterol
* In ratios of 10:3:1, respectively
Bile Acid
Gallbladder
Liver Bile Bile
Water 97.5 g/dl 92 g/dl
Congugation of Bilirubin
Bile salts 1.1 g/dl 6 g/dl
Bilirubin 0.04 g/dl 0.3 g/dl Conjugated bilirubin (CB) excreted into bile
Cholesterol 0.1 g/dl 0.3 to 0.9 g/dl drains into the duodenum and passes unchanged
Fatty acids 0.12 g/dl 0.3 to 1.2 g/dl through the proximal small intestines.
Lecithin 0.04 g/dl 0.3 g/dl
Na+ 145 mEq/L 130 mEq/L When CB reaches the distal ileum and colon
K+ 5 mEq/L 12 mEq/L hydrolyzed to unconjugated CB by bacterial
Ca++ 5 mEq/L 23 mEq/L glucoronides.
Cl- 100 mEq/L 25 mEq/L
pH 7.5 6.0 Unconjugated bilirubin is reduced by normal gut
bacteria urobilinogens
_______________________
REFERENCES
Fate of Bilirubin in the Large Intestine
Berne, R., Levy, M., Koeppen, B., Stanton, B.
Physiology (Updated Version) , 6th edition, 2010
AMMONIA HANDLING Boron, W., Boulpaep, E. Medical Physiology, 1st
edition, 2003
Ammonia (NH3) is a small metabolite that arises Guyton, A., Hall, J., Textbook of Medical Physiology,
from protein catabolism and bacterial activity and 12th edition, 2011
is highly membrane permeant. Ganong, W. Review of Medical Physiology, 23rd
edition, 2010
Widmaier, Raff & Strang, Vander’s Human
It is toxic to the central nervous system.
Physiology, 12th edition.
Sources of Ammonia
1. Colon – 50%
2. Kidney – 40%
3. Liver deamination of amino acids
10%
4. Metabolic processes in muscles
5. Release of glutamine from senescent RBC’s
_____2. Slow waves of the GI smooth muscles _____11. Promotes gastric acid secretion:
A. are action potentials A. somatostatin
B. represent changes in resting B. gastrin
membrane potentials C. prostaglandins
C. lead to muscle contraction D. EGF
D. occur in similar frequencies throughout
the GIT _____12. Which phase of gastric acid secretion
accounts for the most acid secreted?
_____3. Respiratory center in the medulla is inhibited A. cephalic
during this phase of swallowing: B. gastric
A. oral C. intestinal
B. pharyngeal D. pancreatic
C. esophageal
D. gastric _____13. Promotes secretion of bicarbonate-rich
pancreatic juice:
_____4. Movement of solid particles toward the A. acetylcholine
antrum is accomplished by the interaction of B. cholecystokinin
gastric contractions and occlusion of the pylorus C. secretin
A. receptive relaxation D. gastrin
B. propulsion
C. grinding _____14. A patient with genetic mutation in SGLT1
D. retropulsion transporter in the intestinal brush border
membrane will develop abdominal pain and diarrhea
_____5. Factor that lead to increased gastric due to malabsorption of:
emptying: A. fructose
A. cholecystokinin B. B. galactose
B. gastrin C. C. amino acids
C. acidic duodenal chyme D. D. Fatty acids
D. hypotonic fluids in duodenum
_____15. Essential for intestinal absorption of
_____6. Predominant movement of the small products of lipolysis:
intestines: A. apolipoprotein
A. haustrations B. B. bile acids
B. mass movements C. C. co-lipase
C. segmentation D. D. chylomicron
D. peristalsis
_____16. Which segment of the gastrointestinal tract
_____7. Effective defecation is: absorbs sodium via active transport in the
A. mediated by local enteric myenteric presence of sugar and amino acids?
nervous system in rectal wall A. duodenum
B. by way of parasympathetic nerve fibers B. B. jejunum
in the pelvic nerve C. C. ileum
C. initiated by contraction of abdominal D. D. colon
wall muscles
D. promoted by tonic contraction of _____17. What transport mechanisms allow the
internal and external anal sphincters absorption of nutrients across the small -
intestinal epithelial brush borders by secondary active
_____8. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system transport with Na?
in the gastrointestinal tract results in which A. fructose
gastrointestinal movement? B. B. glucose
A. vomiting C. C. fatty acids
B. gastric emptying D. D. vitamin K
C. constipation
D. migrating myoelectric complexes
Pi
(at both ends) and myosin (at the middle), ATP REQ.
arranged in an orderly fashion imparting a S3
striated appearance.
6. What are the sources of energy for
skeletal muscle contraction?
The energy sources include:
a) Direct phosphorylation – rapid generating
capacity, immediate, few seconds duration,
anaerobic.
b) Glycolysis – rapid, few minutes duration, low
efficiency, anaerobic
c) Oxidative phosphorylation – slow generating
capacity, indefinite duration of supply, high
efficiency, aerobic
Calcium has to be removed from the Low intensity and long duration exercise
sarcoplasm in order for contraction to stop. It is increases the number of mitochondria and blood
either extruded at the cell membrane by a Na-Ca vessels of a muscle. The capacity for ATP
exchanger or a Ca++ pump or re-uptaken into the SR production by oxidative phosphorylation is
by a SERCA-type Ca++ pump. The latter is more increased and endurance is enhanced.
important mechanism. High intensity short duration exercise
increases fiber diameter due to enhanced actin
9. What is skeletal muscle fatigue? and myosin synthesis. This results in increased
strength.
This is the gradual decrease in force
generated by the muscle if it is stimulated to 13. Tabulate the biophysical relationship in
exert maximal force continuously. Contributing skeletal muscle.
factors are AP conduction failure due to K Biophysical Relationship in Skeletal Muscle
Cardiac Muscle
Ca-Calmodulin-Myosin Kinase Myosin Phosphatase
4. Enumerate factors that will decrease
Response during the relaxation & contraction phase? Myosin Regulatory
myocardial contraction: Light Chain (MLC)
S1
+1 Before
Reattachment
S4 +1 Before the
* Power Stroke
* Long Duration S2
*
S3
S1
S4 S2
B). When either cardiac or skeletal muscle is Phosphorylated MLCK-High Ca- 4 Steps
7. How is relaxation of smooth muscle 10. Summarize and compare the properties of
brought about by? skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle
2 Plateau Opening of K No
calcium efflu significant
channels, x change
while the K and
channels Ca
are open influx
Millivolts
0
Time (ms)
Sinoatrial node
• Pacemaker of the heart, which
generates impulses at the greatest
frequency
• Steepest phase 4 slope
• Least negative RMP
ELECTROCARDIOGRAPHY
Galvanometer which measures the potential
difference between two electrodes
Depolarization and repolarization can be
imagines as a wave of positivity and
negativity
Electrocardiography leads
NAME OF ELECTRODE PLACEMENT
LEAD
Augmented
limb leads
Left arm and Right arm
aVR left leg Transports and distributes essential
Left arm substances to tissues
aVL Right arm Removes by products of metabolism
and left leg Left leg Participates in homeostatic mechanisms
aVF such as body temperature regulation and
Right arm fluid maintenance
and left arm
BLOOD
Precordial
formed elements (cells and
(chest) leads
Combined 4th
intercostal fragments) suspended plasma
V1 limb leads space, right of RBC, WBC, and platelets
sternum
V2 Combined HEART
limb leads 4th
intercostal Anatomy
V3 space, left of Muscular organ enclosed in the pericardium
Combined sternum Three layers
V4 limb leads Epicardium
5th intercostal Myocardium
V5 Combined space, left of Endocardium
limb leads sternum
V6
Combined 5th intercostal
limb leads space, centered on
clavicle
Combined
limb leads 5th intercostal
space, left of V4
5th intercostal
space, under left
arm
Electrocardiography
P wave – atrial depolarization
QRS – ventricular depolarization
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 4 | PHYSIOLOGY
CARDIOVASCULAR PHYSIOLOGY
AILEEN CYNTHIA DE LARA, MD
FRANCIS MARIE A. PURINO, MD
Cardiac output of the left heart equals cardiac Ventricular pressure rapidly decreases with
output of the right heart constant volume
CO of left heart – systemic blood flow When ventricular pressure becomes less
CO of right heart – pulmonary blood flow than atrial pressure, mitral valve opens
Rapid ejection
Ventricular pressure reaches maximun
When ventricular pressure exceeds aortic
pressure aortic valves open
Pressure gradient between ventricle and
aorta leads to rapid ejection of blood
Reduce ventricular volume
Atrial filling begins
Onset of T wave
DETERMINANTS OF RESISTANCE
Viscosity
• Function of the friction between
molecules of a flowing fluid
• The greater the friction ,the greater
the viscosity
Length of the tube
Radius of the fluid
LAMINAR FLOW
HR X SV
Blood Volume
Returning to
the Heart
Local Control
• Active hyperemia – metabolic activity
• Flow autoregulation- pressure change
Arterial Pressure and myogenic
• Systolic Pressure • Reactive hyperemia – extreme form of
• highest arterial pressure during a cardiac flow autoregulation
cycle • Response to injury- inflammation
• measured after the heart contracts Extrinsic Control
• Diastolic Pressure • Sympathetic nerves- norepinephrine
• Lowest arterial pressure • Parasympathetic nerves
• measured when the heart is relaxed and • Noncholinergic, nonadrenergic-
blood has returned to the heart autonomic neurons and hormones (
• Pulse Pressure angiotensin II, epinephrine, vasopressin,
• Difference between SBP and DBP ANP)
• Most important determinant is the stroke Endothelial Cells and Vascular smooth
volume muscle
• EDRF ( nitric oxide) , prostacyclin,
endothelin
Metarterioles
blood enters from the arterioles to the
capillaries
connect arterioles to venules
contain scattered smooth muscle cells
Precapillary Sphincter
site at which a capillary exits from a
metaarteriole which relaxes or contracts in
response to local metabolic factors.
Exchanges of nutrients and metabolic end products
Diffusion
Vesicle transport
Bulk flow
Mediated transport
Diffusion
Lipid soluble- easily absorbed
Ion and polar substance are poorly soluble
• Water filled channels – intercellular
clefts and water fused vesicle
Starling Equilibrium
Amount of fluid filtered from arterial end
almost equals amount returned by
absorption
SYSTEMIC VEINS
Jugular vein
• 3 maxima or peaks – a, c, v
• 3 minima or dips - av, x, y
Reasons for occurrence
• Retrograde action of the heart beat
during the cardiac cycle
• Respiratory cycle
• Skeletal muscle contraction
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER: ______11. The heart sound produced during rapid
diastolic filling is:
______1. What type of action potentials does A. First heart sound
conducting cells have? B. Second heart sound
A. Slow type of action potential C. Third heart sound
B. Fast type of action potential D. Fourth heart sound
C. Both slow and fast action potential ______12. Also known as end diastolic volume:
D. None of the above A. Preload
______2. Most abundant ion intracellularly: B. Afterload
A. Na C. Contractility
B. K D. Arterial pressure
C. Ca ______13. It is a measure of friction that impedes
D. Mg flow:
______3. What is a positive generating event that A. Hydrostatic pressure
produced depolarization of the membrane:
A. K efflux B. Velocity
B. Na influx C. Resistance
C. Ca influx D. Flow
D. K efflux and Ca influx ______14. The law that governs the movement of
______4. During the plateau phase of the action fluid in a cylindrical tube:
potential, what gates are open: A. Ohm’s Law
A. Na channels B. Poiseuille’s Law
B. K channels C. Frank Starling Law
C. Ca channels D. Law of Laplace
D. K & Ca channels ______15. Which condition will produce an increase
______5. Compared to ventricular muscle action in Reynold’s number?
potential, the pacemaker action potential has: A. Vessel diameter is decreased
A. more steep phase 0 slope B. High viscosity
B. more sustained plateau phase
C. lower overshoot C. Velocity of blood flow is increased
D. shorter refractory period D. Laminar flow is present
______6. Absolute refractory period means that the ______16. Highest cross sectional area in the blood
cell will not be responsive to any kind of stimulus. At vessels:
what phase in the action potential does it occur? A. Arteries
A. Phase 4 B. Veins
B. Phase 3 until start of phase 4 C. Venules
D. Capillaries
C. Phase 0 until phase 3 ______17. Most important vasodilators in the
D. All phases in the action potential arterial system:
______7. A 55 year old male has acute coronary A. Oxygen
syndrome. He was given beta blocker. After a week, B. Bradykinin
his electrocardiogram showed a PR interval of 0.28: C. Change in osmolarity
A. Decrease in phase 0 slope D. Adenosine
B. More negative RMP ______18. The Starling’s forces in the capillaries
C. Increase Calcium particularly the oncotic pressure is dependent on:
D. Sympathetic activation A. Protein concentration in the plasma and
______8. A 24 year old female has fever. You noted in the interstitium
that her heart rate is 108/min. Her HR is increased B. Changes in the capillary hydrostatic
because of hyperthermia: pressure
A. makes resting membrane potential less C. Water concentration in the capillary and
negative interstitium
B. increases phase 4 slope D. Distribution of the cellular elements
C. makes threshold potential more ______19. Venous return increase due to:
negative A. Increase in parasympathetic respond
D. increases amplitude of action potential B. Increase in the skeletal pump
______9. This wave represents ventricular C. During expiration
depolarization: D. Decrease in blood volume
A. P wave C. T wave ______20. The y descent coincides with:
B. QRS wave D. U wave A. Right atrial filling
______10. Which part of the diastolic phase in the B. Right atrial contraction
cardiac cycle? C. Fall in right atrial pressure
A. Isovolumetric contraction D. Bulging of the tricuspid valve
B. Rapid ventricular filling
C. Rapid ejection phase
D. Opening of the semilunar valves
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 | PHYSIOLOGY
RENAL PHYSIOLOGY
DEXTER CLIFTON C. PE, MD
blood flow & GFR; modulation Vascular supplies of the nephrons are
of Na+ balance & systemic arranged in-series & separated by efferent
blood pressure indirectly. arterioles. Long efferent arterioles that extend
from glomeruli down into the outer medulla
continue to become the:
1. peritubular capillaries- supply the tubules of
the cortical nephrons
2. vasa recta - are specialized peritubular
capillaries that extend downward into the
medulla supplying the loop of Henle of the
juxtamedullary nephron.
A. Urine Formation
Three processes involved in the formation of
urine:
1. Glomerular filtration- is the ultrafiltration
of protein-free plasma in the
glomerulus.
- is the initial event in the formation
of urine which results in the
movement of a large volume of fluid
from the glomerular capillaries to
Two types of nephron depending on its location the Bowman’s space.
within the kidney mass: 2. Tubular reabsorption - is the regulated
1. Cortical nephron (75%) - glomeruli are transport of substances out of the
located in the outer cortex which has a short tubular urine to be returned to the
loop of Henle that penetrates only a short capillary blood.
distance into the medulla. It is involved in 3. Tubular secretion - is the transport of
the reabsorption & secretion of solutes, but substances from capillary blood into the
do not contribute to the creation of a tubular urine.
hypertonic medullary interstitium.
2. Juxtamedullary nephron (25%) - glomeruli
lie deep in the renal cortex near the
medulla which has a long LH that dip deep
into the medulla. It generates a
hyperosmotic gradient for the reabsorption
of water.
D. Dynamics of ultrafiltration
Starling’s forces drive ultrafiltration across
the glomerular capillaries, filtration barrier &
Bowman’s space. The glomerular capillaries
have a much higher filtration rate than most
other capillaries because of higher PGC &
large kf.
Inulin - is an ideal substance that can be whereas the renal vein &
used to measure GFR because it is ureters constitute the 2 output
freely filterable by the glomerulus; routes:
not reabsorbed or secreted by the
tubules; not synthesized, Px a x RPFa = (Pxv x RPFv ) + (Ux x V)
metabolized or stored in the kidneys
& is non-toxic. Px a & Pxv are the
it is NOT used clinically because it is concentrations of substance X
inconvenient as it has to be infused in the renal artery & renal vein
intravenously. RPFa & RPFv are renal plasma
flow rates in the artery & vein
Creatinine- can be used to measure GFR Ux is the concentration of
although it overestimates filtration rate substance X in the urine
because it is secreted to a small extent V is the urine flow rate
(10%) in the proximal tubule. (GFR x Pcr
= Ucr x V GFR=Ucr x V) Renal blood flow
Average RBF is 1.2L/min or 4ml/min/g tissue
Pcr which is approximately 20% of the CO.
it is an endogenous substance, being an The high blood flow supplies enough plasma
end-product of muscle metabolism that necessary for a high GFR.
has stable plasma value. Cortical blood flow is greater than medullary
inversely proportional to GFR. blood flow to permit high rate of filtration in
the glomerulus for the regulation of body
fluid volume & solute concentration.
Relatively lower (1-2%) blood flow in the
medulla via vasa recta helps maintain a
hyperosmolar environment in the formation
of concentrated urine.
The kidneys account for ~8% of the total
body oxygen consumption due to the
metabolic cost of the many transport
processes such as high rate of active Na+
reabsorption by the tubules.
Renal O2 consumption varies in proportion
to renal tubular Na+ reabsorption, which in
turn is closely related to GFR & the rate of
Na+ filtered.
a constant fraction of filtered Na+ & water is through the vasa recta (countercurrent
reabsorbed from PT despite variations of exchanger).
GFR Solute concentration in the loop of Henle ranges
helps prevent overloading of distal tubule from 300-1200 mOsm.
when GFR increases Dissipation of the medullary osmotic gradient is
prevented because the blood in the vasa recta
2. Peritubular capillary and renal interstitial fluid equilibrates with the interstitial fluid.
physical forces – Starling forces
Starling forces regulate NaCl & water
reabsorption across PT into the capillaries
Starling forces favoring movement of solutes
& water to capillaries:
Capillary oncotic pressure (c)
Interstitial space hydrostatic
pressure (Pif)
Opposing forces: Interstitial oncotic
pressure (if) The Loop of Henle:
Capillary hydrostatic 1. Descending Limb is permeable to water but not to
pressure (Pc) solutes.
Starling forces do not affect transport by LH, 2. Ascending limb is impermeable to water.
DT, CD because these segments less
permeable to water than PT Steps in Countercurrent Multiplication
1. Na is pumped out of the TALH with a
URINE CONCENTRATION AND DILUTION maximum gradient of 200 mOsm/L –
Understanding urine concentration and dilution “SINGLE EFFECT”
requires understanding three basic processes that 2. Water flows out of the descending tubule
work in concert: raising tubular osmolality to 400 mOsm/L
The function of the loops of Henle as 3. Osmolality between tubular fluid and
countercurrent multipliers to establish an interstitium is equilibrated
interstitial osmotic gradient that increases from 4. Fluid shifts along loop
the cortex to the tip of the papilla
The function of the vasa recta as countercurrent
exchangers to help maintain this gradient.
The function of antidiuretic hormone to alter the
permeability of the late distal tubule (connecting
tubule) and cortical and medullary collecting
ducts to water.
■ Contributes 40-50% of the osmolarity of the It is highly permeable to water and solutes
renal medullary interstitium. which equilibrate across the capillary wall as it
courses through the medulla.
UREA RECYCLING In addition to maintaining the osmotic gradient,
it provide nutrients and O2 to the medullary
tissues and remove the excess water and
solutes being reabsorbed in the cortical and
medullary nephron segments.
The ability to maintain the medullary interstitial
gradient is flow dependent.
Action of ADH on the collecting duct cell: Buffer – any substance that reversibly consumes or
releases H+ and helps to minimize pH changes
TITRATION CURVE FOR BICARBONATE free acid radicals that can dissociate to form
BUFFER SYSTEM: base + H+
PROXIMAL ACIDIFICATION
Urine Buffers:
1. Phosphate buffers - major urinary buffer in its
travel from plasma to urine, 5 mmoles of
phosphate can take up 4 mmoles of H+. In the
process, tubular fluid becomes acidified from 7.4
to 5.
Na2HPO4 + H2CO3 Na2HPO4 (excreted) + Renal NH4+ excretion is regulated by:
NaHCO3 (reabsorbed) 1. pH H+ secretion
- has little regulation of acid excretion. Urinary 2. pCO2 H+ secretion
phosphate excretion follows phosphate intake 3. K+ renal ammonic production
and not the requirement of acid-base balance, so 4. Mineralocortical/Aldosterone stimulates H+
it cannot increase in response to acid load. secretion
ACID-BASE DISORDERS
Classification:
I. Simple Disturbance
a. Respiratory
1. Acidosis
2. Alkalosis (acute, chronic)
b. Metabolic
1. Acidosis
2. Alkalosis
increase HC03- and K+. In time, renal HCO3- 4. Loss of HCO3- from body via gastrointestinal
synthesis will further augment serum HCO 3-. tract or kidney
METABOLIC ACIDOSIS AND ALKALOSIS The chloride concentration will increase and the
bicarbonate concentration will fall by the same
amount. The "anion gap” will be unaltered. Normal
METABOLIC ACIDOSIS: anion gap acidosis is also referred to as
“hyperchloremic” acidosis.
pH = 6.1 + log HCO3_
pCO2 If a non-chloride acid (e.g. lactic acid, as in
lactic acidosis) is added:
Etiology: H-Lac + Na + HCO3- Na+ + Lac + H+ + HCO3-
1. Increased acid intake
2. Increased metabolic production of acid H2CO3 CO2
3. Decreased acid excretion by the kidney (excreted by
lungs)
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 15 | PHYSIOLOGY
RENAL PHYSIOLOGY
DEXTER CLIFTON C. PE, MD
M ethanol intoxication
U remia
L actic acidosis
E thylene glycol intoxication
P Aldehyde intoxication
K etoacidosis
S alicylate intoxication
METABOLIC ALKALOSIS:
Etiology:
1. Loss of gastrointestinal secretions
e.g. vomiting or gastric drainage (loss of
HCl)
2. Diuretics - loss of Na+, K+, Cl-
in the urine leaving bicarbonate-rich fluid
in the ECF -"contraction alkalosis"
3. Rapid correction of chronic hypercapnea
4. Increased mineralocorticoid activity
5. Profound K depletion
6. Milk-alkali syndrome - intake of large
quantities of absorbable alkali and calcium
(milk and CaCO3)
Compensation:
1. ICF buffers – immediate exit of ICF H+
derived from PO4-3 and proteins
Small increase in lactic acid production
References:
2. Respiratory - Rose,B.D. Clinical Physiology of Acid-Base and Electrolyte
PaCO2 must be raised to return pH to Disorders. 5th Edition. McGraw-Hill. 2001.
normal therefore, hypoventilation Guyton,A.C. Textbook of Medical Physiology. 12th
decreased PaCO2 (this adaptation is limited Edition. Saunders. 2011.
by requirement of O2 - decreased PaCO2 Vander, A.J. Renal Physiology. 12th Edition. McGraw-
stimulates chemoreceptors increased Hill. 2011.
ventilation Berne, Robert M., Physiology, Mosby, 6th edition updated,
2010
3. Renal - increased excretion of HCO3-
Boron, Walter F, Medical Physiology, Saunders, 2nd
updated edition 2011
EUVOLEMIA
– Na+ excretion by kidneys matches the amount of
Na+ ingested in the diet.
– Na+ reabsorption in proximal tubule (PT), loop
of Henle (LH) & distal tubule (DT) is regulated,
so that Na+ load delivered to collecting duct
(CD) remains constant.
– CD is the main segment where Na+ reabsorption
is adjusted.
• Only small amounts stored, however, there are 5. Adrenal (Cortex) – Cortisol, Aldosterone,
large amounts of the precursor molecule DHEAS, androstenedione
cholesterol 6. Adrenal (Medulla) - Epinephrine and NE
• hormone levels regulated at the level of gene 7. Gonads (Testes) – Testosterone, Inhibin
expression of enzymes involved in synthesis of these 8. Gonads (Ovaries) – Estrogen; Progesterone,
hormones (fat-soluble) Relaxin
9. Pancreas – Insulin; Glucagon, Somatostatin;
Hormones, their Receptors and Functions. Pancreatic polypeptide; GI- VIP, gastrin
through:
increase in cellular permeability to fatty acid
stimulation of Lipoprotein lipase
conversion of excess CHO to glycerophosphate
and acetyl CoA
inhibition of Hormone sensitive Lipase
inhibition of Carnitine transport
inhibition of glycerol conversion to glycerol
phosphate
INSULIN PECULIARITIES:
• Insulin can be used in hyperkalemia as it
increases cellular permeability to K+, Mg
and phosphates.
• HgbA1c, a derivative of adult Hgb has a terminal
Valine chain irreversibly attached to glucose,
hence this Hgb can reflect blood sugar level of a
subject for the past 4 - 6 weeks.
SOMATOSTATIN
Same chemical substance as the Growth Hormone
Inhibitory Hormone in the hypothalamus
Actions: Requirements:
1. decreases stomach motility 1) Intratesticular testosterone
2. decreases secretion and absorption in the GIT 2) LH→ Leydig cells
3. decreases insulin and glucagon secretion 3) FSH→ Sertoli cells
4) GH
Theoretically: 5) estrogen?
1. It extends time period wherein food is
assimilated from the GIT into the blood so Negative feedback:
pancreas can control absorption of nutrients Testosterone, inhibin
from GIT according to its secretory capability.
2. Regulates islet cell secretion to adjust pattern of ANATOMY
hormone secreted in response to various stimuli.
PANCREATIC POLYPEPTIDE
It is a linear polypeptide with 36 amino acid
residues.
Actions:
1. inhibits pancreatic enzyme secretion
2. inhibits gall bladder contraction
3. inhibits gut motility and gastric emptying
PART 7: REPRODUCTION
PROGESTERONE ACTIONS
- Secretory uterine endometrium (for implantation)
- Increase secretion in fallopian tube lining
- Proliferation and enlargement of lubules and
alveoli of breasts, swelling
FEEDBACK MECHANISMS
ANATOMY
Testosterone, estrogen, progesterone inhibits
Ovary LH>FSH
Fallopian Tubes Inhibin from ovaries and testes inhibit FSH
Uterus
Cervix
Vagina
QUESTION QUESTION
Which of the following occurs to atmospheric air during ascent to high altitude? Which of the following explains why the PaO2 is much lower than PAO2?
A- Atmospheric pressure increases A- Upper airway humidification of air
B- FIO2 remains constant B- Low atmospheric pressure
C- Nitrogen concentration remains constant C- VQ relationship in the normal lung
D- PIO2 increases D- Left to right shunt due to bronchial circulation
1) Gas Composition of Atmospheric Air at Sea Level 2) Changes in O2 tension from Atmosphere to Mitochondria
a) Dalton’s Law of Partial pressures
i) Total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of their individual partial Compartment Mean Comments
pressures PO2
ii) Partial pressure of a particular gas is equal to its fractional concentration Atmosphere PIO2 160 O2 is 21% of room air
times the total pressure of all the gases in the mixture
b) Composition of Inspired Air Airway 150 Humidification of inspired air decreases
(dilutes) O2
Fractional Gas pressure Volume in Alveoli PAO2 104 Dependent on the delivery of O2 from the
Concentration of at sea level 500 cc of air atmosphere (input) & diffusion across the
Inspired air (Fix) (760mm hg) AC membrane (output)
Nitrogen 78% 593 390
Oxygen 21% (FiO2) 160 105 End Capillary PcO2 104 Dependent on the VQ relationship of the
respiratory unit
CO2 0.03 0.2 0.2
Others 0.97 7.4 4.8 Arterial PaO2 100 Lower than PcO2 due to the presence of
Sum 100 760 500 physiologic shunts
Tissue PtO2 23 Due to the metabolism of the cells
c) Relationship between PIO2 and Altitude Venous PvO2 40 Mixture of all deoxygenated blood coming
i) Atmospheric pressure decreases (less than 760) during ascent from the different tissues of the body
ii) FiO2 remains constant
iii) PIO2 decreases QUESTION
d) Relationship between PIO2 and Deep Sea Diving Which the following is equal to function residual capacity?
i) Atmospheric pressure increases (more than 760) during descent A- IRV + TV
ii) FiO2 remains constant B- ERV + RV
iii) PiO2 (and PiN2) increases C- TLC – VC
iv) More O2 and Nitrogen dissolved in plasma D- VC- IC
v) Rapid ascent may cause decompression sickness
QUESTION
Which of the following is equal to the difference between alveolar and atmospheric
pressure?
A- Trans pulmonary pressure
IRV TV ERV RV B- Trans airway pressure
Inspiratory Capacity IC X X C- Trans chest wall pressure
Functional Residual Capacity FRC X X D- Trans respiratory pressure
Vital Capacity VC X X X
Total Lung Capacity TLC X X XP X 4) Distending Pressure of the
a) Lung Respiratory Organs (Trans Pressures)
Volumes
i) Total Volume (TV or VT) - the amount of air that goes in and out of our
lungs during normal quiet respiration. It has two points, the PEAK TIDAL
POINT or END INSPIRATION and END TIDAL or END EXPIRATION.
ii) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) - the volume of air that can be
additionally inspired maximally from end inspiration.
iii) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) - the volume of air that can be
additionally expired maximally from end expiration.
iv) Residual Volume (RV) - the amount of air remaining in the lungs after
maximal expiration.
QUESTION 0
Which of the following statements best describe the elastic property of the respiratory 5 7.5
system? At FRC PLEURAL PRESSURE
QUESTION
The alveolar pressure is most negative at which part of the tidal breathing?
A- Start of inspiration
B- Mid inspiration
C- End of inspiration
D- Mid expiration
QUESTION
0 0 0 Which of the following is accurate with regards small airway resistance?
A- Contributes highest to the total airway resistance
B- Highest at TLC
0 0 -1 -1 +1
-5
+1 C- Not dependent on bronchial smooth muscle contraction
-5 -7
D- Inversely related with lung elastance
FRC INSPIRATION EXPIRATION
D- AT FRC, the lower lung zones are more moderately distended **** +2 -2
8) Ventilation TRANSPULMONARY
PRESSURE (CM H20)
a) Factors that Determine Ventilation
Compliance (2) Alveoli Configuration/ Compliance at Residual Lung Volume
--------------------------- = Ventilation
Airway Resistance
(3) Alveoli Configuration/ Compliance at Functional Residual Capacity b. WOB during normal tidal breathing
NEUROPHYSIOLOGY
A. Na-K ATPase
B. Ratio of Na ions inside to outside of the cell
C. K permeability
D. Cl conductance
A. polarity of the electrical charge of each ion therefore Na is the second most important
contributor to the RMP.
B. permeability of the membrane (P) to each - Opening of Na channel favors Na influx.
ion RMP will be less negative more excitable
- Opening of K channel favors K efflux. RMP
C. concentration (C) of the respective ions on will be more negative (losing positive
the inside (i) and outside (o) of the charges) less excitable
membrane - Opening of Cl channel favors Cl influx. RMP
will be more negative less excitable
Goldman equation is an expanded version of Nernst
Q2: Sodium conductance is greatest during this
equation that takes account of ion permeabilities.
phase of the action potential of a neuron
A. depolarization
B. overshoot
C. repolarization
Origin of the Normal Resting Membrane Potential (- D. after depolarization
90mv)
Types of Changes in Membrane Potential (MP)
I. Contribution of the potassium diffusion
I. Graded Potential (GP)
through the membrane
A. It is known as graded potential because
A. The ratio of potassium ions inside to
the greater intensity of the stimulus,
outside is 35: 1.
the greater is the change in the MP.
B. Permeability of membrane to potassium
B. The change in MP decreases as the
is 100x as great as its permeability to
distance from the site of origin
sodium. Thus, using the Goldman
increases. This is known as
equation, the calculated potential inside
decremental conduction of current.
the membrane is -86mv, which is near
the potassium potential.
II. Action Potential (AP)
II. Contribution of sodium diffusion through the A. results when depolarizing GP reaches a
membrane certain threshold potential
The ratio of sodium ions from inside to which stimulates all the Na-
outside of the membrane is 1:10. and K-gated channels.
III. Contribution of the Na-K ATPase pump B. Phases of Action Potential (D-O-R-A)
(Electrogenic pump)
Depolarization - membrane potential is less
A. By pumping Na out to the ECF and
negative to RMP
simultaneously pumping K into the cell,
Overshoot - reversal of polarity (inside
the Na/K ATPase pump creates the
positive relative to outside)
uneven distribution (concentration
Repolarization - membrane potential is
gradient) for the Na and K that is
returning to the RMP coming from a
needed for the genesis of the RMP.
depolarization state.
B. By promoting uneven transport of positive After depolarization or hyperpolarization -
ions across plasma membrane (3Na+ membrane potential is more negative than
out vs 2K+ in), it creates an electrical the RMP.
gradient - deficit of positive ion inside
the cell and therefore contribute to
RMP. This creates an additional
degree of negativity of about -4mv.
Note:
AP is usually triggered in response to a stimulus. Type of Response Elicited by the Different Types
There is an all or none relationship between the of Stimuli
intensity of stimulus and generation of AP. AP can
either occur maximally or they do not occur at all. I. Subthreshold response- is elicited by
stimulus of subthreshold intensity on the
Q3: One of the following statements regarding membrane ion channels enough to
cause a change in membrane potential
stimulus applied and response is correct.
but not adequate to reach threshold
potential.
A. Threshold stimulus will result to no visible
II. Threshold response- is elicited by a
response.
stimulus strong enough for a
B. Subthreshold stimulus will result to the
depolarizing graded potential to reach
smallest visible response
threshold potential resulting to an action
C. Maximal stimulus gives rise to a maximal
potential triggering muscle contraction.
response
III. Maximal response- is elicited by maximal
D. Supramaximal stimulus gives rise to
stimulus in which all motor units are
supramaximal response.
recruited producing the greatest force of
contraction.
IV. Submaximal response- is seen when
Q4: Use of a maximal stimulus is likely to generate a
intensity increases from threshold to
second action potential if it is applied during this maximal recruiting more & more motor
phase of the first action potential units resulting to an escalation in the
force of contraction.
A. depolarization V. Supramaximal response- is elicited by
B. overshoot an intensity above the maximal wherein
C. first half of repolarization no further increase in the force of
D. hyperpolarization contraction occurs because all motor
units have been recruited.
Postsynaptic Summation
IV. Neuropeptides
V. Miscellaneous
A. Gases: Nitric Oxide
B. Purines: ATP & Adenosine
SIGNAL TRANSDUCTION
relaying molecules in the cytoplasm. Q10: GABA release results in sedation and muscle
These molecules are small molecules relaxation. The correct cAMP signal transduction
present in the cytoplasm known as sequence if
secondary messengers which stimulates 1- GABA binds to GPCR
downstream events. 2- less activation of adenylyl cyclase
C. Transmission – the sending of the second 3- G-protein (I-type) dissociates
messenger‟s signal to appropriate 4- less activation of protein kinase
effector. 5- decreased cAMP
D. Modulation of the effector – second
messenger can modulate expression or A. 3,1,5,4,2
activity of effectors (ie enzymes, ion B. 1,3,2,5,4
channels, cytoskeletal components and C. 2,1,3,4,5
transcription factors). D. 5,1,4,2,3
E. Cellular response – outcome of signal
transduction cascade is a physiological IV. Signal transduction using Receptors that
response ex: contraction, secretion, activate G Proteins or the G- Protein
metabolism, proliferation, division or Coupled Receptors (GPCR)
death. A. GPCR can be classified according to the
F. Termination of response – brought about type of second messengers it produces.
by feedback mechanisms at any or all These second messengers are
levels of the signaling pathway. 1. cAMP
2. cGMP
Q8: Glucocorticoid, a lipophilic hormone, interacts 3. IP3 & DAG
with a receptor resulting in the modulation of 4. Arachidonic Acid
transcription factors and gene activation that leads
to increased cellular metabolism. The type of
receptor is most likely: B. The components of the signal
A. Enzyme-linked transduction pathway that are initiated by
B. G protein-coupled GPCR stimulation
C. Intracellular 1. Ligand or the 1st Messenger
D. Ligand-gated 2. Receptor
3. G-Protein
Classification of receptors Based on Location and 4. Effector Protein
Signal Transduction Pathway 5. Second Messenger
6. Protein Kinase
7. Downstream Proteins
Messenger
A. salivary glands
Q12: A drug acting on the muscarinic (M2) B. piloerector muscle
cholinergic receptor results in bradycardia. Its signal C. lacrimal glands
transduction mechanism involves: D. bronchial smooth muscles
A. Gs Functional Anatomy:
B. Gi
C. Gt
D. Gq
A. alpha-1 : vasoconstriction
B. Muscarinic-3 : miosis
C. beta-1: bronchoconstriction
D. Nicotinic (Nm) : muscle contraction
A. Difficulty of breathing
B. Decrease in blood pressure
C. Diarrhea
Q16: Which of the following findings would point out D. Urinary retention
to an overdose of a cholinomimetic agent
3.1.2.3. Cutaneous Immune System The pattern recognition receptors allow the
skin is the largest organ and an important innate immune system to distinguish self
physical barrier to the environment (the body) from non-self (pathogen)
epidermis contains APCs (keratinocytes, Three of the most important transcription
melanocytes, epidermal Langerhans cells factors activated by TLR signals are
and intraepithelial T lymphocytes - NF-κB (nuclear factorκB), which promotes
keratinocytes and melanocytes produce expression of various cytokines and
cytokines endothelial adhesion molecules
Langerhans cells are immature dendritic - AP-1 induce production of pro-
cells that capture antigens and migrate to inflammatory cytokine and chemotactic
the dermis then lymph nodes factors
- IRF-3 (interferon response factor-3),
3.1.2.4. Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue which stimulates production of type I
aggregates of non-encapsulated lymphoid interferons, cytokines that block viral
tissue either diffusely aggregated or replication
organized into solitary or aggregated The molecules recognized by pattern
nodules containing germinal centers recognition receptors are quite distinct from
(secondary follicles) in lamina propia and the individual pathogen-specific antigens
submucosal areas of GI, GU and respiratory recognized by lymphocytes.
tracts
include: Waldeyer’s ring (LN, adenoids, A1. Components of Innate Immunity
tonsils); bronchus associated lymphoid Epithelial barriers: skin, gastrointestinal tract
tissue; lamina propia of intestine; Peyer’s and respiratory tract – provide physical and
patches; urogenital lymphoid tissue chemical barriers against infection – mucus,
cilia
3.2. Lymphocyte Traffic Peptide barriers: defensins, cathelicidins,
Lymphocyte move continuously between histatins, lysozyme, secretory phosphor-
blood and lymph. Efferent lymph contains lipase A2 - kill bacteria
more lymphocytes than afferent lymphs
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 2 | PHYSIOLOGY
IMMUNOLOGY
MARIA RHONA G. BERGANTIN, MD, MSC
DAISY ILAGAN-TAGARDA, MD
A2. Receptors (for microbes and damaged cells) – A3.2. Oxygen-dependent Degradation:
maybe present on the cell surface, endoplasmic Accompanied by respiratory burst mediated
reticulum, cytosol through: granule oxidases, NADPH and
Cell-surface Toll-like receptors (TLR) – NADPH oxidase which reduce molecular
recognize products of extracellular microbes oxygen to superoxide radicals and
Endosomal Toll-like receptors – intracellular hypochlorous acids and chloramines
microbe recognition
* Microbe-TLR engagement stimulates gene
expressions for cytokines, enzymes, proteins
used for antimicrobial functions (e.g. nuclear
factor κB [NF-κB] and interferon regulatory
factors [IRF])
NOD-like receptors (NLRs) – cytosolic
receptors which sense PAMPs and DAMPS
RIG-like receptor – cytosolic receptor for
viral RNA recognition
Lectin receptors – for fungal glycans
Mannose receptors – for phagocytosis of
bacteria and fungi
A3. Inflammation
Body’s local response to infection or injury
Manifested as warmth, swelling, erythema,
tenderness, loss of function
Essential roles in combating infection.
- to deliver additional effector molecules A4. Complement System
and cells from the blood into sites of a collection of plasma proteins produced
infection, and so increase the destruction mostly by the liver, which act as zymogens
of invading microorganisms. the proteins are activated after proteolytic
- to induce local blood clotting, which cleavage leading to sequential activation of
provides a physical barrier to the spread the cascade of proteins with the goal of
of the infection in the bloodstream. eliminating pathogens
- to promote the repair of injured tissue. Pathways of the complement cascade
activation:
A2.1. Sequence of events in a nonspecific
inflammatory response to bacteria A4.1. Alternative pathway:
Entry of bacteria into tissue leads to tissue - initiated by spontaneous hydrolysis and
injury with release of chemical mediators activation of the complement component C3,
Vasodilation of the microcirculation in the which can then bind directly to microbial
infected area leads to increased blood flow surfaces
Mechanisms:
- block and eliminate extracellular pathogen: B
lymphocytes
- eradicate intracellular organism: T lymphocytes
Special characteristics:
- The lymphocytes express surface receptors which
recognize specific antigens produced by foreign (and
at times non-foreign) molecules
- The innate and adaptive immune responses are
bridged by dendritic cells which when immature
recognize foreign molecules (innate immune system)
and mature as they migrate to the secondary
lymphoid organs to present the antigens to the
lymphocytes, thus initiating the adaptive immune B2.1. Recognition of antigen
response B2.1.1 The Antigen Receptors: found on the surface
of the lymphocytes are responsible for antigen
B1. Types of adaptive immunity recognition
B2.1.1.1. Immunoglobulins or B-cell receptors (BcR)
B1.1. Humoral–provides defense for extracellular glycoproteins on the surface of B cells
microbes; mediated byimmunoglobulins (or identical to the antibodies secreted by the
antibodies as they are secreted by plasma cells) plasma cells but are technically NOT
Antibodies are secreted into the circulation antibodies as only secreted immunoglobulins
and can neutralize and eliminate pathogens are called as such
at the site of infection made up of four interlinked polypeptide
Antibodies have no access to microbes that chains 2 heavy (long) and 2 light chains
live and divide inside infected cells. (short) linked by disulfide bonds
Antibodies are able to recognize many N terminal of antibody is composed of
different types of microbial molecules, variable regions or domains of both light
including proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids and heavy chains (VL and VH)
antibody binds to antigen in the variable - crosses the placenta conferring passive
domain – hypervariable region or immunity
complementarity-determining regions (CDR) IgM
Constant region is responsible for the signal - 10% of Ig pool, largely intravascular
transduction which leads to the effector - serum half-life: 5 days
activity of the receptors - fixes complement via C1q
hinge region: found in the heavy chains
- predominant “early” antibody
between CH1 and CH2 which permits
- pentameric
flexibility to allow Ag binding sites to
operate independently IgA
Parts of antigen recognized by antibodies - 15 to 20% of Ig pool
are called epitopes - serum half-life: 6 days
Affinity – strength with which one antigen-
binding surface of an antibody binds to one
epitope
An immunoglobulin can bind different
epitopes (depending on the number of
antigen-binding sites) and the summation of
the strength of bindings is called avidity
Antibodies in the primary immune response
have low affinity but with repeated
exposure, the affinity increases (affinity
maturation)
Antibodies bound to an antigen may still
bind to a structurally similar antigen and the
process is called cross-linking
- production rate of 66 mg/kg/day
- predominant Ig in seromucous secretions
(saliva, colostrums, milk, tracheobronchial,
genitourinary secretions)
IgE
- scarce in the serum
- found on basophils and mast cell surfaces
- serum half-life: 2 days
- sensitizes cells on mucosal surfaces like
conjunctival, nasal and bronchial mucosa
and has a role in immunity to helminthes,
asthma and hay fever
IgD
- <1 % of total Ig pool
- present in large quantities on B cell
membrane
- precise role: UNKNOWN but may play a
role in triggered lymphocyte differentiation
B2.1.1.2.T-cell receptors
transmembrane glycoproteins on the surface
B2.1.1.1.1. Five classes of immunoglobulins of T cells
IgG do not recognize and bind antigens directly
- major antibody in the serum and but recognize epitopes bound to major
histocompatibility (MHC) complex molecule
nonmucosal tissues
also have variable and constant regions
- major antibody of the secondary immune
have only one binding site
response have no secreted forms
- monomeric recognize peptide antigens that are bound
- production rate of 25 mg/kg/day to and displayed by major
- with 4 subtypes – IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4 histocompatibility complex (MHC)
(differ due to amino acid composition and molecules of antigen-presenting cells
degree of glycosylation) (APCs)
- serum half-life: 23 days
- mediates ADCC B.2.1.2. Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)
- fixes complement via C1q: mediated by genetic regions of loci involved in rejection
IgG1 and IgG3 of foreign or non-self antigen
encode for the cell surface proteins called
MHC antigens
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 6 | PHYSIOLOGY
IMMUNOLOGY
MARIA RHONA G. BERGANTIN, MD, MSC
DAISY ILAGAN-TAGARDA, MD
B2.1.4.3. Antigen Presentation: and are therefore absent from the repertoire
Once the fragmented peptide is coupled of mature lymphocytes
with the corresponding MHC molecule, class
I for cytoplasmic and class II for vesicular, B2.3. Effector Phase of Antigen Elimination
the antigen-MHC complex is transported to B2.3.1. Differentiation of T Lymphocytes to Effector
the cell surface to be recognized by the Cells
corresponding lymphocytes. For cytoplasmic CD4+ helper T cells differentiate into effector
peptide, presentation is directed towards cells that respond to antigen by producing
cytotoxic T cells, while for vesicular peptide, surface molecules and cytokines that
presentation is directed towards helper T function to activate phagocytes and B
cells lymphocytes
- CD40L is transcribed in the CD4+ helper T
B2.2. Activation of Lymphocytes cell leading to its expression in response to
initial activation of lymphocytes primarily activation. It binds with surface receptor
require the recognition of antigen and for CD40 in B cells, dendritic cells and
full activation of lymphocytes, co-stimulation macrophages.
in the antigen presenting cells must also - These cascades of events lead to co-
take place stimulation of the APCs and further
production of T-cell activating cytokines
B2.2.1. Lymphocyte activation - CD4+ helper T cells may differentiate into
APCs express proteins aside from antigens. subsets of effector cells that produce distinct
These are co-stimulators. Best known are sets of cytokines and perform different
CD80 (B7-1) and CD86 (B7-2). These functions
proteins are recognized by receptors on the o TH1cells stimulate phagocyte
T cell surface CD28, leading to the activation mediated killing of microbes thru
of naïve T cells expression of interferon-γ, a potent
CD40 on APCs pair with CD40 ligand activator of macrophages
(CD40L) on T cells to activate APCs to o TH2 cells stimulate phagocyte-
express more B7 co-stimulator to secrete IL- independent, eosinophil mediated
12 that enhances T cell differentiation immunity for helminthes. These
The process of helper T cell mediated B cell subset of T cells produce IL-4 and
activation is similar to macrophage IL-5 which stimulates production of
activation IgE and activates eosinophils,
In response to antigen and co-stimulators, T respectively
lymphocytes, especially CD4+ T cells secrete IL-4 and IL-13 promote
cytokines expulsion of parasites from
- The first cytokine to be secreted by the mucosal organs and inhibit
antigen-stimulated T cell is IL-2 entry of microbes by
- IL-2 preferentially binds to and acts on the stimulating mucus secretion
same T cell Macrophage activation also
- The principal action of IL-2: stimulate leads to synthesis of
survival and proliferation of T cells extracellular matrix proteins
for tissue repair
B2.2.1.1. Clonal Expansion: IL-4, IL-13 and IL-10 inhibit
microbicidal activities of
within 1 to 2 days after activation, T and B macrophages thus
lymphocytes begin to proliferate, thus the suppressing TH1 cell-
expansion of antigen-specific clones mediated immunity
o TH17 cells secrete IL-17 and IL-22
B2.2.1.1.1. Postulates of Clonal Selection Hypothesis and are the principal inflammatory
mediators in some immunologic
Each lymphocyte bears a single type of reactions. They help protect against
receptor with a unique specificity extracellular bacteria and fungi by
Interaction between a foreign molecule and stimulating the neutrophil response
a lymphocyte receptor capable of binding that helps to clear the pathogens
that molecule with high affinity leads to o Follicular helper T cells or TFH cells
lymphocyte activation provides help to B cells in the
The differentiated effector cells derived from lymphoid follicles for high-affinity
an activated lymphocyte will bear receptors antibody production
of identical specificity to those of the o Regulatory T cells suppress T cell
parental cell from which that lymphocyte response and help prevent
was derived autoimmune responses.
Lymphocytes bearing receptors specific for natural regulatory T cells
ubiquitous self-molecules are deleted at an induced regulatory T cells
early stage in lymphoid cell development (or adaptive regulatory T
cells)
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 8 | PHYSIOLOGY
IMMUNOLOGY
MARIA RHONA G. BERGANTIN, MD, MSC
DAISY ILAGAN-TAGARDA, MD
mediators, (3) synthesis and secretion Antigen sensitized cells release cytokines
of cytokines following a secondary contact with the same
Release of mast cell mediators, which antigen
include vasoactive amines Cytokines induce inflammatory reactions and
(histamines) and proteases, activate and attract macrophages
arachidonic acid metabolites and
cytokines A4.1. Example: Tuberculosis
Anaphylaxis
- most severe form of immediate 8. Therapeutic Uses of Antibodies
hypersensitivity
- characterized by hypotension, tissue 8.1. Passive Immunization: is the administration of
edema and bronchiolar constriction and immunoglobulin prepared from individuals known to
cause death due to circulatory and have high levels of antibodies specific to an
infectious agent(s)
respiratory failure
Late phase response:
8.1.1. Indications for passive immunization
- may follow immediate hypersensitivity in In immunocompromised host if the ability to
the ensuing hours or days due to generate a sufficient immune response to
eosinophils that migrate in the inflamed vaccination is in doubt
areas due to chemoattractant cytokines In patients who cannot make antibodies in
released by activated mast cells and TH sufficient time to protect against disease
cells. Antivenin for snake bite
- eosinophils release mediators that prolong Intravenous Immune Globulin
the inflammation and further sensitize the Replacement in some individuals who
tissues. Macrophages may infiltrate the innately do not have antibodies or have very
area causing tissue destruction low levels of antibodies
A3.1. Examples:
malaria
infective endocarditis
glomerulonephritis