Biochemistry Revalida 2021

BIOCHEMISTRY REVALIDA 2021
QUESTION RATIONALE
1. Isoenzymes are utilized as markers in the diagnosis of
certain clinical conditions because: A. They are present in significant concentration in
a. they are present in significant concentration in specific cells
specific cells Serum enzymes and isoenzymes are of clinical interest
b. they differ in their electrophoretic rates of migration because they can be used as molecular markers of tissue
of their high catalytic activity damage. Normally, cell membranes are impermeable to
c. of the unique combination of their subunits in enzymes and hence enzyme activities in the serum are
forming the active polymeric especies very low compared with those in cells. Tissue damage
d. they exhibit optimum activity within a very narrow which renders the cell membrane permeable will result in
pH range the leakage of soluble cell contents, including enzymes,
into the serum. In diseases where this takes place the
serum concentrations of enzymes are elevated above
those found in the healthy state. Therefore, assays of
serum enzymes are routinely employed to determine
whether, and to what extent, tissue damage has occurred
in patients reporting appropriate symptoms.
2. A newborn develops jaundice that requires laboratory

evaluation. Which of the following porphyrin derivatives C. Bilirubin
is conjugated, reacts directly, and is a major component Bilirubin takes place in three stages: uptake by the liver,
of bile? conjugation with glucoronic acid, and secretion in the
a. Bilirubin diglucuronide bile.Bilirubin is removed from albumin and taken up at
b. Biliverdin the sinusoidal surface of hepatocytes by a large capacity,
c. Bilirubin saturable facilitated transport system. Bilirubin is
d. Stercobilin nonpolar, and would persist in cell (e.g. bound to lipids) if
not converted to a more water soluble form by
conjugation with glucoronic acid. Secretion of conjugated
bilirubin into the bile occurs by an active transport
mechanism, which probably is rate-limiting for the entire
process of hepatic bilirubin metabolism.
3. Which clinical laboratory observation is suggestive of

Hartnup’s disease? D. High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole derivatives
a. Elevated plasma tyrosine and methionine levels Hartnup disorder is an autosomal recessive metabolic
b. Extremely high levels of citrulline in urine syndrome caused by impaired transport of neutral amino
c. Elevation of glutamine in blood and urine acids both in the kidneys and intestines, particularly
d. High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole tryptophan.
derivatives
4. Inhibition of ATP synthesis during oxidative
phosphorylation by oligomycin is thought to be due to: A. Blocking of the proton gradient between NADH-Q
a. Blocking of the proton gradient between NADH-Q reductase & QH2
reductase & QH2 Oligomycin A inhibits ATP synthase by blocking its proton
b. Inhibition of mitochondrial ATPase channel (FO subunit), which is necessary for oxidative
c. Dissociation of cytochrome c from mitochondrial phosphorylation of ADP to ATP (energy production). The
membranes inhibition of ATP synthesis by oligomycin A will
d. Blocking of the proton gradient between significantly reduce electron flow through the electron
cytochrome C1 and cytochrome C transport chain; however, electron flow is not stopped
completely due to a process known as proton leak or
mitochondrial uncoupling.[1] This process is due to
facilitated diffusion of protons into the mitochondrial
matrix through an uncoupling protein such as
thermogenin, or UCP1.
5. After a drinking spree of an Indian man and his friend

who is of Filipino descent are sharing conversation over A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
drinks at a party. After the Indian man finishes his Alcohol dehydrogenase is our primary defense against
second bottle of beer, he notices that his friend, despite alcohol, a toxic molecule that compromises the function
having drunk only half his drink, appears flushed in the of our nervous system. The high levels of alcohol
face. His friend then complains of dizziness and dehydrogenase in our liver and stomach detoxify about
headache and asks to be driven at ER .The marked one stiff drink each hour.
difference in tolerance to alcohol illustrated by these
men is most likely due to a gene encoding which of the If you do have aldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency, but
following enzymes? still drink, you are at a higher risk of alcohol-related
a. Alcohol dehydrogenase cancers, such as cancer of the esophagus (the tube
b. Alcohol reductase between your mouth and your stomach). The risk is
c. Acetate dehydrogenase highest for those with partial deficiency.
d. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
e. Aldehyde aminotransferase
6. Which of the following mutations is most likely to lethal
a. Insertion of one nucleotide A. Insertion of Nucleotide
b. Substitution of methylcytosine for cytosine Frameshift mutations are among the most deleterious
c. Substitution of adenine for cytosine changes to the coding sequence of a protein. They are
d. Substitution of cytosine for guanine extremely likely to lead to large-scale changes to
e. Deletion of three nucleotides polypeptide length and chemical composition, resulting in
a non-functional protein that often disrupts the
biochemical processes of a cell.
7. A noncompetitive enzyme inhibitor

a. Decreases Vmax and increases Km.. B. Decreases Vmax and has no effect on Km
b. Decreases Vmax and has no effect on Km. Uncompetitive inhibition, which has the odd property of a
c. Has no effect on Vmax orKm. reduced Vmax as well as reduced Km. Non-competitive
d. Has no effect on Vmax and increases Km. inhibitors bind to the enzyme or the enzyme-substrate
e. Has no effect on Vmax and decreases Km complex at a site different from the active site, decreasing
the activity of the enzyme, thus, Vmax is decreased. While
in competitive inhibitors, Vmax remains the same, but
apparent Km is increased.
8. Defects in glucose uptake into muscle cells are

characteristic of insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes and B. Facilitated diffusion followed by phosphorylation 2
the metabolic syndrome. This phenomenon is likely to GLUT4 is part of a family of glucose transporter proteins
be due to reduced activity of a transporter that operates containing 12-transmembrane domains. It is expressed
by what mechanism? primarily in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue. Unique N-
a. Active transport coupled to a sodium-gated channel terminal and COOH-terminal sequences are responsible
b. Facilitated diffusion followed by phosphorylation 2 for GLUT4’s responsiveness to insulin signaling and
c. Active transport coupled to ATP hydrolysis membrane trafficking. The transportation of glucose
d. Active transport involving antiport with Cl− & across the cell membrane occurs via GLUT4’s mechanism
HCO3−ions 4 of ATP-independent facilitative diffusion. Once glucose
e. Active transport coupled to outward potassium influxes into the cell, it can be metabolized for energy or
current lipid synthesis, or stored as glycogen
9. Despite the fact that trans fatty acids are unsaturated,
their contributions to atherosclerosis are similar to D. Relatively linear structures
those of saturated fats. This similarity in physiologic Trans fatty acids are unsaturated fatty acids; however,
action can be attributed to which of the following? they contain at least one double bond in the “trans”
a. Solubilities in water configuration, the thing that makes them more similar to
b. Tendency to form triglyceride saturated than unsaturated fat
c. Similar tissue distributions
d. Relatively linear structures
e. Similar rates of metabolism
10. The insulin resistance that is the hallmark of type 2

diabetes mellitus is thought to arise from multiple B. Sedentary lifestyle
factors. Of the putative contributing factors listed While genetics, aging and ethnicity play roles in
below, which is likely to be the most direct contributor developing insulin sensitivity, the driving forces behind
to the disease? insulin resistance include excess body weight, too much
a. Endocrine signals from the visceral adipose belly fat, a lack of exercise, smoking, and even skimping
b. Sedentary lifestyle on sleep.
c. Death of pancreatic beta cells
d. Increased mass of adipose in thighs and buttocks
e. Dysfunction of lipid metabolism in live
11. A student finished eating a well-balanced, 750-
kilocalorie meal just 1 hour ago and has since been D. Glucagon
sitting quietly watching television. Which of the Hormone levels change when products of digestion enter
following substances would NOT be elevated in this the blood. Insulin levels rises as a result of increased
student’s blood? blood glucose levels and to a lesser extent increased
a. Fatty acids blood levels of amino acids. Glucagon levels fall in
b. Insulin response to glucose but rise in response to amino acids.
c. Amino acids Overall, after a mixed meal (containing carbohydrate, fat,
d. Glucagon and protein) glucagon levels remain fairly constant or are
e. Glucose reduced slightly in blood.
12. At ER, a 14-year-old girl complaint of lightheadedness.
She stated that she felt cold and nearly fainted several C. Ketogenesis
times, very thirsty, eats like a horse but never gain Age and signs and symptoms of the patient is consistent
weight. On physical examination reveals a thin girl who with Type 1 DM. DM affects liver, as low insulin levels
is at the 30th percentile for height and weight. A rapid (Type 1) or insensitivity to insulin (Type 2) results in
dipstick test reveals glucose in her urine. In evaluation of increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, which
LIVER would reveal an increased rate of the following contribute to the elevated blood levels. In type 1 DM,
processes? decreased insulin and elevated glucagon levels cause
a. Glycogenesis adipose tissue to release increased amounts of fatty acids,
b. Fatty acid synthesis which re converted to ketone bodies via ketogenesis by
c. Ketogenesis the liver.
d. Protein synthesis
e. Glycolysis
13. A 22-year-old woman engaging in a protest against
Duterte presidency goes on a hunger strike in a B. Ketone bodies
Malacanang palace. She refuses all foods offers except
for water through the first 2weeks. An examination of a
sample of this woman’s brain tissue would reveal that
her brain had adapted to using which of the following as
fuel?
a. Amino acids
b. Ketone bodies
c. Glycerol
d. Free fatty acids
e. Glucose
14. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes would
impair the body’s ability to maintain blood glucose D. Phosphorylase
concentration during the first 24 hours of a prolonged Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the sequential
fast? phosphorolysis of glycogen to release glucose-1-
a. PEP carboxykinase phosphate; it is thus the key enzyme in the utilization of
b. Glycogen synthase muscle and liver reserves of glycogen.
c. Debranching enzyme
d. Phosphorylase In the fasting state, increase in secretion of glucagon by α
e. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase cells of the pancreas inhibits glycogen synthetase, and
activates glycogen phosphorylase in the liver. The
resulting glucose-6-phosphate is hydrolyzed by glucose 6-
phosphatase, and glucose is released into the
bloodstream for use by the brain and erythrocytes.
15. At ER a 7-year-old girl has a 1-month history of foul-

smelling diarrhea and in frequency to be 4–6 stools per D. Biliary insufficiency
day. Examination of a stool sample reveals that it is Biliary insufficiency - biliary insufficiency causes reduced
bulky and greasy also confirms the presence of fats. excretion of bile salts which leads to reduced digestion of
Other finding are unremarkable. Further evaluation of fats. As a consequence, ingested fat would not be
this patient would likely reveal which of the following digested and would remain in the chyme and ultimately in
conditions? feces, leading steatorrhea.
a. Lactose intolerance
b. Ileal disease Lactose intolerance - bloating, abdominal pain, diarrhea,
c. Diabetes and excessive flatulence
d. Biliary insufficiency
e. Giardiasis Ileal disease – Diarrhea, Fever, Fatigue., Abdominal pain
and cramping, Blood in your stool, Mouth sores, Reduced
appetite and weight loss, Pain or drainage near or around
the anus due to inflammation from a tunnel into the skin
(fistula)
Diabetes - People with diabetes may often need to pass a

significant amount of loose stool at night. Being unable to
control a bowel movement, or having incontinence, is also
common in people who have diabetes. Diarrhea may be
regular, or it may alternate with periods of regular bowel
movements.
Giardiasis - Abdominal cramping, bloating, and flatulence

occur in 70-75% of symptomatic patients. Symptoms of
chronic infection include chronic diarrhea, malaise,
nausea, and anorexia
16. At ER 35-year-old man is brought following a motor
vehicle accident noted to be confused and semi- B. Acetoacetate
comatose state. His wife explains that he has DM type 1 Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is an acute, major, life-
dia-betes mellitus with insulin as prime medication. threatening complication of diabetes characterized by
Physical examination reveals peripheral cyanosis and hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, and ketonuria.
dehydration. A fruity odor is detectable on his breath.
Random blood sugar reveals severe hyperglycemia. Of Acetoacetate, acetone, and beta‐hydroxybutyrate are the
the following, testing of the patient’s urine would likely three ketone bodies produced in DKA. The nitroprusside
reveal ABNORMALLY HIGH levels in value? test predominantly detects acetoacetate (and, to a much
a. Hemoglobin smaller extent, acetone) but does not react with beta‐
b. Acetoacetate hydroxybutyrate, which is the predominant circulating
c. Pyruvate ketone body in DKA.
d. Lactate
e. Protein
17. At ER a mother with 9-month-old girl is suffering from
vomiting, lethargy, and poor feeding behavior. The A. Hereditary fructose intolerance
mother reports that the symptoms began shortly after The symptoms of HFI include:
the baby was given a portion of a popsicle and mashed Poor feeding as a baby
bananas by her grandparents. The baby’s discomfort Irritability
seemed to resolve after breastfeeding was resumed. Increased or prolonged neonatal jaundice
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Vomiting
a. Hereditary fructose intolerance Convulsions
b. G6PD deficiency Excessive sleepiness
c. Galactosemia Intolerance for fruits
d. Essential fructosuria Avoidance of fruits and fructose/sucrose-
e. Pyruvate kinase deficiency containing foods
Doing well after eating foods without
fructose/sucrose
18. Which of the following organs or tissues does NOT need
to be supplied with glucose for energy production C. Brain
during a prolonged fast? Glucose is virtually the sole fuel for the human brain,
a. RBCs except during prolonged starvation. In starvation, ketone
b. Cornea bodies generated by the liver partly replace glucose as
c. Brain fuel for the brain.
d. Lens
e. Liver
19. Inborn errors of urea synthesis manifested by
hyperammonemia: B. All of the above
a. deficiency of argininosuccinase
b. all of the above
c. deficiency of carbamoyl PO4 synthetase
d. deficiency of ornithine transcarbamylase
20. True regarding the urea cycle:

a. All of the above A. All of the above
b. The synthesis of citrulline takes place in the cytosol The urea cycle comprises five enzymes- carbamoyl
c. The second ammonia that is detoxified thru the phosphate synthetase I, ornithine transcarbamylase,
cycle enters at the level of arginine arginine-succinate synthetase, arginine-succinate lyase,
d. Arginase is a major control enzyme of the pathway and arginase. Ornithine reacts with carbamoyl phosphate
to form citrulline. The product, citrulline, is transported to
the cytosol in exchange for cytoplasmic ornithine.
Arginine is the product formed after introduction of the
second nitrogen atom into the urea cycle.
21. It is an amphibolic pathway and regarded as the final

common pathway of metabolism: C. Citric acid cycle
a. Krebs-Henseleit The Citric acid cycle is an amphibolic pathway which
b. Glycogenesis involves both the catabolism of carbohydrates and fatty
c. Citric acid cycle acids and the synthesis of anabolic precursors for amino-
d. Embden-Meyerhof pathway acid synthesis (e.g. α-ketogluturate and oxaloacetate). It is
the final pathway where the oxidative catabolism of
carbohydrates, amino acids, and fatty acids converge,
their carbon skeletons being converted to CO2.
22. All of the following enzymes catalyze substrate level of

phosphorylation, EXCEPT: D. Phosphofructokinase
a. succinate thiokinase Substrate level phosphorylation is the formation of ATP
b. pyruvate kinase by the direct transfer of phosphate group to ADP. It
c. phosphoglycerate kinase occurs in glycolysis and Krebs cycle:
d. phosphofructokinase In glycolysis:
- When 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) is
converted into 3-phosphoglycerate (3PG) by the
enzyme Phosphoglycerate kinase.
- When Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) is converted
into pyruvate by the enzyme Pyruvate kinase.
In Krebs cycle:
- When Succinyl-CoA is converted into Succinate
by the enzyme Succinate thiokinase
23. True regarding Vitamin B12: *

a. It cannot be given in large doses for long periods of B. All statements are correct
time because it causes toxicity Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient that's almost
b. All statements are correct exclusively found in animal-sourced foods, such as fish,
c. It is only found in animal sources meat, dairy products, and eggs. Vitamin B12 deficiency is
d. Deficiency develops if a person undergoes total known to develop within 5 or 6 years after total
gastroectomy gastrectomy. High doses of B12 may lead to negative
health outcomes.
24. Structural characteristics of the sphingomyelins include:
a. sphingosine and phosphorylserine D. Ceramide and phosphorylcholine
b. sphingosine, ethanolamine and phsphatidic acid Phosphatidylcholine reacts with
c. ceramide and sphingosine ceramide to form sphingomyelin.
d. ceramide and phosphorylcholine
25. Ketonemia arising from the utilization of fat as the major alternative source of energy occurs in:
a. starvation
b. all of the above
c. diabetes mellitus
d. prolonged consumption of high fat diet
26. Which of the following molecule is the largest energy
reserve of the human body in terms of kilocalories? * D. Adipose tissue triglycerides
a. muscle glycogen Fat, which is stored as triglyceride in adipose tissue
b. muscle triglycerides underneath the skin and within skeletal muscles (called
c. liver glycogen intramuscular triglyceride ), is the other major fuel for the
d. adipose tissue triglycerides aerobic system, and is the largest store of energy in the
body.
27. Glycolysis, glycogenesis and lipogenesis are stimulated
by this hormone: D. Insulin
a. epinephrine Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but
b. glucagons suppresses gluconeogenesis.
c. cortisol
d. insulin
28. Which of the following transport hormones from the
hypothalamus through the axons to the posterior D. Neurophysins
pituitary? Neurophysins are carrier proteins which transport the
a. vasopressin hormones oxytocin and vasopressin to the posterior
b. none of the above pituitary from the paraventricular and supraoptic nucleus
c. endorphins of the hypothalamus, respectively.
d. neurophysins
29. True of the The Malate Aspartate Shuttle
a. transports NADH from the cytosol into the A. Transports NADH from the cytosol into the
mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation
b. none of the above The malate-aspartate (M-A) shuttle provides an important
c. provides reducing equivalents for reductive mechanism to regulate glycolysis and lactate metabolism
biosynthesis of fats in the heart by transferring reducing equivalents from
d. can be considered as an anaplerotic reaction cytosol into mitochondria.
e. less energetically efficient than the a
glycerophoshate shuttle
30. Hepatocytes contribute to the overall body content of

ketone bodies primarily because of the absence of: C. 3-ketoacyl-CoA transferase or acetoacetate succinyl
a. HMG-CoA lyase coA transferase
b. β-ketothiolase necessary to hydrolyze acetoacetyl Diminution in the Succinyl CoA transferase catalytic
CoA activity may lead to a rise in the concentration of ketone
c. 3-ketoacyl-CoA transferase or acetoacetate succinyl bodies
CoA transferase
d. HMG-CoA synthetase
31. The molecule that helps stabilize the action of
pancreatic lipase on dietary lipids: A. Colipase
a. colipase Colipase serves as a protein cofactor for pancreatic lipase
b. chenodeoxycholic acid and is necessary for intestinal fat digestion.
c. cholic acid
d. enteropeptidase Chenodeoxycholic acid works by dissolving the cholesterol
that makes gallstones and inhibiting production of
cholesterol in the liver and absorption in the intestines.
Cholic acid aid in digestion of fats and certain nutrients.
Enteropeptidase converts trypsinogen into its active form

trypsin, resulting in the subsequent activation of
pancreatic digestive enzymes.
32. Aside from urea, the main circulatory system carrier of

nitrogen atoms destined for excretion by the kidney is: C. Glutamine
a. glucose When glutamine is produced in excess in the liver, it is
b. alanine converted to ammonia by glutaminase. The liver urea
c. glutamine cycle converts ammonia to urea that is excreted in the
d. asparagine urine.
e. glutamate
33. Choose the correct precursor-product relationship from
the following: D. Dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine
a. tyrosine is a precursor to melatonin
b. tyrosine is a precursor to dihydroxyphenylalanine
c. melatonin is a precursor of serotonin
d. dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine
34. Which clinical condition does not involve a defect in

purine metabolism? A. Orotic aciduria
a. Orotic aciduria a. Orotic aciduria - a disease is caused by deficiency of
b. Adenosine deaminase deficiency enzymes Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase and OMP
c. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome decarboxylase or by deficiency only of the latter. These
d. Gout enzymes normally catalyze the formation of uridine
monophosphate from orotic acid during pyrimidine
synthesis.
b. Adenosine deaminase deficiency - . A deficiency of ADA

(Adenosine deaminase) results in an accumulation of
adenosine, which is converted to its ribonucleotide or
deoxyribonucleotide forms by cellular kinases. In a normal
individual, ADA catalyzes the deamination of adenosine
and 2’-deoxyadenosine which give rise to inosine and
deoxyinosine, respectively. Further conversion of these
deaminated nucleosides leads to hypoxanthine, which can
be either transformed irreversibly into uric acid (end
product of purine degradation) or salvaged into
mononucleasides.
c. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome - a rare, X-linked, recessive

disorder associated with a virtually complete deficiency of
HGPRT (hypoxanthine- guanine phosphoribosyl-
transferase). This deficiency results in an inability to
salvage hypoxanthine or guanine, from which excessive
amounts of uric acid, the end product of purine
degradation, are produced.
d. Gout - A disorder characterized by high levels of uric

acid (end product of purine degradation) in blood
(hyperuricemia), as a result of either the overproduction
or underexcretion of uric acid.
35. Salvage reactions that generate purine and pyrimidine

nucleosides and nucleotides are characterized as: D. Requiring less energy than does the de novo synthesis
a. providing greater output of purines and pyrimidines Salvage pathways are considerably more energy-efficient
b. involving the same enzymes as in de novo synthesis than de novo pathways, which require 5 (pyrimidine) or
c. more efficient than nucleotide synthesis from new (purine) moles of ATP for each mole of nucleotide
precursors produced. Salvage of purines is catalyzed by adenine
d. requiring less energy than does the de novo phosphoribosyltransferase (APRT) and hypoxanthine
synthesis guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT). Pyrimidine
salvage is catalyzed by pyrimidine phosphoribosyl
transferase and thymidine kinase. In de novo synthesis,
purine uses PRPP synthetase, Glutamine PRPP
amidinotransferase, adenylosuccinate synthetase and IMP
dehydrogenase while pyrimidine uses carbamoyl
phosphate synthetase II, aspartate transcarbamoylase,
dihydroorotase, dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, orotate
phosphoribosyl transferase, OMP decarboxylase and CTP
synthetase.
36. Which of the following enzymes when deficient will

result in the accumulation of gangliosides in patients D. Hexosaminidase
suffering for Tay Sach’s Disease? Enzyme deficient Disease Clinical
a. aryl sulfatase manifestation
b. sphingomyelinase Arylsulfatase A Metachromatic Mental
c. glucocerebrosidase leukodystrophy retardation
d. Hexosaminidase and
psychologic
disturbances in
adult;
demyelination
Sphingomyelinase Niemann-Pick Enlarged liver
Disease and spleen;
mental
retardation;
fatal in early
life
Glucocerebrosidase Gaucher Enlarged liver
(B-glucosidase) disease and spleen;
erosion of long
bones; mental
retardation in
infants
Hexosaminidase A Tay-Sachs Mental
disease retardation;
blindness;
muscular
weakness
37. Cyanide poisoning is very fatal. This is because cyanide
has this effect of the Electron Transport Chain: B. Inhibits cytochrome oxidase
a. inhibits complex III Cyanide binds to Fe3+ in heme-containing proteins. This
b. inhibits cytochrome oxidase inhibits the terminal cytochrome complex IV of the
c. uncouples oxidative phosphorylation electron transport chain. The blocklock of complex IV by
d. enhance the transport of electrons cyanide depletes ATP culminating in cell death. Oxygen is
unable to reoxidize the reduced cytochrome a3. Thus,
cellular respiration is inhibited, as well as ATP production,
in essence depriving the cells, tissue, and, ultimately, the
whole body of oxygen.
38. At high concentration of blood glucose, as in

uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, hemoglobin reacts with A. Glycosylated hemoglobin
glucose to form this compound which can be assayed to a. When blood glucose enters the erythrocytes, it
monitor glycemic control glycates the ε-amino group of lysyl residues and the
a. glycosylated hemoglobin amino terminals of hemoglobin forming the glycated/
b. hemochrome glycosylated hemoglobin. Since the half-life of an
c. methemoglobin erythrocyte is typically 60 days, the level of glycated
d. Hemin hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects the mean blood glucose
concentration over the preceding 6 to 8 weeks.
Measurement of HbA1c therefore provides valuable
information for management of diabetes mellitus.
b. Hemochrome - any iron-porphyrin coordination
complex with one or more strong-field axial ligands
such as pyridine
c. Oxidation of the heme component of hemoglobin to
the ferric (Fe3+) state forms methemoglobin, which
cannot bind oxygen.
d. Hemin is the oxidized form of heme that accumulates
in the cell when heme is being underutilized.
39. An attack of acute asthma has been attributed to

leukotrienes. Which of the following statements is TRUE A. Components of slow reacting substance of
regarding leukotrienes? anaphylaxis
a. components of slow reacting substance of The cysteinyl leukotrienes (cys-LTs), leukotriene C4,
anaphylaxis (LTC4), LTD4, and LTE4, were identified as active
b. inhibit the release of lysosomal enzymes components of slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis
c. produced mainly in the nervous tissue (SRS-A) that cause contraction of smooth muscle and
d. decreased vascular permeability increases in vascular permeability. Roles of cysteinyl
leukotrienes and their receptors in immune cell-related
functions.
40. Bilirubin is an important end-product during the course

of hemolysis. Which of the following statements is TRUE D. Excreted from the liver in
regarding bilirubin? the form of bilirubin
a. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to complete diglucuronides
obstruction of the common bile ducts is generally Bilirubin is produced in the
accompanied by increased urobilinogen in the urine macrophage-monocyte system
b. unconjugated bilirubin is readily excreted in the by the breakdown of
urine (conjugated) hemoglobin to biliverdin and
c. conjugation mainly it takes place in the kidneys then bilirubin. Bilirubin is
(liver) carried in the plasma to the liver, where it is conjugated
d. excreted from the liver in the form of bilirubin to form bilirubin diglucuronide and excreted in the bile.
diglucuronides
41. Which one of the following causes a frame-shift
mutation? E. Deletion
a. Transition A frameshift mutation is a genetic mutation caused by a
b. Transversion deletion or insertion in a DNA sequence that shifts the
c. Substitution of pyrimidine for purine way the sequence is read.
d. Substitution of purine for pyrimidine
e. Deletion
42. Most thalassemias are the result of mutations causing
a. RNA processing or production defects D. Absence of both A and B hemoglobin
b. “Sticky” hemoglobin Thalassemia is an inherited autosomal recessive disease
c. Increased α chain synthesis resulting from mutations in the α- and β-globin gene
d. Absence of both A and B hemoglobin clusters on chromosome 16 and chromosome 11,
e. Protein folding problems respectively. It is characterized by the absence or reduced
synthesis of globin chains of hemoglobin and includes two
main types, α- and β- thalassemia
A thalassemia can be caused by a variety of mutations,

including entire gene deletions, or substitutions or
deletions of one to many nucleotides in the DNA. [Note:
Each thalassemia can be classified as either a disorder in
which no globin chains are produced (αo- or βo-
thalassemia), or one in which some chains are synthesized
but at a reduced level (α+- or β+-thalassemia).]
43. Of the following would not be expected to result in a

dysfunctional protein? E. Mutation affecting the splice site of an intron
a. Deletion of a single base of a codon near the middle Introns occupy about 40% on average of the total length
of a potential protein of genes, which means that most randomly occurring
b. Insertion of two bases in the code for the amino end mutations will fall into intron regions, and do not affect
c. Substitution of glycine for alanine at the carboxyl protein sequences and functions.
terminus
d. Nonsense mutation affecting the middle of a
potential protein product
e. Mutation affecting the splice site of an intron
44. Which of the following best describes the negatively
controlled lactose operon in Escherichia coli? D. The repressor (lactose) alters the catabolite
a. An inducer (lactose) binds to the operator, repression protein and uncovers the operator and
enhancing simultaneous transcription and promoter, allowing simultaneous transcription and
translation of β-galactosidase (z), permease (y), and translation of β-galactosidase (z), permease (y), and
transacetylase (a) genes transacetylase (a) genes
b. An inducer (lactose) alters the repressor protein and
uncovers the operator and promoter, allowing When only glucose is available: In this case, the lac operon
simultaneous transcription and translation of β- is repressed (turned off). Repression is mediated by the
galactosidase (z), permease (y), and transacetylase repressor protein binding via a helix-turn-helix motif to
(a) genes the operator site, which is downstream of the promoter
c. The repressor (lactose) alters the operator protein region. Binding of the repressor interferes with the
and uncovers the promoter, allowing simultaneous progress of RNA polymerase and blocks transcription of
transcription and translation of β-galactosidase (z), the structural genes. This is an example of negative
permease (y), and transacetylase (a) genes regulation.
d. The repressor (lactose) alters the catabolite
repression protein and uncovers the operator and
promoter, allowing simultaneous transcription and
translation of β-galactosidase (z), permease (y), and
transacetylase (a) genes
e. An inducer (lactose) alters the repressor protein,
uncovers the β-galactosidase (z) operator, and
allows transcription. The inducer also uncovers
separate operators for the permease (y) and
transacetylase (a) genes
45. The lactose operon is negatively controlled by the
lactose repressor and positively controlled by which of D. Decreased concentrations of glucose, increased
the following? concentration of cAMP
a. Increased concentrations of glucose and cyclic AMP As glucose levels decrease the concentration of cAMP
(cAMP) increases activating CAP which in turn binds to the CAP
b. decreased concentrations of glucose and cAMP site stimulating transcription. The cAMP-CAP complex is
c. Increased concentrations of glucose, decreased called a positive regulator.
concentration of cAMP
d. Decreased concentrations of glucose, increased
concentration of cAMP
e. Increased concentrations of glucose and adenosine
triphosphate (ATP)
46. Which of the structural domains of mammalian
regulatory factors may be called intracellular receptors? B. Response elements
a. Transcription-activating domains These receptor–ligand complexes accumulate in the
b. Response elements nucleus, dimerize, and bind to specific regulatory DNA
c. Antirepressor domains sequences (hormone-response elements) in association
d. Ligand-binding domains with coactivator proteins, thereby causing promoter
e. DNA-binding domains activation and increased transcription of targeted genes.
In association with corepressors, transcription is
decreased.
47. Occurs in the cytoplasm. The life expectancy of mRNA
molecules can vary, as well as their ability to bind B. RNA splicing
ribosomes. mRNA can get stuck in the cytoplasm where I didn’t find a solid answer anywhere but I checked that
it deteriorates and parts of it are destroyed. choices A,C and D are for DNAs so it makes sense to
a. Translational Control choose B (but still, correct me if I’m wrong) – Nembuu
b. RNA splicing
c. chromatin remodeling
d. transcription control
48. Concerning sickle cell anemia and the structure of hemoglobin S, which one of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
a. The complementary hydrophobic pocket at the EF corner of the β-chain is inaccessible in the T form of
hemoglobin S.
b. The solubility of deoxy-hemoglobin S is greatly reduced compared to the oxygenated form.
c. The molecular consequence of sickle cell anemia results from the mutation of glutamate 6 to valine in the β-
chain of hemoglobin.
d. Sickle cell formation is favored by low oxygen tension in the tissues.
e. Sickle cell anemia does not result from oxidation of the heme iron to the ferric form
49. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE

concerning sickle cell anemia (hemoglobin SS)? D. Premature red cell breakdown leads to anemia
a. Heart attacks are common among children with the When red blood cells sickle, they break down
disease prematurely, which can lead to anemia.
b. It’s patients have an elevated level of hemoglobin
A2
c. It’s inheritance follows an autosomal dominant
pattern
d. Premature red cell breakdown leads to anemia
50. Why does sickle cell anemia NOT cause problems for
fetuses that carry the genetic defect (hemoglobin SS)? B. Maternal oxygen affinity differs from that of the fetus
a. The imbalance of globin chain synthesis is less Fetal hemoglobin binds to oxygen more strongly than
during fetal life adult hemoglobin, enabling the transfer of oxygen from
b. Maternal oxygen affinity differs from that of the mother to fetus prenatally.
fetus
c. Stillborn infants with sickle cell anemia are common
d. The synthesis of hemoglobin SS does not begin until
around the time of birth
51. Which of the following processes would NOT

increase the chances of causing mutations in C. Translational frameshifting by ribosomes
DNA? * The deamination of cytosine is potentially mutagenic. Loss of 3' to 5'
a) Deamination of cytosine bases exonuclease activity in DNA polymerase would be a loss of the ability
b) Loss of 3' to 5' exonuclease activity in to proofread and synthesize DNA in the gaps created by the removal
DNA polymerase of RNA primers and which could cause mutations. Ultraviolet (UV)
c) Translational frameshifting by ribosomes light induces specific mutations in the cellular and skin genome such
d) Exposure to UV light as UV-signature and triplet mutations, the mechanism of which has
been thought to involve translesion DNA synthesis (TLS) over UV-
induced DNA base damage.
Berg JM, Tymoczko JL, Stryer L. Biochemistry. 5th edition. New York:
W H Freeman; 2002. Section 27.6, Mutations Involve Changes in the
Base Sequence of DNA. Available from:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK22525 Bhagat, Rina,
"Molecular consequences of the loss of 3' to 5' exonuclease activity of
DNA polymerases delta and epsilon" (2009). Texas Medical Center
Dissertations (via ProQuest). AAI3358124.
Ikehata H, Ono T. The mechanisms of UV mutagenesis. J Radiat Res.
2011;52(2):115-25. doi: 10.1269/jrr.10175. PMID: 21436607.
52. When cytosine deamination occurs in DNA all

of the following activities are needed to repair C. DNA primase
the lesion except for which ONE? * Deamination converts a cytosine base into a
a) DNA ligase Uracil by Uracil-DNA glycosylase. The uracil is detected and removed
b) Uracil DNA glycosylase by AP endonucleases, leaving a base-less nucleotide. The base-less
c) DNA primase nucleotide is removed, leaving a 1-nucleotide hole in the DNA
d) AP endonuclease backbone. The hole is filled with the right base by a DNA polymerase,
e) DNA polymerase I and the gap is sealed by a ligase
Duncan, B., Miller, J. Mutagenic deamination of cytosine residues in

DNA. Nature 287, 560–561 (1980). https://doi.org/10.1038/287560a0
53. The key mechanistic failure in Xeroderma

Pigmentosum patients involves which ONE of the A. Inability to excise a section of UV damaged DNA
following? * In people with xeroderma pigmentosum, DNA damage is not repaired
a) Inability to excise a section of UV normally. As more abnormalities form in DNA, cells malfunction and
damaged DNA eventually become cancerous or die. Many of the genes related to
b) Loss of proofreading capacity xeroderma pigmentosum are part of a DNA-repair process known as
c) Inability to synthesize DNA across the nucleotide excision repair (NER).
damaged region
d) Mutation in the photolyase gene https://medlineplus.gov/genetics/condition/xeroderma-
e) Mutation on one of the mismatch repair pigmentosum/
components
54. Finely tuned gene transcription levels in cells

are typically controlled by which ONE of the E. Unique combinations of positively or negatively acting
following? * transcription factors
a) The relative concentration of glucose Gene expression is primarily controlled at the
versus lactose in the cells level of transcription, largely as a result of binding of proteins to
b) Presence of either F factor or TFIID specific sites on DNA. Regulation of protein production is largely
c) The presence or absence of mutations in achieved by modulating access of RNA polymerase to the structural
promoters or other regulatory regions gene being transcribed.
d) A combination of messenger half-life and
transport of mRNAs https://sphweb.bumc.bu.edu/otlt/MPH Modules/PH/DNA-
e) Unique combinations of positively or Genetics/DNA-Genetics7.html
negatively acting transcription factors
55. DNA sequence that move between

chromosomes and shut down genes. They are D. transposons
among 40% of the human genome consisting of Transposons (Tns) are mobile segments of DNA that move in an
the same short sequence of DNA continuously essentially random manner from one site to another on the same or a
repeated. * different chromosome.
a) transcription control
b) TATA box Ferrier, D. (2014). Lippincott’s illustrated reviews:
c) translation control Biochemistry 6th ed. USA: Wolters Kluwer Lippincott Williams &
d) transposons Wilkins.
e) epigenetics
TATA box is thought to ease the dissociation of the two DNA strands
so that RNA polymerase bound to the promoter region can have
access to the nucleotide sequence of its immediately downstream
template strand.
Epigenetics, the hereditary transmission of information by a means
other than the sequence of nucleotides that comprise the genome
Rodwell, V. et. al. (2018). Harper’s illustrated biochemistry 31st ed.

USA: McGraw-Hill Education.
56. Which of the following genes of the E. coli

“Lac operon”codes for a constitutive protein? * D. The i gene
a) The a gene A regulatory gene, the lacI gene, codes for the repressor protein (a
b) The z gene trans-acting factor) that binds to the O site with high affinity. [Note:
c) The p gene The lacI gene has its own promoter.]
d) The i gene
e) The c gene In contrast to the inducible lacZ (encodes β-Galactosidase), lacy
(encodes galactoside permease, a transport protein required for the
entry of lactose into the cell), and lacA (encodes thiogalactoside
transacetylase, whose function is unknown) genes, whose expression
is regulated, the lacI gene is constitutive. Its gene product, the
repressor protein, is always made and is active unless the inducer is
present.
Ferrier, D. (2014). Lippincott’s illustrated reviews:

Biochemistry 6th ed. USA: Wolters Kluwer Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins.
When the lacI gene has been mutated so that its product, LacI, is not
capable of binding to operator DNA, the organism will exhibit
constitutive expression of the lac operon.

57. The region of the Lac operon which must be
free (unbound) for structural gene transcription E. The operator locus
to occur is:* The regulatory portion of the operon is upstream of the three
a) The ‘a’ gene structural genes and consists of the promoter region where RNA
b) The operator locus polymerase binds and two additional sites, the operator (O) site and
c) The promoter site the CAP site, where regulatory proteins bind. The lacZ, lacY, and lacA
d) The ‘z’ gene genes are expressed only when the O site is empty, and the CAP site
e) The ‘i’ gene is bound by a complex of cyclic adenosine monophosphate and the
catabolite activator protein (CAP), sometimes called the cAMP
regulatory protein (CRP).

Wilkins.
When no inducer is present, the constitutively synthesized lacI gene

products form a repressor tetramer that binds to the operator.
Repressor-operator binding prevents the binding of RNA polymerase
and consequently prevents transcription of the lacZ, lacY, and lacA
structural genes into a polycistronic mRNA. When inducer is present,
but glucose is also present in the culture medium, the tetrameric
repressor molecules are conformationally altered by inducer, and
cannot efficiently bind to the operator locus (affinity of binding
reduced >1000-fold).

58. In the “Lac operon” concept, which of the

following is a protein?* A. Repressor
a) Repressor In contrast to the inducible lacZ, lacY, and lacA genes, whose
b) Operator expression is regulated, the lacI gene is constitutive. Its gene product,
c) Vector the repressor protein, is always made and is active unless the inducer
d) Inducer is present.
e) Promoter
Wilkins.
Operator consists of a specific nucleotide sequence that is recognized

by the repressor. Transcription begins near a promoter region,
located upstream from the group of structural genes. Associated
with the promoter is a short sequence, the operator, which
determines whether the genes are expressed or not.
Induction is the process whereby an inducer (a small molecule)
stimulates the transcription of an operon.
Binding of a repressor protein to the operator region revents the

binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter and inhibits transcription
of the structural genes of the operon. Repressor proteins are encoded
by regulatory genes, which may be located anywhere in the genome.
Lieberman, M. & Ricer, R. (2014). Biochemistry, molecular
biology, and genetics 6th ed. USA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
59. What is the result of mutation affecting

patients with hereditary nonpolyposis colon C. mismatch repair
cancer (HNPCC) have genes with microsatellite Hereditary non polyposis colon cancer in Lynch syndrome caused by
instability, that is, many regions containing errors that escaped proofreading.
abnormal, small loops of unpaired DNA, *
a) nucleoside ecxcision repair Topnotch Medical Board Prep Biochem 2020
b) depurination repair
c) mismatch repair
d) base excision repair
60. A 5-year-old boy has excessive freckling and

some erythema (redness) of his face, lips, neck, B. Thymine dimers
and upper extremities as well as some clouding of This is a case of Xeroderma pigmentosum due to exposure to UV light
his corneas and has a rough, raised lesion on his and should be repaired by nucleotide excision repair system.
neck. His guardian reports that he has a tendency
to sunburn easily and has an aversion to direct Topnotch Medical Board Prep Biochem 2020
sunlight. This patient reveals it to be a malignant
melanoma and most likely suffers from deficiency
of an enzyme involved in the repair of which type
of DNA damage? *
a) Mismatches
b) Thymine dimers
c) Abasic sites
d) Base adducts
e) Double-stranded breaks
f) Single-stranded breaks
61. A 37-year-old man reports suffering from

nausea, vomiting, and mild abdominal pain over E. RNA polymerase II
the past 7 hours, ever since he returned from a
hike in the woods during which he had picked and The wild mushroom must be the Amanita mushroom or death cap
eaten some wild mushrooms. His symptoms most that contains the peptide toxin alpha amanitin which inhibits the RNA
likely arise from toxin-induced inhibition of which Polymerase II, presents with gastrointestinal symptoms, acute liver
of the following enzymes? * failure and may be fatal, if Pol II is inhibited no mRNA no protein.
a) RNA polymerase I
b) Helicase Topnotch Medical Board Prep Biochem 2020
c) DNA polymerase
d) Topoisomerase
e) RNA polymerase II
f) Telomerase
62. Cancer cells avoid replicative senescence by

maintaining integrity of their chromosome ends C. Telomerase
through increased activity of which of the Telomeres are highly repetitive sequences T-G rich at the end of
following enzymes? * chromosomes, human cells undergo replicative senescence caused by
a) DNA polymerase structural changes in the telomeres by telomerase. Telomerase
b) Helicase activity are related to the development of human cancer. This
c) Telomerase prevent the erosion of the ends of chromosomes and allows for
d) RNA polymerase II unlimited cell division.
e) RNA polymerase I
f) Topoisomerase Topnotch Medical Board Prep Biochem 2020
63. A 7-year-old boy is referred by his school

nurse for evaluation of hyperactivity B. FMR1 (Fragile X)
accompanied by developmental delays in speech FMR1 (Fragile X): The FMR1 gene usually makes a protein called
and motor skills. The nurse is concerned about his fragile X mental retardation protein (FMRP). Signs and symptoms
IQ tests, which indicate mild mental retardation. include: Developmental delays (not sitting, walking, or talking at the
Family history indicates that his mother and same time as other children the same age); Learning disabilities
maternal aunt both have learning disabilities and (trouble learning new skills); and Social and behavior problems (such
one of his maternal uncles lives in a group home as not making eye contact, anxiety, trouble paying attention, hand
for the mentally retarded. Physical examination flapping, acting and speaking without thinking, and being very active).
shows that the boy is normo-cephalic and Males who have FXS usually have some degree of intellectual
normally pigmented. Analysis of a sample of this disability that can range from mild to severe. Females with FXS can
patient’s DNA for genetic abnormalities should have normal intelligence or some degree of intellectual
focus on which of the following genes? * disability. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) also occurs more
a) XP-A (Xeroderma pigmentosum gene) frequently in people with FXS.
b) FMR1 (Fragile X)
c) HD (Huntington disease) https://www.cdc.gov/ncbddd/fxs/facts.html
d) FANC genes (Fanconi anemia)
e) GALC (galactosylcerebrosidase, Krabbe
disease)
64. Positive control of induction is bestdescribed

as a control system in which anoperon functions * C. Only after a repressor protein is inactivated by an inducer
a) Unless it is switched off by a derepressed Prokaryotic operons contain an operator, a segment of DNA that
repressor protein regulates the activity of the structural genes of the operon. If the
b) Only after an inducer protein, which can operator is not bound by a repressor molecule, RNA polymerase
be inactivated by a corepressor, switches passes over the operator and reaches the protein-coding genes which
it on it transcribes to mRNA. If a repressor molecule is bound to the
c) Only after a repressor protein is operator, the polymerase is blocked and does not produce mRNA. As
inactivated by an inducer long as the repressor is bound to the operator, no proteins are made.
d) Only after an inducer protein, which is However, when an inducer molecule is present, it binds to the
activated by an inducer , switch it on repressor, causing the repressor to change shape so that it no longer
binds the operator. When this happens, the RNA polymerase can
proceed with transcription. One of the best-understood examples is
the inducible lactose operon of E. coli that illustrates both positive
and negative regulation.
When only lactose is available: In this case, the lac operon is induced
(maximally expressed, or turned on). A small amount of lactose is
converted to an isomer, allolactose. This compound is an inducer that
binds to the repressor protein, changing its conformation so that it
can no longer bind to the operator. In the absence of glucose,
adenylyl cyclase is active, and sufficient quantities of cAMP are made
and bind to the CAP protein. The cAMP–CAP trans-acting complex
binds to the CAP site, causing RNA polymerase to more efficiently
initiate transcription at the promoter site. This is an example of
positive regulation.
Lippincott’s Biochemistry 6th ed. P.817

65. Defective enzyme in Hurler’s syndrome is *
a) α-L-diuronidase A. α-L-diuronidase
b) Iduronate sulphatase α-L-diuronidase – Hurler’s Syndrome (MPS I H)
c) Arylsulphatase B Iduronate sulphatase – Hunter Syndrome (MPS II)
d) C-acetyl transferase
Lippincott’s Biochemistry 5th ed. P. 164
66. If the codon UAC on mRNA changes into UAG

as a result of a base substitution in DNA, it will C. nonsense mutation
result in * 1. Silent mutation: The codon containing the changed base may code
a) silent mutation for the same amino acid. For example, if the serine codon UCA is
b) acceptable missence mutation given a different third base-U-to become UCU, it still codes for serine.
c) nonsense mutation This is termed a "silent" mutation.
d) frameshift mutation
2. Missense mutation: The codon containing the changed base may
code for a different amino acid. For example, if the serine codon UCA
is given a different first base-C-to become CCA, it will code for a
different amino acid, in this case, proline. The substitution of an
incorrect amino acid is called a "missense" mutation.
3. Nonsense mutation: The codon containing the changed base may

become a termination codon. For example, if the serine codon UCA is
given a different second base-A-to become UAA, the new cod causes
termination of translation at that point, and the production of a
shortened (truncated) protein. The creation of a termination codon at
an inappropriate place is called a "nonsense" mutation.
Lippincott’s Biochemistry 5th ed. p. 433

Question Found in Biochemistry 4th Ed by Pankaja Naik., p. 455.
67. A 58-year-old male has recently been

diagnosed with hemochromatosis. He presents B. Missense
with bronze discoloration of the skin and is found A homozygous G to A mutation in the HFE gene resulting in a
to have elevated plasma glucose and ferritin cysteine to tyrosine substitution at position 282 (C282Y) is the most
levels. The physician finds that he is carrying a common mutation. It is identified in 85–90% of patients with
mutation where tyrosine is substituted for hereditary hemochromatosis.
Cysteine of the HFE gene. This disease results Mutations involving single nucleotides are referred to as point
from which of the following mutations? * mutations. Substitutions are called transitions if a purine is replaced
a) Nonsense by another purine base (A ↔ G) or if a pyrimidine is replaced by
b) Missense another pyrimidine (C ↔ T). Changes from a purine to a pyrimidine,
c) Frameshift or vice versa, are referred to as transversions. If the DNA sequence
d) Silent change occurs in a coding region and alters an amino acid, it is called
a missense mutation.
Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. 19th edition. New York:

McGraw Hill Education, 2015.
68. Which of the following changes in mRNA

(resulting form point mutation) would result in C. UCA- UCU
the synthesis of a protein identical to the normal
protein? *
a) UCA – UAA
b) UCA- CCA
c) UCA- UCU
d) UCA- ACA
69. With respect to the lac operon, if both glucose

and lactose are present and glucose is LOW, D. increased transcription of the lac operon
which of the following is NOT TRUE Mechanism of shift:
a) High CAP Low glucose ⇾↑ adenylate cyclase activity ⇾↑ generation of
b) increased uptake of glucose cAMP from ATP ⇾ activation of catabolite activator protein (CAP)
c) low cAMP ⇾↑transcription.
d) increased transcription of the lac operon High lactose ⇾↑ unbinds repressor protein from
repressor/operator site ⇾↑ transcription.
Le, Tao, and Vikas Bhushan. First Aid for the USMLE Step 1 2015. 25th
anniversary edition. New York: McGraw-Hill Medical, 2015.
70. Which is the most correct sequence of events
in gene repair mechanisms in patients without a C. Recognition, nicking, excision, replacement, sealing
mutated repair process? * Specific endonucleases release the oligonucleotides containing
a) Nicking, excision, replacement, sealing, damaged bases; DNA polymerase and ligase fill and reseal the gap,
recognition respectively. Repairs bulky helix-distorting lesions. Occurs in G1 phase
b) Sealing, recognition, nicking, excision, of cell cycle.
replacement
c) Recognition, nicking, excision, Le, Tao, and Vikas Bhushan. First Aid for the USMLE Step 1 2015. 25th
replacement, sealing anniversary edition. New York: McGraw-Hill Medical, 2015.
d) Nicking, sealing, recognition, excision,
replacement
e) Nicking, recognition, excision, sealing,
replacement
71. The INCORRECT statement about what is

Fragile X syndrome and what does it cause is ? * B. Cause by an expansion of the CTG triplet repeat
a) X-Linked recessive disease affecting the If the trinucleotide repeat expansion occurs in the untranslated
FMR1 gene. regions of a gene, the result can be a decrease in the amount of
b) Cause by an expansion of the CTG triplet protein produced as seen, for example, in fragile X syndrome....
repeat fragile x with CGG triplet repeats in untranslated region.
c) males are usually affected than females
d) cause intellectual disablity long and Lippincott’s Biochemistry 5th Edition
narrow face, large ears, flexible fingers
72. Select which of the following is a CORRECT

statement of what is the difference between C. Homologous repair uses the template of a second chromosome to
homologous and non-homologous end joining * repair DNA strand breaks. Non-homologous end joining simply
a) Homologous repair joining simply ligates ligates the two broken ends
the two broken ends . Non-homologous The first is nonhomologous end-joining repair, in which the ends of
uses the template of a second two DNA fragments are brought together by a group of proteins that
chromosome to repair DNA strand break effect their religation. However, some DNA is lost in the process.
s Consequently, this mechanism of repair is error prone and mutagenic.
b) Homologous repair targets areas where Defects in this repair system are associated with a predisposition to
bases have been removed by AP cancer and immuno deficiency syndromes. The second repair system,
endonuclease. Non-homologous end homologous recombination repair, uses the enzymes that normally
joining by polymerase beta places a new perform genetic recombination between homologous chromosomes
base and DNA ligase reattaches during meiosis. This system is much less error prone than
c) Homologous repair uses the template of nonhomologous end-joining joining because any DNA that was lost is
a second chromosome to repair DNA replaced using homologous DNA as a template.
strand breaks. Non-homologous end
joining simply ligates the two broken Lippincott’s Biochemistry 5th Edition
ends
d) Homologous repair cytosine is
deaminated . Non-homologous end
joining when the base spontaneously
changes (metC>U)
73. What is the term for the number of

trinucleotide repeats increasing with successive A. Anticipation, associated with fragile X syndrome;
generations and correlating with increased Anticipation is a phenomenon when the signs and symptoms of some
severity of disease? genetic conditions tend to become more severe and appear at an
a) Anticipation, associated with fragile X earlier stage as the disorder is passed from one generation to the
syndrome; next. This is seen in certain genetic dicorders, such as Huntington’s
b) Huntington's disease is also associated disease, myotonic dystrophy and fragile X syndrome.
with a decrease in onset of age.
medline plus.gov
74. Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the

following genes code?• Z gene * B. β-Galactosidase
a) Thiogalactoside transacetylase The lactose (lac) operon contains the genes that code for three
b) β-Galactosidase proteins involved in the catabolism of the disaccharide, lactose: The
c) Galactoside permease lacZ gene codes for β-galactosidase, which hydrolyzes lactose to
d) Lac repressor protein galactose and glucose; the lacY gene, which codes for a permease
that facilitates the movement of lactose into the cell; and the lacA
gene that codes for thiogalactoside transacetylase whose exact
physiologic function is unknown.
Lippincott’s Biochemistry 5th Edition
75. The INCORRECT enzyme and function of the

following base excision repair enzymes D. Apurinic/apyrimidic endonuclease - removes abasic sugar
mechanism * Specific AP-endonucleases recognize that a base is missing and
a) DNA ligase - seals the nick initiate the process of excision and gap-filling by making an
b) Glycosylase - recognizes and removes endonucleolytic cut just to the
base by hydrolyzing glycosidic bond 5'-side of the AP site
c) PCNA - sliding clamp and positions DNA
Pol B to fill the gap Lippincott’s Biochemistry 5th Edition
d) Apurinic/apyrimidic endonuclease -
removes abasic sugar
76.Which of the following changes in mRNA (resulting C. UCA-UCU

from point mutation) would result in the synthesis of a
protein identical to the normal protein? Silent mutation: codon containing the changed base may
a) UCA – UAA code for the same amino acid. Ex: If the Serine codon UCA
b) UCA- CCA is given a different third base, U, to become UCU, still
c) UCA- UCU codes for Ser.
d) UCA- ACA
Lippincott Biochemistry 7th Ed. pg 433
77. With respect to the lac operon, if both glucose and C. low cAMP
lactose are present and glucose is LOW, which of the
following is NOT TRUE? cAMP is produced when glucose is low - thus, it should be
a) High CAP ‘high cAMP’ for it to be true.
b) Increased uptake of glucose
c) Low cAMP (previous revalida 2019, khan academy -
d) Increased transcription of the lac operon https://www.khanacademy.org/science/ap-biology/gene-
expression-and-regulation/regulation-of-gene-expression-
and-cell-specialization/a/the-lac-operon)
78. Which is the most correct sequence of events in gene C. Recognition, nicking, excision, replacement, sealing
repair mechanisms in patients without a mutated repair
process? Base excision repair - ensure that mutations are not
a) Nicking, excision, replacement, sealing, incorporated into DNA.
recognition 5 steps (RNERS): Recognition, Nicking, Excision,
b) Sealing, recognition, nicking, excision, Replacement and Sealing
replacement
c) Recognition, nicking, excision, replacement,
sealing https://www.britannica.com/science/base-excision-repair
d) Nicking, sealing, recognition, excision,
replacement
e) Nicking, recognition, excision, sealing,
replacement
79.The incorrect statement about what is Fragile X B. Cause by an expansion of the CTG triplet repeat
syndrome and what does it cause is ?
a) X-Linked recessive disease affecting the FMR1 Fragile X Syndrome
gene. ● Fragile X syndrome has an X-linked recessive
b) Cause by an expansion of the CTG triplet repeat inheritance caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene
c) Males are usually affected than females ● number of CGG repeats in the person’s FMR1 gene.
d) Cause intellectual disability long and narrow face, ● Males have more severe symptoms than females
large ears, flexible fingers ● Symptoms: intellectual disability long and narrow face,
large ears, flexible fingers
https://www.cdc.gov/ncbddd/fxs/inherited.html
80. Select which of the following is a CORRECT statement C. Homologous repair uses the template of a second
of what is the difference between homologous and non- chromosome to repair DNA strand breaks. Non-
homologous end joining. homologous end joining simply ligates the two broken
a) Homologous repair joining simply ligates the two ends
broken ends . Non-homologous uses the template
of a second chromosome to repair DNA strand NHEJ modifies the broken DNA ends, and ligates them
breaks together with no regard for homology, generating
b) Homologous repair targets areas where bases deletions or insertions.
have been removed by AP endonuclease. Non-
homologous end joining by polymerase beta In contrast, HR uses an undamaged DNA template to repair
places a new base and DNA ligase reattaches the break, leading to the reconstitution of the original
c) Homologous repair uses the template of a second sequence
chromosome to repair DNA strand breaks. Non-
homologous end joining simply ligates the two Reference :
broken ends https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2695993/
d) Homologous repair cytosine is deaminated . Non-
homologous end joining when the base HR is a type of genetic recombination that requires the
spontaneously changes (metC>U) presence of homologous DNA sequences to act as
templates and direct the repair, which occurs in the S/G2
phases of the cell cycle.
In contrast, NHEJ refers to DSB repair in which the broken

ends are directly ligated without the direction of
homologous templates.
Reference
https://academic.oup.com/abbs/article/48/7/632/223664
4
81. What is the term for the number of trinucleotide A. Anticipation, associated with fragile X syndrome.
repeats increasing with successive generations and
correlating with increased severity of disease?
a) Anticipation, associated with fragile X syndrome. Anticipation is most often seen with certain genetic
b) Huntington's disease is also associated with a disorders of the nervous system, such as Huntington
decrease in onset of age. disease, myotonic dystrophy, and fragile X syndrome.
Anticipation typically occurs with disorders that are caused

by an unusual type of mutation called a trinucleotide
repeat expansion. A trinucleotide repeat is a sequence of
three DNA building blocks (nucleotides) that is repeated a
number of times in a row. DNA segments with an abnormal
number of these repeats are unstable and prone to errors
during cell division. The number of repeats can change as
the gene is passed from parent to child. If the number of
repeats increases, it is known as a trinucleotide repeat
expansion. In some cases, the trinucleotide repeat may
expand until the gene stops functioning normally. This
expansion causes the features of some disorders to
become more severe with each successive generation.
Reference:
https://medlineplus.gov/genetics/understanding/inheritan
ce/anticipation/
82. Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following B. Beta-Galactosidase
genes code? Z gene:
a) Thiogalactoside transacetylase The z gene codes for beta-galactosidase (β-gal), which is
b) β-Galactosidase primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of the disaccharide,
c) Galactoside permease lactose into its monomeric units, galactose and glucose.
d) Lac repressor protein -In lac operon, the genes a, i, y and z code respectively for
(tardigrade.in)
83. The INCORRECT enzyme and function of the following E. Apurinic/apyrimidic endonuclease - removes abasic
base excision repair enzymes mechanism. sugar
a) DNA ligase - seals the nick
b) Glycosylase - recognizes and removes base by AP endonuclease cleaves DNA at abasic sites to produce
hydrolyzing glycosidic bond DNA with a 3′-OH group on one end and a phosphorylated
c) PCNA - sliding clamp and positions DNA Pol B to deoxyribose on the other end.
fill the gap
d) Apurinic/apyrimidic endonuclease - removes
abasic sugar
84. The INCORRECT disease caused by defects in A. Cystic Fibrosis

nucleotide excision repair system *
a) Cystic fibrosis Mutations in genes on the nucleotide excision repair
b) Cockayne's syndrome pathway are associated with diseases, such as xeroderma
c) Xeroderma pigmentosa pigmentosum (XP), Cockayne syndrome (CS) and
d) Trichothiodystrophy trichothiodystrophy (TTD).
Lippincotts’s Illustrated Reviews

Biochemistry, 6th ed.
85. Defect of transcription coupled nucleotide excision B. Cockayne Syndrome

repair. Results in poor growth, neurological problems and
early senility. Autosomal recessive, two different types.
Xeroderma Cockayne
a) Trichothiodystrophy
b) Cockayne Syndrome Mode of Autosomal Autosomal
c) Ataxia-Telangiectasia inheritance recessive recessive
d) Xeroderma pigmentosum
Neurological + +
problems
Poor growth - +
Early senility + +
Gene defect defective DNA mutations in

thymidine five NER
dimer genes: ERCC8
excision (Cockayne
repair syndrome A),
ERCC6
(Cockayne
syndrome B),
XPB, XPD, and
XPG
William James, Dirk Elston, James Treat, Misha Rosenbach,

Isaac Neuhaus - Andrews’ Diseases of the Skin_ Clinical
Dermatology p.580
“Mutations in proteins specifically responsible for

transcription-coupled repair lead to Cockayne syndrome”
Marks' Basic Medical Biochemistry 4e p.224
86.Which of the following is most responsible for D. Transcript transport

regulating the level of eukaryotic mRNA gene products?
a) Translational initiation RNAi is a mechanism of gene silencing through decreased
b) Gene amplication expression of mRNA, either by repression of translation or
c) Chromatin structure by increased degradation. RNAi is mediated by short (~22
d) Transcript transport bp), noncoding RNAs called microRNAs (miRNAs),
genomically encoded
nuclear transcripts that are partially processed in the
nucleus
then transported to the cytoplasm.
Lippincott's Biochemistry 5th edition p 459.
87. The activation of histone deacetylases would be E. Decreases the rate

expected to have which of the following effects on DNA
replication? The accessibility of origin DNA to the proteins that initiate
a) Enhances formation of new chromatin following replication is likely to be influenced by chromatin
completion of replication structure. The degree of chromatin compaction is thought
b) Destabilizes the double-helix allowing access for to be modulated by the reversible acetylation of the amino
polymerases terminal tails of histones. A direct role for reversible
c) No effect on replication activity histone acetylation in transcription regulation has been
d) Increases the rate demonstrated.
e) Decreases the rate
Histone acetylation mediates gene activation, while
deacetylation allows repression. In yeast, histone
acetyltransferases and deacetylases function through their
recruitment by transcriptional activators or repressors to
specific upstream regulatory sequences. However, they do
so in a background of global histone acetylation and
deacetylation that affects not only promoters but also
adjacent coding and noncoding regions.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S10972
76502007025
88. Chromatin remodeling is associated with alterations D. Histone acetylation tends to destabilize chromatin
in the transcriptional activity of genes in the region of the structure
remodeling. Which of the following statements is most
correct concerning the events of chromatin remodeling? Histone acetylation tends to destabilize chromatin
a) Methylation of guanine residues induces the structure, perhaps in part because adding in acetyl group
remodeling even removes the positive charge from the lysine, thereby
b) Chromatin remodeling occurs predominantly in making it more difficult for histones to neutralize the
regions enriched in CpG dinucleotide methylation charges on dna as chromatin is compacted.
of histone H1 is sufficient to stimulate remodeling
c) Remodeling is necessary to induce the property https://www.researchgate.net/publication/277281319_Chr
of genomic imprinting omosomal_DNA_and_Its_Packaging_in_the_Chromatin_Fi
d) Histone acetylation tends to destabilize ber
chromatin structure
89. You find that in the cancer cells the protein is smaller A. Nonsense mutation in the middle of an exon of the
than in the normal cells. Which of the following gene
mutations in the gene encoding the protein would best
explain your observations? Nonsense mutation, converts a codon encoding an amino
a) Nonsense mutation in the middle of an exon of acid (a sense codon) into a stop codon (a nonsense codon).
the gene Nonsense mutations result in the synthesis of proteins that
b) Missense mutation in the middle of an exon of are shorter than the wild type and typically not functional.
the gene
c) A to T change in the middle of a long intron in the
gene
d) G to C change in an enhancer found in an intron
of the gene
e) A to T change in the promoter of the gene Mutations | Microbiology (lumenlearning.com)
90. A mutation that resulted in the loss of histone D. Enhanced rate of transcription
deacetylation activity in a eukaryotic cell line would be
expected to have what effect on transcription? By deacetylating the histone tails, the DNA becomes more
a) No effect tightly wrapped around the histone cores, making it harder
b) Conversion of activators into repressors for transcription factors to bind to the DNA. This leads to
c) Conversion of repressors into activators decreased levels of gene expression and is known as gene
d) Enhanced rate of transcription silencing.
e) Reduced rate of transcription
Histone acetylation and deacetylation - Wikipedia
91. You are studying the activities of the apolipoproteins, C. RNA editing
apoB-48 and apoB-100.Both of these proteins are
encoded by the same gene; yet apoB-48 is primarily Apolipoprotein B (apo B) circulates in two distinct forms
expressed in the intestine, while apoB-100 expression is referred to as apo B100 and apo B48. Apo B48 is colinear
restricted to the liver. Which of the following is the most with the amino-terminal half of apo B100 and arises as a
likely molecular process accounting for this difference in result of a post-transcriptional modification, termed apo
gene expression? B mRNA editing. This process changes a single cytidine
a) DNA methylation nucleotide in apo B100 mRNA thereby altering a CAA
b) Different initiation codon codon, encoding glutamine in apo B100, to a UAA codon,
c) RNA editing which specifies an in-frame stop codon in apo B48.
d) Reiterated sequence
e) Gene duplication Reference https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/8292303/
92. Patients exhibit hyperphagia(excessive hunger and B. Prader-Willi syndrome

abnormally large intake of solid foods), obesity,
hypogonadism, sleep apnea, behavior problems, and mild One of the chromosomes that belongs to pair number 15
to moderate mental retardation. .An analysis for genomic is abnormal in Prader-Willi syndrome. Around 70% of
anomalies reveals a deletion in chromosome 15 and it is cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are the result of missing
determined that this deletion came from the paternal genetic information from the copy of chromosome 15
genome. The symptoms and genetic data indicate the inherited from the father. This defect is referred to as
child is suffering from which of the following disorders? "paternal deletion".
a) Ataxia telangiectasia
b) Prader-Willi syndrome https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/neuroscience/prad
c) Angelman syndrome er-willi-syndrome
d) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
e) Rett syndrome
93. A researcher finds that a two-nucleotide segment has D. Frameshift Mutation

been deleted. This event would most likely give rise to a?
a) Conservative mutation Frameshift Mutation: 1 or 2 nucleotides are either deleted
b) Nonsense mutation or added to the coding region of a mRNA
c) Silent mutation
d) Frameshift mutation Lippincott Biochemistry 7th Ed. pg 434
e) Misssense mutation
94. DNA photolyase recognizes which of the following in B. A specific origin for repair to initiate
order to repair pyrimidine dimers.
a) A specific palindrome syndrome The photolyase enzyme reactivates DNA by direct repair of
b) A specific origin for repair to initiate T<>T lesions. It binds to the damaged DNA site, absorbs a
c) 3 hydrogen bonds between affected base pairs (near UV-visible) photon, restores the pyrimidines to their
d) A free 3" end on the affected DNA strand monomeric forms, and dissociates from the substrate.
e) The distortion in the double helix
95. Which is LEAST likely to be involved in the expression D. Gene Amplification

of mammalian immunoglobulin genes?
a) Transcription factors expressed only in antibody
production cells
b) Enhancers bound by tissue specific transcription
factors
c) Deletion of some chromosomal DNA sequences
d) Gene amplification
e) DNA rearrangement to produce new antibody
variable region
Lehninger Biochemistry 4th Ed p. 990-991
96. Which of the following is true regarding the

acetylation of histones during transcription? D. Acetylation of the local histone increases positive
a) Histones are acetylated after translation of the charge
Golgi apparatus
b) Deposition of acetylated histones is regulated by
histone phosphorylation Doc Jandoc’s lecture; Molecular Biology: DNA Structure and
c) H1 acetylation results in transcriptional silencing Function p. 13
d) Acetylation of the local histone increases positive
charge
e) Histone acetyltransferase are part of the general
transcription factor complex
97. DNA polymerase III reads the parent strand in a ____ E. 3' , 5', opposite, 5', 3'
to ____ direction, while building the new strand in
______ direction ____to _____.
a) 3' , 5', opposite, 5', 3'
b) 5' , 3', same, 5', 3'
c) 3' , 5', same, 3', 5'
d) 5' , 3', opposite, 3', 5'
98. What is the enzyme/protein that synthesizes DNA D. Telomerase

using an RNA template, seen in a reverse transcriptase. It
prevents replicative loss of DNA at the ends of linear Sirmata Midterm Exam Recalls
chromosomes. 1st yr 2nd sem
a) Topoisomerase
b) Primase
c) DNA Polymerase
d) Telomerase
99. Short RNA sequences that form at the beginning of D. Primase

any new daughter strand. They are later replaced with Primase is an enzyme that synthesizes short RNA
DNA nucleotides by DNA polymerase I. sequences called primers. These primers serve as a starting
a) Helicase point for DNA synthesis. Primase functions by synthesizing
b) Topoisomerase short RNA sequences → complementary to a single-
c) DNA polymerase III stranded piece of DNA, which serves as its template.
d) Primase
100. It is when DNA synthesizes 5' PO4'- 3'OH. A. Replication Elongation

Nucleophilic (bond by donating electrons) attack of a-
phosphate of dNTP extends DNA.
a) Replication elongation
b) Replication initiation
c) Replication termination
d) Transcription initiation https://www.cram.com/flashcards/dna-replication-
2405761
101. The strand of DNA that is not used to create mRNA. B. Coding strand of DNA
The strand which is the same as the mRNA sequence
(except U replaces T)? Template strand is the DNA strand off which the mRNA is
a) Non coding strand of DNA synthesized. The coding, or non-template, strand is the
b) Coding strand of DNA DNA strand complementary to the template strand; it has
c) Antisense strands the same sequence (except for T for U substitutions) as the
d) Template strands mRNA.
102. What is added to the 3'-end of many eukaryotic A. Poly A tail A

mRNAs after transcription?
a) Introns A tail of A-nucelotides, generally 100-200 long, is added to
b) Poly A tail A the 3’-end of most eukaryotic pre-mRNAs. The poly A tail,
c) A cap structure, consisting of a modified G which is not coded in the DNA, is also retained in the
nucleotide mRNA exported to the cytoplasm.
d) The trinucleotide 5'-CCA
Sirmata Batch 2024 Quiz Recalls
103. During RNA synthesis, DNA template sequence 5’ B. 3’- ApUpCpGp-5’
TpApGpCp 3’ would be transcribed to produce which of
the ff. sequences? During RNA synthesis, A is paired with U thus the sequence
a) 5’- TpApCpGp- 3’ 5’ TpApGpCp 3’ has an equivalent RNA that is 3’-
b) 3’- ApUpCpGp-5’ ApUpCpGp-5’
c) 5’- GpCpUpAp-3’
d) 3’- GpCpTpAp- 5’
104. In eukaryotes, proteins other than RNA polymerase A. Gene-specific

are needed for transcription to occur. Some of these are
needed for the transcription of specific genes and are Eukaryotic transcription involves separate polymerases for
called _______ transcription factors. the synthesis of rRNA, tRNA,and mRNA. In addition, a large
a) Gene-specific number of proteins called transcription factors (TFs) are
b) Methylguanosine cap involved. TFs bind to distinct sites on the DNA—either
c) Enhancer within the core promoter region, close (proximal) to it, or
d) Inducer some distance away (distal).
105. tRNAs has several unique features which B. Presence of thymine base(s)
distinguish them from other types of RNA. Which of the
following features are not unique to tRNA? tRNA doesn’t have Thymine, it’s the DNA group that has
a) Presence of inosine residues thymine. For the RNA group, it has Uracil in its place.
b) Presence of a methylated G base (or bases)
c) Presence of thymine base(s) Sirmata Batch 2024 Midterm Recalls
d) Existence of covalent links to amino acids
106. A difference between bacteria and eukaryotes in A. In eukaryotes, there are different RNA polymerases (I,
transcription? II, and III).
a) In eukaryotes, there are different RNA
polymerases (I, II, and III). ● Eukaryotes have three different RNA polymerases
b) In bacteria, the start signal is an AUG, while in (RNAPs) which transcribe different types of genes.
eukaryotes it is a promoter. ○ RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA genes,
c) In bacteria, introns have to be removed from ○ RNA polymerase II transcribes mRNA, miRNA,
the primary RNA transcript. snRNA, and snoRNA genes, and
d) Transfer RNAs (tRNAs) are involved in ○ RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA and 5S rRNA
eukaryotic transcription only. genes.
e) RNA is synthesized 5' to 3' in bacteria, but 3' to
5' in eukaryotes.
107. Which of the following features of the vector will C. Restriction site
allow screening for host cells that were transformed
with the recombinant DNA construct? Most commonly, both donor DNA and vector DNA are
a) Promoter sequence digested with the use of a restriction enzyme that
b) OriC sequence produces sticky ends and then mixed in a test tube to allow
c) Restriction site the sticky ends of vector and donor DNA to bind to each
d) Antibiotic resistance gene other and form recombinant molecules.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK21881/
108. A blot technique that is involved in the analysis of A. Southern blot

DNA:
a) Southern blot “SNoW = DRoP”
b) Eastern blot Southern blot: DNA
c) Western blot Northern blot: RNA
d) Northern blot Western blot: Proteins
Topnotch Biochemistry 2019
109. The pain felt by a patient with an enlarging B. Release of cytokines such as IL-1 and IL-6 by the tumor
malignant tumor is partly contributed by the: cells
a) Exaggerated metabolism of nutrients by the
tumor cells
b) Release of cytokines such as IL-1 and IL-6 by the Proinflammatory cytokines are produced predominantly by
tumor cells activated macrophages and are involved in the up-
c) Loss of enzymes for glucose oxidation in cancer regulation of inflammatory reactions. There is abundant
tissue evidence that certain pro-inflammatory cytokines such as
d) Overgrowth of blood vessels in the interior of IL-1β, IL-6, and TNF-α are involved in the process of
the cancer mass pathological pain.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2785020/
110. The enzyme, Taq polymerase is used in Polymerase B. Resistant to heat denaturation
Chain Reaction (PCR) because it:
a) Facilitates annealing of primers By using a heat stable DNA polymerase (i.e Taq
b) Resistant to heat denaturation polymerase), the polymerase is not denatured and,
c) Provides optimum condition for DNA synthesis therefore, does not have to be added at each successive
d) Promotes DNA polymerization cycle.
Topnotch Biochemistry 2019

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BIOCHEMISTRY REVALIDA 2021

2. A newborn develops jaundice that requires laboratory

3. Which clinical laboratory observation is suggestive of

5. After a drinking spree of an Indian man and his friend

7. A noncompetitive enzyme inhibitor

8. Defects in glucose uptake into muscle cells are

10. The insulin resistance that is the hallmark of type 2

15. At ER a 7-year-old girl has a 1-month history of foul-

Diabetes - People with diabetes may often need to pass a

Giardiasis - Abdominal cramping, bloating, and flatulence

20. True regarding the urea cycle:

21. It is an amphibolic pathway and regarded as the final

22. All of the following enzymes catalyze substrate level of

23. True regarding Vitamin B12: *

30. Hepatocytes contribute to the overall body content of

Cholic acid aid in digestion of fats and certain nutrients.

Enteropeptidase converts trypsinogen into its active form

32. Aside from urea, the main circulatory system carrier of

34. Which clinical condition does not involve a defect in

b. Adenosine deaminase deficiency - . A deficiency of ADA

c. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome - a rare, X-linked, recessive

d. Gout - A disorder characterized by high levels of uric

35. Salvage reactions that generate purine and pyrimidine

36. Which of the following enzymes when deficient will

38. At high concentration of blood glucose, as in

39. An attack of acute asthma has been attributed to

40. Bilirubin is an important end-product during the course

A thalassemia can be caused by a variety of mutations,

43. Of the following would not be expected to result in a

49. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE

51. Which of the following processes would NOT

52. When cytosine deamination occurs in DNA all

Duncan, B., Miller, J. Mutagenic deamination of cytosine residues in

53. The key mechanistic failure in Xeroderma

54. Finely tuned gene transcription levels in cells

55. DNA sequence that move between

Rodwell, V. et. al. (2018). Harper’s illustrated biochemistry 31st ed.

56. Which of the following genes of the E. coli

Ferrier, D. (2014). Lippincott’s illustrated reviews:

Rodwell, V. et. al. (2018). Harper’s illustrated biochemistry 31st ed.

Ferrier, D. (2014). Lippincott’s illustrated reviews:

When no inducer is present, the constitutively synthesized lacI gene

Rodwell, V. et. al. (2018). Harper’s illustrated biochemistry 31st ed.

58. In the “Lac operon” concept, which of the

Operator consists of a specific nucleotide sequence that is recognized

Binding of a repressor protein to the operator region revents the

59. What is the result of mutation affecting

60. A 5-year-old boy has excessive freckling and

61. A 37-year-old man reports suffering from

62. Cancer cells avoid replicative senescence by

63. A 7-year-old boy is referred by his school

64. Positive control of induction is bestdescribed

Lippincott’s Biochemistry 6th ed. P.817

66. If the codon UAC on mRNA changes into UAG

3. Nonsense mutation: The codon containing the changed base may

Lippincott’s Biochemistry 5th ed. p. 433

67. A 58-year-old male has recently been

Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. 19th edition. New York:

68. Which of the following changes in mRNA

69. With respect to the lac operon, if both glucose