2018

CLASS-IX / Paper Code - I

SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Jupiter is the largest planet in our solar system. What explains why Venus appears to be bigger and
brighter than Jupiter in the night sky?
(1) Venus is closer to Earth.
(2) Jupiter is made of gases we cannot see.
(3) Venus's green tint makes it easy for us to see.
(4) Jupiter moves faster than Venus, which makes it look smaller.
2. A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration a. Its velocity after n seconds is v. The displacement
of the body in the last two seconds is
2v(n – 1) v(n – 1) v(n + 1) 2v(2n + 1)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n n n n
3. A thin plane mirror
(1) Refracts light (2) Reflects light (3) Transmits light (4) None of these
4. A marble of mass ‘m’ is dropped from a height ‘h’ on a hard floor. If it rebounds to the same height,
the change in momentum of marble is
(1) m 2gh (2) 2 m 2gh (3) 3m 2gh (4) 4m 2gh
5. When an object is released from a certain height, then it experiences a resistive force (F v) which is
called viscous force or air drag, and the force is directly proportional to the velocity of the object at
any time. Which of the following graphs correctly represent variation of viscous force with objects
height above the ground, when released from a height H.
Fv Fv

(1) (2)

H h H h
Fv Fv

(3) (4)

H h H h
6. The crack of thunder is heard few seconds after the lightning flash, because:
(1) crack of thunder and lightning are not produced at same time
(2) light travels extremely fast as compared to sound
(3) sound waves slow down on passing through air
(4) none of the above

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7. Newton's law of gravitation is valid

(1) on the earth only (2) on the moon only
(3) in the laboratory only (4) everywhere
8. The formation of our solar system is based on the....
(1) Big bang theory (2) Theory of relativity
(3) Protoplanet hypothesis (4) Law of Conservation of Mass
9. The relation between frequency (f) wavelength ( l ) and velocity of propogation (V) of a wave is :
1
(1) f = V l (2) f = l/V (3) f = V / l (4) f =
Vl
10. The weight of the body at the surface of the earth is 20 N and the radius of the earth is 6400 km. The
weight of a body at a height 6400 km above the surface of earth is
(1) 7 N (2) 5 N (3) 4 N (4) 6 N
11. If a lens is made by two curved surfaces A and B having radii R1 and R2 respectively as shown in the
figure, then which of the following relations between R1 and R2 are correct.

A
B

(1) R1 > R2 (2) R1 = R2 (3) R1 < R2 (4) None of these

12. For motion on a straight line path with constant acceleration, the ratio of the magnitude of the
displacement to the distance covered is
(1) = 1 (2) ³1 (3) £1 (4) < 1
13. What happens to the inertia of an object when its velocity is doubled ?
(1) The object's inertia becomes 2 times greater
(2) The object's inertia becomes 2 times greater
(3) The object's inertia becomes 4 times greater
(4) The object's inertia is unchanged

m2

m1
14.

[ g = 10m/s2 ]

If m1 = 20 kg & m2 = 10 kg find normal force acting on the floor ?

(1) 300 N (2) 100 N (3) 200 N (4) None of these
15. Which of the following can be zero when the particle is in motion for some time?
(1) Displacement (2) Distance covered (3) Speed (4) None of these

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SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

16. Fossil fuels are rich in hydrocarbon substances that contain the elements ‘A’ and ‘B’. What are these
elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively?
(1) Hydrogen and oxygen (2) Carbon and oxygen
(3) Hydrogen and carbon (4) Hydrogen and sulphur
17. Which of the following oxide is not amphoteric ?
(1) ZnO (2) PbO (3) CaO (4) Al2O3
18. Medals are made by :
(1) Spinning (2) Coining (3) Embossing (4) Bending
19. What is the product when methane is burnt in air ?
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Water (3) Heat (4) All of these
20. Incandescent region in candle flame is :
(1) Non luminous zone (2) Luminous zone
(3) Dark zone (4) None of these
21. In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would
increase?
(i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen gas contained in a closed container.
(ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container.
(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas.
(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
22. If the molecules of different gases do not react chemically, they can :
(1) Diffuse (2) Refuse (3) Escape (4) Trap
23. Figure below shows a chromatogram obtained using three single dyes red, green and blue, and also
four unknown dye samples P, Q, R and S.

Solvent
front

start
red green blue P Q R S line

Identify the dyes contained in the sample R.

(1) red, black (2) blue, red (3) red, blue, green (4) red, unknown

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24. Which of the following represents a correct set of observations for a mixture of sugar and water ?
Transparency Stability Filtration
(1) Transparent Unstable No residue
(2) Transparent Stable No residue
(3) Translucent Stable No residue
(4) Opaque Unstable Residue
25. A burning candle is in the process of transforming -
(1) heat energy into chemical energy (2) chemical energy into light and heat
(3) chemical energy into mechanical energy (4) chemical energy into nuclear energy
26. A students heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the
beaker as a function of time. Which of the following would correctly represent the results?
Temperature

Temperature

Temperature

Temperature
(°C)

(°C)

(°C)

(°C)
(1) 0°C (2) 0°C (3) 0°C (4) 0°C

Time (min) ® Time (min) ® Time (min) ® Time (min) ®

27. When magnesium burns with oxygen it forms ?

(1) Mg ( OH ) 2 (2) MgCO3 (3) MgO (4) All of these

28. Which of the following is not obtained by the destructive distillation of coal ?
(1) Coke (2) Petrol (3) Coal tar (4) Ammonical liquor
29. A sealed gas cylinder is left outside on a hot, sunny day. What happens to the average speed of the gas
molecules and to the pressure of the gas in the cylinder as the temperature of the gas rises?

average speed of pressure of gas in

gas molecules cylinder

A decreases decreases

B decreases increases

C increases decreases

D increases increases

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

30. At 283 K a saturated solution of solid “X” can be prepared by dissolving 21.0 g of it in 100 g of water.
The maximum amount of ‘X’ which can be dissolved in 100 g of water at 313 K is 62.0 g. An attempt
is made to dissolve 50.0 g of ‘X’ in 100 g of water at 313 K.
A. All of 50.0 g of X will dissolve at 313 K.
B. At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissolved
C. Solubility of X decreases with increase of temperature
D. On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K more than 21.0 g of X will crystallize out.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) A and B (2) A and D (3) B and C (4) A, C and D
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SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. Fertilizers are different from manure as they are-

(1) organic substances obtained by decomposition of plant and animal wastes
(2) not nutrient specific
(3) nutrient specific
(4) insoluble in water, so slowly absorbed by plants
32. Burning fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide into the environment. Scientists think that an increase in
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will lead to global climate change and loss of coastal flora. Which of
the following is the most likely to be the result of this ?
(1) Ocean water levels will rise, resulting in the flooding of coastal areas and loss of coastal flora.
(2) The hole in the ozone layer will grow due to the release of carbon dioxide.
(3) The amount of acid precipitation will increase, causing river water to become more acidic.
(4) The speed at which tectonic plates drift will increase, resulting in a greater incidence of volcanoes
and earthquakes.
33. Which one is correct?
(1) Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure and function are simple tissues.
(2) Permanent tissues having different type of cells are complex tissues.
(3) Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma are simple tissues.
(4) All of these
34. Which means of particle transport is shown in figure below?

Inside the cell HIGH CONCENTRATION

TRANSPORT PROTEIN

LOW CONCENTRATION
ENERGY

Outside the cell

(1) Diffusion (2) Osmosis

(3) Facilitated diffusion (4) Active transport
35. Developing embryo from a superior breed is transferred into the uterus of a female with inferior
characteristics by the process of–
(1) Hybridization (2) Artificial insemination
(3) Embryo transfer (4) Random mating
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36. Which one is not the improved cross breed of dairy cows-
(1) Karan -Swiss (2) Karan -Fries (3) Frieswal (4) Brown Swiss
37. Which one of the following is least likely to cause air pollution?
(1) The use of CFCs in aerosol sprays
(2) The burning of fossil fuel
(3) The release of carbon monoxide when burning diesel
(4) The dumping of batteries in land fill sites
38. When released from ovary, human egg contains–
(1) Only 4 chromosomes (2) Two X chromosomes
(3) One X chromosome (4) XY chromosomes
39. In nervous tissue receptors for Neurotransmitters are present on :
(1) Axon (2) Telodendria (3) Dendrites (4) Schwann cells
40. The science of vegetable culture is called–
(1) Sericulture (2) Olericulture (3) Apiculture (4) Floriculture
41. Diabetic person is advised to take insulin when ___________ and there is ____________ of insulin
respectively.
(1) His blood pressure is high and hypersecretion
(2) His heart beat is high and hyposecretion
(3) His blood sugar is high and hyposecretion
(4) His blood sugar is high and hypersecretion
42. Which of these best defines communicable diseases?
(1) They can be cured (2) They are caused by bacteria
(3) They can spread to others (4) They can spread only in winter.
43. Smooth muscle fibres are
(1) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, multinucleate and involuntary
(2) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleate and involuntary
(3) cylindrical, striated, unbranched, multinucleate and voluntary
(4) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriated, multinucleate and involuntary
44. When a plant cell was placed in a sucrose solution changes within the cell were observed.

Vacuole cell wall nucleus

(Before being placed cell membrane
in sucrose solution) (When placed in sucrose solution)

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From the information in the diagrams you can conclude that while the cell was in the sucrose solution
(1) The cell wall was impermeable to water molecules
(2) The vacuole membrane was impermeable to water molecules
(3) Sucrose molecules passed through the cell membrane
(4) Water molecules passed out through the cell membrane
45. Acrosome present on head of sperm is formed by–
(1) Golgi complex (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lysosomes (4) Cell wall
SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

46. Which of the following is rational

( )( )
(1) 7 + 2 7 - 2 (
(2) 7 + 2 7 + 2 )( )
(3) ( 7 - 2 )( 7 - 2 ) (4) None of these

1 1
47. If a 4 + = 727, then the value of a 3 – is
a 4
a3

(1) 103 (2) 130 (3) 310 (4) 140

1 x - 12
48. What will be the value of ‘x’ for which =4
8x -3

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) –2

3 +1
49. If x = then the value of 4x3 + 2x2 – 8x + 7 is
2
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4
50. By what least number 288 be multiplied so that result is a perfect cube.
(1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 3 (4) 6
2
æ 9x ö
If x = 0.14 , then value of ç
è 9x - 1÷ø
51. is

14 225 196 196

(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 9 9 3

x 2 + y 2 + z2
52. If x + y + z = 0, what will be the value of ?
x2 - yz
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 8
53. The least positive integer with which 661.25 should be multiplied so that the product is a perfect
square.
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
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54. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 288 cm. The height of
the triangle corresponding to the longest side is
(1) 14.4 cm (2) 57.6 cm (3) 28.8 cm (4) None of these
55. In figure, if PQ || RS then the value of x is

P Q

36°

R x S

(1) 36° (2) 63° (3) 144° (4) None of these

56 If in quadrilateral ABCD, ÐA = 90° and AB = BC = CD = DA, then ABCD is a
(1) Parallelogram (2) Rectangle (3) Square (4) None of these
57. On drawing the graphs of the linear equations 4x – 3y + 4 = 0 and 4x + 3y – 20 = 0, the area bounded
by these lines and x axis is
(1) 10 sq. units (2) 12 sq. units (3) 5 sq. units (4) 6 sq. units
58. If Ram has Rs 3000 left after spending 90 % of his salary, then the salary of Ram is
(1) Rs. 27,000 (2) Rs. 30,000 (3) Rs. 45,000 (4) None of these
3
59. A cuboid of volume 128 cm is divided into two equal cubes. The sum of the total surface areas of two
cubes is
(1) 160 cm2 (2) 64 cm2 (3) 192 cm2 (4) 96 cm2
60. Factors of x2 + 11x + 18 are
(1) (x – 9)(x + 2) (2) (x + 9)(x + 2) (3) (x – 2)2 (4) (x + 9)2

SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Direction (61 & 62) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

R P
E
NE SE

N S

NW SW
W
Q S

Four security guards P, Q, R and S have been posted at the four corners of a huge cashew plantations
farm as shown in the above figure.
61. Given the condition that none of the corners should be unmanned and both P and R start moving
towards diagonally opposite corners, in which direction should S start moving, so that he occupies a
corner by travelling the minimum possible distance?
(1) Clockwise (2) Anti-clockwise
(3) Either clockwise or anti-clockwise (4) None of the above
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62. From the original position, P and Q move one arm length clockwise and then cross over to the corner
diagonally opposite, R and S move one arm length anti-clockwise and cross over to the corner
diagonally opposite. The original setting PSQR has now changed to–
(1) RSPQ (2) SRPQ
(3) RQSP (4) None of these
63. If in a certain language, CALCUTTA is called as GEPGYXXE then which word would be coded as
FSQFCE?
(1) BOMBYA (2) BOMBAY (3) BOMYAB (4) JWUJGI
64. How many 7’s are there in the following series which are not immediately followed by 3 but immediately
preceded by 8?
898762263269732872778737794
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) None of these
65. One hundred and twenty-five cubes of the same size are arranged in the form of a cube on a table.
Then a column of five cubes is removed from each of the four corners. All the exposed faces of the
rest of the solid (except the face touching the table) ae coloured red. Then how many cubes have only
one red face each ?
(1) 40 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 15
66. How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 7

67. If D = 23 & COVER = 72, then BASIS = ?
(1) 50 (2) 85 (3) 75 (4) None of these
68. The given figure is embedded in one of the option find the correct option.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. Complete the following series : WFB, TGD, QHG, ?

(1) NIJ (2) NIK (3) NJK (4) OIK
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70. Each of the six faces of a dice is numbered by one of the six digits from 1 to 6. This dice is shown in
its four different positions in the figure (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

6 1 5 6
3 2 4 2 6 4 2 4

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Consider the following statements :
I. Figures (ii) and (iii) are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 6.
II. Figures (ii) and (iii) are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 4.
III. Figures (i) and (iv) are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 3.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) I and III only (2) I and II only (3) II and III only (4) I, II and III
71. If + means ÷, × means – , ÷ means ×, and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?
-20 +20
(1) –12 (2) (3) 12 (4)
3 3
72. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one that best illustrates the relationship among the three
classes : Pigeons, Birds, Dogs.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

73. Find the missing term (?)

8 25 2
9 5 8
3 8 32
6 10 ?
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12
74. In the Venn diagram given below, circle represents sportspersons, square represents unmarried persons,
triangle represents women and rectangle represents educated persons.
Each section is numbered. Study this diagram to answer the following questions.

6 7 12
5 9
2 3 11 10
1
4 15

14
13

Which sections are represented by the region numbered 11 ?

(1) Married educated sportswomen (2) Unmarried uneducated women sportspersons
(3) Married educated sportsmen (4) Unmarried educated sportswomen
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75. Markandey is Rajiv’s mother’s father. Markandey has three brother. One of them has grandson Abhi.
Rajan is son of Abhi. Rajan is related to Rajiv as
(1) Brother (2) Nephew
(3) Cousin (4) Uncle
76. In the following question, which one of the four answer figures should come after the question figures
on the right, if the sequence were continued.
Question Figures

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Answer Figures

(1) (2) (3) (4)

77. Pointing to a women, Naman said, “She is the daughter of the only child of my grandmother.” How is
the women related to Naman?
(1) Sister (2) Niece (3) Cousin (4) Mother
78. In the following question, choose the correct mirror image from the answer figures (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

79. Find the missing number in the following series ?

3, 1, 11, 25, 83, ?
(1) 241 (2) 245 (3) 343 (4) 166
80. Find the Water image of: ACOUSTIC
(1) (2)
(3) (4) T

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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ANSWER KEY : 15-10-2017 CLASS – IX CODE : I
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 2 2 4 2 4 1 3 2 3 3 4 1 1
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 2
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 1 4 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 2
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 4 2
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 4 1 2 1 2