Test-6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Time : 3 Hrs. TEST - 6 MM : 600

[ SCIENCE]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A force of 50 N is required to keep a body moving 5. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
with a constant speed of 15 m/s on a rough surface
(1) Heavier the object greater the frictional force
in the direction of applied force. Then the maximum
magnitude of force of friction acting on it (2) Static friction varies between zero and a
maximum value
(1) Is greater than 50 N (2) Is less than 50 N
(3) Is equal to 50 N (4) Cannot be determined (3) Less force is required to start a motion than to
maintain it against friction
2. Which amongst the following is incorrect regarding
the gravitational force in between the two masses? (4) Force of friction between an object and the
surface on which it rests is independent of the
(1) It is weakest force in nature.
surface area of the object
(2) It is dependent on the medium in which masses
6. If the loudness of a sound is increased to 4 times,
are placed.
then how many times will the amplitude become its
(3) When two bodies come close to each other, initial value?
then the gravitational force between them
increases. (1) 2 times (2) 4 times
(4) It is always attractive in nature. 1 1
(3) times (4) times
3. A glass flask containing water is kept in vacuum 2 4
chamber as shown in figure. The pressure at the
bottom of the flask will be [Density of water = 7. The complete audible range of frequency for human
103 kg/m3, g = 10 m/s2 and water is filled upto 5 m] beings is
(1) 0 Hz 2000 Hz (2) 2 Hz 2000 Hz
Vacuum Chamber
(3) 20 Hz 20,000 Hz (4) 2Hz 20,000 Hz
8. An object is vibrating at a frequency of 25 Hz. What
10m is its time period?
5m (1) 25 s (2) 0.04 s

(1) 5 104 Pa (2) 105 Pa (3) 0.05 s (4) 0.02 s

(3) Zero (4) 2.5 103 Pa 9. Pitch of sound depends upon its
(1) Frequency (2) Loudness
4. Two bricks of same dimensions (10 cm 20 cm 30 cm)
and same mass 10 kg are kept on the floor as shown (3) Amplitude (4) Intensity
in figure. The pressure exerted on the floor will be 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) In electroplating, the article to be electroplated is
made cathode
cm
20 30 cm (2) Chromium has a shiny appearance
10 cm (3) The electrode connected to the negative terminal
of the battery is called anode
(4) Cations are positively charged ions
1 N 2 N 11. The point from where the vibrations of an earthquake
(1) (2) begins is
6 cm2 3 cm2
1 N 1 N (1) Fault (2) Epicenter
(3) (4)
2 cm2 3 cm2 (3) Crater (4) Focus

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A)
12. Which amongst the following is not a cause of 19. Venus is the hottest planet in our solar system
earthquake? because
(1) Underground mining (1) It is farthest from the sun
(2) Volcanic Eruptions (2) It has large amount of CO2 in its atmosphere
(3) Tsunamis that traps solar radiation

(4) Movements of earth's tectonic plates (3) Its period of rotation is least and hence it receive
more sunlight per rotation
13. The instrument used to detect the presence of
electric charge on a body is (4) It has no atmosphere therefore all heat is
trapped in its surface making it hottest planet
(1) Electroscope (2) Lighting conductors
20. The smallest moon of our solar system is
(3) Seismograph (4) Periscope
14. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60 with each (1) Deimos (2) Titan
other. The number of images formed is (3) Sirius (4) Alpha Centauri
(1) 3 (2) Zero 21. Consider the given box
(3) 5 (4) 6
Forests, Coal, Air, Minerals, Sunlight
15. A ray of light parallel to mirror-2 is incident at an
angle of incidence of 30 on mirror 1 as shown in the
figure given below. Find the angle which reflected ray The total number of inexhaustible natural resources
makes with mirror-2, if finally it travels parallel to is
mirror-1 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
22. The coal gas is a mixture of
30
-1

(1) CO and O2
ror
Mir

(2) H2 and hydrocarbons

(3) Hydrocarbons, CO and H2
(4) Coal and coke
Mirror-2
23. Find the incorrect match:
(1) 30 (2) 60
(1) Bitumen : Paints and road surfacing
(3) 90 (4) 45
(2) Kerosene : Cooking fuel
16. Which of the following defects can be corrected by
using concave lens? (3) Petrol : Ointments
(1) Presbyopia (2) Myopia (4) LPG : Domestic fuel
(3) Cataract (4) Hypermetropia 24. Fuel can be conserved by adopting all the practices
except
17. The part of eye that imparts dark colour to it is
(1) Crystalline lens (2) Cornea (1) Sophisticated technology must be used

(3) Pupil (4) Iris (2) Pooling of car should be done as far as possible

18. The planets which rotates from east to west are (3) Alternative sources of energy should be used

(1) Uranus & Neptune (4) Cars or vehicles should be driven at faster speed
(2) Neptune & Jupiter 25. The main constituent of natural gas is
(3) Neptune & Venus (1) Ethane (2) Propane
(4) Uranus & Venus (3) Hydrogen (4) Methane

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Test-6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
26. Consider the given information 31. M1 + salt solution of M2 M2 + salt solution of M1
If M2 is Cu then M1 can't be
Fuel Ignition temperature
(1) Fe (2) Mg
A 50 C
(3) Zn (4) Ag
B 80C
32. Match the following
C 150C
Column-I Column-II
Which of the given fuels will catch fire at room
a. Mercury (i) Wires and cables
temperature?
(1) Fuel A (2) Fuel B b. Zirconium (ii) Chlorophyll
(3) Fuel C (4) None of these c. Magnesium (iii) Barometers

27. Outer zone d. Copper (iv) Atomic energy and

Middle zone space science projects
Inner zone (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
Molten wax (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
33. Non metals generally have low boiling and melting
points due to
(1) Absence of free electrons

The colours of the middle zone and outer zone (2) Tendency to form anions
respectively are (3) Less compact packing of atoms in them
(1) Blue and yellow (2) Yellow and orange (4) Rigid packing of their atoms
(3) Yellow and blue (4) Black and orange
34. Complete the reaction by choosing the correct option
28. Read the given statements carefully:
Statement-1: Hydrogen has the highest calorific P4 + O2
X
value of 150000 kJ/kg (Phosphorus)

Statement-2: Fuels containing hydrogen should not

X + H2O
Y
be used as they are highly explosive
Now, choose the correct statement (1) X = P2O5; Y = H3PO4
(1) Both the statements are correct (2) X = PO2; Y = H3PO3
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) X = P2O5; Y = H3PO3
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (4) X = PO2; Y = H3PO4
(4) Only statement-2 is correct
35. The oxide which is neutral is
29. Which one of the following is both an advantage and
disadvantage of synthetic fibres? (1) SO2 (2) NO2
(1) Non biodegradable (3) CO2 (4) CO
(2) Can catch fire 36. X is a polystyrene which is used as a component
(3) Do not absorb moisture of refrigerators, coolers and thermoplastics. X is
(4) Durable (1) Teflon (2) Thermocol
30. Carbon dioxide is the best fire extinguisher because
(3) Orlon (4) Melmac
(1) It is heavier than oxygen and cuts off the oxygen
supply 37. The branded fibre which comes in many varieties of
yarns, fibres and papers. It is light, strong and safe.
(2) It is lighter than oxygen and thus floats over it
and helps in extinguishing fire It is also used to make fire proof and bullet proof
jackets. The branded fibre is
(3) It forms a layer over the carbon monoxide
released and thus extinguishes fire (1) Nylon (2) Rayon
(4) It is the lightest gas known so far (3) Kevlar (4) Terrylene

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A)
38. All the given polymers are linear polymers except 45. The height and body pattern of an individual depends
on the
(1) Bakelite (2) Nylon
(1) Genes inherited from parents
(3) Polythene (4) PVC
(2) Temperature of the environment
39. Read the given statements carefully
(3) Availability of sunlight
Statement-1: Thermoplastics are not resistant to
heat. (4) Supply of the oxygen
Statement-2: Melamine once moulded cannot be 46. Which of the following is/are not the anthropogenic
reshaped again. cause of deforestation?
Now, choose the correct option (i) Forest fires
(1) Both the statements are correct (ii) Procuring land for cultivation
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (iii) Building construction on the forest land
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (iv) Drought for long period
(4) Only statement-2 is correct (v) Using wood for fuel
40. Which of the following is a source of rayon? (1) (i), (iv) and (v) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(1) Wool (2) PET (3) (ii), (iii) and (v) (4) (i) and (iv) only
(3) Wood pulp (4) Silk 47. The functional segment of DNA which controls the
transfer of hereditary characters is called
41. The magnifying instrument used in studying the
activities of unstained living cells is (1) Gene (2) Chromosome
(1) Electron microscope (3) Chromatid (4) Centromere
(2) Light microscope 48. The genetic material found in the infectious agents
which lie on the borderline separating the living
(3) Phase contrast microscope
organisms from non-living things is
(4) Magnifying glass
(1) DNA only (2) RNA only
42. All of the following crops are grown in winter season,
(3) Either DNA or RNA (4) ATP
except
49. A girl is 11 years old and 132 cm tall. How much
(1) Barley (2) Mustard
more height she would gain to complete her full
(3) Maize (4) Gram height? (Her percentage of full height at this age is 88%)
43. Incomplete combustion of fuels such as petrol and (1) 150 cm (2) 18 cm
diesel produce a gas which is irreversibly combines
(3) 12 cm (4) 8 cm
with haemoglobin to form
50. Cell theory does not state that
(1) Carbon monoxide
(1) Function and structure of all the cells are similar
(2) Carbon dioxide
(2) Cell is functional and structural unit of all living
(3) Carbaminohaemoglobin
organisms
(4) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(3) Metabolic activities of all cells are fundamentally
44. Which of the following animals are related to blue similar
revolution?
(4) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
(1) Chicken, Duck, Turkey
51. The gas which caused the world's worst industrial
(2) Catla, Rohu, Mrigal catastrophes in India is
(3) Jaffarabadi, Mehsana, Murrah (1) Methyl isocyanate (2) Hydrogen cyanide
(4) Sahiwal, Jersey, Red Sindhi (3) Carbon monoxide (4) Sulphur dioxide

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Test-6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
52. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. cultivator? 57.
Cell wall
(1) It is used for ploughing
Centrosome
(2) Its use saves time Nucleus
(3) Its use saves labour
Chloroplast
(4) It separates chaff from seeds
53. Match the following columns and select the correct
option. Animal cell
Some of the labellings in the above diagram of
Column-I Column-II
animal cell is/are incorrect. Which of the following
(a) Longitudinal binary (i) Euglena replacement(s) should be done to make them
fission correct?

(b) Transverse binary (ii) Plasmodium (1) Word chloroplast by vacuole

fission (2) Words cell wall and chloroplast by cell

membrane and mitochondrion, respectively
(c) Multiple fission (iii) Paramecium
(3) Word nucleus by vacuole
(d) Budding (iv) Saccharomyces
(4) Word centrosome by 70 s ribosome
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
58. _______ release their secretions directly into the
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) blood.
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) Exocrine gland (2) Salivary gland
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Endocrine gland (4) Sweat gland
54. All of the following are the consequences of 59. Who called virus as contagium vivum fluidum?
deforestation, except
(1) M. Beijerinck (2) Wendell Stanley
(1) Rising of the ground water level
(3) D.J. Ivanowski (4) Robert Koch
(2) Soil erosion
60. In which of the labelled part P, Q, R and S, the
(3) Change in water cycle process of spermatogenesis occurs?
(4) Global warming
R
55. Falling of crop plants at the grain maturation stage
due to fast wind and rain is called
(1) Broadcasting (2) Winnowing
Q
(3) Tilling (4) Lodging
S
56. Statement-1: Filtration kills all the harmful P
micro-organisms present in water.
(1) S (2) R
Statement-2: Bleaching powder is used as physical
(3) Q (4) P
method to purify water.
61. How many of the following are the fauna found in
Statement-3: Water which is suitable for drinking is
India?
called potable water.
(1) Only statements 1 and 2 are incorrect Palm, Tortoise, Cheetal, Maple, Sal, Mongoose,

(2) Only statements 2 and 3 are incorrect Mulberry, Oak, Sambar

(3) Only statement 2 is incorrect (1) Three (2) Four

(4) All the statements are incorrect (3) Five (4) Six

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A)
62. Which of the following groups of plants are grown by 68. X is a semiautonomous cell organelle found in
the transplantation method? animal cells and has Y type of ribosomes. X and
Y respectively are
(1) Wheat, rice, pea
(1) Golgi body and 80 S
(2) Sugarcane, mustard, wheat
(2) Chloroplast and 70 S
(3) Tomato, chilli, paddy (3) Mitochondrion and 70 S
(4) Potato, jowar, gram (4) Mitochondrion and 80 S
63. Which of the following human cells have 23 and 46 69. Match the following and select the correct option.
chromosomes, respectively? Nitrogen fixing Example
(1) Zygote and egg micro-organism
(2) Zygote and sperm (a) Free living bacteria (i) Azotobacter

(3) Sperm and ovum (b) Free living cyanobacteria (ii) Rhizobium
(c) Symbiotic bacteria (iii) Anabaena
(4) Ovum and zygote
(d) Symbiotic cyanobacteria (iv) Nostoc
64. The microorganism commonly used for the
production of alcohol and wine is (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Acetobacter aceti
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Lactobacillus
70. The first menstrual flow which begins at puberty is
(4) Streptococcus known as
65. Match the following columns and select the correct (1) Gestation (2) Pregnancy
option. (3) Menarche (4) Menopause
Column-I Column-II 71. The gas released during the process of composting
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Corticoids is

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Thyroxine (1) Liquefied petroleum gas

(2) Biogas
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Thyroid stimulating
hormone (3) Compact natural gas
(d) Ovary (iv) Progesterone (4) Carbon monoxide
72. On the basis of the given functions identify the cell
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
organelle.
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Helps in water and salt balance.
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Stores the by-products of the metabolic activities.
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Leucoplast (2) Centrosome
66. Which of the following sequences is correct w.r.t. the (3) Ribosome (4) Vacuole
numbers of biosphere reserves(B), national parks(N)
and wildlife sanctuaries(W) in India? 73. Statement-1: In hen the process of fertilization and
formation of protective layers around the zygote
(1) B > W > N (2) W < N < B occur in oviduct.
(3) N < B < W (4) W > N > B Statement-2: The development of zygote of hen
67. The process by which water with dissolved occurs at about 20C.
chemicals reaches the ground water and pollutes it (1) Only statement-1 is correct
is called (2) Only statement-2 is correct
(1) Eroding (2) Leaching (3) Both the statements are correct
(3) Recycling (4) Depleting (4) Both the statements are incorrect

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Test-6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

74. Which of the following sanctuaries is famous for the 77. Select the correct set of examples of the food which
temporary home for Siberian crane? provide energy, proteins and vitamins, minerals.

(1) Keoladeo Bird Sanctuary

Energy Proteins Vitamins and
minerals
(2) Periyar Sanctuary
(1) Amla, Carrot Sugar, Oil Nuts, Meat
(3) Manas Sanctuary
(2) Nuts, Carrot Citrus, Fats Jaggery, Sugar
(4) Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary (3) Milk, Meat Cereals, Carrot Sugar, Pulse

75. (4) Cereals, Fats Nuts, Milk Citrus, Carrot

Sun

78. The constituents (methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen

and nitrogen) of the gas obtained by the
Glass panels decomposition of plants and animals wastes is
Plants shown in the given pie chart by the symbols A, B,
C and D. Identify them.

Temperature of the chamber as shown in the above

arrangement will D
(1) Increase due to ultraviolet radiation

(2) Decrease due to ultraviolet radiations C

A B
(3) Increase due to infrared radiations

(4) Decrease due to infrared radiations A B C D

76. Two patients A and B have the following symptoms. (1) Hydrogen Nitrogen Carbon Methane
dioxide
Patient-A
(2) Nitrogen Hydrogen Methane Carbon
Fever, headache, swollen liver. dioxide
(3) Carbon Hydrogen Nitrogen Methane
Loss of appetite, feeling nausea and vomiting, dioxide
dark urine.
(4) Methane Carbon Hydrogen Nitrogen
Patient-B dioxide

High fever with sweating and shivering stage. 79. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Vulnerable species Elephant

Headache, nausea, muscular pain.
(2) Critically endangered species Golden mole
The causative micro-organisms of the diseases from
which patient A and B suffering are (3) Endangered species Pink pigeon

A B (4) Extinct species Dodo

(1) Protozoa Virus 80. In which of the following oviparous animals
(2) Bacteria Protozoa fertilization is internal?

(3) Virus Protozoa (1) Frog (2) Lizard

(4) Virus Bacteria
(3) Toad (4) Fish

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A)

[ MATHEMATICS ]
88. How many of the following mathematical statements
7 ( 2) 43
81. The numerical expression shows that contain errors?
3 7 21
7x2 2
(1) Rational numbers are closed under multiplication (i) 3
7x2
(2) Addition of rational numbers is not commutative (ii) (7x 2)2 = 49x2 + 4 28x
(iii) 3x(7x 2) = 21x2 6
(3) Rational numbers are closed under addition
(1) 0 (2) 1
(4) Rational numbers are not closed under addition
(3) 2 (4) 3
82. The mean of 22 numbers is 30. If two numbers 20 89. In the given figure, FEG is a straight line, AC = BC,
and 10 are removed, then the mean of the remaining AB = AD and ACB = ADB = 50. The value of
numbers is (ABD CAD + FAB) is
(1) 31 (2) 31.5 A
E
F
72 G
(3) 30 (4) 32.5
83. Which of the following is a cubic polynomial?
(1) 2x2 x + 1 (2) x2 3x3 + x 1
(3) x3 + x2 x4 (4) x3 x + x5 B D
84. The age of Ram is 6 years more than that of
Shyam. If 4 years ago, the ratio of Ram's age to C
Shyam's age was 11 : 8, then the present age of (1) 58 (2) 63
Ram is (3) 72 (4) 92
90. A lead pipe which is 35 cm long has its external
(1) 18 years (2) 20 years diameter as 12 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is
(3) 26 years (4) 24 years 2 cm and lead weighs 12 g/cm3, then the weight of
the pipe is
85. In the five-digit number 24yx9, x is the greatest (1) 26.4 kg (2) 24.6 kg
single digit perfect cube and x exceeds twice of y by (3) 24 kg (4) 28.8 kg
2. The sum of the number and its cube root is
91. The numbers 182384y2 and 34216524x are divisible
(1) 24518 (2) 24418 by 9 and 6 respectively. If x and y are digits, then
the value of x + y is
(3) 24428 (4) 24037 (1) 9 (2) 16
3
(3) 14 (4) 4
86. The value of (2187)14 is 92. In the given graph, the coordinates of point M are
Y
1 1
(1) (2) 8
4 3 27 7
6
1 1 M
5
(3) (4) 4
2 3 3 3
3
87. The sum of the number of vertices in an octahedron 2
and an icosahedron is 1
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(1) 18 (2) 20
(1) (5, 5) (2) (5, 7)
(3) 24 (4) 16 (3) (7, 7) (4) (7, 5)

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Test-6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
93. A trader professes to sell his goods at a loss of 12% 0.2(13 2x ) 0.5( x 3) 3.2( 2 x 5) 7
but gives 740 grams for the first kilogram of goods 98. If and
0.7(7 2 x ) 5
and gives only 700 grams for the next kilogram of
p
goods. His overall gain percentage on selling y is the standard form of x, then the sum of
q
2 kilograms of goods is the prime factors of (p q 500) is
2 2 (1) 15 (2) 10
(1) 22 % (2) 18 %
9 11 (3) 8 (4) 12
4 7 99. If three metallic cubes of sides 6 cm, 8 cm and
(3) 22 % (4) 18 %
9 11 10 cm are melted and a new cube is formed, then
94. During a mass drill exercise, 7408 students of the lateral surface area of the new cube is
different schools are arranged in rows such that the (1) 864 cm2 (2) 576 cm2
number of students in each row is equal to the (3) 432 cm2 (4) 720 cm2
number of rows. In doing so, the instructor finds out 100. Which of the following rational numbers does not lie
that 12 children are left out. The number of children 8 7
in each row is between and ?
13 6
(1) 89 (2) 76 17 14
(1) (2)
(3) 86 (4) 79 26 23
1 1 8 18
95. If x x = 6 (x 0), then the value of (3)
9
(4)
17
x x
1 101. The compound interest on ` 20000 at 12% p.a. for
x 8 8 is
x 5
1 years compounded annually is
(1) 432 17 (2) 456 10 6
(1) ` 4640 (2) ` 4560
(3) 432 10 (4) 384 15
(3) ` 4820 (4) ` 4680
96. Eight engines of type I consume 9 metric tonnes of
coal when each is running 10 hours a day. If x 102. How many of the following statements is true ?
metric tonnes of coal will be needed for 12 engines (i) A kite can be uniquely constructed if its two
of type II, each running 12 hours a day and 4 diagonals and any one side is known.
engines of the type I consume as much as 6 (ii) The minimum numbers of known measurements
engines of the type II, then the value of x is to construct a unique rhombus is three.
(1) 24.3 (2) 12.5 (iii) A quadrilateral can be constructed uniquely, if its
(3) 10.8 (4) 14.2 two adjacent sides and three angles are known.
(1) 0 (2) 1
97. The following pie-chart shows the monthly distribution
of buyers of five different brands of shampoo. If the (3) 2 (4) 3
total monthly buyers is 90000000, then the buyers 103. The sum of the cubes of first eight natural numbers
of brand E exceeds that of brand B by is
(1) 1024 (2) 1296
A
(3) 1600 (4) 1369
36 B
48 104. If 76x
= = 103z (0.343)2y,
then for any non-zero real
120

E numbers x, y and z, which of the following is always

72C true?
84 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 9
D (1) 2
2
2 (2) 2
2 2
x y xy 4z x y xy z
(1) 15000000 (2) 21000000 1 1 2 4 4 4 8 9
(3) (4) 2
2
2
(3) 18000000 (4) 16500000 x 2
y 2 xy z 2 x y xy z

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A)
105. The number of ways in which 36864 can be written 111. The side view of the given object is
as a product of two numbers such that both the
numbers are perfect squares is
TOP
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 10 (4) 5

2 7x 6
106. x (2 x 3) is equal to
10 5 SIDE
(1) 3x 5 (2) 2x 5 T
RON
x 2 3 F
(3) (4) x
2 5 5
107. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and
BEFC is a rhombus. If ABH, GBC and DCE are
straight lines, then the measure of HBE is

G (1) (2)

B H
A
E
C
55 (3) (4)
D F
(1) 42 (2) 35
112. The sum of the digits of the smallest natural number
(3) 55 (4) 45 by which 20736 must be multiplied so that the result
is a perfect cube, is
2m 3 4m 5
108. If 2 , then the value of (m + 4)
3 5 (1) 9 (2) 18
is (3) 6 (4) 7
15 59 2
(1) (2)
11 11 113. If 23845.271 = 3000 + x + 20000 + 40 + 5 +
10
+
7 y
48 47 , where x and y are natural numbers,
(3) (4) 100 1000
11 11 5

109. A school has 9 periods a day each of 35 minutes then the value of ( x y 70) 6 is
duration. Assuming the number of school hours to be
1 1
the same, how long would each period be if the (1) (2)
school has 7 periods a day? 32 1024

(1) 40 minutes (2) 45 minutes 1 1

(3) (4)
(3) 42 minutes (4) 48 minutes 243 625

110. If the length, breadth and volume of a rectangular 114. The value of 1600 0.0016 is
tank are 9 m, 7.5 m and 270 m3, then its depth is
(1) 40.40 (2) 40.04
(1) 4 m (2) 5 m
(3) 6 m (4) 8 m (3) 40.004 (4) 40.044

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Test-6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
115. The following line graph gives the percentage profit 117. 200 tickets are numbered as 001, 002, 003, ...,
earned by two companies P and Q during the period 200. If a ticket is drawn at random from them, then
2006-2010. the probability that the sum of the digits of the
Y number appearing on the ticket is 8, is
(1) 0.085 (2) 0.08
80 (3) 0.075 (4) 0.1
70 Company Q
118. Mr. Kapoor imported 20000 pen drives from China at
60 Company P a discount of 15% on the marked price. Out of these
Profit percent

50 20% of the pen drives were damaged in transit. If the

40 selling price of an undamaged pen drive is 15% more
30 than its cost price, then the profit or loss percentage
20 on the total sales is
10 (1) 6% loss (2) 8% gain
O X (3) 8% loss (4) 6% gain
2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Years
119. If 4A , where A, B and C are digits, then the
If the ratio of income of company P to company Q B3
in 2009 was 4 : 5, then the ratio of expenditure of 2C3A
company P to expenditure of company Q in 2009
value of C A + B is
was
(1) 9 (2) 8
(1) 13 : 15 (2) 4 : 5
(3) 7 (4) 11
(3) 12 : 17 (4) 8 : 11
120. Which of the following options is true?
116. The coefficient of a2 in the sum of (3a2 + 2a 5)
(a + 3) and (2a2 5a)(a + 3) is 19 7 11 15 7 11 19 15
(1) (2)
21 9 13 17 9 13 21 17
(1) 14 (2) 12
7 11 15 19 19 15 11 7
(3) 15 (4) 13 (3) (4)
9 13 17 21 21 17 13 9

[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
Direction (Q.121 to Q.125): Find the next term in the 125. 101, 204, 309, 4016, 5025, 6036,?
following patterns.
(1) 7049 (2) 7013
121. 17, 22, 28, 35, 43, 52,?
(3) 9081 (4) 8064
(1) 74 (2) 62
Direction (Q.126 to Q.128): In the following questions
(3) 54 (4) 64 choose a correct option to complete the given figure.
122. 25, 50, 100, 200, 400,?
(1) 800 (2) 500
(3) 700 (4) 600 126.
?
123. 756, 755, 747, 720, 656, 531,?
(1) 314 (2) 313
(3) 312 (4) 315 (1) (2)
124. 20, 21, 25, 34, 50, 75,?
(1) 129 (2) 112
(3) (4)
(3) 111 (4) 156

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A)

? 9 11 ?
127. 135. 6 4 7 5 9 8

(1) 19 (2) 15
(1) (2)
(3) 17 (4) 16

(3) (4)
136. 5 16 9 28 6 ?

128. (1) 20 (2) 35

?
(3) 19 (4) 21

Direction (Q.137 to Q.139): Read the given information

(1) (2)
carefully and answer the following questions. Temple is
situated in the north east of the Ashims house and
(3) (4) church is north east to the gurudwara. Gurudwara is
situated to the south of the temple in the same straight
129. 52 : 27 :: 24 : 13 :: 38 : 20 :: 46 : 24 :: 68 : ? lane. Ashims house is west to the church in the same
(1) 35 (2) 39 straight lane.
(3) 37 (4) 45 137. The position of temple with respect to gurudwara is
130. 28 : 16 :: 42 : 8 :: 35 : 15 :: 45 : 20 :: 75 : ?
(1) West (2) East
(1) 42 (2) 39
(3) South (4) North
(3) 37 (4) 35
138. The position of church with respect to temple is
131. 55 : 10 :: 45 : 9 :: 53 : 8 :: 75 : 12 :: 92 : ?
(1) 19 (2) 11 (1) North - West (2) South - East

(3) 17 (4) 15 (3) South - West (4) North - East

132. Nose : Air : : Mouth : ? 139. The position of Ashims house with respect to
(1) Digestion (2) Gulp gurudwara is

(3) Food (4) Eat (1) North - West (2) South - East
133. FHJ : GIK : : BDF : ? (3) North (4) South
(1) CEG (2) IKM 140. If + means , means , means and
(3) ACE (4) EGI means +, then value of
Direction (Q.134 to Q.136): Find the missing character 435 + 29 5 3 4
in the following number puzzles. (1) 15 (2) 12
(3) 19 (4) 8
3 2 1
134. 5 4 7 141. If A @ B = A B and A % B = A + B, then the
30 16 ? value of (5 @ 7) % (8 @ 9) is

(1) 18 (2) 14 (1) 151 (2) 107

(3) 15 (4) 12 (3) 103 (4) 204

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Test-6 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Direction (Q.142 to Q.144): Find the mirror image in the 146. D is taller than E but shorter than A and B. C is
following questions. shorter than B and D but taller than E and U. Both
B and E are neither tallest nor shortest. Who is
respectively tallest and shortest?
142. (1) A and D (2) A and U
(3) C and D (4) U and A
Direction (Q.147 to Q.150): Study the given diagram
(1) (2) carefully and answer the following questions.

C4
(3) (4) S 1
M 8
P 5
K 3
143. SYSTEMATIC
R 6
T 2
(1) (2) A 7
(3) (4) B 9
147. If CBSA is coded as 4917, then TPRK is coded
as
144. CHARLI@5924
(1) 2365 (2) 2635
(1) (2) (3) 2536 (4) 2563
(3) (4) 148. If C1M5 is coded as S8P3, then M5K6 is coded
as
145. Count the number of blocks in the given figure.
(1) P5R2 (2) P8C1
(3) P3R2 (4) P6R2
149. If the code for MS79 is AB81, then which of the
following is coded as RT35?
(1) PR26 (2) PK26
(3) RP62 (4) KP62
150. What is the next term in the following pattern?
C1, S8, M5, P3, K6, R2,?
(1) 15 (2) 10 (1) T 7 (2) P8
(3) 13 (4) 20 (3) A9 (4) T 6

  

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Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Test Date : 24-01-2016 TEST - 6

ANSWERS
1. (3) 31. (4) 61. (2) 91. (3) 121. (2)
2. (2) 32. (4) 62. (3) 92. (4) 122. (1)
3. (1) 33. (3) 63. (4) 93. (1) 123. (4)
4. (4) 34. (1) 64. (1) 94. (3) 124. (3)
5. (3) 35. (4) 65. (4) 95. (2) 125. (1)
6. (1) 36. (2) 66. (4) 96. (3) 126. (3)
7. (3) 37. (3) 67. (2) 97. (3) 127. (4)
8. (2) 38. (1) 68. (3) 98. (3) 128. (2)
9. (1) 39. (1) 69. (2) 99. (2) 129. (1)
10. (3) 40. (3) 70. (3) 100. (2) 130. (4)
11. (4) 41. (3) 71. (2) 101. (1) 131. (2)
12. (3) 42. (3) 72. (4) 102. (3) 132. (3)
13. (1) 43. (4) 73. (1) 103. (2) 133. (1)
14. (3) 44. (2) 74. (1) 104. (3) 134. (2)
15. (2) 45. (1) 75. (3) 105. (2) 135. (4)
16. (2) 46. (4) 76. (3) 106. (3) 136. (3)
17. (4) 47. (1) 77. (4) 107. (3) 137. (4)
18. (4) 48. (3) 78. (1) 108. (2) 138. (2)
19. (2) 49. (2) 79. (2) 109. (2) 139. (1)
20. (1) 50. (1) 80. (2) 110. (1) 140. (4)
21. (2) 51. (1) 81. (3) 111. (2) 141. (2)
22. (3) 52. (4) 82. (2) 112. (1) 142. (1)
23. (3) 53. (2) 83. (2) 113. (3) 143. (2)
24. (4) 54. (1) 84. (3) 114. (2) 144. (3)
25. (4) 55. (4) 85. (2) 115. (3) 145. (4)
26. (4) 56. (1) 86. (4) 116. (2) 146. (2)
27. (3) 57. (2) 87. (1) 117. (1) 147. (4)
28. (3) 58. (3) 88. (3) 118. (3) 148. (3)
29. (3) 59. (1) 89. (2) 119. (1) 149. (4)
30. (1) 60. (3) 90. (1) 120. (3) 150. (1)

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]
1. Answer (3) 11. Answer (4)
2. Answer (2) 12. Answer (3)
3. Answer (1) 13. Answer (1)
We know that, 14. Answer (3)
P = gh
360
= 103 10 5 n

P = 5 104 Pa
360
4. Answer (4) n
60
Force
Pressure = n=6
Area
n is even
F = mg = 2 10 10
Number of images = n 1
F = 200 N
=5
200 1 N 15. Answer (2)
P
30 20 3 cm2

5. Answer (3)
6. Answer (1) 30
r-1

60
rro

We know that,
Mi

2
L1 A1

L2 A2 60 60 60
Mirror-2
Let L1 = L
16. Answer (2)
2
L A1 17. Answer (4)

4L A2 18. Answer (4)
19. Answer (2)
1 A1
20. Answer (1)
2 A2
21. Answer (2)
A2 = 2A1 22. Answer (3)
7. Answer (3) 23. Answer (3)
8. Answer (2) 24. Answer (4)
1 25. Answer (4)
We know that, T =
26. Answer (4)

1 27. Answer (3)

T = 0.04 s
25 28. Answer (3)

9. Answer (1) 29. Answer (3)

10. Answer (3) 30. Answer (1)

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Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
31. Answer (4) 55. Answer (4)
32. Answer (4) 56. Answer (1)
33. Answer (3) 57. Answer (2)
34. Answer (1) Cell walls and chloroplasts are absent in animal
35. Answer (4) cells.

36. Answer (2) 58. Answer (3)

37. Answer (3) 59. Answer (1)

38. Answer (1) 60. Answer (3)

39. Answer (1) Formation of sperms are called spermatogenesis.
40. Answer (3) 61. Answer (2)
41. Answer (3) 62. Answer (3)
42. Answer (3) 63. Answer (4)
Maize is a kharif crop. 64. Answer (1)
43. Answer (4) 65. Answer (4)
Carbon monoxide is released during incomplete 66. Answer (4)
combustion of petrol and diesel.
India has around 18 biosphere reserve, 102 national
44. Answer (2) parks and 510 wildlife sanctuaries.
Blue revolution refers to an increase in the 67. Answer (2)
production of fishes on large scale.
68. Answer (3)
45. Answer (1)
69. Answer (2)
46. Answer (4)
70. Answer (3)
Anthropogenic means caused by human activities.
71. Answer (2)
47. Answer (1)
72. Answer (4)
48. Answer (3)
73. Answer (1)
Viruses lie on the borderline separating the living
organisms from non-living things. Development of eggs of hen occurs at the body
temperature, i.e., about 38C.
49. Answer (2)
74. Answer (1)
Full height of girl would be
75. Answer (3)
132
100 = 150 cm The given figure is a hypothetical representation of
88
greenhouse.
The more height she would gain = 150 132 = 18 cm 76. Answer (3)
50. Answer (1) 77. Answer (4)
51. Answer (1) 78. Answer (1)
Bhopal gas tragedy in India was one of the world's
Constituents of bio-gas is 50 75% methane,
worst industrial catastrophes.
25 50% carbon dioxide, 0 10% nitrogen and
52. Answer (4) 0 1% hydrogen
53. Answer (2) 79. Answer (2)
54. Answer (1) 80. Answer (2)

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. Answer (3) CAD = BAD BAC = 80 65 = 15
82. Answer (2) [From (i) and (ii)]
83. Answer (2) Now, FED = 180 72 = 108
84. Answer (3) (iii) [Linear pair of angles]
85. Answer (2) Since FEDB is a cyclic quadrilateral,
The given five-digit number is 24yx9. FED + FBD = 180 (iv)
Since the greatest single digit perfect cube is 8, FBD = 180 108 = 72 [From (iii) and (iv)]
x=8 Also, AFBC is a cyclic quadrilateral.
2y = x 2 AFB = 180 50 = 130
y=3 FBA = FBD ABD = 72 50 = 22
Number = 24389 FAB = 180 130 22 = 28
[Using angle sum property of triangle inAFB]
3
24389 3 29 29 29 29
ABD CAD + FAB = 50 15 + 28 = 63
Required sum = 24389 + 29 = 24418
90. Answer (1)
86. Answer (4)
External radius of the pipe = 6 cm
87. Answer (1)
Thickness of the pipe = 2 cm
88. Answer (3) Internal radius of the pipe = (6 2) cm = 4 cm
89. Answer (2) Volume of the metal = External volume of the pipe
A Internal volume of the pipe
E = (6)2 35 (4)2 35
28 72 G
F
65 = 35(62 42)
0
13

22
= 35 20

7
22
50
65

= 2200 cm3

50

D 12

Weight of the pipe = 2200 kg

50

1000
C
InABD, = 26.4 kg

Since AB = AD, 91. Answer (3)

ABD = ADB = 50 92. Answer (4)

BAD = 180 250 = 80 93. Answer (1)

(i) [Using angle sum property Let the price of 1 gram of goods be `1.
of a triangle] The price of 1000 grams of goods = `1000
InABC, Since the trader professes SP at 12% loss,
Since BC = AC, He collects `880 for the first kilogram sold i.e.,
740 grams of goods whose CP is `740.
180 50
ABC = BAC = 65 The second 1 kilogram of goods is sold for `880
2
i.e., 700 grams of goods whose CP is `700.
(ii)[Using angle sum property
of a triangle] Total cost price = `740 + `700 = `1440

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Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Total selling price = `880 + `880 = 1760 96. Answer (3)
Total gain = `1760 `1440 = `320 More engines and more hours per day will require
more coal.
320
Overall gain percentage = 100% Also, more the rate of consumption, more will be the
1440
coal required.
200 According to the question,
= %
9
8 10 12 12

2 49 6x
= 22 %
9
12 12 4 9
94. Answer (3) x
8 10 6
95. Answer (2)
x 10.8
1 1
x x 6
x x
97. Answer (3)
2 1
x 6 (i) 98. Answer (3)
x2

1
2 0.2(13 2x ) 0.5( x 3) 3.2( 2 x 5) 7
x 2 6
2
0.7(7 2 x )

5
x2
[Squaring both the sides of equation (i)]
2(13 2 x ) 5( x 3) 32( 2 x 5) 7

1 7(7 2 x ) 5
x4 2 36
x4
1 2 13 2 2 x 5 x 5 3 32( 2 x ) 32 5 7
x4 38
(ii) 7 7 7 2x 5
x4
1 26 4 x 5 x 15 64 x 160 7
x4 2 38 2
x4 49 14 x 5
2
2 1
x 2 40 65 x 119 7
x
49 14 x 5
1 5(65x 119) = 7(49 14x)
x2 2 10 (iii)
x2 325x 595 = 343 98x

1 1 1 423x = 938
Now, x 4
x2 2 x2 2
x 4 x x 938
x
423
1
x4 2 10(6) [From (i) and (iii)]
x4 938 p
y
1 423 q
x4 12 10 (iv)
x4 p = 938 and q = 423

1 1 1 p q 500 = 938 423 500 = 15 = 3 5

x8 x4 4 x4 4
x8 x x Hence, the sum of the prime factors of 15 is 3 + 5 = 8
99. Answer (2)
38 12 10 [From (ii) and (iv)]
100. Answer (2)
456 10 101. Answer (1)

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)
102. Answer (3)
4x p
70 100
103. Answer (2) p (i)
104. Answer (3)
76x = 103z = (0.343)2y = K(let) 5x q
and 50 100 (ii)
1
q
1 1
2y
7 K 6 x ,10 K 3z and 0.343 K
Equation (i) can be written as

1
3 4 x 100
1 1 3 p
343 7 K 6x 170
Now, 0.343 1 K 2x z
1000 10
K 3 z Equation (ii) can be written as

1 1 1 5 x 100
q
K 2x z K 2y 150
1 1 1
4 x 100
2 x z 2y p 170 12

1 1 2 q 5 x 100 17
150
x y z
1 1 2 4 p : q = 12 : 17
2
2
[Squaring both the sides]
x y xy z 2 116. Answer (2)
105. Answer (2) 117. Answer (1)
36864 = 212 32
Total number of tickets = 200
36864 can be written as a product of two numbers
such that both the numbers are perfect squares in The favourable cases are : 008, 017, 026, 035, 044,
the following ways : 212 32, 210 62, 28 122, 053, 062, 071, 080, 107, 116, 125, 134, 143, 152,
26 242, 24 482, 22 962 and 1 1922 161 and 170.

Hence, there are 7 possible ways. Total number of favourable cases = 17

106. Answer (3) 17
Required probability = 0.085
107. Answer (3) 200
108. Answer (2) 118. Answer (3)
109. Answer (2) Let the cost of 20000 pen drives be `200000.
110. Answer (1) After a discount of 15%, cost = `170000
111. Answer (2)
Now, 20% of the pen drives are damaged
112. Answer (1)
Number of pen drives to be sold = 16000.
113. Answer (3)
Also, selling price is 15% more than its cost price.
114. Answer (2)
115. Answer (3) Total sales = `(160000 1.15 0.85) = `156400

Let the incomes in 2009 of companies P and Q be 170000 156400

4x and 5x respectively. Loss percentage 100%
170000
Also, let the expenditure in 2009 of companies P and
Q be p and q respectively. 13600
100%
170000
Income Expenditure
Profit precent =
Expenditure = 8%

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Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
119. Answer (1) 194B 28
Given, 4A 4.75B 7
B3 B can take values 5, 6 or 7.
2C3A
Now, the unit's digit of the product will be 5 with 1
Here, A 3 should give A, which is possible only carry
when A = 0 or 5. According to the question,
AB + 2 + 1 (carry) = 3 or 13 or 23 or 33 or 43
Now, 4A
B3 5B + 3 = 3 or 13 or 23 or 33 or 43
12 3A B = 0 or 2 or 4 or 6 or 8
4B AB
(4B +1)(AB+2) 3A The value of B is 6.
45
If A = 0, then the ten's digit of the product will be 2, 63
which is not true. 2835
A=5
Hence, C = 8.
Since the thousand's place of the product is 2,
CA+B=85+6=9
204B + 129
120. Answer (3)

[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
121. Answer (2) 129. Answer (1)

+5 +6 +7 +8 +9 +10 a
a: +1
2
17, 22, 28, 35, 43, 52, 62
130. Answer (4)
122. Answer (1)
ab : a b
25 2 = 50, 50 2 = 100, 100 2 = 200
131. Answer (2)
200 2 = 400, 400 2 = 800
ab : a + b
123. Answer (4)
132. Answer (3)
756 (1)3 = 755, 755 (2)3 = 747
Nose : Air : : Mouth : Food
747 (3)3 = 720, 720 (4)3 = 656
133. Answer (1)
656 (5)3 = 531, 531 (6)3 = 315
+1 +1 +1 +1
124. Answer (3)
20 + (1)2 = 21, 21 + (2)2 = 25 F H J:G I K::B D F:C E G
25 + (3)2 = 34, 34 + (4)2 = 50 +1 +1
50 + (5)2 = 75, 75 + (6)2 = 111
134. Answer (2)
125. Answer (1)
101, 204, 309, 4016, 5025 b
a c
c = 2(ab)
| | | | |
12 22 32 42 52, and so on. 135. Answer (4)
126. Answer (3)
c
127. Answer (4)
a b c = (a + b) 1
128. Answer (2)

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-6 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)
136. Answer (3) 142. Answer (1)
143. Answer (2)
a b 144. Answer (3)
b = 3a + 1
145. Answer (4)
137. Answer (4) 146. Answer (2)
138. Answer (2) A>B>D>C>E>U
Temple
147. Answer (4)
148. Answer (3)
Ashim's
Church 149. Answer (4)
house

Gurudwara
139. Answer (1) C4
140. Answer (4) S 1
435 29 + 5 3 4 M 8
P 5
= 15 + 5 12 = 8 K 3
141. Answer (2)
R 6
On putting sign in place of symbols T 2
We get A 7
B 9
(5 @ 7) % (8 @ 9) = 5 7 + 8 9
= 35 + 72
150. Answer (1)
= 107

  

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