This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions.

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A physics teacher performed a demonstration for a science class by pulling a crate across the floor and
measuring the force with a spring scale. While she pulled, a student measured the acceleration of the crate with a
handheld electronic device. The results of three trials are shown below.

Actual Acceleration of Crate

Trial Acceleration (m/s2)
1 0.36
2 0.34
3 0.38
Average 0.36
The teacher asked the class to calculate the acceleration of the crate based on the crate’s mass and the force she
applied and found some difference in the values. What conclusion can be made about the difference between the
calculated acceleration and the actual acceleration that occurred in the trials?
(1) Another force in the direction of the motion produced a lower acceleration than calculated.
(2) An opposing force caused by friction produced a lower acceleration than calculated.
(3) Another force in the direction of the motion produced a higher acceleration than calculated.
(4) An opposing force caused by friction produced a higher acceleration than calculated.
2. A concave mirror produces a parallel reflected beam of light when a point sized object is kept
(1) Between F and P (2) At F (3) Between F and 2F (4) At 2F
3. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity. It attains a height of 40 m and comes back to the thrower. Then the
(1) total distance covered by it is 40 m. (2) total displacement covered by it is 80 m.
(3) total displacement is zero. (4) total distance covered by it is zero.
4. In the given figure, the velocity of 2 kg mass just before hitting the ground after releasing is (take g = 10 m/s2) [
Note horizontal path is sufficiently long]

(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s (3) 30 m/s (4) 15 m/s

5. What is the refractive index n4 of medium- 4 as per details given in the diagram.

(1) 1.414 (2) 1.2247 (3) 0.707 (4) 0.577

6. The wavelength of waves produced on the surface of water is 20 cm and the velocity of wave is 24 m/s. The time
required to produce one wave is
(1) 6.3 × 10 –3 sec (2) 4.25 × 10 –3 sec (3) 1.6 × 10 –3 sec (4) 8.33 × 10 –3 sec
7. F
The unit of quantity is (F = Gravitational force, G = Universal Gravitational constant)
G
(1) kgm –2 (2) kg2m –2 (3) kg –2m2 (4) kg –1m2
8. As shown in figure, a steel ball is at one end of a box that is moving forward. Suddenly the box stops.

According to Newton’s first law, what happens to the steel ball just after the box stops?
(1) the ball rolls backward suddenly.
(2) the ball rolls forward with decreasing speed.
(3) the ball continues rolling forward at the same speed.
(4) the ball rolls forward at an increasing speed.
9. A woman is trying to work on her makeup by looking in the side view mirror of a parked car. The magnification
produced by that mirror must be
(1) greater than unity (2) smaller than unity
(3) equal to unity (4) of negative value
10. Which among the following graph represents, “Uniform acceleration” of an object ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

11. Two point objects having mass m1 and m2 are placed at a separation d. Let F1 and F2 be the magnitude of force
on m1 by m2 and on m2 by m1 respectively. Then the ratio of F1 to F2 is
m1 m2
(1) m2
(2) m1
m2
(3) (4) 1
m1
12. The speed of light when travelling from medium I to medium II decreased by 30%. If the refractive index of
medium I is 1.33, the refractive index of medium II is
(1) 1.43 (2) 1.9 (3) 1 (4) 1.5
13. A violin string emits sound wave with a frequency of 850 Hz as shown in the given figure.

If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the distance between A and B is
(1) 6 m (2) 7 m (3) 60 cm (4) 70 cm
14. A farsighted individual can read clearly without glasses upto a distance of 66 cm puts on glasses of power 4.5
diopters. What it his new near point?

(1) 0.1 cm (2) 0.16 m (3) 0.33 cm (4) 0.33 m

15. An apple falls freely toward the earth. Its total energy during its motion
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remains constant (4) first increase then decrease
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. In a compound AxBy,
(1) Atoms of A = Atoms of B = Molecules of AxBy
(2) x atoms of A + y atoms of B = One molecule of AxBy
(3) y atoms of A = y atoms of B = (x + y) Molecules of AxBy
(4) y atoms of A = x atoms of B = One molecule of AxBy
17. Three students Abhinav, Parth and Ayann performed reactions separately in a vessel as given below.

(i) Abhinav performed reaction as given A → B + C

(ii) Parth performed reaction as given B + H2 O → D
(iii) Ayann performed the reaction as given D + C → A + H2 O
What will be the A, B, C, D respectively ?
(1) Ca(OH)2, CaO, CaCO3, CO2 (2) CaO, CaCO3, Ca(OH)2, CaO
(3) CaCO3, CaO, CO2, Ca(OH)2 (4) CaCO3, CaO, Ca(OH)2, CO2
18. Which of the following statements concerning the two isobars 13Al27 and 14Si27 is correct ?
(1) The aluminium isobar has more neutrons per atom than the silicon isobar.
(2) If 13Al27 absorb neutron, silicon isobar is formed.
(3) Both the isobars have atomic number 27.
(4) Both the isobars contain 27 electrons per atom.
19. A compound of element A and Br has the formula ABr3. The molecular mass of ABr3 is 271. What will be the
molecular mass of the nitride of element A? [Atomic mass of Br – 80]
(1) 37 (2) 40
(3) 45 (4) 82
20. (a) Fe + CuSO4 (aq) → Reaction occurs
(b) Fe + A ℓ 2(SO4)3 (aq) → Reaction occurs
(c) Fe + AgNO3 (aq) → Reaction does not occur
(d) Fe + Pb(NO3)2 (aq) → Reaction occurs
Which of the above statements are not correct?
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (d)
(3) (b) & (c) (4) (c) & (d)
21. Electric current is passed through a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride by means of a battery.
After disconnecting the circuit, the solution thus obtained is divided into two equal parts by volume. In one part,
china rose and in another part, universal indicator was added. The colour of the solutions will be respectively-
(1) Green and Red
(2) Magenta and Violet
(3) Green and Violet
(4) Magenta and Red
22. The salt whose aqueous solution will have no effect on either red litmus or blue litmus is
(1) Ammonium sulphate
(2) Sodium carbonate
(3) Potassium sulphate
(4) Sodium acetate
23. Tooth decay starts due to the corrosion of tooth enamel, which is the hardest substance in the body, when the pH
of the mouth is ___(i)___ than 5.5. This tooth enamel is composed of salt of ___(ii)___ and ___(iii)___. Then
nature of this salt is __(iv)__.
(1) lower, calcium sulphate, phosphorus acid, basic.
(2) higher, calcium hydroxide, phosphoric acid, acidic.
(3) lower, calcium hydroxide, phosphoric acid, basic.
(4) higher, calcium sulphate, phosphorus acid, acidic.
24. Which option contains elements that can displace hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid?
(1) Mg, Zn, Cu and K
(2) Ca, Zn, Hg and Aℓ
(3) Na, Zn, Au and Fe
(4) Mg, Zn, Fe and Na
25. p×q
Aluminium reacts with sulphuric acid to give aluminium sulphate and H2 gas. What will be the value of
r
when the following equation is balanced?
pAl + qH2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + rH2↑
(1) 1.5
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 6
26. A certain negative ion X –2 has 16 neutrons in its nucleus and 18 electrons in its extra nuclear part. What is the
mass number of the most abundant isotope of 'X' ?
(1) 35.46 (2) 32
(3) 36 (4) 39
27. A monovalent anion of an element has 18 electrons and a bivalent cation of another element has 10 electrons.
What will be the formula unit mass of the compound formed by these two elements?
(1) 95 (2) 99 (3) 94 (4) 92
28. Metals which are extracted by heating, reduction with carbon and electrolysis respectively are
(1) Zinc, copper and magnesium
(2) Mercury, lead and aluminium
(3) Mercury, calcium and sodium
(4) Calcium, zinc and sodium
29. On heating lead nitrate powder in a boiling tube, fumes are observed to be coming out from boiling tube, what
would be the colour of the fumes coming out?

(1) Greenish yellow

(2) Brown
(3) Pink
(4) Colourless
30. A, B, C and D are four metals that undergo chemical reactions as follows:-
C2 O + 2A → A2 O + 2C
B2 O3 + 2C → C2 O3 + 2B
2B + 3DO → B2 O3 + 3D
3DSO4 + 2C → C2 (SO4 )3 + 3D
Observe the reactions and arrange the metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity.
(1) C, B, D, A
(2) C, D, B, A
(3) A, C, B, D
(4) D, B, C, A
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Artificial kidney contains a number of tubes with a semipermeable lining, suspended in a tank filled with
dialysing fluid. This fluid contains all the constituents as in plasma except –
(3) Nitrogenous
(1) Electrolytes (2) Glucose (4) Salts
wastes
32. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) Starch is the internal energy reserve in plants.
(2) During photosynthesis, CO2 gets reduced to carbohydrate.
(3) When guard cells swell, stomatal pore closes.
(4) Desert plants take up CO2 at night and prepare an intermediate.
33. Which of the following is not a change during inhalation ?
(1) External intercostal muscles contracts. (2) Muscles of the diaphragm contracts.
(3) Ribs move outwards and upwards. (4) Sternum moves backward.
34. Identify the enzyme 'P' in the given reaction and its site of release respectively.
P
Starch → Maltose
(1) Pepsin, Stomach (2) Trypsin, Intestine
(3) Lipase, Stomach (4) Salivary amylase, buccal cavity
35. Which of the following substance from the renal filtrate is selectively reabsorbed by proximal convoluted tubule
(PCT) of nephron primarily?
(1) Glucose (2) Urea (3) Amino acids (4) Both (1) and (3)
36. Breathing also called as ventilation of the lungs involves inhalation and exahalation. The movement of air into
and out of the lungs is carried out by a pressure gradient between the lungs and atmosphere. The graph given
below represents the changes in lung volume during the process of breathing.

The change from region 'D' to 'E' indicates the -

(1) Downward movement of the ribs (2) Movement of air out of the lungs
(3) Movement of diaphragm away from the lungs (4) Downward movement of sternum
37. Read the following statements.
(i) Many unicellular organisms remove metabolic wastes by simple diffusion from the body surface.
(ii) Each kidney has large number of filtration units called neuron.
(iii) Urinary bladder is a muscular organ.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i) and (ii) only
(4) (i) and (iii) only
38. Read the following statements given below and state whether it is true (T) or false (F).
(i) Oxygen is transported by the white blood corpuscles.
(ii) Plasma transports food, carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wastes in dissolved form.
(i) (ii)
(1) T F
(2) F T
(3) T T
(4) F F
39. The alimentary canal is basically a long tube extending from the mouth to the anus. Various regions are
specialised to perform different functions. The samples of digestive juices were collected from three different
regions of the alimentary canal. These juices were then added to test tube containing starch solution as shown
below.

After an hour, iodine solution was added to each test tube. The results are as shown below.
Test tube A B C
Colour of iodine solution Blue-black Yellow/brown Yellow/brown
Which of the following correctly identifies the regions of the alimentary canal from which the three digestive
juices were obtained ?
Test tube A Test tube B Test tube C
(1) Mouth cavity Small intestine Stomach
(2) Mouth cavity Stomach Small intestine
(3) Small intestine Mouth cavity Stomach
(4) Stomach Mouth cavity Small intestine
40. Select the incorrect statement regarding the transportation in plants.
(1) The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation.
(2) The effect of root pressure in transport of water plays an important role during the day time in tall
trees.
(3) Besides the product of photosynthesis, phloem transports amino acids also.
(4) During spring season, sugar stored in root or stem tissue would be transported to buds with the help
of phloem.
41. Assertion (A): During translocation of food, osmotic pressure of phloem tissue increases that causes water to
move into it.
Reason (R): Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP.
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'.
(3) 'A' is true and 'R' is false.
(4) 'A' is false and 'R' is true.
42. Single circulation, is the process in which blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage
through the body. Which of the following group of organisms exhibit this?
(1) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(2) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
(3) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(4) Mrigal, Catla, Rohu
43. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced during anaerobic respiration in muscle cells?
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
44. All known birds and mammals have –
(1) a double circulatory system and a three-chambered heart
(2) a single circulatory system and a two-chambered heart
(3) a double circulatory system and a four-chambered heart
(4) a double circulatory system and a two-chambered heart
45. During the breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain ______ of air (even after
forceful expiration)
(1) Tidal volume
(2) Residual volume
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) Expiratory reserve volume
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
2 2 2
46. − b2
The square root of xb × xb +2ab
× xa is
(a+b)2
(1) x2(a+b)
a+b
(2) x 2 (3) x 2 (4) xa+b

1
47. If x = , find the value of x3 – 2x2 – 7x + 5.
2− 3
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 3
48. In the given figure (not drawn to scale), O is the centre of the circle. For what values of x and y, chord BC will
pass through the centre of circle where points A, B and C are on the circle?

(1) x = 90°, y = 60° (2) x = 75°, y = 30° (3) x = 65°, y = 90° (4) x = 90°, y = 65°
49. The length of each side of an equilateral triangle of area 16 3 cm2 is
(1) 4 cm (2) 4 3 cm (3) 8 3 cm (4) 8 cm
50. For the following distribution :
Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
No. of Students 3 9 13 10 5
The number of students who got marks less than 30 is
(1) 13 (2) 25 (3) 10 (4) 12
51. A cylindrical vessel 32 cm high and with radius of the base 18 cm, is filled with sand. This bucket is emptied on
the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, the radius of its base
is
(1) 12 cm (2) 24 cm (3) 36 cm (4) 48 cm
52. In the given figure, DE || BC. Find the perimeter of Δ ABC.

(1) 9.1 cm (2) 11.2 cm (3) 9.2 cm (4) 13.3 cm

53. First 126 natural numbers are put side by side in the ascending order to form a large number: 123456... 125126.
What will be the remainder when this large number is divided by 5625?
(1) 5126 (2) 126 (3) 26 (4) 100
54. Consider the rectangle DEFG in the XY plane containing identical circles A and B inside it as shown in the figure.

The coordinates of E and F are (9, 6) and (9, 0) respectively. It is given that a= GF and b = EF , then which
among the following is true?
(1) a= 2b (2) a = b (3) a2 = 3b2 (4) a = 2b
x2 x
55. If α and β are the roots of the equation ax2 – bx + c = 0, then 2
+ + 1 = 0 is same as
(α + β) (α + β)
2 2 2 2
(1) a x + abx + b = 0 (2) ax + bx + c = 0
a
(3) a2x2 – abx + c2 = 0 (4) x2 − x + ac = 0
b
1
56. If sin(A – B) = and cos(A+B) = 1 , then A and B will be respectively
2 2
(1) 15°, 45° (2) 45°, 45° (3) 60°, 30° (4) 45°,15°
16
57. The pair of equations 3x+4y = 18 and 4x + y = 24 has
3
(1) Infinitely many solutions (2) Unique solution
(3) No solution (4) cannot say anything
58. If tan3 θ + cot3 θ = 52, then the value of tan2 θ + cot2 θ is equal to
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17
59. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km per hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is
25m long and 22m wide. Determine the time in which the level of water in the tank will rise by 21 cm
22
T ake π = .
7

(1) 2 hrs (2) 1 (3) 3 hrs (4) 1

hrs 1 hrs
2 2
60. If in two triangles DEF and PQR, ∠ D = ∠ Q and ∠ R = ∠ E, then which of the following is not true?
EF DF DE EF DE DF EF DE
(1) = (2) = (3) = (4) =
PR PQ PQ RP QR PQ RP QR
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. If S is sister of T, T is brother of U and U is son of V. How V is related to S ?
(1) Mother (2) Father
(3) Father or Mother (4) Daughter
62. Which among the given years will have exactly same calender with 2024 ?
(1) 2080 (2) 2035
(3) 2030 (4) 2048
63. If June 17th of a year was Sunday, then what day of the week will be on 31st Aug of the same year ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday
(3) Friday (4) Saturday
64. At what time between 5 : 30 and 6 O’clock will the hands of a clock be at right angle ?
3 7
(1) 43 min past 5 (2) 43 min past 5
11 11
(3) 40 min past 5 (4) 45 min past 5
65. How many times will the hands of a clock be in straight line between 1 O'Clock to 9 O'Clock ?
(1) 18 (2) 17
(3) 15 (4) 20
66. In a certain code language, 'GOURD' is written as 21-4-5-10-24. How will 'BRINJAL' be written in the same
code language ?
(1) 25-9-3-14-18-1-15
(2) 26-10-5-14-18-2-16
(3) 26-10-3-14-18-1-16
(4) 2-10-3-14-18-1-12
67. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(1) 24 (2) 32
(3) 44 (4) 36
68. A dice has m, n, o, p, q and r printed on it’s six faces. If the net of that dice is given below (X). Which of the
given options don’t represent the dice ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

69. One morning, a person was performing yoga with his head down and legs up. If at this time his face is towards
South-East, then in which direction will his left hand be ?
(1) North-West (2) South-West
(3) North (4) South
70. Find the figure out of the given options which has been embedded in the figure (X) given below.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

71. If a + b means a – b; a – b means a × b; a × b means a ÷ b; a ÷ b means a + b, then what is the value of

10 + 30 – 100 × 50 ÷ 25? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously)
(1) 15
(2) 0
(3) – 15
(4) – 25
72. Find the suitable number to replace the ‘?’ .

(1) 47 (2) 29
(3) 57 (4) 87
73. In a certain code MANGO is written as 188, RUN is written as 79, then the word ANGARE will be coded as
(1) 524 (2) 425
(3) 542 (4) 245
74. Find the next number in the given series :
5, 16, 51, 158, ?
(1) 1452 (2) 483
(3) 481 (4) 1454
75. Find the missing number in the given series :
4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294
(1) 32 (2) 36
(3) 48 (4) 54
76. In the following series, how many such odd numbers are there which are divisible by 3 or 5 then followed by odd
numbers and then also followed by even numbers ?
12, 19, 21, 3, 25, 18, 35, 20, 22, 21, 45, 46, 47, 48, 9, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56
(1) Nil (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
77. In a row of kids all are facing North, K is 35th from the left end while R is 20th from the right end and 9th to the
right of E. If K sits second to the left of E then, find out the total number of persons of the row?
(1) 65 (2) 67
(3) 68 (4) Can't be determined
78. Ayush, Hina, Harbhajan and George are friends studying in Delhi and plan to go on winter holiday somewhere in
India. They can go to Rajasthan, Goa, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and any of the North Eastern States.
Ayush is willing to go any where except North Eastern States. Harbhajan prefers not to go to Goa and Kerala.
Hina wants to go Goa and Odisha. George does not mind as long as it is not Rajasthan. Which destination would
be acceptable to all ?
(1) Goa
(2) Odisha
(3) Kerala
(4) Madhya Pradesh
79. Six friends Ajay, Balu, Rahul, Raju, Virat and Rishi are sitting around a circle facing inside.
(1) Virat and Rahul are exactly opposite to each other.
(2) Ajay is in between Virat and Raju.
(3) Raju is immediately to the left of Rahul.
(4) Balu is not exactly opposite to Raju.
Who is sitting opposite to Ajay ?
(1) Balu (2) Rishi (3) Raju (4) Virat
80. Read the statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the two given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements :
A. Some men are educated.
B. Educated men prefer small families.
Conclusions :
I. All small families are educated.
II. Some men prefer small families.
(1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows
(3) Both I and II follow (4) Neither I nor II follows
 ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 2 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 3

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 4 1 3 2 3 4 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 1 4 1 1 4 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 1 2 1 2

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