Review Test With Answers

Name: ______________________
Class: _________________
Date: _________
ID: A
Psychology Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. The first psychological laboratory was established by

a. Jean Piaget.
b. William James.
c. Sigmund Freud.
d. Wilhelm Wundt.
e. John Watson.
____
2. Who would be most likely to emphasize the role of the unconscious in affecting behavior?
a. Ivan Pavlov
b. William James
c. Sigmund Freud
d. John B. Watson
e. Carl Rogers
____
3. Which perspective is most directly concerned with how the physical properties of the brain
influence behaviors and mental states?

a. biological
b. social-cultural
c. psychodynamic
d. cognitive
e. behavioral
____
4. A clinical psychologist who explains behavior in terms of unconscious drives and conflicts is
employing a(n) ________ perspective.

a. psychodynamic
b. evolutionary
c. behavioral
d. social-cultural
e. cognitive
____
5. Which psychological perspective highlights the manner in which people encode, process, store, and
retrieve information?
a. evolutionary
b. cognitive
c. psychodynamic
d. behavioral
e. biological
Name: ______________________
____
ID: A
6. Which professional specialty focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of people with psychological
disorders?
a. developmental psychology
b. personality psychology
c. clinical psychology
d. social psychology
e. biological psychology
____
7. When we see certain outcomes as obvious based on what has occurred, we may be experiencing
a. humility.
b. overconfidence.
c. empiricism.
d. critical thinking.
e. hindsight bias.
____
8. A questioning attitude regarding psychologists' assumptions and hidden values best illustrates
a. the hindsight bias.
b. overconfidence.
c. illusory correlation.
d. critical thinking.
e. hypotheses.
____
9. A majority of respondents in a national survey agreed that classroom prayer should not be allowed
in public schools. Only 33 percent of respondents in a similar survey agreed that classroom prayer
in public schools should be banned. These divergent findings best illustrate the importance of
a. random assignment.
b. the hindsight bias.
c. wording effects.
d. operational definition.
e. overconfidence.
____ 10. The complete set of cases from which samples may be drawn is called a(n)
a. survey.
b. control condition.
c. independent variable.
d. case study.
e. population.
____ 11. To exercise maximum control over the factors they are interested in studying, researchers engage in
a. case studies.
b. experimentation.
c. replication.
d. correlational research.
e. surveys.
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 12. The relief of pain following the ingestion of an inert substance that is presumed to have medicinal
benefits illustrates
a. illusory correlation.
b. the double-blind effect.
c. random assignment.
d. the placebo effect.
e. the hindsight bias.
____ 13. In a drug treatment study, participants given a pill containing no actual drug are receiving a(n)
a. placebo.
b. experimental treatment.
c. double-blind.
d. replication.
e. random sample.
____ 14. Which of the following is true for those assigned to a control group?
a. The experimenter exerts the greatest influence on participants' behavior.
b. The research participants are exposed to the most favorable levels of experimental
c.
d.
e.
treatment.
The research participants are exposed to all the different experimental treatments.
The experimental treatment is absent.
The operational definition is not applied to their variables.
____ 15. To understand the British newspaper headline Income for 62% Is Below Average, it is necessary
to appreciate the distinction between the ________ and the mean.

a. range
b. mode
c. median
d. correlation
e. standard deviation
____ 16. The range is
a. the average deviation of scores from the mean.
b. the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.
c. the most commonly used measure of variation.
d. the most frequently occurring score in a distribution of scores.
e. a total population from which samples may be drawn.
____ 17. Which of the following is a measure of the degree of variation among a set of events?
a. standard deviation
b. scatterplot
c. median
d. correlation coefficient
e. mean
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 18. The nineteenth-century theory that bumps on the skull reveal a person's abilities and traits is called
a. behavior genetics.
b. biological psychology.
c. phrenology.
d. evolutionary psychology.
e. molecular biology.
____ 19. Your friend is taking her first psychology class. She comes to you saying, I don't understand why
we are studying the brain; I thought this was a psychology class. Because of your background in
psychology, your best response should be
a. Phrenologists established the importance of studying the physical brain to
understand mental abilities.
b. It's been known since Aristotle's time that the brain is the center of intelligence
and thought.
c. Everything psychological is simultaneously biological.
d. Being able to name the parts of the brain helps us understand the basis of
behavior.
e. Science has demonstrated that Plato's belief in the heart as the origin of emotion
is correct.
____ 20. Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles located on knoblike terminals at the end of the
a. cell body.
b. dendrites.
c. axon.
d. myelin sheath.
e. synapse.
____ 21. A synapse is a(n)
a. neural network.
b. junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron.
c. automatic response to sensory input.
d. chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions.
e. neural cable containing many axons.
____ 22. The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called
a. motor neurons.
b. synapses.
c. sensory neurons.
d. neurotransmitters.
e. hormones.
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 23. The strengthening of synaptic connections facilitates the formation of

a. interneurons.
b. neural networks.
c. lesions.
d. endorphins.
e. glial cells.
____ 24. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released by the
a. adrenal glands.
b. pancreas.
c. parathyroids.
d. pituitary gland.
e. thyroid gland.
____ 25. Which brain structure receives information from all the senses except smell?
a. hippocampus
b. thalamus
c. medulla.
d. pons
e. amygdala
____ 26. Which neural center in the limbic system plays a central role in emotions such as aggression and fear?
a. amygdala
b. cerebellum
c. medulla
d. dendrite
e. thalamus
____ 27. The association areas are located in the
a. brainstem.
b. cerebral cortex.
c. spinal cord.
d. limbic system.
e. thalamus.
____ 28. The most extensive regions of the cerebral cortex, which enable learning and memory, are called the
a. reticular formation.
b. cerebellum.
c. sensory areas.
d. medulla.
e. association areas.
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 29. Someone who has difficulty speaking after a stroke is suffering from which of the following?
a. lesion
b. interneurons
c. neurogenesis
d. aphasia
e. angular gyrus
____ 30. The capacity of one brain area to take over the functions of another damaged brain area is known as
brain
a. phrenology.
b. plasticity.
c. tomography.
d. hemispherectomy.
e. aphasia.
____ 31. Physical exercise and exposure to stimulating environments are most likely to promote
a. hemispherectomy.
b. phrenology.
c. reward deficiency syndrome.
d. plasticity.
e. neurogenesis.
____ 32. Information is most quickly transmitted from one cerebral hemisphere to the other by the
a. angular gyrus.
b. limbic system.
c. corpus callosum.
d. medulla.
e. reticular formation.
____ 33. Split-brain patients have had their ________ surgically cut.
a. reticular formation
b. sensory cortex
c. limbic system
d. hippocampus
e. corpus callosum
____ 34. The study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior and
personality traits is known as

a. behavior genetics.
b. molecular genetics.
c. natural selection.
d. evolutionary psychology.
e. genome research.
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 35. When people discuss the nature vs. nurture controversy, Nature refers to ________ and Nurture
refers to ________.
a. genes; heredity
b. chromosomes; genetics
c. DNA; hormones
d. biology; environment
e. thinking; behavior
____ 36. Fraternal twins originate from the fertilization of
a. two egg cells by two sperm cells.
b. a single egg cell by a single sperm cell.
c. a divided egg cell and one sperm cell.
d. a single egg cell by two sperm cells.
e. two egg cells by a single sperm cell.
____ 37. Twin studies suggest that Alzheimer's disease is influenced by
a. heredity.
b. natural selection.
c. nurture.
d. hormones.
e. environment.
____ 38. Compared with identical twins, fraternal twins are
a. less likely to be the same sex and equally likely to be similar in extraversion.
b. more likely to be the same sex and more likely to be similar in extraversion.
c. less likely to be the same sex and more likely to be similar in extraversion.
d. less likely to be the same sex and less likely to be similar in extraversion.
e. more likely to be the same sex and less likely to be similar in extraversion.
____ 39. Who are likely to show the greatest similarity in personality?
a. Philip and Paul, fraternal twins
b. Larry and Laura, brother and sister
c. Elizabeth and Betsy, mother and daughter
d. Vincent Sr. and Vincent Jr., father and son
e. Ruth and Ramona, identical twins
____ 40. Molecular behavior geneticists seek links between __________ and specific disorders.
a. chromosomes
b. proteins
c. behavior
d. environment
e. genes
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 41. Evolutionary psychology studies the evolution of behavior and the mind using principles of
a. genome mapping.
b. natural selection.
c. behaviorism.
d. humanism.
e. naturalistic observation.
____ 42. Natural selection acts on
a. siblings.
b. proteins.
c. cells.
d. individuals.
e. populations.
____ 43. Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to emphasize that human adaptiveness to a variety of
different environments has contributed to human

a. behavior correlations.
b. naturalistic observation.
c. prenatal development.
d. genetic mutations.
e. reproductive success.
____ 44. Dmitry Belyaev and Lyudmila Trut successfully domesticated wild foxes by means of
a. heritability.
b. selective mating.
c. training.
d. gene splicing.
e. hormone injections.
____ 45. An adaptation is an inherited physical or behavioral characteristic that
a. increases an organism's chance for survival.
b. is ecologically disruptive.
c. may or may not benefit the organism.
d. has no effect on fitness.
e. enables an organism to control its environment.
____ 46. Researchers found that women rated men higher as potential long-term mates when they spent more
time looking at baby pictures. This finding suggests that

a. women prefer men who express interest in caring for joint offspring.
b. women are drawn to youthful, healthy appearing men.
c. men approach sex as being more relational.
d. women have a lower threshold for perceiving warm responses as sexual.
e. men are less attracted to women who are likely to reproduce.
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 47. Which statement best reflects current psychology's understanding of the relationship between nature
and nurture?
a. nature versus nurture
b. nature or nurture
c. nurture alone
d. nature via nurture
e. nature alone
____ 48. As the brain receives information about the lines, angles, and edges of objects in the environment,
higher-level cells process and interpret the information to consciously recognize objects. This
process best illustrates
a. bottom-up processing.
b. psychophysics.
c. perception.
d. sensation.
e. selective attention.
____ 49. The process of receiving and representing stimulus energies by the nervous system is called
a. synaesthesia.
b. priming.
c. sensation.
d. perception.
e. accommodation.
____ 50. The detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system is called
a. sensation.
b. signal detection.
c. priming.
d. accommodation.
e. synaesthesia.
____ 51. Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the
a. feature detectors.
b. occipital lobe.
c. optic nerve.
d. sensory receptors.
e. cerebral cortex.
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 52. You typically fail to consciously perceive that your own nose is in your line of vision. This best
illustrates
a. the visual cliff.
b. selective attention.
c. subliminal perception.
d. change blindness.
e. fovea.
____ 53. In University of Utah driving-simulation experiments, students conversing on cell phones were
slower to detect and respond to traffic signals. This best illustrates

a. gate-control theory.
b. place theory.
c. selective attention.
d. retinal disparity.
e. the phi phenomenon.
____ 54. Researchers found that 40 percent of people focused on repeating a list of challenging words failed to
notice a change in the person speaking. This best illustrates

a. change deafness.
b. the difference threshold.
c. feature detectors.
d. the blind spot.
e. priming.
____ 55. When Jason briefly turned to summon the waiter, his wife quickly switched her glass of red wine
with his glass of white wine. Jason's failure to notice that his chosen wine had been replaced best
illustrates
a. place theory.
b. sensory interaction.
c. figure-ground.
d. change blindness.
e. parallel processing.
____ 56. While a man provided directions to a construction worker, two experimenters rudely interrupted by
passing between them carrying a door. The student's failure to notice that the construction worker
was replaced by a different person during this interruption illustrates
a. gate-control theory.
b. blind spot.
c. change blindness.
d. top-down processing.
e. bottom-up processing.
10
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 57. During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr. Antall
could hardly detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall's
a. auditory threshold.
b. difference threshold.
c. subliminal threshold.
d. adaptation threshold.
e. absolute threshold.
____ 58. An exhausted forest ranger may notice the faintest scent of a forest fire, whereas much stronger but
less important odors fail to catch her attention. This fact would be of greatest relevance to
a. frequency theory.
b. the Young-Helmholtz theory.
c. signal detection theory.
d. place theory.
e. opponent-process theory.
____ 59. Audiotapes of soothing ocean sounds accompanied by faint and imperceptible verbal messages
designed to increase a desire to lose weight best illustrate

a. difference thresholds.
b. parallel processing.
c. subliminal stimulation.
d. sensory interaction.
e. synaesthesia.
____ 60. News about the supposed effects of briefly presented messages on people's feelings of being thirsty
involved false claims regarding

a. kinesthesis.
b. parallel processing.
c. difference thresholds.
d. synaesthesia.
e. subliminal stimulation.
____ 61. Diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as
a. accommodation.
b. transduction.
c. equilibrium.
d. sensory adaptation.
e. blindsight.
11
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 62. Sensory adaptation refers to

a. the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information.
b. the process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural impulses.
c. changes in the shape of the lens as it focuses on objects.
d. increasing perception of a constant, annoying stimuli.
e. diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
____ 63. Accommodation refers to the
a. process by which the lens changes shape to focus images on the retina.
b. system for sensing the position and movement of muscles, tendons, and joints.
c. process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural messages.
d. diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
e. quivering eye movements that enable the retina to detect continuous stimulation.
____ 64. Objects are brought into focus on the retina by changes in the curvature and thickness of the
a. bipolar cells.
b. optic nerve.
c. rods and cones.
d. lens.
e. cornea.
____ 65. The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the rods and cones, is the
a. fovea.
b. retina.
c. iris.
d. cornea.
e. optic nerve.
____ 66. The receptor cells that convert light energy into neural signals are called
a. ganglion cells.
b. feature detectors.
c. bipolar cells.
d. opponent processors.
e. rods and cones.
____ 67. Bipolar cells are located in the
a. optic nerve.
b. retina.
c. lens.
d. blind spot.
e. cochlea.
12
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 68. The area of the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is called the
a. blind spot.
b. pupil.
c. cornea.
d. visual cortex.
e. lens.
____ 69. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel respond to specific aspects of ________
stimulation.
a. kinesthetic
b. visual
c. auditory
d. olfactory
e. vestibular
____ 70. Feature detectors
a. are primarily located in the fovea.
b. are retinal cells that allow you to see in dim light and are located in the periphery
c.
d.
e.
of the eye.
cause the lens to change its curvature in response to incoming light waves.
are nerve cells in the brain's visual cortex that fire in response to specific edges,
lines, and angles.
combine to form the optic nerve, which sends visual information to the brain.
____ 71. Researchers found that if they temporarily disrupted one region of the visual cortex with magnetic
pulses, people were unable to recognize faces but could still recognize houses. This suggests that
a. two separate brain regions process information about faces and objects.
b. information presented in the right visual field is processed in the left hemisphere
of the brain.
c. the fovea is the retina's area of central focus.
d. the physical characteristics of light determine our sensory experience of them.
e. visual information is processed by opponent cells in the retina.
____ 72. Current research suggests that
a. frequency theory shows promise in explaining how we experience color vision.
b. the Young-Helmholtz theory best explains how we experience color.
c. both the Young-Helmholtz and the opponent-process theories are wrong in
d.
e.
explaining color vision.

opponent-process theory is the most comprehensive theory for explaining color
vision.
both the trichromatic and opponent-process theories are valid in explaining color
vision.
13
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 73. The pitch of a sound is determined by what?

a. the decibel level of the sound wave
b. the vestibular level of the sound wave
c. the amplitude of the sound wave
d. the frequency of the sound wave
e. the loudness of the sound wave
____ 74. Sound wave vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in the
a. vestibular sacs.
b. cochlea.
c. semicircular canals.
d. middle ear.
e. inner ear.
____ 75. The coiled, fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called the
a. eustachian tube.
b. semicircular canal.
c. cochlea.
d. auditory canal.
e. vestibular apparatus.
____ 76. The discovery that high-frequency sounds trigger large vibrations near the beginning of the basilar
membrane supports the ________ theory.

a. place
b. gate-control
c. opponent-process
d. frequency
e. Young-Helmholtz
____ 77. According to frequency theory
a. high-frequency sounds trigger a wave of activity that peaks near the beginning of
b.
c.
d.
e.
the basilar membrane.

the rate at which impulses travel up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of
the tone being heard.
most sound waves are a complex mixture of many frequencies.
we hear different pitches because different sound waves cause different parts of
the nerve cells in the cochlea to fire.
frequent or prolonged stimulation of a sensory receptor causes that receptor to
become less sensitive.
14
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 78. A cochlear implant would be most helpful for those who suffer
a. loss of movement.
b. sensorineural hearing loss.
c. conduction hearing loss.
d. loss of balance.
e. loss of position.
____ 79. A cochlear implant converts sounds into
a. air pressure changes.
b. neurotransmitters.
c. fluid vibrations.
d. electrical signals.
e. decibels.
____ 80. Researchers have identified receptors for which of the following skin sensations?
a. pain
b. warmth
c. cold
d. hot
e. pressure
____ 81. Which of the following sensory receptors detect hurtful temperatures, pressure, or chemicals?
a. ganglion
b. olfactory
c. bipolar
d. nociceptors
e. hair cells
____ 82. The classic gate-control theory suggests that pain is experienced when small nerve fibers activate and
open a neural gate in the

a. olfactory bulb.
b. spinal cord.
c. basilar membrane.
d. semicircular canals.
e. fovea.
____ 83. If Jared watches a nurse give him an injection, he experiences more pain than if he closes his eyes
during the procedure and thinks about his favorite food. This illustrates the value of ________ for
pain control.
a. subliminal stimulation
b. distraction
c. perceptual adaptation
d. sensory adaptation
e. blindsight
15
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 84. People who carry a gene that boosts the availability of ________ are less bothered by pain.
a. ganglion fibers
b. endorphins
c. transduction
d. nociceptors
e. growth hormones
____ 85. Our sense of taste originally was thought to involve only the following four sensations
a. salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet.
b. sweet, salty, starch, and bitter.
c. bitter, sweet, sour, and salty.
d. sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy.
e. fruity, fatty, silky, and coarse.
____ 86. With her eyes closed and her nose plugged, Chandra was unable to taste the difference between an
onion and a pear. Her experience best illustrates the importance of

a. subliminal stimulation.
b. sensory transduction.
c. sensory adaptation.
d. sensory interaction.
e. accommodation.
____ 87. The sense of smell is known as
a. the gustatory sense.
b. transduction.
c. the vestibular sense.
d. subliminal stimulation.
e. olfaction.
____ 88. Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense?
a. touch
b. smell
c. kinesthesis
d. audition
e. vision
____ 89. Olfactory receptor cells are essential for our sense of
a. hearing.
b. smell.
c. touch.
d. equilibrium.
e. kinesthesis.
16
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 90. Who emphasized that the whole may exceed the sum of its parts?
a. evolutionary psychologists
b. Gestalt psychologists
c. behaviorists
d. psychoanalysts
e. parapsychologists
____ 91. One of the ways we perceive images is by organizing stimuli into an object seen against its
surroundings. What is this perceptual tendency called?

a. retinal disparity
b. opponent-process theory
c. sensory adaptation
d. binocular cue
e. figure-ground
____ 92. Depth perception that uses information transmitted to only one eye depends on
a. monocular cues.
b. lightness constancy.
c. relative luminance.
d. perceptual adaptation.
e. stroboscopic movement.
____ 93. The convergence of parallel lines provides the distance cue known as
a. closure.
b. linear perspective.
c. relative height.
d. continuity.
e. interposition.
____ 94. Renny knew the red tulip was closer to her than the yellow tulip because the red one cast a larger
retinal image than the yellow one. This illustrates the importance of the distance cue known as
a. continuity.
b. relative height.
c. interposition.
d. relative size.
e. proximity.
____ 95. As we move, objects that are fixed in place (a light pole, for example) may appear to move. What is
this monocular cue for depth called?

a. retinal disparity
b. interposition
c. relative motion
d. continuity
e. proximity
17
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____ 96. Imagine your friend walking toward you in the hall at school. As your friend gets closer, the image
cast on your retina

a. appears higher in your field of vision.
b. stays exactly the same.
c. gets darker.
d. gets smaller.
e. gets larger.
____ 97. The quick succession of briefly flashed images in a motion picture produces
a. stroboscopic movement.
b. linear perspective.
c. retinal disparity.
d. frequency theory.
e. the Ponzo illusion.
____ 98. The perceived size of an object is most strongly influenced by that object's perceived
a. frequency.
b. distance.
c. color.
d. shape.
e. motion.
____ 99. In 1972, a British newspaper published pictures of a Loch Ness Monster. Many people readily
perceived photographs of a floating tree trunk as the partially submerged monster. This illustrates
the powerful influence of
a. sensory interaction.
b. perceptual set.
c. feature detectors.
d. sensory adaptation.
e. interposition.
____100. Psychologists are skeptical about ESP claims because
a. such abilities cannot be tested scientifically.
b. parapsychologists accept fraudulent evidence.
c. studies claiming to demonstrate such abilities fail at replication.
d. ethical concerns make testing such abilities relatively impossible.
e. researchers have difficulty finding participants for such research.
____101. Your consciously activated but limited-capacity memory is called ________ memory.
a. automatic
b. implicit
c. mood-congruent
d. explicit
e. short-term
18
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____102. The relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system is called ________
memory.
a. long-term
b. state-dependent
c. implicit
d. flashbulb
e. sensory
____103. To recognize the active information processing that occurs in short-term memory, researchers have
characterized it as ________ memory.

a. iconic
b. working
c. repressed
d. implicit
e. flashbulb
____104. In an effort to remember how to spell rhinoceros, Samantha spells the word aloud 30 times. She is
using a technique known as

a. chunking.
b. the peg-word system.
c. priming.
d. the serial position effect.
e. rehearsal.
____105. Semantic encoding refers to the processing of
a. sounds.
b. unfamiliar units.
c. touch sensations.
d. meanings.
e. visual images.
____106. The magical number seven, plus or minus two refers to the storage capacity of ________ memory.
a. sensory
b. short-term
c. explicit
d. flashbulb
e. implicit
19
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____107. The smell of freshly baked bread awakened in Mr. Hutz vivid memories of his early childhood. The
aroma apparently acted as a powerful

a. implicit memory.
b. mnemonic.
c. echoic memory.
d. spacing effect.
e. retrieval cue.
____108. The inability to remember how Lincoln's head appears on a penny is most likely due to a failure in
a. retrieval.
b. implicit memory.
c. iconic memory.
d. encoding.
e. storage.
____109. The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information is called
a. the spacing effect.
b. proactive interference.
c. retroactive interference.
d. state-dependent memory.
e. the serial position effect.
____110. The finding that people who sleep after learning a list of nonsense syllables forget less than people
who stay awake provides evidence that forgetting may involve

a. repression.
b. implicit memory loss.
c. long-term potentiation.
d. encoding failure.
e. interference.
____111. Who emphasized that we repress anxiety-arousing memories?
a. Lloyd Peterson
b. Elizabeth Loftus
c. Sigmund Freud
d. George Sperling
e. Hermann Ebbinghaus
20
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____112. Philippe has just completed medical school. In reflecting on his years of formal education, he is able
to recall the names of all his instructors except the fifth-grade teacher who flunked him. According to
Freud, his forgetting illustrates
a. proactive interference.
b. retroactive interference.
c. the spacing effect.
d. the serial position effect.
e. repression.
____113. The misinformation effect refers to the
a. negative effect of incorrect information on recall.
b. the eerie sense that I've been in this exact situation before.
c. tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with one's current good or bad
d.
e.
mood.
incorporation of misleading information into one's memory of an event.
disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information.
____114. Which of the following poses the greatest threat to the credibility of children's recollections of sexual
abuse?
a. the spacing effect
b. the misinformation effect
c. the serial position effect
d. long-term potentiation
e. proactive interference
____115. Answerwering practice test questions about text material you have studied is a useful strategy for
a. enhancing implicit memories.
b. facilitating the development of implicit memory.
c. becoming aware of what you do not yet know.
d. automatically processing complex information.
e. activating your state-dependent memory.
____116. Cognitive psychologists are most directly concerned with the study of
a. brain chemistry.
b. emotion.
c. the unconscious.
d. thinking.
e. genetics.
21
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____117. Which of the following are we likely to recognize first as belonging to the category mammal?
a. bats
b. aardvarks
c. whales
d. hamsters
e. humans
____118. In testing thousands of different materials for use as lightbulb filaments, Thomas Edison best
illustrated a problem-solving approach known as

a. the confirmation bias.
b. the representativeness heuristic.
c. functional fixedness.
d. belief perseverance.
e. trial and error.
____119. An algorithm is a
a. simple thinking strategy for making decisions quickly and efficiently.
b. method of hypothesis testing involving trial and error.
c. best example of a particular category.
d. specific kind of prototype.
e. methodical step-by-step procedure for solving problems.
____120. Heuristics are
a. simple thinking strategies for solving problems quickly and efficiently.
b. problem-solving strategies involving the use of trial and error.
c. mental groupings of similar objects, events, or people.
d. thinking strategies that often hasten insights.
e. methodical step-by-step procedures for solving problems.
____121. We fear too little those events that will claim lives
a. undramatically.
b. one person at a time.
c. accidentally.
d. in old age.
e. in the near future.
____122. When Larina entered high school she was certain that she would never eat any of the junk food sold
in the vending machines. By the end of tenth grade, however, Larina was munching on at least one
bag of chips a day. Larina's experience best illustrates
a. confirmation bias.
b. overconfidence.
c. the belief perseverance phenomenon.
d. the availability heuristic.
e. the framing effect.
22
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____123. In contrast to our explicit conscious reasoning, our seemingly effortless and automatic feelings or
thoughts are called

a. mental sets.
b. intuitions.
c. phonemes.
d. algorithms.
e. heuristics.
____124. The spontaneous utterance of a variety of sounds by infants is called
a. universal grammar.
b. babbling.
c. syntax.
d. telegraphic speech.
e. morpheme.
____125. B. F. Skinner emphasized the importance of ________ in language acquisition.
a. universal grammar
b. algorithms
c. reinforcement
d. cognition
e. heuristics
____126. Research suggests that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second language during
a. late adolescence.
b. early adolescence.
c. childhood.
d. late adulthood.
e. early adulthood.
____127. Whorf's linguistic determinism hypothesis emphasizes that
a. infancy is a critical period for language development.
b. morphemes and phonemes build grammar and language.
c. all languages share a similar grammar.
d. our linguistic proficiencies influence our social status.
e. words shape the way people think.
____128. When English-speaking Canadian children were taught only in French during their early school years,
researchers found that they experienced a(n)

a. slight loss of verbal fluency in English.
b. smaller-than-average improvement in mathematical ability.
c. improvement in intellectual aptitude.
d. delayed onset of telegraphic speech.
e. confused sense of cultural identity.
23
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____129. People's procedural memory of how to open the front door of their house is most likely to consist of
a. telegraphic speech.
b. an algorithm.
c. a mental image.
d. universal grammar.
e. a heuristic.
____130. Our capacity for thinking without language is best illustrated by
a. the representativeness heuristic.
b. unconscious information processing.
c. functional fixedness.
d. the framing effect.
e. the belief perseverance phenomenon.
____131. An individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting is his or her
a. reality principle.
b. hierarchy of needs.
c. ego
d. personality.
e. self-esteem.
____132. Mark typically responds to stress in a calm and thoughtful manner. Chandler usually becomes
agitated. The reactions of Mark and Chandler indicate that each has a distinctive
a. reaction formation.
b. collective unconscious.
c. Oedipus complex.
d. personality.
e. self-serving bias.
____133. A psychotherapist instructs Dane to relax, close his eyes, and state aloud whatever thoughts come to
mind no matter how trivial or absurd. The therapist is using a technique known as
a. hypnosis.
b. free association.
c. projection.
d. factor analysis.
e. fixation.
____134. Free association is central to the process of
a. psychoanalysis.
b. reciprocal determinism.
c. unconditional positive regard.
d. self-serving bias.
e. factor analysis.
24
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____135. Which of the following techniques was Freud most likely to use in an attempt to discover the hidden
conflicts underlying his patients' symptoms?

a. projective testing
b. unconditional positive regard
c. free association
d. fixation
e. factor analysis
____136. Freud called his theory of personality and the associated treatment techniques
a. a social-cognitive perspective.
c. psychoanalysis.
d. a humanistic perspective.
e. terror-management theory.
____137. According to Freud, the unconscious is
a. the thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories of which we are largely unaware.
b. a set of universal concepts acquired by all humans from our common past.
c. the personality structure that abides by the reality principle.
d. the part of personality that cannot process information.
e. a reservoir of deeply repressed memories that does not affect behavior.
____138. According to Freud, thoughts that are too unsettling for people to acknowledge are
a. self-serving biases.
b. inferiority complexes.
c. manifest contents.
d. social-cognitive.
e. repressed.
____139. Which of the following techniques did Freud use to discover the latent content of his patients'
dreams?
a. fixation
b. free association
c. factor analysis
d. projective testing
e. the Barnum effect
____140. Freud emphasized that the id operates on the ________ principle.
a. ego
b. collectivism
c. identity
d. self-transcendence
e. pleasure
25
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____141. When 2-year-old Matthew was told he would get no dessert until he finished the food on his plate,
he threw his plate on the floor in a temper tantrum. Freud would have suggested that Matthew was
unable to resist the demands of his
a. Oedipus complex.
b. id.
c. collective unconscious.
d. superego.
e. ego.
____142. Jordan feels guilty for hurting his younger brother. Freud would have attributed these feelings to
Jordan's
a. fixation.
b. superego.
c. collective unconscious.
d. ego.
e. id.
____143. Janine is repulsed by the thought of watching a pornographic video. Freud would have attributed
these feelings to Janine's

a. inferiority complex.
b. id.
c. ego.
d. superego.
e. self-concept.
____144. Which of the following is the correct order of Freud's psychosexual stages of development?
a. genital, latency, phallic, anal, oral
b. phallic, anal, oral, genital, latency
c. oral, genital, phallic, latency, anal
d. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital
e. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
____145. Freud suggested that the id's pleasure-seeking energies focus on distinct pleasure-sensitive areas of
the body known as

a. Oedipus complexes.
b. the Big Five.
c. fixations.
d. erogenous zones.
e. psychosexual stages.
26
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____146. A boy's sexual desires for his mother and feelings of hostility toward his father constitute what
Freud called
b. displacement.
c. an oral fixation.
d. the Oedipus complex.
e. reciprocal determinism.
____147. Freud emphasized that unresolved childhood conflicts often lead to
a. fixation.
c. an external locus of control.
d. the self-reference phenomenon.
e. unconditional positive regard.
____148. According to Freud, the defense mechanism that underlies all others is
a. displacement.
b. reaction formation.
c. projection.
d. regression.
e. repression.
____149. Freud suggested that a man's inability to remember his childhood Oedipus complex illustrates
a. displacement.
b. rationalization.
c. repression.
d. fixation.
e. projection.
____150. Children who release unexpressed anger toward their parents by kicking the family pet illustrate the
defense mechanism of
a. projection.
b. regression.
c. reaction formation.
d. displacement.
e. sublimation.
____151. The defense mechanism in which self-justifying explanations replace the real, unconscious reasons
for actions is
a. denial.
b. rationalization.
c. displacement.
d. projection.
e. reaction formation.
27
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____152. Refusing to believe or even to perceive painful realities constitutes the defense mechanism known as
a. displacement.
b. projection.
c. regression.
d. reaction formation.
e. denial.
____153. Henry Murray found that children's perceptions of photographs were biased by their previous
participation in a frightening game. Their perceptual reactions most clearly highlighted the potential
value of
a. unconditional positive regard.
b. projective tests.
c. free association.
d. reciprocal determinism.
e. an internal locus of control.
____154. The Thematic Apperception Test requires people to respond to
a. ambiguous pictures.
b. unfamiliar melodies.
c. focus questions.
d. meaningless inkblots.
e. incomplete sentences.
____155. The Thematic Apperception Test is a(n)
a. trait theory test.
b. projective test.
c. factor analytic test.
d. personality inventory.
e. empirically derived test.
____156. Rona was asked by her psychotherapist to describe what she saw in 10 ambiguous inkblots. Rona
was most likely responding to a(n) ________ test.

a. projective
b. empirically derived
c. aptitude
d. multiphasic personality
e. Thematic Apperception
____157. Freud emphasized that emotional healing is associated with the
a. recovery of repressed wishes.
b. displacement of repressed hostilities.
c. fixation of repressed sexual desires.
d. sublimation of impulses in the id.
e. projection of repressed fears.
28
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____158. Survivors of traumatic events, such as rape or attempted murder, are often haunted by persistent and
vivid memories of this experience. This most clearly serves to challenge Freud's concept of
a. repression.
b. motivational conflict.
c. free association.
d. learned helplessness.
e. fixation.
____159. Survivors' vivid memories of Nazi death camp experiences most clearly challenge Freud's concept of
a. the Oedipus complex.
b. fixation.
c. motivational conflict.
d. repression.
e. projection.
____160. Terror-management theory emphasizes that anxiety is triggered by an awareness of one's
a. erogenous zones.
b. impending death.
c. unconscious fixations.
____161. Which perspective on personality emphasizes the importance of our capacity for healthy growth and
self-realization?
a. terror-management
b. social-cognitive
c. humanistic
d. psychoanalytic
e. trait
____162. According to Maslow, the desire to fulfill one's potential is the motivation for
a. personal control.
b. self-esteem.
e. self-actualization.
____163. Abraham Maslow suggested that those who fulfill their potential have satisfied the need for
a. an internal locus of control.
b. an external locus of control.
e. self-actualization.
29
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____164. According to Maslow, the top-level needs that arise after all other needs have been met include the
needs for self-actualization and

a. self-awareness.
b. social acceptance.
c. self-concept.
d. self-esteem.
e. self-transcendence.
____165. Which theorist emphasized that an individual's personal growth is promoted by interactions with
others who are genuine, accepting, and empathic?

a. Carl Jung
b. Gordon Allport
c. Albert Bandura
d. Carl Rogers
e. Sigmund Freud
____166. Carl Rogers suggested that the ________ is a central feature of personality.
a. Barnum effect
b. trait
c. inferiority complex
d. collective unconscious
e. self-concept
____167. Which of the following have been criticized the most for offering concepts that are vague and
subjective?
a. social-cognitive theorists
b. humanistic theorists
c. trait theorists
d. empirical theorists
e. terror-management theorists
____168. Which personality theorists have been criticized the most for encouraging individual selfishness and
self-indulgence?
a. social-cognitive theorists
b. trait theorists
c. terror-management theorists
d. psychoanalytic theorists
e. humanistic theorists
30
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____169. Which theorists have been criticized for underestimating the human predisposition to engage in
destructive and evil behaviors?

a. trait theorists
b. humanistic theorists
c. terror-management theorists
d. psychoanalytic theorists
e. social-cognitive theorists
____170. Humanistic theorists have been criticized for
a. underestimating the inherent human capacity for destructive and evil behaviors.
b. overestimating the impact of childhood experiences on adult personality.
c. overestimating the degree of similarity among people.
d. overestimating the value of empirical tests.
e. underestimating the inconsistency of behavior from one situation to another.
____171. A consistent tendency to be shy is best described as a(n)
a. trait.
b. defense mechanism.
c. false consensus effect.
d. projection.
e. Oedipus complex.
____172. Characteristic patterns of behavior and conscious motives are called
a. self-actualizations.
b. projections.
c. manifest content.
d. traits.
e. fixations.
____173. Which instrument has been used for career counseling and work-team development to help identify
individuals' personality types?

a. the hierarchy of needs
b. the MMPI
c. the MBTI
d. the Rorschach
e. the TAT
____174. To identify a relatively small number of the most basic personality traits, trait theorists have used
a. the MMPI.
b. factor analysis.
c. social-cognitive theory.
d. free association.
e. projective tests.
31
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____175. Factor analysis has been used to identify the most basic
a. self-concepts.
b. self-serving biases.
c. psychosexual stages.
d. personality traits.
e. defense mechanisms.
____176. Trait theorists would be most likely to highlight the impact of our biologically inherited ________ on
personality.
a. temperament
b. locus of control
c. erogenous zones
d. self-concept
e. attributional style
____177. The MMPI is an example of a(n)
a. projective test.
b. humanistic test.
c. personality inventory.
d. inkblot test.
e. self-esteem test.
____178. The tendency to accept favorable descriptions of one's personality that could really be applied to
almost anyone is known as

a. the self-reference phenomenon.
b. projection.
c. the Barnum effect.
d. unconditional positive regard.
e. the halo effect.
____179. A person who is careless and disorganized most clearly ranks low on the Big Five trait dimension of
a. extraversion.
b. conscientiousness.
c. openness.
d. emotional stability.
e. agreeableness.
____180. Which of the following Big Five trait dimensions is most descriptive of an individual who is
organized and disciplined in managing his or her work?

a. agreeableness
b. extraversion
c. openness
d. candidness.
e. conscientiousness
32
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____181. Which of the following are the Big Five personality factors?
a. esteem, oppressive, nonviolent, academic, conventional
b. compassionate, actualized, noble, optimistic, even-tempered
c. avoidant, calculating, nonconforming, excitable, overconfident
d. openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism
e. collectivist, accepting, anxious, objective, empathic
____182. The person-situation controversy involves a debate regarding the influence of ________ and
________ on behavior.
a. environments; traits
b. optimism; pessimism
c. the real self; the ideal self
d. the id; the superego
e. self-concept; self-esteem
____183. Evidence that our traits persist over time and across different settings is of greatest relevance to
a. the social-cognitive perspective.
b. unconditional positive regard.
c. the person-situation controversy.
d. positive psychology.
____184. Which perspective on human personality emphasizes reciprocal determinism?
a. social-cognitive
b. trait
c. psychoanalytic
d. functionalist
e. humanistic
____185. Randy's substandard academic performance is both a result and a cause of his feelings of academic
inferiority. This best illustrates the importance of

a. the self-reference phenomenon.
b. reaction formation.
c. reciprocal determinism.
e. the Barnum effect.
____186. The perception that one's fate is determined by luck reflects
a. self-serving bias.
b. an external locus of control.
d. the pleasure principle.
e. the spotlight effect.
33
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____187. The perception that one can strongly influence the outcome and destiny of one's own life exemplifies
a. reciprocal determinism.
b. the reality principle.
c. an internal locus of control.
d. the self-reference phenomenon.
____188. In the long run, people who practice self-regulation through physical exercise and time-managed
programs experience an increase in

a. the spotlight effect.
b. self-control.
d. reaction formation.
____189. Pessimists are more likely than optimists to experience
b. repression.
c. the false consensus effect.
d. dampened immune system functioning.
____190. Most late adolescents perceive themselves as much less vulnerable than their peers to the HIV virus
that causes AIDS. This best illustrates

a. internal locus of control.
b. unrealistic optimism.
c. reaction formation.
d. repression.
____191. Excessive self-confidence is especially likely to be facilitated by the difficulty in recognizing
a. unconditional positive regard.
b. personal control.
c. superego.
d. one's own incompetence.
e. free association.
____192. Which of the following research methods is most likely to be used by psychoanalytic psychologists?
a. personality inventories
b. survey
c. correlation
d. case study
e. experimentation
34
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____193. A researcher using the MMPI in a research study is most likely basing her or his hypothesis on
which perspective on personality?

a. behavioral
b. biological
c. trait
d. humanistic
e. psychoanalytic
____194. Contemporary psychologists are most likely to consider ________ to be of pivotal importance to
personality.
a. the superego
b. projection
c. unconditional positive regard
d. the collective unconscious
e. the sense of self
____195. Which of the following is said to function as an organizer of our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors?
a. the empirically derived test
b. the self
c. the superego
d. the reality principle
e. the Big Five
____196. Low self-esteem is associated with
b. unconditional positive regard.
c. extraversion.
d. an internal locus of control.
e. unhappiness.
____197. People with high self-esteem are less likely than those with low self-esteem to
a. succumb to conformity pressures.
b. overestimate the accuracy of their beliefs.
c. have a strong ego.
d. manifest self-serving bias.
e. experience an internal locus of control.
____198. In national surveys, most business executives say they are more ethical than their average
counterpart. This best illustrates

c. the spotlight effect.
d. an external locus of control.
e. self-serving bias.
35
Name: ______________________
ID: A
____199. In every one of the 53 countries surveyed, people typically expressed self-esteem above the
midpoint of the most widely used self-esteem scale. This best illustrates the pervasiveness of
a. the spotlight effect.
b. projection.
c. extraversion.
e. an external locus of control.
____200. Accepting ourselves without undue dependence on the approval of others best illustrates
a. positive psychology.
b. free association.
d. an external locus of control.
e. secure self-esteem.
36
ID: A
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51 | Section- Biological Bases of Behavior: 3ANeural Processing and the Endocrine
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OBJ: 3
Subliminal stimulation
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 3
Sensory adaptation
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 3
Sensory adaptation
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 4
The eye
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 4
The eye
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 4
The eye
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 4
The retina
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 4
The retina
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 4
The retina
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 5
Feature detection
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 5
Feature detection
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 6
Parallel processing
5
ID: A
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E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Color vision MSC: Factual | Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
The stimulus input: sound waves MSC: Factual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
The ear
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
The ear
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Perceiving pitch
MSC: Factual
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Perceiving pitch
MSC: Factual
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Hearing loss and Deaf culture
MSC: Factual
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Hearing loss and Deaf culture
MSC: Factual
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Touch
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Pain
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Pain
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Pain
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Pain
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Taste
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Taste
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Smell
6
OBJ: 7
OBJ: 8
| Definitional
OBJ: 8
OBJ: 8
OBJ: 9
| Definitional
OBJ: 9
| Definitional
OBJ: 11
| Definitional
OBJ: 11
| Definitional
OBJ: 12
OBJ: 13
OBJ: 13
OBJ: 13
OBJ: 13
OBJ: 14
OBJ: 14
OBJ: 14
ID: A
88. ANS:
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103. ANS:
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B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 14
Smell
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 14
Smell
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 15
Perceptual organization
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 15
Figure and ground
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 16
Depth perception: monocular cues
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 16
Depth perception: monocular cues
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 16
Depth perception: monocular cues (Figure 4.38)
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 16
Depth perception: monocular cues (Figure 4.38)
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 17
Motion perception
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 17
Motion perception
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 18
Shape and size constancies
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 20
Perceptual set
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 21
Putting ESP to experimental test MSC: Factual | Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Page 257 | Section- Cognition: 7AMemory
OBJ: 1
Information processing
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 1
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 1
7
ID: A
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119. ANS:
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E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 2
Effortful processing
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 3
Levels of processing
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 4
Working/short-term memory
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 7
Retrieval cues
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 9
Encoding failure (text and FigureA 7.19)
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 10
Interference MSC: Factual | Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 10
Interference (text and FigureA 7.23)
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 10
Motivated forgetting
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 10
Motivated forgetting
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 11
Misinformation and imagination effects
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 12
Children's eyewitness recall
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
OBJ: 13
Improving memory
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Page 298 | Section- Cognition: 7BThinking-Problem Solving-Creativity-and Language
1
TOP: Thinking
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
TOP: Concepts
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
2
TOP: Solving problems
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
2
8
ID: A
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PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
2
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
4
TOP: The fear factor: Do we fear the right things? (Box)
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
4
TOP: Overconfidence
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
5
TOP: The perils and powers of intuition
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
7
TOP: When do we learn language?
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
8
TOP: Explaining language development MSC: Factual | Definitional
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
8
TOP: Explaining language development MSC: Factual | Definitional
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
9
TOP: Language influences thinking
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
9
TOP: Language influences thinking
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
9
TOP: Thinking in images
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
9
TOP: Thinking in images
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: Page 479 | Section- Personality
1
TOP: Personality MSC: Factual | Definitional
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
TOP: Personality MSC: Conceptual | Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
TOP: Exploring the unconscious
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
MSC: Conceptual
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
ID: A
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DIF: Easy
1
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
1
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
2
TOP: The psychoanalytic perspective:
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
2
Conceptual | Application
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
2
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
2
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
3
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
3
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
3
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
3
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
4
TOP: Defense mechanisms
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
4
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
4
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
4
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
4
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
6
TOP: Assessing unconscious processes
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
6
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
6
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
6
10

MSC: Conceptual
personality structure
personality development
REF:
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Page 483 | Section- Personality

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Factual
A
7
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D
7
Factual
B
7
Factual
C
8
E
8
Factual
E
8
Factual
E
8
Factual
D
8
Factual
E
8
Factual
B
9
Factual
E
9
Factual
B
9
Factual
A
9
Factual
A
10
D
10
C
10
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Evaluating the psychoanalytic perspective
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: The humanistic perspective
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Abraham Maslow's self-actualizing person
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Carl Rogers' person-centered perspective
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Carl Rogers' person-centered perspective
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Evaluating the humanistic perspective
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: The trait perspective
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
11
ID: A
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D
10
A
10
C
11
C
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Factual
B
11
Factual
E
11
Factual
D
11
Factual
A
12
Factual
C
12
Factual
A
13
C
13
B
13
Factual
C
13
Factual
B
13
Factual
D
13
B
13
D
13
D
6
Factual
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Exploring traits
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Assessing traits
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: How to be a successful astrologer or palm reader (Box)
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: The Big Five factors (Table 10.2)
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: The person-situation controversy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: The person-situation controversy
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Reciprocal influences
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Reciprocal influences
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Internal versus external locus of control
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
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Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Depleting and strengthening self-control
Definitional
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Optimism versus pessimism
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: Comparing research methods used to investigate personality (Table 10.3)
Definitional
12
ID: A
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PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
11
TOP: Comparing research methods used to investigate personality (Table 10.3)
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
15
TOP: Exploring the self
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
15
TOP: Exploring the self
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
15
TOP: The benefits of self-esteem
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
15
TOP: The benefits of self-esteem
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
16
TOP: Self-serving bias
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
16
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
16
13

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Name: ______________________

1. The first psychological laboratory was established by

influence behaviors and mental states?

employing a(n) ________ perspective.

to appreciate the distinction between the ________ and the mean.

____ 23. The strengthening of synaptic connections facilitates the formation of

personality traits is known as

different environments has contributed to human

time looking at baby pictures. This finding suggests that

slower to detect and respond to traffic signals. This best illustrates

notice a change in the person speaking. This best illustrates

designed to increase a desire to lose weight best illustrate

involved false claims regarding

____ 62. Sensory adaptation refers to

explaining color vision.

____ 73. The pitch of a sound is determined by what?

membrane supports the ________ theory.

the basilar membrane.

open a neural gate in the

onion and a pear. Her experience best illustrates the importance of

surroundings. What is this perceptual tendency called?

this monocular cue for depth called?

cast on your retina

characterized it as ________ memory.

using a technique known as

aroma apparently acted as a powerful

who stay awake provides evidence that forgetting may involve

illustrated a problem-solving approach known as

thoughts are called

researchers found that they experienced a(n)

conflicts underlying his patients' symptoms?

these feelings to Janine's

the body known as

was most likely responding to a(n) ________ test.

needs for self-actualization and

others who are genuine, accepting, and empathic?

destructive and evil behaviors?

individuals' personality types?

almost anyone is known as

organized and disciplined in managing his or her work?

inferiority. This best illustrates the importance of

programs experience an increase in

that causes AIDS. This best illustrates

which perspective on personality?

counterpart. This best illustrates

REF: Page 480 | Section- Personality

Page 483 | Section- Personality

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