EVALUATIVE EXAM III

1. One of the following describes classical or Newtonian Physics.

A. An electron moving around the nucleus does not gain nor lose energy.
B. An accelerating body releases energy and gradually slows down.
C. The Coulombic force of the nucleus acting on the orbital electron is
counteracted by the same magnitude of centrifugal force in the opposite
direction.
D. The orbital electron has an inherent angular momentum because of its
spin.

2. The property of matter that describes its resistance to change in motion.

A. Inertia C. Work
B. Velocity D. Mass

3. The quantity of matter contained in an object.

A. Inertia C. Work
B. Velocity D. Mass

4. How many electrons are contained in 1 Coulomb of charge?

A. 6.2 x 1015 electrons C. 1.6 x 10-19 electrons
B. 6.2 x 1018 electrons D. 1.6 x 1018 electrons

5. The kinetic energy of an electron can be calculated using the formula:

A. E = ½mv² C. E = mgh
B. E = hf D. E = mc2

6. The rest energy of an electron can be calculated using the formula:

A. E = ½mv² C. E = mgh
B. E = hf D. E = mc2

7. It states that mass and energy are interchangeable.

A. Gurney-mott theory C. Gauss’ law
B. Beer’s law D. Theory of relativity

8. The development of the atomic bomb that was dropped over Nagasaki and
Hiroshima was based on this formula:
A. E = ½mv² C. E = mgh
B. E = hf D. E = mc2

9. The energy equivalence of the electron mass of 9.109 x 10-31 kg is:

A. 819.7 kev C. 0.515 kev
B. 511.5 kev D. 81.97 kev

10. In radiologic physics, this particulate radiation is radiologically

important.
A. Electron C. Neutron
B. Proton D. X-ray

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 11. Energy propagating in space either in a form of waves or particles
describes:
A. Mechanical C. Ultrasonic
B. Electrical D. Radiation

12. The following are characteristics of a particulate radiation EXCEPT:

A. It has mass C. It has charge
B. It is a photon D. It has kinetic energy

13. Which color of the visible spectrum emits the highest energy?
A. Red B. Yellow C. Blue D. Violet

14. The following types of ionizing radiation are indirectly ionizing.

I. X-ray
II. Neutron
III. Gamma ray

A. I only C. I and III only

B. I and II only D. I, II and III

15. Indirectly ionizing radiation are characterized by:

I. Mass
II. Absence of Charge
III. Either mass or charge or both

A. I only C. I and III only

B. II only D. I, II and III

16. The following types of radiation are electromagnetic EXCEPT:

A. RF C. Ultrasound
B. X-rays D. Ultraviolet

17. This radioactive element contributes the highest annual radiation dose
from among the natural/environmental radiation sources.
A. K-40 B. Ra-226 C. Rn-222 D. U-238

18. The minimum energy required to ionize an atom is called:

A. Binding energy C. Electron range
B. Ionization potential D. Linear energy transfer

19. When interactions with matter are considered, electromagnetic radiation is

generally treated as a series of individual particles called:
A. Electrons C. Photons
B. Protons D. Neutrons

20. The total distance travelled by an electromagnetic wave during one wave
cycle constitute one:
A. Wavelength C. Wave amplitude
B. Wave period D. Wave crest

21. It describes the relationship between the frequency, velocity and

wavelength of an electromagnetic wave.
A. Planck’s equation
B. Electromagnetic wave equation
C. General wave equation
D. All of these

22. The following are major properties of x-rays EXCEPT.

A. Highly penetrating
B. Can be deflected by magnets
C. Cannot be focused by lenses
D. Cannot be detected by any of the human senses

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 23. It is composed of a positive central nucleus surrounded by a cloud of
negatively charged electrons.
A. Matter C. Atom
B. Molecule D. Compound

24. The radius of the nucleus of an atom is approximately:

A. 0.1 nm C. 10-15 nm
B. 10 nm
-5 D. 10-1 nm

25. Electrons were discovered by John Joseph Thomson; Who discovered the
protons?
A. Eugene Goldstein C. Neils Bohr
B. James Chadwick D. Paul Lauterbur

26. Protons and neutrons are bound in the nucleus by which force?
A. Coulombic force C. Electromagnetic force
B. Electrostatic force D. Strong force

27. The precise mass of a neutral atom is expressed in terms of:

A. Atomic mass number C. Atomic mass unit
B. Molecular mass unit D. Atomic gram atom

28. The number of grams of an atomic substance is called:

A. Atomic mass number C. Atomic mass unit
B. Molecular mass unit D. Atomic gram atom

29. Atom is the smallest particle of matter and is indivisible according to:
A. Empedocles C. Aristotle
B. Democritus D. Torricelli

30. He introduced the first modern atomic theory.

A. Bernoulli C. Lavoisier
B. Priestly D. Dalton

31. This experiment aided Millikan in his measurement of the electron charge.
A. Alpha scattering experiment
B. Oil drop experiment
C. Manhattan project
D. Oersted’s experiment

32. Geiger-Marsden experiment became the basis of this atomic model.

A. Plum pudding model C. Bohr atomic model
B. Rutherford’s nuclear model D. Hook and eye model

33. The quantum atomic model was introduced by:

A. Ernest Rutherford C. Eugene Goldstein
B. John Joseph Thomson D. Neils Bohr

34. The number of shells occupied by by electrons describes:

A. Atomic mass number C. Valence number
B. Period number D. Group number

35. The following describes Bohr’s Postulates EXCEPT:

A. The electron revolves in circular allowed orbits around the nucleus.
B. While in orbit, the electron does not lose energy in spite of being
constantly accelerated.
C. The angular momentum of the electron in allowed orbit is not quantized.
D. An atom emits radiation when an electron makes a transition from an
outer shell to an inner shell.

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 36. The statement that “No two electrons can occupy the same state and that
the number of electrons per shell is equal to 2n 2” describes:
A. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
B. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle
C. Bohr’s Postulate
D. Schroedinger’s Wave equation

37. A quantity that describes the change in velocity per unit time.
A. Displacement C. Force
B. Acceleration D. Power

38. An atom in the ionized state is said to be ______.

A. Stable C. Charged
B. Unstable D. Uncharged

39. Mode of decay during which gamma radiation is emitted.

A. Alpha decay C. Isomeric transition
B. Positron decay D. Electron capture

40. Electron that is ejected resulting from the interaction between

characteristic x-ray and another orbital electron.
A. Valence electron C. Auger electron
B. Photoelectron D. Internal conversion electron

41. Inadequate replenishment

A. Increases in image contrast optical density
B. Decrease in image latitude optical density
C. Decrease in image contrast optical density
D. No change in image contrast optical density

42. X-ray tubes operate only with

A. AC C. Both DC & AD
B. DC D. Neither DC & AC

43. An instrument designed to expose a reproducible, uniform, optical step-

wedge pattern onto a film
A. Densitometer C. Sensitometer
B. Ion chamber D. None of the above

44. Example of Static artifact except

A. Tree static C. Crown static
B. Electric static D. Smudge static

45. The indicated size on the collimator of the x and y dimensions and the
actual field size measured at the film must be correspond to within ___ of
the SID
A. ±2% B. ±4% C. ±5% D. ±8%

46. The actual rectangular surface on the target where the electrons strike
A. Effective Focal Spot C. Focal Spot Size
B. Actual Focal Spot D. Target

47. Measures the amount of radiation leaving the patient and turns off the x-
ray beam when the correct amount of radiation has reached the detector
A. Film C. AEC
B. Phosphor D. Manual Timer

48. An increase in stated focal spot size, usually as a result of an increase

in mA
A. Focal Spot Size C. Pitting of target
B. Focal Spot Blooming D. None of the above

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 49. Cause of Hesitation mark artifacts
A. Processor is turned off or losses power while the film is in the
developer section
B. If the film becomes jammed while in the developer section
C. A only
D. A & B

50. Is a simple device that can be used to check x-ray timers

A. AEC C. Spinning top
B. Phototimer D. None of the above

51. Refers to the mAs being selected but with different combinations of mA and
exposure time
A. Reciprocity C. mA x s
B. kVp-mAs relationship D. Sensitometry

52. Radiate in one direction that resembles a crown

A. Tree static C. Smudge static
B. Crown static D. Electric static

53. Any variation in reciprocity should be

A. ±10% B. ±20% C. ±5% D. ±15%

54. Means that sequential increases in mAs should produce the same sequential
increase in the exposure measured
A. Reciprocity C. Sensitometry
B. Linearity D. Densitometry

55. Area of the anode that is bombarded by the projectile electrons and the
source of x-ray
A. Filament C. Focal spot
B. Focusing cup D. Target

56. Cause of Streaking artifact

A. Uneven solution temperature
B. Failure to agitate in manual processing
C. Failure of the circulating system in automatic processor
D. B & C only

57. The light field and radiation field must be congruent to within ____ of
the source image-distance (SID)
A. ±2% B. ±4% C. ±6% D. ±8%

58. Tested by the “8 penny test”

A. Light Field-Radiation Field Congruence
B. Beam restriction System
C. Accuracy of the X-Y Scales
D. Illuminator Bulb Brightness

59. Factors to evaluate within the system includes the following except
A. Light Field-Radiation Field Congruence
B. Accuracy of the X-Y scale
C. Illuminator bulb brightness
D. Collimator attenuation coefficient

60. Is the SI derived unit of illuminance and luminous emittance

A. Watts C. Voltage
B. Ampere D. Lux

61. Dark areas where excessive amounts of light have exposed the film
A. Tree static C. Electric static
B. Crown static D. Smudge static

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 62. The SID indicator must be installed so that it is accurate to within ___
of the SID
A. ±12% B. ±5% C. ±10% D. ±2%

63. This is a systematic process of cataloging rejected films and determining

the nature of the repeat so that it can be minimized or eliminated in the
future
A. Quality assurance C. Linearity
B. Quality control D. Repeat analysis

64. Emulsion is removed or “picked off” of the base of the film and deposited
on the rollers
A. Emulsion Pickoff C. Curtain Effect
B. Gelatine Build-up D. Chemical Fog

65. Network of fine grooves in the film surface cause by excessive expansion
and contraction of the film during processing
A. Greenish-Yellow Dichroic stain
B. Brown Stain Dichroic stain
C. Reticulation Marks
D. Streaking

66. Cause of Reticulation Marks artifacts

A. Uneven solution temperature
B. Failure to agitate in manual processing
C. Failure of the circulating system in automatic processor
D. Processor is turned off or losses power while the film is in the
developer section

67. Stripes of decreased optical density where transport rollers are left in
contact with the film which prevent further development
A. Reticulation Marks C. Hesitation Marks
B. Dichroic stain D. Streaking

68. If a negative diagnosis is given to a patient who is later found to have

the disease
A. True Positive (Tp) C. True Negative (Tn)
B. False Positive (Fp) D. False Negative (Fn)

69. Caused by light being reflected from the window of the output phosphor,
which reduces image contrast
A. Veiling glare C. S Distortion
B. Pincushion Distortion D. Vignetting

70. Advantages of breast compression

A. More uniform part thickness, which manifests as more uniform optical
densities in the final image
B. All object structures are brought closer to the image receptor, which
reduces geometric un-sharpness and improves spatial resolution
C. The part is thinner, which reduces patient dosage and scattered
radiation
D. All of the above

71. The unit of absorbed dose is the

A. Roentgen (C/kg) C. Rem (Sv)
B. Rad (Gy) D. RBE

72. Radiographers use monitoring devices to record their monthly exposure to

radiation. The types of devices suited for this purpose include the
1. Pocket dosimeter
2. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
3. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL)

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

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 73. What minimum total amount of filtration (inherent plus added) is required
in x-ray equipment operated above 70 kVp?
A. 2.5 mm Al equivalent C. 2.5 mm Cu equivalent
B. 3.5 mm Al equivalent D. 3.5 mm Cu equivalent

74. The most efficient type of male gonadal shielding for use during
fluoroscopy is
A. Flat contact C. Shadow
B. Shaped contact (contour) D. Cylindrical
75. The annual dose limit for medical imaging personnel includes radiation
from
1. Medical x-rays
2. Occupational exposure
3. Background radiation

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

76. Isotopes are atoms that have the same

A. Mass number but a different atomic number.
B. Atomic number but a different mass number.
C. Atomic number but a different neutron number.
D. Atomic number and mass number.

77. Sources of natural background radiation exposure include

1. The food we eat
2. Air travel
3. Medical and dental x-rays

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

78. The rad may be described as

A. Disintegrations per second
B. Ions produced in air
C. Energy deposited in an absorber
D. Biologic effects

79. Filters used in radiographic x-ray tubes are generally composed of

A. Aluminum C. Tin
B. Copper D. Lead

80. The purpose of filters in a film badge is

A. To eliminate harmful rays
B. To measure radiation quality
C. To prevent exposure by alpha particles
D. As a support for the film contained within

81. What unit of measure expresses the amount of energy deposited in tissue?
A. Roentgen (C/kg) C. Rem (Sv)
B. Rad (Gy) D. RBE

82. In 1906, Bergonié‚ and Tribondeau established their law, which states that
cells are more radiosensitive if they
1. Are young
2. Are stem cells
3. Have a low proliferation rate

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

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 83. A "controlled area" is defined as one
1. That is occupied by people trained in radiation safety
2. That is occupied by people who wear radiation monitors
3. Whose occupancy factor is 1

A. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

84. If a patient received 2000 mrad during a 10-min fluoroscopic examination,

what was the dose rate?
A. 0.2 rad/min C. 5 rad/min
B. 2.0 rad/min D. 200 rad/min

85. Which of the following illustrates the inverse square law?

1. Distance is a most effective protection from radiation
2. Distance is a rather ineffective protection from radiation
3. As distance from the radiation source decreases, radiation
decreases

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

86. Which of the following cells are the most radiosensitive?

A. Myelocytes C. Megakaryocytes
B. Erythroblasts D. Myocytes

87. How much protection is provided from a 75-kVp x-ray beam when using a
0.50-mm lead equivalent apron?
A. 51 percent C. 88 percent
B. 66 percent D. 99 percent

88. The unit of measure used to express occupational exposure is the

A. Roentgen (C/kg)
B. Rad (Gy)
C. Rem (Sv)
D. Relative biologic effectiveness (RBE)

89. The photoelectric effect is an interaction between an x-ray photon and

A. An inner-shell electron. C. A nucleus.
B. An outer-shell electron. D. Another photon.

90. What is the established fetal dose limit guideline for pregnant
radiographers during the entire gestation period?
A. 100 mrem C. 500 mrem
B. 250 mrem D. 1000 mrem

91. The exposure rate to a body 4 ft from a source of radiation is 16 R/h.

What distance from the source would be necessary to decrease the exposure
to 6 R/h?
A. 5 ft B. 7 ft C. 10 ft D. 14 ft

92. The person responsible for ascertaining that all radiation guidelines are
adhered to and that personnel understand and employ radiation safety
measures is the
A. Radiology department manager
B. Radiation safety officer
C. Chief radiologist
D. Chief technologist

93. How many HVLs are required in order to reduce the intensity of a beam of
monoenergetic photons to less than 10 percent of its original value?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

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 94. Irradiation of macromolecules in vitro can result in
1. Main chain scission
2. Cross-linking
3. Point lesions

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

95. The amount of time that x-rays are being produced and directed toward a
particular wall is referred to as the
A. Workload C. Occupancy factor
B. Use factor D. Controlling factor

96. Which of the following statements regarding the human gonadal cells is
(are) true?
1. The female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life
2. The male spermatogonia reproduce continuously
3. Both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal life

A. 1 only C. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only D. 3 only

97. Which of the following is considered the unit of exposure in air?

A. Roentgen (C/kg) C. Rem (Sv)
B. Rad (Gy) D. RBE

98. If the exposure rate to a body standing 5 ft from a radiation source is 10

mR/min, what will be the dose to that body at a distance of 8 ft from the
source?
A. 25.6 mR/min C. 6.25 mR/min
B. 16 mR/min D. 3.9 mR/min

99. A student radiographer who is under 18 years of age must not receive an
annual occupational dose greater than
A. 0.1 rem (1 mSv) C. 5 rem (50 mSv)
B. 0.5 rem (5 mSv) D. 10 rem (100 mSv)

100. The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose equivalent limit
of
A. 2.5 rem (25 mSv) C. 10 rem (100 mSv)
B. 5 rem (50 mSv) D. 20 rem (200 mSv)

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