BOOKLET

NO

ROYAL THAI ARMY AVIATION SCHOOL

STUDENT PILOTS
BASIC NAVIGATION SYSTEMS
Instruction :

Read each question carefully, then choose the

correct answer and mark (X) on

your answer sheet.

BASIC
1.

Do not write or mark on the booklet.

NAVIGATION

A number such as

on a sectional char t

represents the maximum elevation of

A. Man-made obstructions.
B. Terrain within a 25 nautical mile radius.
C. The highest airport within a 25 nautical mile
radius.
D. Terrain or obstructions within an area bounded by
the ticked lines of latitude and longitude.
2.

This symbol

is used on sectional charts

to represent an airport which has

A. UNICOM.
B. runway light.

C. A heliport on the airport.

D. A hart-surfaced runway between 1,500 and 8,069
feet long.
3.

On a sectional chart, what does the notation NO

SVFR above the airport name indicate ?

A. Not safe for VFR operations.
B. A mix of IFR and VFR operations is prohibited.
C. No special VFR operations are permitted at night.
D. No special VFR operations are permitted at
anytime.
4.

When you are flying an aircraft into a left-quartering

headwind,what is the effect on

groundspeed and wind correction angle if the wind
velocity increases?
A. Both increase.
B. Both decrease.
C. Groundspeed increases, and wind correction
decreases.
D. Groundspeed decreases, and wind correction
increases.

-2-

5.

If your aircrafts fuel consumption rate is 5.6 g.p.h.,

how must fuel will it use on a flight of 230

n.m. with an average groundspeed of 93 knots?
A. 7.8
C. 12.5
6.

gallons
gallons

B.

8.8

gallons

D.

13.8

gallons

Determine the density altitude using the lised

conditions.
Field elevation.1,400

ft.

Pressure altitude.1,500
0

ft.

Temperature.95 F
Altimeter setting.29.82

7.

A.

1,300

feet

B.

3,075

feet

C.

4,097

feet

D.

9,883

feet

If you plan to save 30 minutes of fuel for reserve,

how far can you fly based on the listed

conditions?

True course175 E
0

Wind...030 /20 Kts.

Pressure altitude7,500

ft.

Temperature. 10 C
Fuel consumption.9.5 g.p.h.
Calibrated airspeed...103 Kts.
Fuel on board.53 gal.

8.

A.

620

miles

B.

655

miles

C.

690

miles

D.

720

miles

Compute the true heading and groundspeed for a

cross-country flight based on the listed

conditions.

Wind...140 /25 Kts.

0

True course195 E
True airspeed 122 Kts.
0

Temperature.2 C
Pressure altitude5,000

ft.

Fuel on board.53 gal.

A. 180

and

Knots

C.

205

138

Knots

100

and

Knots

135

Knots

B.

185
D.

and
186

106
and

-39.

To convert true heading to magnetic heading, you

need to
A. add or subtract the appropriate deviation listed on
the compass correction card.
B. Compute the wind correction angle and add it to
or subtract it from the true heading.
C. Subtract

easterly or add westerly variation,

determined from the isogonic lines on the chart.

D. Compute the deviation and wind correction angle,

then subtract them from or add them to the true
heading.
10.
the

For a night cross-country flight, you are required by

FARs to carry enough fuel,
considering wind and forecast weather, to complete

the flight to
A. your primary destination at economy cruise speed.
B. The first point of intended landing at high cruise
speed.
C. Your destination, plus an additional 30 minutes at
normal cruise speed.
D. The first point of intended landing and fly after
that for at least 45 minutes at normal cruise
speed.
11.

The time-speed-distance function of your flight

computer can be used to solve for

A. groundspeed and fuel consumption.
B. Estimated time enroute and indicated airspeed.
C. Groundspeed, true airspeed , and total fuel
required.
D. Calibrated airspeed, groundspeed, and wind
correction angle.

Refer to the accompanying Airport/Facility Directory

excerpts to answer questions 12
through 15.
12.

What frequency should you use to announce your

position during an approach for a landing

at Taos Municipal?

13.

A. 117.6

MHz

B. 121.5

MHz

C. 122.1

MHz

D. 122.8

MHz

Who should you contact to close a flight plan at

Portland International Airport?

A. Laker NDB

B.

McMinnville

C. Portland Approach

D.

Portland Departure

-4-

Question

12

FSS

14.

The length of the longest runway at Portland

International Airport is

15.

A.

1,500

feet.

B.

4,049

C.

6,600

feet.

D.

11,011

feet.
feet.

When departing to the north, the proper frequency

for departure control is

A. 118.1

B.

118.7

C. 119.8

D.

121.9

Question

13, 14, and 15

-5-

16.

What information concerning Greater Cincinnati

Airport at Covington, Kentucky, is contained

in the accompanying

NOTAM excerpt?

A. Runway 3/21 is available at night only.

B. The airport is closed until further notice.
C. The airport has a new obstruction 450 feet AGL.
D. The airport has an experimental lighting system.

Question
17.

16

FAA

Advisory Circulars provide what type of

information?
A. Emergency
B. Regulatory
C. Nonreguratory, but necessary for good operating
practices
D. Imformation not necessary for normal

VFR flight

operations
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

RADIO NAVIGATION SYSTEMS

18.
the

The primary disadvantage of

VOR navigation is

A. limmited navigation capabilities.

B. Frequent

failure

of the

equipment.

C. Line of sight transmission characteristic.

D. Difficulty

involved

in

tracking

the

selected

radial.
19. While you are tracking a VOR

radial, what factor

causes the most difference between the

selected

course and the magnetic heading?

A. Wind
B. Deviation
C. Variation
D. VOR or receiver malfunction
-6Refer to the accompanying illustration to answer questions
20 through 22.
20.
its

If airplane A has 090

VOR

set in the course selector,

indications will correspond to those of

instrument
A. 1
C.
21.

B.

D.

If airplane C displays the VOR indications shown on

instrument 2, the course selector will

read

i. 120
C.

300

B. 160
D. 340

22. If airplane B has 280 set in the course selector, the

will correspond to shown on instrument
A. 1
C.

B. 3
4

D. 6

23. Assume that you are flying outbound from a VOR

station on the 120 redial and inbound to
the next station on the 300 radial. If the course selector
is set at 120,what TO/FROM indication will be displayed
when you change the frequency to the station ahead?
A. TO
C.

B. NAV
OFF

D. FROM

24. With the heading indicator displaying 130 and the

automatic direction finder pointing to

210, what heading would you use with a fixed-card

indicator to proceed to the NDB?
A. 080
C.

B. 130

210

D. 340

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------7-

AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY
25. What part of you eye allows you to perceive color?
A. Rods

B.

Cones

C.

D.

Iris

Lens

26. The color of light least detrimental to dark adaptation is

A. Red
C.

B.

Green

blue
D. white

27. The best way to scan at night is to

A. stare directly at the object.
B. scan around the object, then stare at it.
iii. stare directly at the object for a few
moments, then scan around it.
iv. use off-center viewing and avoid staring
at the object for too long.
28.

When flying a VFR approach at night there is a

natural tendency to use a

A. higher-than-normal airspeed.

B.

low-than-

normal groundspeed.
C.

higher-than-normal approach

D. lower-

than-normal approach
29.

Assume you feel a tumbling or spinning sensation

during climbout after a night departure. In

this situation,you should
A. focus on the horizon and keep the wings level.
B. turn in the direction opposite to the sensation you
are feeling.
iii. rely on the flight instruments and believe
what they tell you.
iv. use supplemental oxygen to help restore
your equilibrium.
30. The best way to overcome the effects of hypoxia is to
A. climb to a higher altitude.

B. use supplemental

oxygen.
C.

open the fresh air vents. D. breathe slowly

into a paper bag.

31.

One of the things that can cause hyperventilation is

A. stress.

B.

A long flight.

C.

D.

Lack of proper

Lack of oxygen

nourishment.

32. If your last scuba dive required a decompression stop,

how long should you wait before
going on a flight?
A. 8

hours

C.

24 hours

B. 12

hours

D. 48 hours
-8-

33. Over-the-counter drugs for aliments such as the

common could are considered to be
A. safe for healthy pilots.
B.

Potentially dangerous when you fly.

C.

Safe, if used in moderate amounts.

B. Necessary, if you need them for pain relief.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

AERONAUTICAL DECISION MAKING

Refer to the listed cross-country planning conditions 34
through 36.
Pressure altitude7,500
0

Winds...280 /20 Kts.

0

Temperature5 C
Calibrated airspeed..100 Kts.
True course.050
0

Variation..13 E

ft.

Deviation.+1

Fuel consumption.9.5 g.p.h.

Usable fuel capacity.36 gal.
Distance..313 n.m.
34. Determine the true airspeed for the trip.
A. 99 knots

B. 113 knots

C. 118 knots

D. 122 knots

35. The compass heading for the trip will be

A. 030
C.

B.

045

038
D. 048

36. Assuming a constant fuel consumption rate throughout

the flight, how much fuel will remain
after the pilot lands at the destination?
A.

11.0 gallons

B. 12.2 gallons

C.

13.1 gallons

D.

14.3 gallons

Use the sectional chart excerpt to answer questions 37

through 39.
37.

On a flight from Salina, on the upper portion of the

chart, to Hutchinson, on the lower portion,

your true coutse will be approximately
A.

013

B.

103

283
-9-

C.

193

D.

Questions 37,38,and 39

-1038. The variation in the area is

A. 7 W

B. 7 E

C.

7 30 W

D. 7 30 E
39. What VFR weather minimuns are required to take off
from Salina Airport?
A. Visibility one mile and clear of clouds
B. Visibility one mile and a ceiling of 1,000 feet
C. Visibility three miles and a ceiling of 1,000 feet,
or special VFR
D. Visibility one mile and no ceiling, procided the
pilot is instrument rated
40. Using the partially completed navigation log, determine
the time required to fly the distance
from the bridge to the destination.
A. 1 hour, 5 minutes
C.

1 hour, 17 minutes

minutes

Question 40

B.

1 hour, 10 minutes
D. 1 hour, 25

41. While on a cross-country flight, you want to listen to

the recorded weather reports broadcast
over the VOR system. The availability of this service
is indicated on sectional charts by
A. a star over the VOR symbol.
B. The presence of DME at the station.
C. A heavy line enclosing the VOR frequency box.
D. A T symbol in the upper right corner of the
VOR frequency box.
42. What is the difference between the range and the and
the endurance of an aircraft?
A. Range is the amount of time that the aircraft can
remain in the air, and endurance is the
recommended time that the pilot can fly.
B. When used together, they are the basis for
determining the fuel required to complete a flight
over a given distance.
C. Range is the amount of fuel required to fly to a
destination, and endurance is the amount of time
it will take to get there.
D. With a given amount of fuel, range is the
distance that the aircraft can fly, and endurance is
the amount of time that the aircraft can remain in
the air.

-11Refer to the partially completed flight plan to answer

questions 43 through 46.
43. The R in block 3 of the flight plan means the
airplane
A. is an R-model airplane.
B. Is equipped with DME and a 64-code transponder.
C. has a transponder with no altitude encoding
capability.
D. has RNAV and a transponder with altitude
encoding capability.

Questions 43,44,45, and 46

44. How will the flight plan be affected if it is not opened,
or activated, until 2030Z?
A. There will be no effect.

B. The destination FSS will be notified that the pilot

will be at least one hour late
C. The FSS will begin a phone search of the
departure airport to determine why the pilot has
not opened the flight plane.
D. The FSS will cancel the flight plan automatically if
it is not opened within one hour of the proposed
departure time.
45. Assuming the actual departure time was 1930Z, at
what time will ATC begin a telephone
search if the flight plan has not been closed?
A. 2200Z
B. 2210Z
C. 2240Z
D. 2310Z

-1246. If you have several cruising altitudes selected for a

flight, how are they entered in block 7?
A. Enter all altitudes.
B. List only the first altitude.
C. List only the last altitude.
D. Enter the first two altitude.

47. What type of hazardous attitude is represented by the

statement, It wont happen to me,
and what is the appropriate antidote?
A. Macho, and taking chances is foolish.
B. Invulnerability, and It could happen to me.
C. Invulnerability, and Not so fast think first.
D. Impulsivity, and Follow the rules they are usually
right.
48. What happens when stress levels exceed your ability
to cope?
A. Stamina decreases.
B. Performance level decreases rapidly.
C. Awareness of outside factors increases.
D. Piloting capabilities increase to keep up with the
flying task requirements.
49. Most accident occur in which phase of flight?
A. Taxi
B. Takeoff
C. Cruise
D. Approach and landing
50. The Im Safe Checklist provides a
A. personal relaxation technique.
B. means for the FAA to evaluate you.
C. thorough preflight of your aircraft.

D. self-assessment of your safety as a pilot.

BOOKLET
NO

ROYAL THAI ARMY AVIATION SCHOOL

STUDENT PILOTS
BASIC NAVIGATION
Instruction :

Read each question carefully, write the correct

form in the blank , then choose the

correct answer and mark (X)on your
answer sheet.
: Do not write or mark on the booklet.

SECTION A

AERONAUTICAL

CHARTS

1. The scale of a sectional chart is...

This means that one inch will equal
approximately.nautical miles.

2.

Contour lines connect points of equal MSL..

..
3.

...(True,False) In order to help you maintain

orientation when you are flying around

Class B airspace, VFR flyway planning charts may
be available to provide you with detailed
terrain features and geographic information.
4.

The scale of a WAC chart is....

This means that one inch will equal

approximatelynautical miles.
5.

The availability of a VFR terminal area chart is shown

on sectional charts by a wide,.

.

..

Enclosing the

boundaries of the charted area.

6.

Sectional, WAC, and VFR terminal area charts use

the........
projection.
Use the Dallas-ft. Worth Sectional to answer questions 7
through 21.
7.

List the six sectional charts which are adjacent to the

Dallas-Ft. Worth Chart.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

8. The upper limit of the Oklahoma City Class C airspace (

35 24N, 9736W) is
A. 1,200 feet AGL
C.

B.

3,000 feet AGL

D.

2,500 feet MSL

5,300 feet MSL

-2Questions 9 through 14 pertain to Addison Airport (32

0

58

N , 96 50 W).
9. The control tower frequency is
A. 118.7 MHz
C.

B. 126.0 MHz

126.75 MHz

D. 126.8 MHz

10. The UNICOM frequency is

A. 122.8
C.

MHz

123.6 MHz

B. 122.95 MHz
D. 126.8 MHz

11. You can obtain automatic terminal information service

on
A. 114.3

MHz

C. 122.0 MHz

B. 121.1 MHz
D. 133.4 MHz

12. The field elevation is

A. 72 feet MSL
C. 487 feet MSL

B.

88 feet MSL
D. 644 feet MSL

13. The length of the longest runway is..

.feet.
14. The lighting at Addison Airport is
A. pilot controlled.
B. in operation from sunset to sunrise
C. available part time
D. available upon request
15. The floor of the controlled airspace represented by the
magenta color surrounding Granbury
Airport (32 27N, 97 49W) is
. Feet AGL.
16. The star on top of the airport diagram at Ennis Airport
(32 20N, 96 40W) symbolizes that
A. lighting is available from sunset to sunrise.
B. The tower is in operation part time.
C. Fuel is available.
D. An airport beacon is located at the field.
17.

A circled T printed in the upper right corner

of a communications box indicates that ..

is available at the navaid. A square in
the lower right corner of the box indicates
that... is available.
18.

The frequency for the Seminole NDB (35

16N, 96 40W) is...kHz.

19. What is the recommended communications procedure

to use when you are inbound to land
at Tishomingo Airport (3412N, 96 41W)?
-3A. Contact UNICOM on 122.8 MHz when you are 10
miles out.
B. Broadcast your intentions on 122.9 MHz when
you are 10 miles out and in the traffic pattern.
C. Request airport advisories from McAlester FSS on
123.6 MHz when you are 10 miles out.
D. Obtain airport advisories from Ardmore Control
Tower on 118.5 MHz.
20. The common traffic advisory frequency at Holdenville
Airport (35 05N, 96 25W)
is....
21. If Ardmore Control Tower (34 18N, 97 01W) is not
in operation, which frequency should
you use to monitor airport traffic and announce your
position and intentions?

A. 118.5 MHz, CTAF

B. 122.1 MHz, FSS
C. 122.9 MHz, MULTICOM
D. 122.95 MHz, UNICOM
22. The normal availability of fuel at an airport is shown
by.....
..Extending

from the airport

symbol.
23. A heavy line surrounding a navaid box indicates
A. frequencies remoted to navaid site.
B. TWEB, AWOS, or HIWAS is available at the
navaid.
C. No voice on the frequency.
D. A flight service station.
24. Although it is not printed on sectional chart, the
frequency used to obtain enroute flight
advisory service (EFAS) is.. MHz.
25. A visual checkpoint used to identify your position on
initial callup is symbolized by a
magenta-colored...
26. A class B or C airspace area within which fixed-wing
special VFR flight is prohibited is shown
on charts by the notation..
..

27. When flying over Sulphur Springs VOR (3312N,

9532W), you can obtain weather
information by transmitting on .

MHz

and receiving on...MHz.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------4-

SECTION B

FLIGHT COMPUTERS
Solve the following problems with either an electronic or a
mechanical flight computer. However, be aware that the
answer section of this exercise book reflects answers
derived from an electronic computer. Therefore, answers
obtained with a mechanical computer may not be in exact
agreement.
Groundspeed
Distance
1.

Time
110 kts

275 n.m.
2.
195 n.m.

.
65 kts
.

3.

130 kts

585 n.m.
4.

.
275 kts

2,475 n.m.
5.

120 kts

280 n.m.
6.

..
95 kts

67 n.m.
7.

..
184 kts

8.

2:00
90 kts

9.

:40
110 kts

..
10.

4:30
241 kts

..
11.

:14
82 kts

.
12.

3:10
96 kts

.
13.
285

n.m.

14.
675

1:13
3:00

n.m.

4:30

15.
1,155

n.m.

16.
337.5

.
n.m.

17.
594

7:00
3:45
.

n.m.

3:18

Time

Consumption Rate

Fuel Used
18.

3:30

6 g.p.h.
19.

2:24

5 g.p.h.
20.

.
3:12

15 g.p.h.
21.

.
3:45

6 g.p.h.
22.

.
5:20

12 g.p.h.
23.

.
3:10

24.

43 gal.
2:30

67 gal
-5-

25.

4:12

21 gal.

26.

1:37

7 gal.

27.

5:36

46 gal.

28.

2:00

....

10 gal.

Groundspeed
Time
29.

Consumption

388 n.m.

221 kts

..
.

14.7 g.p.h.
.

3:45
32.

Total Fuel

13 g.p.h.

4:32
31.

Rate

170 kts.

30.

Distance

.
465 n.m.

..
80 kts.

47.8 gal.
100 n.m.

9.7 gal.

Complete the conversions listed for questions 33 through

47. If you use an electronic computer, round your answers
to two decimal places.
33.

80 n.m.... s.m.

... ft.

41.

1,000

m.

34.

58

s.m.

..

n.m.

..

kts.

42. 15,000 ft. ... m.

35.

190

m.p.h.

43. 270 n.m. ... km.

36.

100

kts..m.p.h.

44. 200 km. .n.m.

37.

77F .... C

45.

29

gal. ....L
38.

30C

....F

46. 91 L gal.
39.

50 kg.

....lb.

47.

59F

C
40.

330 lb. ....Kg.

Pressure

Calibrated

True Air
True
Altitude

Altitude
48.
.

Airspeed
180 kts.
10,000 ft.

95 kts.

Temperature
Airspeed

5,000 ft.

49.
50.

Density

14 F
.
5 C
.

3,500 ft.
140 m.p.h.

68 F
....

51.

52.

53.
.
54.
.
55.
.
56.

20,000 ft.
182 kts.
234 kts.

....
25 C

190 kts.

...

3,000 ft.
125 m.p.h.

30 C
....

16,000 ft.

20 C

240 kts.

....

4,500 ft.

57.

19,000 ft.

...

15 C

4,000 ft.

254 kts.

58.

....

11,500 ft.

.
.

15 C

20 C
....
23 F

225 kts.
8,500 ft.

...
5 C

190 kts.

-659.
..
60.
.

15,000 ft.
105 kts.

15 C
..

4,000 ft.
120 m.p.h.

77 F
..

Determine the groundspeed and true heading in problems

61 through 75. Also, include the appropriate wind correction
angle and tell whether it is left (L) or right (R).

Wind

Wind

Ground

True
Direction

speed
61.

148

65.
66.
67.

.
68.

247

.
69.

053

.
70.

154

050

200 kts.

190

....
38 kts.

....
15 kts.
....
35 kts.
....
38 kts.
....

140 kts.

..
30 kts

190 kts.

..

....

204

275

35 kts.

078

kts.

160

15 kts.

180

130 kts.

..

....

010

26 kts.

225

170 kts.

..

....

080

18 kts.

015

Airspeed

..

....

.
64.

Course
( L or R)

....

.
63.

Speed
32 kts.

300

True

WCA

Heading

.
62.

True

175

..
092

250 kts.

..
046

195 kts.

..
355

130 kts.

..
222
..

198 kts.

71.

120

.
72.

75.

140

175 kts.

..

48 kts.
....

003

184 kts.

..

14 kts.

239

....

330

143 kts.

..

....

195

025

30 kts.

240

.
74.

....

320

.
73.

25 kts.

205 kts.

..

40 kts.

180

....

167 kts.

..

To complete problems 76 through 85, find the altitude

which has the most favorble winds, using the excerpt
from the winds and temperatures aloft forecast below.
FT

30006000900012000

GTF

12162327

3134

ICT

191823182625

2832

OKC 990023172423

2529

Based on the Wichita, Kansas (ICT) winds and

temperatures aloft, determine the best altitude and
groundspeed for the following problems. Also, include the
computed wind correction angle for each problem.
TC

TAS

Altitude

Groundspeed

WCA(L or R)
76.

162 98 kts.

.ft. . Kts. ..

77.

195

135 kts.

.ft.

. Kts. ..
-778.

306 160 kts. .ft. . Kts. ..

Use the Oklahoma City (OKC) winds for questions 79

through 81.
79.

120 80 kts.

.ft. . Kts. .

80.

150 101 kts

.ft. . Kts. .

81.

206 145 kts. .ft. . Kts. .

Use the Great Falls, Montana (GTF) winds for questions 82

through 85.
82.

010 120 kts

.ft. . Kts. .

83.

195 140 kts. .....ft. .. kts. ..

84.

215 160 kts. ..ft. . Kts. .

85.

310 205 kts. ..ft. . Kts. .

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

SECTION C
PILOTAGE AND DEAD RECKONING
1. Navigating by maintaining visual reference to landmarks
is known as.

2. The checkpoints used to identify your position are useful

only if they can be

positively.

.
3. Because man-made structures change, you should
always fly with ..... aeronautical
charts.
4. Performing calculations of time, speed, distance, and
direction is a form of navigation called

..

5. Isogonic lines printed on sectional charts show

.

..

6. To record information pertaining to your flight and to help

with your flight planning and enroute
calculations, you should use a...
...

-8For questions 7 through 12, use the Dallas-Ft. Worth

Sectional Chart and a plotter to complete the missing
information. All answers are to be rounded to the nearest
number.

For questions 13 throuugh 18, use a flight computer, the

true course valuses from questions 7 through 12, and the
sample compass correction card to find the missing data.

-9Use

the

Dallas-Ft.

Worth

Sectional

Chart

to

answer

questions 19 through 24, Assume the area forecast for the

entire region indicates cloud bases to be 6,500 feet MSL
and

visibility

in

excess

of

10

miles.

Based

on

this

information and applicable FARS, place a check mark in

the appropriate box for each cruising altitude that can be
used for VFR flight.

25. The required fuel for a VFR cross-country might flight

includes enough fuel to reach the first
point of intended landing and to fly thereafter for an
additional
A. 15 minutes.
B. 20 minutes.
C. 30

minutes.

D. 45

minutes.

26. How should you close your VFR flight plan at the
completion of a flight at a controlled airport?
A. The tower will automatically close the flight plan
after you land.
B. You must close your flight plan with the nearest
FSS or FAA facility upon landing.
C. You should close your flight plan with the nearest
FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.

D. You should close your flight plan with ground

control while you are taxiing to the parking ramp.

-10To answer questions 27 through 29, refer to the following

flight plan.

27. If you plan more than one cruising altitude, which

altitude should be entered in block 7?
A. Initail cruising altitude
B. Lowest cruising altitude

C. Highest cruising altitude

D. Last cruising altitude
28. The information you should enter in block 9 for a VFR
day flight is the name of
A. the city where the airport is based.
B. The airport of first intended landing.
C. Each airport where a landing is to be made.
D. The destination airport if no stopover exceeding
one hour is planned.
29. What information should you enter in block 12 for a
VFR day flight?
A. estimated time enroute, plus 30 minutes
B. estimated time enroute, plus 45 minutes
C. maximum endurance time, as shown in the POH
D. amount of usable fuel, expressed in hours and
minutes
-1130. In cases where a phone is not available, you can still
file a flight plan by after departure.
.
31. After you file your flight plan, it must be activated
within....hour(s) of your proposed
departure time.

32. Your aircraft is considered overdue if you fail to report

or close your flight plan within
A. 15 minutes after your ETA.
B. 30 minutes after your ETA.
C. 45 minutes after your EFA.
D. One hour after your EFA.
33. .(True, False) While you are operating on a day
VFR flight plan, FARs require position
reports every 30 minutes.
34. The location of flight service stations that offer
Hazardous Area Reporting Service is
published in the ...
...

SECTION D

-12-

SOURCES OF FLIGHT INFORMATION

1. For information about a particular parachute jumping
area, you should consult the
A. Airport / Facility Directory.
B. Aeronautical Information Manual.
C. FDC NOTAMs.
D. Sectional chart legend.
2. Basic flight information and ATC procedures are
published in the
A. Airport / Facility Directory.

B. Aeronautical Information Manual.

C. Federal Register.
D. Pilots operating handbook.
Refer to the Airport / Facility Directory legend contained in
the reference section and the following excerpt to answer
questions 3 through 20.
3. The three-letter location identifier for North Platte
Regional is ..
4. North Platte Regional is .. Nautical miles
... ( east, west ) of the city.
5. The airport elevation of North Platte Regional is
. feet MSL.
6. What type of servicing is available at Ogallalas Searle
Field?
A. Minor airframe repairs
B. Minor airframe and minor powerplant repairs
C. Major airframe and minor powerplant repairs
D. Major airframe and major powerplant repairs
7. ... ( True, False ) North Platte Regional may
be used as an airport of entry.
8. Traffic patterns at North Platte Regional are
A. left hand for all runways.
B. Right hand for all runways.

C. Left hand for runways 12L and 30R, and right

hand for all other runways.
D. Right hand for runways 30R and 12R, and left
hand for all other runways.

-13-

9. The longest runway available at North Platte Regional is

runway . , and it is .
feet wide.
10. A visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is provided for
runway ... at Sesrle Field.

11. The threshold of runway 35 at North Platte Regional is

desplaced . Feet.
-1412. The common traffic advisory frequency for North Platte
Regional is
A. 117.4 MHz.
B. 122.95 MHz.
C. 123.0 MHz.
D. 132.7 MHz.
13. (True, False) The airport beacon at Omahas
Eagle Field operates from sunset to
sunrise.
14. To obtain a weather briefing at Searle Field, you should
call the ... Flight Service
Station.
15. The letters VHF/DF appearing under Radio Aids To
Navigation at North Platte Regional
indicate the
A. airport is a defense facility.
B. Airport is designated as an airport of entry.
C. FSS provides distant flight plan servicing.
D. FSS has equipment which can determine your
direction from the station.

16. The type of aviation fuel available at Searle Field is

..
17. The frequency of the nondirectional radio beacon
located on the airport at North Platte
Regional is .. KHz.
18. The North Platte VORTAC, in relation to North Platte
Regional, is located
A. on the field.
B. 3 n.m. east.
C. 5 n.m. southwest.
D. 5 n.m. southeast.
19. You can convert UTC time to local standard time at
Searle Field by subtracting
A. 5 hours.
B. 6 hours.
C. 7 hours.
D. 8 hours.
20. The UNICOM frequency at Searle Field is .
.. MHz,
21. The Pilot/Controller Glossary contained in the AIM is
intended to promote a common
understanding of the terms used in the

system.

-1522. Changes in the National Airspace System that are mot

known far enough in advance to be
included in the most recent aeronautical chart or
A/FD are distributed as ..
.

23. All public use landing areas listed in the Airport/Facility

Directory are provided what type of
NOTAM service?
A. NOTAM- D only
B. NOTAM- L only
C. NOTAM- D and NOTAM- L
D. National Flight Data Center NOTAMs
24. Information disseminated by the National Flight Data
Center affecting standard instrument
approach procedures, selected flight restrictions, and
aeronautical charts are known as
.... NOTAMs.
25. The Notices to Airmen publication is issued every
.. days.
26. FAA advisory circulars may be ordered
A. from the U.S. Government printing Office.
B. Automatically by subscribing to the Federal
Register.

C. Through a subscription to the Federal Aviation

Regulations.
D. By contacting the U.S. National Transportation
Safety Board.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

BOOKLET
NO

ROYAL THAI ARMY AVIATION SCHOOL

STUDENT PILOTS

RADIO NAVIGATION SYSTEMS

Instruction :

Read each question carefully, write the correct

form in the blank , then choose the

correct answer and mark (X)on your
answer sheet.
: Do not write or mark on the booklet.

SECTION A

VHF OMNIDIRECTIONAL RANGE

1. A VOR station transmits an infinite number of courses
which are called ..
2. The line-of-sight characteristics of VOR signals limit their

3. The major components of a VOR indecator are the

A. HSI, CDI, and course selector.
B. HIS, CDI, and TO-FROM indicator.
C. CDI, DME, and TO-FROM indicator.
D. CDI, TO-FROM indicator, and course selector.
Match the component name with the appropriate item on
the VOR indicator for question 4 through 9.

4. .

A. CDI

5. .

B. Course index

6.

C. Course selector

7.

D. Reciprocal course

8.

E. TO-FROM indicator

9. .

F. Course deviation dots

-2-

Answer questions 10 through 13 to determine your

magnetic course to a VOR station.
10. As you fly to a VOR staion, you should first tune the
VOR receiver to the proper frequency
and .. The station.
11. Next, rotate the course selector until the TO-FROM
window shows a . Indication.
12. Continue turning the course selector until the CDI is

13. After completing the previous steps, the reading under

the course index is your
(True, magnetic) course .. (TO,
FROM) the VOR station.
14. (True, False) The heading of the airplane
has a direct relationship to the radial
selected on the VOR indicator.
15. If the CDI is deflected four dots to the right and your
course indicator and heading indicator
are in general agreement, your desired course is
A. 2 to the right.
B. 4 to the left.
C. 4 to the right
D. 8 to the right.
For questions 16 through 20, match the position of each
lettered airplane withappropriatately numbered VOR
indicator.
Airplane
A
16. OBS
360
17. OBS
090
18. OBS

180
19. OBS
270
20. OBS
315

-3To answer questions 21 through 24, use the Dallas-Fort

Worth Sectional Chart.
21. As you travel to the Ardmore VORTAC (34 13N, 97
10W) on V163, you tune and identify
the Duncan VOR (34 30 N, 98 25 W) and the
Duncan VOR. The position is identified by the
A. Duncan 044 radial and the Lawton 347 radial.
B. Duncan 167 radial and the Lawton 224 radial.
C. Duncan 224 radial and the Lawton 167 radial.
D. Duncan 346 radial and the Lawton 044 radial.

23. You are flying inbound to the Ardmore VORTAC on a

magnetic course of 062 and want to
determine your position. By using the Duncan VOR
you find you are on its 142 radial which
places you near
A. a small road.

B.

C. The town of Ringling.

The Dennis Airport.

D.

A small lake

near a road.
24. On a direct flight from the Duncan VORDME to the
Ardmore VORTAC, the course entered
into the course selector would be
A. 096
C.

277

B.

103
D.

283

25. When correcting toward the CDI in a reverse sensing

situation, you will
A. parallel the radial.

B.

Fly closer to the

radial.
C.

Fly further away from the radial.

D.

Stay the same distance from the radial.

26. When you are conducting a VOR check with a VOT

and the CDI centers, the course selector
and TO-FROM indicator should read
A. 0 TO
B. 180 FROM

C. 0 TO or 180 FROM, depending on your position

from the VOT
D. 0 FROM or 180 TO, regardless of your position
from the VOT
27. A VORTAC facility provides you with
A. course guidance only.
B. Distsnce information only.
C. Nautical mile distance information only.
D. Course guidance and distance information.
-428. The most accurate DME groundspeed readings occur
when traveling
A. directly to the station only.

B.

Directly from the

station only.
C.

Directly to or from the station.

D. At a 90

angle to the station.

29. DME measures
A. magnetic course.
C. Horizontal distance.

B. Vertical distance.
D. Slant range

distance.
30. When you are tuning a VOR/DME or VORTAC facility,
the absence of the single-coded
identification every 30 seconds indicates

A. the DME is not o-erational.

B. The VOR is

not opertional.
C. The system is working correctly.

D. Your

receiver is not operational.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

SECTION B

AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDER

1. ADF equipment is capable of receiving signals from
A. any FM radio station.
B. Only AM radio transmissions.
C. Specially equipped VOR or VORTAC stations.
D. NDBs and commercial broadcast stations.
2. When you are tracking to an NDB station on a heading
of 090 in a no wind condition, the
ADF needle of a fixed-card indicator will show
.. .
3. When you are tacking to a station in a no-wind condition
on a heading of 090, the ADF needle
of a movable-card indicator will show .. .
To answer question 4 through 8, refer to the Dallas-Fort
Worth Sectional Chart and fill in the following information
for each station.

Location of

Name

Station

of
Station

Frequenc
y kHz

Check Whether
NDB

or

Broadcast Station

4. 3401 N,
9529W
5. 3554N,
9646W
6. 3551N,
9725W
7. 3532N,
9856W
8. 3423N,
9859W
-5To answer questions 9 through 12, refer to the fixed-card
ADF indicators shown below and
determine the magnetic bearing to the station.

Magnetic Heading

Relative Bearing Picture

Bearing to Station
9.

360

A
10.

130

B
11.

270

C
12.

210

D
To answer questions 13 through 16, refer to the movablecard ADF indicators shown below.

13. Using ADF indicator A, determine the magnetic bearing

to the NDB.
A. 060
C. 240

B.

180
D.

360

14. What is the magnetic bearing FROM the NDB,

according the ADG indicator B?
A. 090

B. 135

C. 270

D. 315

15. Using the information shown on ADF indicator C,

determine the appropriate heading to intercept the 290
bearing TO the NDB.
A. 090

B. 250

C. 270

D. 310
-6-

16. In terms of traveling TO or FROM the station, the

airplane associated with ADF indicator D is
A. tracking TO the NDB with a left crosswind.
B. Tracking TO the NDB with a right crosswind.
C. Tracking FROM the NDB with a left crosswind.
D. Homing TO the NDB with a right crosswind.
17. . (True, False) The ADF receiver will give an
OFF indication if the station signal is
unreliable.
18. List three natural phenomena that affect ADF reliability.

19. The geographic features that affect ADF reception and

reliability are ... and

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

SECTION C

ADVANCED NAVIGATION
1. VORTAC-based RNAV systems allow you more lateral
freedom because
A. the data base identifies surrounding airports.
B. The signals radiate from satellites in space.
C. You do not have to tune and identify the station.
D. You do not have to track directly to or from
navigation facilities.
2. The main component for VORTAC-based RNAV is the
A. TACAN receiver.
B. LORAN receiver.
C. Courseline computer.
D. Flight management computer.

3. When you are using a VORTAC-based RNAV system,

the needle deflections on the VOR
indicator show course deviation in terms of
A. degrees.
B. Radials.
C. Statute miles.
D. Nautical miles.
-74. (True, False) The sky waves formed by the low
frequency LORAN transmitters are not considered as
reliable for navigation ad the ground waves.
5. A LORAN chain is composed of stations designated as
A. AM and FM.

B. High and low.

C. Main and auxiliaries.

D. Master and

secondaries.
6. By measuring the time difference between station
signals, the LORAN receiver conputes a ..
.

..

7. The global positioning system (GPS) provides horizontal

accuracy for civil users of
approximately
A. 100 feet.
C.

300 meters.

B. 328 feet.
D. 328 meters.

8. .(True, False) One disadvantage of the GPS is that

it is adversely affected by electrical
disturbances such as thunderstorms and precipitation
static.
9. The radio magnetic indicator, or RMI, is usually
composed of a single-bar needle, double-bar
needle,
A. and a fixed compass card.
B. And a slaved compass card.
C. Ambiguity indicator, and a fixed compass card.
D. A TO-FROM indicator, and a slaved compass
card.
10. The RMI is oriented toward
A. true north.
B. Magnetic morth.
C. Relative north.
D. The nose of the aircraft.
11. The single-bar needle on the RMI usually points to a
.. station.
12. During a satisfactory VOT check using the RMI, the
VOR needle should point to .

plus or minus four degrees.

13. The horizontal situation indicator (HSI) combines the
functions of what two instruments?


..

...
END