PPL Questions and Answers

1. An aeroplane climbing out of ground effect (with angle of attack and power setting
constant) will suffer reduced climb out performance. This is a result of
a. Decreased lift
b. Decreased lift and increased induced drag
c. An increase in total drag
d. Reduced wingtip vortices

2. The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow is called the
a. angle of incidence.
b. aspect ratio.
c. rigging angle.
d. angle of attack.

3. Which variations in wind and temperature normally occur with the passage of a cold front?
a. wind backs, temperature rises
b. wind veers, temperature falls
c. wind backs, temperature falls
d. wind veers, temperature rises

4. The main purpose of mass balancing of control surfaces is to:

a. eliminate fluttering and vibration of the control surfaces
b. prevent excessive loading on the aircraft structure
c. enable easier control by the pilot
d. increase distance between the hinge line and centre of gravity

5. What factors affect drift?

a. The strength and direction of the wind
b. The TAS of the aircraft
c. The direction and the TAS of the aircraft
d. The TAS of the aircraft, the direction & strength of the wind

6. The following is a required instrument for a day VFR, private flight are:
a. airspeed indicator
b. altimeter
c. turn coordinator
d. both A and B

7. Seat belts shall be worn at all times during flight by:

a. Any person occupying a control seat
b. The pilot of a single pilot operation
c. The pilot and any passengers below the age of thirteen
d. The pilot and any children sharing a passenger seat

8. Which of the following operations would not be classified as private?

a. the personal transportation of the owner
b. aerial photography for no reward
c. aerial photography or aerial surveying
d. transport of person where remuneration is required under a cost share

9. One nautical mile is equal to:

a. 1 minute of longitude
b. 1 degree of longitude
c. 1 minute of latitude
d. None of the above
10. An ARFOR for Area 21 reads:
Visibility:
3000M DZ/TS, 4000M SH
The visibility in Area 21 is:
a. Between 3000 metres and 4000 metres
b. 10km or greater, reducing to 3000 metres in drizzle and in thunderstorms and
reducing to 4000 metres in showers
c. A maximum of 4000 metres
d. 10km or greater, reducing to between 3000 metres in drizzling thunderstorms
and 4000 metres in slight hail

11. A Mercy flight may be declared if:

a. There is an alternate transport method.
b. The applicable regulations and orders cannot be complied with.
c. The aircraft radio fails and entry into controlled airspace is required.
d. The flight is carrying a sick or injured person.

12. A PPL holder may not act as Pilot in Command without completing a Flight Review
in the preceding:
a. 2 years.
b. 1 years.
c. 3 years.
d. 5 years.

13. Vfe is marked on the ASI by:

a. A green arc
b. A yellow arc
c. The high end of the white arc
d. The high end of the yellow arc

14. You are a pilot who has been scuba diving. You have been diving for more than 4 hours to a
depth which did not require decompression stops. What is the minimum time until you can
fly?
a. 4 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours

15. Light-headedness, rapid breathing and tingling arms and hands are symptoms of:
a. Hypoxia
b. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
c. Decompression Sickness
d. Hyperventilation

16. A pilot assesses that he is undershooting the selected field while on final for a forced
landing in nil wind at the best lift/drag ratio speed. The safest procedure to employ is:
a. increase the IAS
b. extend full flap to increase lift
c. adopt a higher nose attitude
d. maintain the present nose attitude and IAS

17. You plan to fly OCTA on a VFR flight. The ARFOR indicates BROKEN strato-
cumulus/cumulus along your intended route, with the cloud base at 6000ft AMSL,
extending up to well above 10000ft. Your planned track is 245 deg magnetic and you elect to
fly below the clouds at the highest possible altitude in accordance with the 'Table of cruising
Levels' ( There is no terrain restriction). To maintain VMC at your selected altitude the
minimum vertical separation from cloud is:
 a. 100ft above and below cloud
b. 500ft below cloud and 1000ft above cloud
c. Clear of cloud
d. 1000ft above and below cloud

18. Refer Figure 4. Given the following

details: Runway = 09/27,
Landing distance available = 1400
metres, Slope = level,
Pressure height = 5000 ft
Wind = 270/10 kts,
Temperature = +15 Deg
C
The landing distance required under the conditions given is closest to:
a. 600 metres.
b. 630 metres.
c. 670 metres.

19. Initial actions when experiencing an engine failure during takeoff roll are:
a. Switch off the master switch and magnetos and unlatch the cabin door
b. Select Idle Cut Off on the mixture control, switch off the magnetos and shut off the
fuel
c. Select Mixture fully rich, fuel pump on and unlatch the cabin door
d. Close the throttle and apply the brakes

20. A correct interpretation of a centre-zero ammeter is that a:

a. Positive deflection shows that the battery is supplying current
b. The amount of positive deflection is relative to the current demand
c. Negative deflection shows that the generator is charging the battery
d. Zero deflection indicates a generator fault
21.

[Refer to Appendix for performance charts] Under Australian regulations what are the
TODR and LDR under the following conditions? 2800 ft pressure height, outside air
temperature (OAT) 27° C, nil wind, short field take-off and landing procedure and paved
level dry runway A/C wt 1157kg. (Select closest)
a. TODR= 856 m & LDR= 518 m
b. TODR= 960 ft & LDR= 450 ft
c. TODR= 1,685 m & LDR= 675 m
d. TODR= 2,420 ft & LDR= 1,495 ft

22. What is the voltage of the battery?

a. 240V
b. 12V
 c. 6V
d. 24V

23. Stalling speed is decreased if:

a. Load factor is decreased.
b. Weight is increased.
c. Angle of attack is increased.
d. Airspeed increases.

24. One requirement when flying in a lane of entry is that aircraft must:
a. Remain below the upper limit of the lane
b. Keep to the left of the lane
c. Request a clearance before entering the lane
d. Keep to the right of the lane

25. Prolonged exposure to loud noise produces permanent hearing damage:

a. In the low frequency ranges only when above 120 decibels
b. In the high frequency ranges only when above 120 decibels
c. In the low frequency ranges only when above 85 decibels
d. In the high frequency ranges only when above 85 decibels

26. 10USG of AVGAS equates to

a. 76 Kg
b. 33 Kg
c. 38 Kg
d. 27 Kg

27. The use of flaps will:

a. increase lift and decrease drag
b. increase lift and increase drag
c. decrease lift and increase drag
d. decrease lift and decrease drag

28. Relative airflow is the undisturbed airflow parallel to the

a. flight path in the direction of flight.
b. lateral axis in the direction of flight.
c. flight path in the direction opposite to the direction of flight.
d. wing chord in the direction opposite to the direction of flight.

29. The primary band used for aeronautical communications is

a. The LF band.
b. The MF band.
c. The VHF Band.
d. The HF band.

30. You are speaking into the microphone but cannot hear any response from any other
aircraft. In order to establish communications, you should try:
a. A radio check.
b. A squelch check.
c. Cycling the transponder.
d. Phone the tower and ask if they could hear you.
31. You are departing a civil controlled aerodrome where the ERSA indicates "Voice available
on NDB for emergency transmissions". If you experience communications failure, one of
the actions required is that you:
a. Listen out for instructions on the NDB frequency
b. Transmit intentions on the NDB frequency
c. Squawk code 7700 on the SSR
d. Tune VHF to 121.5MHz and give a pan-pan call

32. Wind information given in aerodrome forecasts indicates the direction:

a. From which the wind is blowing in degrees true
b. From which the wind is blowing in degrees magnetic
c. To which the wind is blowing in degrees magnetic
d. To which the wind is blowing in degrees true

33. If ETA at destination falls within the forecast periods of that aerodromes' TAF with the
following conditions, which would ALWAYS require an alternate?
a. TEMPO
b. INTER
c. PROB
d. PROV

34. If climbing after take-off to A085 when should you change from local QNH to area QNH?
a. At 1000ft above the departure aerodrome
b. When climbing through 3000ft
c. At top of climb
d. When climbing through 5000ft

35. Climbing an aeroplane at a higher speed than that recommended for best rate of climb
will result in:
a. an increased rate and angle of climb.
b. a decreased rate and angle of climb.
c. an increased rate and decreased angle of climb.
d. a decreased rate and increased angle of climb.

36. Detonation may result if:

a. The mixture is too rich and there is a build up of hot carbon on the spark plugs
b. A bomb is placed inside the engine
c. The aircraft is flown too fast putting too much load on the engine
d. The octane rating of the fuel is not sufficient

37. The IAS corrected for pressure (or position) and instrument error, is called the:
a. true airspeed (TAS).
b. groundspeed.
c. calibrated airspeed (CAS).
d. equivalent airspeed.

38. The overwater segment of a flight in a single engine aircraft is just beyond gliding distance
from land. Which of the following items must be carried on board the aircraft?
a. A life jacket for each occupant
b. A supply of pyrotechnic distress signals
c. A life raft capable of accommodating all occupants
d. A survival beacon
39. While cruising at A065 OCTA you notice that another aircraft is converging on you from
the left at the same level, you:
a. Contact him on radio and advise him of your position
b. Make a smooth descent to keep clear of it
c. Immediately take up a new direction to avoid a collision with it
d. Maintain your heading but prepare to take avoiding action

40. A red flashing light directed at an aircraft on the ground indicates that the aircraft should:
a. Return to the parking area along a taxiway
b. Stop and hold position
c. Taxi clear of the landing area
d. Change radio frequency and attempt to establish contact - do not take-off.

41. A steady red light signal directed at an aircraft in flight signifies to the pilot that the:
a. Aerodrome is unsafe for landing
b. Aircraft undercarriage not fully down- go around.
c. Aircraft should climb above circuit height and orbit the aerodrome
d. Aircraft should give way to other aircraft and continue circling

42. When should the visual navigation technique of reading from the ground to the map be used?
a. Only for navigation in conditions of good visibility
b. For low level navigation below 500ft AGL
c. When uncertain of your position
d. When using a large scale map

43. Which of the following safety precautions must be taken while a tanker is refuelling an
aeroplane:
a. Two fire extinguishers, within 15m, but not less than 6m from the aircraft and
fuelling equipment
b. Passengers must remain on board with cabin doors shut
c. The refuelling is carried out at least 50 metres away from any exposed public area
d. The aeroplanes parking brake must be engaged

44. BUS 1 and BUS 2 Avionics switches must be off before:

a. Switching on the STBY BATT, or applying external power
b. Turning on the master switch or Essential Bus
c. Turning on or off the master switch, starting the engine or applying external power
d. Turning on or off the alternator, master switch or Essential Bus

45. The white arc on an airspeed indicator represent a speed:

a. Which must never be exceeded.
b. Which can only be flown in smooth air.
c. Which indicates the stall.
d. Which flap can be extended.

46. In the event of a forced landing in a hostile environment, generally the priorities of
survival , in order are;
a. Protection, food, location, water
b. Protection, water, food, location
c. Protection, location, water, food
d. Protection, water, location, food
47. The most rapid build-up of clear airframe ice would occur during flight through:
a. Freezing rain
b. Jet streams
c. Drizzle
d. Nimbostratus cloud

48. Threats can be defined as external events or errors. They may be anticipated, unexpected or
latent. Which of the following could be considered to be latent?
a. Adverse weather
b. Improper training
c. Airsick passenger
d. Change of runway

49. An aeroplane with a gross weight of 800 kg is banked in level flight at an angle of 60o,
the effective weight, or load factor is equal to:
a. 1600kg or 2g
b. 800kg or 2g
c. 2400kg or 3g
d. 1200kg or 3g

50. What is the Climb Gradient required to be achieved in the Take Off Configuration by an
aircraft immediately following Take off?
a. 3.2%
b. 4.0%
c. 5.0%
d. 6.0%

51. The attenuation of radio waves refers to:

a. The bending of radio waves when travelling from one medium into another.
b. The process by which we superimpose our voices onto VHF carrier
waves for transmission.
c. The ability to selectively tune one frequency of radio wave to listen to.
d. The weakening of radio waves as they travel through a medium.

52. What effect will a steady headwind have on an A/C's rate of climb?
a. Rate of climb remains unchanged
b. Both rate and angle of climb increase
c. Rate of climb decreases
d. Rate of climb increases

53. An aeroplane will glide the greatest distance when flown

a. faster than the best glide speed in a tailwind.
b. at the best glide speed in a tailwind.
c. at the best glide speed in still air.
d. slower than the best glide speed in a headwind.
54. Your CHARLIE aircraft has an empty weight of 694 kgs (IU = 19596 kg.mm). The
aircraft is loaded as follows.
Oil 7 kg
Pilot 80 kg
Row 1 Pax 65 kg
Row 2 Pax 60 kg and 75 kg.
Fuel 160 Lt
Determine the maximum baggage that can be loaded on board whilst remaining in
balance throughout the flight?
a. 30Kg
b. 10 Kg
c. 20 Kg
d. 0 Kg

55. Which situation would warrant a MAYDAY call:

a. Inability to receive ATC instructions in CTA
b. You are uncertain of your position
c. You observe a marine craft in difficulty
d. Engine failure

56. The Black Hole Effect involves the pilot:

a. Mistaking the acceleration of the aircraft during take-off for an excessively steep
climb
b. Perceiving a shallow bank at a constant angle as straight and level flight
c. Blacking out due to excessively high "g" loads
d. Becoming disorientated due to the flickering of the sun when viewed
through the propeller blades

57. Refer to Figure 4 in your

workbook. Given the following
details:
Runway
06/24 LDA =
950 m
Slope = 2% down to the
NE Surface = sealed
Elevation = 3880
ft QNH = 1009
hPa
Wind = 240/05 kt
Temperature = + 22 Deg
C
The minimum landing distance required under the given conditions is closest to:
a. 740 m
b. 650 m
c. 590 m
d. 700 m

58. The most dangerous hazard in a mature thunderstorm is:

a. Severe turbulence
b. Icing
c. Lightning
d. Thunder
59. What is the BOD at Ayers Rock (25°11' S, 130°59'E) on June 5th?
*CST is UTC + 9.5
a. 0700 CST
b. 0710 CST
c. 2230 UTC
d. 2240 UTC

60. The elevation of an aerodrome is 2300 ft the QNH is 1003 HPa the temperature is 20
degrees Celsius. What is the density altitude?
a. 1080 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 3800 ft
d. 3320 ft
e. none of the above

61. Stalling speed will be increased by:

a. An increase in angle of attack
b. An increase in power
c. An increase in load factor
d. An increase in drag

62. A VFR aircraft is normally restricted to a height of:

a. A100
b. FL200
c. FL110
d. B050

63. Induced drag is a by product of:

a. weight
b. lift
c. power
d. speed

64. After Take-off from an aerodrome within a civil control zone within what distance
should you normally establish flight on your departure track?
a. 3NM from the aerodrome
b. 5NM from the aerodrome
c. 1NM from the aerodrome
d. The control zone boundary

65. In which layer of the atmosphere is the majority of our weather located?
a. The Mesosphere
b. The Stratosphere
c. The Troposphere
d. The Ionosphere

66. Stalling speed is increased by an increase in?

a. Load factor
b. Power
c. Flap setting
d. Angle of attack
67. With local QNH set on the sub-scale, an altimeter will always indicate:
a. Height above mean sea level
b. Pressure height
c. Height above ground level
d. Density height

68. You have had an engine failure in the Training Area and you are performing the Forced
Landing Procedure. You think that you will not reach the landing area selected (that you
will undershoot). You should:
a. Raise the nose to extend the glide
b. Lower the nose to get a better forward speed to extend the glide
c. Maintain the best glide speed
d. Immediately lower the flaps fully as this will increase your glide range

69. The documents are pilot must carry on board an aircraft for flights wholly within Australia
are:
a. Licence and medical
b. Flight manual
c. Maintenance release
d. All of the above

70. During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point:

a. The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
b. The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
c. The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
d. The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.

71. Magnetic Variation is the difference between:

a. Magnetic north and true north
b. Compass north and true north
c. Magnetic north and compass north
d. Magnetic north and geographic north
e. Compass north and geographic north

72. Which flight instruments use static pressure?

a. Altimeter and ASI
b. ASI, altimeter, VSI and turn coordinator
c. Altimeter, VSI, RMI
d. VSI, ASI and altimeter

73. According to CASA, when should the fuel be checked for water:
a. Only after each refuelling
b. At the 100 hourly maintenance inspection
c. Only before the first flight of each day
d. Before the first flight of each day and after each refuelling

74. The highest obstacle along an unpopulated route segment is 1500ft AMSL. The minimum
attitude at which a VFR aircraft may normally overfly the obstacle is:
a. 3000ft
b. 2000ft
c. 1000ft
d. 500ft
75. Refer to the following ATIS Information and ERSA:

"Moorabbin Terminal Information Papa, Runways 35.

Arrivals and departures east, Runway 35 Right, frequency
118.1. Arrivals and departures west, Runway 35 Left,
frequency 123.0. Wind 300 degrees, 10 knots.
Cloud Few, 3000.
Visibility 10 kilometres.
Temperature 18.
QNH 1019.
On first contact with Moorabbin Ground or Tower, notify in receipt of Papa."

If you are arriving from GMH onto 35R, what frequencies will you use to contact
Moorabbin Tower and Ground respectively?
a. YMMB TWR 118.1 & YMMB GND 119.9
b. YMMB TWR 123.0 & YMMB GND 119.9
c. YMMB TWR 118.1 & YMMB GND 120.9
d. YMMB TWR 123.0 & YMMB GND 120.9

76. An aircraft operating on a SARTIME away from air routes is forced down and the pilot has
completed his post impact drill. If there are no injuries it is recommended that the survival
beacon is switched on:
a. At 30 minute intervals
b. At hourly intervals
c. Immediately
d. At SARTIME