DPMT 2009

DPMT - 2009
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

1. A raindrop with radius 1.5 mm falls from a cloud at a height 1200 m from ground. The density of water
is 1000 kg/m3 and density of water is 1.2 kg/m3. Assume the drop was spherical throughout the fall and
there is no air drag. The impact speed of the drop will be
(1) 27 km/h (2) 550 km/h (3) zero (4) 129 km/h
Sol: Ans [2]
Acceleration of rain drop
 1.2  9982
a  1    10   9.98 m/sec 2
 1000  1000
 v = 2  9.98  1200  550 km/sec

2. A man is standing on an international space station, which is orbiting earth at an altitude 520 km with a
constant speed 7.6 km/s. If the man’s weight is 50 kg, his acceleration is
(1) 7.6 km/s2 (2) 7.6 m/s2 (3) 8.4 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
Sol: Ans [3]
v 2 (7.6  103 ) 2
a  3
 8.4 m/sec 2
r 6920  10
3. A rope of mass 0.1 kg is connected at the same height of two opposite walls. It is allowed to hang under
its own weight. At the contact point between the rope and the wall, the rope makes an angle  = 10° with
respect to horizontal. The tension in the rope at its midpoint between the walls is
(1) 2.78 N (2) 2.56 N (3) 2.82 N (4) 2.71 N
Sol: Ans [1]
mg 0.1  9.8
T   2.78 N
2 tan10º 2  0.1763
4. A boat crosses a river from port A to port B, which are just on the opposite side. The speed of the water
is VW and that of boat is VB relative to water. Assume VB = 2VW. What is the time taken by the boat, if
it has to cross the river directly on the AB line?
2D 3D D D 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
VB 3 2VB VB 2 VB
Sol: Ans [1]
To cross river along AB, direction of boat should head at am angle  with AB such that
vw 1
sin       30º
vB 2
D 2D
t 
vB .cos30º vB 3
Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

-1-
Physics, Chemistry & Biology DPMT-2009
5. Raindrops are falling from a certain height. Assume all raindrops are spherical and have same drag
coefficient. The impact speed of large raindrops compared to that of small raindrops is
(1) greater (2) smaller (3) same (4) depends on height
Sol: Ans [1]
v  r2
6. Top of the stratosphere has an electric field E (in units of V/m) nearly equal to
(1) 0 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000
Sol: Ans [2]
Factual
7. The surface charge density (in C/m2) of the earth is about
(1) 10–9 (2) –109 (3) 109 (4) –10–9
Sol: Ans [4]
Charge on the earth = –0.5 × 106 coulomb.
0.5  106
 Charge density =    109
3 2
4   6400  10 
8. Gauss’s law is valid for
(1) any closed surface (2) only regular closed surfaces
(3) any open surfaces (4) only irregular open surfaces
Sol: Ans [1]
Factual
9. One of the following is not a property of field lines
(1) field lines are continuous curves without any breaks
(2) two field lines cannot cross each other
(3) field lines start at positive charges and end at negative charges
(4) they form closed loops
Sol: Ans [1,4]
Factual
10. Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound standard resistors because of their
(1) temperature independent resistivity
(2) very weakly temperature dependent resistivity
(3) strong dependence of resistivity with temperature
(4) mechanical strength
Sol: Ans [2]
Factual
11. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 10  and the meter shows full scale deflection for a current of 1
mA. The shunt resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0-100 mA is
about
(1) 10  (2) 1  (3) 0.1  (4) 0.01 
Sol: Ans [3]
ig Rg 1 103  10 10
Using R     0.1 
i  ig 100  103  1  103 99

-2-
DPMT-2009 Physics, Chemistry & Biology
12. The current (in amperes) drawn from a 12 V supply by the infinite network shown in the following
figure is 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1
(1) 2.7 (2) 3.3 (3) 4.4 (4) 5.2
Sol: Ans [1]
Let equivalent resistances is x, circuit can be redrawn as
x
 x 11
1 x
Solving, x = 2.7
13. A long straight wire of a circular cross-section (radius a) carries a steady current I and the current I is
uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Which of the following plots represents the variation of
magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from the centre of the wire?
B B
(1) (2)
a r a r
B B
(3) (4)
a r a r
Sol: Ans [1]

0 I
B .r ra
2a 2
0 I
= ra
2r
14. The gyromagnetic ratio of an electron of charge e and mass m is equal to
e2 e2
(1) (2)
2m 2m 2
e e
(3) (4)
4m 2m
Sol: Ans [4] Factual

-3-
15. The figure below shows the various positions (labelled by subscripts)
Q4
of small magnetized needles P and Q. The arrows show the direction
of their magnetic moment. Which configuration corresponds to the
lowest potential energy all the configurations show?
Q5 P Q3
(1) PQ3 (2) PQ4 Q1 Q2
(3) PQ5 (4) PQ6

Sol: Ans [4] Q6
Magnetic moments should be parallel and magnetic moment should be larger.

16. Which of the following figures correctly depicts the Lenz’s law? The arrows show the movement of the
labelled pole of a bar magnet into a closed circular loop and the arrows on the circle show the direction
of the induced current
(1) (2)
N N
(3) (4)
S S
Sol: Ans [1]

There should be repulsion, therefore facing surface of coil should be north pole.
17. An a.c., voltage is applied to a pure inductor L, drives a current in the inductor. The current in the
inductor would be
(1) ahead of the voltage by /2 (2) lagging the voltage by /2
(3) ahead of the voltage by /4 (4) lagging the voltage by 3/4
18. The radiation pressure (in N/m2) of the visible light is of the order of
(1) 10–2 (2) 10–4 (3) 10–6 (4) 10–8
19. The critical angle for total internal reflection in diamond is 24.5°. The refractive index of the diamond is
(1) 2.41 (2) 1.41 (3) 2.59 (4) 1.59
Sol: Ans [1]
1
  2.41
sin 24.5º
-4-
20. When a glass lens with n = 1.47 is immersed in a trough of liquid, it looks to be disappeared. The liquid
in the trough could be
(1) water (2) kerosene (3) glycerin (4) alcohol
Sol: Ans [3]
Factual (To disappear refractive index of liquid should be 1.47)
21. In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits are made 5 mm apart and the screen is placed 2 m away.
What is the fringe separation when light of wavelength 500 nm is used
(1) 0.002 mm (2) 0.02 mm (3) 0.2 mm (4) 2 mm
Ans [3]
500  109  2
B  0.2 mm
5  103
22. For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 4 mm wide and the wavelength
is 500 nm?
(1) 32 m (2) 64 m (3) 16 m (4) 8 m
Sol: Ans [3]
23. Which of the following metal thermionically emit an electron at a relatively lowest temperature among
them?
(1) platinum (2) copper (3) aluminum (4) molybdenum
24. Among the following four spectral regions, the photon has the highest energy in :
(1) infrared (2) violet (3) red (4) blue
Sol: Ans [2]
Ef
25. Which of these particles (having the same kinetic energy) has the largest de Broglie wavelength?
(1) electron (2) alpha particle (3) proton (4) neutron
Sol: Ans [1]
1

m
26. The radius of an electron orbit in a hydrogen atom is of the order of
(1) 10–8 m (2) 10–9 m (3) 10–11 m (4) 10–13 m
Sol: Ans [3]
r1 = 53 pm
27. The size of the nucleus of an atom of mass number A is proportional to
(1) A3/4 (2) A2/3 (3) A1/3 (4) A5/3
Sol: Ans [3]
R = R0 A1/3
28. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 2 years. How long will it take the activity to reduce to 3% of its
original value?
(1) 4.8 years (2) 7 years (3) 10 years (4) 9.6 years

-5-
Sol: Ans [3]
3  100 et
ln 2

T1/ 2
29. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Which of the following
wavelengths it can detect?
(1) 950 nm (2) 820 nm (3) 580 nm (4) 440 nm
Sol: Ans [4]
hc
 energy gap

30. A n-p-n transistor having a.c., current gain of 50 is to be used to make an amplifier of power gain of 300.
What will be the voltage gain of the amplifier?
(1) 8.5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol: Ans [2]
Pg = AI . Vg
Pg 300
Vg  = 6
AI 50
31. A water molecule has an electric dipole moment 6.4 × 10–30 C.m when it is in vapor state. The distance
in meter between the centre of positive and negative charge of the molecule is
(1) 4 × 10–10 (2) 4 × 10–11 (3) 4 × 10–12 (4) 4 × 10–13
Sol: Ans [2]
P = ql
P 6.4  1034
l   4  1011
q 1.6  1019
32. The radius of the rear wheel of bicycle is twice that of the front wheel. When the bicycle is moving, the
angular speed of the rear wheel compared to that of the front is
(1) greater (2) smaller (3) same (4) exact double
Sol: Ans [2]
v = 1r1 = 2r2
33. A uniform rod of length L and mass 18 kg is made to rest on two measuring scale at its two ends. A
uniform block of mass 2.7 kg is placed on the rod at a distance L/4 from the left end. The force
experienced by the measuring scale on the right end is
(1) 18 N (2) 27 N (3) 29 N (4) 45 N
Sol: Ans [1]
L L
2.7 g  1.8 g  NL  0
4 2
 N  18

-6-
34. You drive a car at a speed of 70 km/hr in a straight road for 8.4 km, and then the car runs out of petrol.
You walk for 30 min to reach a petrol pump at a distance of 2 km. The average velocity from the
beginning of your drive till you reach the petrol pump is
(1) 16.8 km/h (2) 35 km/h (3) 64 km/h (4) 18.6 km/h
Sol: Ans [1]
Total distance 8.4  2

Vav   = 16.8 km/h
Total time 1 8.4

2 70
35. Two iron blocks of equal mass but with double surface area slide down an inclined plane with friction
coefficient µ. If the first block with surface area A experience a frictional force f, then the second block
with surface area 2A will experience a frictional force
(1) f /2 (2) f (3) 2f (4) 4f
Sol: Ans [2]
Friction is independent of contact area.
36. A point mass m is placed inside a spherical shell of radius R and mass M at a distance R/2 from the
center of the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is
GMm GMm GMm

(1) (2)  (3) zero (4) 4
R2 R2 R2
Sol: Ans [3]
Field inside spherical shell is zero.
37. The motion of a particle executing SHM in one dimension is described by x = –0.5 sin(2t + /4), where
x is in meters and t in secs. The frequency of oscillation in Hz is
(1) 2 (2)  (3) /2 (4) 1/
Sol: Ans [4]
x = A sin (t + )
By comparing,
1
  2f  2  f 

38. Two stars of mass m1 and m2 are parts of a binary star system. The radii of their orbits are r1 and r2
respectively, measured from the C.M. of the system. The magnitude of gravitational force m1 exerts on
m2 is
m1m2 G m1G m2 G (m1  m2 )
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(r1  r2 ) 2 (r1  r2 ) 2 (r1  r2 ) 2 ( r1  r2 ) 2
Sol: Ans [1]
Gm1m2
F 2
 r1  r2 
39. On the centre of a frictionless table a small hole is made, through which a weightless string of length 2l is
inserted. On the two ends of the string two balls of the same mass m are attached. Arrangement is made
in such a way that half of the string is on the table top and half is hanging below. The ball on the table top
is made to move in a circular path with a constant speed V. What is the centripetal acceleration of the
moving ball?
(1) mVl (2) g (3) zero (4) 2mVl

-7-
Sol: Ans [2]

T = mac = mg
ac = g
40. Tom and Dick are running forward with the same speed. They are throwing a rubber ball to each other
at a constant speed V as seen by the thrower. According to Sam who is standing on the ground the speed
of ball is
(1) same as V (2) greater than V (3) less than V (4) none of these
Sol: Ans [2]
   
vB , g  vB ,T  vT , g and vT , g  0
41. A ball moves in a frictionless inclined table without slipping. The work done by the table surface on the
ball is
(1) positive (2) negative (3) zero (4) none of these
Sol: Ans [3]
Normal reaction is perpendicular to direction of motion i.e. displacement.
42. A synchronous satellite goes around the earth once in every 24h. What is the radius of orbit of the
synchronous satellite in terms of the earth’s radius? (Given mass of the earth, me = 5.98 × 1024 kg,
radius of the earth, re = 6.37 × 106 m, Universal constant of gravitation, G = 6.67 × 10–11 N.m2/kg2)
(1) 2.4 re (2) 3.6 re (3) 4.8 re (4) 6.6 re
Sol: Ans [4]
4 2 r 3
T2 
GMe
also, GMe = gre2
43. Two cylinders of equal size are filled with equal amount of ideal diatomic gas at room temp. Both the
cylinders are fitted with pistons. In cylinder A the piston is free to move, while in cylinder B the piston is
fixed. When same amount of heat is supplied to both the cylinders, the temperature of the gas in cylinder
A raises by 20°K. What will be the rise in temperature of the gas in cylinder B?
(1) 28°K (2) 20°K (3) 15°K (4) 10°K
Sol: Ans [1]
Q = n . Cp × 20
Q = nCvT
7
Cp  R
2
5
Cv  R
2
44. An ideal gas is made to go through a cyclic thermodynamical process in four steps. The amount of heat
involved are Q1 = 600 J, Q2 = –400 J, Q3 = –300 J and Q4 = 200 J respectively. The corresponding work
involved are W1 = 300 J, W2 = –200 J, W3 = –150 J and W4. What is the value of W4?
(1) –50 J (2) 100 J (3) 150 J (4) 50 J
Sol: Ans [3]
Net heat supplied = network done
Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4 = W1 + W2 + W3 + W4

-8-
45. The angle subtended by a coin of radius 1 cm held at a distance of 80 cm from your eyes is
(1) 1.43° (2) 0.72° (3) 0.0125° (4) 0.025°
Sol: Ans [1]
D 2
 rad  rad  1.43 rad
L 80
46. The three initial and final position of a man on the x-axis are given as
(i) (–8 m, 7 m)
(ii) (7 m, –3 m) and
(iii) (–7 m, 3 m)
Which pair gives the negative displacement?
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (i) & (iii)
Sol: Ans [2]
Displacement = final position – initial position.
47. A bird flies from (–3 m, 4 m, –3 m) to (7 m, – 2 m, –3 m) in xyz coordinates. The birds’s displacement
in unit vectors is given by
(1) (4i + 2j – 6k) (2) (10i + 6j) (3) (4i – 2j) (4) (10i + 6j – 6k)
Sol: Ans [2]
 
   
Displacement = rf  ri = 7iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ  3iˆ  4 ˆj  3kˆ  10iˆ  6 ˆj
48. A coastguard ship locates a pirate ship at a distance 560 m. It fires a cannon ball with an initial speed 82
m/s. At what angle from horizontal the ball must be fired so that it hits the pirate ship?
(1) 54° (2) 125° (3) 27° (4) 18°
Sol: Ans [3]
(82)2 sin 2
560     27
10
49. An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in horizontal XY plane, with the centre at the
origin. When the object is at x = –2 m, its velocity is –(4 m/s) ĵ . What is the object’s acceleration when
it is y = 2 m?
(1) –(8 m/s2) ĵ (2) (8 m/s2) iˆ (3) (–4 m/s2) ĵ (4) (4 m/s2) iˆ
Sol: Ans [1]
v = r
 = 2
ac = 2r = 22 × 2 = 8 m/s2
50. A block is lying static on the floor. The maximum value of static frictional force on the block is 10 N. If
a horizontal force of 8 N is applied to the block, what will be the frictional force on the block?
(1) 2 N (2) 18 N (3) 8 N (4) 10 N
Sol: Ans [3]
Fext < fs, max
 Fext = 8 N.

-9-
51. Chlorobenzene is .......?.......... reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution and directs the
incoming electrophilie to the ............?..............position.
(1) more, ortho/para (2) less, ortho/para (3) more, meta (4) less, meta
Sol: Ans [2]
Because Cl has –I and +R effect, and its –I effect is relatively strong enough to make the ring slightly
less reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution.
52. When acetyl chloride reacts with sodium propionate, the product formed is
(1) acetic anhydride (2) acetic propionic anhydride
(3) n-propyl acetate (4) pent-2, 4-dione
Sol: Ans [2]
O O O O
|| || || ||
 SN
CH 3  C  Cl  CH 3  CH 2  C  O Na   CH 3  C  O  C  CH 2  CH 3 + NaCl
acetic propionic anhydride
53. In the reaction below, X is

C6H5MgBr + CH3OH  X
(1) C6H6 (2) C6H5OH (3) C6H5OCH3 (4) CH3COOH
Sol: Ans [1]
C6H5MgBr 
CH3OH C6H6 + CH3O MgBr
54. Which of the following compounds will show geometric isomerism?

(1) Cyclohexene (2) 2-hexene
(3) 3-hexyne (4) 1,1-diphenyl ethylene
Sol: Ans [2]
55. Which of the following reactions involves carbon-carbon bond formation?

(1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (2) Hydroboration oxidation
(3) Cannizzaro reaction (4) Reaction of primary alcohols with PCC
Sol: Ans [1]
OH OH
( i ) NaOH CHO
+ CHCl3 ( ii ) H +

56. Aldol condensation does not occur between:

(1) two different aldehydes (2) two different ketones
(3) an aldehyde and a ketone (4) an aldehyde and an ester
Sol: Ans [4]

- 10 -
57. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Pheromones are secreted outside the body by the insects
(2) Aspirin is analgesic and anti pyretic
(3) Sucrose is a dipeptide commonly known as aspartame
(4) The DNA assists in the synthesis of RNA molecules
Sol: Ans [3]
Sucrose is Dischharide carbohydrate.
58. In which of the following reactions, the product obtained is chiral?
(1) CH 3 COCH 3 NaBH

 4  (2) CH 3 COCl Rosenmund
 reduction

(3) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 Sn,
HCl
 (4) CH3CH2COCH3 LiAlH
 4 
Sol: Ans [4]
OH
|
LiAlH 4
CH3CH2COCH3  CH 3CH 2  CH  CH 3
*
59. Which of the following compounds gives blood red coloration when its Lassaigne’s extract is treated
with alkali and ferric chloride?
(1) Thiourea (2) Diphenyl sulfide (3) Phenyl hydrazine (4) Benzamide
Sol: Ans [1]
60. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Allergic conditions are cured by anti-histamines
(2) Hormones are continuously produced but not stored in the body
(3) The function of the white blood cells is to protect the body against infections
(4) Catabolism involves degradation of molecules
Sol: Ans [2]
61. m-Bromoaniline can be prepared by
(1) C 6 H 5 HNO
3  1.Sn  Br
 HCl
2
H 2SO 4 2. NaOH, H 2 O H2O
(2) C 6 H 6 Br
2
HNO H2
3  
FeBr3 H 2SO 4 Pt
NH3
(3) m BrC6 H 4 COOH SOCl
2   Br
2 ,
NaOH


H
(4) C 6 H 5 NH 2 NaNO
 2 ,
HCl NaNH 2
  

Cu 2 Br2

- 11 -
Sol: Ans [3]

O O
COOH C – Cl C – NH2
NH2
NH 3 Br2 /NaOH
SOCl2
  
- HCl
  H+

Br Br Br Br
62. In the reaction below, X is
Neopentyl alcohol H2SO4  X
(1) 2-methylpentane (2) 2-methyl pent-2-ene (3) 2-methyl but-2-ene (4) neopentane
Sol: Ans [3]
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
| |  |  
H+ methyl
CH 3  C  CH 2  OH   CH 3  C  CH 2  OH 2  CH 3  C  C H 2 
Shift
 CH 3  C  CH 3
| | | |
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
+
H
  CH 3  C  CH  CH 3
|
CH 3
63. The configuration of the chiral centre and the geometry of the double bond in the following molecule
can be described by
F
HOOC – C – OH
C
Me C Me
H
(1) R and E (2) S and E (3) R and Z (4) S and Z
Sol: Ans [3] Conceptual
64. Which polymers occur naturally?
(1) Starch and Nylon (2) Starch and Cellulose (3) Proteins and Nylon (4) Proteins and PVC
Sol: Ans [2]
65. Calculate the work done when I mol of an ideal gas is compressed reversibly from 1.0 bar to 4.00 bar
at a constant temperature of 300K.
(1) 4.01 kJ (2) – 8.02 kJ (3) 18.02 kJ (4) – 14.01 kJ
Sol: Ans [1]
66. The enthalpy of neutralization of oxalic acid by a strong base is – 25.4 kcal mol–1. The enthalpy of
neutralization of strong acid and strong base is –13.7 kcal equiv–1. The enthalpy of dissociation of
H2C2O4  2H+ + C2O42– is
(1) 1.0 kcal mol–1 (2) 2.0 kcal mol–1 (3) 18.55 kcal mol–1 (4) 11.7 kcal mol–1

- 12 -
Sol: Ans [2]

H = Hdiss. + Hneu.
2 × 13.7 = Hdiss. + (–25.4)
67. At the equilibrium of the reaction 2X(g) + Y(g)  X2Y(g), the number of moles of X2Y at equilibrium
is affected by the
(1) temperature and pressure (2) temperature only
(3) pressure only (4) temperature, pressure and catalyst used
Sol: Ans [1]
68. For a first order reaction, the time required for 99.9% of the reaction to take place is nearly:
(1) 10 times that required for half of the reaction
(2) 100 times that required for two thirds of the reaction
(3) 10 times that required for one-fourth of the reaction
(4) 20 times that required for half of the reaction
Sol: Ans [1]
0.693 2.303 100

K= t log
t1/2 0.693 / t1/2 0.1 t = 10 × t1/2
69. An endothermic reaction has a positive internal energy change U. In such a case, what is the minimum
value that the activation energy can have?
(1) U (2) U = H + nRT (3) U = H – nRT (4) U = Ea + RT
Sol: Ans [3]
70. A compound contains two types of atoms X and Y. It crystallizes in a cubic lattice with atoms X at the
corners of the unit cell and atoms Y at the body centers. The simplest possible formula of this compound
is
(1) X8 Y (2) X2 Y (3) XY (4) XY8
Sol: Ans [3]
1
Total number of ‘X’ atoms = 8 × =1
8
Total number of ‘Y’ atoms = 1 (body centered)
Hence formula is XY
71. Which of the following halogens does not exhibit a positive oxidation number in their compounds?
(1) I (2) Br (3) Cl (4) F
72. Among the following, the strongest conjugate base is
(1) NO3 (2) Cl– (3) SO 24 (4) CH3COO–

- 13 -
Sol: Ans [4]

Because its conjugate acid i.e., CH3COOH is weakest among the four given acids.
73. Determine the pH of the solution that results from the addition of 20.00 mL of 0.01 M Ca(OH)2 to
30.00 mL of 0.01 M HCl.
(1) 11.30 (2) 10.53 (3) 2.70 (4) 8.35
Sol: Ans [1]
NbVb – NaVa = NV, 20 × 0.01 × 2 – 30 × 0.01 = N × 50
[OH–] = N = 2 × 10–3 base pOH = 2.7 pH = 11.3
74. Adsorption is an exothermic process. The amount of substance adsorbed should:

(1) increase with decrease in temperature (2) increase with increase in temperature
(3) decrease with decrease in temperature (4) decrease with increase in temperature
75. Fog is a colloidal solution of

(1) Liquid particles dispersed in gas (2) Gaseous particles dispersed in a liquid
(3) Solid particles dispersed in a liquid (4) Solid particles dispersed in gas
76. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of a chlorine atom is
(1) 2, 0, 0 +1/2 (2) 2, 1, –1, +1/2 (3) 3, 1, –1, ±1/2 (4) 3, 0, 0 ±1/2
77. The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressures is called:
(1) Critical temperature (2) Inversion temperature
(3) Boyle temperature (4) Reduced temperature
78. Common salt obtained from sea-water contains 95% NaCl by mass. The approximate number of
molecules present in 10.0 g of the salt is
(1) 1021 (2) 1022 (3) 1023 (4) 1024
Sol: Ans [3]
 100 g of water contains 95 g NaCl
 10 g of water contains 9.5 g NaCl
then,58.5 g of NaCl contains 6.023 × 1023 g of NaCl
6.0231023  9.5
9.5 g of NaCl will contains 1023
58.5

- 14 -
79. In the redox reaction : x KMnO4 + y NH3  KNO3 + MnO2 + KOH + H2O
(1) x = 4, y = 6 (2) x = 3, y = 8 (3) x = 8, y = 6 (4) x = 8, y = 3
80. Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?
(1) 0.1 M KNO3 (2) 0.1 M Na3PO4 (3) 0.1 M BaCl2 (4) 0.1 M K2SO4
Sol: Ans [2]
Na3PO4 has a greater Vont Hoff’s factor
81. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The % ionic character
of the A – B bond is
(1) 50% (2) 72.24% (3) 55.3% (4) 43%
82. 100 ml of PH3 on heating forms P and H2, the volume change in the reaction is
(1) an increase of 50 ml (2) an increase of 100 ml
(3) an increase of 150 ml (4) a decrease of 50 ml
Sol: Ans [1] 2PH3(g)  2P(s) + 3H3(g)
100 ml 150 ml
Net change [150 –100) = 50 ml increase.
83. The common features among the species CN–, CO and NO+ are:
(1) Bond order three and iso-electronic (2) Bond order three and weak-field ligands
(3) Bond order two and -acceptor (4) Iso-electronic and weak-field ligands
84. The magnitude of crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE or t) in tetrahedral complexes is considerably
less than in the octahedral field. Because
(1) There are only four ligands instead of six so the ligand field is only 2/3 the size hence the t is only
2/3 the size
(2) The direction of the orbitals does not coincide with the direction of the ligands. This reduces the
crystal field stabilization energy (t) by further 2/3
(3) Both points (1) and (2) are correct
(4) Both points (1) and (2) are wrong
Sol: Ans [3] Self explanatory

- 15 -
85. The role of phosphate in detergent powder is to

(1) Control pH level of the detergent water mixture
(2) Remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions from the water that causes the hardness of water
(3) Provide whiteness to the fabrics
(4) Form solid detergent as phosphate-less detergents are liquid in nature
86. If I2 is dissolved in aqueous KI, the intense yellow species, I3–, is formed. The structure of I3– ion is
(1) Square pyramidal (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Octahedral (4) Pentagonal bipyramidal
Sol: Ans [2]
Hybridisation is sp3d, hence trigonal bipyramidal.
87. In the change of NO+ to NO, the electron is added to the

(1)  orbital (2)  orbital (3) * orbital (4) * orbital
88. Iron has an oxidation number of +3, in which of the following compounds:
(1) Fe(NO3)2 (2) FeC2O4
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (4) (NH4)2SO4.FeSO4.6H2 O
Sol: Ans [3]
[Fe(H2O)6]Cl3
89. The expected spin-only magnetic moments for [Fe(CN)6]4– and [FeF6]3– are
(1) 1.73 and 1.73 B.M. (2) 1.73 and 5.92 B.M. (3) 0.0 and 1.73 B.M. (4) 0.0 and 5.92 B.M.
Sol: Ans [4]
Fe(CN)64– has all electrons paired in d orbital while [FeF6]3– has five unpaired electrons
90. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is the highest for
(1) [CoF4]2– (2) [Co(NCS)4]2– (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [CoCl4]2–
Sol: Ans [3]
CFSE is higher for octahedral field
91. Which of the following reactions will not give the anhydrous AlCl3?
(1) By heating AlCl3.6H2O
(2) By passing dry HCl gas on heated aluminium powder
(3) By passing dry chlorine gas on heated aluminium powder
(4) By passing dry chlorine gas over a heated mixture of alumina and coke
Sol: Ans [4] Al2O3 + 3C + 3Cl2  2AlCl3 + 3CO

- 16 -
92. A metallic ion M2+ ion has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 14 and the ionic weight is 56 amu. The
numbers of neutrons in its nucleus are
(1) 30 (2) 32 (3) 34 (4) 42
Sol: Ans [1]
number of protons will be 26
number of neutrons will be = 56 – 26 = 30
93. Which of the following has the highest value of radioactivity?

(1) 1 gm of Ra (2) 1 gm of RaSO4 (3) 1 gm of RaBr2 (4) 1 gm of Ra(HPO)4
94. It is believed that atoms combine with each other such that the outer most shell acquires a stable
configuration of 8 electrons. If stability were attained with 6 electrons rather than 8; what would be
the formula of the stable fluoride ion?
(1) F– (2) F+ (3) F2+ (4) F3+
95. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the following
forces is responsible to hold them together?
(1) Dipole forces (2) van der Waal forces
(3) Covalent forces (4) Hydrogen bond forces
96. In which of the following reactions, there is no change in valency?

(1) SO2 + 2H2S = 2H2O + 3S (2) 2Na + O2 = Na2O2
(3) Na2O + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + H2O2 (4) 4KClO3 = 3KClO4 + KCl
Sol: Ans [3]
Na2O + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + H2O2
97. If helium is allowed to expand in vacuum, it liberates heat because:

(1) Helium is an inert gas (2) Helium is an ideal gas
(3) The critical temperature of helium is very low (4) Helium is one of the lightest gases
98. Compound A undergoes Cannizzaro reaction and B undergoes positive iodoform test. Therefore,
(1) A = Acetaldehyde B = 1-Pentanal
(2) A = C6H5CH2CHO B = 3-Pentanone
(3) A = Formaldehyde B = 2-Pentanone
(4) A = Propionaldehyde B = 1-Pentanol

- 17 -
Sol: Ans [3]

Formaldehyde, B = 2-pentanone
H O
C=O ||
H CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
O
||
It has no -hydrogen If has  C  CH 3 gp.
99. Arrange the following free radicals in order of decreasing stability

Methyl (I), Vinyl (II), Allyl (III), Benzyl (IV)
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) III > II > I > IV (3) II > I > IV > III (4) IV > III > I > II
Sol: Ans [4]
IV > III > I > II
100. Which isomer of hexane has only two different sets of structurally equivalent hydrogen atoms?
(1) 2, 2-dimethyl butane (2) 2-methylpentane
(3) 3-methylpentane (4) 2, 3-dimethyl butane
Sol: Ans [4]
CH 3 CH 3
| |
CH 3 – CH– CH– CH 3
* *
2, 3-dimethyl butane.
101. An example for symbiotic bacteria:

(1) Erwinia amylovora (2) Rhizobium leguminosarum
(3) Xanthomonas campestris (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ans. [2]
102. In which plant the fruit is a drupe, seed coat is thin, embryo is inconspicuous, and endosperm is
edible?
(1) Groundnut (2) Wheat (3) Apple (4) Coconut
Ans. [4]
103. Somaclonal variation appears in plants :

(1) Growing in polluted soil or water
(2) Exposed to gamma rays
(3) Raised in tissue culture
(4) Transformed by recombinant DNA technology
Ans. [3]

- 18 -
104. In a monoecious plant :

(1) Male and female sex organs are on different individuals
(2) Male and female gamets are of two morphologically distinct types
(3) Male and female sex organs are on the same individual
(4) All the stamens are fused to form one unit
Ans. [3]
105. Which one of the following are intracellular obligate parasites?

(1) Bacteria (2) Viruses (3) Slime moulds (4) Blue-green algae
Ans. [2]
106. Pineapple fruit develops from :

(1) An unilocular polycarpellary flower
(2) Multipistillate syncarpus flower
(3) Multilocular monocarpellary flower
(4) A cluster of compactly born flowers on an axis
Ans. [4]
107. A sewage treatment process in which a part of decomposer bacteria present in the wastes is recycled
into the starting of the process is called:
(1) Cyclic treatment (2) Activated sludge treatment
(3) Primary treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Ans. [2]
108. Which of following mineral-nutrients plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation?
(1) Zinc (2) Iron (3) Molybdenum (4) Magnesium
Ans. [3]
109. Which of the following is true?

(1) Vessels are unicellular and with narrow lumen
(2) Vessels are multicellular and with wide lumen
(3) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen
(4) Tracheids are multicellular and with narrow lumen
Ans. [2]
110. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells:

(1) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange
(2) Have large intercellular spaces
(3) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
(4) Have a high density of chloroplasts
Ans. [4]
111. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by:

(1) A nematode (2) A virus (3) A bacterium (4) A viroid
Ans. [4]

- 19 -
112. In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the same class of algae:
(1) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia (2) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
(3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix (4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracillaria
Ans. [2]
113. In root nodules of legumes, leg-haemoglobin is important because :

(1) It transports oxygen to the root nodule
(2) It acts as an oxygen scavenger
(3) It provides energy to the nitrogen fixing bacterium
(4) It acts as a catalyst in transamination
Ans. [2]
114. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by :

(1) Ability to defend itself (2) Strategy to obtain food
(3) Number of offspring (4) Dominance over other individuals
Ans. [3]
115. Etiolation in plants is caused when :

(1) They are grown in dark (2) They have mineral deficiency
(3) They are grown in intense light (4) They are grown in blue light
Ans. [1]
116. Calorie is the unit of

(1) Sound (2) Temperature (3) Light (4) Heat
Ans. [4]
117. In an annual ring, the light coloured part is known as:

(1) Early wood (2) Late wood (3) Heartwood (4) Sapwood
Ans. [1]
118. The chief component of the middle lamella in plant cell is:
(1) Potassium (2) Calcium (3) Magnesium (4) Phosphorus
Ans. [2]
119. Tonoplast is a membrane surrounding the :

(1) Cytoplasm (2) Vacuole (3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondira
Ans. [2]
120. Polyploidy can be produced artificially by:

(1) Colchicine (2) Inbreeding (3) Line breeding (4) Self pollination
Ans. [1]
121. Recombination is involved in the process of:

(1) Cytokinesis (2) Spindle formation
(3) Crossing over (4) Chromosome duplication
Ans. [3]

- 20 -
122. A fibrous root system is excellent for :

(1) Food storage (2) Nitrogen fixation
(3) Absorbing water from deeper layer of soil (4) Providing good anchorage for the plant
Ans. [4]
123. If a primary root continues to grow, the type of root system will be known as:
(1) Secondary (2) Fibrous (3) Tap (4) stilt
Ans. [3]
124. A horizontal underground stem is a

(1) Corm (2) Phylloclade (3) Rhizome (4) Rhizoid
Ans. [3]
125. If global warming continues, the organism which may face more severe threat is
(1) Cow (2) Banana (3) Snow leopard (4) Dolphin
Ans. [3]
126. One advantage of cleistogamy is
(1) It leads to greater genetic diversity
(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
(3) Seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(4) Each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains
Ans. [3]
127. Jute fibres are obtained from the
(1) Secondary phloem (2) Pith (3) Xylem (4) Endodermis
Ans. [1]
128. A chromosome in which the centromere is situated close to its end so that one arm is very short and
the other very long is
(1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric (3) Sub-metacentric (4) Telocentric
Ans. [1]
129. Resin and turpentine are products of
(1) Teak (2) Oak (3) Eucalypt (4) Pine
Ans. [4]
130. An inexhaustible non-conventional universal source of energy is
(1) Wind energy (2) Solar energy
(3) Hydrothermal energy (4) Tidal energy
Ans. [2]
131. Which one of the following periods is largely associated with extinction of dinosaurs and the increase
in flowering plants and reptiles?
(1) Jurassic (2) Triassic (3) Cretaceous (4) Permian
Ans. [3]
132. Lime is added to the soil which is too
(1) Sandy (2) Salty (3) Alkaline (4) Acidic
Ans. [4]

- 21 -
133. Percentage of precipitation that can be stored in dams of India :

(1) 55 (2) 18 (3) 10 (4) 43
Ans. [3]
134. Electroporation involves :
(1) Promotion of seed germination by induced imbibition of water with electric current
(2) Making transient pores in cell membrane to facilitate entry of gene constructs
(3) Purification of saline water with the help of an artificial membrane
(4) Passage of sucrose through sieve pores by electro-osmosis
Ans. [2]
135. One of the following acts as secondary pollutant :
(1) Br2 (2) Cl2 (3) NO2 (4) HNO3
Ans. [4]
136. Cuticle is absent in :
(1) Mesophytes (2) Young roots (3) Mature stems (4) Leaves
Ans. [2]
137. Sunflower belongs to the family :
(1) Liliaceae (2) Asteraceae (3) Cruciferae (4) Fabaceae
Ans. [2]
138. The least porous soil among the following is a :
(1) Loamy soil (2) Silty soil (3) Clayey soil (4) Peaty soil
Ans. [3]
139. In higher plants the shape of the chloroplast is :
(1) Discoid (2) Cup-shaped (3) Girdle-shaped (4) Reticulate
Ans. [1]
140. Which of the following statements is false ?
(1) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule
(2) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses
(3) The bacteriophage has a double-stranded DNA molecule
(4) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses
Ans. [1]
141. A phylum common to unicellular animals and plants is :
(1) Monera (2) Plantae (3) Fungi (4) Protista
Ans. [4]
142. Which of the following is a rootless aquatic plant in which a portion of the leaf forms a tiny sac for
trapping insects ?
(1) Nepenthes (2) Drosera (3) Urticularia (4) Dionaea
Ans. [3]
143. The greatest problem of water conservation is to reduce the amount of :
(1) Precipitation (2) Runoff water (3) Groundwater (4) Evaporation
Ans. [2]

- 22 -
144. Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are :
(1) Ligases (2) Lyases (3) Hydrolases (4) Isomerases
Ans. [4]
145. According to abiogenesis life originate from :
(1) Non-living (2) Pre-existing life
(3) Chemicals (4) Extra-terrestrial matter
Ans. [1]
146. External fertilization occurs in majority of :
(1) Algae (2) Fungi (3) Liverworts (4) Mosses
Ans. [1]
147. The final stable community in ecological succession is :
(1) Pioneers (2) Sere (3) Climax (4) Carnivores
Ans. [3]
148. Which of the following combination of characters is true for slime moulds ?
(1) Parasitic, plasmodium with true walls, spores dispersed by air currents
(2) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water
(3) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water
(4) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by air currents
Ans. [4]
149. Which is an organic compound found in most cells ?
(1) Glucose (2) Water (3) Sodium chloride (4) Oxygen
Ans. [1]
150. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to :
(1) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals
(2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals
(3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(4) Classification of a species based on fossil record
Ans. [1]
151. Reproductive isolation between segments of a single population is termed :
(1) sympatry (2) allopatry
(3) population divergence (4) disruptive divergence
Ans. [1]
152. Steroid hormones easily pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion because they :
(1) are water soluble (2) contain carbon and hydrogen
(3) enter through pores (4) are lipid soluble
Ans. [4]
153. Industrial melanism is an example of
(1) defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiations
(2) drug resistance
(3) protective resemblance with the surrounding
(4) darkening of skin due to industries
Ans. [3]

- 23 -
154. The larva of Bombyx mori is known as

(1) nymph (2) trochophore (3) cocoon (4) caterpillar
Ans. [4]
155. Ampullae of Lorenzini are present in
(1) fish (2) lizard (3) frog (4) rabbit
Ans. [1]
156. Which of the following is a viviparous fish ?
(1) Exocoetus (2) Gambusia (3) Clarias (4) Labeo
Ans. [2]
157. Fluidity of bio-membranes can be shown by :
(1) electron microscope (2) tissue culture
(3) phase-contrast microscope (4) fluorescence microscope
Ans. [4]
158. The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of

(1) a network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
(2) a network of arteries to provide dermal supply
(3) specialised cells for cutaneous sensations
(4) gland cells that release cutaneous secretions
Ans. [1]
159. The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to
(1) initiate the heat beat (2) reduce the heart beat
(3) accelerate the heart beat (4) maintain constant heart beat
Ans. [2]
160. The size of pupil is controlled by the :
(1) ciliary muscles (2) suspensory ligaments
(3) cornea (4) iris muscles
Ans. [4]
161. Largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body is
(1) lung (2) spleen (3) liver (4) kidney
Ans. [2]
162. HIV is classified as a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in
(1) DNA instead of RNA (2) DNA
(3) RNA instead of DNA (4) protein coat
Ans. [3]
163. Lung tuberculosis is caused by
(1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae (4) Escherichia coli
Ans. [2]

- 24 -
164. Vomiting centre is located in the

(1) stomach and sometimes in duodenum (2) gastro-intestinal tract
(3) hypothalamus (4) pons varolli
Ans. [4]
165. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of
(1) pyridoxine (2) niacin (3) folic acid (4) biotin
Ans. [2]
166. Sickle cell anemia is
(1) autosomal dominant inheritance (2) X-linked recessive inheritance
(3) autosomal recessive inheritance (4) X-linked dominant inheritance
Ans. [3]
167. Skeletal muscles are controlled by
(1) sympathetic nerves (2) parasympathetic nerves
(3) somatic nerves (4) autonomic nerves
Ans. [3]
168. Niche is defined as the
(1) position of species in a community in relation to other species
(2) place where organism lives
(3) place where organism lives and performs its duty
(4) place where population perform their duties
Ans. [3]
169. Erythropoiesis starts in
(1) kidney (2) liver (3) spleen (4) red bone marrow
Ans. [2]
170. In an aquatic ecosystem, the trophic level equivalent to cows in grasslands is
(1) phytoplankton (2) zooplankton (3) nekton (4) benthos
Ans. [2]
171. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to
(1) anaerobic production of ATP (2) the citric acid cycle production of ATP
(3) production of ATP by chemiosmosis (4) alcoholic fermentation
Ans. [3]
172. Centrum of 8th vertebra of frog is
(1) procoelous (2) acoelous (3) amphicoelous (4) amphiplatyan
Ans. [3]
173. Down’s syndrome is due to
(1) linkage (2) sex-linked inheritance
(3) crossing over (4) non-disjunction of chromosome
Ans. [4]

- 25 -
174. Which one of the following mammals is NOT an odd-toed ungulate ?

(1) Rhinoceros (2) Camel (3) Zebra (4) Horse
Ans. [2]
175. All flat worms differ from all round worms in having :
(1) triploblastic body (2) solid mesoderm
(3) bilateral symmetry (4) metamorphosis in the life history
Ans. [2]
176. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra are the examples of
(1) biomes (2) biogeographical regions
(3) ecosystems (4) biospheres
Ans. [1]
177. Standing on tip toe is an example of
(1) elevation (2) flexion (3) extension (4) retraction
Ans. [1]
178. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacterium present in the soil ?
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Rhizobium (3) Azotobacter (4) Psuedomonas
Ans. [3]
179. Aedes aegypti is a vector for
(1) both dengue and yellow fever (2) dengue fever
(3) yellow fever (4) Japanese encephalitis
Ans. [1]
180. Inadequate protein intake leads to Kwashiorkor. The subsequent edema is most closely related to
inadequate synthesis of which protein ?
(1) Gamma globulin (2) Glucagon (3) Insulin (4) Albumin
Ans. [4]
181. The “lock and key” model of enzyme action illustrates that a particular enzyme molecule :
(1) may be destroyed and resynthesised several times
(2) interacts with a specific type of substrate molecule
(3) reacts at identical rates under all conditions
(4) forms a permanent enzyme-substrate complex
Ans. [2]
182. If the pituitary gland of an adult rat is surgically removed, which of the following endocrine glands will
be less affected ?
(1) Adrenal cortex (2) Adrenal medulla (3) Thyroid (4) Gonads
Ans. [2]
183. If one litre of water is introduced in human blood, then :
(1) BMR increases
(2) RBC collapses and urine production increases
(3) RBC collapses and urine production decreases
(4) BMR decreases
Ans. [2]

- 26 -
184. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme.
Their experiments demonstrated that :
(1) cells need specific enzymes in order to function
(2) genes are made of DNA
(3) Enzymes are required to repair damage
(4) genes carry information for making proteins
Ans. [4]
185. mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of :
(1) exons (2) introns (3) codons (4) anticodons
Ans. [3]
186. Carbon dioxide is called green-house gas because it is
(1) used in green-house to increase plant growth
(2) transparent to heat but traps sunlight
(3) transparent to sunlight but traps heat
(4) transparent to both sunlight and heat
Ans. [3]
187. The hormone that increases the blood calcium level and decreases its excretion by kidney is
(1) parathormone (2) calcitonin (3) thyroxine (4) insulin
Sol: Ans [1]
188. Signaling between cells usually results in the activation of protein :
(1) lipases (2) kinases (3) proteases (4) nucleases
Ans. [2]
189. Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones, and are most likely bind to :
(1) membrane ion channels (2) enzyme-linked membrane receptors
(3) G-protein linked membrane receptors (4) cytoplasmic receptors
Ans. [4]
190. Which of the following is unique to mitosis and not a part of meiosis ?
(1) Homologous chromosomes behave independently
(2) Chromatids are separated during anaphase
(3) Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents
(4) Homologous chromosomes crossover
Ans. [1]
191. Heating milk at 65ºC followed by sudden cooling is known as :
(1) sterilization (2) preservation (3) pasteurisation (4) fermentation
Ans. [3]
192. Osteomalacia is due to deficiency of
(1) vitamin A (2) vitamin C (3) vitamin E (4) vitamin D
Ans. [4]
193. Which of the following hormones regulates growth and metamorphosis in insect ?
(1) juvenile hormone (2) brain hormone
(3) ecdyson (4) prothoracicotropic hormone
Ans. [3]

- 27 -
194. Glycosuria is the condition, where a man :

(1) eats more sugar (2) excretes sugar in urine
(3) sugar is excreted in feces (4) has low sugar level in blood
Ans. [2]
195. Diploid cells have :
(1) two chromosomes (2) one set of chromosomes
(3) two pairs of homologous chromosomes (4) two sets of chromosomes
Ans. [4]
196. The anti-parallel nature of DNA refers to
(1) its charged phosphate groups
(2) the formation of hydrogen bonds between bases from opposite strands
(3) the opposite direction of the two strands
(4) the pairing of bases on one strand with bases on the other strand
Ans. [3]
197. Mass extinction at the end of Mesozoic era was probably due to
(1) continental drift (2) the collision of earth with large meteorites
(3) massive glaciations (4) change in earth’s orbit
Ans. [2]
198. In hurdle race, what is the major energy source of the leg muscle ?
(1) Performed ATP (2) Glycolysis
(3) Pyruvate and lactate (4) Oxidative metabolism
Ans. [1]
199. Tachyglossus is a connecting link between :
(1) Reptiles and Birds (2) Amphibians and Reptiles
(3) Birds and Mammals (4) Reptiles and Mammals
Ans. [4]
200. The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by :
(1) temperature (2) concentration of the substrate
(3) original activation energy of the system (4) concentration of the enzyme
Ans. [4]


- 28 -

DPMT 2009

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DPMT 2009

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

DPMT 2009

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DPMT - 2009

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

 v = 2  9.98  1200  550 km/sec

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [1]

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

(3) PQ5 (4) PQ6

Magnetic moments should be parallel and magnetic moment should be larger.

Sol: Ans [1]

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [3]

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Total distance 8.4  2

GMm GMm GMm

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [2]

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

53. In the reaction below, X is

54. Which of the following compounds will show geometric isomerism?

55. Which of the following reactions involves carbon-carbon bond formation?

56. Aldol condensation does not occur between:

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

57. Which of the following statements is not true?

58. In which of the following reactions, the product obtained is chiral?

(1) CH 3 COCH 3 NaBH

60. Which of the following statements is not correct?

61. m-Bromoaniline can be prepared by

H 2SO 4 2. NaOH, H 2 O H2O

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [3]

62. In the reaction below, X is

Neopentyl alcohol H2SO4  X

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [2]

0.693 2.303 100

(1) NO3 (2) Cl– (3) SO 24 (4) CH3COO–

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [4]

74. Adsorption is an exothermic process. The amount of substance adsorbed should:

75. Fog is a colloidal solution of

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

85. The role of phosphate in detergent powder is to

87. In the change of NO+ to NO, the electron is added to the

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

93. Which of the following has the highest value of radioactivity?

96. In which of the following reactions, there is no change in valency?

97. If helium is allowed to expand in vacuum, it liberates heat because:

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

Sol: Ans [3]

99. Arrange the following free radicals in order of decreasing stability

101. An example for symbiotic bacteria:

103. Somaclonal variation appears in plants :

Amity Institute for Competitive Examinations : Phones: 24336143/44, 25573111/2/3/4, 95120-2431839/42

104. In a monoecious plant :

105. Which one of the following are intracellular obligate parasites?

106. Pineapple fruit develops from :

109. Which of the following is true?