Neet Like Mock Test-6.

NE E T L I K E M OC K T E S T T 6
PART- I: PHYSICS
Section-A
1. Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal surface densities 26.4 × 10−12 C/m2 of opposite signs.
The electric field between these sheets is- [New NCERT/XII/35]
−16 −10
(1) 1.5N/C (2) 1.5 × 10 N/C (3) 3 × 10 N/C (4) 3N/C
2. Two satellites, A and 𝐵, have masses 𝑚 and 2𝑚 respectively. 𝐴 is in a circular orbit of radius 𝑅, and 𝐵 is in
JI
a circular orbit of radius 2𝑅 around the earth.
The ratio of their kinetic energies, 𝑇𝐴 /𝑇𝐵 , is : [New NCERT/XI/138]
1 1
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) √2
3. When a current 𝐼 is set up in a wire of radius 𝑟, the drift velocity is vd . If the same current is set up
through a wire of radius 2r, the drift velocity will be [New NCERT/XII/86]
(1) 4𝑣𝑑 (2) 2𝑣𝑑 (3) 𝑣𝑑 /2 (4) 𝑣𝑑 /4
LA
4. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance 𝐶 is connected to a cell of emfV and then disconnected from
it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant 𝐾, which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted
in it. Which of the following is incorrect? [New NCERT/XII/74]
(1) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.
1 1
(2) The chance in energy stored is CV 2 ( − 1).
2 K
(3) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
(4) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.
5. If 𝐸1 , 𝐸2 , 𝐸3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha-particle and a proton, each having
the same de-Broglie wavelength, then [New NCERT/XII/285]
(1) E1 > E3 > E2 (3) E1 > E2 > E3
A
(2) E2 > E3 > E1 (4) E1 = E2 = E3
6. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60∘ with the horizontal direction with a
velocity of 147ms−1.
Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45∘ , is [New NCERT/XI/39]
(1) 15s (2) 10.98s (3) 5.49s (4) 2.745s
7. Law of conservation of momentum follows from [New NCERT/XI/57]
B
(1) Newton's first law of motion (3) Newton's third law of motion
(2) Newton's second law of motion (4) Both (2) & (3)
8. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20cm is equal to the second overtone of an
organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both the ends is [New NCERT/XI/292]
(1) 100cm (2) 120cm (3) 140cm (4) 80cm
9. Four particles A, B, C and D with masses 𝑚A = m, 𝑚B = 2m, 𝑚C = 3m and 𝑚D = 4m are at the corners
of a square. They have accelerations of equal magnitude with directions as shown. The acceleration of the
centre of mass of the particles is : [New NCERT/XI/99]
𝑎 𝑎
(1) 5 (𝑖ˆ − 𝑗ˆ) (2) 𝑎 (3) Zero (4) 5 (𝑖ˆ + 𝑗ˆ)
CLASSES BY ANKUR SIR 7983744732

10. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by M a Lb T c ,
then the physical quantity will be [New NCERT/XI/8]
(1) velocity if 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 0, 𝑐 = −1 (3) force if 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = −1, 𝑐 = −2
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(2) acceleration if 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 1, 𝑐 = −2 (4) pressure if 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = −1, 𝑐 = −2
11. Stopping distance of a moving vehicle is directly proportional to [New NCERT/XI/19]
(1) square of the initial velocity (3) the initial velocity
(2) square of the initial acceleration (4) the initial acceleration
12. A particle moves in the 𝑋 − 𝑌 plane with a constant acceleration 1.5m/s2 in the direction making an
angle of 37∘ with the X-axis. At 𝑡 = 0 the particle is at the origin and its velocity is 8.0m/s along the X-
axis. Find the position of the particle at 𝑡 = 4.0s. [New NCERT/XI/36]
(1) (41.6m, 7.2m)
LA (2) (50.3m, 8.2m) (3) (60.2m, 8.2m) (4) (11.2m, 8m)
13. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer increases by 20%. If its resistance also increases by 25%, the
voltage sensitivity will [New NCERT/XII/131]
(1) decrease by 1% (3) increased by 10%
(2) increased by 5% (4) decrease by 4%
14. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 𝑀, is placed in magnetic field of induction 𝐵. The torque exerted on it
is [New NCERT/XII/139]
⃗⃗⃗
(1) MB ⃗ ⃗
⃗⃗
(2) −M ⋅ B ⃗ ⃗
⃗⃗
(3) M × B⃗ ⃗
(4) −B × M ⃗⃗⃗
15. A circular loop of radius 0.3cm lies parallel to much bigger circular of radius 20cm. The centre of the small
loop is on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance between their centres is 15cm. If a current of 2.0 A
A
flows through the smaller loop, then the flux linked with the bigger loop is [New NCERT/XII/165]
−11 −9
(1) 3.3 × 10 weber (3) 6.6 × 10 weber
(2) 6 × 10−11 weber (4) 9.1 × 10−11 weber
16. Shown in the figure below is a meter-bridge set up with null deflection in the galvanometer.
The value of the unknown resistor 𝑅 is [XII/Practical Skills]
(1) 13.75Ω (2) 220Ω (3) 110Ω (4) 55Ω
B

17. A resistance of 20ohm is connected to a source of an alternating potential V = 200cos⁡(100𝜋t). The time
taken by the current to change from its peak value to rms value is [New NCERT/XII/178]
−3
(1) 2.5 × 10 s (3) 0.25s
(2) 25 × 10−3 s (4) 0.20s
18. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius 10m with a constant speed of 10m/s. A bob is
suspended from the roof of the car by a light wire of length 1.0m. The angle made by the wire with the
vertical is [New NCERT/XI/65]
∘ 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
(1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 4
19. Match Column I with Column II. [New NCERT/XI/106, 108, 116]
Column I Column II
(A) Torque (1) Torque
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(B) Rate of change of angular momentum ⃗ ×r
(2) F
(C) Hollow cylinder about geometrical axis (3) Iz + Ma2
(D) Theorem of parallel axes (4) MR2
(1) (A) → (1); (B) → (3); C → (4)⁡; (D) → (2)
(2) (A) → (3); (B) → (2); C → (4) ; (D) → (1)
(3) (A) → (2); (B) → (1); C → (4); (D) → (3)
(4) (A) → (3);(B) → (1); C → (2); (D) → (4)
LA
20. A sinusoidal voltage 𝑉(𝑡) = 210sin⁡ 3000𝑡 volt is applied to a series LCR circuit in which 𝐿 = 10mH, 𝐶 =
25𝜇F and 𝑅 = 100Ω. The phase difference (Φ) between the applied voltage and
resultant current will be : [NewNCERT/XII/188]
−1 −1
(1) tan ⁡(0.17) (3) tan ⁡(0.30)
−1
(2) tan ⁡(9.46) (4) tan−1 ⁡(13.33)
21. Photons of an electromagnetic radiation has an energy 11keV each. To which region of electromagnetic
spectrum does it belong? [New NCERT/XII/211]
(1) X-ray region (3) Infrared region
(2) Ultra violet region (4) Visible region
22. A convex lens has power P. It is cut into two halves along its principal axis. Further one piece (out of the
A
two halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal axis (as shown in figure). Choose the
incorrect option for the reported pieces. [New NCERT/XII/238]
B
𝑃 𝑃
(1) Power of 𝐿1 = (3) Power of 𝐿3 = 2
2
𝑃
(2) Power of 𝐿2 = 2 (4) Power of 𝐿1 = 𝑃
23. Assertion : When no external torque acts on a body, its angular velocity remains constant as long as
moment of inertia is constant.
dL
Reason : Torque 𝜏 = 0; dt = 0, L = constant. L = I𝜔 = constant [New NCERT/XI/108]

In the light of the above statements-Assertion & Reason, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
24. Force of gravitational attraction is least [New NCERT/XI/130]
(1) at the equator (3) at a point in between equator and any pole
(2) at the poles (4) None of these
25. According to Hooke's law of elasticity, if stress is increased,
then the ratio of stress to strain [New NCERT/XI/169]
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(1) becomes zero (3) decreases
(2) remains constant (4) increases
26. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with [New NCERT/XI/186]
(1) high density and low viscosity (3) high density and high viscosity
(2) low density and high viscosity (4) low density and low viscosity
27. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10V. The
potential at a distance of 2cm from the centre of the sphere is [New NCERT/XII/56]
(1) zero (2) 10V (3) 4V (4) 10/3V
LA
28. Water rises in a capillary tube to a certain height such that the upward force due to surface tension is
balanced by 7.5 × 10−4 N force due to the weight of the liquid. If the surface tension of water is
6 × 10−2 Nm−1 , the inner circumference of the capillary tube must be [New NCERT/XI/197]
−2 −2
(1) 1.25 × 10 m (3) 6.5 × 10 m
−2
(2) 0.50 × 10 m (4) 12.5 × 10−2 m
29. 110 joules of heat is added to a gaseous system, whose internal energy is 40J; then the amount of
external work done is [New NCERT/XI/230]
(1) 150J (2) 70J (3) 110J (4) 40J
30. When an unpolarized light of intensity 𝐼0 is incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light which
does not get transmitted is [New NCERT/XII/270]
A
1 1
(1) 4 I0 (2) 2 I0 (3) I0 (4) zero
31. Light of wavelength 𝜆A and 𝜆B falls on two identical metal plates 𝐴 and 𝐵 respectively. The maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectrons is K A and K B respectively, then which one of the following relations is
true (𝜆𝐴 = 2𝜆𝐵 ) [New NCERT/XII/281]
KB (3) K A = 2K B
(1) K A <
B
2
(2) 2K = K (4) K A > 2K B
A B
32. Systematic errors can be [Old NCERT/XI/23]
(1) positive only (3) either positive or negative
(2) negative only (4) None of these
33. Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum? [Old NCERT/XII/421]
(1) Paschen series (3) Lyman series
(2) Balmer series (4) Brackett series

34. The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of 94 Be. The number of
nucleons in Ge are [New NCERT/XII/309]
(1) 74 (2) 75 (3) 72 (4) 73
35. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased? [New NCERT/XII/336]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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Section-B
36. Two kg of water is converted into steam by boiling at atmospheric pressure. The volume changes from
2 × 10−3 m3 to 3.34m3 . The work done by the system is about [New NCERT/XI/235]
LA
(1) −340kJ (2) −170kJ (3) 170kJ (4) 340kJ
37. What will be the effect on the root mean square velocity of oxygen molecules if the temperature is
doubled and oxygen molecule dissociates into atomic oxygen? [New NCERT/XI/250]
(1) The velocity of atomic oxygen remains same
(2) The velocity of atomic oxygen doubles
(3) The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes half
(4) The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes four times
38. Two point charges 𝑄 each are placed at a distance 𝑑 apart. A third point charge 𝑞 is placed at a distance x
from midpoint on the perpendicular bisector. The value of 𝑥 at which charge 𝑞 will experience the
maximum Coulomb's force is : [New NCERT/XII/7]
A
𝑑 𝑑 𝑑
(1) 𝑥 = 𝑑 (2) 𝑥 = 2 (3) 𝑥 = (4) 𝑥 = 2√2
√2
39. In a wheatstone bridge in the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then the deflection in
galvanometer will [New NCERT/XII/101]
(1) change in previous direction (3) change in opposite direction
(2) not change (4) none of these
B
40. Ampere's circuital law states that [New NCERT/XII/118]

(1) the surface integral of magnetic field over the open surface is equal to 𝜇0 times the total current
passing through the surface.
(2) the surface integral of magnetic field over the open surface is equal to 𝜇0 times the total current
passing near the surface.
(3) the line integral of magnetic field along the boundary of the open surface is equal to 𝜇0 times the total
current passing near the surface.
(4) the line integral of magnetic field along the boundary of the open surface is equal to 𝜇0 times the total
current passing through the surface.

41. A prism has a refracting angle of 60∘ . When placed in the position of minimum deviation, it produces a
deviation of 30∘ . The angle of incidence is [New NCERT/XII/240]
∘ ∘ ∘ ∘
(1) 30 (2) 45 (3) 15 (4) 60
42. Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium
vibrate with the same [New NCERT/XII/257]
(1) phase (3) frequency
(2) amplitude (4) period
43. The combination of gates shown below yields [Old NCERT/XII/493]
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(1) OR gate (3) XOR gate
(2) NOT gate (4) NAND gate
44. For a gas, difference between two specific heats is 5000J/ mole ∘ C. If the ratio of specific heat is 1.6 ,
the two specific heats are in J/ mole − ∘ C [New NCERT/XI/253]
LA 4
(1) CP = 1.33 × 10 , CV = 2.66 × 10
(2) CP = 13.3 × 104 , CV = 8.33 × 103
4
(3) CP = 1.33 × 10 , CV = 8.33 × 103
4
(4) CP = 2.6 × 104 , CV = 8.33 × 104

45. The ratio of maximum acceleration to maximum velocity in a simple harmonic motion is 10s −1 . At, t = 0
𝜋
the displacement is 5m. The initial phase is 4 . What is themaximumacceleration?[New NCERT/XI/266]
(1) 500m/s2 (3) 750m/s 2
(2) 500√2m/s 2 (4) 750√2m/s2
46. A sound wave of frequency 245Hz travels with the speed of 300ms −1 along the positive 𝑥-axis. Each
point of the wave moves to and fro through a total distance of 6cm. What will be the mathematical
expression of this travelling wave? [New NCERT/XI/284]
(0.5 3 )t]
(1) 𝑌(𝑥, 𝑡) = 0.06[sin⁡ 0.8x − × 10
A
(2) 𝑌(𝑥, 𝑡) = 0.03[sin⁡ 5.1𝑥 − (1.5 × 103 )𝑡]
(3) 𝑌(𝑥, 𝑡) = 0.03[sin⁡ 5.1x − (0.2 × 103 )𝑡]
(4) Y(x, t) = 0.06[sin⁡ 5.1x − (1.5 × 103 )t]
47. At time 𝑡 = 0 s particle starts moving along the 𝑥-axis. If its kinetic energy increases uniformly with time
𝑡, the net force acting on it must be proportional to [New NCERT/XI/83]
1
B
(1) √𝑡 (2) constant (3) 𝑡 (4)

√𝑡
48. What is the function of a screw gauge in the experiment of determining
Young's modulus of a wire? [XI/Practical Skills]
(1) It measures the extension in the wire
(2) It measures the diameter of the wire
(3) It measures the load applied
(4) It measures the length of the wire
49. Which of the following is the 𝑃 − 𝑉 curve for isothermal and adiabatic process of an ideal gas?

[New NCERT/XI/235]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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LA
50. Given below are two statements: In the light of the given statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given.
Statement I: Induced charge that flows in the circuit does not depends on the time rate change of flux.
𝑑𝑞 1 𝑑𝜙 𝑑𝜙
Statement II : 𝑖 = 𝑑𝑡 = − 𝑅 ( 𝑑𝑡 ) ⇒ 𝑑𝑞 = − 𝑅 [New NCERT/XII/158]
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
A
PART- II: CHEMISTRY
Section-A
51. The solubility of a solid in a liquid is significantly affected by temperature changes. [New NCERT/XII/49]
Solute + Solvent ⇌ Solution.
The system being in a dynamic equilibrium must follow Le-chatelier's principle. Considering the Le-
B
chatelier's principle which of the following is correct?

(1) Δ𝐻sol > 0; solubility ↑; temperature ↓ (3) Δ𝐻sol > 0; solubility ↓; temperature ↑
(2) Δ𝐻sol < 0; solubility ↓; temperature ↑ (4) Δ𝐻sol < 0; solubility ↑; temperature ↑
52. Assertion : The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle. [New NCERT/XII/199]
Reason : In alcohols, the oxygen of-OH group is attached to 𝑝3 hybridized carbon atom.
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
53. What is the internal energy (kJ) change occurs when 36g of H2 O(l) at 100∘ C converted to H2 O(g) ?

Δ𝐻 ∘ ( vapourisation ) = 40.79kJ/mol [New NCERT/XI/143]
(1) 75.98 (2) 80.98 (3) 70.98 (4) 45.89
54. Match Column-I with Column-II [New NCERT/XI/55]
Column-I (Quantum number) Column-II (Information provided)
(A) Principal (p) orientation of the orbital quantum number
(B) Azimuthal (q) energy and size of orbital quantum number
(C) Magnetic (r) spin of electron quantum number
(D) Spin quantum (s) shape of the orbital number
(1) (A) - (q), (B) −(s), (C) − (p), (D) −(r) (3) (A) - (q), (B) - (p), (C) - (s), (D) - (r)
(2) (A) - (s), (B) - (q), (C) - (p), (D) - (r) (4) (A) - (q), (B) - (s), (C) - (r), (D) - (p)
55. In an octahedral structure, the type of hybridisation involved is [New NCERT/XI/124]
JI
2 3
(1) 𝑑 𝑠𝑝 (3) both (1) and (2)
(2) 𝑠𝑝3 𝑑2 (4) none of these
56. The type of isomerism present in Pentamminenitrochromium (III) chloride is [New NCERT/XII/127]
(1) optical (3) ionisation
(2) linkage (4) polymerisation.
57. What is the potential of half-cell consisting of zinc electrode in 0.01MZnSO4 solution at 25∘ C(𝐸𝑜𝑥 ∘
=
0.763V) [New NCERT/XII/38]
(1) 0.8221V (3) 0.5282V
(2) 8.221V
LA (4) 9.282V
58. Calculate the pH of a solution obtained by diluting 1mL of 0.10M weak monoacidic base to 100mL at
constant temperature if 𝐾𝑏 of the base is 1 × 10−5 ? [New NCERT/XI/197]
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11
59. The correct order of increasing oxidising power is [Old NCERT/XII/199]
(1) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 > I2 (3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(2) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 (4) I 2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2
60. Which of the following reagents/ reactions will convert 'A' to 'B'? [New NCERT/XII/231]
A
(1) PCC oxidation

(2) Ozonolysis
(3) BH3 , H2 O2 /−OH followed by PCC oxidation
B
(4) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K 2 Cr2 O7 .

61. The correct order of electronegativity is : [New NCERT/XI/91]
(1) Na < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐵 < 𝐿𝑖 (3) Li < 𝐵 < 𝑁𝑎 < B
(2) B < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐿𝑖 < 𝑁𝑎 (4) Na < 𝐿𝑖 < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐵
62. Assertion: Secondary amines have more boiling point than tertiary amines having same mol. wt
Reason: Molecules of secondary amines held with one another by H-bonding. [New NCERT/XII/265]

63. The strength of an aqueous solution of 𝐼2 can be determined by titrating the solution with standard
solution of: [Practical Chemistry]
(1) oxalic acid (3) sodium hydroxide
(2) sodium thiosulphate (4) Mohr's salt
64. In which of the following, entropy decreases? [New NCERT/XI/158-159]
(1) Crystallization of sucrose solution (3) Melting of ice
(2) Rusting of iron (4) Vaporization of camphor
65. For kinetic study of the reaction of iodide ion with H2 O2 at room temperature: [Practical Chemistry]
(A) Always use freshly prepared starch solution.
(B) Always keep the concentration of sodium thiosulphate solution less than that of KI solution.
JI
(C) Record the time immediately after the appearance of blue colour.
(D) Record the time immediately before the appearance of blue colour.
(E) Always keep the concentration of sodium thiosulphate solution more than that of KI solution.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (C) only (3) (D), (E) only
(2) (A), (D), (E) only (4) (A), (B), (E) only
66. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and [New NCERT/XII/274]
(1) benzene diazonium chloride (3) benzoic acid
(2) 𝑜-nitroaniline
LA (4) chlorobenzene
67.
The product A is [New NCERT/XI/321]

(1) Benzene (3) Toluene
A
(2) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid
68. Which of the following halides is the most stable? [Old NCERT/XI/324]
(1) CF4 (3) CBr4 (2) CI4 (4) CCl4
69. Statement I : Reactions with the molecularity three are very rare and slow to proceed.
Statement II : Complex reactions involving more than three molecules take place in more than one step.
(1) Both statement I and II are correct. [New NCERT/XII/70]
B

70. The mass of a molecule of water is [New NCERT/XI/18]
−25 −26
(1) 3 × 10 kg (3) 1.5 × 10 kg
−26
(2) 3 × 10 kg (4) 2.5 × 10−26 kg
71. C − Cl bond of chlorobenzene in comparison to C − Cl bond in methyl chloride is [New NCERT/XII/182]
(1) Longer and weaker (3) Shorter and stronger
(2) Shorter and weaker (4) Longer and stronger

72. Which of the following structure represents structure of O3 more accurately? [New NCERT/XI/109]
JI
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) I and II
10 2
73. (n − 1)𝑑 𝑛𝑠 is the general electronic configuration of [New NCERT/XII/91]
(1) Fe, Co, Ni (3) Zn, Cd, Hg
(2) Cu, Ag, Au (4) Se, Y, La
74. Which of the following compounds contains 1 , 2 , 3 as well as 4∘ carbon atoms? [New NCERT/XI/ 263]
∘ ∘ ∘
(1) Neopentane (3) 2,3-dimethyl butane

(2) 2-methyl pentane (4) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane
(1) 𝑝-Nitrophenol
LA
75. Which of the following has lowest boiling point?
(3) 𝑜-Nitrophenol
[New NCERT/XII/203]
(2) 𝑚-Nitrophenol (4) Phenol

76. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get [New NCERT/XII/242]
(1) methane (2) methyl alcohol (3) ethyl formate (4) acetylene
77. The de Broglie wavelength of a car of mass 1000kg and velocity 36km/hr is : [New NCERT/XI/50]
(1) 6.626 × 10−34 m (3) 6.626 × 10−31 m
(2) 6.626 × 10−38 m (4) 6.626 × 10−30 m
78. Assertion : D(+) - Glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.
Reason : ' 𝐷 ' represents its dextrorotatory nature. [New NCERT/XII/284]
A
79. The reaction quotient 𝑄 is used to [New NCERT/XI/182]
B
(1) predict the extent of a reaction on the basis of its magnitude

(2) predict the direction of the reaction
(3) calculate equilibrium concentrations
(4) calculate equilibrium constant
80. Match Column-I with Column-II. [New NCERT/XII/102]
Column-I (Ion) Column II
(A) Ti2+ (p) 2.84
2+
(B) Zn (q) 5.92
(C) Mn2+ (r) 0
3+ (s) 4.90
(D) Sc

(1) A − (s), B − (p), C − (q), D − (r) (3) A − (p), B − (r), C − (q), D − (s)
(2) A − (r), B − (p), C − (q), D − (s) (4) A − (p), B − (s), C − (q), D − (r)
81. Which reagent can convert acetic acid into ethanol? [New NCERT/XII/253]
(1) Na + alcohol (3) H2 + Pt
(2) LiAIH4 + ether (4) Sn + HCl
82. When two atomic orbitals combine, they form [New NCERT/XI/126]
(1) one molecular orbital (3) three molecular orbital
(2) two molecular orbital (4) four molecular orbital
83. Which of the given reactions is not an example of disproportionation reaction? [New NCERT/XI/244]
JI
(1) 2H2 O2 → 2H2 O + O2
(2) 2NO2 + H2 O → HNO3 + HNO2
(3) MnO− + −
4 + 4H + 3e → MnO2 + 2H2 O
(4) 3MnO4 2− + 4H + → 2MnO− 4 + MnO2 + 2H2 O
84. Which of the following statements is incorrect? [New NCERT/XII/129-130]
3− 3−
(1) [MnCl6 ] is more paramagnetic than [Mn(CN)6 ]
(2) Both [Co(C2 O4 )3 ]3− and [CoF6 ]3− are paramagnetie.
LA
(3) [Fe(CN)6 ]3− forms inner orbital complex whereas [FeF6 ]3− forms outer orbital complex.
(4) Both (1) and (2).
85. The number of atoms in 0.1mol of a triatomic gas is : (𝑁A = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1 ) [New NCERT/XI/18]
(1) 6.026 × 1022 (3) 3.600 × 1023
(2) 1.806 × 1023 (4) 1.800 × 1022
Section-B
86. A laboratory reagent imparts green colour to the flame. On heating with solid K 2 Cr2 O7 and conc. H2 SO4
it evolves a red gas. Identify the reagent [Practical Chemistry]
(1) CaCl2 (2) BaCl2 (3) CuCl2 (4) None of these
87. Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?
A
(1) FCH2 COOH > CH3 COOH > BrCH2 COOH > ClCH2 COOH [New NCERT/XII/251]
(2) BrCH2 COOH > ClCH2 COOH > FCH2 COOH > CH3 COOH
(3) FCH2 COOH > ClCH2 COOH > BrCH2 COOH > CH3 COOH
(4) CH3 COOH > BrCH2 COOH > ClCH2 COOH > FCH2 COOH
88. Assertion : Specific conductance decreases with dilution whereas equivalent conductance increases.
B
Reason : On dilution, number of ions per millilitre decreases but total number of ions increases
considerably. [New NCERT/XII/46]
89. Which of the following reactions will yield 2 , 2-dibromopropane? [New NCERT/XI/317]
(1) HC ≡ CH + 2HBr → (3) CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr →
(2) CH3 C ≡ CH + 2HBr → (4) CH3 CH = CHBr + HBr →
90. The chemical reaction 2O3 ⟶ 3O2 proceeds as follows: [New NCERT/XII/104]

Fast Slow
O3 → O2 + O; O + O3 → 2O2 the rate law expression should be
(1) 𝑟 = 𝑘[O3 ]2 (3) 𝑟 = 𝑘 3 [O3 ][O2 ]2
(2) 𝑟 = 𝑘[O3 ]2 [O2 ]−1 (4) 𝑟 = [O3 ][O2 ]2
91. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3 )5 Cl3 , gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in water. One
mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 solution to yield two moles of AgCl(s). The
formula of the complex is [New NCERT/XII/119]
(1) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] ⋅ 2NH3 (3) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl]Cl2 ⋅ NH3
(2) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl ⋅ NH3 (4) [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2
92. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/173]
(i) SN 1 reactions are carried out through formation of carbocation as an intermediate.
(ii) SN 1 reactions are two step reactions in which step 1 is fast and irreversible.
JI
(iii) Step 1 involves breaking of C − Br bond which obtain energy through solvation of halide.
(iv) SN 1 reactions are two step reactions in which step 2 is slow and reversible.
(v) SN 1 reactions are single step reactions.
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct (3) only (iii) and (iv) are correct
(2) (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct (4) (i), (ii) and (v) are correct
93. Which of the following is used as an adsorbent in adsorption chromatography ? [New NCERT/XI/282]
(1) Silica gel (3) Zeolite
(2) Alumina
LA (4) Both (1) and (2)
94. The resistance of 0.01N solution of an electrolyte was found to be 220ohm at 298K using a conductivity
cell with a cell constant of 0.88cm−1 .
The value of equivalent conductance of solution is - [New NCERT/XII/45]
(1) 400mhocm2 geq−1 (3) 419mhocm2 geq−1
(2) 295mhocm2 geq−1 (4) 425mhocm2 geq−1
95. Which of the following is/are correct regarding nitration of aniline with conc. HNO3 and conc. H2 SO4 ?
A
B
(iii) The substitution can be explained on the basis of inductive effect (−𝐼) [New NCERT/XII/273]
(iv) The substitution can be influenced by +M and +E effects.
(v) By protecting the −NH2 group, 𝑝-nitro derivative can be obtained as major product.
(1) (i), (ii) and (v) (3) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (v) (4) (i) and (v)
96. Statement I : Molarity of solution decreases, if temperature of the solution increases [New NCERT/XII/5]
Statement II : Molality of the solution increases if temperature of the solution increases
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.

97. In the following equilibrium reaction
2𝐴 ⇌ 𝐵 + 𝐶,
the equilibrium concentrations of 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are 1 × 10−3 M, 2 × 10−3 M and 3 × 10−3 M respectively at
300K. The value of K 𝑐 for this equilibrium at the same temperature is [New NCERT/XI/175]
1 1
(1) 6 (2) 6 (3) 36 (4) 36
98. Compound I is heated with Conc. HI to give a hydroxy compound A which is further heated with Zn dust
to give compound B. Identify A and B. [New NCERT/XII/213, 218]
JI
LA
99. For a first order reaction A → B, the rate constant, k = 5.5 × 10−14 s−1. The time required for 67%
completion of reaction is 𝑥 × 10−1 times the half life of reaction. The value of 𝑥 is__ [New NCERT/XII/77]
(Given : log⁡ 3 = 0.4771 )
(1) 16 (2) 47 (3) 67 (4) 55
100. Addition of hydrogen cyanide to aldehydes and ketones occurs in presence of a base. The role of
base is to
A
(i) catalyse the reaction [New NCERT/XII/237]
−
(ii) generate CN ion
(iii) slow down the reaction
(iv) to stabilize the cyanohydrins
(v) remove CN− ion
B
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (i) and (v) (4) (ii) and (v)
PART- III: BOTANY

Section-A
101. What is the main function of tRNA in relation to protein synthesis? [New NCERT/XII/98-99]
(1) Initiates transcription
(2) Inhibits protein synthesis.
(3) Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes.
(4) proof reading.

102. Reduction of NADP + into NADPH during light reaction occurs in stroma because: [New NCERT/XI/139]
(1) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of membrane.
(2) PS - I reduces NADP + to NADPH + H + in the stroma.
(3) The pH of the stroma remains constant.
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct.
103. Assertion (A): Selaginella and Salvinia are homosporous. Reason (R): In Selaginella and Salvinia, different
kind of spores are produced. [New NCERT/XI/32]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
JI
104. In a fertilized ovule, 𝑛, 2𝑛 and 3𝑛 conditions occur respectively in [New NCERT/XII/18]
(1) antipodal, egg and endosperm. (3) endosperm, nucellus and egg
(2) egg, nucellus and endosperm. (4) antipodals, synergids and integuments.
105. DNA fingerprinting using Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) is based
on the observation that [New NCERT/XII/106]
(1) every individual has unique alleles at each VNTR locus.
(2) the DNA of VNTR loci is more stable than that of loci which code for proteins.
(3) VNTR sequences show little variability.
106.
LA
(4) VNTR loci are highly polymorphic.
Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial
membrane is not correct? [New NCERT/XI/96-97]
(1) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
(2) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
(3) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
(4) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
107. Statement I: Frame-shift mutation arise due to change in single base pair of DNA.
Statement II: Point-mutation is due to insertion and deletion of base pair. [New NCERT/XII/72]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
A
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
108. In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of electron is: [New NCERT/XI/160]
(1) cytochrome b (3) oxygen
B
(2) ubiquinone (substance A) (4) cytochrome 𝑎3

109. Factors which mainly affect seed germination are all; except [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
(1) Temperature (3) Water
(2) Nitrogen content (4) Oxygen content
110. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of living organisms? [Old NCERT/XI/5]
(1) Growth (3) Reproduction
(2) Ability to make sound (4) Response to external stimuli
111. The Red data Book, which lists endangered species of animals,
is maintained by: [New NCERT/XII/217]
(1) WWF (2) UNO (3) WHO (4) IUCN

112. Assertion (A): During zygotene, chromosomes show bivalent stage.
Reason (R): Leptotene is followed by a second stage of Prophase I called Zygotene. [New NCERT/XI/126]
113. The vessel elements of angiosperms differ from other elements of xylem in having [Old NCERT/XI/87]
(1) simple pits on their radial walls.
(2) bordered pits on their lateral walls.
(3) simple and bordered pits on their end walls.
(4) simple perforation on their end walls.
JI
114. To make 100 molecules of glucose,
how many molecules of ATP & NADPH are required? [New NCERT/XI/145]
(1) 1800 and 1200 respectively. (3) 1800 and 600 respectively.
(2) 1200 and 1800 respectively. (4) 200 and 600 respectively.
115. In fruit fly the maleness is determined by [New NCERT/XII/70]
(1) Chromosomal ploidy
(2) Ratio of X chromosome to Y chromosome
(3) Presence of X chromosome
(4) None of these
LA
116. Statement I: In numerical taxonomy observable characters are not given equal importance.
Statement II: More than 20 characters can't be studied at a time in numerical taxonomy.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [New NCERT/XI/24]
117. Which of the following statements regarding cyanobacteria is incorrect? [New NCERT/XI/13]
(1) It is also called blue green algae.
(2) They are chemosynthetic autotrophs.
A
(3) It forms blooms in polluted water bodies.
(4) It is unicellular, colonial or filamentous, marine or terrestrial bacteria.
118. In an upright pyramid of biomass, the herbivores generally occupy which
of the following position? [New NCERT/XII/212]
(1) First position (3) Third position
B
(2) Second position (4) Fourth position

119. Visible expression of the genetic phenomenon of crossing over is called [New NCERT/XI/126]
(1) recombination (3) chiasmata
(2) condensation (4) spiralisation
120. Statement I: In mutualism both the population are benefitted.
Statement II : Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and
photosynthesising algae. [New NCERT/XII/201]

121. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the and the metaxylem lies
towards the of the organ. [Old NCERT/XI/87]
(1) centre; periphery (3) periphery; periphery
(2) periphery; centre (4) centre; centre
122. Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth pattern is [New NCERT/XII/195]
(1) Sigmoid (3) Straight line
(2) J-shaped (4) Hyperbola
123. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes,
which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into? [New NCERT/XI/123]
(1) Metaphase (3) Anaphase
JI
(2) Telophase (4) Prophase
124. Genetic code is [New NCERT/XII/96]
(1) triplet, universal, ambiguous and degenerate.
(2) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and non-degenerate.
(3) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and degenerate.
(4) triplet, universal, ambiguous and non-degenerate.
125. Which of the following statements are correct about the leaf? [New NCERT/XI/60]
(i) Leaf is a lateral, generally flattened structure borne on the stem.
LA
(ii) It develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil.
(iii) Leaves originate from root apical meristems and arranged in an acropetal order.
(iv) They are the most important vegetative organs for reproduction.
(v) A typical leaf consist of 4 main part.
(1) (i) and (ii) (3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (v) (4) All of these
126. Which of the following is a recessive autosomal disorder [New NCERT/XII/74]
(1) Sickle-cell anaemia (3) Thalassemia
(2) Haemophilia (4) Both (1) and (3)
127. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA? [New NCERT/XII/81]
A
(1) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends (3) Chargaff's rule
(2) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases (4) Complementary base pairing
128. In ' 𝑆 ' phase of the cell cycle [New NCERT/XI/121]
(1) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
(2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
B
(3) Chromosome number is increased.

(4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.
129. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched? [New NCERT/XI/176]
(1) IAA - Cell wall elongation (3) Gibberellic acid - Stem elongation
(2) Abscissic acid - Bolting (4) Cytokinin - Cell division
130. Which of the following is an example of false fruit? [New NCERT/XII/20]
(1) apple and pear (3) cashewnut
(2) strawberry (4) All of these
131. The character of flower which is represented by floral formula but not by
floral diagram is [New NCERT/XI/67]

(1) aestivation (3) position of gynoecium
(2) placentation (4) adhesion of stamen
132. DNA replication is [New NCERT/XII/90]
(1) conservative and discontinuous (3) semiconservative and discontinuous
(2) semiconservative and semi discontinuous (4) conservative
133. The enzyme that is not found in a C3 plant is: [New NCERT/XI/143]
(1) RuBP carboxylase (3) NADP reductase
(2) PEP carboxylase (4) ATP synthase
134. The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal
distribution of chromosomes is [New NCERT/XI/123]
(1) replication of the genetic material. (3) splitting of the centromeres.
JI
(2) splitting of the chromatids. (4) condensation of the chromatin.
135. The crossing of 𝐹1 to homozygous recessive parent is called [New NCERT/XII/58]
(1) back cross (3) 𝐹1 cross
(2) test cross (4) all of these
Section-B
136. Assertion (A): N is a heavy isotope of nitrogen and it can be separated from N14 only based on
15
densities.
LA
Reason (R): Taylor and colleagues performed experiment on E. coli to prove that DNA replication is semi-
conservative. [New NCERT/XII/89]
137. Which of the following statements are the correct? [New NCERT/XII/75]
(i) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in aneuploidy.
(ii) Chromosomal disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in a single gene.
A
(iii) Thalasemia and cystic fibrosis are Mendelian disorders.
(iv) Sickle cell anemia is an X-linked trait.
(v) The thalassemia causes the formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecules resulting into anaemia.
(1) (i), (iii) and (v) (3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
138. Match column-I and column-II and select the correct answer. [New NCERT/XI/96-97]
B
Column-I Column-II
A. Bacteria without walls I. Lysosome
B. Small circular DNA II. Mycoplasma cells
C. Flattened sacs in a III. Thylakoid chloroplast
D. A vesicle in which hydrolytic enzymes are stored IV. Plasmid
(1) A-III; B - IV; C - II; D - I (3) A − I; B - II; C-III; D - IV
(2) A − II; B - IV; C - III; D - I (4) A − IV; B − III; C − I; D − II
139. Read the following statements and answer the question. [New NCERT/XI/76] [Practical Skills]

(i) It has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis, a large number of scattered vascular bundles and a large
parenchymatous ground tissue.
(ii) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
(iii) Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than the centrally located ones.
(iv) Phloem parenchyma is absent, and water- containing cavities are present within the vascular bundles.
Which plant anatomy is being described by the above statements?
(1) Dicotyledonous root (3) Dicotyledonous stem
(2) Monocotyledonous root (4) Monocotyledonous stem
140. Match column-I with column-II, select correct option from the given codes. [New NCERT/XII/224-225]
Column-I Column-II
A. Rhinoceros I. High endemism
JI
B. In situ conservation II. Off site conservation
C. Ex situ conservation III. On site conservation
D. Hotspots IV. Kaziranga national park
(1) A-IV; B - III; C-II; D - I
(2) A − IV; B − I; C − II; D − III
(3) A − IV; B − II; C − III; D − I
(4) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D - II
141. Fruits are not formed in gymnosperms because of [New NCERT/XI/32]
LA
(1) absence of pollination.
(2) absence of seed.
(3) absence of fertilization.
(4) absence of ovary.
142. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect? [New NCERT/XII/18-19]
(i) Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of zygote.
(ii) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3N while gymnospermic one is N.
(iii) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and cellular endosperm.
(iv) Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid female gametophyte.
(v) Endosperm develop at the chalazal end
(1) (i) and (ii) (3) (iv) and (v)
(2) Only(iii) (4) Only(ii)
A
143. Match column-I with column-II and choose the option which shows their
correct combination. [New NCERT/XI/63]
Column-I Column-II
A. Gamosepalous I. Free petals
B. Polysepalous II. Free sepals
B
C. Gamopetalous III. Fused petals

D. Polypetalous IV. Fused sepals
(1) A-IV; B - II; C-III; D - I (3) A-IV; B - II; C-III; D - I
(2) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D - I (4) A-IV; B - II; C - I; D - III
144. Assertion (A): Centrosomes and centrioles are related to each other. [New NCERT/XI/99]
Reason (R): Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical structures called centrioles.

145. Which one of the following statement is incorrect in relation to photorespiration?
(1) It is a characteristic of C3 plants. [New NCERT/XI/147]
(2) The RuBP binds with O2 to form one molecule of phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate.
(3) There is synthesis of ATP or NADPH.
(4) It occurs in daytime only.
146. Match the description (given in column I) with correct stage of prophase I (given column II) and
choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/123-124, 126]
Column I Column II
A. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator I. Pachytene
B. Centromere splits and chromatids move apart II. Zygotene
C. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place III. Anaphase
JI
D. Crossing between homologous chromosomes IV. Metaphase
(1) A-I; B - II; C-III; D - IV
(2) A-II; B - III; C-IV; D-I
(3) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I
(4) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II
147. Which one of the following is essential for the respiration as
well as photosynthesis? [New NCERT/XI/160-161]
(1) Ubiquinone (3) Rubisco
(2) cytochrome
148.
LA (4) Plastocyanin
Match the steps of protein by synthesis given in columnI with their feature given in column-II and
select the correct combination from the given options. [New NCERT/XII/90-91, 94, 99]
Column-I Column-II
A. Termination I. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
B. Translation II. Discontinuous synthesis
C. Transcription III. Rho factor
D. DNA replication IV. RNA polymerase
(1) A-II; B - I; C-III; D - IV (3) A − IV; B − III; C − I; D - II
(2) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II (4) A-II; B - III; C-I; D - IV
A
149. Fermentation takes place [New NCERT/XI/157]
(1) under anaerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes.
(2) under aerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes.
(3) under anaerobic conditions in all prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes.
(4) under aerobic conditions in all prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes.
B
150. Development in plants is influenced by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors. Which of the following is
included under intrinsic factors? [New NCERT/XI/174]
(1) Growth regulatores (3) Water
(2) Oxygen (4) All of these
PART- IV: ZOOLOGY

Section-A
151. Hepatitis B and AIDS are [New NCERT/XII/47]
(1) caused by Retro-viruses. (2) transmitted through sexual contact.

(3) transmitted through infected blood. (4) both (2) and (3)
152. Chitinase is used to treat [New NCERT/XII/171]
(1) Bacterial cell (3) Fungal cell
(2) Plant cell (4) None of these
153. Match the features given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct
match from the option given below. [New NCERT/XI/38-39]
Column-I(Features) Column-II(Examples)
A. Pseudocoelomates I. Hydra, Adamsia
B. Diploblastic II. Ctenoplana, Aurelia
C. Cellular level of organization III. Ascaris, Wuchereria
D. Radial symmetry IV. Sycon, Spongilla
JI
(1) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III (3) A − II; B − I; C − III; D − II
(2) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II (4) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
154. Which of the following is responsible for chikungunya fever? [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XII]
(1) Aedes aegypti (2) Aedes albo-pictus (3) Plasmodium ovale (4) Both (1) and (2)
155. Statement I: The head of sperm contains materials which helps in sex-determinate in foetus.
Statement II: The function of mitochondria in sperm is to provide energy for the movement of sperm.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [New NCERT/XII/32]
LA
156. The volume of air breathed in and out during normal breathing is called [New NCERT/XI/186]
(1) vital capacity (3) expiratory reserve volume
(2) inspiratory reserve volume (4) tidal volume
157. Assertion (A): The resting membrane of the neuron exhibit polarity of charges.
Reason (R): The outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a negative charge while its inner surface
becomes positively charged. [New NCERT/XI/233]
A
(2) (A) is correct but ( R) is not correct
158. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/194]
Column-I Column-II
B
(Types of Leucocytes /WBCs) (Their % (of total WBC)

A. Neutrophils I. 2 − 3
B. Basophils II. 6 − 8
C. Monocytes III. 0.5 − 1
D. Eosinophils IV. 60 − 65
(1) A − IV ⋅ B − II; C − II; D − I (3) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I
(2) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV (4) A − II; B − IV; C − I; D − III
159. Which of the following features are correct for Homo erectus? [New NCERT/XII/124-125]
(i) Had a large brain.
(ii) Probably ate meat.

(iii) Appeared about 1.5 mya year ago.
(iv) Evolved from H. habilis.
(v) Brain size was 900cc.
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (iii), (iv) and (v) only (3) None of these (4) All of these
160. Which of the following is not a characteristic of phylum echinodermata? [New NCERT/XI/45]
(1) They have a water vascular system. (2) They have an internal skeleton.
(3) Fertilisation is usually internal. (4) They have bilateral symmetry at larval stage.
161. Match column I with column II, select correct answer from given codes. [New NCERT/XII/168-169]
Column I Column II
A. ⁡𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑅 gene I. Artificial plasmid
B. Separation of DNA fragments II. Selectable marker
JI
C. HindIII III. Electrophoresis
D. pBR322 IV. Haemophilus influenzae
(1) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
(2) A − IV; B − I; C − III; D − II
(3) A − II; B − III; C − IV; D − I
(4) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
162. Statement I: Bioreactor provides optimum temperator, pH, salt, vitamin and oxygen.
Statement II: Sparged stirred tank bioreactor is a stirred type reactor in which air bubbled.
LA
[New NCERT/XII/174]

163. Which statement regarding anal cerci and anal style in cockroach is correct? [Old NCERT/XI/112]
(1) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are present in male.
(2) Anal cerci are absent and anal styles are present in female
(3) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in male.
(4) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in female.
164. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option [New NCERT/XII/44, 47-48]
A
Column -I Column -II
A. IUT I. Copper T
B. Birth control II. Agent to kill spermatozoa
C. Spermicides III. VD or RTI
D. STD IV. Tohelp infertile couple
B
(1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D – II (2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D - I

(3) A − II; B − IV; C − I; D − III (4) A-IV; B - I; C-II; D - III
165. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/179-180, 184]
Column - I Column - II
A. Golden Rice I. Cry protein
B. Bt toxin II. Rich in vitamin A
C. RNAi III. First trangenic cow
D. Rosie IV. Gene silencing
(1) A-II; B - I; C-IV; D – III (2) A-II; B - I; C-III; D - IV
(3) A − II; B − III; C − I; D – IV (4) A-IV; B - I; C-II; D - III

166. Assertion (A): Coenzymes serve as co-factors in a number of different enzyme catalysed reactions.
Reason (R): Coenzymes and prosthetic groups are cofactors. [New NCERT/XI/117-118]
167. Match the disease given in column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/treatment)
given in column II. [New NCERT/XII/130-132-134]
Column-I(Diseases) Column-II(Pathogen/prevention/ treatment)
A. Amoebiasis I. Salmonella typhi
B. Diphtheria II. Use only sterilized food and water
JI
C. Dengue III. DPT vaccine
D. Typhoid IV. Use of mosquito nettings
(1) A-II; B - III; C-IV; D – I (2) A − I; B − II; C - III; D-IV
(3) A − II; B − IV; C − I; D − III (4) A-II; B - I; C-III; D - IV
168. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken? [Old NCERT/XI/103]
(1) No movements at joints. (3) Bones will become unfixed.
(2) Bones will become fixed. (4) Bone will move freely at joints.
169.
LA
Which of the following is based upon the principle of
antigen-antibody interaction? [New NCERT/XII/183]
(1) PCR (3) r-DNA technology
(2) ELISA (4) RNA
170. Diuresis is a condition characterised by [New NCERT/XI/212]
(1) increase in urine volume. (3) decrease in urine volume.
(2) increased glucose excretion. (4) decrease in electrolyte balance.
171. Present increase in India's population has not been due to
(1) decrease in infant mortality rate [New NCERT/XII/43]
(2) decrease number of people reaching reproductive age
A
(3) decline in death rate
(4) decline in maternal mortality rate
172. Assertion (A): Taenia solium & Fasciola belong to platyhelminthes.
Reason(R): Platyhelminthes is coelomate. [New NCERT/XI/42]
B

173. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II [New NCERT/XII/34]
A. Proliferative Phase I. Breakdown of endometrial lining
B. Secretory Phase II. Follicular Phase
C. Menstruation III. Luteal Phase
D. Menarche IV At puberty

A B C D
(1) III II I IV
(2) I III II IV
(3) III I II IV
(4) II III I IV
174. Statement I: Moths living in the industrial areas became dark to match body colour to the tree
trunks.
Statement II: Smoke from industries covers the moths, making them appear dark.[New NCERT/XII/116]
JI
175. What will happen when the cofactor is removed from the enzyme? [New NCERT/XI/118]
(1) Catalytic activity of the enzyme is lost.
(2) Enzyme preserves in a temporarily inactive state.
(3) The substurate molecules are not closely related to enzymes molecules.
176.
LA
(4) Both (2) and (3)
Statement I: In frogs vasa efferentia enter the kidneys and open into Bidder's canal.
Statement II: Fertilisation of frog is external and takes place in water. [New NCERT/XI/83-84]
177. The given diagram represents the bones of human arm. Identify the bones marked as I, II, III & IV.
[New NCERT/XI/226] [Practical Skills]
A
B
I II III IV
(1) Clavicle Ulna Radius Humerus
(2) Humerus Radius Ulna Scapula
(3)Scapula Radius Ulna Clavicle
(4) Humerus Ulna Radius Scapula

178. Statement I: Restriction endonuclease enzyme recognise a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence
in the DNA. [New NCERT/XII/165-166]
Statement II: Restriction endonuclease enzymes are called as molecular scissors or biological scissors.
179. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II [New NCERT/XI/208-210]
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
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A. Ultrafiltration I. Henle's loop
B. Concentration of urine II. Ureter
C. Transport of urine III. Urinary bladder
D. Storage of urine IV. Bowman's capsule
(1) A − I; B − IV; C − II; D − III (3) A − II; B − IV; C − I; D − III
(2) A − IV; B − I; C − II; D − III (4) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D − II
180. Plasmid used to construct the first recombinant DNA was isolated from
which bacterium species? [New NCERT/XII/164]
(1) Escherichia coli
LA
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Thermus aquaticus
181. The type of antibodies which appear in response to allergy [New NCERT/XII/137]
(1) Ig G (2) IgE (3) IgA (4) Ig⁡ D
182. Given below are four methods (A-D) of contraceptive in column-I and their modes of action in achieving
contraception in column-II. Match the columns and select the correct option: [New NCERT/XII/44-45]
Column –I Column-II
(Method) (Mode of Action)
A. The contraceptive pill I. Prevents sperms reaching cervix
B. Condom II. Increase phagocytosis of sperms within uterus
A
C. Vasectomy III. Prevents ovulation
D. IUDs IV. Semen contains no sperms
(1) A - II; B - III; C - I; D - IV (3) A − IV; B − I; C − II; D − III
(2) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II (4) A − III; B - IV; C - I; D - II
183. Find out the correct match. [New NCERT/XI/110]
B
(1) Inulin - Polymer of glucose

(2) Starch - Spiral secondary structure
(3) Cellulose - Cannot hold I2
(4) Glycogen - Monosaccharide and reserved food of plants
184. Assertion (A): Fibrins are produced by the conversion of inactive fibrinogens in the plasma, in the
presence of enzyme thrombin.
Reason (R): Plasma without fibrinogen and blood corpuscles is called serum. [New NCERT/XI/194, 196]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴)

185. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/241, 243-244]
Column-I Column-II
A. Anterior pituitary I. Epinephrine
B. Adrenal medulla II. Growth hormone
C. Parathyroid gland III. Thymosin
D. Thymus gland IV. Calcitonin
(1) A-III; B - I; C-IV; D - II (3) A-II; B - I; C-IV; D - III
(2) A-I; B - II; C-III; D - IV (4) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
Section-B
186. Identify the incorrect statements and select the option. [New NCERT/XII/46, 48]
JI
(i) Birth control pills are likely to cause cardiovascular problems.
(ii) A woman who substitutes or takes the place of the real mother to nurse the embryo is called
surrogate mother
(iii) Numerous children have been produced by in vitro fertilization but with some abnormalities.
(iv) Woman plays a key role in the continuity of the family and human species
(v) Foetal sex determination test should not be banned.
(1) (i) and (ii) (3) (iii) and (v)
187.
(2) (ii) and (iv)
LA
Which one is related to urine concentration in mammals?
(4) None of these
[New NCERT/XI/212]
(1) Testosterone hormone (2) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) Oxytocin hormone (4) All of these
188.Which one of the following statement is correct? [New NCERT/XII/141]
(i) Benign tumors show the property of metastasis
(ii) Heroin accelerates body functions
(iii) Malignant tumors occurs any exhibit metastasis
(iv) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
(v) Spleen is primary lymphoid organ.
A
(1) Only(i) and (ii) (3) Only(iii)
(2) Only (iii), (iv) and (v) (4) Only (i) and (iv)
189. Which of the following option shows the correctly matched bones (given in column I) with its pair
(given in column II)? [New NCERT/XI/226]
Column I Column II
A. Carpals I. Bones that form the fingers and toes
B
B. Tarsals II. Bones that form wrist

C. Phalanges III. Bones that form the palms of the hands
D. Metacarpals IV. Bones that form the ankles
(1) A-II; B - IV; C-I; D - III (3) A − III; B - II; C-IV; D - I
(2) A-I; B - II; C-III; D - IV (4) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
190. Which one of the following is a risk factor for smoking in adolescence? [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XII]
(1) Higher socioeconomic status
(2) Participation in extracurricular activities, including sports
(3) Emotional closeness to parents

(4) Physical or sexual abuse
191. Statement I: Amphibians often hibernate in winter and aestivate in summer. [New NCERT/XI/48]
Statement II: Amphibians are poikilothermic animals and cannot regulate body temperature.
192.Which of the following statements are correct? [New NCERT/XI/230-232]
(i) The functions of the organs/organ systems in our body must be coordinated to maintain homeostasis.
(ii) The vertebrates have a more developed neural system.
(iii) The cell body contains cytoplasm with typical cell organelles and certain granular bodies called Nissl's
JI
granules.
(iv) The axon is a long fibre, the distal end of which is branched.
(v) Each branch terminates as a bulb-like structure called synaptic knob which possess synaptic vesicles
containing chemicals called neurotransmitters.
(1) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) Only(v)
(2) Only (iii) and (iv) (4) All of them
193. Which of the following statement is correct? [New NCERT/XI/239, 247]
(i) The neural system provides a point-to-point rapid coordination among organs.
LA
(ii) Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence, called ductless glands.
(iii) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular messengers and are produced in trace
amounts.
(iv) The endocrine glands and hormone producing diffused tissues/cells located in different parts of our
body constitute the endocrine system.
(v) Some other organs, e.g., gastrointestinal tract, liver, kidney, heart also produce hormones.
(1) Only (i) and (ii) (3) Only (iv) and (v)
(2) Only (i) and (iii) (4) All of them
194. Following are given four statements (i)-(iv) related to frog. Read the statements carefully and select
the option that identifies two correct statements. [New NCERT/XI/83]
A
(i) The brain is divided into forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
(ii) Vasa efferentia enter the kidneys on their side and open into Bidder's canal.
(iii) Ear acts as a hearing organ only.
(iv) RBCs are enucleated and contain red coloured pigment namely haemoglobin.
(1) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (ii)
B
(2) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)

195. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/111-112]
Column-I Column-II
A. Cotton fibre I. Chitin
B. Exoskeleton of arthropods II. Nucleic acid
C. RNA III. Protein
D. Enzyme IV. Cellulose
(1) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II (3) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(2) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III (4) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
196. Which of the following statement is incorrect? [New NCERT/XII/170]

(1) T-DNA transform normal plant cell into a tumor.
(2) Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cell into cancerous cells.
(3) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is modified into cloning vector which is more pathogenic to
plants.
(4) Retrovirus have also been disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells.
197. Which of the following statement regarding female reproductive system is (are) correct?
(i) Myometrium undergoes strong contraction at the time of delivery of baby. [New NCERT/XII/28]
(ii) Ovary is secondary female sex organ which produces female gamete and steroid hormones.
(iii) Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones: inner cortex and outer medulla.
(iv) Infundibulum possess finger like projections which help in collection of ovum after the release of
secondary oocyte.
JI
(v) The uterus opens into vagina through a narrow cervix.
(1) (i), (iv) and (v) (3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i),(ii) and (iii) (4) All the five statements
198. Gel electrophoresis is a [New NCERT/XII/168]
(1) technique of separation of charged molecules under the influence of magnetic field.
(2) technique of incorporation of DNA molecules into the cell through transient pores made due to
electrical impulses.
(3) technique of separation of DNA fragments through the pores of agarose gel under the influence of
electrical field.
LA
(4) technique of transformation of DNA
199. Identify the correct statements. [New NCERT/XI/206-207]
(i) The outer layer of the kidney is called capsule.
(ii) Internally, kidney is divided into outer cortex and inner medulla.
(iii) Medulla is divided into medullary pyramids.
(iv) The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids which is called as columns of Bertini.
(1) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) (3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) Only (i) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
200. The two basic processes which contribute to a increase in
A
population density are [New NCERT/XII/193]
(1) mortality and immigration (3) natality and emigration
(2) natality and immigration (4) mortality and emigration
B

Key Answers
PHYSICS
1 (4) 6 (3) 11 (1) 16 (2) 21 (1) 26 (2) 31 (1) 36 (4) 41 (2) 46 (2)
2 (2) 7 (4) 12 (1) 17 (1) 22 (1) 27 (2) 32 (3) 37 (2) 42 (1) 47 (4)
3 (4) 8 (2) 13 (4) 18 (4) 23 (1) 28 (1) 33 (2) 38 (4) 43 (1) 48 (2)
4 (3) 9 (1) 14 (3) 19 (3) 24 (1) 29 (2) 34 (3) 39 (2) 44 (3) 49 (3)
5 (1) 10 (4) 15 (4) 20 (1) 25 (2) 30 (2) 35 (4) 40 (4) 45 (2) 50 (1)
CHEMISTRY
JI
51 (2) 56 (2) 61 (4) 66 (1) 71 (3) 76 (2) 81 (2) 86 (2) 91 (4) 96 (3)
52 (2) 57 (1) 62 (1) 67 (1) 72 (3) 77 (2) 82 (2) 87 (3) 92. (1) 97 (2)
53 (1) 58 (3) 63 (2) 68 (1) 73 (3) 78 (3) 83 (3) 88 (3) 93 (4) 98 (4)
54 (1) 59 (4) 64 (1) 69 (1) 74 (4) 79 (2) 84 (2) 89 (2) 94 (1) 99 (1)
55 (3) 60 (3) 65 (1) 70 (2) 75 (3) 80 (3) 85 (2) 90 (2) 95 (2) 100 (2)
LA BOTANY
101 (3) 106 (1) 111 (4) 116 (1) 121 (1) 126 (4) 131 (3) 136 (2) 141 (4) 145 (3)
102 (4) 107 (1) 112 (1) 117 (2) 122 (1) 127 (3) 132 (3) 137 (1) 142 (3) 147 (2)
103 (3) 108 (3) 113 (4) 118 (2) 123 (1) 128 (1) 133 (2) 138 (2) 143 (3) 148 (2)
104 (2) 109 (2) 114 (1) 119 (3) 124 (3) 129 (2) 134 (3) 139 (4) 144 (4) 149 (1)
105 (4) 110 (4) 115 (3) 120 (4) 125 (1) 130 (4) 135 (2) 140 (1) 145 (3) 150 (1)
ZOOLOGY
A
151 (4) 156 (4) 161 (3) 166 (1) 171 (2) 176 (4) 181 (2) 186 (3) 191 (4) 196 (3)
152 (3) 157 (2) 162 (4) 167 (1) 172 (2) 177 (2) 182 (2) 187 (2) 192 (4) 197 (1)
153 (2) 158 (3) 163 (4) 168 (3) 173 (4) 178 (4) 183 (3) 188 (3) 193 (4) 198 (3)
154 (4) 159 (4) 164 (4) 169 (2) 174 (4) 179 (2) 184 (1) 189 (1) 194 (3) 199 (4)
B
155 (3) 160 (3) 165 (1) 170 (1) 175 (1) 180 (2) 185 (3) 190 (4) 195 (2) 200 (2)

Hints and Solutions
C
1. (4) Surface Charge density, 𝜎 = 26.4 × 10−12 m2
𝜎 𝜎
E= +
2𝜀0 2𝜀0
2𝜎 𝜎
= +
2𝜀0 𝜀0
JI
LA =
26.4 × 10−12 N
8.85 × 10−12 C
=3
N
C
𝐺𝑀
2. (2) Orbital, velocity, 𝑣 = √ 𝑟
Kinetic energy of satellite A,
1
TA = m V2
2 A A
Kinetic energy of satellite B,
1
TB = mB VB2
2
A
𝐺𝑀
𝑇𝐴 𝑚× 𝑅
⇒ = =1
𝑇𝐵 2𝑚 × 𝐺𝑀
2𝑅
3. (4) I = 𝑛𝐴 ev 𝑣𝑑 or 𝑣𝑑 ∝ 1/𝜋𝑟 2
4. (3)
1
5. (1) According to relation, 𝐸 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2
B
2𝐸
√ =𝑣
𝑚
ℎ
𝜆=
√2𝑚𝐸
Because m1 < m3 < m2
So for same 𝜆, 𝐸1 > 𝐸3 > 𝐸2 .
6. (3)
7. (4)

8. (2)
9. (1) Acceleration of centre of mass (𝑎cm ) is given by
𝑚1 𝑎1 + 𝑚2 𝑎2 + ⋯ … . .
∴ 𝑎cm =
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + ⋯ … . .
(2𝑚)𝑎𝑗ˆ + 3𝑚 × 𝑎𝑖ˆ + 𝑚𝑎(−𝑖ˆ) + 4𝑚 × 𝑎(−𝑗ˆ)
=
2𝑚 + 3𝑚 + 4𝑚 + 𝑚
2𝑎𝑖ˆ − 2𝑎𝑗ˆ 𝑎
= = (𝑖ˆ − 𝑗ˆ)
10 5
MLT−2 −1 −2
10. (4) Pressure = L2 = [ML T ]
⇒ a = 1, b = −1, c = −2
11. (1) Let 𝑠 be the distance travelled by the vehicle before it stops.
JI
Final velocity v = 0, initial velocity u
Using equation of motion v 2 − u2 = 2aS
02 − u2 = 2aS
𝑢2
Stopping distance, 𝑆 = − 2𝑎
12. (1)
20
13. (4) Given, 𝐼𝑔′ = 𝐼𝑔 + 100 𝐼𝑔
=
120
100 g
I = 1.2Ig
25
LA
125
𝑅′ = 𝑅 + 𝑅= 𝑅 = 1.25𝑅
100 100
Vg′ = ?
′
Ig′ 1.2Ig 120 25
Vg = ′ = = Vg = V
R 1.25R 125 25 g
24
V′g −Vg ( Vg −Vg )
25
% change = × 100 = × 100
Vg Vg
(24 − 25) −1
= × 100 = × 100 = 4%
25 25
A
Decrease by 4%.
14. (3)
15. (4) Let flux linked with smaller loop is 𝜙1 and with bigger loop is 𝜙2 .
Given 𝑅2 = 0.2m
𝑅1 = 0.003m
B
x = 15cm = 0.15m

Now 𝜙1 = B2 A1
𝜇0 2𝜋R22 I2
= [ 2 ] 𝜋R21
4𝜋 (R 2 + x 2 )3/2
𝜙1 𝜇0 2𝜋𝑅22 𝜋𝑅12
𝑀= =
𝐼2 4𝜋 (𝑅22 + 𝑥 2 )3/2
Now 𝜙2 = MI1
𝜇0 2𝜋𝑅22 𝜋𝑅12
= ⋅𝐼
4𝜋 (𝑅22 + 𝑥 2 )3/2 1
= 9.1 × 10−11 Weber
16. (2) According to the condition of balancing
55 R
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= ⇒ R = 220
20 80
17. (1) The current and potential difference are in phase with the resistance. So, the time taken would be
same as time for voltage to change from (𝑡 = 0) that is peak value to rms value.
200
Time taken by voltage to achieve its rms, value of .
√2
200
= 200cos⁡(100𝜋𝑡)
√2
1 𝜋
LA ⇒cos⁡(100𝜋𝑡) =
√2
= cos⁡ ( )
4
1
𝑡= second = 2.5 × 10−3 sec.
400
18. (4) Given; speed = 10m/s; radius 𝑟 = 10m Angle made by the wire with the vertical
𝑣2 102 𝜋
tan⁡ 𝜃 = = = 1 ⇒ 𝜃 = 45∘ =
𝑟𝑔 10 × 10 4
19. (3) (A) → (2); (B) → (1); C → (4);(D) → (3)
Torque, 𝜏 = ⃗F × r
Rate of change of angular momentum → torque
A
dL
=𝜏
dt
Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder about axis = MR2
Theorem of parallel axis IZ 1 = IZ + Ma2
20. (1)
21. (1)
B
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108

𝐸= ⇒𝜆= = = 12.4Å
𝜆 𝐸 11 × 1000 × 1.6 × 10−19
22. (1) If a lens is cut into two half along principal axis, its focal length remain unchanged only the intensity of
image get reduced.
1
So, power of 𝐿1 will remain unaffected as 𝑃 = 𝑓.
dL
23. (1) Torque 𝜏 = ∴ 𝜏 = 0, L = constant.
dt
I𝜔 = constant
∴ 𝜔 is constants as long as I is constant.
24. (1) The gravitational force of attraction on a body of mass 𝑚 is given by

𝐺𝑀𝑚 1
𝐹= 2
Therefore, 𝐹 ∝ 2
𝑅 𝑅
The radius of earth is maximum at equator, therefore, gravitational force of attraction is least at equator.
25. (2) The ratio of stress to strain is always constant. If stress is increased, strain will also increase so that
their ratio remains constant.
26. (2)
(2) Potential at any point inside the sphere = potential at the surface of the sphere = 10V.
28. (1) Weight of the liquid column = 𝑇cos⁡ 𝜃 × 2𝜋𝑟.
For water 𝜃 = 0∘ . Here weight of liquid column W = 7.5 × 10−4 N and T = 6 × 10−2 N/m. Then
circumference, 2𝜋r = W/T = 1.25 × 10−2 m
29. (2) Δ𝑄 = Δ𝑈 + Δ𝑊
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⇒ Δ𝑊 = Δ𝑄 − Δ𝑈 = 110 − 40 = 70J
30. (2) 𝐼 = 𝐼0 cos 2 ⁡ 𝜃
I
Intensity of polarized light = 0
2
𝐼0 𝐼0
⇒ Intensity of untransmitted light = 𝐼0 − =
2 2
hc hc
31. (1) KE = − W0 ⇒ K A = 𝜆 − W0
𝜆 A
hc
KA = − W0 (𝑖)
LA KB =
2𝜆B
hc
− W0 (𝑖)
𝜆B
From eq. (i) and eq. (ii) we have,
KB
KA <
2
32. (3)
33. (2) Transition from higher states to = 2 lead to emission of radiation with wavelengths 656.3nm and
365.0nm. These wavelengths fall in the visible region and constitute the Balmer series.
34. (3) We use the formula,
A
𝑅 = 𝑅0 𝐴1/3
This represents relation between atomic mass and radius of the nucleus.
For berillium, 𝑅1 = 𝑅0 (9)1/3
For germanium, 𝑅2 = 𝑅0 𝐴1/3
𝑅1 (9)1/3 1 (9)1/3
= ⇒ =
𝑅2 (𝐴)1/3 2 (𝐴)1/3
B
1 9
⇒ 8 = 𝐴 ⇒ 𝐴 = 8 × 9 = 72.
35. (4) Positive terminal is at lower potential ( 0V) and negative terminal is at higher potential 5V.
36. (4) 𝑊 = 𝑃(Δ𝑉) = 1 × 105 × (3.34 − 2 × 10−3 ) = 340 × 103 J.
3𝑅𝑇 𝑇
37. (2) 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √ 𝑀 ; 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 ∝ √𝑀
0 0
as, 𝑇 becomes double and 𝑀0 becomes half

So, 𝑣𝑟𝑚𝑠 will become √4 times i.e. 2 times.
38. (4)

39. (2) The deflection in galvanometer will not be changed due to interchange of battery and the
galvanometer.
⃗⃗⃗ = 𝜇𝑜 𝐼
⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑙
40. (4) According to Ampere's circuital law ∫ 𝐵
A+𝛿 60+30
41. (2) i = 2 m = 2 = 45∘
42. (1) Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with the same phase.
43. (1) The final boolean expression is,
𝑋 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
(𝐴‾ ⋅ 𝐵‾ ) = 𝐴‾̅ + 𝐵̅‾ = 𝐴 + 𝐵 ⇒ OR gate
44. (3) Given
CP − CV = 5000J/mole∘ C
CP
= 1.6
CV
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From Equation (i) & (ii),
𝐶𝑃 𝐶𝑉 5000 5000
⇒ − = ⇒ 1.6 − 1 =
𝐶𝑉 𝐶𝑉 𝐶𝑉 𝐶𝑉
5000
⇒ 𝐶𝑉 = = 8.33 × 103
0.6
Hence 𝐶𝑃 = 1.6, 𝐶𝑉 = 1.6 × 8.33 × 103 = 1.33 × 104
45. (2) Maximum velocity in SHM, vmax = a𝜔
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Maximum acceleration in SHM, Amax = a𝜔2
where and 𝜔 are maximum amplitude and angular frequency.
𝐴
Given that, 𝑣max = 10 i.e., 𝜔 = 10s−1
max
Displacement is given by
𝑥= 𝑎sin⁡(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜋/4)
at 𝑡= 0, 𝑥 = 5
5= 𝑎sin⁡ 45∘ ⇒ 𝑎 = 5√2
Maximum acceleration Amax = a𝜔2 = 500√2m/s 2
46. (2) Travelling wave 𝑌(𝑥, 𝑡) = 𝐴sin⁡(𝐾𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡) Here,
A
0.06
𝐴= = 0.03, 𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 = 2𝜋 × 245 = 1.5 × 103
2
𝜔 1.5 × 103
𝐾= = ≃ 5.1
𝑣 300
∴ 𝑌(𝑥, 𝑡) = 0.03sin⁡[5.1𝑥 − (1.5 × 103 )𝑡]
𝑑𝑘
47. (4) Given, 𝑑𝑡 = constant
B
⇒ 𝑘 ∝ 𝑡 ⇒ 𝑣 ∝ √𝑡
𝑑𝑘
Also, 𝑃 = 𝐹𝑣 = 𝑑𝑡 = constant
1 1
⇒𝐹∝ ⇒𝐹∝
𝑣 √𝑡
48. (2) Screw gauge is used to measure the diameter (4) of the wire so that the area of cross-section is
calculated by the formula
𝜋d2
A=
4
49. (3)

dq 1 d𝜙 d𝜙 (𝜙 −𝜙 )
50. (1) dt = − R dt ⇒ dq = − R ⇒ dq = 1 R 2 which is independent of time.
51. (2) According to Le-chateliers principle, for an exothermic reaction (Δ𝐻 < 0) increase in temperature,
decreases the solubility.
52. (2) The bond angle OO in alcohols is slightly less
H than the tetrahedral angle (109∘ − 28′ ). It is due to the
repulsion between the unshared electron pairs of oxygen.
53. (1) H2 O (l) → H2 O (g); Δ𝐻vap = 40.79kJ/mol
Δ𝐻 = Δ𝑈 + Δ𝑛𝑔 𝑅𝑇
8.314 × 373
⇒ 40.79kJ/mol = Δ𝑈 + (1)(8.314JK −1 mol−1 )(373K) ⇒ Δ𝑈 o = (40.79kJ/mol − kJ/mol)
1000
kJ
= (40.79 − 3.10)kJ/mol = 37.69
mol
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Internal energy change for 36g of water
kJ 36g
= 37.69 ×
mol 18g/mol
Δ𝑈 = 75.98kJ
54. (1) (A) - (q), (B) - (s), (C) - (p), (D) −(r)
55. (3) Both 𝑠𝑝3 𝑑2 and 𝑑2 𝑠𝑝3 hybridisation belongs to octahedral shape of molecules/ions.
56. (2) The chemical formula of Pentamminenitrochromium
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(III) chloride is [Cr(NH3 )5 NO2 ]Cl2
It can exist in following two structures
[Cr(NH3 )5 NO2 ]Cl2 and [Cr(NH3 )5 ONO]Cl2
Therefore the type of isomerism found in this compound is linkage isomerism as nitro group is linked
through N as −NO2 or through O as - ONO.
57. (1) The Half cell reaction is Zn2+ + 2e− ⟶ Zn.
o
0.059 1 ∘ ∘ ]
𝐸cell = 𝐸cell − log⁡ 2+
[𝐸cell = −𝐸ox
2 [Zn ]
0.059 1
= −0.763 − log⁡ = −0.822V
2 0.01
A
𝐸𝑜𝑥𝑖 = 0.822V
58. (3) 𝑀1 𝑉1 = 𝑀2 𝑉2
1 × 0.10 = M2 × 100 ⇒ 𝑀2 = 0.001 = 10−3
B
𝐶𝛼 × 𝐶𝛼
𝐾𝑏 = ⇒ 𝐾𝑏 = 𝐶𝛼 2 ⇒ 𝛼 = √K b /𝐶
𝐶(1 − 𝛼)
(∵ 1 − 𝛼 ≈ 1)
𝐾𝑏
[OH − ] = 𝐶𝛼 = √ × 𝐶 = √𝐾𝑏 𝐶
𝐶

= √10−5 × 10−3 = 10−4
∴ pH + pOH = 14
⇒∴ pH = 14 − 4 = 10
59. (4) Oxidising power decreases down the group.
60. (3) BH3 , H2 O2 /OH followed by PCC oxidation.
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LA
Electronegativity 0.9 1.0 Be B
61. (4)
1.5 2.0
62. (1) B.P. ∝ number of H-Bonds
63. (2) I2 + 2Na2 S2 O3 → Na2 S4 O6 + 2NaI
64. (1) Crystallization of sucrose solution. Entropy is a measure of randomness during the crystallisation of
sucrose solution liquid state is changing into solid state hence entropy decreases.
65. (1) For kinetic study of reaction of iodide ion with H2 O.
• The starch solution should be used freshly prepared.
• The conc. of sodium thiosulphate solution should be less than KI solution.
A
• The time should be recorded after the appearance of blue colour.
66. (1) Azo dye is prepared by diazo coupling reaction of phenol with diazonium salt.
B
(−N = N−) group is called azo - group.

67. (1) This is an example of decarboxylation reaction.

68. (1) Since bond energy of C − F > 𝐶 − 𝐶𝑙 > 𝐶 − 𝐵𝑟 > 𝐶 − 𝐼 Hence CF4 is most stable.
69. (1) Effective collision is the deciding factor for complex reactions.
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70. (2) Mass of one molecule of water
18
= = 3 × 10−23 g = 3 × 10−26 kg
6.023 × 1023
71. (3) Due to resonance in chlorobenzene.
72. (3) I and II structure shown above constitute the cannonical structure. III structure represents the
structure of O3 more accurately. This is also called resonance hybrid.
73. (3) Due to completely filled 𝑑-orbitals, these metals are not considered as transition metals.
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74. (4) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane
75. (3) 𝑜-Nitrophenol has intramolecular H-bonding.
76. (2) Aldehydes containing no 𝛼-hydrogen atom on warming with 50%NaOH or KOH undergo
disproportionation i.e. self oxidation - reduction known as Cannizzaro's reaction.
50%NaOH
2HCHO → HCOONa + CH3 OH
ℎ
77. (2) 𝜆 = 𝑚v
36 × 103
v = 36km/hr = m/sec = 10m/sec
60 × 60
6.6 × 10−34
∴ 𝜆= = 6.6 × 10−38 m
103 × 10
A
78. (3) ' 𝐷 ' represents the relative configuration of a particular stereoisomer with respect to the other
compound whose configuration is known.
79. (2) The equilibrium constant helps in predicting the direction in which a given reaction will proceed at any
stage. For this purpose, we calculate the reaction quotient 𝑄. The reaction quotient 𝑄(𝑄𝑐 with molar
concentration and 𝑄𝑝 with partial pressures) is defined in the same way as the equilibrium constant 𝐾𝑐
B
except that the concentrations in 𝑄𝑐 are not necessary equilibrium values.

80. (3) A − (p), B − (r), C − (q), D − (s)
81. (2). LiAlH4 in presence of ether can be used to convert acetic acid into ethanol.
ether
CH3 COOH + 3LiAlH4 →
Acetic acid
[CH3 CH2 O]4 AlLi + 2LiAlO2 + 4H2

Ethanol
82. (2) One bonding M.O. and one anti-bonding M.O.
83. (3) In a disproportionation reaction, an element in one oxidation state is simultaneously oxidised and
reduced.
84. (2) [Co(C2 O4 )3 ]3− is dimagnetic as oxalate is a strong ligand causing pairing of 3𝑑 electrons in Co3+
thereby leading to 𝑑2 𝑠𝑝3 hybridisation.
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LA
85. (2) The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas = 0.1 × 3 × 6.023 × 1023 . = 1.806 × 1023
86. (2) The reagent is BaCl2 which imparts green colour to flame. BaCl2 forms chromyl chloride (which is red
in colour), when treated with K 2 Cr2 O7 and conc. H2 SO4 .
2BaCl2 + K 2 Cr2 O7 + 3H2 SO4 ⟶
87. (3) Electron withdrawing substituent (like halogen, −NO2 , C6 H5 etc.) would disperse the negative charge
A
and hence stabilise the carboxylate ion and thus increases acidity of the parent acid. On the other hand,
electron-releasing substituents would intensify the negative charge, destabilise the carboxylate ion and
thus decrease acidity of the parent acid. Electronegativity decreases in order
F > 𝐶𝑙 > 𝐵𝑟
and hence −I effect also decreases in the same order, therefore the correct option is
[ FCH COOH > ClCH COOH > BrCH COOH > CH COOH]
B
2 2 2 3
88. (3) On dilution, number of ions per millilitre decreases. Total number of ions increases only in case of
weak electrolytes.
89. (2)

90. (2)
Fast Slow
) O3 → O2 + O; O + O3 → 2O2
[O ][O]
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𝑘 = 2 (I) Rate = 𝑘 ′ [O3 ][O] put [O] from (I)
[O3 ]
𝑘 ′ [O3 ]𝐾[O3 ]
𝑟= = 𝑘[O3 ]2 [O2 ]−1
[O2 ]
Intermediates are never represented in rate law equation.
91. (4) Co(NH3 )5 Cl3 ⇌ [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]+2 + 2Cl−
∴ Structure is [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2.
Now [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 + 2AgNO3 ⟶
LA [Co(NH3 )5 Cl](NO3 )2 + 2AgCl
92. (1) In 𝑆N 1 reactions step 1 is slow and reversible, and the slowest step is the rate determining step.
93. (4) Both silica gel and alumina are used as adsorbents in adsorption chromatography.
1000 1 𝑙 1000
94. (1) Λ eq = 𝜅 × 𝑁 = 𝑅 × 𝑎 × 𝑁
1 1000 1 1000
= 𝑅 × cell constant × 𝑁 = 220 × 0.88 × 0.01
= 400mhocm2 geq−1
95. (2)
96. (3) Molarity include volume thus with increase in temperature volume increases, hence molarity
decreases while in case of molality mass of solvent is taken, which is not affected by temperature.
97. (2) Given reaction, 2A ⇌ B + C
A
[B][C]
𝐾𝑐 =
[A]2
−3 −3
2 × 10 × 3 × 10
𝐾𝑐 = =6
(10−3 )2
98. (4)
B
1 a0
99. (1) t = k ln⁡ (a )
0 −n

ln⁡(2)
𝑘=
𝑡1/2
1 1 𝑡1/2 1
𝑡67% = ln⁡ ( )= × ln⁡ ( 2)
𝑘 1 − 0.67 ln⁡ 2 1− 3
𝑡1/2 𝑡1/2 × 0.4771
𝑡67% = × log⁡ 3 =
log⁡ 2 0.301
⇒ 𝑡67% = 1.585 × 𝑡1/2
𝑥 × 10−1 = 1.585 ⇒ 𝑥 = 15.85 ≃ 16
100. (2) Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrogen cyanide (HCN) to yield cyanohydrins. This reaction
occurs very slowly with pure HCN. Therefore, it is catalysed by a base and the generated cyanide ion
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(CN− )being a stronger nucleophile readily adds to carbonyl compounds to yield corresponding
cyanohydrins.
101. (3) tRNA (or transfer RNA) is a single stranded RNA molecule which brings amino acid and reads the
genetic code in the process of transcription. It helps decode a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a
protein. It functions at specific sites in the ribosome during translation, which is a process that synthesizes
a protein from a mRNA molecule.
102. (4) Reduction of NADP+ into NADPH during light reaction occurs in stroma because NADP reductase
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enzyme is located on the stroma side of membranes and PS I reduces NADP + to NADPH + H + in the
stroma.
103. (3) All the spores are of similar kinds in majority of the pteridophytes; such plants are called
homosporous. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores i.e. macro (large) spores
and micro (small) spores, hence, are known as heterosporous.
104. (2) In a fertilized ovule 𝑛, 2𝑛 and 3𝑛 conditions occur respectively in egg, nucellus and endosperm.
105. (4) The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffrey's. He used a satellite
DNA as probe that shows high degree of polymorphisms. DNA fingerprinting using variable number
tandem repeats is based on the observation that VNTR loci are highly polymorphic.
106. (1) The enzymes of electron transport system are present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
A
107. (1) Point mutation arise due to change in a single base pair of DNA.
Frame shift mutations are caused due to deletions and insertions.
108. (3) In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of proton is oxygen. Oxygen functions as the
terminal acceptor of electrons and is reduced to water along with the hydrogen atoms in mitochondrial
matrix. It drives whole process by removing hydrogen from system.
109. (2)
B
110. (4) Besides growth and reproduction response to an external stimuli or to the environment in which
an organism dwells is the most important characteristic of any living organism.
Howevers, virus (which is not included under living organisms) also show growth and reproduction. Thus,
these options are not true.
111. (4)
112. (1)
113. (4) Vessel members are interconnected through perforations in their common walls.

114. (1) 18ATP and 12NADPH molecules will be required to make one molecule of glucose through the
Calvin Pathways. Therefore to make 100 molecules of glucose 1800 ATP and 1200 NADPH molecules are
required.
115. (3) In the males an 𝑋-chromosome is present but its counterpart is distinctly smaller and called the
Ychromosome. Females, however, have a pair of Xchromosomes. Both males and females bear the same
number of autosomes. Hence, the males have autosomes plus XY, while females have autosomes plus XX.
116. (1) In numerical taxonomy numbers and codes are assigned to each observable characteristics and
the data is then processed. In this way each character is given equal importance and at the same time
hundreds of characters can be considersed.
117. (2) Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic (containing a blue photosynthetic pigment) autotrophs. They
are prokaryotic and represent the earliest known form of life on the Earth.
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118. (2) The pyramid of biomass is upright, in which the number of organism decreases from first trophic
level, i.e., producers to second trophic level, i.e., herbivores to the last trophic level, i.e., carnivores.
119. (3) Chiasmata are the point at which paired homologous chromosomes remain in contact as they
begin to separate during the first prophase of meiosis, forming a X-shaped structure. A number of
chiasmata can usually be identified and at these points crossing over occurs.
120. (4) Mutualism is the way two organisms of different species exist in a relationship in which each
individual benefits from the activity of the other.
121. (1) The first formed primary xylem elements are called protoxylem and the later formed primary
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xylem is called metaxylem. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies
towards the periphery of the organ. This type of primary xylem is called endarch.
122. (1) Verhulst -Pearl logistic growth pattern is Sigmoid.
123. (1) Metaphase is a stage of mitosis in the eukaryotic cell cycle in which chromosomes are at their
most condensed and coiled stage. Metaphase is the best stage in mitosis for analysing the chromosomes
and to study their morphology.
124. (3) Genetic code is the depiction of codon by which the information in RNA is decoded in a
polypeptide chain. The information is transferred in the form of triplet of bases coding for one amino
acid. It is triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and degenerate in nature.
125. (1) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct about leaf.
A
(iii) Leaves originates from the shoot apical meristems and arranged in an acropetal order.
(iv) Leaves are the most important vegetative organs for photosynthesis.
(v) Leaf consists of three main parts.
126. (4) Sickle-cell anaemia and thalossemia both are autosome linked recessive trait that can be
transmitted from parents to these offsprings.
B
127. (3) Chargaff's rule is not applicable to RNA

128. (1) During 𝑆 or synthesis phase, replication or duplication of chromosomal DNA and synthesis of
histone proteins takes place. During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles.
129. (2) Hormone responsible for bolting is gibberellin.
130. (4) In some, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation & such fruits are called false fruits. for
example: apple, pear, strawberry and cashewnut.
131. (3) The character of flower which is represented by floral formula but not by the floral diagram is the
position of gynoecium.

132. (3) In semi conservative replication of DNA in each replica one half is the old strand and the other
half is a new strand synthesised over it. Also, one strand is synthesised continuously and other
discontinuously, hence called discontinuous.
133. (2) PEP carboxylase enzyme is found in C4 plants for initial fixation of CO2 . RuBP carboxylase operates
in C3 plants. NADP reductase is involved in electron transport chain. ATP synthase is used in ATP
synthesis.
134. (3) Anaphase is characterized by splitting of the centromeres and separation of chromatids.
Chromatids move to opposite poles from the equatorial plates.
135. (2) The crossing of 𝐹1 to homozygous recessive parent is called test cross. Test cross is a cross
between two individuals in which one individual shows the dominant phenotype of a characteristic and
the other individual who is homozygous recessive for that trait in order to determine the genotype of the
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dominant individual.
136. (2) N15 is a isotope of nitrogen and it can be separated from 14 N only based on densities. 15 N is a
heavy isotope of nitrogen. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed experiments on 𝐸. coli.
137. (1) Statements (i), (iii) and (v) are correct. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alternation
or mutation in a single gene whereas chromosomal disorders are caused due to absence or excess or
abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosome linked recessive
trait that can be transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the partners are carrier for the
gene.
138.
LA
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
139. (4) All the given statements represent the anatomical features of monocotyledonous stem. Monocot
stem is characterised by epidermis (2-3layered), hypodermis and undifferentiated ground tissue stem.
Vascular strand is numerous and scattered. Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed.
140. (1) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
141. (4) The ovules are not enclosed inside the ovary. Instead they are borne naked on the leafy
sporophylls, and hence the name gymnosperms (gymnos- naked sperma- seed) is given. Double
fertilization is absent in gymnosperms.
142. (3) The coconut water from tender coconut is nothing but free nuclear endosperm (made up of
thousands of nuclei) and the surrounding white kernel is the cellular endosperm. Female gametophyte is
A
embryo sac. Endosperm develop at the micropylar end of the embryo sac.
143. (3) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
144. (4) The centrosome is the main place where cell microtubules get organised. Centrosome usually
contains two cylindrical structure called centrioles. Centrioles are composed of grouping of microtubules
arranged in 9 + 3 pattern. The pattern is so named because a ring of 9 microtubule "triplets" are
B
arranged at right angles to one another. Centrioles, found in animal cells, help to organise the assembly of
microtubules during cell division. Centrioles replicate during the interphase stage of mitosis and meiosis.
145. (3) Light-induced CO2 liberation from a C2 compound of dark phase is called photorespiration. This
process is considered to nullify the result of photosynthesis as there is no synthesis of ATP or NADPH.
146. (3) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
147. (2) Cytochrome is a compound which consists of haem bonded to a protein and function as electron
transfer agents in many metabolic pathways, especially cellular respiration.
148. (2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
149. (1)
150. (1) Growth regulations are included intrinsic factors.

151. (4) Hepatitis B and AIDS are transmitted through infected blood. Hepatitis B, poputarly called serum
hepatitis or transfusion hepatitis is caused by hepatitis B virus. It is also called Dane parlicle. Transmission
of hepatites B includes blood (blood transfusion), tattoos etc. AIDS is caused by HIV which belongs to
retrovirus. It is transmitted through body fluids by sexual contact, infected blood shared needles etc.
152. (3) Chitinase is the lysing enzyme used to open up the fungus cells to get DNA.
153. (2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
154. (4) Chikungunya fever is caused by the species of female Aedes mosquito
155. (3) The head of the sperm is known as acrosome that has enzymes which help sperm to enter an egg.
156. (4) Tidal volume (TV) is the volume of air inspired or expired during a normal breathing.
157. (2) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively
more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+ ). Similarly, the
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membrane is impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm. Consequently, the
axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K + and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of Na+ . These ionic gradients across the
resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions by the sodium-potassium pump which
transports 3Na+ outwards for 2K + into the cell. As a result, the outer surface of the axonal membrane
possesses a positive charge while its inner surface becomes negatively charged and therefore, is
polarised.
158. (3) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D - I
159.
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(4) Homo erectus is an extinct species of hominid that lived throughout most of the Pleistocene, with
the earliest first fossil evidence dating to around 1.5 million years ago and the most recent to around
70,000 years ago. They had a large brain capacity around 900cc and probably ate meat.
160. (3) Fertilisation is usually external in Echinodermata.
161. (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
162 (4)
163. (4) In cockroaches, males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles which are absent in females. In
both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.
164. (4) A-IV; B - I; C-II; D - III
165. (1) A-II; B - I; C - IV; D - III
A
166. (1) Cofactor may be inorganic or organic in nature. Organic cofactors are of two types- coenzymes
and prosthetic groups. Coenzymes are easily separable nonprotein organic cofactors. Prosthetic groups
are nonprotein organic cofactors firmly attached to apoenzymes (protein part of enzyme).
167. (1) A-II; B - III; C-IV; D - I
168. (3) Ligaments attach a bone with another bone in movable/synovial joints. Broken or cut ligaments
B
make movement at joints very painful and restricted.

169. (2) The ELISA is a fundamental tool of clinical immunology, and is used as an initial screen for HIV
delection. Based on the principle of antigen- antibody interaction, this test allows for easy visualization of
results.
170. (1)
171. (2) Rapid declines in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) as
well as an increase in number of people in reproducible age are probable reasons for the present increase
in india's population.
172. (2) Platyhelminthes has dorso-ventrally flattened body, bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic &
acoelomate animals commonly called as flatworms.

173. (4) In proliferative phase, the follicles start developing, called follicular phase. Secretory phase is also
called as luteal phase mainly controlled by progesterone secreted by corpus luteum. Menstruation
involves breakdown of overgrown endometrial lining.
174. (4)
175. (1) When the cofactor is removed from the enzyme, catalytic activity of the enzyme is lost. Cofactors
were defined as an additional substance apart from protein and substrate that is required for enzyme
activity.
176. (4)
177. (2) The label I, II, III and IV respectively are humerus, radius, ulna and scapula.
178. (4)
179. (2) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D - III
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180. (2) The construction of first secombinant DNA emerged from the possible of linking a gene encoding
antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
181. (2) The antibodies produced to allergens are of Ig E type.
182. (2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D - II
183. (3) Options (1), (2) and (4) are wrong.
(1) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(2) Starch forms helical secondary structure.
(4) Glycogen is glucosan homopolysaccharide which is the major reserve food of animals, fungi and some
bacteria.
184.
LA
(1) A coagulam is mainly formed of a network of threads (called fibrins) in which dead and damaged
formed elements of blood are trapped. Fibrins are produced by the conversion of inactive fibrinogens in
the plasma by the enzyme thrombin. Thrombin are formed from another inactive substance present in
the plasma called prothrombin. An enzyme complex, prothrombinase, is required for the above reaction.
The clot seals the wound and stops bleeding. After its formation, clot starts contracting and a pale yellow
fluid, the serum, oozes out. This serum is blood plasma minus fibrinogen and blood corpuscles.
185. (3) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
186. (3) Children produced by in vitro fertilization are normal as the abnormalities in childrens are
detected at an early stage of pregnancy.
A
187. (2) Loop of Henle along with vasa rectae plays an important role in the concentration of urine. The
proximity between loop of Henle and vasa recta as well as counter current in them help in maintaining an
increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium. This mechanism helps to maintain a
concentration gradient in medullary interstitium so human urine is nearly four times concentrated than
initial filtrate formed. The urine concentrating mechanism plays a fundamental role in regulating water
B
and sodium excretion.

188. (3) Malignant tumors may exhibit metastasis. Cancer is a class of diseases in which a group of cells
display uncontrolled growth, invasion and metastasis spread to other locations in the body via lymph or
blood.
Heroin slows down body functions.
Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller and is very useful in patients who have undergone
surgery Spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ.
189. (1) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
190. (4)
191. (4)

192. (4) All of the given statements are correct.
193. (4) All of the given statements are correct.
194. (3) Ear acts as a hearing as well as balancing organ. RBCs are nucleated and contain red coloured
pigment namely haemoglobin.
195. (2) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
196. (3) The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has now been modified into a
cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants.
197. (1) Ovaries are the primary female sex argan.
Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones: a peripheral cortex and inner medulla
198. (3) Gel Electrophoresis is a technique used to separate fragments of DNA based on their size under
the influence of electric field.
JI
199. (4)
200. (2) Natality and immigration are the two basic process which contribute to an increase in population
density. Natality is the proportion of births to the total population in a place in a given time. Immigration
is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during
the time period under consideration.
LA
A
B

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NE E T L I K E M OC K T E S T T 6

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40. Ampere's circuital law states that [New NCERT/XII/118]

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(4) CP = 2.6 × 104 , CV = 8.33 × 104

(1) √𝑡 (2) constant (3) 𝑡 (4)

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chatelier's principle which of the following is correct?

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(1) PCC oxidation

(4) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K 2 Cr2 O7 .

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The product A is [New NCERT/XI/321]

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

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(1) Neopentane (3) 2,3-dimethyl butane

(2) 𝑚-Nitrophenol (4) Phenol

(1) predict the extent of a reaction on the basis of its magnitude

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PART- III: BOTANY

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(2) ubiquinone (substance A) (4) cytochrome 𝑎3

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(2) Second position (4) Fourth position

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(3) Chromosome number is increased.

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C. Gamopetalous III. Fused petals

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PART- IV: ZOOLOGY

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(Types of Leucocytes /WBCs) (Their % (of total WBC)

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(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D – II (2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D - I

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(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

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(1) Inulin - Polymer of glucose

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B. Tarsals II. Bones that form wrist

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(2) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)

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ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108

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as, 𝑇 becomes double and 𝑀0 becomes half

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