NTSE (WEEKLY TEST) 02-05-2021

7. Force between two identical spheres charged with

same charge is F. If 25% of charge of one sphere
PHYSICS is transferred to other sphere; then new force will
be
1. The ratio of S.I Units of resistance to specific
resistance of a conductor is: 3 15
(1) F (2) F
(1) m 1 (2)  m 1 4 16

(3)  1m (4) m 3 3

(3) F (4) F
8 2
2. When the diameter of a wire is doubled its
resistance becomes 8. Two point charges +9q and 16q are kept 14cm apart.
Where should a third charge Q placed between
(1) Four times (2) One fourth
them so that system remains in equilibrium.
(3) No change (4) One half
(1) 8 cm form 9q (2) 6 cm from 16q
3. A current of 0.9 A is flowing through a bulb for 5
(3) 6 cm from 9q (4) None of these
minutes. Find the charge that is flowing through
circuit 9. A flow of 10 22 electron per minute in a conducting
(1) 45C (2) 4.5C wire constitutes a current of:
(3) 270 C (4) 72C (1) 1.6  10 26 A (2) 1.6  1012 A
4. The electrical resistivity of a given wire is
(3) 1.6  10 12 A (4) None of these
1.6  108 m. If its length and area of cross-section
10. An 13 resistance is doubled on itself. Calculate
are doubled then new resistivity of wire will be;
the value of new resistance offered by wire
(1) 3.2  10 8  m (2) 0.8  108 m (1) 2  (2) 26 
(3) 6.4  108 m (4) None of these (3) 6.5  (4) 3.25 
11. Find the wrong match:-
5. Find the work done by some external force in moving
(1) Elecric potential - Volt
a charge of 12C from infinity to a point where
(2) Electric current - Coulomb
electric potential is 104 V.
(3) electric field intensity - Newton/Coulomb
(1) 12  104 J (2) 1.2  102 J (4) Work done - Joule
12. Which of the following charge on an object is not
(3) 12  102 J (4) None of these
possible
6. The given figure represents electric field lines due
(1) 3.2  1019 C (2) 4.8  1019 C
to charges A and B. Which one of following
statement is correct? (3) 5.4  10 19 C (4) 8.0  10 19 C
13. The electron gun in a TV set shoots out a beam of
electrons. The beam current is 16mA. How many
A B
electrons strike the TV screen per second?
(1) 1014 (2) 1017
(1) A is +ve and B is -ve and |A| > |B|
(2) A is -ve and B is +ve; |A| = |B| (3) 1019 (4) 1021
(3) Both A and B are positive but A > B
(4) Both A and B are negative; A > B

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 NTSE (WEEKLY TEST) 02-05-2021

CHEMISTRY
20. The valency of sulphate radical is equal to the
valency of ................... radical.
14. The reaction 2Na  Cl 2  2NaCl is an example (1) Phosphate
of
(2) Hydrogen phosphate
(1) Combination reaction
(3) Dihydrogen phosphate
(2) Decomposition reaction
(4) Phosphide
(3) Displacement reaction
21. For the following reaction, identify the gaseous
(4) Double decomposition reaction
product formed. Na 2CO3  HCl 
15. In the rusting of iron, iron has been
(1) Oxidised (2) Reduced (1) CO (2) CO 2
(3) Vaporised (4) Decomposed (3) O2 (4) H 2 O
16. When lead nitrate is heated, it breaks down into
22. The formula of hydrogen phosphate of a metal M
lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen
is MHPO 4 . Given the formula of metal chloride
2Pb(NO3 )2  2PbO  4NO2  O2
(1) MCl (2) MCl3
The reaction is an example of
(1) Combination reaction (3) MCl2 (4) M 2 Cl
(2) Decomposition reaction 23. Identify the chemical equation which is not balanced.
(3) Double decomposition reaction
(1) 6HNO3  S  H 2SO4  6NO2  2H 2O
(4) Displacement reaction
17. Oxidant in a redox reaction (2) K 2 Cr2 O 7  6HCl  2KCl  CrCl3
(1) Shares electrons with a reductant  7H 2 O  Cl 2
(2) Accepts electron from a reductant
(3) 2Ca 3 (PO 4 ) 2  6SiO 2  10C 
(3) Gives electron to a reductant
(4) Itself oxidise 6CaSiO3  P4  10CO
18. When zinc is added to CuSO 4 solution, copper is (4) 2KMnO 4  5SO 2  2H 2 O 
precipitated because
K 2SO 4  2MnSO 4  2H 2SO 4
(1) Cu 2 is reduced 24. The ratio of number of oxyen atoms present in one
(2) Cu 2 is oxidized molecule of ferric oxide to those present in one
molecule of calcium sulphate is .................
(3) CuSO 4 is ionized (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
(4) CuSO 4 is hydrolyzed (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
25. green coloured ferrous sulphate solution is taken in
19. In the reaction 2FeCl 2  Cl2  2FeCl3 , chlorine four beakers A, B, C and D. Strips of magnesium,
may be regarded as zinc, copper and silver are dipped in A, B, C and D
(1) An oxidizing agent respectively. Green colour fades away slowly in
(2) A reducing agent two beakers. Identify the beakers.
(3) A catalyst (1) A and B (2) C and D
(4) Providing an inert medium (3) A and C (4) B and D
26. Give the name of the radical with one hydrogen
atom, one sulphur atom and three oxygen atomns.
(1) Sulphate (2) Sulphite
(3) Sulphide (4) Bisulphite

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BIOLOGY 33. Match the columns

Column I Column II
27. In Photosynthetic process, atmospheric carbon di 1) Light reaction a) Oxygen evolution
oxide is _______ to carbohydrates 2) Dark reaction b) Green plants
(1) oxidised (2) Reduced 3) Photolysis of water c) Trapping solar energy
(3) Neutralised (4) Burnt 4) Chlorophyll d) Grana
Assertion and Reason Type Questions 5) Photo-autotrophs e) Stroma
Use the following Key to choose the appropriate (1) 1-e, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b, 5-c
answer. (2) 1-d, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-b
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason (3) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (4) 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a, 5-c
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason 34. Insectivorous plants trap insects to get _______ in
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. order to prepare their _______
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) CO 2 and proteins
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are False
28. Assertion: Sun is the ultimate source of energy on (2) N 2 and glucose
planet Earth.
(3) N 2 and proteins
Reason: Green light is least absorbed by green
plants. (4) CO 2 and glucose
29. Assertion: Chloroplast is one of the semi- 35. Photosynthesis is a good example of
autonomous cell organelle present is plant cell. (1) Catabolism (2) Anabolism
Reason: It contains circular DNA and 80s type of (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None of these
ribosomes and prepare its own fats up to certain
36. The xylem in plants are responsible for
extent.
(1) transport of water
30. In one of the photosynthetic experiments, ______
leaf is used to prove ______ is necessary for (2) transport of food.
photosynthesis. (3) transport of amino acids
(1) Varigated & CO 2 (2) Normal & CO 2 (4) transport of oxygen
37. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires
(3) Varigated & Chl (4) Normal & Chl
(1) carbon dioxide and water
31. The energy changes in photosynthesis is
(2) chlorophyll
(1) Light energy to chemical energy
(2) sunlight
(2) Chemical energy to light energy
(4) all of the above
(3) Light energy to electrical energy
38. When water enters the guard cells the stomata
(4) Light energy to activation energy
(1) Opens (2) Closes
32. Photosynthesis is shown by
(3) Open or closes (4) No effect
(1) Plants
39. A few drops of iodine solution were added to
(2) Blue-green algae
destarched plant leaf (boiled in hot water followed
(3) Insectivorous plants by hot alcohol). The solution did not turned to blue-
(4) All of these black in colour because of the absence of
(1) complex proteins (2) simple proteins
(3) fats (4) starch

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 NTSE (WEEKLY TEST) 02-05-2021

47. The smallest number by which 27 should be

40. Select the correct statement
multiplied so as to get a rational number is
(1) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food
(2) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for (1) 27 (2) 3 3
photosynthesis
(3) 3 (4) 3
(3) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food
(4) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon 48. If a  23  3, b  2  3  5 and
dioxide and water into carbohydrates
LCM (a, b,c)  23  32  5 , then c =
(1) 1 (2) 9
MATHS (3) 3 (4) 4
49. Which of the following is a pair of co-primes?
41. If the LCM of a and 18 is 36 and the HCF of a and (1) (14, 35) (2) (18, 25)
18 is 2, then a =
(3) (31, 93) (4) (32, 62)
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1 50. HCF of 23  32  5, 23  33  52 and 22  3  53  7
42. The number of decimal places after which the is
(1) 30 (2) 48
23
decimal expansion of the rational number (3) 60 (4) 10
2 5
2

will terminate, is 51. The Product of two numbers is 2160 and their GCD
is 12. The numbers are
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 72, 30 (2) 36, 60
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 96, 25 (4) None
43. If n is natural number, then 92n  42n is always 52. LCM of two numbers is 14 times their HCF. The
divisible by sum of LCM and HCF is 600. If one number is
(1) 5 (2) 13 280, then the other is
(3) Both 5 and 13 (4) None of these (1) 40 (2) 60
1 1 (3) 80 (4) 100
44. If x 8  m and x 4  n and n = 4m, then find the 53. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their HCF is
4. Then LCM is
value of x.
(1) 12 (2) 16
(1) 512 (2) 216
(3) 24 (4) 48
(3) 324 (4) 256
45. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 54. The HCF of (4a 2 b3  9b) and (2a 2 b 2  ab  3) is
9. If the difference between the two number is 18 (1) (2a - 3) (2) (2ab - 3)
find the two numbers:
(3) (2b - 3a) (4) None of these
(1) 36 and 18 (2) 78 and 60
55. What is the greatest number which shall divide 305
(3) 63 and 81 (4) 52 and 34 and 629 and leave a remainder 8 in each case?
46. If n is any natural number, then 6n  5n always (1) 24 (2)36
ends with (3) 27 (4) 35
(1) 1 (2) 3
x y
(3) 5 (4) 7 56. If x  2  3, xy  1, then 2 x

2 y
is

(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) None of these

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 NTSE (WEEKLY TEST) 02-05-2021

62. Match the following

x 1. Dhariwal (a) Sugar Industry
57. If x  3  5 then is
2  3x  2 2. Mysore (b) Iron and Steel Industry
3. Uttar pradesh (c) Woolen textile
1
(1) (2) 5 4. Vishakapatnam (d) Silk Testile
5
5. Faridabad (e) Motor cycles
1 (1) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - e, 5 - b
(3) 3 (4)
3 (2) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b, 5 - e
58. Express 0.56  0.56 as a single decimal (3) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - e, 5 - a
(4) 1 - e, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - e, 5 - a
(1) 1.132 (2) 1.32
63. …….. is the basic minerals and the backbone of
(3) 1.132 (4) 1.13132 industrial development.
59. How many +ve integer n exist for which the value (1) Coal (2) Copper
(3) Iron ore (4) Aluminium
n  1  n  1 is a rational number
64. …….. metal has a very high content of iron up to
(1) 0 (2) 1 70%.
(3) 2 (4) more than 2 (1) Magnetic ore (2) Limonite ore
60. What is the least possible number. Which when (3) Hematite ore (4) Peat
divided by 18,35 and 42 leaves the 2, 19 and 26 as
the remainder. 65. ……… is the largest producer of manganese ore
in India.
(1) 630 (2) 624
(1) Kudremukh (2) Odisha
(3) 636 (4) None of these
(3) Bailadila (4) Bhilai
66. ……… is the basic raw material for the cement
SST industry.
(1) Gypsum (2) Limestone
61. Identify the Area of iron and steel industry. (3) Potash salt (4) Mica
67. ……. is the hardest mineral.
(1) Gold (2) Diamond
(3) Ruby (4) Graphite
68. …….. is the softest mineral.
(1) Talc (2) Salt
(3) Cement (4) Limestone
69. Which one is not a ferrous mineral?
(1) Iron ore (2) Copper
(3) Hematite (4) Magnetite
70. Which one of the following is not a property of
Copper?
(1) It is ductile
(2) It is a good conductor
(1) Ratnagiri (2) Bailadila (3) It is hard
(3) Marmagao (4) Bhilai (4) It is malleable

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 NTSE (WEEKLY TEST) 02-05-2021
71. The mineral ore from which aluminium is mainly
obtained. 76. The process of rearing silkworm is called ………
(1) Copper (2) bauxite (1) Pisciculture (2) Sericulture
(3) iron ore (4) Anthracite (3) Hoticulture (4) Aquaculture
72. ……. and …….. are obtained from veins and 77. Which state is the largest producer of Silk.
Nodes. (1) Tamil Naidu
(1) Zinc and copper (2) Copper and coal (2) Maharashtra
(3) Coal and Bauxite (4) Bauxite and Zinc (3) Karnataka
73. How many minerals have been identified so far in (4) Jammu and Kashmir
the world?
78. CSTRI was established in which year.
(1) Nearly 2000 (2) Nearly 500
(1) 1933 (2) 1973
(3) Nearly 2500 (4) Nearly 1000
(3) 1983 (4) 1993
74. Identify the Coal mining centre.
79. Coal India Limited (CIL) headquarter is in which
state.
(1) Jharkhand (2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) West Bengal (4) New Delhi
80. Make In India Program was launched in
(1) 2013 (2) 2014
(3) 2015 (4) 2004
81. The first nuclear power station was setup at ...........
near Mumbai in 1969 with the capacity of 320 mines
(1) Rawatbhata (2) Naraura
(3) Tarapur (4) Gujarat
82. The major sugar producing country is ..........
(1) Namrup (2) Visakhapatnam (1) India (2) Cuba
(3) Bellary (4) Neyveli (3) Indonesia (4) Brazil
75. Identify the Iron and Steel Industries. 83. Tata Iron and Steel company was set up in
(1) 1905 (2) 1906
(3) 1907 (4) 1909
84. ............. is nicknamed as the "Detroit of Asia" due
to the presence of major automobile manfacturing
units and allied industries around the city
(1) Chennai (2) Mumbai
(3) Madurai (4) Kolkata
85. TISCO belongs to ............. sectors.
(1) Private (2) Joint
(3) Co-operative (4) Public
86. What makes Mumbai the "Manchester of India"?
(1) The higher concentration of textile mills in and
(1) Bhilai and Medinipur around Mumbai
(2) Rourkela and Talchere (2) It is a beautiful city like manchester
(3) Bokaro and Jamshedpur (3) The city is famous for electronic goods
(4) Bhilai and Rourkela manfacturing
(4) Like Manchester the city is famous for iconic
architecture

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87. CSTRI was established in the year 1983 by the 94. Minerals and fossil fuels are examples of
Central Silk Board, Ministry of Testiles, Government ................. resources.
of India having head quarter at
(1) Renewable (2) Usable
(1) Turnkur (2) Bangalore
(3) Non-Renewable (4) Non-metallic
(3) Mangalore (4) Hubli
95. The leading producer of Limestone in India is
(1) Karnataka (2) Rajasthan
88. (3) Gujarat (4) Telangana
96. The first hydro-electric power station in India was
established ............... in 1987
(1) Kolkata (2) Darjeeling
(3) Lucknow (4) Kanpur
This is a certification mark in India for .......... textile 97. ............... electricity is produced from minerals like
(1) June (2) Cotton Uranium and Thorium.
(3) Silk (4) Wool (1) Hydel (2) Thermal
89. World class Stain Less Steel is produced at (3) Nuclear (4) Solar
(1) Bengaluru (2) Salem 98. Kalpakkam is ................ station in Tamil Nadu.
(3) Bhilai (4) Chennai (1) Thermal Power (2) Nuclear Power
(3) Natural gas (4) Solar Power
90. Salem, Namakkal, Tiruvanamalai, Tinchirappalli,
Coimbatore, Madurai and Tirunelveli districts in 99. Manganese is used in
Tamil Nadu are notable for the production of (1) Storage batteries (2) Steel Making
................. (3) Copper smelting (4) Petroleum Refining
(1) Iron (2) Copper 100. The Anthracite coal has
(3) Manganese (4) Bauxite (1) 80 to 95% Carbon (2) Above 70% Carbon
91. Identify the mineral from the following features (3) 60 to 70% Carbon (4) Below 50% Carbon
given
(i) It is silvery grey in colour and very hard and
brittle in nature.
(ii) It is always available in combination with iron,
laterite and other minerals
(iii) It is ah important minerals used for making iron
and steel and serves as basic raw material fo alloying
(iv) It is also used in the manufacturing of bleaching
power insecticides, paints and batteries
(1) Copper (2) Manganese
(3) Bauxite (4) Lime stone
92. Abhrak is a good quality
(1) Copper (2) Manganesh
(3) Mica (4) Lime stone
93. Coal is also known as ..........
(1) Hard gold (2) Black gold
(3) Black metal (4) Soil gold

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