Questionbankmodule13 236831813
Questionbankmodule13 236831813
Questionbankmodule13 236831813
a) decrease take off and landing speed b) decrease take off speed # c) decrease landing speed
2. Lowering of the flaps # a) increases drag and lift b) increases drag c) increases lift
3. Pushing the left rudder pedal # a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing
4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF? a) Check of aircraft structure b) Bonding and insulation tests # c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment
5. What do ruddervators do? # a) Control pitch and yaw b) Control pitch and roll c) Control yaw and roll
7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft? a) Elevators b) Ailerons # c) Elevons
8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add # a) an internal doubler b) external doubler c) an intercostals
9. What does a trim tab do? # a) Eases control loading for pilot b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot
10. How does a balance tab move? a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to b) In the same direction a small amount # c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to
12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus b) AC bus # c) GND services
13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp # b) local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator
14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0 b) 090 # c) 180
15. What is power at pulse? a) Peak power b) Pulsed power c) Average power
17. If radar pulse is reduced there is a) increased relative range b) reduced relative range # c) no effect
18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be a) 80 ohm b) 160 ohm c) 0 ohm
19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you # a) 3 ft error b) 6ft error c) 12 foot error
20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width # b) narrowest width c) number of joints and bends
22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter? # a) Increases lift b) No effect c) Increases thrust
23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter? a) Pfifer damper b) Swashplate c) Scissor levers
24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor? # a) Weight of blade b) Engine and gearbox c) Fineness ratio
25. Relative velocity of rotor # a) increases at fwd travelling blade b) increases at retreating blade c) is equal for all blades
28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs a) topping up with distilled water b) replacing # c) recharging
29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight? # a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit b) No effect c) Electrical systems shut down
30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway a) 20 degrees b) 15 degrees c) 10 degrees
32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading? a) QDH # b) QDM c) QDR
33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros # b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers
34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors b) localiser deviation errors # c) heading errors
35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate # c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting
37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the # a) decision height b) intercept height c) alert height
38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters
39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway # c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have a) a decision height of about 50 feet # b) no decision height c) a decision height depending upon the RVR
42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect a) all channels # b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach
43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal b) integrating deviation signal # c) integrating course error
44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD # b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM c) V/S and ALT ARM
45. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD # b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD
47. FAIL PASSIVE means a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system # b) system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle b) increase its drift angle # c) fly parallel to the beam
49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in # a) JAR AWO b) CAIPs c) BCARs
50. VOR capture can be determined by a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial # b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial
10
52. Automatic trim is used to # a) maintain level flight b) prevents standing loads on the elevator c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron
53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation # b) rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course
54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement # b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged
55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for # a) maintaining a computed EPR b) controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations
11
57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced # c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe
58. To know the valid data base on the FMS a) perform a BITE check # b) call up the relevant page on the CDU c) call up the relevant current status
59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by # a) yaw rate gyro signals b) aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed
60. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies b) only mid range frequencies # c) low range frequencies 61. A GCR will trip if what is detected? a) Under frequency and over frequency b) Over frequency and under current c) Over current and over frequency
12
63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate b) use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts
64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator # a) the resistor is in series with the field b) parallel with the field c) in series with the voltage coil
65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft # a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 b) JAR OPS c) Maintenance Manual
66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off # c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed
13
68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done # a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only
69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery? # a) The temperature b) The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity
70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided # a) to prevent precipitation static build up b) to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing
71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint # b) bonding strips c) special conducting or non-conducting grease
14
73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking # a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same
74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet a) 400ft b) 160ft c) 80ft
75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by a) the central warning computer (CWC) b) the electronic interface units (EIU) # c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)
15
78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG # b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? # a) Higher than its IAS b) Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS
80. The stall margin is controlled by # a) EPR limits b) speed bug cursor c) angle of attack and flap position
81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle a) only with the Flight Director selected b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged # c) only after take off
16
83. A FADEC system does not have the following system? a) An automatic starting capability b) Control of thrust reverser operation # c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers 84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland? a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare # b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold 85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the # a) decision height b) intercept height c) alert height 86. The ICAO weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m # c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m 87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of a) 15 m # b) 60 m c) 0 m
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of # a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090 MHz 142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus a) 1 degree # b) 3 degree c) 5 degree 143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000 # b) 045 c) 090 144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators # b) AC generators c) AC & DC generators
26
27
28
159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover? a) 100 nm # b) 120 nm c) 140 nm 160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial # b) 090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial 161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is # a) an accelerometer b) a gyroscope c) a tachogenerator 162. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons b) decibels # c) relative amplitude 163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate b) minimum flow rate c) cannot be adjusted
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
a) full authority b) 50% authority # c) 10% authority 332. Stall warning will be given # a) before stall b) after stall
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm? # a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter c) Provide directional control 408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length? # a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95