395 Pharmacy

1. 2534.

Micro, nano, atto, and mega are prefixes associated with which of the following measuring systems? I. avoirdupois II. metric III. systeme International A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only One hundred (100) micrograms equals I. 100,000ng II. 0.1Mg III. 0.001g A. I only B. III only C. I & II only D. II & III only A nurse adds a 4-mL Tubex unit containing 2.4M units pencillin suspension to a 20-mL vial containing 10mL of normal saline. What is the new concentration of penicillin expressed as units/ml? A. 170 B. 240 C. 170,000 D. 240,000 A patients serum cholesterol value is reported as 4mM/L. What is this concentration expressed in terms of mg/dL? (mol.wt. of cholesterol=386) A. 0.154mg/dL B. 1.54mg/dL C. 154mg/dL D. 596mg/dL What is the minimum amount of a potent drug that may be weighed on a prescription balance with a sensitivity requirement of 6mg if at least 95% accuracy is required? A. 6mg B. 120mg C. 180mg D. 200mg Which of the following occur(s) when the sensitivity requirement of a balance increases? I. the accuracy of the balance increases. II. The minimum mass that may be weighed with a certain degree of accuracy increases. III. The potential error in any given weighing increases A. I only B. III only

2535. 2.

3. 2536.

2537. 4.

2538. 5.

2539. 6.

396 Pharmacy

7. 2540.

2541. 8.

9. 2542.

10. 2543.

C. I and II only D. II and III only The upper therapeutic drug concentration for a drug is considered to be 40g /mL. Express this value in terms of mg/dL. A. 0.04mg/dL B. 0.4mg/dL C. 4mg/dL D. 40mg/dL Calculate the dose of a drug to be administered to a patient if the dosing regimen is listed as 2mg/kg/day. The patient weight 140lb. A. 65mg B. 130mg C. 300mg D. 350mg A package insert lists a drug dose for a neonate as being 10g/kg/day. The age range for a neonate is considered to be A. birth to 1month B. 1 month to 6 months C. 1 month to 1 year D. birth to 1 week A childs dose of a drug is reported as 1.2 mg/kg body weight. What is the appropriate dose for a child weighing 60lb? A. 6mg B. 9mg C. 32mg D. 72mg The dose of a drug is 0.5mg/kg. How many mL of a solution containing 20mg per teaspoon should be administered to a man weighing 175lb? A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 50 The hospital protocol calls for additional dosing when the tough level of tobramycin (mol.wt.=470) approaches 2g/mL. The concentration may also be expressed as how many umol/L? A. 2.1 B. 4.2 C. 6.4 D. 8.5 A hospital pharmacy technician adds by syringe 20mL of a concentrated serile 2%w/v dye solution to a 250-mL commercial bag of sterile normal saline. What is the concentration of the dye in the final solution? A. 0.15% B. 0.16% C. 0.8% D. 1.6%

11. 2544.

2545. 12.

2546. 13.

397 Pharmacy

2547. 14.

15. 2548.

16. 2549.

2550. 17.

18. 2551.

A doctor prescribes 2.5 mg Zestril once daily for a period of 30 days. How many tablets will be dispensed to this patient with the dosage form available in Oman? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60 How many mg of codeine phosphate are being consumed daily by a patient taking the following prescription as directed? Rx Codeine phosphate 200mg Dimetapp Elix qs 120mL Sig: 1 tsp t.i.d.p.c. and h.s. A. 6.25mg B. 8.25mg C. 19mg D. 33mg How many mg of codeine base is in each dose of the cough product used in Question 15? (mol.wt:codeine=299; codeine phosphate=406) A. 6mg B. 8mg C. 11mg D. 16mg The adult dose of a drug is 250mg. What would be the approximate dose for a 6-year-old child weighing 60lb?(use youngs rule) A. 60mg B. 85mg C. 100mg D. 125mg The USP contains nomograms for estimating body surface are (BSA) for both children and adults. Which of the following measurements must be known in order to use these nomograms? A. age and height B. age and weight C. height and creatinine clearance D. height and weight The adult dose of a drug is 200mg. What is the appropriate dose for an 8-year-old child whose BSA is calculated to be 0.6m2? A. 25mg B. 40mg C. 50mg D. 70mg The usual dose for paclitaxel intravenous (IV) is 135mg/m2. How many mg should be administered to a 40-year-old female weighing 120lb if her BSA was calculated to be 1.5m2? A. 110 B. 120 C. 135 D. 200

2552. 19.

2553. 20.

398 Pharmacy

21. 2554.

A hospital pharmacy technician has written the following formula for inclusion into the master manufacturing formula book. Codeine sulfate Aspirin Hydrocortisone Lactose 0.5gr 1.6gr 120mg qs 6 grams

Mix and make 30 capsules When reviewing this formula, the pharmacist should comment upon which of the following expressions? I. 0.5 II. gr III. qs A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only 22. 2555. Blood pressure measurements were made for 1 week on five patients with the following averages: Patient B.P. 1 140/70 2 160/84 3 180/88 4 190/90 5 150/70 D

what is the median systolic pressure? A. 80 B. 83 C. 84 D. 160 23. 2556. Using the above data, determine the approximate mean diastolic blood pressure value. A. 80 B. 84 C. 100 D. 115 How much of the active ingredient is available in a solution of 10% w/v ? A. 10g B. 10mg C. 100 g D. 100 mg A

24. 2557.

399 Pharmacy

25. 2558.

A pharmacist adds 1 pt of alcohol USP to 1L of a mouthwash formula. What is the new percentage of alcohol present if the original mouthwash was labeled as 12% v/v ethanol? A. 30% B. 38% C. 45% D. 57% A hospital pharmacy needs 1qt of an antibacterial solution containing 92% v/v alcohol. How many mL of alcohol USP will be needed? A. 458mL B. 870mL C. 916mL D. 920mL A prescription calls for the dispensing of a 4% Pilocar solution with the directions of gtt I OU TID. How many mg of pilocarpine hydrochloride is being used per day? Assume that the dropper is calibrated to deliver 20 drops to the mL. A. 4mg B. 6mg C. 12mg D. 24mg The infusion rate of theophylline established for an infant is 0.08mg/kg/h. How many mg of drug are needed for a 12-h infusion bottle if the body weight is 16lb? A. 0.58mg B. 14mg C. 7mg D. 150mg The adult IV dose of zidovudine is 2mg/kg q4th six times daily. How many mg will a 180-lb patient receive daily? A. 12mg B. 164mg C. 650mg D. 980mg A pharmacist dilutes 100mL of Clorox with sufficient water to make 1qt of solution. Express the concentration of sodium hypochlorite in the final dilution as a w/v ration. Commercial Clorox contains 5.25% w/v sodium hypochlorite. A. 1/10 B. 1/90 C. 1/100 D. 1/180

2559. 26.

27. 2560.

2561. 28.

2562. 29.

2563. 30.

400 Pharmacy

2564.

Which one of the following is an example of Chromatographic techniques A. HPLC B. Potentiometry C. IR D. NMR A 1 litre solution is prepared by dissolving 4 gm of NaOH in water. What will be the concentration of solution? A. 0.1 M B. 1.0 M C. 0.01M D. 2 M Two organic compounds are found to have similar chemical properties but different physical properties. Both are optically active and are non superimposable mirror images of each other. They are A. Enantiomers B. Rotamers C. Metamers D. Structural isomer Hardness of water is determined by A. Precipitation method B. Complexometric method C. Acid base titration D. Diazotization titration All are strong bases except A. Sodium Hydroxide B. Potassium Hydroxide C. Ammonium Hydroxide D. Calcium Hydroxide

2565.

2566.

2567.

2568.

2569.

Levothyroxine is assayed by A. Iodimetry B. Iodometry C. Permanganometry D. Cerimetry 2570. EDTA stands for A. Ethylene diamine tri acetic acid B. Ethinyl diamine tetra acetic acid C. Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid D. Ethyl diamine tri acetic acid 2571. NMR stands for A. Nuclear mono resonance B. New Motor Resonance C. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance D. New Magnetic Resonance

401 Pharmacy

2572. Name a halogen containing nonionic surfactant polymer used as antiseptic agent

a. b. c. d.

Halozone Povidone iodine Tincture iodine Benzalkonium chloride B

2573. Chemical composition of Lugols solution is

a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.
2577.

2% iodine in 50% alcohol 5% iodine in water with potassium iodide 10% iodine in water with potassium iodide Liquefied phenol 5% C Benzoylperoxide Resorcinol Hexylresorcinol Hexachlorophene B Precipitation of protein by alcohol Alcohol unfit for use as beverage by adding methanol. Alcohol made from dehydrated alcohol so that it is unfit for consumption Alcohol obtained by azeotropic distillation of ethanol C Hydrogen peroxide Cationic surfactant Anionic surfactant Sodium hypochlorite

2574. Which one given below is used as antiseptic in lozenges

2575. Denatured alcohol means

2576. Which one given below is not having antiseptic / disinfectant property

Name a disinfectant used to sterilize temperature sensitive medical equipment and drugs B like surgical sutures & catgut a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Ethylene oxide c. Povidone iodine d. Benzalkonium chloride a. b. c. d. Benzoyl peroxide Carbamide peroxide Tincture iodine Cresol

2578. The antiseptic preparation used for treatment of simple mouth ulcer and in dental care is B

402 Pharmacy

2579.

Which one given below is correct statement regarding the metabolism of L-dopa to dopamine A. L-dopa is vary water soluble and cannot cross blood brain barrier B. L-Dopa is decarboxylated to an active catecholamine after crossing blood brain barrier. C. L-Dopamine is highly lipophilic and cannot cross blood brain barrier D. L-Dopa is metabolized in blood by decarboxylase enzyme before crossing blood brain barrier.

2580.

Name the prodrug of ampicillin prepared by acetone condensation product to improve oral bioavailability A. Becampicillin B. methicillin C. Hetacillin D. Amoxicillin An example of cationic surfactant used as disinfectant is A. Chloroxyenol B. Chlorhexidone gluconate C. Cetylpyridinium chloride D. Chloroazodin

2581.

2582.

What is the relevance of -lactamase enzymes to penicillins? A. Fungi containing -lactamase enzymes can synthesise penicillins. B. Bacteria containing -lactamase enzymes show resistance to penicillins. C. Mammalian cells are unaffectedby penicillins as they have -lactamase enzymes. D. Only bacteria containing-lactamase enzymes are susceptible to penicillins.

2583.

Name a drug which is very effective as schizonticide and gametocide in the treatment of malaria A. Sulphadoxime B. Pyrimethamine C. Chloroquine D. Proguanil

403 Pharmacy

2584.

Name the drug which inhibits reduction of dihydrofolic acid to the active tetrahydrofolate B coenzyme form. A. Sulfadoxime B. Pyrimethamine C. Atovaquone D. Chloroquine

2585.

What cell structure is targeted by drugs such as the macrolides and aminoglycosides? A. Ribosomes. B. Nucleus. C. Cell membrane. D. Cell wall.

2586.

The symptoms of malaria like intermittent fever and shivering is due to A. Sporozoites begin entering hepatocytes B. Sporozoites injected into patients blood by mosquito bite C. Merozoites present in systemic circulation infect patients erythrocytes D. Merozoites or gametocytes burst out of infected RBC.

2587.

Name the anti-tubercular agent which catalyses the NADP-specific reduction of transenoylacyl carrier protein in fatty acid elongation stage of bacterial cell. A. Pyrazinamide B. Rifamycin C. Sodium PAS D. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide

2588.

Neuritis caused by INH while treating tuberculosis can be counteracted by A. Alkalizing urine by sodium citrate B. Co-administration of pyridoxine tablet C. Replacing INH with other drugs D. Discontinuation of INH

2589.

Name the anti tubercular drug which is contraindicated in gout and hyper uremia A. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide B. Sodium PAS C. Ethionamide D. Pyrazinamide

404 Pharmacy

2590.

Crystalluria is due to the precipitation of the sulfa drugs in acidic pH of urine as one of the following metabolite is formed. A. B. C. D. N- glucuronide conjugate of sulfa drug N-methyl derivative of sulfa drugs N-acetyl derivative of sulfa drug Hydrolysis product on sulfonamide group

2591.

The clinical use of diethylcarbamezine citrate is A. Intestinal amebiasis B. Rheumatoid fever C. Tropical eosinophilia D. Lupus erythematous

2592.

Name the agent which inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting topoisomerase II, an enzyme C responsible for introduction of negative supercoils into circular duplex DNA. A. Rifampicin B. Chloramphenicol C. Ciprofloxacin D. Erythromycin

2593.

Best drug of choice in the management of serious urinary tract infection caused by Gmve bacilli, Klebsilla spp. Is A. Azithromycin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tetracycline D. Piperacillin

2594.

Name the broad spectrum aminoglycoside antibiotic indicated in the management bacterial dysentery. A. Gentamicin B. Bacitracin C. Erythromycin D. Streptomycin

405 Pharmacy

2595.

Which antibiotic given below is not given orally? A. Erythromycin B. Amoxicillin C. Gentamicin D. Cephalexin

2596.

Mebendazole is indicated in treatment of A. Microfilaria B. Round worm infection C. Malaria D. Intestinal amebiasis

2597.

The antidote used in the management of poisoning of organoarsenic compounds A. Sodium nitrite B. Dimercaprol C. Sodium suramin D. Sodium potassium tartarate

2598.

Which drug is not used in the management of hepatic amebiasis A. Chloroquine B. Didhyroemetine C. Diloxanide D. Metronidazole

2599.

Mechanism of action of Trimethoprim A. Competitive inhibition of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase enzyme B. Competitive inhibition of bacterial enzyme dihydropteroate synthase C. Competitive inhibition of synthesis of Para aminobenzoic acid D. competitive inhibition of enzyme for peptidoglycan synthesis

2600.

Lidocaine is not usually given orally because it is A. Unabsorbed from gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by intestinal enzymes C. Converted into inactive form after first pass metabolism D. Hydrolyzed in stomach by gastric enzyme and hydrochloric acid.

406 Pharmacy

2601.

Which statement is correct with reference to Halothane? A. A gaseous inhalant anaesthetic agent B. Halogenated hydrocarbon used as inhalant anaesthetic agent C. Halogenated ether used as a inhalant anaesthetic agent D. An inflammable liquid used as general anaesthetic agent An example of atypical antipsychotic agent is A. Trifluoperazine B. Olanzapine C. Chlorpeomazine D. Droperidol Valproic acid sodium is indicated as a drug of choice in A. Mania of bipolar disorder B. Inflammatory condition C. Anxiety related insomnia D. Intravenous anaesthesia The mechanism of action of Tranylcypromine is A. Non selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor B. Non selective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase C. Powerful agonist of neurotransmitter norepinephrine D. Serotonin uptake inhibitor.

2602.

2603.

2604.

2605.

Benzodiazepine derivatives mediate their action through which one the following receptors. C A. -Adrenergic receptor B. Serotonin receptor C. GABA A receptor D. Dopamine D 2 receptor An example of antidepressant having Dibenzazepine ring system is A. Amitriptyline B. Fluoxetine C. Phenelzine D. Clomipramine The Celecoxib produces little gastrointestinal side effect due to A. Selective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-1 in gastric mucosa B. Non selectively blocking of the synthesis of arachidonic acid C. Powerful inhibition cyclooxygenase -2 D. Non inhibition of cyclooxygenase -1 in gastric mucosa D

2606.

2607.

407 Pharmacy

2608.

Selective Nor Epinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor(SNERI) is a. Maprotiline b. Phenelzine c. Imipramine d. Pentozocine hydrochloride

2609.

Which one of the following drug is used in the treatment of overdose of pethidine? a. Apomorphine b. Dihydrocodone c. Naloxone d. Caffeine

2610.

The additional pharmacological property of cyproheptadine is a. b. c. d. Anti-serotonin activity Mild analgesic property Emetic property Muscarinic activity

2611.

Which one given below is second generation antihistaminic agent having less sedative effect? a. Cyproheptidine b. Cetirizine c. Meclizine d. Pyrilamine

2612.

Which a. b. c. d.

statement is correct in the case of pseudoephedrine? Erythroform alkaloid from Ephedra Chemically a dihydroxyphenylethylamine derivative Useful in the treating of nasal congestion Useful in the management of narcolepsy

2613.

The effect of cholinergic agonist interaction with muscarinic receptor M3 produces a. Bradycardia in heart. b. Stimulation of exocrine gland secretion c. Dilation of cerebral blood arteries d. Modulation of neurotransmitter signaling in cortex

408 Pharmacy

2614.

A drug of choice in the treating over dose of atropine is A. B. C. D. Physostigmine Homatropine Pralidoxime Neostigmine

2615.

The mechanism of action of furosemide is A. inhibit luminal membrane bound 1Na/1K/2Cl co transport system B. mediated via Na + /K + -ATPase complex C. Inhibit luminal bound Na/Cl co -transport s ystem . D. Inhibit Na re-absorption by competitiv ely antagonizing the effects of aldosterone. T he organo phosphorus insecticide poisoning is due to its A. Irreversible Cholinesterase inh ibitory action B. Reversible cholinestera se inhibitory action C. Neuromuscular blocking action D. None of the above

2616.

2617.

Tropicamide is used as A. B. C. D. Spasmolytic agent Miotic agent Mydriatic agent Anti-secretory agent

2618.

An example of potassium channel agonist used in the management of hypertension is A. B. C. D. Diazoxide Sodium nitoprusside Hydralazine Methyldopa

2619.

Which drug produces an inhibition of the Na/K/-ATPase pump increasing the intracellular Na / Ca exchange in myocardium? A. B. C. D. Propranolol Nifedipine Digoxin Mannitol

409 Pharmacy

2620.

Which one given below is a correct statement with reference to Angiotensin II A. It regulates sodium excret ion by the renal tubules B. It increases peripheral resistance and blood pressure C. It interacts with angiotensin converting enzyme D. It interacts with rennin enzyme for cleavage of an giotensinogen

2621.

Side effect of one of the drugs given below has been employed for treatment of baldness (alopecia) A. Sod ium nitroprusside B. Diazoxide C. Minoxidil D. Hydralazine

2622.

Dicyclomine hydrochloride is used as an antispasmodic agent due to its A. Non selective muscarinic agonist activity B. Selective -adrenergic antagonist activity C. Non selective muscarinic antagonist activity D. Reversible anticholinesterase activity

2623.

Local anaesthetic agent lidocaine is used as antiarrythmic agent because it A. De creases the sodium ion entry into t he myocardial cells and depress diastolicde polarization B. Blocks the calci um channels and thereby reduce arrhythmia C. Blocks the- adrenergic neuromuscular nerve ending and pr oduce the antiarhrythmic action D. Produces potassium ion agonist activity and depress the cardiac functions

2624.

The enzyme responsible for the conversion of histidine amino acid to histamine is A. B. C. D. Esterase De carboxylase Transamin ase Hydrolase

410 Pharmacy

2625. How do bacteria gain access to the urinary tract?

A. The bacteria colonize the bladder when urine is static. B. The bacteria travel from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys. C. The bacteria come from systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney. D. The bacteria ascend up the urethra into the bladder or up the ureters into the kidney.

2626. Warning signs of hypoglycemia include:

A. B. C. D.

Restlessness Palpitation Hunger All of the above

2627.

The Papanicolaou(Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer? A. B. C. D. Ovarian Uterine Cervical Vaginal

2628. What are the clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease?

A. B. C. D.

Muscle tremor; slow, rigid movements; and postural abnormalities Decreased memory, depression, and indifference Muscle weakness, difficultychewing, and drooping eye lids Paralysisand absent sensation below the level of the lesion

2629. Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?

A. B. C. D.

Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic Colon,liver, and lung Skin,lung, and pancreatic Bladder, skin, and kidney

411 Pharmacy

2630. A patient is diagnosedwith Parkinson disease. This is a degenerative disorder of the:

A. B. C. D. anterior pituitary. hypothalamus. frontal lobe. basal ganglia

2631. People with gout are at high risk for:

A. B. C. D. joint trauma. anemia. hearing loss. renal calculi.

2632. The size of benign uterine tumors is thought to be due to the influence of which hormone?
A. B. C. D. Progesterone Estrogen Luteinizinghormone Gonadotropinstimulating hormone

2633. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. C
Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition? A. B. C. D. Low- output failure High- output failure Right heart failure Left heart failure C

2634. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?

A. B. C. D. Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss

2635. What pathologic changes occur in Graves disease?

A. B. C. D. High levels of circulating thyroid - stimulating immunoglobulins Stimulation of thyroid - bindingglobulin Stimulation by thyroid - stimulating hormone (TSH) Stimulation by thyrotropin - releasing hormone (TRH)

2636. A patient has hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding3 to 5 g/day
with albumin as the major protein. These data suggestthe presence of which disorder? A. B. C. D. E. Chronic pyelonephritis Renal carcinoma Glomerulonephritis Cystitis Nephrotic syndrome

412 Pharmacy

2637.

Anti psychotic drugs cause tardive dyskinesia by mimicking the effects of increased: A. B. C. D. norepinephrine (NE). dopamine. acetylcholine. gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA).

2638.

Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea are indicative of which pulmonary disease? A. B. C. D. Asthma Pneumonia Chronic bronchitis Emphysema

2639. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?

A. B. C. D. Left heart failure Valvular disease Endocarditis Deep vein thrombosis

2640. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a
coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium? A. B. C. D. Prolonged Q- T interval Non - ST elevation (non - STEMI) ST depression (STDMI) ST elevation (STEMI)

2641. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type2 diabetes?

A. Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation B. Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels C. Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure D. Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels

2642. Vasogenic edema with increased capillary permeability occurs after what type of stroke?
A. B. C. D. Hemorrhagic Thrombotic Embolic Lacunar

2643. Which joint disease is characterized by joint stiffness on movement that dissipates within 30 B
minutes and joint pain of weight - bearing joints that usually is relieved by rest? A. B. C. D. Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoarthritis Gouty arthritis Suppurative arthritis

413 Pharmacy

2644.

What type of shock develops when there is an overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system or understimulationof the sympathetic nervous system? A. B. C. D. Anaphylacticshock Vasogenic shock Septic shock Cardiogenicshock

2645.

Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. B. C. D. Hyperlipidemia Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion Kussmaul respirations Ketones in the urine

2646.

Which infection has clinical manifestations of sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention? A. B. C. D. Epididymitis Orchitis Bacterial prostatitis Balanitis

2647.

A major complicationof persistent gastroesophageal reflux is A. B. C. D. strictures heartburn chest pain hoarseness

2648. The patient with upper body obesity also has central fat distribution. This body fat configuration places her at greater risk for ___________ than a patient with lower body obesity. A. osteoporosis B. renal disease C. heart disease D. chronic anemia 2649. Common include A. B. C. D.
risk factors for erectile dysfunction due to generalized penile arterial insufficiency cryptorchidism cigarette smoking testicular torsion benignprostate hypertrophy

414 Pharmacy

2650. The patient has a fractured tibia and bleeding wound. After the castis applied and the
extremity is elevated, he is at high risk for compartment syndrome caused by A. B. C. D. inflammation joint immobility muscle atrophy extremity elevation

2651.

Although vertigo or dizzines s can result from peripheral or central vestibular disorders, vertigo is distinctly different because it causes A. B. C. D. light- headedness an illusion of motion loss of consciousness permanent hearing loss

2652. The patient is immobilized after a hip injury. He has lower leg discoloration with edema,
pain, tenderness, and increased warmth in the mid- calf area. He has many of the manifestations of A. B. C. D. stasis ulcerations arterial insufficiency primary varicose veins deep vein thrombosis

2653.

Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, is characterized by muscle weakness caused by antibody mediated destruction of A. B. C. D. periorbital muscles thymus gland cells skeletal muscle fibers acetylcholine receptors

2654. The second stage of the progressive degenerative Alzheimer- type dementia is manifested
by behaviors that include A. B. C. D. confusion incontinence forgetting names social withdrawal

2655. The patient has right upper quadrant pain caused by acute cholelithiasis, also known as
stones in the common bile duct. If the duct becomes obstructed, manifestations will also include A. B. C. D. ascites vomiting bilirubinuria hemorrhage

415 Pharmacy

2656. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are characterized by ischemic cerebral neurologic deficits

that A. B. C. D. indicate aneurysm leakage cause minor residual deficits affect diffuse cerebral functions resolve within 24 hours of onset

2657. Which test provides a way to monitor fluctuations of blood glucose levels over the previous

6 to 12 weeks? A. B. C. D. Glucose tolerance test Fasting blood glucose Capillary blood glucose Glycosylated hemoglobin

2658. The cardinal symptoms of Parkinson disease include

A. B. C. D.

hypotonia bradykinesia paresthesia lack of sweating

2659. In people with type I diabetes or insulin- dependent diabetes, the beneficial effects of

exercise also carries an increased risk of A. B. C. D. rapid weight loss respiratory disorders rebound hyperglycemia profound hypoglycemia

2660. The patient has acidosis that might be respiratory in origin. Which of the following is the

major cause of acute primary respiratory acidosis? A. B. C. D. Decreased CO2 retention Increased metabolic acids Renal bicarbonate retention Impaired alveolar ventilation

416 Pharmacy

2661. In women, pelvic floor weakness and loss of the posterior proximal urethrovesical (PVU) junction cause which type of incontinence?

A. B. C. D.

Urge Stress Overflow Overactive C

2662. Sue is fatigued and some blood tests are done. Her results include Hct 30%; Hgb 8 g/dL; WBC 8,000; platelets 175,000. The abnormal findings are interpreted as

A. B. C. D.
2663.

high platelets/thrombocytosis low WBC count/granulocytopenia low hemoglobin/anemia high hematocrit/polycythemia D

Which one of the following would be a drug of choice in generalised anxiety patient showing higher pulse and tremors but no worry, tension and fear? A. B. C. D. Fluoxetine Venlafaxime Imipramine Propranolol

2664.

A pharmacist was struggling to select a suitable agent for severe rheumatoid arthritis patient who is not responding to naproxen, prednisone and penicillamine. Which of the following agents would be most appropriate for this patient? A. B. C. D. Dexamethasone Gold Indomethacin Cyclosporin

2665. Which of the following is preferred as additional therapy for a patient who is status post

myocardial infarction (1 month ago) with a blood pressure of 146/88 mm Hg while on metoprolol XL 200 mg/day? A. B. C. D. Amlodipine10 mg/day Enalapril 40 mg/day Diltiazem 40 mg/day Labetolol 40 mg/day

417 Pharmacy

2666.

While counseling a patient taking finasteride, the pharmacist should provide information about this adverse effect: A. B. C. D. Renal failure Ejaculatory dysfunction Sudden death Erectile dysfunction

2667.

An infant with thyroid atrophy while birth, found to have deficiency of iodine and seems to be mentally retarded. Most probably it may be of which type of hypothyroidism? A. B. C. D. Myxoedema Cretinism Goitre Graves disease

2668.

A woman Mrs. HR was diagnosed with UTI, caused by an aerobic enteric bacteria with some kind of complications. Which of the following drug combinations would be of first choice for this patient? A. B. C. D. Imipenem- cilastatin Ampicillin-sulbactum Amoxicillin-clavulanate Trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

2669.

A 34-years-old husband brought his wife to the clinic for her chronic bronchitis. The lab investigations shows that the FEV>50% of normal value, sputum was more in volume and white in color. Which of the followings would be an ideal choice of drug for this patient? A. B. C. D. Carbapenem Gentamycin Ciprofloxacin Fosfomycin

2670.

A female patient complains of reddish coloration of her urine after taking a medicine. Which of the following drugs would most likely produce such an effect? A. B. C. D. Ethambutol Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Rifampin

2671.

Miss HRC in second trimester is suffering from rhinitis, vasomotor symptoms and sinusitis. The community pharmacist has decided to dispense which of the following medication as a first choice? A. B. C. D. Cetrizine nasal drop Corticosteroid nasal spray Sodium cromoglycate nasal spray Pseudoephedrine nasal spray

418 Pharmacy

2672. Which of the following would be an appropriate antibiotic combination in an elderly

pneumonia patient? A. B. C. D. Ampicillin - sulbactam Piperacillin - tazobactam Trimethoprim - sulphamethoxazole Amoxycillin- clavulanate

2673.

A patient under depression is on paroxetine from past two years, developed a state of confusion, restlessness, fever, hyperreflexia, sweating, diarrhea and shivering. Which one of the following terms would be used to describe these side effects? A. Serotonin syndrome B. Anaphylactic reaction C. Extrapyramidal symptoms D. Withdrawal symptoms

2674. A 69 -year-old male with angina develops severe constipation, this could be due to which
of the following drug? A. Nitroglycerin B. Dipyridamole C. Clopidogrel D. Diltiazem

2675. Which of the following drug and dose of treatment will be most appropriate for urinary
incontinence in pregnant woman? A. B. C. D. Duloxetine 40 mg/day Bethanechol 100 mg/day Tolterodine 2 mg/day Oxybutynin5 mg/day

2676. Which of the followings is the most common drug used in cognitive impairment of
Alzhiemers disease? A. B. C. D. Sertraline Haloperidol Divalproex Mimantine

2677. A pharmacist while dispensing an antidepressant advised the patient to avoid foods such as D
tap beers, liver, aged cheese, yeast extracts and fava beans. Indicate, which one of the following drug possibly was dispensed by the pharmacist? A. B. C. D. Duloxetine Amitriptyline Trazodone Phenelzine

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2678. What is the rationale for the use of diuretics in acute renal failure? A. To prevent complete renal shut down B. To reduce further kidney tubular damage C. Both A & B D. Neither A nor B 2679. A 32 year-old athletic woman visited the gynaecologist with clinical sign and symptoms
including anorexia, chronic weight gain, which has made her to reduce her practice and absence of menses from last one year. Which of the following treatments you advise to overcome her clinical condition. A. B. C. D. Estrogen and progesterone Duloxetine Oral contraceptives Spironolactone

2680.

Which one of the following drug has a risk of abuse but used therapeutically? A. B. C. D. Oxycodone Cannabis Toluene LSD

2681. A patient requires several administration of high- dose cisplatin therapy for the
treatment of lung cancer. During the first cisplatin administration, the patient develops severe nausea and vomiting. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate, to control these symptoms for future administration? A. B. C. D. Phenothiazine Chloropromazine Domperidone Dexamethasone

2682. Which of the following drugs is used in diagnosisof myasthenia gravis?

A. B. C. D. Physostigmine Edrophonium Neostigmine Pyridostigmine

2683.

A 23 year old female patient presented with otitis is not responding to amoxycillinclavulanate therapy. Which of the following will be most appropriate regimen for this patient? A. B. C. D. Trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazoleIV for 7 days Erythromycin IV for 10 days Streptomycin IV for 5 days Ceftriaxone IV for 3 days