REVISION 2

Paper 2 recent recalls

Dr/Ahmed Gad
www.newpetc.com
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Dr. Ahmed Gad

1- Which solute changes the pH of water and organic phase?

a) KCl
b) Na acetate
c) glucose
d) NaCl

2- Which of the following statements is NOT something you would say to a patient who is prescribed
fluconazole 150 mg for vaginal thrush?
a) You should take this medicine exactly as directed by your doctor, usually in a single dose.
b) You should avoid alcohol and grapefruit juice while taking this medicine, as they may increase the
risk of side effects.
c) You should use effective birth control while taking this medicine and for at least one week after your
last dose, as it may harm an unborn baby.
d) You should see your doctor again if your symptoms do not improve or worsen after treatment, as
you may need different medicine or further tests.

3- Is clotrimazole cream safe to use during pregnancy?

a) Yes, it is safe and can be used without any concerns.
b) No, it should be avoided during pregnancy due to potential risks.
c) It is safe in some trimesters but not in others.
d) Safety during pregnancy has not been established.

4- What is the recommended dose of doxycycline for the prevention of malaria in adults?
a) 50 mg once a day
b) 100 mg once a day
c) 200 mg once a day
d) 400 mg once a day

5- Which of the following eye drops is not typically used for the treatment of allergies?
a) Ketotifen
b) Azelastine
c) Dexamethasone
d) Timolol

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6- What is the usual dose of finasteride for the treatment of male pattern hair loss (androgenetic
alopecia)?
a) 1 mg per day
b) 5 mg per day
c) 10 mg per day
d) 0.5 mg per day

7- A patient has been taking digoxin for a heart condition for several years without any issues.
Suddenly, the patient starts showing symptoms of toxicity. What is the most likely reason?
a) The patient has developed an allergy to digoxin.
b) The patient has been exposed to plants or animals that contain similar substances to digoxin.
c) The patient has low potassium, low magnesium, or high calcium levels in the blood.
d) The patient has taken an overdose of digoxin.

8- Buprenorphine is often combined with which drug for the treatment of opioid use disorder?
a) Naloxone
b) Naltrexone
c) Methadone
d) Diazepam

9- What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia infections?

a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Doxycycline
c) Azithromycin
d) Amoxicillin

10- Which medication can be used in the treatment of psoriatic arthritis, especially to help manage
joint inflammation and skin symptoms?
a) Prednisone
b) Mefloquine
c) Hydroxychloroquine
d) Allopurinol

11- A drug has a hepatic excretion rate of 70% and is absorbed by 60%. What is the bioavailability of
the drug?
a) 84%
b) 42%
c) 28%
d) 18%

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12- What can happen when ciprofloxacin is given together with theophylline?
a) Theophylline levels in the blood may increase, leading to potential toxicity.
b) Theophylline levels in the blood may decrease, reducing its effectiveness.
c) Ciprofloxacin may cause an allergic reaction when taken with theophylline.
d) The combination can result in a higher risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

13- Which one is not Eutectic mixture?

a) Sulphur
b) Camphor
c) Menthol
d) Phenol

14- What is the drug of choice for the treatment of clonic seizures?
a) Phenytoin
b) Carbamazepine
c) Valproic acid
d) Benzodiazepines

15- What is the bioavailability of drug that has hepatic excretion of 0.6 ml & 40 % absorption:
a) 1.8%
b) 24%
c) 16%
d) 20%

16- We need to prepare 600 ml of 30% conc. And we have 50% stock solution, how many ml of stock
solution you need?
a) 1000 ml
b) 360 ml
c) 2.5 ml
d) 0.5 L

17- 0.16 mg drug reduced to 0.04 mg in 6 days, calculate the t½

a) 3 days
b) 4 days
c) 2 days
d) 5 days

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18- Plasma conc. is 4 mg/L & safe level is 1mg/L, for a drug have t½ = 1.6 days, for how many days
the drug should be stopped to reach the safe level?
a) 2 days
b) 3.2 days
c) 4 days
d) 1 day

19- How many mmoles of Li present in 300 mg tab of Li2CO3

(Mwt of Li2CO3 = 73.9, Mwt of Li = 6.9)
a) 4 mmoles
b) 8.3 mmoles
c) 16 mmoles
d) 2 mmoles

20- Which antibiotic is least commonly used in the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia
(CAP)?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Azithromycin
c) Cefuroxime
d) Minocycline

21- What is the primary interaction between ketoconazole and rifampin when co-administered?
a) Increased risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
b) Enhanced antifungal activity of ketoconazole.
c) Increased plasma levels of ketoconazole.
d) Decreased plasma levels of ketoconazole.

22- Which of the following factors is least likely to be involved in the oral absorption of a drug?
a) Half-life (t1/2)
b) Weight of the drug molecule
c) Solubility in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
d) First-pass metabolism

23- Isotonicity is required for which type of preparation?

a) Oral suspension
b) Intramuscular injection
c) Nasal preparation
d) Topical cream

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24- how much of the 100% injection of a drug is required to make 100 ml of admixture containing
7.5 mg in 2.5 ml?
a) 0.3 ml
b) 0.4ml
c) 0.5ml
d) 0.6ml

25- The composition of 2g suppositories is 1.8% Balsam Peru. How many milligrams (mg) of Balsam
Peru is required to prepare 12 suppositories?
a) 200 mg
b) 216 mg
c) 360 mg
d) 432 mg

26- you want to prepare the following ointment

Drug A 2
Drug B 2
Water 20
Wool fat 36
You don’t have wool fate and you have a lanoline instead of it, how many lanoline and water will you
use?
a) 48 Lanoline 8 water
b) 48 Lanoline 12 water
c) 36 Lanolin 8 water
d) 36 Lanolin 20 water

27- Calculate the Css if VD=3L t½= 2.5 hrs and the rate of infusion is 100 mg/hr.
a) 360 mg/L
b) 240 mg/L
c) 120 mg/L
d) 60 mg/L

28- When counseling a patient about using Fentanyl patches, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) Fentanyl patches should be applied to broken or irritated skin to ensure better absorption.
b) The patch should be changed every 72 hours to maintain a constant level of pain relief.
c) Fentanyl patches can be cut into smaller pieces if the prescribed dose is too strong.
d) Fentanyl patches can be disposed of in regular household trash.

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29- A patient has been taking ibuprofen for 7 days before visiting the dentist, and the dentist
prescribes ibuprofen for tooth pain. What is your recommendation?
a) Continue the prescribed ibuprofen as directed by the dentist.
b) Stop taking ibuprofen immediately and inform the dentist about prior usage.
c) Take paracetamol instead of ibuprofen for tooth pain.
d) Consult a physician before taking any medication.

30- Which of the following activities is not known to exacerbate epilepsy?

a) Heavy physical exertion
b) Emotional stress
c) Lack of sleep
d) Moderate exercise

31- Which of the following is a potential interaction between benzodiazepines (BZDs) and
simvastatin?
a) Increased sedation and drowsiness
b) Elevated blood pressure
c) Enhanced cholesterol-lowering effect
d) Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

32- Which of the following drugs is not used for dehydration?

a) Oral rehydration salts
b) Furosemide
c) Lvp solution
d) Isolyte S

33- A patient is taking a statin (cholesterol-lowering medication), an ACE inhibitor (blood pressure
medication), and has developed the flu. What should be given in this situation?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Oseltamivir
c) Paracetamol
d) Loratadine

34- Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between an agonist and
an antagonist regarding their affinity for a receptor?
a) An agonist has higher affinity for the receptor compared to an antagonist.
b) An antagonist has higher affinity for the receptor compared to an agonist.
c) Both agonist and antagonist have equal affinity for the receptor.
d) The affinity of an agonist or antagonist for the receptor is not relevant to their activity.

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35- What is the significance of the interaction between ethinyl estradiol and hypericum (St. John's
wort)?
a) Hypericum decreases the efficacy of ethinyl estradiol, leading to a higher risk of pregnancy.
b) Hypericum increases the efficacy of ethinyl estradiol, improving contraceptive effectiveness.
c) Hypericum has no significant interaction with ethinyl estradiol.
d) Hypericum enhances the absorption of ethinyl estradiol, leading to increased blood levels.

36- What is the primary concern regarding the interaction between gemfibrozil and statins?
a) Increased risk of gastrointestinal side effects
b) Reduced effectiveness of statins in lowering cholesterol levels
c) Risk of rhabdomyolysis and myopathy
d) Elevated blood pressure

37- Which of the following statements is true regarding the interaction between grapefruit juice and
rosuvastatin?
a) Grapefruit juice increases the blood levels of rosuvastatin by inhibiting its metabolism.
b) Grapefruit juice decreases the effectiveness of rosuvastatin by inducing its metabolism.
c) Grapefruit juice does not interact with rosuvastatin to a significant extent.
d) Grapefruit juice enhances the side effects of rosuvastatin by increasing its absorption.

38- How does probenecid interact with aspirin?

a) Probenecid increases the absorption of aspirin in the stomach.
b) Probenecid decreases the metabolism of aspirin in the liver.
c) Probenecid reduces the anti-inflammatory effects of aspirin.
d) Probenecid enhances the reabsorption of aspirin from the kidney.

39- Which of the following is the most effective way to increase the absorption of a neutral drug
across a lipophilic membrane?
a) Increasing the temperature of the solution
b) Increasing the pH of the solution
c) Increasing the surface area of the drug particles
d) Increasing the concentration of the drug in the solution

40- Which of the following factors is absorption NOT dependent on?

a) pH of the environment
b) Presence of food in the stomach
c) t1/2
d) Presence of other drugs

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41- Which counseling point is appropriate for statin use?

a) Take with food.
b) Take on an empty stomach.
c) Take in the morning.
d) Take at night.

42- Which of the following factors is NOT a significant contributor to the excretion of drugs in breast
milk?
a) Low maternal plasma concentration
b) Lipid solubility of the drug
c) Molecular weight of the drug
d) pka of the drug

43- When counseling a patient about transdermal patches, what advice should be given regarding
their application?
a) Apply patches directly over areas of intense heat.
b) Apply patches on hairy skin for better absorption.
c) Avoid exposing patches to direct heat sources.
d) Cut patches into smaller pieces for more controlled dosing.

44- What key event occurs during the early stages of HIV infection?
a) RNA to RNA
b) DNA to RNA
c) RNA to DNA
d) DNA to DNA

45- Which combination of two drugs is most likely to cause hypokalemia?

a) Thiazide and Digoxin
b) Hydrochlorothiazide and Lisinopril
c) Hydrochlorothiazide alone
d) Amiloride and Lisinopril

46- Factors that affect Aminophylline dose except?

a) Age
b) Renal function
c) Diet
d) Weight

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47- How many ml of 30 ppm is required to produce 600ml of 0.0015 %w/v?

a) 100 mL
b) 200 mL
c) 300 mL
d) 400 mL

48- What is the % w/w of bicarbonate in a saturated solution prepared by dissolving 2 grams of
bicarbonate in 20 mL of water (density of water = 1 g/mL)?
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 20%

49- What is the volume of castor oil is required to prepare 500g of zinc in castor oil solution with
conc. of 50%w/w solution (density of the solution 0.9g/ml)?
a) 100 ml
b) 278 ml
c) 250 ml
d) 1110 ml

50- 1 g penicillin every 6hour and given for 3 days. if 150 mg equivalent to 250,000 units then how
many units will be in total dose.?
a) 20 U
b) 200 U
c) 2 million U
d) 20 million U

51- What is the drug of choice for Enterococcus faecalis infections?

a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Vancomycin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Gentamicin

52- Which medication is recommended to be taken with food to enhance absorption?

a) Sertraline
b) Omeprazole
c) Metformin
d) Atenolol

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53- What is the typical loading dose of Amiodarone used in the treatment of arrhythmias?
a) 100 mg
b) 200 mg
c) 400 mg
d) 600 mg

54- Which opioid is known for its exceptionally long duration of action?
a) Morphine
b) Fentanyl
c) Methadone
d) Hydromorphone

55- What term is used to describe the decrease of radioactivity to 50% of its initial value?
a) Radioactive Decay
b) Half-Life
c) Exponential Decay
d) Isotopic Stability

56- A woman taking rifampicin which is not advised?

a) This medicine might discolour your urine, faeces, sweat, tears or other body fluids.
b) Non-hormonal forms of contraception should be used during treatment and for 4 weeks.
c) Take vitamin B6 to prevent neuropathy.
d) Soft contact lenses may be permanently stained.

57- If a patient has an allergy to penicillin, which is not recommended?

a) Cefaclor
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Cefdinir
d) Aztreonam

58- Sporicidal agent:

a) Glutaraldehyde
b) Benzalkonium chloride
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Resorcinol

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59- Which is not used in Cockcroft gault Equation?

a) Age
b) Body weight
c) Body surface area
d) Serum creatinine

60- Shingles symptoms should be started up to how many hours?

a) Once rash happened
b) 72 hrs after itching
c) One week after itching
d) 10 days after itching

61- Administration of Alendronate + calcium will cause:

a) Complexation
b) Increase absorption of calcium
c) Increase absorption of Alendronate
d) No interaction will happen.

62- Drug to be adjusted for patients who smoke:

a) Propranolol
b) Ibuprofen
c) Olanzapine
d) Omeprazole

63- All can be happened in the interaction between Rifampin & warfarin except:
a) Pour anticoagulant effect.
b) ↓ INR
c) High bleeding tendency
d) ↓ Effect of warfarin

64- If the patient Has epilepsy and Mythenia gravies, what is the anticonvulsant that can be used?
a) Carbamazepine
b) Valproic acid
c) Lacosamide
d) Lamotrigine

65- A patient having HTN and asthma, what is the treatment?

a) Propranolol
b) Ramipril
c) Carvedilol
d) Verapamil

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66- To change the opioid dose regimen:

a) Use equianalgesic dose.
b) Cannot change the formula.
c) Use the same dose with other formula.
d) 10 mg morphine injection is equivalent to 10 mg morphine tablet.

67- When clean chemotherapeutic drugs, which is wrong?

a) Wear nitrile or rubber gloves all the time in dispensary.
b) Crushing of tablets should only be done by pharmacists.
c) Non touch technique should be used to take out from container.
d) Separate designated container should be used for dispensing.

68- A prescription of Methotrexate with the dose of 2.5 mg/kg once every two weeks, how many
tablets are required for 20 kg patient for the next 6 months:(1 tablet = 2.5mg)
a) 520 tabs
b) 240 tabs
c) 260 tabs
d) 120 tabs

69- If the conc. of a drug in the blood is 20mg after 2hrs of administration, and after 20 hrs become
2.5mg, calculate t½:
a) 3hrs.
b) 6hrs.
c) 8hrs.
d) 10hrs.

70- We need to prepare 1L of 0.067M NaCl, and 0.9% NaCl is available, what will we do? (Na= 23,
Cl= 35.5)
a) Dilute it with 0.56 L of water.
b) Dilute it with 0.77 L of water.
c) Dilute it with 1L of water.
d) Use without dilution.

71- 12 years old child have the following prescription

Drug A: 25mg/5ml (300ml solution) 75mg at bedtime
Drug B: 120mg/5ml (300ml solution)150mg bd
Calculate the volume of each drug dispensed for 4 weeks:
a) Drug A 420 ml, Drug B 350 ml
b) Drug A 420 ml, Drug B 175 ml
c) Drug A 840 ml, Drug B 350 ml
d) Drug A 1050 ml, Drug B 2100 ml

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72- Drug infusion rate is 2mg/kg/hr., infused for 12 hours, for 70kg patient. what is total dose?
a) 24mg
b) 140mg
c) 1680mg
d) 840mg

73- How many grams of water are used to prepare 60 g of potassium acetate solution have
concentration 5% w/w:
a) 300 gm
b) 57 gm
c) 3 gm
d) 5.7 gm

74- After 5 half-lives the conc. of the drug will be:

a) 1/4
b) 1/8
c) 1/16
d) 1/32

75- You have 500 ml of a steroid solution containing 200mg of dopamine HCL. You need to infuse
this solution at an appropriate rate (ml/minute) to deliver a dose of 5 mcg/kg/min for 70.5 kg
patient. what is the flow rate?
a) 0.1ml/min
b) 0.88 ml/min
c) 0.98 ml/min
d) 8.9 ml/min

76- How many mg of pilocarpine is required to prepare 25ml of 0.5%w/v solution:

a) 0.5mg
b) 1.25mg
c) 12.5mg
d) 125mg

77- If 500 ml of 15%w/v methyl salicylate is diluted to 1750 ml, what is the final conc.:
a) 4.29%w/v
b) 2.14%w/v
c) 6.34%w/v
d) 8.57%w/v

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78- Which one of the following antihypertensives cannot be used for a patient having hypertension +
depression?
a) Enalapril
b) Atenolol
c) Verapamil
d) Methyldopa

79- Oleic acid is used in pharmaceutical industry in all except:

a) Emulsifying agents.
b) Anionic surfactant.
c) Solubilizing agents in aerosol products.
d) Lubricating agents in tablet.

80- Which of the following statements is true about vancomycin in skin infections?
a) Vancomycin is the drug of choice for all skin infections caused by (MRSA).
b) Vancomycin is less effective than antistaphylococcal beta-lactams for methicillin-susceptible S.
aureus infections.
c) Vancomycin is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and does not require parenteral
administration.
d) Vancomycin has no risk of serious skin reactions and can be continued even if signs or symptoms
such as a rash or peeling occur.

81- How to dispose of ibuprofen that is expired, unwanted, or unused?

a) Flush it down the toilet
b) Mix it with an unappealing substance and put it in a sealed container or bag.
c) Return it to the pharmacy or a drug take-back program.
d) Throw it away in the original packaging.

82- What are the tophi?

a) Deposits of monosodium urate crystals in people with longstanding high levels of uric acid in the
blood
b) Deposits of calcium phosphate crystals in people with chronic kidney disease
c) Deposits of cholesterol crystals in people with high levels of lipids in the blood
d) Deposits of amyloid fibrils in people with systemic amyloidosis

83- Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration in children?

a) Dry mouth and tongue
b) No tears when crying.
c) Sunken eyes and cheeks
d) Rapid breathing

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84- In Dehydration, which ion is more affected?

a) Sodium.
b) Potassium
c) Chloride
d) Magnesium

85- What does it mean if the volume of distribution is low?

a) The drug is highly concentrated in the bloodstream.
b) The drug is evenly distributed throughout the body.
c) The drug is primarily localized in specific tissues or compartments.
d) The drug is rapidly eliminated from the body.

86- What factor changes rectal absorption to be less?

a) Gastric emptying rate
b) Presence of food in the stomach
c) Drug solubility in water
d) Intestinal pH

87- What is the definition of passive diffusion?

a) Movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
b) Transport of molecules across a membrane with the help of carrier proteins.
c) Passage of molecules across a membrane driven by concentration gradients without the use of
energy.
d) Active transport of molecules against the concentration gradient.

88- Which of the following statements is correct when counselling a patient who is prescribed
chloramphenicol eye drops for bacterial conjunctivitis?
a) The patient should use the eye drops every two hours initially, then reduce the frequency as the
infection improves.
b) The patient should stop using the eye drops as soon as the symptoms disappear.
c) The patient should avoid wearing contact lenses while using the eye drops.
d) The patient should discard the eye drops after 14 days of opening.

89- Sodium ricinoleate is:

a) A bactericide that is used in making soap and toothpaste.
b) A sodium salt of ricinoleic acid, the principal fatty acid derived from olive oil.
c) Anionic surfactant that is not irritant to human skin and mucous membranes.
d) A polymorphic substance that exhibits several structural phases.

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90- Antibiotic use for bacteroid fragilis:

a) Cefoxitin,
b) Moxifloxacin
c) Clindamycin
d) Metronidazole

91- What is the concentration of chlorhexidine in the eye drops used to treat Acanthamoeba
keratitis?
a) 0.01%
b) 0.02%
c) 0.05%
d) 0.1%

92- Time of disintegration of most uncoated tablet is:

a) 2 min
b) 30 min
c) 2 hrs
d) 4hrs

93- All the following are an appropriate counseling tip for administration of otic drops except
a) "Warm the solution before administration to improve effectiveness. “
b) "Tilt your head backward while administering the drops. “
c) "Shake the bottle vigorously before each use. “
d) "Administer the drops immediately after swimming."

94- How many ml of 1:60 stock solution of Ephedrine sulphate would be needed to make 30 ml of a
product with conc. 0.25%w/v:
a) 2.5ml
b) 3.5ml
c) 4ml
d) 4.5ml

95- A pharmacist is required to produce a litter of sodium chloride solution of 4.5% w/v, the only
available sodium chloride is in the form of tablets each containing 2.25 g and NaCl. the
number of tablets required is:
a) 45 tabs
b) 20 tabs
c) 9 tabs
d) 2 tabs

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96- How much Ichthammol would be required to added to a 6%w/w Ichthammol in WSP ointment to
prepare 500 g of a 20% w/w Ichthammol in WSP?
a) 14gm
b) 64.5gm
c) 74.5gm
d) 84.5gm

97- What is the amount of Magnesium chloride (MgCl2.6H2O; MW =203.3) required to prepare 100
ml of solution such that 10 ml diluted to 1 litre yields a solution containing 0.30 mEq of
Mgᶧ²/ml?
a) 305 g
b) 305 mg
c) 30.5 mg
d) 610 mg

98- How many mOsm are contained in the following solution?

Disodium Hydrogen Phosphate 2g (Na2HPO4.12H2O; MW=358.1)
Potassium Dihydrogen Phosphate 1g (KH2PO4; MW=136.1)
Purified water to 100 ml
a) 31.45
b) 16.7
c) 23.3
d) 3.67

99- The pka value for Acetic Acid is 4.8. A buffer solution containing 0.1 mol/L Acetic Acid and 0.2
mol/L Sodium acetate would have a pH of:
a) 4.8
b) 4.9
c) 5.1
d) 5.8

100- A solution of an antibiotic compound was found to lose 50% of its potency within 5.5 days
when stored in the refrigerator, assuming first order the degradation what is the shelf life
under these conditions?
a) 7 hrs
b) 12 hrs
c) 13.7 hrs
d) 20 hrs

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101- A doctor orders a 2g vial of Amoxicillin Sodium to be added to 500L of intravenous fluid. The
intravenous administration rate is 125ml/hour. Assuming a uniform rate of flow, how much
Amoxicillin Sodium will the patient receive per minute?
a) 833 mg
b) 83.3 mg
c) 8.33 mg
d) 300 mg

102- If Digoxin has a half-life of 35 hrs how long will it take for a toxic plasma concentration of 8
ng/mL to decline to a therapeutic plasma concentration of 2 ng/mL?
a) 17.5 hrs
b) 35 hrs
c) 70 hrs
d) 105 hrs

103- An example of two products that are pharmaceutically equivalent are:

a) Diazepam 2 mg and Diazepam 5 mg tablets Clearance
b) A 300 mg extended-release theophylline tablet and a 300 mg extended-release theophylline
capsule.
c) Haloperidol decanoate injection and haloperidol lactate injection
d) A 100 mg Normadyne tablet and a 100 mg Trandate tablet

104- To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine

a) t1/2
b) Body clearance
c) Fraction protein bound.
d) Volume of distribution

105- All are true about sodium laurayl sulphate except:

a) Compatible with ichthammol and econazole nitrate
b) Anionic surfactant
c) Form o/w emulsion
d) Compatible with cetrimide

106- What is most appropriate about head lice:

a) Deposit their eggs on fibers of clothing.
b) Size about 2-3 mm don’t have wings.
c) Coming to the skin surface only to feed.
d) Are associated with improper hygiene and are often present in homeless people.

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107- All the following treatments for personal articles infested with head lice would be effective
except:
a) Placing woolen hats in a plastic bag for 2 weeks.
b) using an aerosol of pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide sprayed in the air of all bathrooms.
c) machine-washing clothes in hot water and drying them using the hot setting on the dryer.
d) dry-cleaning woolen scarves.

108- Which of the following is an incorrect statement about benzoyl peroxide?

a) Benzoyl peroxide can bleach hair and fabrics that encounter it.
b) Benzoyl peroxide can cause stinging or irritation if it gets into the eyes.
c) Benzoyl peroxide can be used in combination with other acne medications.
d) Benzoyl peroxide can be applied more than twice a day for better results.

109- To prepare tincture iodine:

a) Dissolve iodine and KI in alcohol then add water.
b) Dissolve KI with purified water then add iodine then alcohol.
c) Dissolve KI in alcohol then add iodine.
d) Mix iodine, KI, and water at the same time.

110- Which of the following is the correct method for the preparation of clindamycin cream in a
pharmacy lab?
a) Mix clindamycin with water, then add alcohol.
b) Mix clindamycin with propylene glycol, then add alcohol and water.
c) Mix clindamycin with alcohol, then add water.
d) Mix clindamycin with water first, then add alcohol and propylene glycol.

111- Tablet hardness range is normally

a) 0.5 to 1.0 kg
b) 1 to 2.0 kg
c) 2.0 to 3.5 kg
d) 3.5 to 7.0 kg

112- A class of plant alkaloids widely used to treat migraine is

a) Vinca alkaloids
b) Digitalis glycosides
c) Stramonium alkaloids
d) Ergot alkaloids

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113- Daunorubicin and doxorubicin have been commonly associated with

a) Ulcers
b) Cardiac toxicity
c) Colitis
d) Gout

114- Vincristine has been commonly associated with which of the following adverse events?
a) Neurotoxicity
b) Gout
c) Duodenal ulcers
d) Blood clotting

115- All the following are examples of type I immediate or allergic hypersensitivity except:
a) Hay fever
b) Pollen allergy
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
d) Allergic asthma

116- Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to which of the following compounds?

a) Thiocyanate
b) Copper
c) Nitroglycerin
d) Depo-prusside

117- Capping of tablets is due to:

a) Air entrapment in a compact during compression
b) Static charges on powders.
c) Unequal color distribution.
d) Insufficient lubricants.

118- Coal tar should not be used with some UV treatment.

a) Because it causes photosensitivity.
b) Because it is irritating the skin
c) It will stain skin.
d) Cause a rash or acne-like breakout.

119- Which is true about lanolin:

a) It is a mixture of many different chemical polar compounds, including carboxylic acids.
b) Lanolin contains more water than wool fat.
c) Derived from plant origin.
d) Contains less fat content than petroleum jelly.

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120- Which is not included in pharmacopeial tablet testing?

a) Dissolution test
b) Uniformity of content
c) Tablet uniformity
d) Disintegration time test

121- Which one is not a sunscreen ingredient?

a) Titanium dioxide
b) Salicylic acid
c) Zinc oxide
d) Octocrylene

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▪ Some general tips for using otic drops:

1) Wash your hands before and after using the drops.
2) Tilt your head to the side or lie down with the affected ear facing up.
3) Gently pull the earlobe up and back (for adults) or down and back (for children) to
straighten the ear canal.
4) Carefully squeeze the recommended number of drops into the ear canal without
touching the dropper tip to the ear or any other surface.
5) Keep your head tilted or stay lying down for a few minutes to allow the drops to reach
the eardrum.
6) Wipe away any excess drops with a tissue or cotton ball.
7) Replace the cap on the bottle and store it as instructed.

▪ Some general tips for using benzoyl peroxide are:

1) Apply benzoyl peroxide to clean and dry skin.
2) Wash your face gently with a mild soap or cleanser and pat it dry before applying the
product.
3) Do not apply benzoyl peroxide immediately after washing the face, as this may increase
the risk of irritation and dryness.
4) Use a moisturizer and sunscreen while using benzoyl peroxide.
5) Benzoyl peroxide can cause dryness, peeling, redness, and sensitivity to sunlight. To
prevent these side effects, use a non-comedogenic (does not clog pores) moisturizer
and a broad-spectrum sunscreen with SPF 30 or higher every day. Apply the moisturizer
and sunscreen after the benzoyl peroxide has dried completely.
6) Apply benzoyl peroxide to the entire affected area, not just to individual pimples.
7) Benzoyl peroxide usually takes about 4 to 6 weeks to show noticeable improvement in
acne, and up to 12 weeks to see the full effect.

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Answers

1 B 26 A 51 C 76 D 101 C
2 B 27 C 52 A 77 A 102 C
3 A 28 B 53 D 78 D 103 D
4 B 29 B 54 C 79 D 104 D
5 D 30 D 55 B 80 B 105 D
6 A 31 A 56 C 81 B 106 B
7 C 32 B 57 A 82 A 107 B
8 A 33 B 58 A 83 D 108 D
9 C 34 B 59 C 84 A 109 A
10 A 35 A 60 B 85 A 110 B
11 D 36 C 61 A 86 C 111 D
12 A 37 C 62 C 87 C 112 D
13 A 38 C 63 C 88 C 113 B
14 C 39 C 64 C 89 C 114 A
15 C 40 C 65 D 90 D 115 C
16 B 41 D 66 A 91 B 116 A
17 A 42 A 67 B 92 B 117 A
18 B 43 C 68 C 93 A 118 A
19 B 44 C 69 B 94 D 119 B
20 D 45 A 70 A 95 B 120 C
21 D 46 C 71 A 96 C 121 B
22 A 47 C 72 C 97 A
23 C 48 C 73 B 98 A
24 A 49 B 74 D 99 C
25 D 50 D 75 B 100 D

This Photo by Unknown Author is licensed under CC BY-NC

REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD