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This document outlines the examination process and guidelines for candidates, including instructions on submitting answer sheets, penalties for incorrect answers, and specific directions for answering questions based on provided statements. It also includes various technical questions related to electrical circuits, RLC circuits, and related calculations with given answers, as well as contact information for coaching centers specializing in engineering exams.
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C h a p t e r 12 / Electrical Properties
It was noted in ͕Section 5.12͖ that an image is generated on a scanning electron micrograph as a beam of electrons scans the surface of the specimen being examined. The electrons in this beam cause some of the specimen surface atoms to emit x-rays; the energy of an x-ray photon depends on the particular atom from which it radiates. It is possible to selectively filter out all but the x-rays emitted from one kind of atom. When projected on a cathode ray tube, small white dots are produced indicating the locations of the particular atom type; thus, a ''dot map'' of the image is generated. Top: Scanning electron micrograph of an integrated circuit. Center: A silicon dot map for the integrated circuit above, showing regions where silicon atoms are concentrated. Doped silicon is the semiconducting material from which integrated circuit elements are made. Bottom: An aluminum dot map. Metallic aluminum is an electrical conductor and, as such, wires the circuit elements together. Approximately 200؋.
Material parameters for electrostriction
Journal of Applied Physics, 1996
Electrostriction is often described by a phenomenological tensor relating a material's deformation to an applied electric field. However, this tensor is not a material parameter; for deformable, weakly compressible materials ͑e.g., elastomers͒, the field-induced deformations depend strongly upon boundary conditions. A different approach that relates the deformation to material properties as well as boundary conditions is required. In this article, we describe a linear theory which introduces five material parameters governing electrostriction: the relative dielectric constant, ⑀ 0 , two derivatives of the dielectric constant tensor, a 1 and a 2 , Young's modulus, E y and Poisson's ratio,. Knowledge of these parameters and appropriate boundary conditions allow one to predict field-induced deformations for arbitrary configurations. We demonstrate an experimental procedure for measuring deformations and permittivity changes, from which the parameters a 1 and a 2 may be extracted (⑀ 0 , , and E y can be measured by a variety of established methods͒. The linear theory reproduces experimental results for two polyurethane films at small to moderate electric field strengths. We find that the electrostatic force associated with the parameters a 1 and a 2 is at least ten times larger than the Coulombic attractive force between the electrodes.
Contents lists available at ScienceDirect Electrochimica Acta
2016
jo u r n al hom ep age: www.elsev ier.com Study o em
Electrical, Magnetic and Electronic Properties of Materials
Aarushi Publications
A full sample chapter from the book "Magnetic and Electronic Properties of Materials".
Relations between the constants of electrostrictive materials and some examples of their application to piezoelectric ceramics
Electronics and Communications in Japan (Part III: Fundamental Electronic Science)
This paper describes the piezoelectric phenomenon caused by the electrostrictive effect from the standpoint of material constants. First, the e, d, g, and h types of basic equations for the piezoelectric phenomenon including the nonlinear terms will be discussed to clarify the transformation formula between nonlinear constants.
SERWAY Fisica Electricidad y Magnetismo Soluciones
Electric Fields CHAPTER OUTLINE 23.1 Properties of Electric Charges 23.2 Charging Objects by Induction 23.3 Coulomb's Law 23.4 The Electric Field 23.5 Electric Field of a Continuous Charge Distribution 23.6 Electric Field Lines 23.7 Motion of a Charged Particle in a Uniform Electric Field ANSWERS TO QUESTIONS Q23.1 A neutral atom is one that has no net charge. This means that it has the same number of electrons orbiting the nucleus as it has protons in the nucleus. A negatively charged atom has one or more excess electrons. *Q23.2 (i) Suppose the positive charge has the large value 1 mC. The object has lost some of its conduction electrons, in number 10 −6 C (1 e/1.60 × 10 −19 C) = 6.25 × 10 12 and in mass 6.25 × 10 12 (9.11 × 10 −31 kg) = 5.69 × 10 −18 kg. This is on the order of 10 14 times smaller than the ~1g mass of the coin, so it is an immeasurably small change. Answer (d). (ii) The coin gains extra electrons, gaining mass on the order of 10 −14 times its original mass for the charge −1 m C. Answer (b). Q23.3 All of the constituents of air are nonpolar except for water. The polar water molecules in the air quite readily "steal" charge from a charged object, as any physics teacher trying to perform electrostatics demonstrations in the summer well knows. As a result-it is diffi cult to accumulate large amounts of excess charge on an object in a humid climate. During a North American winter, the cold, dry air allows accumulation of signifi cant excess charge, giving the potential (pun intended) for a shocking (pun also intended) introduction to static electricity sparks. Q23.4 Similarities: A force of gravity is proportional to the product of the intrinsic properties (masses) of two particles, and inversely proportional to the square of the separation distance. An electrical force exhibits the same proportionalities, with charge as the intrinsic property. Differences: The electrical force can either attract or repel, while the gravitational force as described by Newton's law can only attract. The electrical force between elementary particles is vastly stronger than the gravitational force. Chapter 23 *Q23.6 Answer (c). Each charge produces fi eld as if it were alone in the Universe. *Q23.7 (i) According to the inverse square law, the fi eld is one-fourth as large at twice the distance. The answer is (c), 2 × 36 cm = 72 cm. (ii) The fi eld is four times stronger at half the distance away from the charge. Answer (b). Q23.8 An electric fi eld created by a positive or negative charge extends in all directions from the charge. Thus, it exists in empty space if that is what surrounds the charge. There is no material at point A in Figure 23.21(a), so there is no charge, nor is there a force. There would be a force if a charge were present at point A, however. A fi eld does exist at point A. *Q23.9 (i) We compute q A q B /r 2 in each case. In (a) it is 400/4 = 100 (nC/cm) 2. In (b) and (c), 300/4 = 75 (nC/cm) 2. In (d) 600/9 = 67 (nC/cm) 2. In (e) 900/9 = 100 (nC/cm) 2. The ranking is then a = e > b = c > d. (ii) We compute q A /r 2 in each case. In (a) it is 20/4 = 5 nC/cm 2. In (b) 30/4 = 7.5 nC/cm 2. In (c) 10/4 = 2.5 nC/cm 2. In (d) 30/9 = 3.3 nC/cm 2. In (e) 45/9 = 5 nC/cm 2. The ranking is then b > a = e > d > c. *Q23.10 The charge at the upper left creates at the fi eld point electric fi eld to the left, with magnitude we call E 1. The charge at lower right creates downward electric fi eld with an equal magnitude E 1. These two charges together create fi eld 2 1 E downward and to the left at 45°. The positive charge is 2 times farther from the fi eld point so it creates fi eld 2E 1 /(2) 2 = E 1 upward and to the right. The net fi eld is then 21 1 − () E downward and to the left. The answer to question (i) is (d). (ii) With the positive charge removed, the magnitude of the fi eld becomes 2 1 E , larger than before, so the answer is (a). *Q23.11 The certain point must be on the same line as A and B, for otherwise the fi eld components perpendicular to this line would not add to zero. If the certain point is between A and B, it is midway between them, and B's charge is also +40 nC. If the certain point is 4 cm from A and 12 cm from B, then B's charge must be −9(40 nC) = −360 nC. These are the only two possibilities. The answers are (a), (f), and (j). Q23.12 The direction of the electric fi eld is the direction in which a positive test charge would feel a force when placed in the fi eld. A charge will not experience two electrical forces at the same time, but the vector sum of the two. If electric fi eld lines crossed, then a test charge placed at the point at which they cross would feel a force in two directions. Furthermore, the path that the test charge would follow if released at the point where the fi eld lines cross would be indeterminate. Q23.13 Both fi gures are drawn correctly. E 1 and E 2 are the electric fi elds separately created by the point charges q 1 and q 2 in Figure 23.12 or q and-q in Figure 23.13, respectively. The net electric fi eld is the vector sum of E 1 and E 2 , shown as E. Figure 23.19 shows only one electric fi eld line at each point away from the charge. At the point location of an object modeled as a point charge, the direction of the fi eld is undefi ned, and so is its magnitude. *Q23.14 Answer (a). The equal-magnitude radially directed fi eld contributions add to zero. *Q23.15 Answer (c). Contributions to the total fi eld from bits of charge in the disk lie closer together in direction than for the ring. Electric Fields 3 *Q23.16 (i) Answer (c). Electron and proton have equal-magnitude charges. (ii) Answer (b). The proton's mass is 1836 times larger than the electron's. *Q23.17 Answer (b). Q23.18 Linear charge density, l, is charge per unit length. It is used when trying to determine the electric fi eld created by a charged rod. Surface charge density, s, is charge per unit area. It is used when determining the electric fi eld above a charged sheet or disk. Volume charge density, r, is charge per unit volume. It is used when determining the electric fi eld due to a uniformly charged sphere made of insulating material. Q23.19 No. Life would be no different if electrons were + charged and protons were-charged. Opposite charges would still attract, and like charges would repel. The naming of + and-charge is merely a convention. Q23.20 In special orientations the force between two dipoles can be zero or a force of repulsion. In general each dipole will exert a torque on the other, tending to align its axis with the fi eld created by the fi rst dipole. After this alignment, each dipole exerts a force of attraction on the other.
Test Booklet Series
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
(OBJECCTIVE TYPE)
PAPER – I
B
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE
MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART – A and 60 in PART – B.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you
want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent
to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happiness to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii)If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 2 ::
Directions:
Each of the next Ten(10) items
consists of two statements, one
labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the
other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to
examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these items
using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement
(II) are individually true and
Statement (II) is the correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement
(II) are individually true but
Statement (II) is NOT the correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is a true but
Statement (I) is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but
Statement (II) is true
01. Statement (I): The Dielectric constant
of a substance, under the influence of
alternating electric fields is, in general,
a ‘complex’ quantity.
Statement (II): The ‘imaginary’ part
of the Dielectric constant is a measure
of the dielectric loss in the substance.
Ans: (b)
02. Statement (I): A large number of
metals
become
super-conducting
below a certain temperature which is
characteristic of the particular metal.
Statement (II):
Superconducting
compounds and alloys must have
components which are themselves
super conducting.
Ans: (c)
03. Statement(I): Electrostriction occurs
due to piezoelectricity which in the
reverse effect i.e. the production of
polarization
on
application
of
mechanical stress if the lattice has no
centre of symmetry.
Statement (II): When an electric field
is applied to a substance it becomes
polarized, the electrons and nuclei
assume new geometric positions and
the mechanical dimensions of the
substance are altered.
Ans: (b)
04. Statements (I): by measuring the Halleffect voltage, one can determine:
(a) The strength of the filed in terms of
the current, or
(b) The current in terms of the fields
Statement (II): In the case of a semiconductor, the mobility of the carriers
can be determined by using (b), so
long as only one kind of carrier is
present.
Ans: (a)
05. Statement (I): In an ac dynamometer
type wattmeter the instantaneous value
of developed deflecting torque is
proportional to the product of voltage
and current in the respective coils at
the corresponding instant, the constant
of proportionality being the same as in
the case of dc use.
Statement (II): The moving system of
the meter is prevented by its inertia
from following the variations in the
deflecting torque which takes place
during each cycle, and takes up a
position corresponding to the average
value of the torque.
Ans: (b)
06. Statement (I): Electrostatic Wattmeter
is not widely used commercially
because of its inability to measure
power of high value.
Statement (II): It is used mainly for
very small power measurement at high
voltages and low power factors.
Ans: (a)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 3 ::
07. Statement (I):
Chopper-stabilized
amplifier amplifies direct currents with
large gain and excellent dc stability.
Statement (II): The amplifier is ac
coupled and provides very high
resistance to direct current.
Ans: (c)
08. Statement (I): Force and pressure can
be measured by using capacitive
transducer.
Statement (II): Capacitive transducer
can be used to measure both static and
dynamic phenomena.
Ans: (c)
09. Statement (I): A Watt-hour meter
must be calibrated at both full rated
load as well as at 10% of rated load.
Statement (II): The source of error at
full load is inaccurate damping and at
light loads, the torque is not exactly
proportional to load.
Ans: (a)
10. Statement (I): For random error with
normal distribution, Probable error =
0.6745 , where
is the standard
deviation.
Statement (II): Probable error
is
that error value where there is a 50%
chance that any observation has a
random error no greater than
.
Ans: (a)
11. A quantitative relation between
induced emf and rate f change of flux
linkage is known as
(a) Maxwell’s law
(b) Stoke’s law
(c) Lenz’s law
(d) Faraday’s law
Ans: (d)
12. Two identical coaxial circular loops
carry the same current circulating in
the same direction. If the loops
approached each other, then the current
in
(a) each one of them will increase
(b) both of them will remain the same
(c) each one of them will decrease
(d) one will increase while in the other
the current will decrease
Ans: (b)
13. If E = 0 at all points on a closed
surface,
1. The electric flux through the
surface is zero
2. The total charge enclosed by the
surface is zero.
3. charge resides on the surface
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: (a)
14. A long straight wire carries a current
I=10 A, the magnetic field at a distance
of 1.59 m is
(a) 0.1 Am-1
(b) 1 Am-1
-1
(c) 10Am
(d) 100 Am-1
Ans: (b)
15. If the magnetic flux through each turn
of the coil consisting of 200 turns is
(t2-3t) milli-Webers, where t is in
seconds, then the induced emf in the
coil at t = 4 sec is
(a) -1V
(b) 1V
(c) -0.1 V
(d) 0.1V
Ans: (a)
16. The electrostatic force of repulsion
between two -particles of charges
4.0 10-19C each, and separated by a
distance of 10-10cm is
(Given 0 = 8.854 10-12 Nm2/Coul2)
(a) 57.6 10-4N (b) 28.8 10-4N
(c) 14.4 10-4N (d) 3.6 10-4N
Ans: (c)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 4 ::
17. Consider the following statements
regarding magnetic materials:
1. A diamagnetic material has no
permanent dipole
2. Paramagnetic material has anti
parallel orientation of equal
moments with neighboring
dipoles.
3. Ferrimagnetic material has anti
parallel orientation of unequal
moments between neighbouring
dipoles.
4. Anti ferromagnetic material has
negligible interaction between
neighbouring dipoles.
Which of those statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
18. Consider the following statements
regarding hysteresis loops of hard and
soft magnetic materials:
1. Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic
material will be less than that of
soft material.
2. Coercivity of hard material will
be greater than that of soft
material.
3. Retentivity of the two materials
will always be equal
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
20. Loss-tangent in plane waves in lossy
dielectrics will be
(a) proportional to the Y component
of the magnetic field intensity
(HY).
(b) inversely proportional to the Y
component of the magnetic field
intensity (HY)
(c) inversely proportional to the X
component of the magnetic field
intensity (HX)
(d) proportional to X component of
the magnetic field intensity (HX).
Ans: no- answer
21. Transverse Electro-magnetic waves are
characterized by
(a) During wave propagation in Zdirection, the components of H
and E are transverse 60o to the
direction of propagation of the
waves.
(b) During wave propagation in Zdirection, the components of H
and E are transverse to the
direction of propagation of the
wave
(c) During wave propagation in Zdirection, the components of H
and E are transverse 120o to the
direction of propagation of the
waves.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
19. The inconsistency of continuity
equation for time varying fields was
corrected by Maxwell and the
correction applied was
D
(a) Ampere’s law
t
(b) Gauss’s law, J
(c) Faraday’s law,
(d) Ampere’s law,
B
t
P
t
22. Orientational polarization is
(a) inversely proportional to
temperature and proportional to
the square of the permanent
dipole moment.
(b) proportional to temperature as
well as to the square of the
permanent dipole moment.
(c) proportional to temperature and
inversely proportional to the
square of the permanent dipole
moment.
Ans: (a)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 5 ::
(d) Inversely proportional to
temperature as well as to the
square of the dipole moment.
Ans: (a)
23. Two media are characterized as :
1. r =1, r =4 and =0
2. r =4, r =4 and =0
Where: r = relative permittivity
r = relative permittivity
= conductivity
The ratio of the intrinsic impedance of
the media 2 to media 1 is
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 1:1
(d) 2:2
Ans: (b)
24. A transmission line of characteristic
impedance 50
is terminated at one
end by +j50 . The VSWR produced
by the line is
(a) +1
(b) 0
(c)
(d) +j
Ans: (c)
25. A loss-less transmission line having
characteristic
impedance
Z0
is
terminated in a load of ZR . If the
value of ZR is exactly half of Z0 then
reflection coefficient L is
(a)
1
3
(c)
(b)
1
3
(d)
2
3
2
3
Ans: (c)
26. Volt-box is basically a device used for
(a) measuring the voltage
(b) extending the range of voltmeter
(c) extending the voltage range of the
potentiometer
(d) measuring power
Ans: (c)
27. To minimize voltmeter loading
(a) Voltmeter operating current has
to be very small
(b) Voltmeter operating current has
to be very high.
(c) resistance connected in serried
with the coil should be low
(d) resistance connected in parallel
with the coil should be high.
Ans: (a)
28. A 3-phase moving coil type power
factor meter has three fixed and
symmetrically spaced current coils,
inside of which are three other
similarly placed moving potential
coils. While in operation, rotating
magnetic field is produced.
(a) in the current coils but not in the
potential coils
(b) in the potential coils but not in the
current coils
(c) in both potential coils and the
current coils
(d) in neither the potential coils nor
the current coils.
Ans: (c)
29. In a low power factor wattmeter, some
times compensating coil is connected
in order to
(a) neutralize the capacitive effect of
pressure coil
(b) compensate for inductance of
pressure coil.
(c) compensate for power loss in the
pressure coil.
(d) reduce the error caused by eddy
current.
Ans: (c)
30. The current and potential coil of a
watt-meter
were
accidentally
interchanged while connecting. After
energizing the circuit, it was observed
that the watt- meter did not show the
reading. This would be due to
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 6 ::
(a) damage done to the potential coil
(b) damage done to the current coil
(c) damage done to both potential and
current coils.
(d) loose contact.
(c) Eliminating the effect of earth
capacitances.
(d) Eliminating the effect of intercomponent capacitances.
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
0
31. A current i = 5+14.14 sin(314t+45 ) is
passed through a centre-zero PMMC,
hot-wire, and moving-iron instrument,
the respective readings are
(a) -5, 15 and 125
(b) 5, 125 and 125
(c) -5, 125 and 19.14
(d) 5, 10 and 10
Ans: (b)
32. The galvanometer is protected during
transport by
(a) connecting critical damping
resistance across the
galvanometer terminals
(b) shorting the galvanometer
terminals
(c) keeping the galvanometer
terminals open-circuited
(d) connecting a capacitor across the
galvanometer terminals.
Ans: (a)
33. A frequency counter needs to measure
a frequency of 15 Hz. Its signal gating
time is 2s. What is the percentage
accuracy of the counter, taking into
account the gating error?
(a) 3.33%
(b) 13.33%
(c) 98.67%
(d) 96.67%
Ans:
34. Wagner’s earthing devices is used in
A.C. brides for
(a) shielding the bridge element
(b) eliminating the stray of earth
capacitance
35. A bridge circuit works at a frequency
of 2 kHz. The following can be used as
detectors for detection of null
conditions in the bridges.
(a) Vibration galvanometers and
Head- phones.
(b) Headphones and tunable
amplifiers
(c) Vibration galvanometers and
Tunable amplifiers.
(d) Vibration galvanometers, Head
phones and Tunable amplifier.
Ans: (b)
36. A current transformer has a phase error
of +3o. The phase angle between the
primary and secondary currents is
(a) 3o
(b) 177o
(c) 180o
(d) 183o
Ans: (b)
37. Electronic voltmeters which use
rectifiers employ negative feedback.
This is done
(a) to increase the overall gain
(b) to improve the stability
(c) to overcome the non-linearity of
diodes
(d) to increase the bandwidth
Ans: (c)
38. Creep error may occur in induction
type energy meter due to
(a) incorrect position of brake magnet
(b) incorrect adjustment of position of
shading band.
(c) over voltage across voltage coil.
(d) increase in temperature.
Ans: (c)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 7 ::
39. An 8-bit successive approximation
DVM of 5V range is used to measure
1.2 v. the contents of the SAR after 5
clock pulses is
(a) 01010000
(b) 00111100
(c) 00111000
(d) 00110111
Ans: (b)
40. In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator
frequency is 400 kHz. A ramp voltage
to be measured by this voltmeter falls
from 8 V to 0 V in 20 ms. The number
of pulses counted by the counter is
(a) 8000
(b) 4000
(c) 3200
(d) 1600
43. In a digital data acquisition system, a
scanner-multiplexer
(a) scans the printed diagram and
converts it into digital data.
(b) accepts multiple digital inputs
and output any one of them with
select lines
(c) Accepts multiple analog inputs
and sequentially connects them to
an ADC
(d) Checks the correct functioning of
the modulus one by one.
Ans: (c)
44. The number of bits of A/D converter
required to convert an analog input in
the range of 0-5 volt to an accuracy of
10 mV is
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 16
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
41. While using a frequency counter for
measuring frequency, two modes of
measurement are possible. (i) Period
mode (ii) Frequency mode. There is a
‘cross-over frequency’ below which
the period mode is preferred.
Assuming the crystal oscillator
frequency to be 4 MHZ the cross-over
frequency is given by
(a) 8 MHz
(b) 2 MHz
(c) 2 kHz
(d) 1 kHz
45. The drift velocity of electron in Silicon
(a) is proportional to electric field for
all values of electric field.
(b) is independent of electric field.
(c) increases at lower values and
decreases at higher values of
electric field
(d) increases linearly with electric
field at low values and gradually
saturates at higher values of
electric field.
Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
42. Which of the following instrument will
be used to measure a small current of
very high frequency?
(a) Electrodynamic ammeter
(b) Moving coil galvanometer
(c) Thermocouple type instrument
(d) Induction type instrument.
Ans: (c)
46. The number of 2 F, 300 V capacitors
needed to obtain a capacitance value of
2 F rated for 1200 V is
(a) 16
(b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 08
Ans: (a)
47. Behaviour
of
conductors,
semiconductors and insulators is
explained on the basis of
(a) atomic structure
(b) molecular structure
(c) energy band structure
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
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:: 8 ::
48. In general, for a superconductor, which
of the following statements is true?
(a) A superconductor is a perfect
paramagnetic material with the
magnetic susceptibility equals to
positive unity.
(b) A superconductor is a perfect
diamagnetic material with the
magnetic susceptibility equals to
negative one
(c) A superconductor is a perfect
ferromagnetic material with the
magnetic susceptibility equals to
positive one
(d) A superconductor is a perfect
piezoelectric material with the
magnetic susceptibility equals to
negative unity.
Ans: (b)
49. Ferro-electric material have a
(a) high dielectric constant which
varies non-linearly.
(b) low dielectric constant and is
non-linear
(c) high dielectric constant which
varies linearly
(d) low dielectric constant but linear
Ans: (a)
50. In the magnetic core the electromotive
forces(emf) induced in accordance
with Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
induction give rise to
(a) Eddy current
(b) Excitation current
(c) Armature current
(d) Field current
Ans: (a)
51. Consider the following characterizing
parameters of a material:
1. Magnetic permeability
2. Electron relaxation time
3. Electron effective mass
4. Energy band gap
In case of metals, increase in one of
the above parameter decreases its
conductivity, while increase in another
increases the conductivity. These are
respectively
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 3 and 2
(c) 4 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)
52. Some magnetic materials may be
classified on the basis of
1. Susceptibility
2. Saturation
3. Spin arrangement
4. Nature if hysteresis loop
5. Domain structure
6. Critical temperature above which it
behaves as a paramagnetic material
Which of these can be used to
distinguish
between
ferri
and
ferromagnetic materials?
(a) 1,3 and 4 only
(b) 2,3 and 6 only
(c) 3,4 and 5 only
(d) 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
Ans: (a)
53. Magnetism is mainly due to only
electron spin around their own axis in
case of
(a) diamagnetic materials
(b) paramagnetic materials
(c) ferromagnetic materials
(d) paramagnetic and diamagnetic
materials
Ans: (b)
54. For paramagnetic materials, the
relative permeability is
(a) less than unity but magnetic
susceptibility is relatively small
and positive.
(b) greater than unity and magnetic
susceptibility is relatively small
but positive.
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:: 9 ::
(c) equal to unity and magnetic
susceptibility is large but positive.
(d) less than unity but magnetic
susceptibility is relatively large
and positive.
Ans: (b)
55. Permalloy and Mumetal are examples
of
(a) Silicon and Iron alloys
(b) Nickel and Iron alloys
(c) Cobalt and Iron alloys
(d) Permanent magnet materials
(c) ferromagnetic material
(d) paramagnetic material
Ans: (d)
59. Einstein relation is referred between
(a) the diffusion constant and the
mobility
(b) the conduction and diffusion
currents
(c) the conduction and diffusion
voltages
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
56. When a Ferromagnetic substance is
magnetized, the phenomenon of
‘magnetostriction’ causes
(a) increase in the body temperature
(b) change in the permeability of the
substance.
(c) Small charges in its dimensions
(d) decrease in the saturation fluxdensity.
Ans: (c)
57. The resistivity of ‘ferrites’ is very
much higher than that of the
Ferromagnetic metals, because
(a) Ferrites are chemical compounds
and the electrons in them are
subjects to the restraint of valence
forces
(b) Ferrites have a low eddy current
loss
(c) Ferrites have a non-homogeneous
molecular structure.
(d) Ferrites have varying flux-density
inside the core.
Ans: (a)
58. When the temperature exceeds the
transition temperature, a ferromagnetic
material becomes similar to
(a) anti-ferromagnetic material
(b) diamagnetic material
60. In a piezoelectric crystal oscillator, the
oscillation or tuning frequency is
linearly proportional to the
(a) mass of the crystal
(b) square root of the mass of the
crystal
(c) square of the mass of the crystal
(d) inverse of the square root of the
mass of the crystal.
Ans: (d)
61. Which of the following
piezoelectric substances?
1. Barium Titanate
2. Lead Titanate
3. Lead Zirconate
4. Cadmium Sulphate
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 2,3 and 4
are
Ans: (c)
62. Consider the following statements:
1. Fermi level in a p-type
semiconductor lies close to the
top of the valence bond.
2. The forbidden energy in
Germanium at 0o K is exactly
0.75 eV.
3. When a p-n junction is reserve
biased, then electrons and holes
move away from the junction.
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:: 10 ::
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
66. A forcing function (t2-2t)u(t-1) is
63. A second order system is described by
2
d2y
dt 2
dy
8y
4
dt
8x
The damping ratio of the system is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.333
(d) 0.5
applied to a linear system. The
transform of the forcing functions is
(a)
(c)
2 s
2s
(b)
s3
1
e
s
s
1
s
2
2s
(d)
1 s2
s
2 s2
s
s
s
3
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
64. When deriving the transfer function of
a liner element
(a) both initial conditions and
loading are taken into account.
(b) initial conditions are taken into
account but the element is
assumed to be not loaded.
(c) initial conditions are assumed to
be zero but loading is taken into
account
(d) initial conditions are assumed to
be zero and the element is
assumed to be not loaded.
Ans: (c)
67. An open loop TF of a unity feedback
system ids given by
65. Consider the following statements
regarding advantages of closed loop
negative feedback control systems over
open loop system.
1. The overall reliability of the
closed loop system is more than
that of open loop system.
2. The transient response in a closed
loop system decays more quickly
than in open loop system.
3. In an open loop system, closing
of the loop increases the overall
gain of the system.
4. In the closed loop system, the
effect of variation of component
parameters on its performance is
reduced.
G(s) =
1
(s 2) 2
The closed loop transfer function will
have poles at
(a) -2 ,-2
(b) -2 ,-1
(c) -2+j, -2-j
(d) -2, 2
Ans: (c)
68. Damping ratio
and peak overshoot
MP are measures of
(a) relative stability
(b) absolute stability
(c) speed of response
(d) steady state error
Ans: (a)
69. In
control
systems,
excessive
bandwidth is not employed because
(a) noise is proportional to band width
(b) it leads to low relative stability
(c) it leads to slower time response
(d) noise is proportional to the square
of the bandwidth.
Ans: (a)
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:: 11 ::
70. The transfer function of a system is
1
1 sT
. The input to this system is the
ramp function, tu(t). The output would
track this system with an error given
by
(a) zero
(b)
(c) T
(d)
T
2
T2
2
74. The characteristic equation of a control
system is given by
s(s+4)(s+5)(s+6)+K(s+3)=0
The number of asymptotes and the
centroid of the asymptotes of this
control system are
(a) 3 and (4,0)
(b) -3 and (-4,0)
(c) -3 and (-12, 0)
(d) 3 and (-4,0)
Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)
71. For a critically damped second order
system, if gain constant (K) is
increased, the system behaviour
(a) becomes oscillatory
(b) becomes under damped
(c) becomes over damped
(d) shows no change
75. An effect of Phase-lag compensation
on servo-system performance is that
(a) for a give relative stability, the
velocity constant is increased.
(b) for a given relative stability, the
velocity constant is decreased.
(c) the bandwidth of the system is
increased
(d) the time response of the system is
made faster
Ans: (b)
72. A unit impulse response of a second
order system is
1 -0.8t
e sin(0.6t).
6
Then
natural frequency and damping ratio of
the system are respectively
(a) 1 and 0.6
(b) 1 and 0.8
(c) 2 and 0.4
(d) 2 and 0.3
Ans: (b)
73. Consider the following statements
about Routh-Hurwitz criterion:
If all the elements in one row of Routh
array are zero, then there are
1. Pairs of conjugate roots on
imaginary axis.
2. Pairs of equal roots with opposite
sign.
3. Conjugate roots forming a
quadrate in the s-plane.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: (a)
76. The system matrix of a linear time
invariant continuous time system is
give by A =
0
4
1
5
What are the roots of the characteristic
equation?
(a) -1, -4
(b) -1,-5
(c) -4,-5
(d) 0,-1
Ans: (a)
77. In a closed loop system for which the
output is the speed of a motor, the
output rate control can be used to
(a) reduce the damping of the system
(b) limit the torque output of the motor
(c) limit the speed of the motor
(d) limit the acceleration of the motor
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
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:: 12 ::
78. A transfer function has its zero in the
right half of the s-plane. The function
(a) is positive real
(b) is minimum phase
(c) will give stable impulse response
(d) is non-minimum phase
Ans: (d)
79. If the s-plane contour enclose 3-zeros
and 2-poles contour will encircle the
origin of q(s) plane
(a) Once in clockwise direction
(b) Once in counter clockwise
direction
(c) Thrice in clockwise direction
(d) twice in counter clockwise
direction.
Ans: (b)
80.
2
2
C
r
A
(a)36 W
(c) 07 W
(b) 15 W
(d) 14 W
Ans: (d)
82. The resistance of a 1 kW electric
heater when energized by a 230 V 1phase AC is
(a) 52.9
(b) 230
(c) 1000
(d) 4.2
Ans: (a)
83. If an ideal voltage source and ideal
current source are connected in series
the combination
(a) has the same properties as a
current source alone
(b) has the same properties as a
Voltage source alone
(a) has the same properties as the
source which has a higher value.
(d) results in the branch being
redundant.
Ans: (a)
3
D
84. A parallel plate capacitor of area A
cm2 and separating distance a cm is
dipped in ethyl alcohol up to a depth of
B
For the circuit shown above the above
the value of r connected between C and
D is such that the equivalent resistance
of the circuit by looking into circuit
through terminals A and B is r only.
Then the value of r is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6
a
2
. Given the dielectric constant
r
of
ethyl alcohol to be 25, the ratio of
capacitance after dipping to that before
dipping would be
(a)
(c)
26
50
50
26
(b)
(d)
45
50
3
1
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
81.
15
85.
+
+
+
2 VA
36 V
7
VA
The power dissipated in the controlled
source of the network shown above is
A network N consists of resistors,
independent voltage and current
sources. The value of its determinant
based on the loop analysis:
1. Cannot be negative
2. Cannot be zero
3. Is independent of the values of
voltage and current sources.
4. Dependent on the values of the
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:: 13 ::
resistances and the voltage and
current sources.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
86.
Ans: (d)
+
+
Vs
Resistors V
RI
In the circuit shown above, for
different values of R, the values of V
and I are given, other elements
remaining the same.
When R = , V = 5 V
When R = 0, I = 2.5 A
When R = 3 , the value of V is
given by
(a) 1 V (b) 5 V (c) 3 V (d) 2 V
Ans: (c)
87.
12
18V
RL
6
In the circuit shown above, the
maximum power absorbed by the
load resistance RL is
(a) 1.5 W
(b) 2.25 W
(c) 2.5 W
(d) 5 W
Ans: (b)
88.
V
+
V
25V
I
N
0
5A
equivalent of network N will have
VTh and RTh as
(a) 5 V and 25
(b) 25 V and 5
(c) 25 V and 5
(d) 25 V and 5
89. An A. C. source of voltage Es and an
internal impedance of Zs = (Rs + j
Xs) is connected to a load of
impedance ZL = (RL + j XL. Consider
the following conditions in this
regard:
1. XL = Xs, if only XL is varied
2. XL = Xs if only XL is varied
2
R s2 X s X L , if only
3. R L
RL is varied
4. Z L Z s , if the magnitude alone
of
ZL is varied, keeping the phase
angle fixed
The valid conditions for maximum
power transfer from the source to the
load are
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (d)
90. Unit impulse response of a given
system is C (t) = 4 e t + 6 e 2t. The
step response of + 0 is
(a) 3 e 2 t 4 e t 1
(b) 3 e 2 t 4 e t 1
(c) 3 e 2 t 4 e t 1
(d) 3 e 2 t 4 e t 1
Ans: (d)
I
0
The voltage-current relationship
feeding the network N is shown in
the above figure. The Thevenin’s
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:: 14 ::
91. Elements R, L and C are connected
in parallel. The impedance of the
parallel
combination
can
be
expressed as
10 s
Zs
2
s s 400
The value of the individual elements
R, L and C are
(a) 10 , 40 H and 0.1 F
(b) 4 , 1 H and 0.1 F
1
H and 0.1 F
(c) 10 ,
40
(d) 1 , 40 H and 10 F
Ans: (c)
92. A first order linear system is initially
relaxed for a unit step signal u (t), the
response is V (t) = (1 e 3t), for t > 0.
If a signal 3 u (t) + (t) is applied to
the same system, the response is
(a) (3 – 6 e 3t) u (t)
(b) (3 – 3 e 3t) u (t)
(c) 3 u (t)
(d) (3 + 3 e3t) u (t)
Ans: (c)
93.
R
94.
I2
I1
2
+
Vs
C
2H
In the network shown above Vs = 4
cos 2t. The value of C is so chosen
that the circuit impedance is
maximum. Then I1 leads I2 by
(a) 45
(b) 90
(c) 0
(d) 135
Ans: (d)
95. A series RLC circuit has a bandwidth
of 300 rad/sec at a resonant
frequency of 3000 rad/sec when
exited by a voltage source of 100 V.
The inductance of the coil is 0.1, H.
The value of R and the voltage
across C are, respectively.
(a) 10 and 100 V
(b) 30 and 100 V
(c) 30 and 1000 V
(d) 300 and 1000 V
R
Ans: (c)
ei
C
C
e0
The transfer function of the network
shown above is
1
(a) 2 2
S T 2 ST 1
1
(b) 2 2
S T 3 ST 1
1
(c) 2 2
S T ST 1
1
(d) 2 2
S T 1
96. The circuit comprises a coil of
resistance R and inductance L, in
parallel with an ideal capacitor C. At
the
resonant
frequency,
the
impedance
of
the
parallel
combination is
LC
(a) R
(b)
R
L
(c)
(d)
RC
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
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:: 15 ::
97. In RLC circuits, the current at
resonance is
(a) Maximum in series RLC and
minimum in parallel RLC circuit
(b) Maximum in parallel circuit and
minimum in series circuit
(c) Maximum in both circuits
(d) Minimum in both circuits
Ans: (a)
2
98.
1
2
6
4
2’
1’
For the two port network as shown
above, the parameters h11 and h21 are
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 1
(c) 1 and 1/2
(d) 1/2 and 1
(Given cos 1 0.8 36.76 0 )
(a) In-phase with VYB
(b) Lag VYB by 36.76
(c) Lead VYB by 53.14
(d) Lag VYB by 53.14
Ans: (c)
101. A 2-port network is represented by
the following equations :
V1 = 60 I1 + 20 I2
V2 = 20 I1 + 40 I2
The ABCD parameters of the above
network would be
1
100 3
2
1
(a)
(b)
20
2
3 100
20
3 100
100 20
(c)
(d) 1
2
6
3
20
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
99.
3
R
30
2
B
50
40
Y
1.5
A 3-phase distribution network is as
shown above. The resistance across
the terminals RB, BY and RY are
(a) 25.5 , 31.2 and 33.6
(b) 27.5 , 30.17 and 33.67
(c) 28.5 , 32.3 and 34.5
(d) 21.2 , 42.3 and 45.6
Ans: (b)
100. A 3-phase load of 0.8 pf lag is
supplied from a balanced 3-phase
supply of phase sequence RYB. With
VYB as reference the current IR will:
102. Two coupled oils with L1 = L2 = 0.6
H have a coupling coefficient of K =
N
0.8. The turns ratio 1 is
N2
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0.5
Ans: (c)
103.
i2
i1
V1
Two- port
Network
V2
The terminal voltage and currents of
a two-port network are indicated on
the above figure. IF the two-port is
reciprocal, then
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:: 16 ::
(a)
Z12
Y12
2
Z12
Z11 . Z 22
1
Y22
(c) h12 = h21
(b)
3
3
j4 3
j4 5
j4
j6
(c)
2
2
j2 3
j2 5
j4
j6
(d)
3 j4 2
1 j2 3
j2
j4
(b) Z12
(d) AD – BC = 0
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
104.
1
1
1
2
2
2
1’
2’
The Z-parameters of the
network as shown above are
11 4
6
(b) 5
(a) 5 5
4 6
4
5 5
5
4 6
4
(c) 5 5
(d) 5
11 4
11
5 5
5
2-port
Ans: (b)
4
5
11
5
4
5
6
5
Ans: (b)
105.
I1
106. In the two-wattmeter method of
measuring 3-phase power, the
wattmeters indicate equal and
opposite readings when load power
factor is
(a) 90 leading
(b) 90 lagging
(c) 30 leading
(d) 30 lagging
I2
107. If 3-phase power is measured with
the help of two-wattmeter method in
a balanced load with the application
of 30-phase balanced voltage,
variation in readings of wattmeters
will depend on
(a) Load only
(b) Power factor only
(c) Load and power factor
(d) Neither load nor power factor
Ans: (b)
2+j2
V1
3+j4
V2
The Z-parameter matrix of the twoport network as shown above is
3 j4 2 j2
(a)
2 j2 5 j6
108. The driving-point impedance of an
RC network is given by
2s 2 7s 3
Zs
s 2 3s 1
Its canonical realization will be
(a) 6 Elements
(b) 5 Elements
(c) 4 Elements
(d) 3 Elements
Ans: (b)
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:: 17 ::
109. Consider the following statements:
The causes of error in the
measurement of temperature using a
thermistor are
1. Self heating
2. Poor sensitivity
3. Non-linear characteristics
Which of these statements are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
113. If one of the control springs of a
permanent magnet coil ammeter is
broken, then on being connected it
will read.
(a) Zero
(b) Half of the correct value
(c) Twice of the correct value
(d) An infinite value
Ans: (d)
114. A 0.5
resistance is required to be
connected in parallel to a moving
coil instrument whose full scale
deflection is 1 mA; so that this
instrument can measure 10 mA
current. Internal resistance of this
instrument is
(a) 5.0
(b) 4.5
(c) 2.25
(d) 0.45
110. Five observers have taken a set of
independent voltage measurements
and recorded as 110.10 V, 110.20 V,
110.15 V, 110.30 V and 110.25 V.
Under the situation mentioned above,
the range of error is
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.2
(d) 1.0
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
111. The technique used to check
quantitatively whether the given data
distribution is close to Gaussian
distribution is
(a) Curve fitting
(b) Method of least squares
(c) Chi-square test
(d) Standard deviation of mean
Ans: (d)
112. The unknown resistance R4 measured
in a Wheatstone bridge by the
R2 R3
formula R 4
with
R1
R1 = 100 0.5% ,
R2 = 1000 0.5% ,
R3 = 842 0.5%
Resulting in R4
(a) 8420 0.5%
(b) 8420 1.0%
(c) 8420 1.5%
(d) 8420 0.125%
Ans: (c)
115. The working of a PMMC (Permanent
magnet moving coil) meter is
described by a second order
differential equation
d
d2
S1
T.
J 2 D
dt
dt
Where
J = Moment of inertia of the system,
D = Damping coefficient,
S1 = Spring constant,
= Angular deflection and
T = Activating torque.
Assuming D = 0, undamped natural
angular frequency is
S
J
(a)
(b)
J
S
1
1
(c)
(d)
2 JS
JS
Ans: (a)
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:: 18 ::
116. For a certain dynamometer ammeter
the mutual inductance (M) varies
with deflection as M = 6 cos ( +
30 ) mH. Find the deflecting torque
produced a direct current of 50 mA
corresponding to a deflection of 60 .
(a) 10 N-m
(b) 20 N-m
(c) 15 N-m
(d) 1.5 N-m
119. In
two-wattmeter
method
of
measuring power in a balanced 3phse circuit, the readings of the two
wattmeters are in the ratio of 1 : 2,
the circuit power factor is
1
1
(a)
(b)
2
2
(c)
Ans: (c)
117. An 1-m Amp, 50 Galvanometer is
required to measure 5 Amp (full
scale). Find out the value of
resistance to be added, across (shunt)
the Galvanometer to accomplish this
measurement.
(a) 10
(b) 0.01
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.001
Ans: (b)
118. The voltage sensitivities of Barium
Titanate and Quartz are respectively
12
10 3 Vm/N and 50
10 3
Vm/N. Their respective permittivities
are
12.5 10 9 F/m and 40.6
12
10
F/m. What are their charge
sensitivities?
(a) 1.04 106 C/N and 1.23 109
C/N
(b) 150 pC/N and 2 pC/N
(c) 24.5 pC/N and 90.6 pC/N
(d) 0.9 106 C/N and 1.23 109 C/N
3
2
(d) 1
Ans: (c)
120. Consider the following statements:
Adjustment is required in an
induction type energy meter in the
following manner so that it can be
compensated for slowdown of speed
on the specified load due to some
unspecified reason :
1. Adjusting the Position of braking
magnet and moving it away from
the centre of the disc.
2. Adjusting the Position of braking
magnet and moving it closer to
the centre of the disc.
3. Adjusting the load.
Which of these statements are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
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:: 19 ::
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Test Booklet Series
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
(OBJECCTIVE TYPE)
PAPER – II
B
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE
MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART – A and 60 in PART – B.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you
want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent
to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happiness to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii)If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be no
penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
01. The advantage of hydro-electric power
station over thermal power station is
(a) The initial cost of hydro-electric
power station is low
(b) The operating cost of hydroelectric power station is low
(c) Hydro-electric power station can
supply the power throughout the
year
(d) Hydro-electric power station can
be constructed at the place where
the energy is required
05. In order to have lower cost of power
generation
(a) The load factor and diversity factor
generation
(b) The load factor and diversity factor
should be high
(c) The load factor should be low but
diversity factor should be high
(d) The load factor should be high but
diversity factor should be low
Ans: (b)
06. Consider the following statements:
The calculation performed using short
line approximate model instead of
nominal –II model for a medium
length transmission line delivering
lagging load at a given receiving end
voltage always results in higher
1. Sending end current
2. Sending end power
3. Regulation
4. Efficiency
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
02. The incremental cost characteristics of
two generators delivering 200 MW are
as follows
dF1
dF2
= 20+0.01P1
= 16+0.02P2
dP1
dP2
For economic operation generation P1
and P2 should be
(a) 100MW and 100MW
(b) 80 MW and 120MW
(c) 200 MW and 100 MW
(d) 120 MW and 80 MW
Ans: (d)
Ans: (b)
03. No load test was conducted on a three
phase induction motor at different
input voltages and the input power
obtained was plotted against the input
voltage.
The intersection of the
extrapolated curve on the Y-axis,
would give
(a) Rated core loss
(b) Windage and friction loss
(c) Rated copper loss
(d) Rated core loss and Windage and
friction loss
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
08. Consider the following statements
regarding convergence of the NewtonRaphson procedure
1. It does not converge to a root when
the second differential coefficient
changes sign
2. It is preferred when graph of (X) is
nearly horizontal where it crosses
the X-axis
04. A power generating station has a
maximum demand of 1000 MW. The
annual load factor is 75% and plant
capacity factor is 60%. Calculate the
reserve capacity
(a) 250 MW
(b) 500 mW
(c) 750 mw
(d) 1250 MW
Ans: (a)
07. The locus of constant received power
is a circle of radius
2
VS VR
VS
(a)
(b)
B
B
(c)
VR
B
2
(d)
VS
VR
2
B
Ans: (a)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 3 ::
3. It is used to solve algebraic and
transcendental equations
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
09. The Positive, Negative and Zero
sequence per unit impedances of two
generators connected in parallel are X1
= 0.12, X2 = 0.096 and X0 = 0.036 pu.
For a LG fault at generator terminals
(with 1 pu voltage) the positive
sequence current will be)
13. A large ac generator supplying power
to an infinite bus is suddenly shortcircuited at its terminals. Assuming
the prime-mover input and the voltage
behind the transient reactance to
remain constant immediately after the
fault, the acceleration of the generator
rotor is
(a) Inversely proportional to the
moment of inertia of the machine
(b) Inversely proportional to the square
of the voltage
(c) Directly proportional to the square
of the short circuit current
(d) Directly proportional to the shortcircuit power
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
10. A 50 MVA, 11 kV, 3-phase generator
has a stored energy of 400 MJ. Its
inertia constant is
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 16
Ans: (b)
11. The steady state stability limit of a
synchronous machine connected to
infinite bus is 2.2 pu infinite bus
voltage is 1 pu and synchronous
machine voltage is 1.1 pu.
The
transfer reactance between generator
and infinite bus is
(a) J 0.5
(b) J0.5
(c) J 1.0
(d) J1.0
Ans: (a)
12. Two identical synchronous machines
having same inertia constant are
connected in parallel and swinging
together. The effective inertia constant
is 4 MJ/MVA. Then each machine has
an inertia constant of
(a) 2 MJ/MVA (b) 4 MJ/MVA
(c) 8 MJ/MVA (d) 16 MJ/MVA
14. The regions of operation of a
MOSFET to work as a linear resistor
and linear amplifier are
(a) Cut-off and saturation respectively
(b) Triode and Cut-off respectively
(c) Triode and saturation respectively
(d) Saturaiton and Triode respectively
Ans: (c)
15. In a BJT, ICO = ICBO = 2 A. Given
0.99, the value of ICED is
(a) 2 A
(b) 99 A
(c) 198 A
(d) 200 A
=
Ans: (d)
16. The 6 V Zener diode shown in figure
has zero Zener resistance and a knee
current of 5 mA. The minimum value
of R, so that the voltage across it does
not fall below 6 V is
50
10V
6V
Ans: (a)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
R
:: 4 ::
(a) 12 k
(c) 50
(b) 80
(d) Zero
Ans: (b)
17. The following statements refer to an n
channel FET operated in the active
region
1. The gate voltage VGS reverse
biases the junction.
2. The drain voltage VDD is negative
with respect to the source
3. The current in the n channel is due
to electrons
4. Increasing the reverse bias VDS
increases the cross section for
conduction
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
20. A signal may have frequency
components which he in the range of
0.001 Hz to 10 Hz. Which one of the
following types of couplings should be
chosen in a multistage amplifier
designed to amplifier the signal.
(a) RC coupling
(b) Direct coupling
(c) Transformer coupling
(d) Double tuned transformer
Ans: (b)
21. A feedback amplifier is designed with
an amplifier gain of 1000 and
feedback of = 0.1. If the amplifier
had a gain change of 20% due to
temperature, the change in gain of the
feedback amplifier is
(a) 10%
(b) 5%
(c) 0.2%
(d) 0.01%
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
18. In a synchronous machine the rotor
speed becomes more than the
synchronous speed during hunting, the
damping bars develop
(a) Synchronous motor torque
(b) DC motor torque
(c) Induction motor torque
(d) Induction generator torque
Ans: (d)
19. A full-wave rectifier using centre
tapped transformer and a bridge
rectifier use similar diode and have
equal to load output voltage Under
equal load conditions
(a) Output of bridge rectifier will be
less than that of the other
(b) Output of bridge rectifier will be
more than that of the other
(c) Output voltage of both will be
exactly equal
(d) Output voltage of any one may be
more than that of the other
Ans: (a)
22. A signal Vmsin( t + ) is applied to an
amplifier whose gain A is independent
of frequency.
The amplifier will
preserve the form of the input signal
(though with a delay) if the phase shift
is
(a) Constant
(b) Inversely proportional to frequency
(c) Proportional to frequency
(d) Proportional to the square of the
frequency
Ans: (a)
23. In any function where microphone
amplifier and speakers are used often
one would hear a hamming sound,
which increases in volume gradually.
This is due to
(a) Positive feedback between microphone and speaker
(b) Negative
feedback
between
microphone and speaker
(c) Inadequate frequency response of
amplifier
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 5 ::
(d) Noise pickup (50 Hz) from power
supply
Ans: (a)
24. The effect of current shunt feedback in
an amplifier is to
(a) Increase the input resistance an
decrease the output resistance
(b) Increase both input and output
resistance
(c) Decrease both input and output
resistance
(d) Decrease the input resistance and
increase the output resistance
Ans: (d)
25. An amplifier circuit has an overall
current gain of 100 and an input
resistance of 10k
with a load
resistance of 1k . The overall voltage
gain of the amplifier is
(a) 5 dB
(b) 10 dB
(c) 20 dB
(d) 40 dB
Ans: (c)
26. A 4-pole induction motor (main) and a
6 pole motor (auxiliary) are connected
in cumulative cascade. Frequency in
the secondary winding of the auxiliary
motor is observed to tbe 1 Hz. For a
supply frequency of 50 Hz the speed of
the cascade set is
(a) 1485 rpm
(b) 990 rpm
(c) 608 rpm
(d) 588 rpm
Ans: (d)
27. An operational amplifier is connected
in voltage follower configuration.
Input given to this circuit is 3sin103t.
Compute the slew rate of operational
amplifier
(a) 6 10 3 V/ sec
(b) 3 10 3 V/ sec
(c) 15 10 3 V/ sec
(d) 10 3 V/ sec
28. An OPAMP has a common mode gain
of 0.01 and a differential mode gain of
105. It common mode rejection ratio
would be
(a) 10 7
(b) 10 3
(c) 103
(d) 107
Ans: (d)
29. An OPAMP has slew rate of 5V/ V.
The largest sine wave output voltage
possible at a frequency of 1 MHz is
(a) 10 V
(b) 5 V
5
5
(d)
V
(c) V
2
Ans: (d)
30. Consider the following statements
1. Astable multivibrator can be used
for generating square wave
2. Bistable multivibrator can be used
for storing binary information
Which of these statement(s) is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
31. Which of the following is correct for a
gated D-type flip?
(a) The output is either SET or RESET
as soon as the D input goes HIGH
or LOW
(b) The output complement follows the
input when enabled
(c) Only one of the inputs can be
HIGH at a time
(d) The output toggles if one of the
inputs is held HIGH
Ans: (a)
32. Latches constructed with NOR and
NAND gates tend to remain in the
latched condition due to which
configuration feature?
Ans: (b)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 6 ::
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A synchronous operation
Low input voltage
Gate impedance
Cross coupling
Ans: (c)
36. For the box shown the output D is true
if and only if a majority of the inputs
are true
A
Ans: (d)
33. How is the speed power product of a
logic family determined?
(a) The Propagation delay in s is
multiplied by the power dissipation
in mW
(b) The propagation delay in ms is
multiplied by the power dissipation
in mW
(c) The propagation delay in ns is
multiplied by the power dissipation
in mW
(d) The propagation delay in ns is
multimplied
by
the
power
dissipation in W
Ans: (c)
34. The integrated injection logic has
higher density of integration than TTK
because it
(a) Does not require transistors with
high current gain and hence they
have smaller geometry
(b) Uses bipolar transistor
(c) Does not require isolation diffusion
(d) Uses dynamic logic instead of
static logic
Ans: (a)
35. Consider the following statements
A Darlington emitter-follower circuit
is sometimes used in output stage of a
TTL gate in order to
1. Increase its IOL
2. Reduce its IOH
3. Increase speed of operation
4. Reduce power dissipation
Which of these statement(s) is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Input B
D Output
C
The Boolean function for the output is
(a) D = AB C + A BC + A B C
(b) D = ABC + A BC+A B C+AB C
(c) D = A B C +AB+AC+BC
(d) D = A B C+A B C + A B C +ABC
Ans: (b)
37. The Boolean expression
F= A B C + A B C
+ A B C +ABC reduces to
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A+B+C
Ans: (b)
38. When the output of a tri-state shift
register is disabled, the output level is
placed in a
(a) Float state
(b) Low state
(c) High impedance state
(d) Float state and a high impedance
state
Ans: (c)
39. A programmable ROM has a decoder
at the input and
(a) Both these blocks being fully
programmable
(b) Both these blocks being partially
programmable
(c) Only the latter block being
programmable
(d) Only the former block being
programmable
Ans: (c)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 7 ::
40. Synchronous counters eliminate the
delay problems encountered with
asynchronous (ripple) counter because
the
(a) Input clock pulses are applied only
to the first and the last stages
(b) Input clock pulses are applied only
to the last stage
(c) Input clock pulses are not used to
activated
(d) Input clock pulses are applied
simultaneously
(d) it has larger number of turns, has to
handle low currents and also easily
accessible physically
Ans: (d)
41. When a transformers is first energized
the transient current during first few
cycles is
(a) Less than full load current
(b) Equal to full load current
(c) Equal to no load current
(d) Much higher than full load current
44. Short circuit test is performed on a
transformer with a certain impressed
voltage at rated frequency. If the short
circuit test is now performed with the
same magnitude of impressed voltage,
but at a frequency higher than the rated
frequency, then the magnitude of
current.
(a) And power-factor will both
increase
(b) Will decrease but the power factor
will increase
(c) Will increase, but power factor will
decrease
(d) And power factor will both
decrease.
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
42. For power transformers of larger
ratings, the tapings are located in the
middle portion of the winding to
(a) Increase the break-down strength
of the winding insulation
(b) Enable better cooling of the
windings
(c) Enable better distribution of interturn voltage
(d) Reduce the mechanical forces
affecting the windings during short
circuits
45. The impedance of a /Y, 11000 V/400
V, transformer of capacity 100 kVA,
on its name plate data base is
(0.02+j0.07) pu.
The ohmic
impedance pu phase referred to the
primary (11000V) side is
(a) (0.02 + j0.07)
(b) (0.55 + j1.925)
(c) (42+j147)
(d) (72.6 + j254.1)
Ans: (d)
46. A 2000 kA, single-phase transformer is
in circuit continuously. For 8 hours in
a day, the load is 160 kW at unity pf
and for the period remaining out of 24
hours, it runs on no-load. If the full
load copper losses are 3.02 kW, the
total copper losses in 24 hours are
(a) 35.62 kW
(b) 24.16 kW
(c) 11.46 kW
(d) 38.40 kW
Ans: (d)
43. Tappings are normally provided on the
high voltage winding of a transformer
only, because
(a) It has larger number of turns which
allows smoother variation of
voltage
(b) It has to handle low currents
(c) It is easily accessible physically
Ans: (d)
Ans: No Anwer (\Wrong Data)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 8 ::
47. A 50 kVA transformer has a core loss
of 500 W and full-load core loss of 900
W. The load at which the efficiency is
maximum is
(a) 27.45 kVA
(b) 37.75 kVA
(c) 45.5 kVA
(d) 47.5 kVA
Ans: (b)
48. For a two-winding power transformer,
with the effects of the no-load current
being
neglected,
the
‘Voltage
Regulation’ can be zero at load, when
the load power factor is
(a) Lagging only
(b) Leading only
(c) Eitehr
lagging
or
leading,
depending upon power rating of the
transformer
(d) unity
Ans: (b)
49. The ratio of primary/secondary
voltages is 2 1 The saving in terms of
weight of copper required if an
autotransformer is used instead of a
two winding transformer will be
(a) 95%
(b) 66.7%
(c) 50%
(d) 33.3%
Ans: (c)
50. Consider the following statements
concerning the utility of meshconnected tertiary windings in star-star
transformers
1. It is used to suppress harmonic
voltages
2. It is used to allow flow of earth
fault current for operation of
protective devices
3. It facilitates supply of single phase
loads
4. It provides low reactance paths for
zero sequence currents
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (a)
51. The most essential condition for
parallel operation of two 1transformers is that they should have
the same
(a) kVA rating
(b) Percentage impedance
(c) Polarity
(d) Voltage ratio
Ans: (c)
52. Two
single-phase
100
kVA
transformers, each having different
leakage impedances are connected in
parallel. When a load of 150 kVA at
0.8 power factor lagging is applied
(a) Both transformers will operate at
power factor more than 0.8 lagging
(b) Both transformers will operate at
power factor less than 0.8 lagging
(c) One of the transformers will
operate at power factor more than
0.8 lagging
(d) Both transformers will operate at
identical power factors
Ans: (c)
53. A triangular mmf wave is produced in
the air gap of an electric machine.
Such a wave is produced by
(a) Stator of an induction machine
(b) Rotor of a synchronous machine
(c) Stator of a dc machine
(d) Rotor of a dc machine
Ans: (d)
54. At 1200 rpm the induced emf of a dc
machine is 200V. For an armature
current of 15 A the electromagnetic
torque produced would be
(a) 23.8 N-m
(b) 238 N-m
(c) 2000 N-m
(d) 3000 N-m
Ans: (a)
55. A 4 pole lap wound dc generator has a
developed power of P watt and voltage
of E volt Two andjacent brushes of the
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 9 ::
machine are removed as they are worm
out. If the machine operates with the
remaining brushes, the developed
voltage and power that can be obtained
from the machine are
(a) E and P
(b) E/2 and P/2
(c) E and P/4
(d) E and P/2
Ans: (c)
56. A 6 pole dc armature has simplex lap
connected 720 conductors, 3 turns per
coil and 4 coil-sides per slot.
Determine the number of slots in the
armature and state whether equalizers
can be employed or not
(a) 60 slots and Not possible
(b) 30 slots and Possible
(c) 60 slots and Possible
(d) 30 slots and Not possible
Ans: (c)
57. Determine the flux pole for 6 pole dc
machine having 240 wave connected
conductors, which generators an open
circuit, voltage of 500 volt, which is
running at 1000 rpm
(a) 0.129 Wb
(b) 0.021 Wb
(c) 0.042 Wb
(d) 7 mWb
Ans: (c)
58. Consider the following statements
The armature reaction mmf in a dc
machine is
1. Stationary with respect to the field
poles
2. Rotating with respect to the field
poles
3. Rotating with respect to the
armature
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
59. In case of dc motor, maximum
mechanical power is developed when
back emf equals
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The applied voltage
Half the applied voltage
One third of the applied voltage
Double the applied voltage
Ans: (b)
60. The induced emf of a dc machine
running at 750 rpm is 220 V the
percentage increase in field flux for
generating an induced emf of 250 V at
700 rpm would be
(a) 7%
(b) 11.25%
(c) 21.7%
(d) 42.4%
Ans: (c)
61. The speed of a separately excited dc
motor is varied by varying the
armature voltage in the range zero to
base speed and by varying the field
current above the base speed. It is
suitable for constant
(a) Torque drive at all speeds
(b) Power drive at all speeds
(c) Torque drive till base speed and
constant power drive beyond base
speed
(d) Power drive till base speed and
constant torque drive beyond base
speed
Ans: (c)
62. A dc shunt motor is required to drive a
constant power load at rated speed
while drawing rated armature current.
Neglecting saturation and an machine
losses, if both the terminal voltage and
the field current of the machine are
halved then
(a) The speed becomes 2 pu but
armature current remains at 1 pu
(b) The speed remains at 1 pu but
armature current becomes 2 pu
(c) Both speed and armature current
become 2 pu
(d) Both speed and armature current
remain at 1 pu
Ans: (b)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 10 ::
63. The dc series motor is best suited for
traction work, because
(a) Torque is proportional to the
square of armature current and
speed is inversely proportional to
torque
(b) Torque is proportional to the
square of armature current and
speed is directly proportional to
torque
(c) Both torque and speed are
proportional to the square of
armature current
(d) Torque is proportional to armature
current and speed is inversely
proportional to torque.
Ans: (a)
64. A 3-phase synchronous motor with
constant excitation is driving a certain
load drawing electric power from
infinite bus at leading power factor. If
the shaft load decreases
(a) The power angle decrease while
power factor increases
(b) The power angle increases while
power factor decreases
(c) Both power angle and power factor
increase
(d) Both power angle and power factor
decrease
Ans: (d)
65. The maximum power delivered by
1500 kW, 3-phase, star-connected, 4
kV, 48 pole 50 Hz synchronous motor,
with synchronous reactance of 4 per
phase and unity power factor:
(a) 4271.2 kW
(b) 35.5 kW
(c) 120.61 kW
(d) 2078 kW
2. When a synchronous motor is over
excited, its power factor is leading
3. Synchronous motor is used as
capacitor where load is so large
that construction of a static
capacitor is impractical.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Directions:
Each of the next THIRTEEN (13) items
consists of two statements, one labeled as
the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as
“Statement (II)’. Your are to examine
these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes
given below
Codes:
(a) Both statement (I) and Statement (II)
are individually true and Statement (II)
is the correct explanation of Statement
(I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are individually true but Statement (II)
is NOT the correct explanation of
Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)
is true
67. Statement
(I):
Large
power
transformer testing under full load
current is not possible
Statement (II): Short circuit test of
transformer gives indication of copper
loss
Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
66. Consider the following statements
regarding synchronous machines
1. When a synchronous motor is over
excited, its back emf is greater than
the supply
68. Statement (I): In large dc motors
which drive reversing rolls of a steel
mill and in the generators which
supply them, large fluctuations of
currents cause higher voltages being
induced in the coils located between
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 11 ::
adjacent commutator segments. This
may result in the so called ‘flash-over’
between adjacent brushes, causing a
heavy short circuit.
Statement (II): To counteract the
possibilities of a ‘flesh-over’ a
‘compensating winding’, which is
embedded in the slots on the pole
faces, is connected in series with the
armature winding, and which supplies
an mmf that magnetizes in the opposite
direction to that of the armature mmf
Ans: (a)
69. Statement (I): The direct on line
(DOL) starter is used to start a small dc
motor
Statement (II): DOL starter limits
initial current drawn by the armature
circuit.
73. Statement (I): Program counter is a
register that contains the address of the
next instruction to be executed
Statement (II): IR (Instruction
Register) is not accessible to
programmer.
Ans: (b)
74. Statement (I): Partial memory address
decoding can result in simplified
decoding logic
Statement (II): Partial decoding
causes many to-one mappig of
addresses to memory location
Ans: (b)
75. Statement (I): In AM system the
modulation index (0 < m < 1) should
be high
Statement (II): The higher the value
of m the greater is the power in the
side bands
Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
70. Statement (I): Tower to ground
impedance must be kept high
Statement (II): High impedance
produces high voltage at the insulator
disc
Ans: (d)
71. Statement (I): No compensation is
needed in HVDC lines, unlike EHVAC system where series and/or shunt
compensation is required
Statement (II): Charging current is
absent in HVDC system
Ans: (a)
72. Statement (I): In push pull operation
one transistor conducts only for
negative half cycle and other for
positive half cycle
Statement (II): Class-B power
amplifier is fixed in cutoff, which
gives non-distorted output.
76. Statement (I): The total power in the
original carrier signal is redistributed
between all the components of the
spectrum of the frequency – modulated
signal
Statement (II): The amplitude of the
carrier and the FM signal remain
unchanged
Ans: (b)
77. Statement
(I):
MOSFETs
are
intrinsically faster than bipolar devices
Statement (II): MOSFETs have
excess minority carrier
Ans: (c)
78. Statement (I): The output current of a
current source inverter remains
constant irrespective of load
Statement (II): The load voltage in
CSI depends on the load impedance
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 12 ::
79. Statement (I): A forward dc-to-dc
converter requires a minimum load at
the output
Statement (II): Without minimum
load excess output voltage can be
produced
Ans: (a)
80. In TV transmission, picture signal is
amplitude modulated and sound signal
is frequency modulated. This is done
because
(a) It is not possible to frequency
modulate the picture signal
(b) Band width requirement is
minimized
(c) Sound signal is more susceptible to
noise than picture signal
(d) Synchronization of picture frames
becomes easier.
Ans: (b)
81. A system has a receiver noise
resistance of 50 . It is connected to
an antenna with an outout resistance of
50 . The noise figure of the system is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 50
(d) 101
Ans: (b)
82. The power gain of an antenna using
paraboloid reflector is directly
proportional to
(a) Mouth diameter
(b) Wavelength
(c) Aperture ratio
(d) Square of aperture ratio
Ans: (d)
83. A binary channel with capacity of 36
kbits/sec is available for PCM voice
transmission. If signal is band limited
to 3.2 kHz, then L and the sampling
frequency respectively are
(a) 32 and 36 kHz
(b) 64 and 72 kHz
(c) 64 and 36 kHz
(d) 32 and 72 kHz
Ans: (d)
84. A 8-bit A/D converter is used over a
span of zero to 256 V. The binary
representation of 10V signal is
(a) 011 001 00 (b) 011 100 01
(c) 101 001 01 (d) 101 000 10
Ans: (a)
85. RF carrier 10 kV at 1 MHz is
amplitude modulated and modulation
index is 0.6 peak voltage of the signal
is
(a) 600 kV
(b) 1200 kV
(c) 6 kV
(d) 10 kV
Ans: (c)
86. Output data ratio of a 8-bit PCM-TDM
system sampling 24 voice channels,
comparing these using -law at he rate
of 8 kHz and with a 1 frame alignment
word, is
(a) 12 106 bits/sec
(b) 14 106 bits/sec
(c) 16 106 bits/sec
(d) 18 106 bits/sec
Ans: (c)
87. 24 voice channels are sampled
uniformly ate a rate of 8 kHz and then
time division multiplexed.
The
sampling process uses flat-top samples
with 1 s duration. The multiplexing
operation includes provision of
sysnchronization by adding an extra
pulse of 1 s duration. The spacing
between successive pulses of the
multiplexed signal is
(a) 4 s
(b) 6 s
(c) 72 s
(d) 84 s
Ans: (a)
88. A signal is passed through a LPF with
cut-off frequency 10 kHz.
The
minimum sampling frequency is
(a) 5 kHz
(b) 10 kHz
(c) 20 kHz
(d) 30 kHz
Ans: (c)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 13 ::
89. The man advantage of time division
multiplexing (TDM) over frequency
division multiplexing (FDM) is that it
(a) Requires less bandwidth
(b) Requires less power
(c) Requires simple circuitry
(d) Provide better signal-to noise ratio
(a) Single Instruction Single
(SISD)
(b) Single Instruction Multiple
(SIMD)
(c) Multiple Instruction Single
(MISD)
(d) Multiple Instruction Multiple
(MIMD)
Data
Data
Data
Data
Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
90. In a 8085 microprocessor system with
memory mapped I/O, which of the
following is true?
(a) Devices have 8-bit address line
(b) Devices are accessed using IN and
OUT instructions
(c) There can be maximum of 256
input devices and 256 output
devices
(d) Arithmetic an logic operations can
be directly performed with the I/O
data
Ans: (d)
94. What is the content of accumulator of
8085 P after the execution of XRI
FOH instruction?
(a) Only the upper nibble of
accumulator is complemented
(b) Only the lower nibble is
complemented
(c) Only the upper nibble is reset to
zero
(d) Only the lower nibble is reset to
zero
Ans: (a)
91. Consider the following statements:
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
1. Performs arithmetic operations
2. Performs comparisons
3. Communicates with I/O devices
4. Keeps watch on the system
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (c)
92. The 8085 programming manual says
that it takes seven T states to fetch and
execute the MOV instruction. If the
system clock has a frequency of 25
MHz, how long is an instruction cycle?
(a) 28 s
(b) 25 ns
(c) 28 ns
(d) 28 s
Ans: (d)
93. According to Flynn’s classification,
which architecture is of only
theoretical interest and no practical
system has been developed based on
it?
95. A software delay sub routine 4s written
as given below
DELAY MVI
H, 255 D
MVI
L, 255 D
LOOP DCR
L
JNZ
LOOP
DCR
H
JNZ
LOOP
How many times DCR instruction will
be executed?
(a) 255
(b) 510
(c) 65025
(d) 65279
Ans: (d)
96. The content of Accumulator are 7 OH.
Initially all flags are zero. What will
be values of Cy and S after executing
instruction RLC?
(a) Cy = 0 and S = 0
(b) Cy = 1 and S = 1
(c) Cy = 1 and S = 0
(d) Cy = 0 and S = 1
Ans: (a)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 14 ::
97. The
difference
between
8085
instructions RST n and PCHL is
(a) RST n is equivalent to a subroutine call while PCHL is equivalent
to unconditional branch
(b) RST n uses direct addressing while
PCJL uses register indirect
addressing
(c) RST n is a software interrupt while
PCHL simulates a hardware
interrupt
(d) RST n resets the processor while
PCJL restarts the processor
Ans: (a)
98. The following program starts at
location 0100H
LXI SP, 00F
LXI H, 0701
MVI A, 20H
SUB M
The content of accumulator when the
program counter reaches 0107 H is
(a) 20 H
(b) 02 H
(c) 00 H
(d) FF H
Ans: (c)
99. Find the content of the accumulator
after the execution of the following
program
MVI
A, FO H
ORI
FF H
XRI
FO H
(a) OOH
(b) FOH
(c) OFH
(d) FFH
Ans: (c)
100.It is desired to multiply the numbers
0A H by 0B H and store the result int
eh accumulator. The numbers are
available in registers B and C
respectively. A part of the 8085
program for this purpose is given
below
MVI A, 00H
Loop
HLT END
The sequence of instruction to
complete the program would be
(a) JNZ LOOP, ADD B, DCR C
(b) ADD B, JNZ LOOP, DCR C
(c) DCR C, JNZ LOOP, ADD B
(d) ADD B, DCR C, JNZ LOOP
Ans: (d)
101.Assume that the Accumulator and the
register C of 8085 microprocessor
contain respectively FO H OF H
initially. What will be the content of
Accumulator after execution of
instruction ADD C?
(a) OO H
(b) FF H
(c) EF H
(d) FE H
Ans: (b)
102.Cycle-stealing mode of DMA
operation involves
(a) DMA controller takes over the
address, data and control buses
while a block of data is transferred
between memory and an I/O
devices
(b) While the P is executing a
program an interface circuit takes
over control of the address, data
and control buses when not in use
by the P
(c) Data transfer takes place between
the I/O device and memory during
every alternate clock cycle
(d) The DMA controller waits for the
P to finish execution of the
program and then takes over the
buses
Ans: (c)
103.In a microprocessor based system,
DMA facility is required to increase
the speed of the data transfer between
the
(a) Microprocessor and the memory
(b) Microprocessor and the memory
(c) Memory and the I/O devices
(d) Memory and register
Ans: (c)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 15 ::
104.I/O mapped system identify their
input/output devices by giving them an
(a) 8 bit port number
(b) 16 bit port number
(c) 8 bit buffer number
(d) 16 bit buffer number
Ans: (a)
105.A microprocessor based safety control
system installed in a nuclear power
plant must be stress tested under which
of the following conditions?
1. Ageing due to radiation
2. Thermal stresses
3. Seismic vibration
4. Inadequate nuclear reactor coolant
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
106.A carrier wave of frequency 25 GHz
amplitude is modulated with two
modulating frequencies equal to 1 kHz
and 2 kHz. The modulated wave will
have the total bandwidth
(a) 6 kHz
(b) 2 kHz
(c) 4 kHz
(d) 3 kHz
Ans: (c)
107.In a frequency modulation system,
maximum frequency deviation allowed
is 1000 and modulating frequency is 1
kHz. Determine modulation index
(a) 2
(b) 2000
(c) 1
(d) 1000
Ans: (c)
108.In an amplitude Modulated (AM)
wave with 100% modulation (m), the
carrier is suppressed. The percentage
of power saving will be
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 66.7%
Ans: (d)
109.The Nyquist sampling interval, for the
signal sinc(700t) + sinc(500t) is
1
(a)
sec
(b)
sec
350
350
1
sec
(d)
sec
(c)
700
175
Ans: (c)
110.A 1000-W carrier is amplitude
modulated and has a side-band power
of 300W. The depth of modulation is
(a) 0.255
(b) 0.545
(c) 0.775
(d) 0.95
Ans: (c)
111.The value of the capacity reactance
obtainable from a reactance FET
whose gm is 12 ms when the gate-to1
source resistance is
of the reactance
9
of the gate-to –drain capacitor at
frequency 5 MHz is
(a) 650
(b) 750
(c) 775
(d) 800
Ans:
112.A thyristor has internal power
dissipation of 40 W and is operated at
an ambient temperature of 200 C If
thermal resistance is 160C/W, the
junction temperature is
(a) 1140 C
(b) 1640C
(c) 940 C
(d) 840 C
Ans: (d)
113.Consider the following statements:
1. A synchronous motor has no
starting torque but when started it
always runs at a fixed speed
2. A single-phase reluctance motor is
not self starting even if paths for
eddy currents are provided in the
rotor
3. A single-phase hysterises motor is
self-starting
Which of these statement(s) is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (a)
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
:: 16 ::
114.Consider the following statements
regarding Thyristor
1. It conducts when forward biased
and positive current flows through
the gate
2. It conducts when forward biased
and negative current flows through
the gate
3. It commutates when reverse biased
and negative current flows through
the gate
4. It commutate when the gate current
is withdrawn
Which of these statement(s) is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Ans: (d)
115.The average output of a semi
converter connected to a 120 V, 50 Hz
supply and firing angle of
(a) 5402 V
(c) 10804 V
is
2
(b) 5602 V
(d) Zero
Ans: (a)
116.Compute the ripple factor of a single
phase full wave rectifier with load
resistance RL = 10 k . Forward bias
dynamic resistance of diodes used is
100 .
The rms voltage across
secondary winding is 330 V
(a) 482
(b) 121
(c) 0.482
(d) 0.812
Ans: (c)
117.A 3-phase semi-converter is feeding a
separately excited dc motor at constant
field current. The motor can operate in
the following condition
(a) Speed positive, torque positive
(b) Speed positive or negative, rorque
positive
(c) Speed positive, torque positive or
negative
(d) Speed positive or negative torque
positive or negative
Ans: (a)
118.A 3 phase converter feeds a pure
resistance load at a firing angle of =
600. The average value of current
flowing in the load is 10 A. If a very
large inductance is connected in the
load circuit, then the
(a) Average value of current will
remain as 10 A
(b) Average value of current will
become greater 10 A
(c) Average value of current will
become less than 10 A
(d) Trend of variation of current
cannot be predicted unless the
exact
value
of
inductance
connected is known
Ans: (a)
119.A PWM switching scheme is used
with a three phase inverter to
(a) Reduce
the
total
harmonic
distortion with modest filtering
(b) Minimize the load on the DC side
(c) Increase the life of the batteries
(d) Reduce low order harmonics and
increase high order harmonics
Ans: (a)
120.Consider the following statements.
Switched mode power supplies are
preferred over the continuous types
because they are
1. Suitable for use in both ac and dc
2. More efficient
3. Suitable for low-power circuits
4. Suitable for high-power circuits
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans:
(ACE Engg. Academy – Hyderabad, Vijayawada ,New Delhi, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar & Visakhapatnam)
(c)
:: 17 ::
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