TESTE 2

ATR 72-500(212A)
By Inst. Roberto C. A. Filho
1) In case of main BAT OVHT with main BAT CHG
FAULT light on, what happens to the busses
powered by that battery?

A) The HOT MAIN BAT BUS is lost and DC ESS BAT BUS is
powered by DC BUS 1
B) They automatically transfer to EMER BAT.
C) They will loose power when the battery goes below
19.5V.
D) All of the above.
2) DC SCVE and UTILITY BUS SHED amber light comes on when:

A) UTILITY BUS 1 and UTILITY BUS 2 are shed.

B) At least one UTLY BUS is disconnected from associated main
DC BUS.
C) The corresponding DC SVCE and UTILITY BUS push- button is
switched off.
D) The DC SVCE BUS is connected to Ground Handling BUS.
3) "BAT" selector toggle "SW" on "OVRD" means that:
A)DC/AC STBY BUSSES are transferred from DC ESS BUS to
DC EMER BUS.
B)No changing about the supply, each EMER, ESS and STBY
BUS are forced to be connected to their respective
batteries, overriding all other logic and protection.
C) Each BAT continues to be charged by its respective DC
BUS.
D)Each BAT is isolated from its respective HOT BUS.
4) STBY BUS OVRD push-button set on OVRD means
that:
A)DC STBY BUS and AC STBY BUS through INV 1 are
supplied from DC HOT EMER BUS.
B)DC STBY BUS and AC STBY BUS through INV 1 are
supplied from DC BUS 2.
C) DC STBY BUS and AC STBY BUS through INV 1 are
supplied from DC HOT MAIN BAT BUS.
D)Only DC STBY BUS is supplied from DC HOT MAIN BAT BUS.
5) In the ACW system, how many BTC (bus tie contactors) are
used?

A) One BTC and one BTC PB.

B) Two BTC and one BTC PB.
C) Four BTC and two BTC PB.
D)There aren´t BTC .
6) A/C in flight, ACW GEN 1 fails:

A) All ACW busses remain supplied by ACW GEN 2.

B) ACW SVCE BUS only is shed.
C) ACW BUS 1 is lost.
D)All ACW busses are lost
7) When the ACW SVCE BUS is shed, what indication(s) is/are
given?

A) None
B) SHED amber light in F/A panel ACW SVCE BUS push-button.
C) SHED amber light in overhead MAIN ELECT PANEL DC
SVCE/UTLY push-button.
D)The AVAIL green light will illuminate in the EXT PWR P.B.
8) The main battery is:

A)Lead acid
B)A 24V nicad rated at 43 Amp/hr
C) A 24V battery rated at 15 Amp/hr
D)Identical to the emergency battery.
9) What is the main function of the emergency battery
during engine starting/cranking?

A) During the battery only start, it provides back-up starter

power if the main battery is weak
B) During a battery start or when using the opposite generator
for a cross start, it provides back-up power if the main battery
is weak.
C) It powers the Hot Emergency Battery Bus circuits to isolate
those components from potentially damaging electrical
transients associated with engine starts.
D)It reverts to a series configuration with the main battery to
provide 48V for engine starting.
10) If the No 1 inverter fails:

A)The No 1 115VAC and the 26VAC buses are lost until

battery OVRD is selected.
B)The AC Bus 1 BUS OFF light illuminates for 10 seconds
and then extinguishes as the INV FAULT light illuminates.
C) All AC buses are immediately switched to the No 2
inverter.
D)The AC Standby buses are delayed for 10 seconds before
switching to the No 2 inverter.
11) When the Amber UND/V light illuminates, pressing the STBY
BUS/INV 1 switch to OVRD will transfer the associated buses
to the:

A) Hot Emergency Battery Bus

B) Hot Main Battery Bus
C) DC Essential Bus
D)DC Standby Bus
12) CCAS triggers:

A)Visual alerts only.

B)Aural alerts only.
C) Visual (Local and central) and aural alerts.
D)Visual (Central but not local) and aural alerts.
13) The master caution system is typically identified with:

A)Emergency situation.
B)Abnormal situation.
C) Advisories.
D)Only Information.
14) Can you extinguish all CAP lights by pressing CLR push
button?

A)Yes.
B)Yes, only for the amber lights.
C) Yes, for the red and amber lights except PRKG BRK, GPWS
FAULT, CCAS and MAINT PNL.
D)Yes, for the amber lights except PRKG BRK, GPWS FAULT,
CCAS and MAINT PNL.
15) Annunciator lights test runs as soon as:

A)ANN LT switch is in test position

B)ANN LT is in test position; DC electrical PWR available,
provided DC SVC BUS is not shed on OVHD panel or
hostess panel.
C) ANN LT switch is in test position and engines running.
D)ANN LT switch is in test position and engines stopped.
16) MAINT PANEL amber light on CAP means that?

A)The CCAS rotary selector on left maintenance panel is not

in “NORM FLT” position.
B)The cockpit voice recorder is full at 80%.
C) A magnetic indicator has turned to amber on one of the
maintenance panels.
D)One of the maintenance panel protective covers is not
properly closed.
17) T.O. CONFIG test is used before take off to check:

A)PRW MGT selector in TO position.

B)Pitch trim in green sector.
C) Flaps 15 degrees.
D)All of the above.
18) The “TO INHI” function is cancelled automatically when:

A)The first leg of landing gear unlocks before retraction.

B)Gear is locked up.
C) Gear and flaps are up.
D)The first leg of landing gear and flaps are up.
19) When the “EMERGENCY AUDIO CANCEL” spring-loaded
switch is used to stop a continuous aural alert:
A)The specific alert is silenced until aircraft is powered up
again except for, GEAR, VMO/VFE/VLE, PITCH TRIM
WHOOLER and STALL, which will occur again when
triggered.
B)The specific alert is silenced until the alert for the same
or any other continuous audio alert occurs.
C) The specific alert is silenced until RCL is pushed.
D)All audio alert are inhibited as long as the switch is left at
“CANCEL” position.
20) Stick pusher is inhibited:

A)On ground only.

B)On ground and as long as TO INHI is on.
C) On ground and for 10 seconds after lift off.
D)On ground and as long as flaps are not retracted.
21)Level 2 Alerts are identified by an amber MC flasher, an
amber CAP, and:

A)A continuous repetitive chime.

B)A single chime
C) A specific aural alert
D)No other indication.
22) The lamps within each red CAP light and red MW
flasher use which power source(s)?

A)Hot Battery Emergency Bus

B)AC Standby Bus
C) DC Essential Bus or DC Bus 1
D)DC Standby Bus or Hot Main Battery Bus
23) Which of the following amber CAP lights cannot be
extinguished with the CLR pushbutton?

A)LOOP
B)MAINT PNL
C) ENG
D)EFIS COMP
24) In which cases does the engine bleed valve close
automatically?

A)Overheat, leak, or lack of air pressure.

B)Fire handle actuated, and during starting sequence.
C) Propeller brake selected ON (for left BLEED VALVE only).
D)All of the above is correct.
25) To ensure a rapid leak sensing, a kevlar envelope is
installed around the major part of the high temperature
bleed duct:

A)In the wing leading edge and wing fuselage firing.

B)In the upper and lower fuselage floor.
C) In the air conditioning pack area.
D)All of the above correct.
26) The cross-feed bleed valve opens automatically:

A)On ground, both engines running.

B)On ground, when BLEED AIR is supplied from a single
engine
C) In flight single engine operation.
D)On gound or in flight, when BLEED AIR is supplied from a
both engine.
27) How many duct overheat switches are used on each
side to detect pneumatic system overheat.

A)One
B)Two
C) Three
D)Four
28) Air conditioning packs are installed:

A)Both in the left landing gear fairing.

B)Both in the RH landing gear fairing.
C) One in each landing gear fairing.
D)One in each engine.
29) What happens to excess air from the left pack?

A)It is vented overboard.

B)It is used to supply the cabin
C) It is used for cargo ventilation.
D)It is vented outflow.
30) What is the electrical power supply for the left pack?

A)AC STBY BUS.

B)DC BUS 1.
C) ACW BUS 1.
D)DC STBY BUS.
31) Airflow level is controlled:

A)Automatically, according to the bleed air pressure.

B)By the self-regulating valve that provides minimum flow
(PL at FI)
C) Manually, by a single NORMAL/HIGH push-button.
D)All of the above is correct.
32) Provided that the relative pack valves are not closed,
the cooling fans are running:

A)Automatically, on ground only.

B)Automatically, on ground and manually in flight.
C) Automatically, on ground and in flight below 150 Kts.
D)Automatically, in flight pressing Airflow P.B.
33) Temp selector OVHT caution is triggered when:

A)Duct temperature exceeds 92°C\200°F.

B)Cabin temperature exceeds 35°C.
C) Compressor temperature exceeds 204°C.
D)Duct temperature exceeds 88°C
34) If the related electrical supply or airflow is lost, pack
valves:

A)Remain open.
B)Close.
C) Remain open until electrical power or airflow is returned.
D)Close until the system is reset.
35) When the TEMP SEL push button is in AUTO
(depressed), the electronic temperature controller
controls the temperature valve position in response to:

A)Only the temperature control knob

B)Only knob position and compartment temperature
C) Only knob position and duct temperature
D)Knob position, duct, compartment and skin temperatures
36) With the TEMP SEL in AUTO, the electronic
temperature controller regulates which of the following?

A)Temperature control valve position

B)Pack outlet temperature
C) Bleed Valve
D)Pack valve
37) Aircraft in flight, or on ground tow engines running,
what are the normal positions of the OVBD and under
floor valves?

A)OVBD fully closed, UNDERFLOOR fully closed.

B)OVBD fully closed, UNDERFLOOR fully open.
C) OVBD fully open, UNDERFLOOR fully closed.
D)OVBD Partially open, UNDERFLOOR fully closed.
38) In flight the exhaust mode push button on OVBD position,
and the control switch on AUTO mode:

A) Extract fan is off, U/F valve is close, OVBD valve is partially

open.
B) Extract fan is off, U/F valve is partially close, OVBD valve is
partially open.
C) Extract fan is on, U/F valve is close, OVBD valve is partially
open.
D)Extract fan is off, U/F valve is close, OVBD valve is fully open.
39) The pneumatic outflow valve:

A)Is always slaved to the electro-pneumatic outflow valve.

B)Operates in manual mode only.
C) Is slaved to the electro-pneumatic outflow valve in
automatic mode only.
D)Is slaved to the eletro-pneumatic outflow valve in DITCH
mode only.
40) If the automatic pressurization control is desired, in
what position should the manual rate knob be placed
initially?

A)Normal
B)Automatic
C) Full increase
D)9-10 o’clock position
41) How many outflow valves open in DUMP?

A)Only the pneumatically controlled outflow valve

B)Only the electro-pneumatically controlled outflow valve
C) Both: the electro-pneumatic and the pneumatic outflow
valves
D)Both outflow valves and the OVBD valve
42) How high above take-off elevation cab the aircraft be
operated without canceling the automatic return
feature?

A)1500ft
B)2500ft
C) 3500ft
D)4500ft
43) At what cabin altitude does the red EXCESS CAB ALT
light illuminate?

A)6,740 ft
B)9,200 ft
C) 10,000 ft
D)14,000 ft
44) What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?

A)5.85
B)6.35
C) 8.0
D)8.25
45) Each hydraulic system is mainly pressurized by means
of:

A)An engine driven pump.

B)An ACW electrical pump.
C) An alternate pump.
D)An DC electrical pump.
46) What is the normal accumulator pre-charge pressure
on the three gauges near the left main gear bay:

A)800 psi.
B)1500 psi.
C) 3000 psi.
D)500 psi.
47) When a LO PR amber light on GREEN hydraulic pump
push button comes on, the cross-feed valve automatically
opens:

A)True.
B)False.
C) Depending of the BLUE pressure only.
D)Only in flight.
48) In case of BLUE hydraulic main pump LO PR alert (in
flight, gear up):

A)AUX PUMP take over automatically.

B)AUX PUMP take over automatically, if GREEN pressure is
not available.
C) AUX PUMP does not take over automatically.
D)AUX PUMP take over automatically, if there indication of
low level in the GREEN hydraulic system.
49) At what pressure does the LO PR light illuminate?

A)1800 PSI
B)1500 PSI
C) 2200 PSI
D)3000 PSI
50) In flight with normal (ACW powered) hydraulic pumps
failed, and the HYD PWR panel AUX PUMP push button in
(depressed), when will the auxiliary pump run?

A)Only after the gear selector is down

B)Only when the gear selector is down and the AUX PUMP
push button on the pedestal has been pushed
C) Only after the cross-feed is open
D)The gear must be down and the cross-feed open
51) Where are the sensors for the 3 OVHT lights?

A)On the pump drain cases

B)On the return lines to the reservoir
C) In the reservoir
D)In the supply lines feeding each pump
52) In case of LO LVL alert:

A)CROSS-FEED VALVE is automatically closed, but can be

open after gear extension.
B)CROSS-FEED VALVE is automatically closed, but can be
open after DC AUX PUMP is on.
C) CROSS-FEED VALVE is automatically closed and inhibited.
D)CROSS-FEED VALVE has to be closed manually.
54) The landing gear selector valve is located in the LH main
gear fairing, and is controlled electrically from which bus?

A)ACW BUS 1.
B)DC STBY BUS.
C) DC BUS 2.
D)DC EMER BUS.
54) A red light incorporated in the landing gear lever will
illuminate and CCAS will be activated whenever any gear
is not seen down and locked by the detection system 2
and:

A)Flaps in emergency position (45°).

B)Flaps 30° and Zra below 500ft.
C) At least one PL at FI and Zra below 500 ft.
D)All of the above.
55) Landing gear not locked down PL at FI and Zra below
500 ft, the aural alert may be silenced by:

A)Emergency audio cancel switch only.

B)Depressing the MASTER CAUTION light.
C) Depressing the MASTER WARNING light.
D)This alert can not be silenced.
56) Maximum tyre speed is:

A)173 KTS GS
B)173 KIAS
C) 165 TAS
D)165 KTS GS
57) Antiskid touch down protection (all brakes released
even with pedals depressed) is available during wheel
spin-up up to how many knots or number of seconds,
whichever occurs first?

A)20 KTS or 3 seconds

B)35 KTS or 5 seconds
C) 28 KTS or 6 seconds
D)31 KTS or 7 seconds
58) The anti-skid system uses which electrical buses?

A)AC Standby
B)DC1 or DC2
C) HOT MAIN BAT or HOT EMER BAT buses
D)DC ESS for inboard wheels and DC EMER for outboard
wheels
59) The anti-skid locked wheel protection uses which of the
following wheel speed reference system:

A) Compares LH inboard to RH inboard and LH outboard to RH

outboard
B) Compares LH inboard to LH outboard and RH inboard to RH
outboard
C) Compares individual wheel speeds to a reference speed
artificially generated within the anti-skid system
D)Compares nose-wheel speeds to main-gear wheel speeds
60) How long should the anti-skid F lights illuminate during
a test of a normal system?

A)As long as the TEST push button is depressed

B)10 Seconds
C) 6 seconds on the ground and 3 seconds in the air
D)Until the brake pedals are depressed, or the parking
brake handle is pulled
61) What are the minimum number of applications of
accumulator braking available by the parking brake
handle?
A)1
B)4
C) 6
D)8
62) The pitch trim switches on the yokes use power from
which bus?

A)DC Bus 2
B)DC Bus 1
C) DC Emergency Bus
D)Hot Main Battery Bus
63) The STBY PITCH trim switch on the pedestal use power
from which bus?

A)DC Bus 1
B)DC Bus 2/DC Emergency Bus
C) DC Bus 1/DC Emergency Bus
D)Hot Main Battery Bus
64) When do the roll spoilers begin to move?

A)As soon as the wheel is displaced from neutral

B)After an aileron deflection of 2.5º
C) At full aileron deflection
D)When spoiler deflection is indicated on the overhead
panel
65) The gust lock acts on controls for:

A)Elevator and rudder

B)Elevator only
C) Aileron and elevator
D)Elevator, aileron and rudder
66) What is the meaning of the blue EXT flag on the flaps
position indicator?

A)Hydraulic fluid is flowing

B)Hydraulic fluid is not flowing
C) Flaps are extended
D)Flaps are not completely extended to the commanded
position
67) How is the LP valve at the outlet of each fuel tank
controlled?

A)Mechanically by the related fire handle.

B)Electrically by the related fire handle.
C) Mechanically by the related condition lever.
D)Electrically by the related condition lever.
68) How many dripless magnetic fuel indicators are located
in the bottom of each tank?

A)One
B)Two
C) Three
D)Four
69) What does it mean if the green flow bar is not visible in
the X FEED pushbutton?

A)Cross feed is closed.

B)Cross feed is open but no fuel is being transferred.
C) Cross feed valve is in transit, or a fault exists.
D)Pushbutton is in the normal position (out or released).
70) How is the HP valve at the HMU controlled?

A)Mechanically by the related fire handle.

B)Electrically by the related fire handle.
C) Mechanically by the related condition lever.
D)Electrically by the related condition lever.
71) The accessory gear box, which is driven by the HP spool,
contains drives for:

A)The DC starter/generator and ACW generator.

B)The DC starter/generator, the fuel HP pump and the oil
pump.
C) The DC starter/generator, the ACW generator, the fuel
HP pump and the oil pump.
D)The DC starter/generator, the propeller overspeed
solenoid.
72) The hydro mechanical unit (HMU) functions are;

A)To meter the fuel flow delivery to the engine.

B)To meter the fuel flow delivery to the engine.
C) To provide the motive flow to the fuel tank jet pump.
D)All of the above is correct.
73) What is the logic to engage the propeller brake?

A)Gear shock absorber compressed and just lock lever

engaged.
B)Blue hydraulic pressure available (READY LT illuminates
green).
C) Condition lever (CL) in fuel shut off or feather (NP signal
below 22%).
D)All of the above is correct.
74) Aircraft on ground, “PWR MGT ON T/O”, push button
ON, “ATPCS” is armed if:

A)Both PL above 56° and both torque above 53%.

B)Both PL above 49° and both CL on max. RPM.
C) Both PL above 65° and both torque above 90%.
D)Both PL above 49° and both torque above 46%.
75) When the PWR MGT is set in take-off position: what is indicated by
the two AMBER target bugs on the torque gauges?

A) PWR MGT amber bugs are set by FDAU (flight data acquisition unit)
to the reserve take-off power setting (up-trim value.)
B) PWR MGT amber bugs are set by FDAU (flight data acquisition unit)
to the normal take off power setting (take-off value.)
C) PWR mgt amber bugs are not indicating with PWR MGT in T/O
position.
D) PWR MGT amber bugs are set by EEC (Engine Eletronic Control) to
the reserve take-off power setting (up-trim value)
76) Foreign object ingestion is minimised by:

A)Inertial separation of contaminants within the inlet duct.

B)The use of ice vanes.
C) Pitot air inlet design of the nacelle.
D)No specific method.
77) Which spool drives the starter?

A)LP compressor spool.

B)HP compressor spool directly.
C) Power turbine.
D)HP compressor spool through the engine-driven
accessory drive.
78) The idle gate is designed to:

A)Prevent inadvertent selection of ground fine pitch during

a rejected landing.
B)Prevent moving the power levers below FI while in flight.
C) Ensure proper NH is attained during engine starting.
D)Prevent the propeller from decreasing below minimum
rpm while in flight.
79) During engine starting the EEC FAULT light normally
extinguishes above:

A)10% NH
B)25% NP
C) 25% NH
D)45% NH
80) How is ignition activated during engine starting?

A)Fully automatic after pressing the START push button.

B)When the associated CL is advanced from FUEL SO and
terminated automatically by the start control circuits.
C) Manually via the CONT RELIGHT selection.
D)When the associated CL is advanced from FUEL SO and
terminated at 25% NH.
81) Low propeller blade angles in flight result in:

A)LO PITCH lights illuminates.

B)CCAS activates Level 2 alerts and ENG illuminates on CAP.
C) Electric feathering valve activates.
D)All of the above.
82) A propeller may be feathered by:

A)Pulling the associated fire handle.

B)Positioning its condition level at FTR.
C) Automatically via the ATPCS system.
D)All of the above.
83) ATPCS is activates when armed and:

A)Either NP decreases below 71%.

B)Either NH below 72%.
C) Either torque drops below 18%.
D)Either oil pressure drops below 40psi.
84) Which of the following engine instruments should
indicate a value of 115 during test?
A)TORQUE.
B)ITT.
C) FF/FU
D)All of the above.
85) In the event of an engine failure during aproach, what
does ground arming of the ATPCS provide?

A)Auto-feathering and fuel up-trim.

B)Auto-feathering only.
C) Fuel up-trim only.
D)Fuel up-trim after a 2.15 second delay.