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Dr/Abdullah hassan Almoliky 967777752507

Choose the correct answer for questions (1-90:
Question 1-4:

M.A. 35 years old female, her medical history include ongoing asthma, allergic rhinitis,
gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD), and juvenile arthritis.
Her medication history indicates that she is currently taking the following medications:
Celecoxib 200 mg cap.
Cisapride 10 mg cap.
Ratadine 150 mg tab.
Cetirizine tab.
Montelukast 10 mg tab.

1. Which of medication should be taken with food, to enhance their absorption?

a. Cisapride
b. Cetirizine
c. Celecoxib
d. Ratadine
e. None of the above

2. Which medications are being taken for asthma and allergic reaction?
a. Cisapride
b. Cetirizine
c. Montelukast
d. Ratadine
e. B & C

3. Which drugs are being used to treat her arthritis?

a. Cisapride
b. Cetirizine
c. Celecoxib
d. Ratadine
e. None of the above

4. Which drugs are being used to treat her (GERD)?

a. Cisapride
b. Cetirizine
c. Montelukast
d. Ratadine
e. A & D
5. Which of the following cardiovascular agent is classified as a glycoside?
a. Nifedipine
b. Digoxin
c. Flecainide
d. Chlestyramine
e. Warfarin

6. Myopathy is an adverse effect of all the following agents except:

a. Atorvastatin.
b. Simvastatine
c. Rosuvastatine
d. Gemfibrozil
e. Colestipol

7. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately:

a. 1 g
b. 2 g
c. 3 g
d. 4 g
e. 5 g

8. Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

a. Regular insulin
b. Isophane insulin (NPH)
c. Protamine zinc insulin (PZT)
d. Semilent insulin
e. Ultralente insulin

9. All of the following drugs may enhance breast milk production by increasing prolactin
a. Haloperidol
b. Methyldopa
c. Metoclopramide
d. Bromocriptine
e. Theophylline

10. In the emergency department, the preferred first line therapy for asthma exacerbation is:
a. Theophylline
 b. Beta-agonist
c. Corticosteroid
d. Cromolyn sodium
e. Antihistamine

11. The active ingredient in Rizalt tablet is:

a. Rizatriptan
b. Pregabalin
c. Amlodipine
d. Duloxetine
e. Tinidazole

12. The manufacturer of Rizalt is:

a. MSD
b. Pfizer
c. Novartis
d. Leo
e. Lilly

13. Rizalt is indicated in:

a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Heart failure
e. Migraine attacks

14. The medicine which have same active ingredient of cialis is:
a. Viagra
b. Siafil
c. Sinagra
d. V-care
e. A & C& D

15. Diclofenac-sodium is the active ingredient of:

a. Anaflam
b. Voltaren
c. Mesulid
d. Tramal
 e. None of the above

16. Used in the treatment of herpes zoster:

a. Acyclovir
b. Dimethindene
c. Loratidine
d. Zinc oxide
e. None of the above

17. Used for the treatment of anaerobic bacterial infection

a. Gentamicin
b. Fucidic acid
c. Metronidazole
d. Cephalexin
e. None of the above

18. One of the following substances is soluble in water:

a. Tetracycline
b. Paracetamol
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Vitamin K
e. Indomethacin

19. Used in alopecia treatment:

a. Enalapril
b. Clonidine
c. Hydralazine
d. Atenolol
e. Minoxidil

20. Classified as controlled drug:

a. Indomethacin
b. Etodalac
c. Nimesulid
d. Rivotril
e. Lamotrigine

21. Used in fungal infection treatment:

 a. Atorvastatin
b. Metronidazole
c. Itraconazole
d. Clindamycin
e. Neomycin

22. Used in polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS)

a. Glimepride
b. Exenatide
c. Metformin
d. Glibenclamide
e. None of the above

23. Pantinol plus ® cream is manufactured by:

a. Beirzeit (BPC)
b. Gama
c. Sandoz
d. Pharmacare
e. Novartis

24. Contains bromocriptine as active ingredient:

a. Lactopar
b. Parilac
c. Parlodel
d. A & B & C
e. None of the above

25. All of these statements about (Pred-forte®) eye drops are true except:
a. Used in fungal infection treatment
b. Contains prednisolone as an active ingredient
c. Used with caution in glaucoma patient
d. Not to be used more than 2 weeks
e. Manufactured by allergen company

26. All of these statements about Trufen are true except:

a. Can cause peptic ulcer
b. Must be used with caution in hypertensive patients
c. Can cause addiction
 d. Available as 200, 400, 600 mg strengths
e. Manufactured by Jepharm

27. (-40) Celsius degree is equal to

a. – 60 Fahrenheit
b. 60 Fahrenheit
c. 80 Fahrenheit
d. 100 Fahrenheit
e. 40 Fahrenheit
28. All of these statements about paracetamol is true except:
a. Category B drugs, so it is safe during pregnancy
b. 150 mg strength is used for infants
c. Hepatitis is the main complication from paracetamol overdose
d. Has anti-inflammatory effect
e. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for paracetamol overdose

29. The medicine used to treat heparin overdose is:

a. High dose of aspirin
b. Atropine sulfate
c. Vitamin K
d. Paracetamol
e. Protamin sulfate

30. One of these following antibiotics can be used in pregnancy:

a. Tetracycline
b. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Gentamicin
e. Cefuroxime

31. Opioids are used as all of the following agents except

a. Antitussives
b. Analgesics
c. Anti-inflammatory
d. Antidiarrheals
e. Preanesthetic medications
32. Which of the following choices would be most appropriate in treating nausea and
vomiting associated with motion sickness?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Brompheniramine
c. Ondansetron
d. Omeprazole
e. Ranitidine

33. Which of the following antiulcer medications is most likely to cause drug interaction and
endocrine side effects
a. Ranitidine
b. Omeprazole
c. Lansoprazole
d. Cimetidine
e. Famotidine

34. The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibitors have been associated with which of the
following adverse drug reactions?
a. Severe ischemic colitis
b. Torsade des pointes
c. Cardiovascular thrombotic events
d. Acute liver failure
e. Churg-Strauss syndrome

35. BC has an upper respiratory infection. Two years ago she experienced an episode of
bronchospasm after penicillin therapy. Current cultures are positive for a strain of
Streptococcus pneumonia that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these
drugs would be the best choice for this patient?
a. Amoxicillin/ clavulanate
b. Azithrimycin
c. Ampicillin
d. Cefaclor
e. Cefdinir

36. Which of the following medications would be considered first-line monotherapy for an
acute episode of mania?
a. Gabapentin
b. Lithium
 c. Lamotrigine
d. Haloperidol
e. Sertraline

37. Osteoporosis is associated with the use of which of the following drugs used in
rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
a. Leflunomide
b. Prednisone
c. Methotrexate
d. Penicillamine
e. Hydroxychloroquine

38. Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following except:
a. Gastrointestinal ulceration
b. Renal dysfunction
c. Enhanced methotrexate toxicity
d. Cardiac arrhythmias
e. Hypersensitivity asthma.

39. All of the following are correct regarding infection prophylaxis in an organ transplant
patient except:
a. Trimethoprime-sulfamethoxazole for pneumocytiscarinii pneumonia prophylaxis
b. Nystatin for fungal infection
c. Oral acyclovir for herpes simplex
d. Clotrimazole troche for oral thrush
e. Levofloxacin for urinary tract infection

40. Two most important sites for drug elimination:

a. Pulmonary and liver
b. Liver and GIT
c. Kidney and liver
d. Skin and liver
e. Pulmonary and kidney

41. Factors which affect a drug’s volume of distribution

a. Patient’s gender
b. Patient’s age
c. Drug pka
 d. Extent of drug-plasma protein binding
e. All of the above

42. EC 50 mainly reflexes a drugs:

a. Maximal effect
b. Potency
c. Lethality
d. Ease of elimination
e. Safety

43. Xerostomia can result from the following drugs side effects
a. Antidepressants
b. Antihistamines
c. Antihypertensive
d. A & B
e. All of the above
44. Receptors are usually made up of
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. DNA
d. Esters
e. Amines

45. Factors affecting renal drug secretion rates

a. Carrier saturation
b. Drug transfer rates across tubular membrane
c. Degree of drug-plasma protein binding
d. Rate of drug delivery to secretory sites
e. All of the above

46. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin

a. B12
b. C
c. E
d. B6
e. K

47. In acute allergic reaction, the first drug that should be administered is
 a. Penicillin
b. Adrenaline
c. Morphine sulfate
d. Diclifenac Na
e. All of the above

48. Factors influencing osteoporosis development

a. Calcium intake
b. Degree of physical activity
c. Smoking
d. A & B
e. A & B & C

49. Primarily used to promote ovulation in patients wishing to become pregnant

a. Danazole
b. Medroxyprogesterone
c. Clomiphene
d. L-Norgestrel
e. Tamoxifen

50. Most common complication of insulin therapy:

a. Lipodystrophies
b. Hypotension
c. Gallstones
d. Hypoglycemia
e. Retinopathy

51. Second generic sulfonylurea

a. Chloropromide
b. Tolazamide
c. Acetohexamide
d. Glipizide
e. Tolbutamide

52. Methylparaben is used in the drug formulation as a

a. Diluents
b. Buffering agent
c. Disintegrant
 d. Preservative
e. Lubricant

53. Beta-receptor antagonist primarily used for the treatment of glaucoma

a. Propranolo
b. Esmolol
c. Nadolol
d. Timolol
e. Pilocarpine

54. Drugs used to manage allergic reactions

a. Glucocorticoids
b. Antihistamines
c. Subcutaneous epinephrine
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

55. Most current opioid analgesics act at this opioid receptor subtype
a. Sigma
b. Kappa
c. Delta
d. Epsilon
e. Mu

56. Major adverse effect of heparin

a. Osteoporosis
b. Alopecia
c. Bleeding
d. Spontaneous fractures
e. Reduced glomerular filtration

To dispense an order calling for:

Prednisone 5 mg, one t.i.dx3 days, one b.i.dx3 days , one q.d.x3 days

57. The total medication needed is

a. 15 tab.
b. 18 tab.
 c. 21 tab.
d. 24 tab.
e. 27 tab.

58. The drug Adeef contains the following active ingredient

a. Cefazolin
b. Cefixime
c. Cefdinir
d. Cefonicid
e. Cefotaxime

59. The drug Adeef is classified as

a. First generation cephalosporin
b. Second generation cephalosporin
c. Third generation cephalosporin
d. Fourth generation cephalosporin
e. Fifth generation cephalosporin

60. Mechanism of action for cochicine

a. Direct membrane stabilization
b. Binds to intracellular tubulin-preventing/ reducing microtubule formation
c. Decreases purine synthesis directly
d. Prevents IL-1 release directly
e. None of the above

61. A locally manufacture drug that contains the same active ingredient as celebra
a. Celex
b. Movalis
c. Belara
d. Lozar
e. Mepral

62. The active ingredient in Pantover is

a. Panthenol
b. Pantoprazole
c. Paroxetine
d. Omeprazole
e. Esomeprazole
63. The manufacturer of Pantover is
a. Birzeit
b. Jerusalem
c. Pharmacare
d. Beit Jala
e. None of the above

64. The active ingredient in Effient is

a. Pravastatin
b. Praziquantel
c. Premethrin
d. Prasugrel
e. Phenylphrine

65. The drug Elocom contains the following active ingredient

a. Clobetasol propionate
b. Mometasonefuroate
c. Buserelin
d. Bupropion
e. Budeson

66. The drug Elocom is manufactured by

a. MSD
b. Schring-Plough
c. Novartis
d. Danpharm
e. Bayer

67. A drug that inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation is

a. Aspirin
b. Eptifibatide
c. Clopidex
d. Tirofiban
e. Abciximab

68. Plavix is manufactured by

a. MSD
 b. Schring-Plough
c. Novartis
d. Sanofi-aventis
e. Bayer

69. Thiazides are known to reduce exertion of

a. Diazepam
b. Fluoxetine
c. Imipramine
d. Lithium
e. Potasium

70. The active ingredient in Amicor drug is

a. Amlodioine
b. Isosorbide mononitrate
c. Enalapril
d. Verapamil
e. Nifedipine

71. The most likely cause of death associated with an overdose of acetaminophen is
a. Arrhythmia
b. Hemorrhage stroke
c. Liver failure
d. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
e. Ventilator failure

72. All of the following belong to macrolides except

a. Rovamycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Clarithromycin
d. Azithromycin
e. Ofloxacin

73. The active ingredient in cytotec is

a. Cimetidine
b. Famotidine
c. Celecoxib
d. Omeprazole
 e. Misoprostol

74. The active ingredient in Flucan is

a. Fluconazole
b. Itracanazole
c. Dicanazole
d. Micanazole
e. Bifenazole

75. A patient allergic to penicillin group antibiotics has to avoide

a. Zitrocin
b. Klacid
c. Levox
d. Taricin
e. Drypen

76. Clomiphene citrate is used clinically in the treatment of

a. Psoriasis
b. Depression
c. Infertility
d. Dysmenorrheal
e. Nausea

77. Lescol 40 mg capsules contains

a. Fluvaststin as sodim
b. Levofloxacin hemihydrates
c. Atorvastatin
d. Terbinafine hydrochloride
e. Loperamide hydrochloride

78. All of the following are B antagonists excepts

a. Salbutamol
b. Metoprolol
c. Nadolol
d. Atenolol
e. C & D

79. The USP content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?
 ‫‪a.‬‬ ‫‪Bioequivalency‬‬
‫‪b.‬‬ ‫‪Dissolution‬‬
‫‪c.‬‬ ‫‪Potency‬‬
‫‪d.‬‬ ‫‪Purity‬‬
‫‪e.‬‬ ‫‪Toxicity‬‬

‫‪80. Monitoring of INR is essential in monitoring patients using‬‬

‫‪a. Heparin‬‬
‫‪b. Lamotrigine‬‬
‫‪c. Warfarine‬‬
‫‪d. Glimepiride‬‬
‫‪e. Acarbose‬‬

‫‪(81- 90) answer with yes or no:‬‬

‫واحدةصيدالنية مؤسسة من ألكثر مالكا يكون ان للصيدلي يجوز ال‬ ‫‪.18‬‬

‫مربعمتر ‪ 04‬عن الصيدلية مساحة تقل ال ان يجب‬ ‫‪.28‬‬
‫كانألي المفرق و بالجملة األدوية لبيع مخصص األدوية مستودع‬ ‫‪.38‬‬
‫و الخارج الى سفره بسبب األصول حسب فقط شهرا ‪ 21‬لمدة صاحبها أغلقها صيدلية‬ ‫‪.48‬‬
‫عملهممارسة و افتتاحها بإعادة الحق له رجع عندما‬
‫الصانعةالشركة قبل من مطبوعا او بالحبر مختوما الدواء انتهاء تاريخ يكون ان يجوز‬ ‫‪.58‬‬
‫المسئولالصيدالني بمنزل يتصل آخر فرعي باب العامة للصيدلية يكون ان يجوز‬ ‫‪.68‬‬
‫كانأي قبل من الصيدلية في اإلبر حقن يجوز‬ ‫‪.78‬‬
‫العامالشارع على خيرية لجمعية التابعة الخاصة الصيدلية باب يكون ان يجوز ال‬ ‫‪.88‬‬
‫إلى باإلضافة دعاية كمندوب العمل الصيدلية عن المسئول او المالك للصيدالني يجوز‬ ‫‪.98‬‬
‫الصيدليةفي عمله‬
‫موافقة و علم دون الصيدلية بيع تم حال في الوزارة من الممنوح الصيدلية ترخيص يلغى‬ ‫‪.09‬‬
‫الوزارة‬