Pharmacology MCQ Exam 2023

1. Choose the correct answer: (1 mark each)

1. Drugs products have many types of names. Which one that is official name
and most often used in pharmacology

a. Chemical name b. Trade name

c. Proprietary name d.Generic name

2. Which of the following is classified as belonging to DNA - linked receptors

a. GABA receptor b. B adrenergic receptor

c. Insulin receptor d. sex hormone receptor

3. Therapeutic consequences of drugs metabolism could be

a. Increase drug effectiveness b. Increase drug toxicity

c. Inactivate drugs d.all of them

4. Which is true regarding a full agonist:

a. Maximum response efficacy

b. Reduced response or efficacy
c. Decrease number of activated receptors
d. None of the above
 5. A rapid reduction in the effect of a given dose of a drug after only one
or two doses is

a. Tolerance b. Tachyphylaxis
c. Hypersensitivity d. Anaphylaxis

6. Which of the following statements is true

a. in blood drug present in bounded and free form

b. some drugs have high affinity to plasma protein and can
displace other drugs
c. most of drugs bound to albumin
d. lall the above

7. Regarding drug excretion via GIT which is true.

a. drugs with high Mwt (> 300 Da) or glucuronidated are involved in this process
b. cholestatic disease states will increase the toxicity of drugs that excreted by GIT
c.Drugs undergo enterohepatic recycling and have long duration of action
d. all are true except b

8. Botulinum toxin causes paralysis by

a. Inhibiting choline acetyltransferase

b. Blocking transport of choline into neurons
c. Blocking release of acetylcholine from storage vesicles
d. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterasex

9. 3. A 30-year-old man presents to the ER (emergency room) after an accident

in which he inadvertently chopped off(cut) the tip of his index finger. He is
taken to the operation room for reattachment of the digit, and after sedation, a
local anesthetic is administered around the site of the injury. The local
anesthetic used in the procedure did not contain any epinephrine, as it
usually does for most surgical procedures. The reason for this is
a. Epinephrine causes increased blood loss during delicate surgery
b. Epinephrine causes swelling of the tissues, making surgery more challenging
c. Epinephrine is contraindicated in emergency surgery
d. Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction, which can lead to vascular ischemia in
digits

10. What class of medications does bethanechol belong to?

a. Nicotinic blockers b. a-Agonists

c. Muscarinic agonists

11. Which of the following medications is used to prevent premature labor?

a. Tamsulosin
d. Tolterodine
c. Cevimeline
d.retrodrine

12. A drug that acts at prejunctional a2-adrenoceptors and is used to

treat hypertension is

a) Clonidine b. Metaproterenol
c. Dobutamine d. Dopamine

13. Dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia caused by

succinylcholine b/c it

a. Blocks Ca 2 release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

b. Induces contraction of skeletal muscle
c. Increases the rate of succinylcholine metabolism
d. Inhibits succinylcholine binding to nicotinic receptors

14. The direct cardiac effects of dobutamine would be blocked by which

one of the following agents

a. Prazosin b.Metoprolol
c. Clonidine d. Isoproterenol
15. Hyoscine is contraindicated in one of the following

a. Peptic Ulcer b. Motion sickness

c. Benign prosthetic hyperplasia d. Intestinal colics

16. Which of the following is a 1st generation Hi-antagonist

a.Diphenhydramine b. Cetirizine
c. Terfenadine d. Fexofenadine

17. Increased urinary levels of vanilyl mandelic acid (VMA) above 8m/
24 hrs is diagnostic marker of

al pheochromocytoma b. carcinoid tumor

c. leukemia d. astrocytoma

18. A drug used in acute attacks of migraine due to partial agonist effect
at 5-HT iD & a-adrenoceptor causing VC

a.Sumitriptan
b. Methysergide
c. Ergotamine d. Cyproheptadine

19. Which of the following autacoid' metabolite was used for diagnosis of
carcinoid

a. Prostaglandins
b. Histamine
c.Serotonin d. Vasopressin

20. Which drug of the following can be used in acute attack of gouty arthritis,

a. Allopurinol b. febuxostat
c. Probenecid d. Colchicine
21.……......is a common side effect of Methotrexate
a. Agranulocytosis b. Peptic ulceration
c. hepatotoxicity. d. Allergy
 22. Latanoprost is a

a.PGF2a used in labor induction &postpartum hemorrhage

b. PGF2a used in Glaucoma
c. is a PGEl used in Peptic ulcer associated with NSAIDs.
d. PGE2 used in Abortion & induce labor

23. Regarding aspirin, which of the following is incorrect

a. its reversible action on COXI&2 result in longer duration of its anti-platelets

effect.
b. Therapeutic dose of aspirin is eliminated by zero order elimination
c. Safe in patients with bronchial asthma & renal disease
d. All of the above

24 . A 19-year-old girl with a history of sulfa allergy is diagnosed with left-side

ulcerative colitis after a 4-week history of bloody diarrhea and tenesmus.
On examination he is afebrile and has no abdominal tenderness. The
appropriate drug therapy to institute initially is which of the following

a. Metronidazole b. Sulfasalazine
c.Mesalamine d. Cyclosporine

25. Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by the presence of

a.Gastrin and acetylcholine b. Histamine and motilin

c. Norepinephrine and gastrin d. Norepinephrine and histamine

26. Tick the drug forming a physical barrier to HCL and Pepsin:

a. Ranitidine b.Sucralfate c. Omeprazole d. Pirenzepine

27. Misoprostol has a cytoprotective action on GI mucosa due to

a. Promote mucus & bicarbonate secretion
b. Neutralize acid secretion
c. Suppress acid production by blocking of H/K ATPase enzyme
d. Delay gastric emptying rate
 28. All of these drugs contain free sulfhydryl groups and mucolytic agents
EXCEPT:
a. Acetylcysteine b. Ambroxol,
c. Bromhexin d. Trypsin

30. A 13-year-old patient is brought to your allergy practice complaining of

chronic cough that gets quite severe at times. The condition occurs about
twice a week and is beginning to interfere with his studies. Which of the
following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

a. Oral prednisone b. Omalizumab

c.Diphenhydramine. d. Inhaled budesonide
31. which of the following is an adverse effect associated with pharmacotherapy
using heparin
a. An increase in the number of circulating platelets
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Purple toe syndrome
d. Teratogenicity to the fetus

32. The thrombolytic drug reteplase is improved over older drugs like
streptokinase in what respect?

a. Reteplase may be taken orally.

b. Reteplase is antigenic.
c Reteplase binds to fibrin.
d. Bleeding does not occur with reteplase.

33. All of these drugs are antiplatelet agents EXCEPT:

a. Aspirin b.Urokinase c. Ticlopidine d. Clopidogre

34. Regarding Flecainide ( class Ic antiarrhythmic drugs) which is true

a. may cause sudden death
b. May cause severe exacerbation of arrhythmia to pts with previous MI
c.decrease SA node firing and has no action on A V conduction
d. all are true except c
35. about Amiodarone which is true
a. it increases the level of warfarin
b. cause pulmonary fibrosis
c. thyroid function should be monitored periodically
d. all the above

36. Regarding captopril which is true

a. can cause azotemia, and contraindicated in pregnancy
b. decrease the blood pressure by lowering the level of Ang II
C. decrease the level of bradykinin
d. the above except c

37. Regarding prazosin all are correct except

a. cause vasodilatation
b. increase total cholesterol
c. cause reflex tachycardia
d. prevent adrenergic activity

38. Regarding beta-blockers as antihypertensive agents which is not true

a. decrease blood pressure by lowering heart rate

b. decrease blood pressure by decreasing contractility of heart
c. can be used by pt with peripheral vascular disease
d. contraindicated in pt with obstructive lung disease
39. A patient with a mild CHF is treated with furosemide. What is its primary
MOA

a.lInhibition of Na*, K* ATPase

b. Inhibition of Na*, K*, CI co-transporter
c. Inhibition of CI co-transporter
d. Inhibition of Ca* transporter

40. One of the following opioids does not cause miosis

a.Morphine b.Mepridine c. Heroin d .Fentany

 41. Acute morphine toxicity is treated by

a.Naloxone b. Naltrexone c. Methadone d. N acetyl cystiene

42. Benzodiazepines mechanism of action

a. Prolong the duration of cl channel opening through GABAa receptors

b. Facilitate GABA effect on GABAa receptors
c. Increase the frequency of Na influx
d. Increase the outflux of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum

43. One of the following opioid drug used in treatment of cough

a. Dextromethorphan b. Diphenhydramine
c. Mepridine d. fentanyl

44. Barbiturates are contraindicated in all of the following except

a. Respiratory diseases b. neonatal jauindce

c. Shock d. pregnancy

45. Codeine is a

a. Strong opioid agonist b. Mixed opioid agonist-antagonist

c. Pure opioid antagonist d. natural weak opioid

46. Which of the following a an IV anesthetic with dissociative anesthesia

a. Propofol b.Ketamine c. Thiopental d. Etomidate

47. A potent local anesthetic agent with long DOA & preferred for epidural
anesthesia is.

a. Lidocaine b. Prilocaine c. Bupivacaine d. Procaine

48. In addition to its use in treatment of schizophrenia, chlorpromazine is
effective.
a. in reducing nausea & vomiting
b. in treatment of depression
c. treating bipolar affective disorder
d. as an antihistaminic

49. Prilocaine is a local anaesthetic agent that contraindicated in

a. obstetric analgesia due to the risk of neonatal

methemoglobinemia
b. dermal anesthesia
c. dental anesthesia
d. none of the above

50. Among the following adverse effects, which is associated with lithium
treatment

a. Agranulocytosis b. Hypertention
c. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome d.Hypothyrodism

51. Levetiracetam is a medication used to treat all types of epilepsy that acts by

a.↓ Axonal conduction by preventing Nat influx through fast Nat channels
b.↓ Presynaptic Ca+2 influx through type T channels in thalamic neurons
c.modulation of synaptic neurotransmitter release through binding to the
synaptic vesicle protein SV2A in the brain.
d. ↑ GABA level in brain by inhibiting GABA transaminase

52. Regarding Haloperidol, which is true

a. more potent as antipsychotic drug than chlorpromazine

b. Produce a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects than Clozapine
c. its MOA is completely different from chlorpromazine
d. its classified as 2nd generation antipsychotic (Atypical neuroleptics)
53. Carbidopa is useful in the treatment of Parkinson's disease b/c it

a. is a precursor of levodopa
b. is a dopaminergic receptor agonist [c prevent peripheral
biotransformattion of L-dopa
d. prevent breakdown of dopamine

54. Phencyclidine may best be characterized by

a. has opioid activity

b. Its MOA related to its cholinergic properties
Tel can cause significant hallucinogenic activity
d. overdose can treated by specific antidote (mephenesin IV)

55. Which drug for treating acromegaly acts by blocking receptors for
growth hormone?

a. Pegvisomant b. Somatropin
c. Octreotide d. Sermorelin

56. Which agent is administered every 6 months to treat osteoporosis?

a. Abaloparatide b. Denusomab
c. Risedronate d. Zoledronic acid

57. A 75-year-old male, postprostatectomy for carcinoma of the prostate

with local metastasis found during surgery, would best be treated with which of
the following?

a. Mifepristone b. Teriparatide
c. Aminoglutethimide d. Leuprolide

58. Each of the following antidiabetic agents is correctly matched with an

appropriate mechanism of action EXCEPT:
a. Repaglinide……………..Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor.
b. Empagliflozin…..………Sodium -glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor.
c. Pioglitazone…….....Peroxisome proliferator- activated receptor- agonist.
d. Acarbose…...…..a-Glucosidase inhibitor.

59. Which of the following insulin preparations exhibits the longest

duration of action?

a. Insulin degludec. b. Insulin detemir.

c.Insulin lispro. d. Isophane insulin.

60. Desmopressin is indicated for pituitary diabetes insipidus and for

nocturnal enuresis because:

a. It is a Vi receptor agonist with potent antidiuretic activity.

b. It is a V2 receptor agonist with potent antidiuretic activity.
c. It is a V, receptor antagonist with potent antidiuretic activity.
d. It is a V2 receptor antagonist with potent antidiuretic activity.

61. All true regarding combination oral contraceptives EXCEPT:

a. Monophasic contraceptives contain the same

amount of progestin
b. Decrease viscosity of cervical mucus
c. Preventing ovulation.
d. Taken for 21 days.

62. Anti-inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids is caused by

a. Reducing the prostaglandin and leukotriene which results from

inhibition of phospholipase Az
b. Reducing macrophages migration into the site of inflammation
c. Decreasing capillary permeability
d. All of the above
63. A 44-year-old woman recently diagnosed with Graves' disease started
a therapy with methimazole. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes
most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in the patient's
disease?

a. Thyroid protease b. Thyroid aldolase

c. Thyroid monodeiodinase d. Thyroperoxidase

64. All true regarding managment of hypothyrodism EXCEPT:

a. Levothyroxine is drug of choice in treatment of hypothyroidism

b.Liothyronine is less potent than levothyroxine
c. Levothyroxine has long half-life.
d. Food can decrease the absorption of levothyroxine.

65. Which of these drugs can cause retinal detachment

a. ciprofloxacine b. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline d. a and b

66. about metronidazol which is true

a. active against aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
b.used to treat antibiotic associated pseudo membranous colitis
c. can cause disulfram like reactions
d.all the above except a
67. Regarding clindamycin which is true
a. active against many penicillin - resistant staphylococci
b. inhibit cell wall synthesis
c. can cause pseudo membranous colitis
d. all are true except b

68. about nitrofurantoin which is true

a. the development of resistance is common
b. reaches antibacterial concentrations in the plasma but
not in the urine
c. the GIT absorption is incomplete
d. all are wrong
 69. All the following are toxic effects of vancomycin except
a. Nephrotoxicity b. Ototoxicity
c. Chills and fever d.gray baby syndrome

70. Regarding cephalosporins that contain methylthiotetrazole

gp which is true

a. alcohol containing medication can be used with them

b. May cause bleeding
c. Accumulation of acetaldehyde can occur if used with alcohol
d. b and c

71, Which antifungal agent should be avoided in patients with evidence of

ventricular dysfunction?

a. Micafungin b. Itraconazole
c. Terbinafine d. Posaconazole

72 A 56-year-old woman with diabetes complains of thickening of the nail of

the right big toe and a change in color (yellow). (The diagnosis is
onychomycosis of the toe nails).
Which is the most appropriate choice for treating this infection?
b. Micafungin
a. Terbinafine
c. Itraconazole d. Griseofulvin

73. Which one of the statements describes the mechanism of Caspofungin

action?

a. Inhibition of cell membrane synthesis.

b. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
c. Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis.
d.Inhibition of mitotic spindle formation
 74. A 32-year-old pregnant woman is traveling abroad to a malaria-endemic
country with Known chloroquine resistance. Which prophylactic regimen is
most appropriate?

a. Doxycycline b. Mefloquine
c. Primaquine d. Artemether-lumefantrine
75. A group of college students are traveling to a chloroquine-
resistant malaria area for a trip .Which medication can be used to both
prevent and treat malaria in these students?

a. Pyrimethamine b. Artemisinin
c. Atovaquone-proguanil d. Hydroxychloroquine

II. Make true (T) or false (F) for each of the following: (1
mark each)

76. Bioavailability is the amount of drug needed to achieve a desired

plasma concentration (….)

77. Insulin receptor is considered a G-protein coupled receptor. (….)

78. A high dose of aspirin is eliminated by zero order elimination. (….)

79. Celecoxib is a COX inhibitor with a highly cardioprotective effect (….)

80. The use of heparin is recommended for treatment of deep venous

thrombosis. (….)
81. Zafirlucas is indicate as a leukotriene receptor antagonist: (….)

82. Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine agonist. (….)

83. Pancuronium is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant (….)

84. Atropine may cause a rise in body temperature

(atropine fever) in adult: (….)

85. Atosiban is a competitive antagonist of oxytocin (….)

86. Insulin glulisine is an intermediate acting insulin. (….)

87 beta-blocker contraindicated in prinzmetal angina (….)

88.long term use of milrinone cause mortality (….)

89. Telavancin disrupts bacterial cell membrane potential (….)

90. Fosfomycin excreted by kidney with low urinary cons (….)

Good Luck

saja Alashal