ENVIRONMENT_19272066

Test No- 1
Question No.1 This National Park is located along the Western Ghats in the state of
Karnataka. Three important rivers, the Tunga, the Bhadra, and the Netravati
are said to have their origin here. The animals found there include malabar
civets, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer. The above passage describes
which of the following national parks?
Type multiple-choice
Option (a) Nameri National Park Incorrect
Option (b) Eravikulam National Park Incorrect
Option (c) Kudremukh National Park Correct
Option (d) Bannerghatta National Park Incorrect
Solution Kudremukh National Park is a beautiful place, located in the Dakshina

Kannada, Udupi and Chikmagalur districts of the state of Karnataka. Nestled
in the Western Ghats. Three important rivers, the Tunga, the Bhadra, and the
Netravati are said to have their origin here. The Tunga River and Bhadra
River flow freely through the parklands. The animals found there include
malabar civets, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer.
Eravikulam National Park is located along the Western Ghats in the Idukki
district of Kerala in India. It is the first national park in Kerala. Eravikulam
National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Anamudi, (2,695 meters),
the highest peak in India south of the Himalayas is inside this park. Many
perennial streams criss-cross the park. They merge to form tributaries of the
Periyar river in the west and of the Cauvery River in the east.
Bengaluru Bannerghatta National Park is located about 22 Kms south of the
Bengaluru city of the state of Karnataka. It is one among the few places in the
world where wilderness is preserved so close to a big city. The vision of the
Bengaluru Bannerghatta National Park is to create an opportunity for the
citizens - specially to children of Bangalore Metropolitan City to have a
Biological Recreation Center very close to the city in the midst of the forests in
the valley of the famous Champakadhama hills inside the Bannerghatta
National Park. To accomplish this vision, a mini zoo was created in 1972' which
gradually grown into the present National Park by 2002.
Nameri National Park is located in the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in
the Sonitpur District of Assam, India, about 40 kilometres from Tezpur.
Nameri is a birder's paradise with over 300 species of birds. The area is
crisscrossed by the river Jia- Bhoroli and its tributaries namely the Diji, Dinai,
Doigurung, Nameri, Dikorai, Khari etc. There is a good prey base in the form
of Sambar, Barking deer, Hog Deer, Wild Boar and Gaur. About 3000
domestic cattle also form part of this prey base for Tiger and Leopards.
Marks 3 1
Question No.2 Which of the following UNESCO Biosphere Reserve is the source of three
major river systems: the Narmada, the Johilla and the Son River?
Option (a) Pachmarhi Incorrect
Option (b) Achanakmar-Amarkantak Correct
Option (c) Agasthyamalai Incorrect
Option (d) Similipal Incorrect
Solution The Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is the most dramatic and

ecologically diverse landscape in the Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh states
of India. The area of this Biosphere Reserve is considered to be one of the major
watersheds of peninsular India. It separates the rivers that drain into the
Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. The reserve is also the source of three
major river systems: the Narmada, the Johilla and the Son River. Maikal hill
ranges together with Vindhya and Satpura lie within the Achanakmar-
Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve. UNESCO designated it a biosphere reserve
in 2012. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Similipal National Park: It is a national park and a tiger reserve in the
Mayurbhanj district in the Indian state of Odisha. It is part of the Mayurbhanj
Elephant Reserve, which includes three protected areas — Similipal Tiger
Reserve, Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary.
Simlipal National Park derives its name from the abundance of red silk cotton
trees growing in the area. The park is home to Bengal tiger, Asian elephant,
gaur, and chausingha. along with some of the beautiful waterfalls like Joranda
and Barehipani Falls. This protected area is part of the UNESCO World
Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009.
The Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve was Established in 2001 and includes
3,500.36 km² of which 1828 km² is in Kerala and 1672.36 km² is in Tamil Nadu.
Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve became part of World Network of
Biosphere Reserves in 2016. Is also under UNESCO's world list of biosphere
reserve.
The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in the Satpura Range of Madhya
Pradesh. The Satpura range forms the watershed between the river Narmada
to the north and river Tapi to the south. UNESCO designated it a biosphere
reserve in 2009. It includes three wildlife conservation units: Bori Sanctuary,
Pachmarhi Sanctuary and Satpura National Park.
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Question No.3 With reference to Asiatic Lion, consider the following statements:
1. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of species.
2. In India, it is only found in Gujarat.
3. SIMBA is an artificial-intelligence based software that distinguishes patterns
to identify Asiatic lions individually.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Option (a) 1 and 2 only Incorrect
Option (b) 2 and 3 only Correct
Option (c) 1 and 3 only Incorrect
Option (d) 1, 2 and 3 Incorrect
Solution Recently, the Gujarat forest department is planning to use SIMBA or Software
with Intelligent Marking Based identification of Asiatic lions which is a photo-
identification software, specifically designed to distinguish patterns or marks.
The software has been developed by Hyderabad-based ―teliolabs. The
software is trained with sufficient training data and is able to isolate the region
of interest (ROI) and separate them for further identification. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
Asiatic Lions are listed as Endangered on the IUCN red list of species. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
Asiatic lions living in Gir and other protected areas of the Saurashtra region
of Gujarat are the world ‘s only wild population of lions outside Africa. Hence,
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Question No.4 Consider the following pairs:
Sanctuary State
1. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary : Uttar Pradesh
2. Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary : Kerala
3. Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary : Gujarat
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Option (a) 1, 2 and 3 Incorrect
Option (c) 1 only Incorrect
Option (d) 2 and 3 only Incorrect
Solution Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary:

o Located in Tamil Nadu. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
o The sanctuary was notified as RF (Reserve Forest) in 1963 under the Madras
Act 1882.
o Finally, in 1998, the sanctuary was notified under section 26(i) of the Wildlife
Protection Act 1972.
o There are about 28,000 land and water birds visiting this prestigious wetland
sanctuary.
o It is home to migratory birds such as pintail, garganey, grey wagtail, blue-
winged teal, common sandpiper, and the like.
o It is the oldest water bird sanctuary in the country.
o Vedanthangal is the Tamil language that means ‘hamlet of the hunter’.
Two new Ramsar sites:
o World Wetlands Day was celebrated on the 2nd of February 2022 across the
globe. Two new Ramsar sites, Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat and
Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in UP were also announced on the occasion.
o Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in UP provides a safe wintering and staging
ground for a large number of species of the Central Asian Flyway while
Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary (Gujarat) is a coastal wetland with rich avifaunal
diversity providing a safe habitat to endangered and vulnerable species.
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Question No.5 With reference to Indian skimmer (bird species), consider the following
statements:
1. It is found on large rivers and lakes, swamps and coastal wetlands such as
estuaries.
2. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List of threatened
species.
3. It has breeding colonies in Chambal river, Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Option (a) 3 only Incorrect
Option (b) 1, 2 and 3 Incorrect
Option (d) 1 and 3 only Correct
Solution Recently, Godavari estuary in Andhra Pradesh has become prime habitat for
Indian Skimmer. x The Indian skimmer or Indian scissors-bill (Rynchops
albicollis) is one of the three species that belong to the skimmer genus
Rynchops in the family Laridae.
Distribution:
More widespread in winter, the Indian skimmer is found in the coastal
estuaries of western and eastern India. It occurs primarily on larger, sandy,
lowland rivers, around lakes and adjacent marshes and, in the non-breeding
season, in estuaries and coasts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It breeds colonially on large, exposed sand-bars and islands. Colonies of mating
pairs can be observed nesting on sandy islands or open sand banks, often
accompanied by other birds like Terns during the breeding season, between
February and May. It has breeding colonies in Chambal river, Rajasthan.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Major Threats:
The damming of the Chambal River, in upstream Rajasthan, has adversely
affected its population at National Chambal Sanctuary, Uttar Pradesh, due to
the dropping water levels allowing predators and livestock access to breeding
islands.
Predation by corvids like House crows, presence of stray and domestic dogs,
have been known to decimate breeding colonies.
IUCN status: Endangered. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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Question No.6 Estuaries are often called the ‘nurseries of the sea’. Which one of the following
functions of estuaries best reflects the above statement?
Option (a) They protect communities from the Incorrect

impact of climate change and sea level
rise.
Option (b) Many animals reproduce and Correct

spend the early part of their lives
there.
Option (c) They boost property values and Incorrect

attract tourism in local communities.
Option (d) They form a buffer zone between Incorrect

coastal and marine ecosystem.
Solution Estuaries are often called the “nurseries of the sea,” because so many animals
reproduce and spend the early part of their lives there. Salty seawater mixes
with fresh water draining from the land to create habitats with unique
conditions that are not found elsewhere.
As the tide rises and falls, water depth and chemistry change, creating a wide
range of habitats. In some parts of estuaries, moving water becomes still,
allowing mud and food particles to settle at the bottom. These safe conditions
make estuaries ideal homes for the plants and animals who feed, grow, and
reproduce there. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Question No.7 Consider the following statements:
1. Bioaccumulation is the accumulation and enrichment of contaminants in
organisms, relative to that in the environment.
2. Biomagnification takes place as chemicals transfer from lower to higher
trophic levels within a food web.
3. Persistent Organic Pollutants bioaccumulate in fatty tissues because of their
high lipid solubility.
Option (b) 2 and 3 only Incorrect
Option (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct
Solution Bioaccumulation is defined as the net accumulation of a contaminant in or on

an organism from all sources including water, air, and diet. Bioaccumulation
describes the accumulation and enrichment of contaminants in organisms,
relative to that in the environment. Bioaccumulation takes place in a single
organism over the span of its life, resulting in a higher concentration in older
individuals. So, statement 1 is correct.
Biomagnification is the process by which a compound (such as a pollutant or
pesticide) increases its concentration in the tissues of organisms as it travels up
the food chain. Biomagnification takes place as chemicals transfer from lower
trophic levels to higher trophic levels within a food web, resulting in a higher
concentration in apex predators. So, statement 2 is correct.
Because of their persistence and high lipid solubility, Persistent Organic
Pollutants (POPs) tend to bioaccumulate in fatty tissues. They also are semi-
volatile and therefore can vaporize or absorb into atmospheric particles. This
permits the global transport of these chemicals in air and water. So, statement
3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: Heavy
Metal Poisoning, biomagnification and bioaccumulation is the reason behind
the recent mass death of fishes in water bodies in India.
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Question No.8 With reference to Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake, which one of the
following statements is correct?
Option (a) Both of these protected areas are Correct

part of the Montreux Record.
Option (b) Keoladeo National Park is located in Incorrect

Gujarat and Loktak lake is located in
Mizoram.
Option (c) Both are part of the UNESCO Man Incorrect

and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme.
Option (d) Both are completely enclosed by a Incorrect

boundary wall that minimises the
possibilities of any biotic
disturbances.
Solution The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of
International Importance where changes in ecological character have
occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological
developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part
of the Ramsar List. Both Keoladeo National Park and Loktal Lake are part of
the Montreux record as of now.
Keoladeo National Park is located in Rajasthan and Loktal Lake is located in
Manipur.
Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and recognized under
UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme to promote sustainable
development based on local community efforts and sound science. Both
Keoladeo National Park and Loktal Lake are not part of the Man and the
Biosphere Programme.
Keoladeo National Park is the only park in India that is completely enclosed
by a 2m high boundary wall that minimises the possibilities of any
encroachment and biotic disturbances, but there is no possibility of a buffer
zone. There is no boundary wall outside Loktak lake. Therefore, option (a) is
the correct answer.
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Question No.9 Which of the following are Ex-situ conservation sites in India?
1. Chang La seed vault, Ladakh
2. Nandankanan Zoological Park, Odisha
3. Lalbagh Botanical Garden, Bengaluru
4. Kawal Tiger Reserve, Telangana
5. National Gene Bank, Delhi
6. Sacred groves of Khasi hills, Meghalaya
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Option (a) 1, 2 and 4 only Incorrect
Option (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Correct
Option (c) 3, 4 and 6 only Incorrect
Option (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only Incorrect
Solution In Ex situ Conservation, threatened animals and plants are taken outside from
their natural habitat and placed in a special setting where they can be protected
and given special care.
Zoological parks, botanical gardens, gene banks, aquariums and
cryopreservation techniques like seed vaults are some of the examples of ex situ
conservation sites. So, Chang La seed vault, Ladakh, Nandankanan Zoological
Park, Odisha, Lalbagh Botanical Garden, Bengaluru and National Gene Bank,
Delhi are examples of Ex-situ conservation sites. So, point 1, point 2, point 3
and point 5 are correct.
In In-situ Conservation, threatened animals and plants are kept in their
natural habitat. Tiger Reserves and sacred groves are In-situ conservation
sites. So, point 4 and point 6 are not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer.
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Question No.10 Which of the following statements best describes the term “carbonate
compensation depth (CCD)”?
Option (a) It is the water depth at which the Incorrect

rate of supply of calcium carbonate is
at least twice the rate of dissolution.
Option (b) It is the water depth at which the Correct

rate of supply of calcium carbonate
equals the rate of its dissolution.
Option (c) It is the water depth at which the Incorrect

calcium carbonate dissolution is more
than its accumulation.
Option (d) It is the water depth at which the Incorrect

rate of supply of calcium carbonate
lags far behind the rate of its
dissolution.
Solution The carbonate compensation depth, or CCD, is defined as the water depth at
which the rate of supply of calcium carbonate from the surface is equal to the
rate of dissolution.
As long as the ocean floor lies above the CCD, carbonate particles will
accumulate in bottom sediments, but below, there is no net accumulation.
The seafloor near ocean ridges is typically above the CCD and carbonates are
important sediment constituents, but with spreading and cooling, the sea floor
descends below the CCD and deep sea clays become predominant. Therefore,
option (b) is the correct answer.
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Sl. No. Organism Habitat preference
1. Gharial : Shallow salt-water muddy swamps
2. Golden mahseer : Hill streams with a rocky and stony substrate
3. Sea cucumbers : Near the ocean floor
4. Dugong : River ecosystem
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Option (a) Only one pair Incorrect
Option (b) Only two pairs Correct
Option (c) Only three pairs Incorrect
Option (d) All four pairs Incorrect
Solution Gharials: Gharials reside exclusively in river habitats with deep, clear, fast-
flowing waters and steep, sandy banks. Adult gharials prefer still, deep pools,
formed at sharp river-bends and river confluences and use sandy banks for
basking and breeding. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Golden Mahseer: It lives in fast-moving waters, inhabiting hill streams with a

rocky and stony substrate. They can be found in temperatures between 5°C
and 25°C. The fish has also been introduced in lakes and occurs in large
reservoirs. The Golden Mahseer inhabits the Himalayan foothills, the Indus,
Ganga and Brahmaputra basins and can also be found down south in the
Balamore, Cauvery, Tambraparini, and Kosi Rivers. So, pair 2 is correctly
matched.
Sea cucumbers: They are echinoderms—like starfish and sea urchins. There
are some 1,250 known species, and many of these animals are indeed shaped
like soft-bodied cucumbers. All sea cucumbers are ocean dwellers, though
some inhabit the shallows and others live in the deep ocean. They live on or
near the ocean floor, sometimes partially buried beneath it. So, pair 3 is
correctly matched.
Dugongs: Dugongs are cousins of manatees and share a similar plump

appearance, but have a dolphin fluke-like tail. And unlike manatees, which use
freshwater areas, the dugong is strictly a marine mammal. Commonly known
as "sea cows," dugongs graze peacefully on sea grasses in shallow coastal
waters of the Indian and western Pacific Oceans. So, pair 4 is not correctly
matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. So, only two pairs are
correctly matched. Relevance: Recently sea cucumbers for illegal trade were
seized by law enforcement authorities in India.
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1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest number of National Parks among all states.
2. All states in India have at least one National Park.
3. Area wise, Sunderban National Park is the largest National Park in India.
Option (a) 1 only Correct
Solution According to the National Wildlife Database, May 2022, there are 106 existing
National Parks in India covering an area of 44,372.42 km2 , which is 1.35% of
the geographical area of the country.
Madhya Pradesh has 11 National Parks, highest among all states and UTs in
India. These include Bandhavgarh, Dinosaur Fossils, Fossil, Pench, Kanha,
Kuno, Madhav, Panna, Sanjay, Satpura and Van Vihar. So, statement 1 is
correct.
Punjab does not have any National Park. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Area wise, Hemis National park is the biggest national park in India with an
area of 3350 square km. Sunderban National park has an area of 1330.1 square
km. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
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1. Fishes and reptiles are cold-blooded while amphibians are warm-blooded
creatures.
2. Unlike amphibians, both reptiles and fishes have scales.
3. Unlike amphibians, reptiles lay eggs with tough coverings.
Solution Fishes, reptiles and amphibians are cold blooded creatures or Poikilothermic.
It means that they cannot regulate their own body temperature. So, statement
1 is not correct.
Both reptiles and fishes have scales while amphibians don’t have them.
Amphibians have moist skin. So, statement 2 is correct.
Unlike amphibians, reptiles lay eggs with tough coverings and they don’t need
to lay their eggs in water. Amphibian eggs are jelly-like. So, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Question No.14 Which of the following is part of the cryosphere?
1. Solid precipitation
2. Lake and river ice
3. Icebergs
4. Seasonally frozen ground
Option (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Incorrect
Option (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct
Solution The term “cryosphere” traces its origins to the Greek word ‘kryos’ for frost or
ice cold. The cryosphere is the part of the Earth‘s climate system that includes
solid precipitation, snow, sea ice, lake and river ice, icebergs, glaciers and ice
caps, ice sheets, ice shelves, permafrost, and seasonally frozen ground. So,
points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
This sphere helps maintain Earth’s climate by reflecting incoming solar
radiation back into space. As the world warms due to increasing greenhouse
gases being added to the atmosphere by humans, the snow and ice are melting.
At sea, this exposes more of the dark ocean below the ice, and on land, the dark
vegetation below. These dark surfaces then absorb the solar radiation causing
more melting. This creates a positive feedback loop, which exacerbates the
impacts of climate change.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
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Question No.15 What is common to Red Vanda, Blue Vanda, Pitcher plant and Slipper
Orchids?
Option (a) They all are extinct in wild as per Incorrect

IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Option (b) They are underwater plants found Incorrect

in the Gulf of Mannar.
Option (c) They all are part of Schedule VI of Correct

the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Option (d) They all are carnivorous plants Incorrect

found in North Eastern India.
Solution Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 consists of plants prohibited
for cultivation, collection, extraction and trade.
They cover only Beddome’s Cycad, Blue vanda, Kuth, Ladies slipper orchids,
Pitcher plant and Red vanda. o Cycas beddomei is native to India, where it is
confined to a small area of Andhra Pradesh state in the Tirumala Hills in
scrubland and brush covered hills.
One of the most popular asiatic orchids, Vandas are very demanded by its big,
blue/purple, long lived flowers. Blue orchid is native to North East India where
it grows at elevations ranging from 2500 to 4000 feet in the Himalayan foothills.
Kuth or Kustha is a potent plant which is known for its medicinal uses. It helps
to improve digestion by preventing the growth of bacteria in the large intestine
due to its antimicrobial and antibacterial properties.
Lady slipper or slipper orchid are found throughout Eurasia and the Americas,
and some species are cultivated.
Pitcher plants are several different carnivorous plants which have modified
leaves known as pitfall traps—a prey-trapping mechanism featuring a deep
cavity filled with digestive liquid.
Red Vanda is a species of orchid occurring from the eastern Himalaya to China
and Vietnam. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
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Question No.16 It describes the role an organism plays in a community. It encompasses both the physical
and environmental conditions a species requires and the interactions it has with other
species. It cannot be exactly similar for any two species. This is most likely the description
of:
Option (a) Habitat Incorrect
Option (b) Ecosystem services Incorrect
Option (c) Biome Incorrect
Option (d) Niche Correct
Solution In ecology, the term “niche” describes the role an organism plays in a community. A
species’ niche encompasses both the physical and environmental conditions it requires
(like temperature or terrain) and the interactions it has with other species (like predation
or competition). o No two species can have the exact same niche, otherwise they would
be in direct competition for resources with one another. If this occurs, then one species
will outcompete the other. If the losing species then does not adapt, it would lead to its
extinction.
A habitat is an environment where an organism lives throughout the year or for shorter
periods of time to find a mate. The habitat contains all an animal needs to survive such
as food and shelter. A microhabitat is a small area which differs somehow from the
surrounding habitat.
Ecosystem Services: Ecosystems provide many of the basic services that make life
possible for people. Plants clean air and filter water, bacteria decompose wastes, bees
pollinate flowers, and tree roots hold soil in place to prevent erosion.
A biome is an area classified according to the species that live in that location.
Temperature range, soil type, and the amount of light and water are unique to a
particular place and form the niches for specific species allowing scientists to define the
biome. However, scientists disagree on how many biomes exist. Therefore, option (d) is
the correct answer.
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Question No.17 Which of the following is an example of a detritus food chain?
Option (a) Deer eating plants Incorrect
Option (b) Fish eating a phytoplankton Incorrect
Option (c) Sparrow eating an insect Incorrect
Option (d) Leaf litter being consumed by Correct

bacteria
Solution The detritus food chain starts from the dead organic matter such as dead bodies of
animals or fallen leaves, which are eaten by microorganisms and then followed by
detritus feeding organisms (detritivores) and their predators.
This food chain has the remains of detritus as the major source of energy, and this process
gets completed by the subsoil organisms, which can either be macroscopic or
microscopic. Thus, these food chains are less dependent on direct solar energy.
Example: Leaf Litter → Bacteria → Protozoa → Small fish → Big fish Therefore, option (d)
is the correct answer.
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Question No.18 Consider the following statements with reference to vermins:
1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, defines vermins as any animal that is a problem or
nuisance for attacking humans, crops, livestock or property.
2. They are mentioned in Schedule IV of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. The Central Government can declare any scheduled wild animal of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972 as a vermin.
Option (b) 3 only Incorrect
Option (d) None Correct
Solution The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 does not define the term ‘vermin’. However, its
Schedule V contains a list of animals designated ‘vermin’. Section 62 of the Act empowers
the Centre to declare wild animals of any species as ‘vermin’ in any area and for a
specified period of time. These animals are deemed to be included in Schedule V, opening
them up to be hunted. So, statement 1 and Statement 2 are not correct.
Vermins are any animals that are usually considered a problem or nuisance for attacking
humans, crops, livestock or property. For example: common crows, and fruit bats.
Section 62 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 states that the Central Government may,
by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and Part
II of Schedule II to be vermin for any area. So, statement 3 is not correct.
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Question No.19 These forests are exposed to warm and cold air masses, which cause this area to have
four seasons. Trees here flower and grow during the spring and summer seasons. Most
of the trees here are broadleaf trees such as oak, maple, beech, hickory and chestnut.
This is the most likely description of:
Option (a) Tropical evergreen forests Incorrect
Option (b) Temperate deciduous forests Correct
Option (c) Boreal forest Incorrect
Option (d) Swamp forests Incorrect
Solution Temperate deciduous forests:
These are located in the mid-latitude areas which means that they are found between
the polar regions and the tropics. The deciduous forest regions are exposed to warm and
cold air masses, which cause this area to have four seasons.
During the fall, trees change colour and then lose their leaves. This is in preparation for
the winter season. They also have thick bark to protect them from the cold weather.
Trees flower and grow during the spring and summer growing season.
Most of the trees are broadleaf trees such as oak, maple, beech, hickory and chestnut.
There are also several different kinds of plants like mountain laurel, azaleas and mosses
that live on the shady forest floor where only small amounts of sunlight get through.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recent a report has provided that
in the higher latitudes up particularly Kazakhstan, the needleleaf evergreen/deciduous
forests have expanded both North and South, making the area wetter.
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Question No.20 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Cheetah?
1. The Southern African cheetahs are ancestral to other cheetah lineages.
2. The African Cheetah is smaller and paler in colour than the Asiatic Cheetah.
3. Both Asiatic and African Cheetahs are listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red
List of Threatened species.
Option (d) None Incorrect
Solution The Asiatic Cheetah got extinct in India in the past century. It is now found only in Iran.
Cheetahs live in open plains; their habitat is predominantly where their preys live -
grasslands, scrubs and open forest systems, semi-arid environments and temperatures
that tend to be hotter compared to cooler regimes.
The Southern African cheetahs are ancestral to all the other cheetah lineages including
those found in Iran. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Asiatic cheetah is smaller, thinner and slightly paler in colour than its African
counterpart. It has a smaller head, shorter legs and a much thicker coat. So, statement 2
is not correct.
African cheetahs are listed as Vulnerable while Asiatic cheetahs are listed as Critically
Endangered. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.21 With reference to the trophic pyramid, consider the following statements:
1. It represents the manner in which food energy is passed from one trophic level to the
next along the food chain.
2. Pyramid of numbers can never be inverted.
3. Pyramids of energy show that the producers store the highest quantity of energy.
Option (c) 1 and 3 only Correct
Solution Trophic pyramid is the basic structure of interaction in all biological communities
characterized by the manner in which food energy is passed from one trophic level to the
next along the food chain. The base of the pyramid is composed of species called
autotrophs. All other organisms in the ecosystem are heterotrophs, which either directly
or indirectly depend on the primary producers for food energy. So, statement 1 is correct.
A pyramid of numbers shows the total number of individual organisms at each level in
the food chain of an ecosystem. A pyramid of numbers does not always have a regular
pyramid shape because it does not take into account the biomass of the organisms. An
inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community
contains a few producers with very large biomass that supports a larger number of
smaller consumers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A pyramid of energy shows the total quantity of available energy stored in the biomass
of organisms at each level in the food chain of an ecosystem per year. Pyramids of energy
show that the producers store the highest quantity of energy and the energy stored then
decreases at each level in the food chain of the ecosystem. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.22 Which one of the following statements best defines the term ‘Biosphere’?
Option (a) It is a distinct biogeographical unit Incorrect

consisting of a biological community
that has formed in response to a
shared regional climate.
Option (b) It is a specific geographic area Incorrect

where plants, animals, and other
organisms, as well as weather and
landscape exist together.
Option (c) It is a relatively thin life- Correct

supporting stratum of Earth’s
surface, extending from a few
kilometres into the atmosphere to
the deep-sea vents of the ocean.
Option (d) It is an area where a group of Incorrect

organisms usually of the same
species, occupy a defined area during
a specific time.
Solution Biosphere:
Biosphere is a relatively thin life-supporting stratum of Earth’s surface, extending

from a few kilometres into the atmosphere to the deep-sea vents of the ocean. The
biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living organisms (biota) and the abiotic
(nonliving) factors from which they derive energy and nutrients.
The biosphere is characterized by the continuous cycling of matter and an

accompanying flow of solar energy in which certain large molecules and cells are self-
reproducing. Water is a major predisposing factor, for all life depends on it.
Biome:
A biome is a distinct biogeographical unit consisting of a biological community that

has formed in response to a shared regional climate. Biomes may span more than one
continent. Biome is a broader term than habitat and can comprise a variety of
habitats.
Ecosystem:
An ecosystem is a geographic area where plants, animals, and other organisms, as

well as weather and landscapes, work together to form a bubble of life.
Population:
It is a group of organisms usually of the same species, occupying a defined area during
a specific time.
Marks 3 1
Question No.23 Consider the following:
1. Spiky or glossy leaves in plants to reduce water loss
2. Shallow plant roots that spread over a short area
3. Nocturnal habit of animals to avoid the sun’s heat
4. Long legs in animals and birds
Which of the above adaptions are seen in plants and animals to cope with arid conditions?
Option (c) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct
Option (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Incorrect
Solution Adaptations by plants to cope with arid conditions:
Thick, waxy skin to reduce loss of water and to reflect heat.
Large, fleshy stems to store water.
Thorns and thin, spiky or glossy leaves to reduce water loss. So, point 1 is correct.
Spikes protect cacti from animals wishing to use stored water.
Deep roots to tap groundwater.
Long shallow roots which spread over a wide area. So, point 2 is not correct.
Plants lie dormant for years until rain falls. Adaptations by animals to cope with arid
conditions:
They are fast runners.
They are nocturnal in habit to avoid the sun’s heat during day time. So, point 3 is correct.
They conserve water by excreting concentrated urine.
Animals and birds usually have long legs to keep their body away from the hot ground.
So, point 4 is correct.
Lizards are mostly insectivorous and can live without drinking water for several days.
Herbivorous animals get sufficient water from the seeds which they eat.
Marks 3 1
Question No.24 Which of the following are the causes of coral bleaching?
1. Increase in salinity range of the ocean
2. Rise in sea levels
3. Increase in dissolved carbon dioxide levels in the ocean
Solution Coral bleaching is a process when corals turn white due to various changes. Bleaching
occurs when coral polyps expel the algae that live inside their tissue. It is a reversible
process.
An increase in salinity range is a cause of coral bleaching. So, point 1 is correct.
Changes in sea levels and associated water depths change the amount of sunlight
reaching coral reefs.
Sea level rise may lead to increases in sedimentation for reefs located near land-based
sources of sediment. Sedimentation runoff can lead to the smothering of coral. So, point
2 is correct.
An increase in dissolved carbon dioxide leads to the formation of carbonic acid. It reduces
calcium carbonate precipitation by coral polyps. This, in turn, slows down a reef’s ability
to grow vertically to keep up with sea level rise. So, point 3 is correct. Therefore, option
(d) is the correct answer. Relevance: A report by the Australian government said that the
Great Barrier Reef is suffering "mass bleaching" due to global warming.
Marks 3 1
Question No.25 With reference to Global Conservation Assured | Tiger Standards (CA|TS), consider the
following statements:
1. It was launched by the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild

Animals.
2. All the Tiger Reserves in India have received the accreditation of the CA|TS.
Option (c) Both 1 and 2 Incorrect
Option (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct
Solution Global Conservation Assured | Tiger Standards (CA|TS) is a set of criteria which allows
tiger sites to check if their management will lead to successful tiger conservation.
Sites taking part will initially be ‘registered’ (standards not yet attained). Later when all
required standards are met, it is considered as ‘approved’ (standards achieved). Sites are
evaluated through an assessment and independent review process.
CA|TS has been agreed upon as an accreditation tool by the global coalition of Tiger
Range Countries (TRCs) and has been developed by tiger and protected area experts. So,
CA|TS is being adopted for use beyond tigers, including jaguars, lions and freshwater
dolphins.
14 Tiger Reserves (not all) in India have received the accreditation of CA|TS. The 14 tiger
reserves which have been accredited are Manas, Kaziranga and Orang in Assam, Satpura,
Kanha and Panna in Madhya Pradesh, Pench in Maharashtra, Valmiki Tiger Reserve in
Bihar, Dudhwa in Uttar Pradesh, Sunderbans in West Bengal, Parambikulam in Kerala,
Bandipur Tiger Reserve of Karnataka and Mudumalai and Anamalai Tiger Reserve in
Tamil Nadu. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Marks 3 1
Question No.26 Consider the following statements with reference to grasslands:
1. They are found on all the continents of the Earth.
2. The soils of tropical grasslands are more fertile than those of temperate grasslands.
3. The Steppe grasslands are found in temperate climate in the Westerly wind belt.
Solution Grasslands are defined as areas where grasses predominate over large shrubs or trees.
Grasslands are found on all the continents except for Antarctica as the land there is
covered with thick snow, leaving no scope for any vegetation to break out from the soil.
So, statement 1 is not correct.
Tropical grasslands occur on either side of the equator and extend till the tropics. This
vegetation grows in the areas of moderate to low rainfall. The grass can grow very tall,
about 3 to 4 metres in height. In contrast, temperate grasslands are found in the mid-
latitudinal zones and in the interior part of the continents. Usually, grass here is short
and nutritious. Wild buffaloes, bison, antelopes are common in the temperate region.
Tropical grassland soils are often less fertile than temperate grassland soils, perhaps due
to the high amount of rainfall (50–130 cm) that occurs during the wet season and washes
(or leaches) nutrients out of the soil. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A steppe is a dry, grassy plain. Steppes occur in temperate climates, which lie between
the tropics and polar regions. Bordering the deserts, away from the Mediterranean
regions and in the interior continents, they lie in the Westerly wind belt. So, statement 3
is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.27 Which of the following are the consequences of excessive use of chemical fertilizers?
1. Release of Nitrous Oxide
2. Eutrophication
3. Groundwater contamination
4. Decrease in soil acidity
Option (a) 1, 2 and 3 only Correct
Solution Fertilizers can be classified as mineral or organic. Mineral fertilizers, also known as
chemical fertilizers since they are manufactured by the chemical fertilizer industry, are
mainly nitrogen (N), phosphate, and potash. Disadvantages of using chemical fertilizers:
Greenhouse gases: Some soil microorganisms can transform nitrogen provided in

fertilizers into nitrogen-containing gases, which get released into the atmosphere like the
greenhouse gas nitrous oxide (N2O). Nitrous oxide has a warming potential ~300 times
greater than carbon dioxide. So, point 1 is correct.
Eutrophication: Fertilizers can runoff into waterways from the soil. Eutrophication is the
unwanted fertilization of a waterway and it promotes the growth of microorganisms,
algae, and plants, just like the fertilization of the soil. So, point 2 is correct.
Groundwater contamination: Applying excessive doses of fertilizer may leak into the area
below the root zone and reach the groundwater. So, point 3 is correct.
Soil degradation: Excessive use of fertilizers can significantly raise acidity levels, create
macronutrient saturation, or change it to the point where the soil loses sensitivity and
absorbency to various nutrients. Nitrogen sources — fertilizers, manures, legumes —
contain or form ammonium. This increases soil acidity unless the plant directly absorbs
the ammonium ions. The greater the nitrogen fertilization rate, the greater the soil
acidification. So, point 4 is not correct.
Excessive growth: Because of the excessive and uncontrolled application of chemical

fertilizers, the proportions and growth of the plants may exceed typical criteria.
Marks 3 1
Question No.28 With reference to the ecological succession, consider the following statements:
1. Pioneer species that first invade the bare land show a slow growth rate but a long life
span.
2. Seral community is the transitional community that is formed and replaced during
succession.
3. Climax community is an endpoint of succession that remains stable as long as the

environment remains unchanged.
Option (d) 3 only Incorrect
Solution The process by which communities of plant and animal species in an area are replaced or
changed into another over a period of time is known as ecological succession.
Primary succession: It takes place over bare or unoccupied areas where no community
has existed previously. The plants that invade first bare land, where soil is initially absent
are called pioneer species. A pioneer species generally show high growth rate but short
life span. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Secondary succession: It is the development of a community which forms after the

existing natural vegetation that constitutes a community is removed, disturbed or
destroyed by a natural event.
Primary succession is much more difficult to observe than secondary succession because
there are relatively very few places on earth that do not already have communities of
organisms.
Each transitional (temporary) community that is formed and replaced during succession
is called a stage in succession or a seral community. So, statement 2 is correct.
The terminal (final) stage of succession forms the community which is called as climax
community. The “climax community” is a stable endpoint of succession, or at least an
assemblage in which succession has slowed to the point at which other processes are
more important. The climax community remains stable as long as the environment
remains unchanged. With time the xerophytic habitat gets converted into a mesophytic
one. So, statement 3 is correct.

Marks 3 1
1. Alpha diversity is an expression of diversity between habitats.
2. Gamma diversity describes the overall species diversity across communities within a
larger geographic area.
3. Beta diversity is the ratio between regional and local species diversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Solution Alpha diversity refers to diversity on a local scale, describing the species diversity
(richness) within a functional community. For example, alpha diversity describes the
observed species diversity within a defined plot or within a defined ecological unit, such
as a pond, a field, or a patch of forest.
Beta diversity describes the amount of differentiation between species communities. It

is an expression of diversity between habitats. Unlike the other levels of species
diversity, the exact interpretation and quantification of beta diversity varies substantially
across studies. Beta diversity is the ratio between regional and local species diversity. So,
statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
Gamma diversity describes the overall species diversity across communities within a
larger geographic area. It is often summarized across biogeographic or political units,
such as eco-regions or countries. So, statement 2 is correct. o Gamma diversity is the
most communicated level of species diversity when referring to biodiversity hotspots,
with tropical regions, in particular the Neotropics, showing the globally highest gamma
diversity values. Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
Marks 3 1
Sl. No. Ramsar site Location
1. Karikili Bird Sanctuary : Karnataka
2. Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest : Tamil Nadu
3. Pala Wetland : Assam
4. Sakhya Sagar Lake : Madhya Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Option (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Incorrect
Solution Five more Indian sites have been recognised as wetlands of international importance
under the Ramsar Convention. It is an intergovernmental environmental treaty adopted
in 1971 by UNESCO and came into force in 1975.
Karikili Bird Sanctuary is located in Kanchipuram district in Tamil Nadu. It is spread over
a five-kilometer-wide belt and is home to cormorants, egrets, grey heron, openbilled
stork, darter, spoonbill, white lbnis, night herons, grebes, grey pelican among others. So,
pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest in Tamil Nadu is one of the last remaining natural
wetlands of Chennai. The marsh drains in an area of 250 square kilometers encompassing
65 wetlands. It is one of the few natural coastal aquatic habitats that qualify as a wetland
in India. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Pala Wetland located near Phura village in Saiha district of Mizoram, is home to a wide
range of animals, birds, and reptiles. Palak Dil or Pala Tipo means swallowing lake in Mara
language. Its geographical location falls under the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot and
is therefore rich in animal and plant species. The lake is a major component of the Palak
Wildlife Sanctuary. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Sakhya Sagar, in Madhya Pradesh, is created from the Manier river in 1918. Sakhya Sagar
is located near Madhav National Park. So, pair 4 is correctly matched. Therefore, option
(b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Five more Indian sites have been recognised as
wetlands of international importance.
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Question No.31 With reference to Project Snow Leopard, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched as part of the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP)
Programme.
2. Only the north-eastern states of Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh are included in this
project.
3. It aims to promote a knowledge-based and adaptive conservation framework that

involves the local communities.
Option (c) 3 only Correct
Solution The Project Snow Leopard is an Indian initiative for strengthening wildlife conservation
in the Himalayan high altitudes. It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forests
and Climate Change, Government of India, 2008-09. It was not launched as part of Global
Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Programme. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
LOCATION: All biologically important landscapes in the Himalayan high altitudes in the
states and union territories of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It aims to promote a knowledge-based and adaptive conservation framework that fully

involves the local communities, who share the snow leopard’s range, in conservation
efforts. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.32 Which one of the following terms refers to the portion of the light spectrum utilised by
plants for photosynthesis?
Option (a) Non-Ionizing Radiation Incorrect
Option (b) Photosynthetic photon flux Incorrect

density
Option (c) Photosynthetically Active Correct

Radiation
Option (d) Incident Solar Radiation Incorrect
Solution Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is light of wavelengths 400-700 nm and is

the portion of the light spectrum utilised by plants for photosynthesis.
Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically active
radiation (PAR). Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR and this small amount
of energy sustains the entire living world.
Photosynthetic photon flux density (PPFD) is defined as the photon flux density of
PAR. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Sl. No. Butterfly Species State butterfly of
1. Blue Duke : Goa
2. Kaiser-i-Hind : Arunachal Pradesh
3. Blue Mormon : Uttarakhand
4. Malabar banded peacock : Kerala
Option (b) Only two pairs Correct
Option (c) Only three pairs Incorrect
Solution Sikkim, on the occasion of World Environment Day, 2022, has declared Blue Duke as the
state butterfly. Blue Duke, which goes by the scientific name Bassarona durga durga, is
unique to Sikkim and the eastern Himalayas. It was discovered in the state in 1858. Blue
Duke falls in Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and is a protected species in
the Himalayas. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched. Other states and their state butterflies:
Arunachal Pradesh: Kaiser-i-Hind. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Maharashtra: Blue Mormon. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Uttarakhand: Common peacock
Karnataka: Southern birdwings
Kerala: Malabar banded peacock. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Tamil Nadu: Tamil Yeoman So, only two pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, option
(b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Sikkim declared Blue Duke the state butterfly on the
occasion of World Environment Day, 2022.
Marks 3 1
Question No.34 Consider the following statements in respect of cryptogams:
1. These are the plants that reproduce by spores without seeds.
2. Cryptogamic plants include algae and fungi only.
Option (b) 2 only Correct
Option (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Incorrect
Solution A.W. Eichler, in 1883, classified the whole plant kingdom into two sub-kingdoms:
cryptogams and phanerogams. Cryptogams consist of seedless plants and plant-like
organisms whereas phanerogams consist of seed-bearing plants.
A cryptogam is a plant that reproduces by spores, without flowers or seeds.

"Cryptogamae" means hidden reproduction, referring to the fact that no seed is
produced, thus cryptogams represent the non-seed bearing plants. So, statement 1 is
correct.
Cryptogams are divided into 3 groups such as: Thallophyta, Bryophyta (Bryophaytes) and
Pteridophytes.
Thallophyta includes algae, fungi, bacteria, and lichens. These are the simplest plants
where the body is not differentiated into roots, leaves, and stems. The simplest
thallophytes are bacteria. These are aquatic plants that can grow in fresh as well as
marine water. These lack a vascular system.
Bryophyta includes liverworts, horned liverworts, and mosses. These are also
undifferentiated plants with no vascular tissues. These can grow both on land and in
water.
Pteridophytes include all kinds of ferns. These have well-differentiated plant body and
vascular system is also present in them. These are also known as vascular cryptogams.
These are most advanced of all cryptogams. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore,
option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: India’s first cryptogamic garden was
inaugurated in the Chakrata town of Dehradun, Uttarakhand. The garden houses nearly
50 species of lichens, ferns and fungi (collectively known as Cryptogamae).
Marks 3 1
Question No.35 Consider the following states:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Odisha
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Madhya Pradesh Arrange the States given above in terms of area-wise forest cover in
the correct descending order.
Option (a) 2-4-3-1 Incorrect
Option (b) 4-2-3-1 Incorrect
Option (c) 4-1-3-2 Correct
Option (d) 3-2-4-1 Incorrect
Solution As per the India State of Forest Report, Forest cover is defined as: "All lands, more than
one hectare in area, with a tree canopy density of more than 10 percent irrespective of
ownership and legal status. Such lands may not necessarily be recorded forest area. It
also includes orchards, bamboo and Palm."
Area-wise, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as
percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%),
Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland
(73.90%). Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.36 With reference to the Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ), consider the following statements:
1. Land within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be
notified as ESZ.
2. These areas act as transition zone between areas requiring higher protection and areas
requiring lesser protection.
3. Ongoing agricultural and horticultural practices can be permitted in ESZs.
Solution As per the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016), issued by the Union Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change, land within 10 km of the boundaries of national
parks and wildlife sanctuaries is to be notified as eco-fragile zones or EcoSensitive Zones
(ESZ). So, statement 1 is correct.
These areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection
to those requiring lesser protection. ESZs are not meant to hamper the daily activities of
people living in the vicinity, but are meant to guard the protected areas and refine the
environment around them. So, statement 2 is correct.
Some activities are prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills,
commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees. There
are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater
harvesting, organic farming, among others. So, statement 3 is correct.
On June 3 2022, a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court heard a PIL which sought to
protect forest lands in the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, but was later expanded to cover the
entire country. In its judgment, the court while referring to the 2011 guidelines as
“reasonable”, directed all states to have a mandatory 1-km ESZ from the demarcated
boundaries of every protected forest land, national park and wildlife sanctuary.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: On June 3 2022, a three-judge
bench of the Supreme Court directed all states to have a mandatory 1-km ESZ.
Marks 3 1
Question No.37 Consider the following regions in India:
1. Pichavaram
2. Vembanad
3. Rayalseema
4. Bhitarkanika
Which of the above regions are known to host Mangrove Forests?
Option (a) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct
Solution Mangroves are ecotone species that are mainly found near the coast of rivers, oceans etc.
In India, they are found along the coast areas of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka,
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and West Bengal. They are also found along
the Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
Pichavaram in Tamil Nadu, Vembanad in Kerala and Bhitarkanika in Odisha are located in
coastal regions. These are few of the largest mangrove forest sites in India. So, point 1,
point 2 and point 4 are correct.
Rayalseema is a rain shadow region in Andhra Pradesh. It doesn’t contain mangrove

forests. So, point 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Relevance:
Recently, there was a threat to Bhitarkanika mangroves due to the diversion of freshwater
from the Brahmani river basin.
Marks 3 1
Question No.38 Which of the following is/are the effects of cold weather on plants?
1. It increases enzyme activity and nutrient intake in plants.
2. It changes the fluidity of the cellular membranes of plants.
Solution Colder weather can decrease plant enzyme activity. This then disrupts plant nutrient intake
because plants secrete enzymes to digest surrounding materials for soil. Consequently, this
can stunt growth or more severely cause them to die. Water can freeze the outside of a
plant and freeze plant’s surrounding soil causing desiccation, this interfering with the
plant’s water supply. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Changes in the fluidity of cellular membranes may occur due to cold weather. Ironically,
the cellular membrane is responsible for ensuring the plant cells are responsive to milder
environmental changes. Water can freeze inside the plant’s cells causing it to expand and
destroy the plant from the inside. This can cause plants to wilt, even after the cold and
frosty weather has done. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.39 Which of the following criteria are used to categorize an area as Biodiversity Hotspot?
1. It must have at least 1,500 endemic vascular plants.
2. It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation.
Option (c) Both 1 and 2 Correct
Solution Biodiversity hotspots are biogeographic regions with high levels of biodiversity that
are threatened by human settlement. For a region to qualify as a biodiversity hotspot,
it must satisfy two strict criteria:
It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants that are endemic; that is, a high proportion
of plant life found nowhere else on Earth. In other words, a hotspot is irreplaceable.
So, statement 1 is correct.
It must contain no more than 30 percent of its original natural vegetation. Put
differently, it must be threatened. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is
the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.40 With reference to Specialist species, consider the following statements:
1. They have a limited diet and stricter habitat requirements.
2. Koalas are an example of specialist species.
3. They are more likely to suffer from habitat loss and disruption than generalist species.
Solution In the field of ecology, classifying a species as a generalist or a specialist is a way to

identify what kinds of food and habitat resources it relies on to survive. Generalist
species can eat a variety of foods and thrive in a range of habitats. Specialist species, on
the other hand, have a limited diet and stricter habitat requirements. So, statement 1 is
correct.
An example of a specialist species is the koala. Native to Australia, koalas are herbivorous
marsupials that feed only on the leaves of the eucalyptus tree. Therefore, their range is
restricted to habitats that support eucalyptus trees. So, statement 2 is correct.
Raccoons (Procyon lotor) are an example of a generalist species. They can live in a wide
variety of environments, including forests, mountains, and large cities, which they do
throughout North America. Raccoons are omnivores and can feast on everything from
fruit and nuts to insects, frogs, eggs, and human trash. Other examples of generalist
species include bobcats and coyotes.
Specialist species are more likely to suffer from habitat loss and disruption than
generalist species. As a result, many specialist species are becoming threatened,
endangered, and extinct due to human activities. In contrast, generalist species are
becoming more common. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct
answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.41 Which of the following are the advantages of Plant Tissue Culture?
1. New plantlets can be grown in a short amount of time.
2. The process is not dependant on climatic seasons.
3. A small amount of initial plant tissue is required.
Solution Plant tissue culture:
Plant Tissue Culture is a process that uses plant material in a growing medium to grow
new platelets. The initial plant material is cultured and developed in a specific and tightly
controlled environment. Advantages of Plant Tissue Culture:
The new plantlets can be grown in a short amount of time. So, statement 1 is correct.
Only a small amount of initial plant tissue is required. So, statement 3 is correct.
The new plantlets and plants are more likely to be free of viruses and diseases.
The process is not dependent on the seasons and can be done throughout the year. So,
Relatively small space is needed to perform the process (ten times the plants in onetenth
of the space). Disadvantages of Plant Tissue Culture:
Tissue Culture can require more labour and cost more money.
There is a chance that the propagated plants will be less resilient to diseases due to the
type of environment they are grown in.
It is imperative that, before being cultured, the material is screened; failure to pick up
any abnormalities could lead to the new plants being infected. Therefore, option (d) is
the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.42 Consider the following statements with reference to the oceanic zones:
1. More than 90% of all marine species is found in the benthic zone.
2. No species exist in the bathypelagic zone due to the absence of light.
3. The greatest temperature changes occur in the mesopelagic zone.
4. The species in the epipelagic zone mainly rely on dead marine organisms for their
survival.
Option (a) 1 and 3 only Correct
Solution The oceans are divided into various layers, known as "zones", which extend from the
surface to the most extreme depths where light can no longer penetrate.
The benthic zone is the lowest level of the ocean, starting from the shoreline and
expanding to the deepest part of the ocean floor. Out of all marine species, 98% of them
can be found on the ocean floor, making the benthic zone the lifeblood of diversity in the
ocean. So, statement 1 is correct.
The bathypelagic zone is known as the “midnight” zone for its characteristically lightless
waters. At 1,000-4,000 meters below, no light is able to penetrate the ocean water this
deep, preventing any primary production. The only source of light in this zone comes
from organisms using bioluminescence. The organisms that live in the midnight zone
survive off of fallen organic matter from the zones above. At this depth, the animals most
commonly found are fish, mollusks, crustaceans, and jellyfish. So, statement 2 is not
correct.
Below the epipelagic zone is the mesopelagic zone, extending from 200 meters to 1,000
meters. It is also referred to as the twilight zone or the midwater zone. Temperature
changes are the greatest in this zone as this is the zone with contains the thermocline.
So, statement 3 is correct.
Extending from roughly 4,000-6000 meters, the abyssopelagic zone is pitch-black and
home to many organisms that are specialized to live in high pressure, cold, and lightless
conditions. In contrast to the epipelagic zone where photosynthesis provides the main
food resources for many ocean organisms, the abyssopelagic marine life rely on detritus
(dead marine organisms) to sink towards this deep layer for resources. So, statement 4
is not correct.
The epipelagic zone (or upper open ocean) is the part of the ocean where there is enough
sunlight for algae to utilize photosynthesis (the process by which organisms use sunlight
to convert carbon dioxide into food). Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Gyaan Ki Baaten
Bioluminescence is the ability of the animals to glow in the dark, caused by the release
of energy from chemical reactions in the form of light.
The thermocline is a region of rapidly decreasing temperatures with increasing depth.

The depth of the thermocline varies in space and time and does not remain uniform
across the globe as it is dependent on the season and year.
Marks 3 1
Question No.43 Which one of the following is the average population density below which its numbers tend
to increase and above which its numbers tend to decrease?
Option (a) Average Population Incorrect
Option (b) Demographic Variation Incorrect
Option (c) Population Fluctuation Incorrect
Option (d) Carrying Capacity Correct
Solution Carrying capacity is the average population density or population size of a species below
which its numbers tend to increase and above which its numbers tend to decrease
because of shortages of resources. The carrying capacity is different for each species in a
habitat because of that species’ particular food, shelter, and social requirements.
Carrying capacity likely varies over time and depends on environmental factors,
resources, and the presence of predators, disease agents, and competitors over time.
Carrying capacity may best be expressed mathematically. One of the simplest forms of
population change over time can be represented as the differential equation dN/dt = rN,
where dN/dt represents the instantaneous change in a population over a short time
period, r is the intrinsic growth rate of the population, and N is the size of the population.
Marks 3 1
Question No.44 Which of the following best describes the term ‘Standing Crop’?
Option (a) Total area of an ecosystem Incorrect

resilient to climate change
Option (b) Total biomass of agricultural Incorrect

crops cultivated at a particular time
Option (c) Total biomass of all living Correct

organisms or the number in a unit
area.
Option (d) Total biomass of all living and Incorrect

dead organisms present in a given
environmen
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number in a unit area at a particular time. It is expressed as biomass (standing e
biomass) or its equivalent in terms of energy. The standing crop may vary at different fi
times of the year; for example, in a population of deciduous trees between summer c
and winter. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. i
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Question No.45 The biotic potential of an organism is restricted by which of the following factors?
1. Lack of space
2. Deficiencies of necessary chemical compounds
3. Inhibiting effects of predators
4. Unfavourable genetic changes Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Option (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct
Solution Biotic potential is the maximum reproductive capacity of an organism under optimum
environmental conditions. It is often expressed as a proportional or percentage increase
per year.
It can also be defined as the number of offspring of an individual organism that would
survive to reproductive age under ideal conditions. It is a measure of an individual's
reproductive potential, although this is seldom fully realized under natural conditions.
Full expression of the biotic potential of an organism is restricted by environmental

resistance, any factor that inhibits the increase in the population. These factors include
unfavourable climatic conditions; lack of space, light, or a suitable substrate; deficiencies
of necessary chemical compounds or minerals; and the inhibiting effects of predators,
parasites, disease organisms, or unfavourable genetic changes. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4
are correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.46 With reference to the effects on biodiversity due to climate change, consider the following
statements:
1. Some species can benefit from warmer climate and expand their territory and food
resources.
2. Change in the environment can result in the multiplication of invasive species.
3. Increased flooding due to warming will help reduce water pollution.
Solution Effects on biodiversity due to climate change:
Rising temperatures risk destabilizing the balance between wildlife and their ecosystem.
Some species will struggle to find nutritious enough food to fit their existing gut biomes.
However, it is also possible that some animals will do better in a warmer climate. Those
species will outcompete others, expanding their own territory and food sources. So,
But not all wildlife belongs where they flourish. When species adapted to their
environments lose their natural advantages that leaves room for invasive species to
multiply in the changing environment. So, statement 2 is correct.
Increased precipitation from climate change is contributing to more frequent and

extreme weather events such as flooding.
There is the obvious destructive effect that floods have on the environment—such as
flooded land and burned forests, but they also have other lasting effects like severe
water pollution. Speedy flood waters spend little time in a purification place (like in the
ground or in a wetland) so the surface flow doesn’t lose the soil particulates pollutants it
has picked up. Their speed also erodes streambanks and soil surfaces. So, statement 3 is
not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.47 With reference to environmental gradients, consider the following statements:
1. It refers to gradual changes in biotic and abiotic environmental factors.
2. Traits whose values vary predictably in response to environmental gradients are called
response traits.
3. Dominant species respond more consistently to environmental factors than the less
abundant species.
Solution Environmental gradients, defined as gradual changes in biotic or abiotic environmental

factors, are essential determinants of the structure and functioning of ecological systems
and their components. So, statement 1 is correct.
Traits whose values vary predictably in response to such gradients are called ‘response
traits’; these differ according to the gradient considered. Understanding the ecological
significance of this response requires an explicit identification of the variables underlying
the gradient considered. So, statement 2 is correct.
Along environmental gradients, changes in trait values result from a combination of

intraspecific variation and species’ intrinsic differences. Beyond species, studies have
also shown that the responses of dominant species to environmental factors are more
consistent than those of less abundant species. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore,
option (d) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
1. Seagrass are macroalgae found attached to rocks and corals.
2. There are more species of seaweed as compared to seagrass.
3. There is absence of seagrass meadows in India.
Solution
Marks 3 1
Question No.49 With reference to the India State of Forest Report, 2021, consider the following
statements:
1. The total forest and tree cover in India is 33 per cent of the geographical area of
the country.
2. The highest increase in forest cover has been registered in Karnataka compared to
the assessment of 2019 report.
Solution India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication of Forest Survey of India I
(FSI), Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change. n
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The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectare which is 24.62% of
h
the geographical area of the country. As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is e
an increase of 2261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country. Out of this,
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the increase in the forest cover has been observed as 1540 sq km and that in tree cover
v
is 721 sq km. So, statement 1 is not correct. e
An increase in forest cover has been observed in open forest followed by very dense k
forest. The top five states showing an increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 i
sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and Odisha (537 sq km), Karnataka (155 sq n
Km) and Jharkhand (110 sq. Km). So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) g
is the correct answer. Relevance: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate d
Change (MoEFCC) has released the ‘India State of Forest Report 2021’. o
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Marks 3 1
Question No.50 Critically Endangered is the highest risk category assigned by the IUCN Red List of
threatened species. Which of the following species are Critically Endangered?
1. Oriental White-backed Vulture
2. Gharial
3. Pygmy Hog
4. Ganges Shark
5. Amur Leopard
Answer B
Option (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and Incorrect
Solution The Oriental white-backed vultures are listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red
List of Threatened Species. These are resident birds and not migratory, so they largely
stay within a radius of 50-100 km of the breeding centre. So, point 1 is correct.
The Gharial is listed as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List as a result of
catastrophic population declines by up to 98% since the 1940s. The only viable
population of gharial is found in the National Chambal Sanctuary. Small non-breeding
populations exist in Son, Gandak, Hoogly and Ghagra rivers. So, point 2 is correct.
The Pygmy hog is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. It is
one of the very few mammals that build its own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’. It
is an indicator species. So, point 3 is not correct.
There are six species of river sharks found in the world, out of which the Ganges shark
(Glyphis gangeticus) is endemic to India. It inhabits the River Hooghly in West Bengal, as
well as the rivers Ganges, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi in the states of Bihar, Assam and
Orissa. It is listed as a Critically Endangered species in the IUCN Red list. So, point 4 is
correct.
The Amur leopard is native to the southeastern Russia and northern China. It is listed as
Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. So, point 5 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is
the correct answer. Relevance: Recently, 148 gharials have been released in the Gandak
thereby turning the river having the second-largest gharial population after the Chambal
river in the country.
Marks 3 1
Question No.51 Which one of the following criteria is used to classify a species as Critically Endangered
under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species?
Option (a) Population size estimated to Correct

number fewer than 50 mature
individuals
Option (b) A reduction in population size by Incorrect

more than 70 percent over the last 10
years or three generations
Option (c) It is known only to survive in Incorrect

cultivation, in captivity or as a
naturalized population well outside
the past range
Option (d) Its probability of extinction in the Incorrect

wild is at least 10% within 100 years
Solution IUCN Red List provides an explicit, objective framework for the classification of species
based on their risk.
Critically Endangered: Population size estimated to number fewer than 50 mature

individuals is one of the criteria for Critically Endangered species.
Vulnerable: Quantitative analysis should show the probability of extinction in the wild is
at least 10% within 100 years for a species to be considered Vulnerable.
Endangered: There should be a reduction in population size by more than 70 percent over
the last 10 years or three generations, whichever is longer for a species to be considered
Endangered.
Extinct: A taxon is presumed Extinct when exhaustive surveys in known and/or expected
habitat, at appropriate times (diurnal, seasonal, annual), throughout its historic range
have failed to record an individual.
Extinct in the Wild: A taxon is Extinct in the Wild when it is known only to survive in
cultivation, in captivity or as a naturalized population (or populations) well outside the
past range.
Near Threatened: A taxon is Near Threatened when it has been evaluated against the
criteria but does not qualify for Critically Endangered, Endangered or Vulnerable now,
but is close to qualifying for or is likely to qualify for a threatened category in the near
future
Least Concern: A taxon is Least Concern when it has been evaluated against the criteria
and does not qualify for Critically Endangered, Endangered, Vulnerable or Near
Threatened.
Data Deficient: A taxon is Data Deficient when there is inadequate information to make
a direct, or indirect, assessment of its risk of extinction based on its distribution and/or
population status.
Not Evaluated: A taxon is Not Evaluated when it is has not yet been evaluated against
the criteria. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.52 Which of the following are part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in India?
Option (a) Shenduruney Wildlife Sanctuary, Incorrect

Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Periyar and
Silent Valley National Parks
Option (b) Papikonda, Kawal and Pakhal Incorrect

Wildlife Sanctuaries and
NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve
Option (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Correct

Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary,
Nagarhole and Mukurthi National
Parks
Option (d) Tadoba, Eravikulam and Pench Incorrect

National Parks and Shenduruney
Wildlife Sanctuary
Solution The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the
year 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and encompasses parts of Tamil Nadu,
Kerala and Karnataka.
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve falls under the biogeographic region of the Malabar
rainforest. The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur
National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley are the
protected areas present within this reserve. It also embraces the entire forested hill
slopes of Nilambur, the Upper Nilgiri plateau, and the Siruvani hills.
Gyaan ki Baaten
Facts about Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:
Climate: The annual rainfall of the reserve ranges from 500 mm to 7000 mm with
temperature ranging from 0°C during winter to 41°C during summer.
Ecosystem: Tropical evergreen forests, montane sholas, swamps, grasslands,

semievergreen forests, dry and moist deciduous forests and thorn forests.
Fauna: It includes the largest known population of two endangered animal species,
namely the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed macaque. The largest south Indian population
of elephant, tiger, gaur, sambar and chital are also found in this reserve.
Rivers: Rivers having their source or catchment areas within the reserve: Bhavani, Moyar,
Kabini (Tributaries of Kaveri), Chaliyar, etc.
Tribal Groups: Badagas, Todas, Kotas, Adiyans, Chettis, Irullas, Kurumbas, Paniyas, etc.,
are native to the reserve.
Marks 3 1
1. Conservation Breeding Program aims to conserve the genetic diversity of the species
and re-introduce the species in its natural wild habitat.
2. Tiger farming is the practice of breeding captive tigers for the purposes of their
reintroduction into the wild.
Solution Conservation Breeding Programme:
It is a science of conserving a species by preventing imminent population collapse in the

wild due to a large number of eliminative pressures (i.e. habitat loss, habitat
fragmentation, industrialization, poaching, illegal trade and climate change etc.).
The aim of the Conservation Breeding Programme is to conserve the genetic diversity of
the species and restock or reintroduce the species to re-establish self-sustaining
population in its natural wild habitat. So, statement 1 is correct. Tiger Farming:
Tiger farming is the practice where captive tigers are bred for the purposes of trading in
their products, whether skins, bones, teeth or skulls. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Tiger farms pose a direct threat to efforts to increase wild populations, perpetuating
consumer demand for tiger products (particularly for "wild-sourced" products) across
key markets in Asia, as well as undermining enforcement and monitoring efforts aimed
at analysing and preventing the trade in tigers. Therefore, option (a) is the correct
answer. Relevance: In the first re-wilding programme of red pandas (Ailurus fulgens) in
India, the Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park has started a programme to release
20 of these mammals in about five years to the forests.
Marks 3 1
Sl. No. Sacred Grove State
1. Sarna : Bihar
2. Devarakadu : Karnataka
3. Kavu : Kerala
4. Lai Umang : Nagaland
Option (b) Only two pairs Incorrect
Option (c) Only three pairs Correct
Solution Explanation:
• Sacred groves comprise of patches of forests or natural vegetation that are protected
by local communities because of their religious beliefs and traditional rituals. For
instance, the Garo and the Khasi tribes of northeastern India completely prohibit any
human interference in the sacred groves while the Gonds of central India prohibit the
cutting of a tree but allow fallen parts to be used.
Sacred Grove State
Sarna Bihar.
So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Dev Van Himachal Pradesh
Devarakadu Karnataka.
Kavu Kerala.
Dev Madhya Pradesh
Devarahati or Devarai Maharashtra
Lai Umang Manipur (not Nagaland).
So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Law Kyntang or Asong Khosi Meghalaya

Oran Rajasthan
Kovil Kadu or Sarpa Kavu Tamil Nadu
So, only three pairs are correctly matched.
Relevance: According to a report expanding human populations, pollution, and biomass

removal are altering India's sacred groves.
Marks 3 1
Question No.55 Consider the following statements regarding National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA):
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
3. Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored scheme administered by NTCA.
Solution National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of
Environment, Forests and Climate Change. It was established in 2005 following the
recommendations of the Tiger Task Force. So, statement 1 is correct.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) was constituted under enabling
provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, for strengthening tiger conservation.
NTCA consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as
Chairperson), the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-
Chairperson), three members of Parliament, the Secretary, Ministry of Environment and
Forests and other members. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Project Tiger was launched in 1973 for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated tiger
reserves. It is an ongoing Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment,
Forests, and Climate Change that provides central assistance to tiger States for the
conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserves. It is administered by NTCA. So,
statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: 11 of 74
tiger deaths in India this year were reported in Karnataka: NTCA
Marks 3 1
Question No.56 Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (or MIKE) Programme is an initiative of which
one of the following organisation
Option (a) Convention on International Trade Correct

in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
and Flora (CITES)
Option (b) International Union for Incorrect

Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
Option (c) World Wildlife Fund (WWF) Incorrect
Option (d) National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) Incorrect
Solution The Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (or MIKE) Programme, launched in 2003,
is Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES) initiative.
It is a site-based system designed to track trends in the prevalence of illegal elephant

killing and to build capacity in sites across the African and Asian elephant ranges. It will
provide a reliable, solid, and objective informational base to aid in debates and decisions
regarding elephant conservation and management.
Marks 3 1
Question No.57 Consider the following statements with reference to Guduchi:
1. It is a climbing shrub that grows on other trees.
2. It is endemic to eastern Himalayan region in India and Bhutan.
Solution Giloy or Guduchi (Tinospora cordifolia) is an essential herb in Ayurvedic medicine. All
parts of this plant are thought to have health benefits. However, the stem is thought to
have the most beneficial compounds. It is useful for treating a wide range of issues,
including fever, infections, diarrhea, and diabetes. But, similar looking plants in
circulation such as Tinospora crispa can be harmful.
Guduchi is a climbing shrub that grows on other trees, from the botanical family
Menispermaceae. So, statement 1 is correct.
The plant is native to India but also found in China and tropical areas of Australia and
Africa. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Ministry of Ayush said recently that it had noticed safety concerns on use
of Guduchi that were published in social media and in some scientific journals.
Marks 3 1
Question No.58 Consider the following statements with reference to the methods used by animals for
coping up with environment:
1. All birds and mammals are capable of regulating their body temperature.
2. Small animals tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside.
Solution All birds and mammals, and a very few lower vertebrate and invertebrate species are
indeed capable of such regulation (thermoregulation and osmoregulation). The
mechanisms used by most mammals to regulate their body temperature are similar to
the ones used by humans. Humans maintain a constant body temperature of 37°C. In
summer, when the outside temperature is more than the body temperature, they sweat
profusely. The resulting evaporative cooling brings down the body temperature. In
winter when the temperature is much lower than 37°C, they start to shiver, a kind of
exercise that produces heat and raises the body temperature. So, statement 1 is correct.
Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. Since small animals have a larger
surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold
outside. Eg. Shrews and hummingbirds. Many animals cannot maintain a constant
internal environment. Their body temperature changes with the ambient temperature.
These are conformers. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct
answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.59 Which of the following are considered as ecosystem services provided by a natural
ecosystem?
1. Pollination of crops by bees and insects
2. Waste water treatment by wetlands
3. Rainfall and mineral deposits
4. Increase in fish population in areas not inhabited by humans
5. Disease control through predators
Answer B
Option (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Incorrect
Solution Ecosystem services include the outputs, conditions, or processes of natural systems that
directly or indirectly benefit humans or enhance social welfare. It can benefit people in
many ways, either directly or as inputs into the production of other goods and services.
Ecosystems provide many of the basic services that make life possible for people. Plants
clean air and filter water, bacteria decompose wastes, bees pollinate flowers, and tree
roots hold soil in place to prevent erosion. So, point 1 is correct.
Ecosystems such as wetlands filter effluents, decompose waste through the biological
activity of microorganisms, and eliminate harmful pathogens. Fish, molluscs and other
aquatic animals as well as fish habitats are vital parts of ecosystem functioning and
processes that are essential for water quality. Trees contribute heavily to waste-water
treatment through their root system and their role in nutrient cycling. So, point 2 is
correct.
Rainfall and mineral deposits are included in the category of environmental services. It
includes material and energy generated in or by the ecosystem. So, point 3 is correct.
Conditions or processes of ecosystems that cannot be linked to the welfare of identifiable

beneficiary groups are not ecosystem services. For example, changes in fish abundance
in areas not used by humans and that have no direct or indirect effect on human benefits
are not ecosystem services. So, point 4 is not correct.
The predators and parasites in ecosystems act to control populations of potential pest
and disease vector. Fish populations serve as regulator of food webs and can influence
community structure of other species and thereby also regulate pests and diseases. So,
point 5 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Sl. No. Type of Population Interaction Example
1. Commensalism : Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in legumes
2. Amensalism : Barnacles growing on the back of a whale
3. Competition : Light tolerant plants growing under shade of a

large tree
4. Parasitism : Koel laying eggs in crow’s nest
Option 1. Commensalism : Correct

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in
legumes
Option 2. Amensalism : Incorrect

Barnacles growing on the
back of a whale
Option 3. Competition : Incorrect

Light tolerant plants growing
under shade of a large tree
Option 4. Parasitism : Incorrect

Koel laying eggs in crow’s nest
Solution The common types of population interactions between species include the following:
Rhizobium (nitrogen-fixing bacteria) in root nodules of legumes (which provide

carbohydrates and space to live) is an example of mutualism. Mutualism is a symbiotic
interaction where both or all individuals benefit from the relationship. So, pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
Barnacles growing on the back of a whale are an example of commensalism. Barnacles

growing on the back of a whale benefit while the whale does not derive any apparent
benefit. Commensalism is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is
neither harmed nor benefited. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Shade from trees that allows only light tolerant plants to grow is an example of
amensalism. Amensalism is a situation, where one organism is inhibited, the other is
unaffected. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
The parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate them (as
in the case of Koel) is an example of parasitism. It is known as Brood parasitism in birds.
Parasitism occurs when one individual, the parasite, benefits from another individual,
the host, while harming the host in the process. So, pair 4 is correctly matched. So, only
one pair is correctly matched. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.61 Consider the following statements with reference to hydroponics and aquaponics:
1. Plants are grown in a soil-less environment in aquaponics while soil is an essential

nutrient in hydroponics.
2. Fertilizer is added to the water in hydroponics while it is not required in aquaponics.
3. Hydroponics is best suitable for plants with high nutrient needs while aquaponics is
suitable for plants with low nutrient needs.

Solution Hydroponics is a popular method of growing plants that uses only chemical nutrients and
water, which means that this method grows plants without using soil. Aquaponics is a
growing method that involves fishes and plants being grown in the same environment.
Both in hydroponics and aquaponics, plants are grown in a soilless environment. Instead
of plants getting their nutrients from sources in the soil, an aquatic solution provides the
essential nutrients needed for plant growth directly to the roots, where efficient nutrient
uptake can occur. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Hydroponics requires adding fertilizers to the water to provide nutrients. However, in

aquaponics, fish are grown simultaneously in the aquatic environment to provide a natural
source of organic nutrients through their excreted waste. So, statement 2 is correct.
Hydroponics growing systems can be used for plants with high nutrient needs because the
nutrient solution can be adapted to meet plant needs; aquaponics systems typically work
best to support plants that have lower nutrient needs such as lettuce, other leafy greens,
and herbs. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.62 . Consider the following statements with reference to corals:
1. Only the oceans of tropical regions contain corals.
2. All species of corals are involved in reefbuilding.
3. Coral polyps produce their own food through photosynthesis.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Solution Coral reefs are large underwater structures composed of the skeletons of colonial
marine invertebrates called coral. Corals are made up of tiny individuals called
polyps. The polyps form calcium carbonate structures for self-protection. Polyps are
in a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae. Due to diversity present around them,
they are also knows as the rainforests of the ocean. There are three types of coral
reefs - Fringing reef, Barrier reef and Atoll.
Corals are found all over the world's oceans, from the Aleutian Islands off the coast
of Alaska to the warm tropical waters of the Caribbean Sea. The biggest coral reefs
are found in the clear, shallow waters of the tropics and subtropics. The largest of
these coral reef systems, the Great Barrier Reef in Australia, is more than 1,500 miles
long (2,400 kilometers). So, statement 1 is not correct.
The coral species that build reefs are known as hermatypic, or "hard," corals because
they extract calcium carbonate from seawater to create a hard, durable exoskeleton
that protects their soft, sac-like bodies. Other species of corals that are not involved
in reef building are known as “soft” corals. These types of corals are flexible
organisms often resembling plants and trees and include species such as sea fans and
sea whips. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Corals feed in one of two ways. Some species catch small marine life, like fish and
plankton, by using stinging tentacles on the outer edges of their bodies. Most corals,
however, depend on algae called zooxanthellae to provide energy via
photosynthesis. So, statement 3 is not correct. o The corals have a symbiotic, or
mutually beneficial, relationship with the zooxanthellae. These algae live inside the
coral polyp's body where they photosynthesize to produce energy for themselves and
the polyps. The polyps, in turn, provide a home and carbon dioxide for the algae.
Additionally, the zooxanthellae provide the coral with their lively colours — most
coral polyp bodies are clear and colourless without zooxanthellae. Therefore, option
(d) is the answer. Relevance: Scientists have recorded four species of azooxanthellate
corals for the first time from Indian waters.
Marks 3 1
Sl. No. National Parks State
1. Keibul Lamjao National Park : Meghalaya
2. Namdapha National Park : Arunachal Pradesh
3. Rajaji National Park : Kerala
4. Kuno National Park : Madhya Pradesh
5. Madhav National Park : Chhattisgarh
6. Guru Ghasidas National Park : Jharkhand
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer B
Option (c) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only Incorrect
Solution Keibul Lamjao National Park is located in the southwestern part of Loktak Lake, Manipur.
This is the last natural habitat of the brow-antlered deer (Sangai), the dancing deer of
Manipur. It is the only floating park in the world. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Namdapha National Park lies at the international border between India and Myanmar
within Changlang district, Arunachal Pradesh. Namdapha and its adjoining areas are
flanked by the Patkai hills to the south and southeast and by the Himalayas to the north. It
is the only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat namely the Tiger,
Leopard, Snow Leopard and Clouded Leopard. Hoolock Gibbons also dwell in this park. So,
pair 2 is correctly matched.
Rajaji National Park is situated in Uttarakhand along the hills and foothills of the Shiwalik
ranges in the Himalayan foothills. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2015. So, pair 3 is not
correctly matched.
Kuno National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh. Kuno River, one of the major tributaries
of Chambal River flows through the park. Plans for the reintroduction of Cheetah in Kuno
National Park from South Africa are underway. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Madhav National Park is situated in Shivpuri District, Madhya Pradesh and is a part of the
upper Vindhyan hills. This park is a part of the Ranthambhore-Kuno-Madhav (Madhya
Pradesh and Rajasthan) Tiger Corridor of Central India & Eastern Ghats landscape. So, pair
5 is not correctly matched.
Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in the Koriya district, Chhattisgarh. It was formed
when Chhattisgarh was bifurcated from Madhya Pradesh. The park area falls under tropical
climate zone. In 2021, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) had designated
the combined areas of the Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife
Sanctuary as a Tiger Reserve. So, pair 6 is not correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is
the correct answer. Relevance: Manipur's Keibul Lamjao National Park (KLNP) residents
oppose the site's relocation. NTCA designated the combined areas of the Guru Ghasidas
National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary as a Tiger Reserve
Marks 3 1
Question No.64
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Option Correct
Option Incorrect
Solution
Marks 3 1
Question No.65
Option Incorrect
Option Correct
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Solution
Marks 3 1
Question No.66
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Option Correct
Option Incorrect
Solution
Marks 3 1
Question No.67
Option Correct
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Solution
Marks 3 1
Question No.68
Option Correct
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Solution
Marks 3 1
Question No.69
Option Incorrect
Option Incorrect
Option Correct
Option Incorrect
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Marks 3 1
Question No.70 Bionics involves constructing artificial systems that have some of the
characteristics of living systems. In this context, which of the following is/are
the reasons for use of Graphene in Bionics?
1. Impermeability to harsh ionic solutions
2. Good electrical conductivity
3. Flexibility of graphene
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Type multiple_choice
Solution Graphene is most simply defined as a single layer of carbon atoms bonded
together in a hexagonal, sheetlike structure.
Advances in graphene technology have the potential to bring artificial devices
to their senses — in bionic eyes and ears.
Graphene is impervious to the harsh ionic solutions found in the human body
making it prone to damage. Moreover, graphene's ability to conduct electrical
signals means it can interface with neurons and other cells that communicate
by a nerve impulse, or action potential.
Apart from its stability and favorable electronic properties, graphene is also
flexible, so it can be wrapped around delicate tissues.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.71 Which of the following can not be a blood group of progeny born to parents
having A and AB blood groups?
1. A
2. AB
3. O
Option (c) 3 only Correct
Solution Human blood group inheritance shows an example of codominance as well as

multiple alleles. The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar
polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by
the gene. The gene (I) has three alleles Iᴬ, Iᴮ and i. The alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ produce
a slightly different form of sugar while allele i do not produce any sugar. i is
recessive to both Iᴬ, and Iᴮ. Iᴬand Iᴮ may show codominance.
Marks 3 1
Question No.72 With reference to spoofing and phishing, consider the following statements:
1. Spoofing is an identity theft where a person is trying to use the identity of a
legitimate user.
2. Phishing is where a person steals the sensitive information of users like bank
account details.
Solution Recently, the Indian Army issued a proposal for vehicle-based drone jammers.
Various ways of drone jamming: Radio Frequency jamming, Satellite link
disruption, spoofing, and dazzling.
Cybercrime can be defined as a crime or an unlawful act where the computer
is used either as a tool, a target, or both. In other terms, cyber crimes in India
can be defined as unauthorized access to some computer system without the
permission of the rightful owner or place of criminal activity and include
everything from online cracking to denial of service attacks.
Some examples of cybercrime include phishing, spoofing, DoS (Denial of
Service) attack, credit card fraud, online transaction fraud, cyber defamation,
child pornography, etc.
Spoofing: Spoofing is a type of attack on a computer device in which the
attacker tries to steal the identity of the legitimate user and act as another
person. This kind of attack is done to breach the security of the system or to
steal the information of the users. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Phishing is a type of attack on a computer device where the attacker tries to
find the sensitive information of users in a fraudulent manner through
electronic communication by intending to be from a related trusted
organization in an automated manner. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Spoofing can be part of phishing. But Phishing can’t be part of the spoofing.
Spoofing doesn’t require fraud. But Phishing is operated in a fraudulent
manner.
Ransomware Attack: Ransomware attacks are a very common type of
cybercrime. It is a type of malware that has the capability to prevent users from
accessing all of their personal data on the system by encrypting them and then
asking for a ransom in order to give access to the encrypted data.
Hacking/Misusing Computer Networks: This term refers to the crime of
unauthorized access to private computers or networks and misuse of it either
by shutting it down or tampering with the data stored or other illegal
approaches.
Vishing is an attempt where fraudsters try to seek personal information like
Customer ID, Net Banking password, ATM PIN, OTP, Card expiry date, CVV
etc. through a phone call.
Smishing is a type of fraud that uses mobile phone text messages to lure victims
into calling back on a fraudulent phone number, visiting fraudulent websites
or downloading malicious content via phone or the web.
Denial of Services (DoS) attack is an attack intended for denying access to
computer resources without the permission of the owner or any other person
who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network.
A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make an online
service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources.
Cryptojacking is the unauthorized use of computing resources to mine
cryptocurrencies.
Marks 3 1
Question No.73 Consider the following statements with reference to neutrino:

1. Neutrinos are chargeless particles.
2. Neutrinos assist in the detection of mineral and oil deposits deep inside the
earth.
3. They cannot be generated artificially.

Solution Neutrinos are fundamental particles created in a wide variety of nuclear
processes. Protons, neutrons, and electrons are tiny particles that makeup
atoms. The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the
atom. Such particles are also found to exist in nature. Neutrino has a very tiny
mass, no charge, and spin half. It interacts very weakly with other matter
particles. So weakly that every second trillion of neutrinos fall on us and pass
through our bodies unnoticed. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Neutrinos change the way they spin depending on how far they have traveled
and how much matter they have passed through. If the properties are studied
thoroughly and suitable detectors built, they can reveal the presence of
minerals and oil deposits. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Neutrino oscillation was established by Sudbury Neutrino Observatory,
Canada, and Super-Kamiokande experiment in Japan. They studied Solar
neutrinos, atmospheric neutrinos, and man-made neutrinos. It's the process of
fission inside the nuclear reactor that eventually leads to the birth of neutrinos
through beta decay. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Other use of neutrinos:
Scientists have already shown that it's possible to detect neutrinos emitted from
the decay in nuclear reactors and have proposed using neutrino detectors to
locate undocumented nuclear reactors or reactors that are secretly harvesting
plutonium.
Use in communication, Scientists have proven that it's possible to encode a
message in neutrinos using binary code.
the neutrinos are carriers of information regarding the universe.
neutrinos can help in identifying the geological defect deep inside the earth,
thereby answering the question of an early warning system for an earthquake.
Marks 3 1
Question No.74 With reference to the Big Bang Theory, which of the following statements is
not correct?
Option (a) According to this theory, all matter Incorrect

forming the universe existed in one
place.
Option (b) During the process, energy was Correct

converted into matter.
Option (c) Temperature of the universe Incorrect

increased with the expansion of
universe.
Option (d) According to the theory, the Incorrect

universe continues to expand to the
present day.
Solution The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big
Bang Theory. It is also called expanding universe hypothesis. The Big Bang
Theory considers the following stages in the development of the universe:
In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the
form of a “tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume,
infinite temperature, and infinite density.
At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion.
It is now generally accepted that the event of the big bang took place 13.7 billion
years before the present.
As it grew, some energy was converted into matter. There was particularly
rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the bang. Thereafter, the
expansion slowed down. Within the first three minutes of the Big Bang event,
the first atom began to form.
As the universe expanded, both the density and temperature dropped. Within
300,000 years from the Big Bang, the temperature dropped to 4,500 K (Kelvin)
and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent. Hence
option (c) is the correct answer.
The expansion of the universe means an increase in space between the galaxies.
With greater evidence becoming available about the expanding universe, the
scientific community at present favors the argument of expanding the universe.
The expansion continues even to the present day.
Marks 3 1
Question No.75 Which of the statements best describes 'votive stupas' recently discovered by
Archeological Survey of India (ASI) in Nalanda district?
Option (a) They are distinctive domelike drum Correct

that originate in eight cylindrical
structures in which the Buddha's relics
were placed after his death.
Option (b) They symbolize the Buddha's Incorrect

reuniting of his monastic followers
after they had become divided by
disagreement.
Option (c) They commemorate the Buddha's Incorrect

display of miracles when he was
challenged to demonstrate his
realization.
Option (d) They symbolize the Buddha's Incorrect

return from the celestial realms in
order to continue teaching the path to
Awakening.
Solution Recently, the archeological survey of india discovered two 1200-year-old

miniature votive stupas at Nalanda Mahavihara in Bihar.
Votive stupas have survived in vast numbers in the Mahabodhi temple
compound at Bodhgaya. The form of the stupa, with its distinctive domelike
drum, originates in eight cylindrical structures in which the Buddha's relics
were placed after his death.
The stupa shape has become associated with the Buddhist goal of release from
the cycles of suffering and rebirth. o In addition to the drum, this stupa has a
tiered base and is crowned with a series of stylized umbrellas that symbolize
royalty and divine status.
Although little is known about the uses of votive shrines and stupas, the larger
ones at Bodhgaya were probably given by visiting kings, while smaller stupas
such as this one were offered by monks and lay pilgrims.
Stupa, Sanskrit for heap, is a mound-like (hemispherical) burial structure
containing relics of Buddhist monks. E.g. Sanchi Stupa built over Buddha
relics.
About Nalanda Mahavihara o It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site with
archaeological remains of a monastic and scholastic institution from 3rd
century BCE to 13th century CE. Gautam Buddha as well as Mahavira stayed
at Nalanda. Other famous scholars at Nalanda Nagarjuna, Dharampala,
Dinnaga, Jinamitra Santaraksita etc. Imminent pilgrim monks like Hiuen
Tsang and I-tsing also visited.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.76 Colloidal solutions are mixtures in which microscopically dispersed insoluble
particles of one substance are suspended in another substance.
Which of the following are examples of colloidal solutions?
1. Cow milk
2. Milk of magnesia
3. Blood
4. Tincture of iodine
5. Shaving cream
Option (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Incorrect
Option (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct
Solution Colloidal solutions are mixtures in which microscopically dispersed insoluble

particles of one substance are suspended in another substance. x Properties of
colloid: o A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture. o The size of the particles of a
colloid is too small to be individually seen by the naked eye. o Colloids are big
enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible.
o They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite stable.
x Cow Milk, milk of magnesia, blood, and shaving cream are examples of
colloidal solutions.
Tincture of iodine is an example of a homogeneous solution with iodine (solid)
as the solute and alcohol (liquid) as the solvent. x Hence, option (a) is the correct
answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.77 With reference to to hand-foot-and-mouth disease (HFMD), consider the
1. It is different from foot-and-mouth disease which commonly affects cows,
sheep, and pigs.
2. Tomato flu is a clinical variant of the HFMD and results in tomato-shaped
red blisters on several parts of the body.
Solution Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a mild, contagious viral infection common in

young children.
Symptoms include sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet. it is a
mild, self-limiting disease with no significant adverse effects. It lasts seven to
ten days.
It spreads by physical contact, sneezing, or by coming in contact with the stool
of the infected child. While children below five years of age are prone to be
affected by it, teenagers and adults have also been infected by the same. The
infection can affect people of all ages but it usually occurs in children under
the age of five.
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is most commonly caused by a coxsackievirus.
This virus is part of a group of viruses called enteroviruses. In some cases, other
types of enteroviruses can cause HFMD.
An increase in cases of hand-foot-and-mouth disease (HFMD) has been
reported in Delhi-NCR in 2022. o There's no specific treatment for hand-foot-
and-mouth disease. Frequent hand-washing and avoiding close contact with
people who have hand-foot-and-mouth disease may help lower your child's risk
of infection. o Hand, foot, and mouth disease is often confused with foot-and-
mouth disease (also called hoof-andmouth disease), which affects cows, sheep,
and pigs. Hence, statement 1 is correct. o Humans do not get the animal disease,
and animals do not get the human disease.
Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) or hoof-and-mouth disease (HMD) is an
infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease that affects cloven-hoofed animals,
including domestic and wild bovids. The virus causes a high fever lasting two
to six days, followed by blisters inside the mouth and near the hoof that may
rupture and cause lameness.
FMD has very severe implications for animal farming, since it is highly
infectious and can be spread by infected animals comparatively easily through
contact with contaminated farming equipment, vehicles, clothing, and feed,
and by domestic and wild predators. o Humans are only extremely rarely
infected by foot-and-mouth disease virus (FMDV). o Tomato Flu is caused by
Coxsackievirus A16. Once infected, the virus produces red and painful blisters
on the skin, hence referred to as “Tomato Flu” or “Tomato Fever”. Tomato flu
has been reported from at least four states — Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Haryana,
and Odisha.
o Researchers believe that it is a different clinical presentation of hand-foot-
and mouth disease (HFMD) caused by a group of enteroviruses (viruses
transmitted through the intestine). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tomato flu or tomato fever is characterised by fever, joint pain, and red,
tomato-like rashes usually seen in children below the age of five years. This is
accompanied by other symptoms of viral fevers such as diarrhoea,
dehydration, nausea and vomiting, and fatigue.
Marks 3 1
Question No.78 Consider the following statements about Solid Lipid Nanoparticles:
1. They are prone to a high degree of bio toxicity.
2. They cannot be used as delivery vehicles for RNA-based vaccines.
Solution Solid Lipid Nanoparticles (SLNs) are examples of lipid-based drug delivery
systems that have distinctive properties such as high drug loading, and large
surface area and can protect the drug from the environment while increasing
its bioavailability.
An SLN is generally spherical in shape and consists of a solid lipid core
stabilized by a surfactant. The core lipids can be fatty acids, acylglycerols,
waxes, and mixtures of these surfactants. Biological membrane lipids such as
phospholipids, sphingomyelins, bile salts (sodium taurocholate), and sterols
(cholesterol) are utilized as stabilizers.
SLNs use physiological lipids which reduces the danger of acute and chronic
bio toxicity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. x Some COVID-19 vaccines
(Pfizer-BionTech and Moderna) that use RNA vaccine technology coat the
fragile mRNA strands with Solid lipid nanoparticles as their delivery vehicle.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Marks 3 1
Question No.79 With reference to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI),
consider the following statements:
1. It is an autonomous statutory body which regulates food safety and
standards.
2. It is under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
Solution Recently, FSSAI has released a survey that 15% of dietary supplements are of
substandard quality. The Consumer Protection Act 2019 bans misleading
advertisements about any product or service falsely describing a product and
deliberately concealing information on sugar content while focusing on
immunity boost.
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been
established under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which consolidates
various acts & orders that have hitherto handled food related issues in various
Ministries and Departments.
It is an autnomous statutory body which regulates and monitor manufacturing,
distrbution and processing of food products. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
FSSAI has been created for laying down science based standards for articles of
food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import
to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.
Highlights of the Food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 o Various central Acts
like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act,1954,Fruit Products Order , 1955,
Meat Food Products Order,1973,Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order,
1947,Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation)Order 1988, Solvent Extracted Oil,
De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967, Milk and Milk
Products Order, 1992 etc will be repealed after commencement of FSS Act,
2006. Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the
Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI. Hence, statement 2
is correct. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and
Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) have already been appointed by
Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to
Government of India.
Marks 3 1
Question No.80 Honey flows slower than water because
Option (a) Honey has a higher viscosity than Correct

water.
Option (b) Honey has a lower melting point Incorrect

than water.
Option (c) Honey has higher surface tension Incorrect

than water.
Option (d) Honey has a lower density than Incorrect

water.
Solution Viscosity, the resistance of a fluid (liquid or gas) to a change in shape, or

movement of neighboring portions relative to one another. Viscosity denotes
opposition to flow.
The viscosity of honey lies between 0.421 and 23.405 Pa s and the viscosity of
water lies between 0.01 poise or 10-3 Pa.s. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.
The reciprocal of the viscosity is called fluidity, a measure of the ease of flow.
x Honey, for example, has a greater viscosity than water.
Because part of a fluid that is forced to move carries along to some extent
adjacent parts, the viscosity may be thought of as internal friction between the
molecules; such friction opposes the development of velocity differences within
a fluid.
Viscosity is a major factor in determining the forces that must be overcome
when fluids are used in lubrication and transported in pipelines. It controls the
liquid flow in such processes as spraying, injection molding, and surface
coating.
Honey while more viscous than water, doesn't have higher surface tension than
water. Mosquitoes are able to stand on water but slowly sink into honey.
The densities of o Honey is 1360 kg / m3 o Sugar Syrup is 1320 kg/m3 o
Dishwashing Liquid is 1120 kg / m3 o Water is 1000 kg / m3.
Marks 3 1
Question No.81 Which of the following diseases are caused
by protozoa?
1. Dengue
2. Malaria
3. Kala-Azar
4. Tuberculosis
Option (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Incorrect
Solution Organisms that can cause disease are found in a wide range of such categories
of classification. Some of them are viruses, some are bacteria, some are fungi,
some are single-celled animals or protozoans. Some diseases are also caused by
multicellular organisms, such as worms of different kinds.
Disease caused by Bacteria: o Whooping Cough - It is caused by a bacterium
called Bordetella pertussis. o Diphtheria - It is caused by Corynebacterium
diphtheriae. o Cholera - It is caused by Vibrio cholera. o Leprosy - It is caused
by Mycobacterium leprae. o Pneumonia- It is caused by Streptococcus
pneumonia. o Tetanus - It is caused by Clostridium tetani. o Typhoid - It is
caused by Salmonella typhi. o Tuberculosis - It is caused by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis. o Plague - It is caused by Yersinia pestis.
Disease Caused by Protozoans: o Diarrhoea: There are a number of intestinal
protozoa that cause diarrhea, but Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia intestinalis
and Cryptosporidium species are the most important causes of diarrhea o
Malaria: It is spread by Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodium parasite that
causes malaria is neither a virus nor a bacteria. o Amoebic dysentery: It is
caused by Entamoebahistolytica. o Sleeping sickness: It is caused by
Trypanosomabrucei. o Kala-azar It is caused by Leishmaniadonovani.
Disease Caused by Worms: o Tapeworm: They are intestinal parasites. It
cannot live on its own. It survives within the intestine of an animal including a
human. o Pinworm: It is caused by a small, thin, white roundworm called
Enterobiusvermicularis.
Disease caused by Viruses: o Chickenpox - It is caused by the Varicella-zoster
virus. o Small Pox - It is caused by the Variola virus.Common Cold -It is caused
by Rhinovirus. o AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) - It is caused
by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). o Measles -It is caused by the
Measles virus. o Mumps -It is caused by the Mumps virus. o Rabies - It is
caused by the Rabies virus (Rhabdoviridae family). o Dengue fever -It is caused
by the Dengue virus. o Viral encephalitis - It is an inflammation of the brain.
It is caused by the rabies virus, Herpes simplex, poliovirus, measles virus, and
JC virus. x Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.82 Which of the following diseases are caused by protozoa?
1. Dengue
2. Malaria
3. Kala-Azar
4. Tuberculosis
Option (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Incorrect
Solution Trans fat is considered the worst type of fat to eat. x A diet laden with trans
fats increases the risk of heart disease, the leading killer of adults. The more
trans fats eaten, the greater the risk of heart and blood vessel disease.
Most trans fats are formed through an industrial process that adds hydrogen
to vegetable oil, which causes the oil to become solid at room temperature.
This partially hydrogenated oil is inexpensive and less likely to spoil, so foods
made with it have a longer shelf life. Some restaurants use partially
hydrogenated vegetable oil in their deep fryers, because it doesn't have to be
changed as often as do other oils.
There are two main types of cholesterol:
o Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. LDL, or "bad," cholesterol can
build up in the walls of arteries, making them hard and narrow. o High-density
lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol. HDL, or "good," cholesterol picks up excess
cholesterol and takes it back to the liver.
Trans fats increase LDL cholesterol and decrease HDL cholesterol, which can
increase the risk of heart attack or stroke. Hence, statement 1 is correct. x
Kerala is the first state in India to introduce a "fat tax" on burgers, pizzas,
doughnuts and tacos served in branded restaurants. Hence, statement 3 is not
correct.
Kerala has the most number of people suffering from obesity after the northern
state of Punjab in India, according to a national family health survey. With
increasing affluence, lifestyle diseases are on the rise and the government aims
to check this with the fat tax.
The World Health Organization (WHO) has launched a comprehensive plan
REPLACE to eliminate industrially-produced artificial trans fats from the
global food supply by 2023. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Elimination of trans fats is key to protecting health and saving lives, the WHO
said. The global health body estimates that every year, trans fat intake leads to
over 5,00,000 deaths worldwide from cardiovascular diseases
Industrially-produced trans fats are contained in hardened vegetable fats such
as margarine and and ghee, and are often present in snack, baked, and fried
foods. x REPLACE provides six strategic actions to ensure the prompt,
complete, and sustained elimination of industrially-produced trans fats from
the food supply:
REview dietary sources of industrially-produced trans fats and the landscape
for required policy change.
Promote the replacement of industrially-produced trans fats with healthier fats
and oils.
Legislate or enact regulatory actions to eliminate industrially-produced trans
fats.
Assess and monitor trans fats content in the food supply and changes in trans
fat consumption in the population.
Create awareness of the negative health impact of trans fats among
policymakers, producers, suppliers, and the public. o Enforce compliance of
policies and regulations.
Marks 3 1
Question No.83 Consider the following statements regarding the Central Organization:
Drugs Standard Control
1. It is responsible for the approval of new drugs and clinical trials in the
country.
2. It functions under the Directorate General of Health Services.
Solution Recent Context: At least 70 samples of commonly used drugs were found to be
of sub-standard quality by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization
(CDSCO) after the latest round of inspections.
CDSCO is under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health &
Family Welfare. Hence statement 2 is correct. x It is the Central Drug
Authority for discharging functions assigned to Central Government under the
Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
Under Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for: Approval of
Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials, Laying down standards for Drugs, and
Control over quality of imported Drugs in country. Hence statement 1 is
correct. Coordination of activities of State Drug Control Organizations by
providing expert advice.
Marks 3 1
Question No.84 With reference to photosynthesis and respiration in plants, consider the
1. Photosynthesis is an exothermic process and respiration is an endothermic
process.
2. Both are the continuous processes which take place throughout the day.
3. The byproduct of photosynthesis is carbon dioxide and respiration is oxygen.
Solution Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and certain other
organisms transform light energy into chemical energy. During photosynthesis
in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon
dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
Respiration in plants refers to a process in which a plant utilizes atmospheric
oxygen to oxidize glucose and other respiratory substrates like fats or proteins.
The relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is such that
the products of one system are the reactants of the other.
Photosynthesis involves the use of energy from sunlight, water and carbon
dioxide to produce glucose and oxygen.
Cellular respiration uses glucose and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and
water. Hence statement 3 is not correct. x Humans, animals and plants depend
on the cycle of cellular respiration and photosynthesis for survival. The oxygen
produced by plants during photosynthesis is what humans and animals inhale
for the blood to transport to the cells for respiration.
The carbon dioxide produced during respiration is released from the body and
absorbed by plants to help provide the energy they need for growth and
development. This is the never ending cycle that sustains life on earth. x
Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction because sunlight energy is absorbed
during the process of photosynthesis by the plants.
Respiration is a kind of burning fuel. During respiration, Carbohydrates
present in food are broken down to form glucose. Glucose combines with
oxygen in the cells of our body and provides energy. Therefore, respiration is
an exothermic reaction. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Marks 3 1
Question No.85 A sound created in a big hall will persist by repeated reflection from the
walls until it is reduced to a value where it is no longer audible. The repeated
reflection that results in this persistence of sound is called:
Option (a) echo Incorrect
Option (b) interference Incorrect
Option (c) pitch Incorrect
Option (d) reverberation Correct
Solution Reverberation: It is the phenomenon of the persistence of sound after it has

been stopped due to multiple reflections from surfaces, such as furniture,
people, air, etc., within a closed surface. These reflections build up with each
reflection and decay gradually as they are absorbed by the surfaces of
objects in the enclosed space. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. . 37
www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS x Pitch: The pitch of a sound is our ear's
response to the frequency of sound. Whereas loudness depends on the
energy of the wave. In general, the pitch is the reason behind the difference
in voice quality of different individuals. x Interference: When two or more
sound waves occupy the same space, they affect one another. The waves do
not bounce off of each, but they move through each other. The resulting
wave depends on how the waves line up. x Echo: When the sound is repeated
when the sound wave is reflected, it is known as an echo. Echo is heard when
space is large. Example: imagine standing in an empty room and shouting
“Hi”.
Marks 3 1
Question No.86 Which one of the following will occur if a sealed transparent plastic bottle filled
with hot air is placed in the freezer?
Option (a) plastic bottle will remain Incorrect

unaffected by the change in
environment.
Option (b) plastic bottle will get inflated. Incorrect
Option (c) plastic bottle will collapse on itself. Correct
Option (d) None of the above Incorrect
Solution When a sealed transparent plastic bottle filled with hot air is placed in the
freezer, the plastic bottle will collapse on itself. The collapsing bottle
demonstrates the properties of gasses collectively known as the Ideal Gas Law,
an equation describing the relationship between temperature, pressure, and
volume.
According to Gas Law, the pressure and volume are inversely proportional to
each other and both are proportional to temperature. So as the temperature
decreased when the bottle filled with hot air is placed inside the freezer, the
pressure decreased until the bottle gave in and collapsed (the volume decreased
until the pressure equalized).
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.87 With reference to the melting of ice, which of the following statements is not
correct?
Option (a) Melting of ice is a physical change. Incorrect
Option (b) When ice melts, its volume Incorrect

decreases.
Option (c) Melting of ice is an exothermic Correct

reaction.
Option (d) When ice melts, its mass remains Incorrect

unchanged.
Solution Melting of ice involves a change in the state of water from solid to liquid. Since
it involves a change in the state of water without forming any new substance,
it is a physical change.
When ice melts, it converts to water and the density of ice is less than of water.
Hence, the volume will decrease.
Heat is generated by exothermic processes, which raise the temperature of the
surrounding environment, endothermic processes absorb heat from the
environment and cool it. Heat is removed from the surrounding atmosphere to
melt the ice, thus, melting of ice requires the use of energy to break the
hydrogen bonds in the ice. Consequently, ice melting is an endothermic
process.
Melting of ice is just a change of state from a solid to a liquid and is still the
same amount of water. It should have the same mass.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Marks 3 1
Question No.88 With reference to the plasma proteins in blood, consider the following
statements:
1. Fibrinogens in plasma are needed for clotting of blood.
2. Globulins in plasma are involved in defense mechanisms of the body.
3. Albumins in plasma help in the osmotic balance so that the fluid does not
leak into tissues.
Solution Blood is a constantly circulating fluid providing the body with nutrition,
oxygen, and waste removal.
Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma, and
formed elements.
Plasma is the liquid component of blood. Plasma makes up 55% of blood’s total
volume.
90-92 per cent of plasma is water. The remaining 8 percent of plasma contains
several key materials, including: o proteins o Immunoglobulins o electrolytes
Plasma Proteins o Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins.
o Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. Fibrinogen helps
to reduce active bleeding, making it an important part of the blood-clotting
process. If a person loses a lot blood, they’ll also lose plasma and fibrinogen.
This makes it harder for blood to clot, which can lead to significant blood loss.
Hence, statement 1 is correct. o Globulins primarily are involved in defense
mechanisms of the body and defends our body from infections including
bacteria, fungi, viruses and cancer cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct. o
Albumin help in osmotic balance. It is vital for maintaining a balance of fluid,
called oncotic pressure, in the blood. This pressure is what keeps fluid from
leaking into areas of the body and skin where less fluid usually collects. For
example, people with low albumin levels may have swelling in their hands, feet,
and abdomen. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Immunoglobulins Plasma contains gamma globulins, a type of
immunoglobulin. Immunoglobulins help the body fight off infections.
ElectrolytesElectrolytes conduct electricity when dissolved in water, hence
their name. Common electrolytes include sodium, potassium, magnesium, and
calcium. Each of these electrolytes plays a key role in the body.
Marks 3 1
Question No.89 Consider the following:
1. Electricity power lines
2. X-Rays 3. Smart Meters
4. Mobile tower
5. Navigation Radars Which of the above are the sources of Electromagnetic
Field (EMF) Emissions?
Option (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only Incorrect
Option (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and5 Correct
Solution Electric and magnetic fields are invisible areas of energy (also called radiation)
that are produced by electricity, which is the movement of electrons, or
current, through a wire.
There are two main categories of EMFs: o Electric fields are produced by
naturalsourcessuch asthe local build-up of electric charges in the atmosphere
associated with thunderstorms while the earth's magnetic field is used by birds
and fish for navigation. o Human-made EMFs: o Higher-frequency EMFs,
which include x-rays and gamma rays. These EMFs are in the ionizing
radiation part of the electromagnetic spectrum and can damage DNA or cells
directly.
The person behind the PIN Code initiative was Shriram Bhikaji Velankar,
additional secretary in the Union Ministry of Communications and a senior
member of the Posts and Telegraphs Board.
Among Velankar’s 105 books and plays in Sanskrit was the Viloma Kavya,
which is considered a literary masterpiece because it comprises verses in praise
of Lord Rama when read from one side and, when read backwards, it
transformed into verses dedicated to Lord Krishna. o Low-to mid-frequency
EMFs, which include static fields (electric or magnetic fields that do not vary
with time), magnetic fields from electric power lines and appliances, smart
meter, mobile tower, navigation radars, radio waves, microwaves, infrared
radiation, and visible light. These EMFs are in the nonionizing radiation part
of the electromagnetic spectrum and are not known to damage DNA or cells
directly. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Relevance: The Minister
of State for Communications of India informed the Rajya Sabha about present
norms for EMF emissions from mobile towers in India.
Marks 3 1
Question No.90 ‘Photometeor’, sometimes seen in the news, is
Option (a) a new process to convert solar Incorrect

light into electricity
Option (b) an optical phenomenon produced Correct

by the reflection of light from the Sun
and the Moon
Option (c) a metallic asteroid that lies in the Incorrect

asteroid belt between Mars and
Jupiter
Option (d) a technology to harness energy Incorrect

from a lightning strike
Solution A photometeor is an optical phenomenon produced by the reflection,

refraction, diffraction or interference of light from the Sun or the Moon.
In pileus clouds, small water droplets or ice crystals diffract the sunlight
falling on them. The thinness of the cloud ensures more exposure to sunlight
for each water droplet or ice crystal. It makes its wave crest-like appearance
or Cloud iridescence or Irisation (the phenomenon of rainbow-like colours
in clouds). Iridescence of clouds is a photometeor. Therefore, option (b) is
the correct answer. Relevance: Unusually-shaped rainbow clouds that
resemble a pileus cloud have been seen in China.
Gyaan Ki baaten
A pileus cloud is usually formed over a cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud. It
is formed when the base cloud pushes a moist current of air upwards and
the water vapour from the current condenses to somewhat resemble wave-
like crests, or umbrellas.
Marks 3 1
1. Talc is a naturally occurring mineral composed of silicon, oxygen and
hydrogen.
2. Asbestos is an artificial additive used by cosmetics companies to increase the
shelf life of the products.
3. Talc when contaminated with asbestos can cause cancer.
Solution Talc is a naturally occurring mineral, mined from underground deposits,

composed of magnesium, silicon, oxygen, and hydrogen. Chemically, talc is a
hydrous magnesium silicate with a chemical formula of Mg3Si4O10 (OH)2.
Talc is the softest known mineral and is used in a variety of cosmetic and
personal care products, like baby powder, lipstick, eyeshadow and foundation.
When reduced to a fine powder, it is able to absorb moisture and reduce
friction which keeps the skin dry, helps prevent rashes, stops makeup from
caking and generally helps improve the feel and texture of a product. So,
Asbestos is also a naturally occurring silicate mineral, but with a different
crystal structure. Both talc and asbestos are naturally occurring minerals that
may be found in close proximity in the earth. Unlike talc, however, asbestos is
a known carcinogen when inhaled. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Asbestos has been used in construction and manufacturing, and is known to
cause lung cancer, ovarian cancer, mesothelioma and other health conditions.
There is the potential for contamination of talc with asbestos. According to the
American Cancer Society, it is generally accepted that talc contaminated with
asbestos can cause cancer. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is
the correct answer. Relevance: Pharmaceutical giant Johnson and Johnson
(J&J) announced that it would discontinue the sale of its talc-based baby
powder globally in 2023.
Marks 3 1
Question No.92 The application of Chlorpyrifos, Fipronil, Atrazine and Paraquat is considered
a threat to health and environment. These chemicals are used as:
Option (a) generic drugs Incorrect
Option (b) pesticides Correct
Option (c) herbal cosmetics Incorrect
Option (d) food preservatives Incorrect
Solution Chlorpyrifos, Fipronil, Atrazine and Paraquat are Highly Hazardous

Pesticides (HHP) approved in India for use in specific crop-pest combinations.
Safety of agricultural produce and environmental contamination is at risk due
to the unauthorized rampant use of four HHPs.
The HHPs are approved for use in the country for only specific crop-pest
combinations. However, they are being used for several food and non-food
crops without approval. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance:
Unapproved and unauthorized use of the agrochemicals - chlorpyrifos,
fipronil, atrazine and paraquat - was found across India.
Marks 3 1
Question No.93 With reference to the lumpy skin disease, consider the following statements:
1. It is a zoonotic disease that can spread to humans.
2. It is caused by Capripox virus that infects cattle through blood-feeding
vectors.
3. It is endemic to South American countries.
Solution The Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) is not zoonotic, meaning it does not spread
from animals to humans, and humans cannot get infected with it. So, statement
1 is not correct.
According to a report by the Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunisation
(GAVI), the LSD is caused by a virus called the Capripox virus and is “an
emerging threat to livestock worldwide”. It is genetically related to the goatpox
and sheepox virus family. LSD infects cattle and water buffalo mainly through
vectors such as blood feeding insects. So, statement 2 is correct.
LSD has been endemic in most African countries. However, since 2012 it has
spread rapidly through the Middle East, Southeast Europe and West and
Central Asia. Since 2019, several outbreaks of LSD have been reported in Asia.
In May this year, Pakistan’s Punjab also reported the deaths of over 300 cows
due to LSD. So, statement 3 is not correct.
LSD, along with other major diseases observed in cattle like Brucellosis,
Hemorrhagic Septicemia (HS), etc. are covered under the Livestock Health and
Disease Control programme in India. Sheepox virus (SPV) and goat pox virus
(GPV) - based vaccine (heterologous vaccine) is usually authorized to induce
cross-protection against LSD in cattle, where homologous LSD vaccine is not
available. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Relevance: Recently,
nearly 3,000 cattle have died in Rajasthan and Gujarat due to Lumpy Skin
Disease (LSD) that has spread across the states.
Marks 3 1
Question No.94 Which among the following is not a mosquito-borne viral disease?
Option (a) Chikungunya Incorrect
Option (b) West Nile fever Incorrect
Option (c) Dengue Incorrect
Option (d) Malaria Correct
Solution The diseases spread by mosquitoes can be caused by a parasite, as in the

case of malaria, or by viruses, as is the case for Zika fever and numerous
others.
Mosquitoes feed primarily on vertebrates including humans and other
mammals, as well as birds, reptiles, and others.
The Aedes mosquitoes are the carriers of many viral diseases including
Zika, dengue, chikungunya, yellow fever, and Rift Valley disease.
Culex, a large group of mosquitoes also known as common house
mosquitoes, are the principal vectors that spread the viruses that cause
West Nile fever, St. Louis encephalitis, and Japanese encephalitis, as well as
viral diseases of birds and horses. Culex mosquitoes can also transmit the
parasitic disease lymphatic filariasis and the bacterial disease tularemia.
Anopheles mosquitoes are best known for spreading malaria, although they
can transmit other diseases. Malaria is a serious and sometimes fatal disease
caused by a parasite (not virus) that commonly infects a certain type of
mosquito which feeds on humans. Four kinds of malaria parasites infect
humans: Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae. Only
Anopheles mosquitoes can transmit malaria and they must have been
infected through a previous blood meal taken from an infected person.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Marks 3 1
1. Stellar pulsation is the expansion and contraction of the star induced by
internal physical processes.
2. Surface Mass Ejection of a star is caused due to destabilization of magnetic
structures in the star’s corona.
3. A star appears red giant when its core collapses and the outer layers of
material in the star expand outward.
Solution Stellar pulsations or oscillations are periodic variations of the size, brightness,
and temperature of the star induced by some internal physical processes. These
pulsations can be either radial, with symmetric expansions and contractions
over the whole stellar surface, or non-radial when the spherical symmetry of
the star is not preserved. So, statement 1 is correct.
Surface Mass Ejection (SME) happens when a star expelslarge amounts of
plasma and magnetic flux into the surrounding space. The coronal mass
ejections of the star ‘Sun’, might be caused by the destabilization of large-scale
magnetic structures in the star’s corona. So, statement 2 is correct.
At a certain point, the core of the star runs out of hydrogen. When that
happens, the star can no longer hold up against gravity. Its inner layers start
to collapse, which squishes the core, increasing the pressure and temperature
in the core of the star. While the core collapses, the outer layers of material in
the star expand outward. At this point the star is called a red giant. So,
Gyaan ki Baaten
Betelgeuse
Betelgeuse, also called Alpha Orionis, is the second brightest star in the
constellation Orion. Betelgeuse is easily discernible to even the casual observer,
not only because of its brightness and position in the brilliant Orion but also
because of its deep reddish colour. The star is approximately 548 light-years
from Earth.
Since Betelgeuse is at the end stages of its life, it appears faint or dim. It is
suspected that Betelgeuse lost a large part of its surface material in the event
of enormous surface mass ejection (SME). Betelgeuse, once large, red
supergiant reaches a point where their cores produce iron and can no longer
sustain nuclear fusion.
Marks 3 1
Question No.96 ‘Methamphetamine, Mephedrone and Methaqualone’ are the names of
Option (a) Synthetic Pesticides Incorrect
Option (b) Industrial Solvents Incorrect
Option (c) Food emulsifiers Incorrect
Option (d) Psychotropic Substances Correct
Solution Drug abuse and the illegal drug trade is still at alarming proportions in India
despite a recorded drop in the total number of illicit drugs seized in the
country, shows data from the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB).
The introduction of drugs like methamphetamine (crystal meth) and
Mephedrone (M-Cat/Meow-Meow) have pushed the demand for illicit drugs
and increased trafficking incidents, according to the bureau’s latest annual
report.
The emergence of Mephedrone, a psychoactive drug newly included in the
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 list of psychotropic
substances, has also added to fast-growing challenges for the country’s law
enforcement, according to the report.
Methaqualone is a central nervous system depressant earlier used as a sedative
and hypnotic drug in some countries. Methaqualone was first synthesized in
India in the 1950s as an anti-malaria drug. Therefore, option (d) is the correct
answer. Relevance: The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) destroyed over
30,000 kg of seized drugs in the virtual presence of the Union Minister of Home
Affairs.
Marks 3 1
Question No.97 Which one of the following is correct with reference to the G20?
Option (a) It includes all the members of NATO Correct

and ASEAN.
Option (b) It was formed in 2010 after the Incorrect

global financial crisis.
Option (c) ‘Troika’ includes the three biggest Incorrect

economies in the group.
Option (d) The 2023 Summit will be held in Incorrect

India for the first time.
Solution The G20 is a strategic multilateral platform connecting the world’s major
developed and emerging economies. The members of the G20 are: Argentina,
Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy,
Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa,
Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union (EU).
Spain is also invited as a permanent guest. Therefore, all the members of
NATO and ASEAN are not a part of the G20.
The G20 was formed in 1999 with the aim of discussing policies in order to
achieve international financial stability. On the advice of the G7 Finance
Ministers, the G20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors began
holding meetings to discuss the response to the global financial crisis that
occurred. Nine years later, in 2008, the leaders of the G20 countries gathered
for the first G20 Summit.
The presidency of the G20 rotates every year among its members, with the
country that holds the presidency working together with its predecessor and
successor, also known as Troika, to ensure the continuity of the agenda.
Currently Italy, Indonesia, and India are the Troika countries.
India has been a member of the G20 since its inception in 1999. India will be
holding the G20 Presidency from 1 December 2022 and will convene the G20
Leaders' Summit
Marks 3 1
Question No.98 Bian Lian, Anubis and Roaming Mantis, often mentioned in the news, are types
of:
Option (a) cryptocurrency Incorrect
Option (b) cloud platforms Incorrect
Option (c) malware Correct
Option (d) humanoids Incorrect
Solution Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors i.e., lenders suffer and
borrowers benefit out of inflation. Bond holders = this person has lend money
(to debtors) and received bond in return. So he is lender, he suffers, by the way
they haven’t specifically used the word – “inflation indexed bonds”, hence we
cannot say inflation benefits the bond-holders.
Marks 3 1
Question No.99 With reference to the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle, consider the following
statements:
1. It is developed for the launch of up to 10,000 kg satellites into Low Earth
Orbits.
2. It can be used to launch multiple satellites and offers a low turn-around time.
Solution The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) was developed by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) to cater the launch of up to 500 kg satellites to
Low Earth Orbits on ‘launch-on-demand’ basis. SSLV is capable of launching
Mini, Micro, or Nanosatellites (10 to 500 kg mass) to a 500 km planar orbit.
This new launch vehicle has been designed keeping in mind commercial
launches of small satellites with a quick turn-around time for the missions. So,
SSLV is configured with three solid stages 87 t, 7.7 t and 4.5 t. The satellite
insertion into the intended orbit is achieved through a liquid propulsion-based
velocity trimming module. SSLV provides low-cost access to Space on demand
basis. It offers low turn-around time, flexibility in accommodating multiple
satellites, launch-ondemand feasibility, minimal launch infrastructure
requirements, etc. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer. Relevance: ISRO launched the first flight of the Small Satellite Launch
Vehicle (SSLV) which carried an Earth observation satellite EOS-02 and co-
passenger students' satellite AzaadiSAT.
Marks 3 1
Question In the context of Facial Recognition Technology (FRT), consider the following
No.100 statements:
1. It is an algorithm-based biometric technology which reads distinct facial
features.
2. It is used for both identification and verification of identity using the
database of facial maps.
Solution Facial recognition is an algorithm-based technology that creates a digital map

of the face by identifying and mapping an individual’s facial features, which it
then matches against the database to which it has access. So, statement 1 is
correct.
It can be used for two purposes: o Verification of identity wherein the facial
map is obtained for the purpose of matching it against the person’s photograph
on a database to authenticate their identity. For example, verification is used
to unlock phones. However, increasingly it is being used to provide access to
any benefits or government schemes. o Identification of identity wherein the
facial map is obtained from a photograph or video and then matched against
the entire database to identify the person in the photograph or video. Law
enforcement agencies such as the Delhi Police usually procure FRT for
identification. So, statement 2 is correct.
Marks 3 1

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Test No- 1

Option (a) Nameri National Park Incorrect

Option (b) Eravikulam National Park Incorrect

Option (c) Kudremukh National Park Correct

Option (d) Bannerghatta National Park Incorrect

Solution Kudremukh National Park is a beautiful place, located in the Dakshina

Option (a) Pachmarhi Incorrect

Option (b) Achanakmar-Amarkantak Correct

Option (c) Agasthyamalai Incorrect

Option (d) Similipal Incorrect

Solution The Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is the most dramatic and

Option (a) 1 and 2 only Incorrect

Option (b) 2 and 3 only Correct

Option (c) 1 and 3 only Incorrect

Option (d) 1, 2 and 3 Incorrect

Option (a) 1, 2 and 3 Incorrect

Option (b) 1 and 3 only Correct

Option (c) 1 only Incorrect

Option (d) 2 and 3 only Incorrect

Solution Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary:

Option (a) 3 only Incorrect

Option (b) 1, 2 and 3 Incorrect

Option (c) 2 only Incorrect

Option (d) 1 and 3 only Correct

Option (a) They protect communities from the Incorrect

Option (b) Many animals reproduce and Correct

Option (c) They boost property values and Incorrect

Option (d) They form a buffer zone between Incorrect

Option (a) 1 and 2 only Incorrect

Option (b) 2 and 3 only Incorrect

Option (c) 1 and 3 only Incorrect

Option (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct

Solution Bioaccumulation is defined as the net accumulation of a contaminant in or on

Option (a) Both of these protected areas are Correct

Option (b) Keoladeo National Park is located in Incorrect

Option (c) Both are part of the UNESCO Man Incorrect

Option (d) Both are completely enclosed by a Incorrect

Option (a) 1, 2 and 4 only Incorrect

Option (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Correct

Option (c) 3, 4 and 6 only Incorrect

Option (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only Incorrect

Option (a) It is the water depth at which the Incorrect

Option (b) It is the water depth at which the Correct

Option (c) It is the water depth at which the Incorrect

Option (d) It is the water depth at which the Incorrect

Option (a) Only one pair Incorrect

Option (b) Only two pairs Correct

Option (c) Only three pairs Incorrect

Option (d) All four pairs Incorrect

Golden Mahseer: It lives in fast-moving waters, inhabiting hill streams with a

Dugongs: Dugongs are cousins of manatees and share a similar plump

Option (a) 1 only Correct

Option (b) 1 and 2 only Incorrect

Option (c) 3 only Incorrect

Option (d) 2 and 3 only Incorrect

Option (a) 1 and 2 only Incorrect

Option (b) 2 and 3 only Correct

Option (c) 1 and 3 only Incorrect

Option (d) 1, 2 and 3 Incorrect

Option (a) 1 and 4 only Incorrect