Roll No & Name: MM: 75, Time: 90 minutes

 There are 75 MCQ. Attempt all Questions, One mark for each Question. No negative marking.

1. In the first week Typhoid is diagnosed by:

a) Stool culture
b) Urine culture
c) Blood culture
d) Widal test

2. Which of the following vaccines can be used for prophylaxis against Enteric fever?
a) Killed whole cell vaccine
b) Purified Vi antigen vaccine
c) Oral vaccine
d) All of the above

3. For detection of carriers in Enteric fever, which of the following specimens is most
important?
a) Faeces
b) Blood
c) Urine
d) Sputum

4. In Widal test, the significant titres for H agglutinins is:

a) 1:50 or more
b) 1:100 or more
c) 1:200 or more
d) 1:400 or more

5. In Enteric fever, Salmonella may be isolated from:

a) Urine
b) blood
c) faeces
d) All of the above

6. Enteric fever is caused by which of the following serotype of Salmonella?

a) Typhi
b) Paratyphi A
c) Paratyphi B
d) All of above
1
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 7. Which of the following media is used for blood culture in cases of Enteric fever?
a) Bile broth
b) Tetrathionate broth
c) Selenite-F broth
d) Alkaline peptone water

8. Which of the following specimens is most appropriate for culture of bacteria in first
week of Enteric fever?
a) Blood
b) Faeces
c) Urine
d) CSF
9. Most important complication/s of Enteric fever is/are:
a) Intestinal perforation
b) Hemorrhage
c) Circulatory collapse
d) All of the above

10. Which of the following media does not serve as enrichment medium for Salmonella?
a) Tetrathionate broth
b) Brilliant green tetrathionate broth
c) Selenite-F broth
d) Alkaline peptone water

11. Currently drug of choice (DOC) of Enteric fever is:

a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Azithromycin
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Chloramphenicol

12. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is transmitted by faeco-oral route?

a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Hepatitis C virus
c) Hepatitis D virus
d) Hepatitis E virus

13. Which of the following hepatitis viruses does not possess DNA genome?
a) Hepatitis B virus
b) SEN virus
2

c) Transfusion-transmitted virus (TTV)

Page

d) Hepatitis A virus
Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024
 14. Serologic test results from a hepatitis patient reveal- HBsAg-positive, anti-HBs-
negative, anti-HBc-positive, HBeAg-positive and anti-HBe-negative. What is the HBV
status of the patient?
a) Acute infection
b) Chronic infection
c) Fulminant infection
d) Immune

15. Serologic test results from a hepatitis patient reveal- anti-HBc-positive, HBsAg-
positive and anti-HBs- negative. The correct interpretation of the patient's status is:
a) No longer contagious
b) Immune to hepatitis B virus
c) Evidence of receiving hepatitis B vaccination
d) Hepatitis B virus chronic carrier

16. A 29-year-old patient with jaundice is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen
(HBsAg), HBeAg, IgM anti- HB and IgG anti-HBc but negative for anti-HBs and anti-
HBe The probable diagnosis is:
a) Acute hepatitis B
b) Past infection with HBV
c) Immunization with hepatitis B Vaccine without infection
d) Asymptomatic carrier state

17. Which of the following hepatitis viruses can be cultured in cell cultures?
a) Hepatitis A virus
b) Hepatitis B virus
c) Hepatitis C virus
d) Hepatitis D virus

18. What is the mode of transmission of hepatitis E virus?

a) Faecally contaminated drinking water
b) Infected syringes and needles
c) Sexual intercourse
d) Droplet infection

19. Which of the following viruses can be transmitted the parenteral route?
a) HBV
b) HDV
c) HCV
3

d) All of the above

Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 20. Which of the following infections is most serious?
a) Infection with HBV alone
b) Coinfection of HBV and HDV
c) Superinfection of HBsAg carrier by HDV
d) Infection with HDV alone

21. Which of the following is a defective satellite virus?

a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Hepatitis C virus
c) Hepatitis D virus
d) Hepatitis E virus

22. Which of the following statements is not correct for hepatitis A virus?
a) It has only one serotype
b) It is one of the most stable viruses infecting humans
c) It can be grown in cell cultures of primate and human cells
d) It may cause hepatocellular carcinoma

23. Following statement is true about which of the following parasites? It infects most
species of warm-blooded animals, including humans. Members of cat family Felidae
are the only definitive hosts for the sexual stage of this parasite and thus are main
reservoir of infection.
a) Cyclospora cayetanensis
b) Cytoisospora belli
c) Toxoplasma gondii
d) Cryptosporidium parvum

24. An AIDS patient complained of watery diarrhoea (15- 20 motions/day). Modified

acid-fast staining of the stools revealed oocysts 4-5µm in diameter. What is the
probable organism?
a) Microsporidia
b) Cytolsospora belli
c) Cyclospora cayetanensis
d) Cryptosporidium parvum

25. Which of the following parasites should be of special interest to pregnant women?
a) Isospora belli
b) Toxoplasma gondii
c) Ascaris lumbricoides
4

d) Endolimax nana
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 26. One of the major features that can be used to differentiate Cyclospora cayetanensis &
Cryptosporidium parvum is:
a) Shape
b) Colour
c) Size
d) Refractility

27. Which of the following statements is/are correct for the protozoan parasite
Toxoplasma gondii?
a) It is obligate intracellular parasite
b) It produces infective oocysts
c) It infects cat, pigs, sheep and man
d) All of the above

28. Oocysts of which of the following parasites are infective, when passed in stools?
a) Cytoisospora belli
b) Cyclospora cayetanensis
c) Cryptosporidium parvum
d) All of the above

29. Single most important agent of traveler’s diarrhea:

a) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b) Enteroaggregative E. coli
c) Campylobacter jejuni
d) NTS

30. All of the following are common causes of diarrheal disease in persons with HIV
infection, except:
a) Cytolsospora belli
b) Cyclospora cayetanensis
c) Cryptosporidium parvum
d) Toxoplasma gondii

31. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for the diagnosis of

a) Histoplasmosis
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) Leishmaniasis
d) Chagas disease
5
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 32. Definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii is:
a) Cat
b) Dog
c) Cattle
d) Man

33. Which of the following stains is used for demonstration of Cryptosporidium oocysts
in stool?
a) Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain
b) Haematoxylin and eosin
c) Iron haematoxylin
d) Gram's staining

34. Which of the following tapeworms is acquired by eating raw or undercooked pork?
a) Taenia saginata
b) Taenia solium
c) Diphyllobothrium latum
d) Hymenolepis nana

35. Larval form of Echinococcus granulosus is called

a) Cysticercus cellulosae
b) Cysticercus bovis
c) Cysticercoid
d) Hydatid cyst

36. Man serves as an intermediate host of

a) Echinococcus granulosus
b) Taenia saginata
c) Wuchereria bancrofti
d) Diphyllobothrium latum

37. Cysticercoid is the larval form of:

a) Taenia solium
b) H. nana
c) Echinococcus granulosus
d) Echinococcus multilocularis
6
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 38. Rat tapeworm is the common name of:
a) Hymenolepis nana
b) Hymenolepis diminuta
c) Taenia saginata
d) Diphyllobothrium latum

39. An AIDS patient complained of watery diarrhea (15-20 motions/day). Modified acid-
fast staining of the stools revealed oocysts 4-5µm in diameter. What is the probable
organism?
a) Microsporidia.
b) Cytoisospora belli
c) Cyclospora cayetanensis
d) Cryptosporidium parvum

40. Non-parenteral hepatitis is

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis D

41. Which of the following hepatitis virus is a DNA virus-

a) Hepatitis C virus
b) Hepatitis B virus
c) Delta agent
d) Hepatitis E virus

42. Australian antigen is associated with

a) HBsAg
b) HBcAg
c) HBeAg
d) None of above

43. Which is not true about hepatitis B virus

a) DNA virus
b) Transmitted by faeco-oral route
c) Can be transmitted from mother to child
d) Contains reverse transcriptase
7
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 44. Incubation period of HBV is
a) 45 to180 days
b) 6 to 60 days
c) 10 days
d) 10 hrs

45. Best epidemiological tool for investigation of hepatitis B is

a) Anti-HBsAg
b) anti-HBeAg
c) anti-HBeAg
d) HBeAg

46. A mother is HBsAg is positive at 32 weeks of pregnancy. What should be given to

newborn to prevent the neonatal infection?
a) Hepatitis B vaccine plus immunoglobulin
b) Immunoglobulin only
c) Hepatitis B vaccine only
d) Immunoglobulin followed by vaccine 1 month later

47. Cultivable (in vitro) hepatitis is

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis D

48. Transmission of hepatitis A virus occur

a) One week before and one week after onset of symptoms
b) 2 week before & 2 week after onset of symptoms
c) 2 week after onset of symptoms
d) 1 week after onset of symptoms

49. HCV is associated with

a) Anti-LKM-1 antibody & Cryoglobulinemia
b) Scleroderma
c) Polyartritis nodosa
d) None of these
8
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 50. With which of the following viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal
mortality is highest
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis E

51. Rotavirus vaccine is given by which route?

a) Intramuscular
b) Intravenous
c) Oral
d) Subcutaneous

52. A patient presents with lower gastrointestinal bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcer in
the sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask shaped ulcers. Which of the following
is the most appropriate treatment?
a) IV ceftriaxone
b) IV metronidazole
c) IV steroids & sulfasalazine
d) Hydrocortisone enemas

53. An anxious mother brought four year daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was
passing loose bulky stool for past 20 days. It was associated with pain abdomen. Stool
examination was done. Which showed the following organisms? Identify the organism
a) E. histolytica
b) G. lamblia
c) Cryptosporidium
d) E. coli

54. Meleny ’s gangrene cause by

a) Bacteroids
b) Fusobacterium
c) Peptostreptococcus
d) Eubacterium

55. Target haemolysis is exhibited by

a) C. perfringens
b) C. tetani
c) C. botulium
9

d) C. septicum
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 56. True statement regarding H. pylori
a) Motile with unipolar flagella
b) Curved gram negative bacilli
c) Sea gull shaped
d) All of the above

57. Shape of the Rotavirus is

a) Wheel shaped
b) Star shaped
c) Petal shaped
d) Space vehicle shaped

58. Most common causative agent of native valve endocarditis

a) Pneumococci
b) S. aureus
c) Enterobacter
d) S. pyogenes

59. Duke’s criteria for infective endocarditis includes all, Except

a) Single positive blood culture for Coxiella
b) Negative Rheumatoid factor
c) Osler’s node
d) Pyrexia > 380C

60. Type of anemia cause by hook worm infestation -

a) Microcytic hypochromic anemia
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Haemolytic anemia
d) None of above

61. A patient of RHD developed infective endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely
organisms causing this
a) S. viridans
b) S. peumonae
c) S. pyogenes
d) S. aureus
10
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 62. Group A carbohydrate of S. pyogenes cross reacts with human
a) Synovial fluid
b) Myocardium
c) Cardiac valve
d) Vascular intima

63. Incubation period for food poisoning due to S. aureus enterotoxin

a) >16 hours
b) 1-6 hours
c) 8-16 hours
d) >24 hours

64. With which of the following viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal
mortality is highest
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis E

65. Rotavirus vaccine is given by which route?

a) Intramuscular
b) Intravenous
c) Oral
d) subcutaneous

66. Normal habitat of Giardia is

a) Duodeum and jejuum
b) Stomach
c) Caecum
d) ileum

67. Which of following conditions are caused by Helicobacter pylori?

a) Chronic active gastritis
b) Duodenitis
c) Peptic ulceration
d) All of the above
11
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 68. Which of the following tests is/are useful in identification of H. pylori?
a) Warthin-starry silver staining
b) Biopsy urease test
c) Urea breath test
d) All of the above

69. H. pylori are able to survive the acidic conditions of the stomach by producing which
of the following enzymes?
a) β-galactosidase
b) Amylase
c) Urease
d) coagulase

70. What is the efficiency of transmission of HIV by the sexual route?

a) 0.1-1% per episode
b) 2-10% per episode
c) 15-50 % per episode
d) 80-90 % per episode

71. Which cells are infected by HIV most often?

a) CD+4 T lymphocytes
b) CD+8 T lymphocytes
c) Null cells
d) B cells

72. Which is the commonest opportunistic infection inAIDS patient in India?

a) Tuberculosis
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) Cryptosporidiosis
d) Cryptococcosis

73. Risk of acquisition of HIV infection from needle stick injury from HIV-positive
person is
a) 0.3%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 15%
12
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024

 74. Shape of the Rotavirus is
a) Wheel shaped
b) Star shaped
c) Petal shaped
d) Space vehicle shaped

75. A patient complains of persistent high fever, malaise and constipation for the last one
week. A physical examination reveals an enlarged spleen and tender abdomen with
rose-coloured spots. Laboratory has isolated a bacterium which is motile Gram-
negative bacillus and produces H2S. Which of the following organisms is most likely
cause of illness?
a) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b) Salmonella serotype Enteritidis
c) S. serotype Typhi
d) Shigella dysenteriae

*******
13
Page

Department of microbiology; ASMC, Shahjahanpur 07-Jun-2024