1.

All of the following are spore-forming bacilli, except:

a. Bacillus anthracis
c. Clostridium perfringens
b. Haemophilus aegyptius
d. Bacillus cereus
2. A slow-growing Mycobacterium that typically produces a rough buff colored colony that is
nonchromogenic in a light test:
a. M. kansasi
c. M. tuberculosis
b. M. scrofulaceum
d. M. leprae
3. A medium that is used for culture of B. pertussis:
a. L-J medium
c. Bordet-Gengou
b. SS agar
d. TSI agar
4. A probable etiologic agent of acute pharyngitis:
a. S. viridans
c. Betahemolytic S. grp.
b. S. pyogenes
d. S. pneumoniae
5. The function of 10% potassium hydroxide in the direct examination of skin, hair, and nail
scrapping is to:
a. Kill contaminating bacteria
c. preserve fungal elements
b. Clear and dissolve debris
d. preparation subsequent staining
6. H. influenza satellite around colonies of:
a. S. pneumoniae
c. S. gonorrhea
b. C. diphtheriae
d. S. aureus
7. Eschericheae, Klebsiella, and Proteus species are frequently normal flora of the:
a. Skins surface
c. respiratory tract
b. Urinary tract
d. Gastrointestinal tract
8. A mucolytic agent that digests tenacious sputum specimens:
a. 5-10% Co2
c. N-acetyl-L-cysteine
b. Nalidixic acid
d. Malachite green
9. An organism having the ability to grow in the absence of air of free oxygen;
a. Nonchromogenic
c. Obligate aerobe
b. Pathogenic
d. Obligate anaerobe
10. Staining method for acid fast organisms:
a. Ziehl-Neelsen
c. Loeffer methylene blue
b. Rees & Ecker
d. Wayson
11. The best time to collect blood sample for bacterial culture:
a. At the height of the fever
c. shortly before the expected rise in the body temp.
b. Early morning
d. before meals
12. Routine sterilization of artificial culture media by autoclaving is recommended at:
1. 10 psi at 121 degrees C for 10 mins.
2. 15 psi at 121 degrees C for 15 mins.
3. 15 psi at 200 degrees F for 15 mins.
4. 10 psi at 200 degrees F for 10 mins.
13. An inhibitory aid differential media that contains ingredients that select for
Enterobacteriaceae and related gram-negative bacilli:
a. Transgrow
c. MacConkey
b. SIM
d. Tinsdale
14. It is a complete destruction of living microbial forms:
a. Automation
c. Absorption
b. Precipitation
d. sterilization
15. What is the composition of mordant in gram stain?
a. Safranin
c. ammonium oxalate and iodine
b. lodine and potassium iodide
d. crystal violet and ethyl alcohol
16. What organism will give a metallic sheen on EMB agar?
a. Pseudomonas
c. E. coli
b. Salmonella
d. Serratia
17. Media used to demonstrate motility of the organisms:
a. EMB
c. Mannitol-salt Medium
b. SIM
d. Decarboxylate
18. The presence of indole can be proved by the addition of:
a. Methyl red
c. Methelyne blue
b. Kovac reagent
d. Potassium cyanide
19. Produces positive coagulate test:
a. Streptococci
c. Clostridium
b. Enterococci
d. Staphylococci
20. Purpose of Quellung test is to type organisms with:
a. Fluorescent pigment
c. A well defined capsule
b. Resistant strain of organism
d. flagellar antigen
21. Bile salts and crystal violet are incomparated into Mac Conkey agar in order to:
1. Colony will appear as red & white for easy identification
2. Inhibit the swarming of proteins
3. Inhibit the growth of gram positive organisms and some fastidious gram negative
bacteria
 4. Inhibit the growth of cholera vibrio and fungus
22. A 1% aqueous solution of tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride is a
presumptive test for the diagnosis of:
a. Escherichia
c. Salmonella
b. Staphylococcus
d. Neisseria
23. Formerly called Oxyuris vermicularis:
a. Pinworm
c. Tapeworm
b. Hookworm
d. Whipworm
24. The common name "hookworm" includes the following parasites Except:
a. Necator americanus
c. Ancylostoma caninum
b. Trichruris trichiura
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
25. It is the only amoeba pathogenic to man
a. D. fragilis
c. E. nana
b. E. coli
d. E. histolytica
26. Ribbon like worms consist of series of proglottids and scolex are called:
a. Nematodes
c. Cestodes
b. Trematodes
d. Flagellates
27. A large roundworm:
1. Taenia solium
2. Ascaris lumbricoides
3. Necator americanus
4. Tricchomonas hominus
28. Which of the following is not cestodes:
1. Hymenolepsis nana
2. Taenia solium
3. Taenia saginata
4. Necator aamericanus
29. The largest intestinal protozoa is:
1. Balantidium coli
2. Entamoeba gondii
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Taenia saginata
30. Beef tapeworm is:
a. Blastocyctis hominis
c. Chilomastix mesnili
b. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Taenia saginata
31. If only glucose is fermented the TSI reaction would be:
a. K/K
c. K/A
b. A/A
d. A/K
32. Gram negative organism produces no gas & no H2S, what is your suspect:
a. Shigella
c. Klebsiella
b. Salmonella
d. Schistosoma
33. Which of the following may produce thrush?
a. Aspirilium albicans
c. Candida albicans
b. Rhizopus argum
d. Aspergillus
34. What is the causative agent of whooping cough:
a. Franciella tularensis
c. Bordetella pertussis
b. Haemophilus influenza
d. Pasteurella multocida
35. Plague is caused by:
a. Yersinia pestis
c. Acinetobacter vaginicola
b. Providencia
d. Alcaligenes faecalis
36. Nocardia species that cause nocardiosis often are:
a. Gram-variable
c. spore forming rods
b. Obligate anaerobe
d. partially acid-fast
37. A phase in the bacterial growth curve that represent a period of rapid cell growth &
multiplication:
a. Stationary
c. logarithmic
b. Lag
d. death
38. The term pleomorphism is descriptive of the fact that:
1. Organisms may exist in various form
2. Organism is capable of budding
3. Bacteria can take various stain
d. Spontaneous generation can occur
39. Coxiella burnetti belongs to this group
a. Eubacteriales
c. Rickettsiales
b. Spirochetales
d. Actinomycetales
40. Infectious jaundice or Weil's disease are names given to case of
a. Endemic syphilis
c. Leptospirosis
b. Yaws
d. Borrelosis
41. Zinc sulfate flotation is not recommended for concentration of:
a. Eggs of Schistosoma mansoni
c. cysts of Giardia lambia
b. Oocyst of cryptosporidium
d. cysts of Entamoeba histolytica
42. All of the following are pH indicators used in media to determine shifts in pH except:
a. Neutral red
c. Methylene blue
b. Phenol red
d. Bromcresol purple
43. This is used to detect gas production in liquid medium:
a. Gaspack
c. Breweres
b. Durnham tube
d. Sray dish
44. Carriers of Neisseria meningitis may be detected by plating specimens on selective media
following collection from the:
a. Nasopharynx
c. spinal fluid
b. Urine
d. sputum
45. Production of a yellow pigment is characteristic of which species of Enterobacter?
a. E. sakasakii
c. E. cloacae
b. E. aerogenes
d. E. gergoviae
46. The sulfone dapsone is used for the treatment of:
a. Tetanus
c. Brucellosis
b. Leprosy
d. Cholera
47. Staphylococcus spp. Can be differentiated from Micrococcus spp. by:
1. Hemolysis on blood agar plate c. OF glucose test
2. Fermentation of mannitol
d. tube coagulase test
48. Acinetobacter species are similar to other Neisseria with the exception that Acinetobacter
are:
1. Catalase (+)
2. Oxidase negative
3. Glucose (+)
4. Gram (-) coccoid organism
49. All are DNA viruses except:
a. Papovavirus
c. Togavirus
b. Adenovirus
d. Herpes virus
50. Which of the following amoeba do not encyst?
a. Entamoeba coli
c. Endolimux nana
b.
Entamoeba gingivalis
d. lodamoeba butschili

1) Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state?

(A) Anabolism
(B) Catabolism
(C) Tolerance
(D) Homeostasis
(E) Metabolism
2) Which of the following best describes the human body's defense mechanism against
environmental bacteria?

(A) Hair in the nose

(B) Mucous membranes
(C) Osteoblasts
(D) Saliva
(E) Tears
3) Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleus?

(A) Lymphocyte
(B) Monocyte
(C) Erythrocyte
(D) Basophil
(E) Neutrophil
4) Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?

(A) Adipose
(B) Cartilage
(C) Epithelial
(D) Muscle
(E) Nerve
5) Which of the following allows air to pass into the lungs?

(A) Aorta
(B) Esophagus
(C) Heart
(D) Pancreas
(E) Trachea
6) Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?

(A) Abdominal
(B) Cranial
(C) Pleural
(D) Spinal
(E) Thoracic
7) Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?

(A) Alveoli
(B) Epiglottis
(C) Larynx
(D) Uvula
(E) Vocal cords
8) Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the
abdominal cavity?
(A) Appendix
(B) Duodenum
(C) Gallbladder
(D) Pancreas
(E) Spleen
9) Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the sternum?

(A) Epigastric
(B) Hypochondriac
(C) Hypogastric
(D) Lumbar
(E) Umbilical
10) Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?

(A) Abdominal and pelvic

(B) Cranial and spinal
(C) Dorsal and ventral
(D) Pericardial and pleural
(E) Thoracic and abdominal
11) Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the
body?

(A) Abduction
(B) Eversion
(C) Flexion
(D) Pronation
(E) Supination
12) In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?

(A) Dorsal
(B) Erect
(C) Lateral
(D) Prone
(E) Supine
13) If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?

(A) Inward
(B) Outward
(C) Upward
(D) Downward
14) The anatomic location of the spinal canal is

(A) caudal
(B) dorsal
(C) frontal
(D) transverse
(E) ventral
15) Which of the following is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis?
(A) Collagen
(B) Heparin
(C) Lipocyte
(D) Melanin
(E) Sebum
16) A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced, and the skin is
intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following?

(A) Closed, greenstick

(B) Complex, comminuted
(C) Compound, transverse
(D) Open, spiral
(E) Simple, pathologic
17) Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the
ischium?

(A) Calcaneus
(B) Femur
(C) Symphysis pubis
(D) Tibia
(E) Ulna
18) The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an X-ray
study of the fibula. The procedure will be performed on which of the following structures?

(A) Heel
(B) Lower leg
(C) Toes
(D) Thigh
(E) Pelvis
19) Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling
asleep during the day?

(A) Dyslexia
(B) Epilepsy
(C) Hydrocephalus
(D) Narcolepsy
(E) Shingles
20) Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to
another neuron?

(A) Dendrite
(B) Glial cell
(C) Nerve center
(D) Synapse
(E) Terminal plate
21) Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?

Poi g
(A) Adrenal glands
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thalamus
(E) Thyroid gland
22) Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell?

(A) Abducens
(B) Hypoglossal
(C) Olfactory
(D) Trochlear
(E) Vagus
23) Which of the following is a substance that aids the transmission of nerve impulses to the
muscles?

(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Deoxyribose
(D) Oxytocin
(E) Prolactin
24) Which of the following best describes the location where the carotid pulse can be
found?

(A) In front of the ears and just above eye level

(B) In the antecubital space
(C) In the middle of the groin
(D) On the anterior side of the neck
(E) On the medial aspect of the wrist
25) A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the left upper abdomen and requires surgery.
Which one of the following organs is most likely to be involved?

(A) Appendix
(B) Gallbladder
(C) Pancreas
(D) Urinary bladder
(E) Spleen
26) Where is the sinoatrial node located?

(A) Between the left atrium and the left ventricle

(B) Between the right atrium and the right ventricle
(C) In the interventricular septum
(D) In the upper wall of the left ventricle
(E) In the upper wall of the right atrium
27) Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into which of the following structures?

(A) Inferior vena cava

(B) Left ventricle
(C) Pulmonary arteries
(D) Pulmonary veins
(E) Right atrium
28) Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which of the following structures?

(A) Aorta
(B) Carotid arteries
(C) Inferior vena cava
(D) Pulmonary veins
(E) Superior vena cava
29) The thoracic cage is a structural unit important for which of the following functions?

(A) Alimentation
(B) Menstruation
(C) Mentation
(D) Respiration
(E) Urination
30) Which of the following substances is found in greater quantity in exhaled air?

(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen
(E) Ozone
31) Which of the following allows gas exchange in the lungs?

(A) Alveoli
(B) Bronchi
(C) Bronchioles
(D) Capillaries
(E) Pleurae
32) At which of the following locations does bile enter the digestive tract?

(A) Gastroesophageal sphincter

(B) Duodenum
(C) Ileocecum
(D) Jejunum
(E) Pyloric sphincter
33) Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine?

(A) Ascending colon

(B) Cecum
(C) Ileum
(D) Sigmoid colon
(E) Transverse colon
34) Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal
sphincter?

(A) Crohn's disease

(B) Esophageal varices
(C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
(D) Pyloric stenosis
(E) Stomatitis
35) Which of the following organs removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma
proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?

(A) Gallbladder
(B) Kidney
(C) Liver
(D) Spleen
(E) Stomach
36) Which of the following is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system that is
responsible for secreting insulin?

(A) Adrenal gland

(B) Gallbladder
(C) Liver
(D) Pancreas
(E) Spleen
37) Which of the following is the lymphoid organ that is a reservoir for red blood cells and
filters organisms from the blood?

(A) Appendix
(B) Gallbladder
(C) Pancreas
(D) Spleen
(E) Thymus
38) Which of the following best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles
contract to propel food through the digestive tract?

(A) Absorption
(B) Emulsion
(C) Peristalsis
(D) Regurgitation
(E) Secretion
39) Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients?

(A) Starches
(B) Proteins
(C) Fats
(D) Minerals
(E) Vitamins
40) In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from which of
the following structures?

(A) Anus
(B) Bladder
(C) Skin
(D) Testicle
(E) Urethra
41) Which of the following describes the cluster of blood capillaries found in each nephron
in the kidney?

(A) Afferent arteriole

(B) Glomerulus
(C) Loop of Henle
(D) Renal pelvis
(E) Renal tubule
42) Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones
(renal calculi)?

(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Interstitial nephritis
(C) Nephrolithiasis
(D) Polycystic kidney
(E) Pyelonephritis
43) Which of the following best describes the structure that collects urine in the body?

(A) Bladder
(B) Kidney
(C) Ureter
(D) Urethra
(E) Urethral meatus
44) In men, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and
surrounds the urethra?

(A) Epididymis
(B) Prostate
(C) Scrotum
(D) Seminal vesicle
(E) Vas deferens
45) Male hormones are produced by which of the following?

(A) Glans penis

(B) Prepuce
(C) Prostate
(D) Testes
(E) Vas deferens
46) Which of the following are mucus-producing glands located on each side of the vaginal
opening?

(A) Adrenal
(B) Bartholin's
(C) Bulbourethral
(D) Corpus luteum
(E) Parotid
47) Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following structures?
(A) Cervix
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Ovary
(D) Uterus
(E) Vagina
48) Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following?

(A) Androgens
(B) Catecholamines
(C) Electrolytes
(D) Estrogens
(E) Prostaglandins
49) Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system?

(A) Adrenal
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pineal
(D) Pituitary
(E) Thyroid
50) Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?

(A) Bell's palsy

(B) Crohn's disease
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Graves' disease
(E) Pernicious anemia